## Bank of India Clerks’ Grade Recruitment Examination (Ist Shift) Held on 26-09-2010 Question Paper With Answer Key

Bank of India

Clerks’ Grade Recruitment Examination (Ist Shift)

Held On 26-09-2010

Reasoning Ability and Numerical Aptitude

1. If each of the alphabets in the word ‘FAINTED’ is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right and then each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the new arrangement thus formed?

(1)   F

(2)   E

(3)   J

(4)   I

(5)   O

2. In a certain code ‘FAITH’ is coded as ‘HCKVJ’ and ‘NIGHT’ is coded as ‘PKIJV’. In the same code, ‘……….’ will be coded as ‘MTQOR’?

(1)   KRONP

(2)   OVSQT

(3)   TQSVO

(4)   PMORK

(5)   KROMP

3. The position of how many alphabets will remain the same if each of the alphabets in the word ‘FRIENDS’ is arranged in the alphabetical order from left to right?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   More than three

4. Town-D is 12 km towards the North of town-A. Town-C is 15 km towards the West of town-D. Town-B is 15 km towards the West of town-A. How far and in which direction is town-B from town-C?

(1)   15 km towards North

(2)   12 km towards North

(3)   3 km towards South

(4)   12 km towards South

(5)   Cannot be determined

5. Which of the following will come in p lance of the question mark?

XVU  WUT  VTS  USR  ?

(1)   TSQ

(2)   SQR

(3)   TVW

(4)   TRQ

(5)   QON

6. ‘1’ is subtracted from each odd digit and ‘1’ is added to each even digit in the number ‘4873529’. Which of the following will be the difference between the second digit from the left and the third digit from the right of the new number thus formed?

(1)   4

(2)   3

(3)   5

(4)   2

(5)   6

7. In a certain code language, ‘it is dark outside’ is written as ‘ha no ti ju’, ‘is it still raining’ is written as ‘pa ha da no’ and ‘go and play outsie’ is written as ‘su ju ye la’. How is ‘dark’ written in that code language?

(1)   ha

(2)   ti

(3)   su

(4)   ye

(5)   no

8. Sneha correctly remembers that last time when she travelled in the bus, she paid less than Rs. 10 but more than Rs. 4 for the ticket. Meenal correctly remembers that she paid more than Rs. 6 but less than Rs. 14 f The conductor of the bus correctly mentions that the fare for that distance is not an odd number. Which of the following is definitely the fare for that particular distance?

(1)   Rs. 8

(2)   Rs. 6

(3)   Rs. 2

(4)   Rs. 12

(5)   Rs. 9

9. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘SWA’ using each letter only once in each word?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   More than three

10. In an exam A, B, C and D each scored different marks. B scored more than C and D. No one scored less than A. Who amongst them scored the maximum marks?

(1)   B

(2)   C or D

(3)   D

(4)   Cannot be determined

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 15) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and the decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow

11. Statements : Some leaves are rots. Some roots are stems. All flowers are stems.

Conclusions : I. No flower is a leaf.

II. Some leaves are stems.

12. Statements : All numbers are digits. All alphabets are All words are alphabets.

Conclusions : I. All words are digits.

II. Some numbers are not words.

13. Statements : All p lastics are wood. No wood is a metal. Some metals are gases.

Conclusions : I. No plastic is a metal

II. Some gases are plastic.

14. Statements : All stars are moons. All moons are dust. All asteroids are dust.

Conclusions : I. Some moons are asteroids.

II. All stars are dust.

15. Statements : All umbrellas are rains. Some rains are clouds. All clouds are storms.

Conclusions : I. Some storms are umbrellas.

II. Some storms are not rains.

Directions (Q. Nos. 16 to 20) Following question are based on the five three-digit numbers given  below.

473  169  825  692  538

16. If two is subtracted from the middle digit of each of the numbers, how many numbers thus formed will be divisible by three?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   Four

17. If all the digits in each of the numbers is arranged in descending order within the number, which of the following will form the lowest number in the new arrangement of number?

(1)   473

(2)   169

(3)   825

(4)   692

(5)   538

18. If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order from left to right, which of the following will be the product of the second and the third digits of the number, which is second from the left end of the new arrangement?

(1)   18

(2)   54

(3)   24

(4)   21

(5)   10

19. If the position of the first and the third digit of each of the numbers are interchanged, in how many numbers thus formed will the third digit be a perfect square? (‘1’ is also a perfect square)

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   Four

20. What will be the resultant if second digit of the lowest n umber is divided by the second digit of the highest number?

(1)   4

(2)   2.5

(3)   1

(4)   5

(5)   3

Directions (Q. Nos. 21 to 25) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

(i) B sits third to right of F.

(ii) A sits second to the right of D. D is not an immediate neighbour of B and F.

(iii) C and E are immediate neighbours of each other.

(iv) H is not an immediate neighbour of A.

(v) No one sits between C and F.

21. Four of the following five are similar in a certain way based on their position in the seating arrangement and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1)   DA

(2)   BC

(3)   HG

(4)   AC

(5)   BD

22. Who sits to the immediate left of B?

(1)   H

(2)   G

(3)   A

(4)   E

(5)   None of these

23. What is the position of D with respect to E in the above arrangement?

(1)   Third to the right

(2)   Fourth to the left

(3)   Second to the right

(4)   Fourth to the right

(5)   Immediately to the right

24. In which of the following pairs, second person is sitting to the immediate right of the first person?

(1)   FA

(2)   BE

(4)   HB

(5)   None of these

25. Who amongst the following sits between G and F?

(1)   A

(2)   C

(3)   E

(4)   H

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 26 to 30) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.

C U B A E D E D A B E B A U C D B C A D B D U B C A C B E D A

26. How many such pairs of alphabets are there in the series of alphabets given in BOLD in the above arrangement each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   More than three

27. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of the sixteenth from the left of the above arrangement?

(1)   E

(2)   B

(3)   D

(4)   C

(5)   A

28. How many meaningful words can be formed with alphabets which are second, sixth, and seventh from the left end of the above arrangement?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   More than three

29. If all the A’s are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be eleventh from the left end of the above arrangement?

(1)   E

(2)   C

(3)   D

(4)   U

(5)   None of these

30. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a consonant?

(1)   One

(2)   Two

(3)   Three

(4)   Four

(5)   More than four

Directions (Q. Nos. 31 to 35) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

L, P, Q, R, S, T and W are sitting in a straight line facing North.

(i) P sits fourth to the left of L and L sits second to the left of Q.

(ii) R, who is not an immediate neighbour of L, sits to the immediate right of S.

(iii) T sits second to the left of W.

31. Which of the following pair sits at the extreme corners of the line?

(1)   S, L

(2)   P, Q

(3)   W, Q

(4)   S, T

(5)   None of the above

32. How many persons sit between R and W?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   Four

33. What is the position of L with respect to S?

(1)   Third to the left

(2)   Third to the right

(3)   Immediately to the right

(4)   Fourth to the left

(5)   Immediately to the left

34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1)   PR

(2)   ST

(3)   LQ

(4)   LR

(5)   TW

35. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to the original seating positions?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   Four

Directions (Q. Nos. 36 to 40) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by five combinations of number/symbol codes numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number of that combination as your answer.

Letter : H U I F M T C W E B Q K R P A

Symbol : 6 # 7 © \$ 5 3 ⋆ @ 2 4 % β 8 9

Code

Conditions :

(i) If both the first and the last elements are consonants, both these are to be coded as the code for the fifth element.

(ii) If the third element is a consonant and the fourth a vowel, the codes for both these are to interchanged.

(iii) If both the second and the fifth elements are vowels, the second element is to be coded as the code for the last element.

36. WUTABE

(1)   ⋆#[email protected]

(2)   ⋆#[email protected]

(3)   ⋆#[email protected]

(4)   ⋆#[email protected]

(5)   @#952⋆

37. MACBEU

(2)   \$#@32#

(3)   \$#32##

(4)   \$#[email protected]#

(5)   \$#[email protected]#

38. HEITQK

39. QEPMUA

(1)   [email protected]\$#9

(2)   498\$#@

(3)   498\$#9

(4)   49#8\$9

(5)   [email protected]\$#@

40. IREPAH

(1)   9β@899

(2)   7β[email protected]

(3)   7β@896

(5)   7β[email protected]

Directions (Q. Nos. 41 to 50) In each of the question given  below which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued?

41. Problem Figures

42. Problem Figures

43. Problem Figures

44. Problem Figures

45. Problem Figures

46. Problem Figures

47. Problem Figures

48. Problem Figures

49. Problem Figures

50. Problem Figures

Directions (Q. Nos. 51 to 75) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

51. 26 × 9 + 164 + 65 = 132 + ?

(1)   464

(2)   432

(3)   327

(4)   331

(5)   None of these

52. 15% of 640 – 16% of 750 = ?

(1)   −24

(2)   −16

(3)   26

(4)   16

(5)   None of these

53. 78 × 5 ÷ 2 – 26 = (?)2

(1)   √13

(2)   26

(3)   √26

(4)   (13)2

(5)   −13

54.

(1)   102

(2)   124

(3)   120

(4)   108

(5)   None of these

55.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)   None of these

56.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)   None of these

57. 48% of ? + 95 = 359

(1)   750

(2)   850

(3)   550

(4)   650

(5)   None of these

58. 39 – 58.46 + 79.98 = ? + 76.92

(1)   11.74

(2)   13.99

(3)   15.69

(4)   17.74

(5)   None of these

59. (40.5 × 7 × 4) ÷ 6 – (8)2 = (?)3

(1)   (5)3

(2)   √5

(3)   25

(4)   5

(5)   None of these

60.  5 × 5.6 ÷ 0.5 × 15 = ?

(1)   94

(2)   82

(3)   48

(4)   86

(5)   None of these

61. 5566 – 7788 + 9988 = ? + 4444

(1)   3223

(2)   3333

(3)   3232

(4)   3322

(5)   None of these

62. 56 × 15 ÷ 3 – 83 = ? – 139

(1)   314

(2)   334

(3)   316

(4)   336

(5)   None of these

63. 545 – 354 + 434 = ? + (8)2

(1)   541

(2)   652

(3)   561

(4)   632

(5)   None of these

64. (6)4 ÷ (36)3 × 216 = 6(? 5)

(1)   4

(2)   6

(3)   7

(4)   1

(5)   None of these

65. (161 – 231) ÷ 7 = ? ÷ (−4)

(1)   10

(2)   −10

(3)   −40

(4)   40

(5)   None of these

66. 74 – 22.66 + 15.19 = ?

(1)   24.27

(2)   23.52

(3)   24.52

(4)   23.27

(5)   None of these

67. (17 × 5) – (12 × 4) – 16 = ? ÷ 7

(1)   121

(2)   3

(3)   49

(4)   142

(5)   None of these

68. ? % of 600 + (10)2 = 352

(1)   46

(2)   42

(3)   52

(4)   56

(5)   None of these

69.

(1)   160

(2)   155

(3)   165

(4)   170

(5)   None of these

70.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)   None of these

71. 42 – 53.74 = ? – 62.86

(1)   260.44

(2)   340.44

(3)   350.54

(4)   450.54

(5)   None of these

72.

(1)   108

(2)   54

(3)   27

(4)   81

(5)   None of these

73.

(1)   √7

(2)   (7)2

(3)   7

(4)   (49)2

(5)   None of these

74. (2 × 3)4 ÷ (9 × 4) = ?

(1)   3

(2)   9

(3)   6

(4)   12

(5)   None of these

75. (13)2 – (4)3 – √676 + 2 = (?)2

(1)   3

(2)   9

(3)   81

(4)   27

(5)   18

76. The sum of five consecutive even numbers is equal to 230. What is the sum of the largest number amongst them and the square of the smallest number amongst them?

(1)   1684

(2)   1464

(3)   1784

(4)   1844

(5)   None of these

77. How many bags are required for filling 1026 kg of rice if each bag is filled with 114 kg of rice?

(1)   19

(2)   15

(3)   7

(4)   9

(5)   None of these

78. What is fifty five per cent of two-fifth of 1200?

(1)   284

(2)   246

(3)   264

(4)   254

(5)   None of these

79. The area of a square is three-fifth the area of a rectangle. The length of the rectangle is 25 cm and its breadth is 10 cm less then its length. What is the perimeter of the square?

(1)   60 cm

(2)   80 cm

(3)   44 cm

(4)   Cannot be determined

(5)   None of these

80. Raju purchased an item for Rs. 8200 and sold it at the gain of 25%. From that amount he purchased another item and sold it at the loss of 20%. What is the his overall gain/loss?

(1)   Loss of Rs. 140

(2)   Gain of Rs. 120

(3)   Loss of Rs. 150

(4)   Neither gain nor loss

(5)   None of these

81. Puja’s monthly income is two-third Dev’s monthly income. Dev’s monthly income is Rs. 36000. What is Puja’s annual income?

(1)   Rs. 2.80 lakh

(2)   Rs. 2.88 lakh

(3)   Rs. 3.60 lakh

(4)   Rs. 3.80 lakh

(5)   None of these

82. The length of a rectangle is 16 cm which is 2 cm more than the diameter of a circle. What is the area of the circle?

(1)   112 sq cm

(2)   176 sq cm

(3)   161 sq cm

(4)   132 sq cm

(5)   None of these

83. The simple interest accrued in 4 yr on a principal or Rs. 25000 is two-tenth the principal. What is the rate of simple interest per cent per annum?

(1)   5

(2)   4

(3)   6

(4)   2

(5)   None of these

84. Six men can complete a piece of work in 32 h. In how many hours, will 16 men complete the same piece of work?

(1)   18

(2)   16

(3)   12

(4)   24

(5)   None of these

85. The body weight of six boys is recorded as 54 kg, 64 kg, 75 kg, 67 kg, 45 kg and 91 kg. What is the average body weight of all six boys?

(1)   72 kg

(2)   62 kg

(3)   76 kg

(4)   66 kg

(5)   None of these

86. The ratio between the present ages of Indira and Lizzy is 3 : 8 respectively. After eight years, Indira’s age will be 20 yr. What was Lizzy’s age 5 yr ago?

(1)   37 yr

(2)   27 yr

(3)   28 yr

(4)   38 yr

(5)   None of these

87. The average speed of a train is  the average speed of a tractor. The tractor covers 384 km in 16 h. How much distance will the train cover in 12 h?

(1)   1396 km

(2)   1296 km

(3)   1406 km

(4)   1460 km

(5)   None of these

88. What value will be obtained if the square of 23 is subtracted from the cube of 9?

(1)   140

(2)   300

(3)   200

(4)   240

(5)   None of these

89. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in the following questions?

(1)   20

(2)   200

(3)   10√2

(4)   10

(5)   √20

90. Out of the fractions  which is the second highest fraction?

(1)   3/7

(2)   4/9

(3)   5/11

(4)   7/12

(5)   8/15

91. Rajeev consistently 415 m every day except on Sundays when he runs 500 m. How many km will he run in two weeks? (in this question week starts from Monday)

(1)   5.98 km

(2)   5.86 km

(3)   5.96 km

(4)   5.88 km

(5)   None of these

92. Amit got 44 marks in Hindi, 55 marks in Science, 77 marks in Maths, 79 marks in Social Science and 76 marks in English. The maximum marks of each subject are 100. How much overall percentage of marks did he get?

(1)   66.2

(2)   64.2

(3)   72.2

(4)   74.2

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 93 to 95) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

93. 7 11  19  35  67  (?)

(1)   121

(2)   153

(3)   141

(4)   133

(5)   None of these

94. 5 6  10  19  35  (?)

(1)   55

(2)   65

(3)   60

(4)   70

(5)   None of these

95. 1 3  8  18  35  (?)

(1)   61

(2)   72

(3)   67

(4)   52

(5)   71

Directions (Q. Nos. 96 to 100) In each of these questions, an equation is given with a question mark (?) in place of a correct symbol. Based on the values on the right hand side and the left hand side of the question mark, you have to decide which of the following symbols will come in place of the question mark.

Give answer if in place of question mark (?) following will come

(1) > (greater than)

(2) = (equal to)

(3) < (less than)

(4) ≥ (either greater than or equal to)

(5) ≤ (either less than or equal to)

96.

97.

98. [{34 – (2)2} × 5] ? [42 × 8 + (4 × 4))]

99. [133 – (88 – 72)] ? [(7)2 × 3]

100. [(21 ÷ 3) + (54 ÷ 9)] ? [(160 – 60) ÷ 4]

Test II

Clerical Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 101 to 135) In each question below, a combination of Name and Address is given in the first column which is unnumbered at the left followed by four such combinations one each under the columns (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out the combination which is exactly the same as the combination in the first unnumbered column. The number of that column which contains that combinations is the answer. If all the combinations are different, the answer is (5).

101. Tania Moses

72/21-C Narpoli

Bhiwandi-16

(1)   Tania Moses

72/21/C Narpoli

Bhivandi-16

(2)   Tania Moses

72/21/C Narpoli

Bhiwandi-16

(3)   Tanya Moses

72/21-C Narpoli

Bhiwandi-16

(4)   Tania Moses

72/21-C Narpoli

Bhiwandi-16

(5)   None

102. Thomas Mathew

Janata Nagar

Tardeo -4002216

(1)   Tomas Mathew

Janata Nagar

Tardeo -4002216

(2)   Thomas Mathew

Janata Nagar

Tardio -4002216

(3)   Thomas Mathew

Janata Nagar

Tardeo -4002216

(4)   Thomas Mathew

Janata Nagar

Tardeo -4002216

(5)   None

103. Janet D’Souza

Pundalik Nagar

Atto Betti/20

(1)   Janet D’Souza

Pundalic Nagar

Atto Betim/20

(2)   Jannet D’Souza

Pundalik Nagar

Atto Betim/20

(3)   Janet D’Souza

Pundalik Nagar

Atto Betim/20

(4)   Janet D’Souza

Pundalik Nagar

Atto Betim/20

(5)   None

S.V.M. Jankalyan

(W) 400126

Jankalyan Nagar

400126

Jankalya nnagar

400126

Jankalyan Nagar

400126

Jankalyan Nagar

400126

(5)   None

105. Rakesh Bhatia

Jacob Circle –VI

Mahalaxmi

(1)   Rakesh Bhatia

Jacob Circle –VI

Mahalaxmi

(2)   Rakesh Batia

Jacob Circle –VI

Mahalaxmi

(3)   Rakesh Bhatia

Jacob Circle –VI

Mahalaxmi

(4)   Rakesh Bhatia

Jacob Circle –VI

Mahalaxmi

(5)   None

106. Sunita Nair

Cumballa Hill Rd.

Fax 39462484

(1)   Sunita Nair

Cumballa Hill Rd.

Fax 39462484

(2)   Sunita Naire

Cumballa Hill Rd.

Fax 39462484

(3)   Sunita Nair

Cumbala Hill Rd.

Fax 39462484

(4)   Sunita Nair

Cumballa Hill Rd.

Fax 3946248

(5)   None

107. Brijesh Shetty

Mapusa-400511

(1)   Brijesh Shetty

Mapusa-400511

(2)   Brijesh Shetty

Duler Rd-56

Mapusa-400511

(3)   Brijesh Shetty

Mapusa-400511

(4)   Brijesh Shetie

Mapusa-400511

(5)   None

108. Harshdeep M.P.

Johnson Park

(1)   Harshdeep M.P.

Johnson Parc

(2)   Harshdeep M.P.

Johnson Park

(3)   Harshdeepa M.P.

Johnson Park

(4)   Harshdeep M.P.

Johnson Park

(5)   None

109. Samuel Torcato

Dahankur Rd.

New Delhi 23

(1)   Samuel Torcato

Dahanukar Rd.

New Delhi 23

(2)   Samuell Torcato

Dahanukar Rd.

New Delhi 23

(3)   Samuel Torcato

Dahanukar Rd.

New Delhi 23

(4)   Samuel Torcato

Dahanukar/Rd.

New Delhi 23

(5)   None

110. Manoj Sharma

Anand Bhavan-14

Pin 400801

(1)   Manoj Sarma

Anand Bhavan -14

Pin 400801

(2)   Manoj Sharma

Annand Bhavan -14

Pin 400801

(3)   Manoj Sharma

Anand Bhavan -14

Pin 400801

(4)   Manoj Sharma

Anand Bhavan -14

Pin 400801

(5)   None

111. Maria Fonseca

CHOGM Rd.-07

Ph. 9820182686

(1)   Marie Fonseca

CHOGM Rd.-07

Ph. 9820182686

(2)   Maria Fonseca

CHOGM Rd. -07

Ph. 9820182686

(3)   Moria Fonseca

CHOGM Rd. -07

Ph. 9820182686

(4)   Moria Fonseca

CHOGM Rd. -07

Ph. 9820182686

(5)   None

112. Nilesh Proab

Pant Nagar

Tel. 22664301

(1)   Nilesh Porab

Patna Nagar

Tel. 22664301

(2)   Nilesh Porab

Pant Nagar

Tel. 22694301

(3)   Nilesh Porab

Pant Nagar

Tel. 22664301

(4)   Nilesh Porab

Pant Nagar

Tel. 22664301

(5)   None

113. Umakant Shankar

Panaji 405116

(1)   Umakant Shankar

Panjim 405516

(2)   Umakant Shankar

Panaji 405116

(3)   Umakant Shankar

Panaji 405116

(4)   Umakant Shankar

Panaji -405116

(5)   None

Amrut Nagar

Wing-IV/C

Amrut Nagar

Wing-IV/C

Amrut Nagar

Wing-IV/C

Amrutnagar

Wing-IV/C

Amrut Nagar

Wing-IV/C

(5)   None

115. Jayesh H. T.

Pashan Gaon

Tel. 2409077

(1)   Jayeesh H. T.

Pashan Gaon

Tel. 2409077

(2)   Jayesh H.T.

Pashan Goan

Tel. 2409077

(3)   Jayesh H. T.

Pashan Goan

Tel. 2409077

(4)   Jayesh H. T.

Pashan gaon

Tel. 2409077

(5)   None

116. Sanchita Naik

Pune 590038

(1)   Sanchita Naik

Pune 5930038

(2)   Sanchita Naik

Pune 590038

(3)   Sanchita Naik

Pune 590038

(4)   Sanchita Naik

Pin- 590038

(5)   None

117. Alisha Shaw

Golegaon-IV

M. 9766201432

(1)   Ayesha Shaw

Golegaon-IV

M. 9766201432

(2)   Alisha Shaw

Golegaon-VI

M. 97766201432

(3)   Alisha Shaw

Golegaon-IV

M.9766201432

(4)   Alisha Shaw

Golegaon-IV

M. 97766201432

(5)   None

118. Amanda Rajesh

Belgium Embassy

Ph. 9920621825

(1)   Amanda Rajesh

Belgium Embassy

Ph. 9920621825

(2)   Amanda Rajesh

Belgaum Embassy

Ph. 9920621825

(3)   Amanda Rajesh

Belgium Embassy

Ph. 9920621825

(4)   Amanda Rajesh

Belgium Embassy

Ph. 9766201432

(5)   None

119. Tony Dcosta

Jairampura, 15

(1)   Tony Dcosta

Jairampura, 15

(2)   Tony Dcosta

Jairampura, 15

(3)   Tony Dcosta

Jairampur, 15

(4)   Tony Dcosta

Jairampura, 15

(5)   None

120. Sawant V. N.

Pin. 630001

(1)   Dr. Sawant V. N.

Pin. 630001

(2)   Dr. Sawant V. N.

Pin. 6300001

(3)   Dr. V. N. Sawant

Pin. 630001

(4)   Dr. Sawant V. N.

Pin. 630001

(5)   None

121. Veeneta George

Jaslok Hospital

(1)   Vineeta George

Jaslok Hospital

(2)   Veeneta George

Jaslow Hospital

(3)   Veeneta George

Jaslok Hospital

(4)   Veneta George

Jaslok Hospital

(5)   None

122. Kavita Nazareth

Sri Rama Nagar

(1)   Kavita Nazareth

Shri Rama Nagar

(2)   Kavita Nazareth

Sri Rama Nagar

(3)   Kavita Nazareth

Sri Rama Nagar

(4)   Kavita Nazaret

Sri Rama Nagar

(5)   None

123. Alisha Gouaco

1. 9324018605

(1)   Alisha Gouaco

1. 9324018605

(2)   Ayesha Gouaco

1. 9324018605

(3)   Alisha Gouaco

1. 9324018605

(4)   Alisha Gouaco

1. 9324018605

(5)   None

124. Shobha Shetty

Himayat Sagar

M. 9742027163

(1)   Shobha Shetty

Himayat Nagar

M. 9742027163

(2)   Shobha Shety

Himayat Sagar

M. 9742027163

(3)   Shobha Shetty

Himayat Sagar

M. 9742027163

(4)   Shobha Shetty

Himayat Sagar

M. 97420217163

(5)   None

125. Neeta Chauhan

Amanova IV/B

Park Town

(1)   Neeta Chauhan

Amanova IV/B

Park Town

(2)   Neeta Chauhan

Amanova IV/B

Park Town

(3)   Neeta Chauhan

Amanova IV/B

Park Town

(4)   Neta Chauhan

Amanova IV/B

Park Town

(5)   None

126. Khatrik Kalaga

Sun Villa-32

Sector No. 6

(1)   Khartik Kalaga

Sun Ville-32

Sector No. 6

(2)   Khartik Kalaga

Sun Villa-32

Sector-6

(3)   Kartik Kalaga

Sun Villa-32

Sector No.6

(4)   Khartik Kalaga

Sun Villa-32

Sector No. 6

(5)   None

127. Ivan Pinto M

Jaipur-631001

(1)   Ivan Pinto M

Jaipur-631001

(2)   Ivan Pinto M

Jaipur-631001

(3)   Ivan M Pinto

Jaipur-631001

(4)   Ivan Pinto M

Jaipur-631001

(5)   None

128. Suchita Roy

Tonk Phatak

D-Block NM8

(1)   Suchita Roy

Tonk Phatak

D-Block NM8

(2)   Suchita Roy

Tonc Phatak

D-Block NM8

(3)   Suchita Roy

Tonk Phatak

D-Block NM8

(4)   Suchita Roy

Tonk Phatak

D-Block NM8

(5)   None

129. Niraj M. Joshi

IV Avenue Panaji

(1)   Niraj M. Joshi

IV Avenue Panaji

(2)   Niraj N. Joshi

IV Avenue Panaji

(3)   Niraj M. Joshi

IV Avenue Panaji

(4)   Niraj M. Joshi

IV Avenue Panaji

(5)   None

130. Kunal Mehta

(1)   Kunal Meta

(2)   Kunal Mehta

(3)   Kunal Mehta

(4)   Kunnal Mehta

(5)   None

131. Kanwal Ture

Howarh 18/C

Kolkata-700328

(1)   Kawal Ture

Howrah 18/C

Kolkata-700328

(2)   Kawal Ture

Howra 18/C

Kolkata-700328

(3)   Kanwal Ture

Howarh 18/C

Kolkata-700328

(4)   Kanwal Ture

Howra 18/C

Kolkata-700328

(5)   None

132. Anushree Helen

New M.G. Nagar

M. 9726108521

(1)   Anushree Helen

New M.G. Nagar

M. 9726108521

(2)   Anushree Helen

New M.G. Nagar

M. 9726108521

(3)   Anushree Helen

M. G. Nagar

M. 9726108521

(4)   Anushree Helen

New M. G. Nagar

M. 9726108521

(5)   None

133. Yogesh Pinge

Barrackpore

Wing-2B/14

(1)   Yogesh Pinge

Barrackpure

Wing-2B/14

(2)   Yogesh Pinge

Barrackpore

Wing-2B/14

(3)   Yogesh F Pinge

Wing2B/14

(4)   Yogesh Pinge

Barrackpore

Wing-2/14

(5)   None

134. Akash Kumar

Raghunathgarh

Tel. 277541

(1)   Akash Kumar

Raghunathgarh

Tel. 277541

(2)   Akash Kumar

Raghunathgarh

Tel. 277541

(3)   Akash Kumar

Raghunathgarh

Tel. 277541

(4)   Akash Kumar

Raghunathgarh

Tel. 277541

(5)   None

135. Naik D.

Eden Colony

Varanasi 241

(1)   Mrs. Naik D.

Eden Colony

Varanasi 241

(2)   Mrs. Naik D.

Varanasi 241

(3)   Mrs. Naik D.

Eden Colony

Varanasi 241

(4)   Mrs. Naik D.

Eden Colony

Varanasi 241

(5)   None

Directions (Q. Nos. 136 to 140) Below in each question five words are given. Which of them will come at the third place if arranged in alphabetical order?

136.

(1)   Laureate

(2)   Laugh

(3)   Launch

(4)   Laundry

(5)   Laurel

137.

(1)   Host

(2)   Hostage

(3)   Hospital

(4)   Hostess

(5)   Hostel

138.

(1)   Derail

(2)   Depute

(3)   Deranged

(4)   Deputy

(5)   Derby

139.

(1)   Media

(2)   Meddle

(3)   Medal

(4)   Median

(5)   Mediaeval

140.

(1)   Complacent

(2)   Complaint

(3)   Complain

(4)   Compile

(5)   Complainant

Directions (Q. Nos. 141 to 145) In each of these questions, a group of letters is given which is to be coded as per the scheme given below. You have to find out which of the answers ( (1), (2), (3) or (4) has the correct coded form of the given letters and indicate it on your answer sheet. If none of the coded forms is correct, mark (5), ie, ‘None of these’ as the answer.

Letters : L M K P S Q V N T E W G D B

Codes : ~ 5  4  #  2  8  %  @  7  9  ⋆  >  6  =

141. NVBTPM

(1)   %@=7#5

(2)   @%=7#5

(3)   @=%7#5

(4)   @%=#75

(5)   None of these

142. PWQNKG

(1)   #⋆@48>

(2)   #⋆[email protected]>

(3)   #8⋆@4>

(4)   #⋆[email protected]>

(5)   None of these

143. PSVTGL

(1)   #72%>~

(2)   #%27~>

(3)   #2%7>~

(4)   #7%2>~

(5)   None of these

144. GSDLNQ

(1)   >[email protected]8

(2)   >[email protected]

(3)   >[email protected]

(4)   >[email protected]~8

(5)   None of these

145. KEMWBV

(1)   495=⋆%

(2)   459⋆=%

(3)   495⋆=%

(4)   459⋆%=

(5)   None of the above

Direction (Q. Nos. 146 to 150) The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas.

(1) Sports      (2) Health and Science

(3) Politics     (4) Economics

(5) Miscellaneous

146. The government has increased the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) to reduce the inflation rate by the end of the year.

(1)   Sports

(2)   Health and Science

(3)   Politics

(4)   Economics

(5)   Miscellaneous

147. There was an uproar over the release of the film in the state.

(1)   Sports

(2)   Health and Science

(3)   Politics

(4)   Economics

(5)   Miscellaneous

148. The match was postponed due to bad weather conditions.

(1)   Sports

(2)   Health and Science

(3)   Politics

(4)   Economics

(5)   Miscellaneous

149. Researchers found growing evidence of air pollution causing heart attacks, strokes and even death.

(1)   Sports

(2)   Health and Science

(3)   Politics

(4)   Economics

(5)   Miscellaneous

150. A new study that found green leafy vegetables reduce the risk of diabetes.

(1)   Sports

(2)   Health and Science

(3)   Politics

(4)   Economics

(5)   Miscellaneous

Test III

English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 151 to 165) Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once a rich merchant presented a beautiful cat to the Emperor of China. Eventually, the emperor became fond of the animal and took it with him wherever he went. Everywhere, people kept asking the emperor, what was the cat name and everyone was surprised, when told, that it had no name. As time progressed, the emperor realized that the cat should have a name thus he decided to find a suitable name for his pet. he called his ministers, the seven wisest men in his empire, and commanded them to find a suitable name within seven days. The minister were warned that if they do not succeed in finding a name by the end of seven days, they will be punished. Also, the minister whose suggestion will be accepted will receive hundred gold pieces.

“Indeed you can’t !” piped up the seventh wise man who was the eldest among all seven. “A cat is a cat. How can one call a cat RAT? Also if a rat is more powerful than the others the cat is given more so because it is mightier than the rat.” The emperor was impressed with the seventh minister’s suggestion and decided to accept it. So the royal pet remained nameless in a way because from then on it was simply called CAT. But the minister who suggested his name was rewarded as promised.

151. Why did people get surprised wherever the emperor went?

(1)   because the emperor had a nameless cat

(2)   Because the emperor took his cat wherever he went

(3)   Because the emperor’s cat was crazy

(4)   Because the emperor got a cat as a present

(5)   None of the above

152. What made the emperor realize that he should give a name to his pet cat?

(1)   All cats had a name except his pet cat

(2)   Everyone laughed at his cat for being nameless

(3)   Everyone asked his cat’s name wherever he took it

(4)   The cat requested that it should be named

(5)   Both (1) and (2)

153. Why did the emperor not want to name his cat BRICK WALL?

(1)   He did not like brick walls

(2)   Brick walls are rough and hard but cat are not

(3)   BRICK WALL is a very long name

(5)   He felt BRICK WALL was a very funny name

154. What command did the emperor give to his seven wise ministers?

A. To find the name of his pet cat.

B. To find the name in a span of 7 days,.

C. To find his pet cat.

(1)   Only A

(2)   Both A and B

(3)   Only B

(4)   Only C

(5)   All A, B and C

155. Why was the cat named CAT at last?

A. The seventh minister proved that a cat is greater than all the other names that were suggested.

B. The emperor was impressed with the seventh minister’s suggestion.

C. It was a unique name and the emperor had never heard anything like that.

(1)   All A, B and C

(2)   Only A

(3)   Only B

(4)   Only C

(5)   Both A and B

156. What would be an appropriate name for the passage?

(1)   The emperor

(2)   The cat

(3)   The wise minister

(4)   A story of names by an Emperor

(5)   A cat named CAT

157. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?

A. Dragons can b low the clouds away.

B.Winds can blow the clouds away.

C. Brick walls can stop the winds.

(1)   Both A and B

(2)   Both B and C

(3)   Only A

(4)   Only B

(5)   Only C

158. According to the second minister, why was the name DRAGON better than the name TIGER?

(1)   Because the second minister liked dragons more than tigers

(2)   Because dragons are more ferocious than tigers

(3)   Because a dragon’s tail is always longer than the tiger’s

(4)   Because dragons can soar high in the sky while tigers cannot

(5)   Because tigers cannot breath fire while dragons can.

159. What reason did the first minister give for his suggestion?

(1)   Tigers and powerful creatures

(2)   Tigers are the most dangerous of all

(3)   Tigers resemble cats

(4)   Tiger sound royal and majestic

(5)   Tiger sounds better than any other name

160. Why did everyone start laughing at the sixth minster’s suggestion?

(1)   He suggested that the cat be named CAT

(2)   Everyone found the suggested name funny

(3)   Both (1) and (2)

(4)   He suggested the that the cat was better off without a name

(5)   He suggested that the cat be named EMPEROR

Directions (Q. Nos. 161 to 163) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

161. Surprised

(1)   Presented

(2)   Unaware

(3)   Appalled

(4)   Astonished

(5)   Disgusted

162. Exclaimed

(1)   Announced

(2)   Cried

(3)   Said

(4)   Quoted

(5)   Pointed out

163. Reflection

(1)   Image

(2)   Sign

(3)   Hesitation

(4)   Introspection

(5)   Picture

Directions (Q. Nos. 164 to 165) Choose the word/group of words which is the most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

164. Progressed

(1)   Dragged

(2)   Failed

(3)   Repeated

(4)   Stopped

(5)   Waited

165. Summoned

(1)   Dragged

(2)   Met

(3)   Rejected

(4)   Reached

(5)   Dismissed

Direction (Q. Nos. 166 to 175) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation if any)

166. The basketball match /(1) was organized and / (2) the sponsored by his / (3) father’s company. (4) No error (5)

167. There were many /(1) factors that contributed / (2) to the success / (3) of this experiments. (4) No error (5)

168. Child labour is /(1) considered to be / (2) illegal in / (3) many countries. (4) No error (5)

169. She always remembers /(1) to switch off all the / (2) lights and fans before / (3) leaving a rooms. (4) No error (5)

170. Inspite of the /(1) heavy raining Raj / (2) decided to go / (3) for the meeting. (4) No error (5)

171. Ragi may not taste /(1) good but it has / (2) very high / (3) nutritive value. (4) No error (5)

172. She wanted to reached /(1) home as early / (2) as possible because / (3) it was getting dark. (4) No error (5)

173. Rohan’s happiness knew no /(1) bounds when the results / (2) were announce because / (3) he had won the competition. (4) No error (5)

174. The royal guards were instruction /(1) to keep the palace / (2) gates closed as the / (3) villagers were agitated. (4) No error (5)

175. They were hoping /(1) to reach of time / (2) for the lecture / (3) but they were late. (4) No error (5)

Directions (Q. Nos. 176 to 180) In each question below,  four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5), ie, ‘All correct’ as your answer.

176. Information about the exam was displaid

(1)                                     (2)                  (3)

on the notice board. All Correct

(4)                    (5)

177. Richa promised to kleen her room on

(1)                     (2)             (3)

Sunday. All Correct

(4)                (5)

178. The robers tried to get into the house

(1)                     (2)                     (3)

through the balcony. All Correct

(4)              (5)

179. The strike continued for 3 days, because of

(1)                                                (2)

which the company underwent a huge loss.

(3)                                    (4)

All Correct

(5)

180. There were many seagulls on the beach

(1)                     (2)        (3)                        (4)

All Correct

(5)

Directions (Q. Nos. 181 to 185) Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in proper sequence for form a meaningful paragraph then answer the questions given below them.

A. When finally he regained consciousness, he saw that the sea was as clam as a pond.

B. “I’m always peaceful but it is the wind that creates waves and turns me into a monster”, the goddess continued.

C. “Do not blame me, my son,” said the goddess.

D. A man who had survived a shipwreck struggled mightily against the waves and finally succeeded in reaching the shore, more dead than alive.

E. The sea heard him shout angrily and took the form of a goddess to defend itself.

F. “How deceitful you are !” he shouted the sea. “You draw men into you showing your peaceful side but when they are to your power you put them in trouble”.

181. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence in the rearrangement?

(1)   C

(2)   B

(3)   E

(4)   F

(5)   A

182. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence in the rearrangement?

(1)   A

(2)   D

(3)   B

(4)   C

(5)   E

183. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence in the rearrangement?

(1)   D

(2)   A

(3)   C

(4)   B

(5)   F

184. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence in the rearrangement?

(1)   A

(2)   B

(3)   D

(4)   C

(5)   F

185. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence in the rearrangement?

(1)   A

(2)   E

(3)   D

(4)   B

(5)   F

Directions (Q. Nos. 186 to 190) Each sentence below has a blank/s, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word/s that best fit/s the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

186. Shweta has ……….. in Chennai all her life.

(1)   lives

(2)   living

(3)   lived

(4)   seeing

(5)   seen

187. Jimmy ……….. avoids playing tennis on weekdays as it is very tiring.

(1)   rarely

(2)   usually

(3)   greatly

(4)   highly

(5)   poorly

188. Bose ……. working in the bank for the last fifteen years.

(1)   will be

(2)   have been

(3)   to be

(4)   has been

(5)   plans to

189. Praful ……….. tobe promoted as he is very hard working.

(1)   afraid

(2)   hoping

(3)   tries

(4)   awaited

(5)   deserves

190. She …………… sang well ………. played the sitar very well.

(1)   also, a

(2)   no sooner, than

(3)   not only, but also

(4)   try to, and also

(5)   never, even

Directions (Q. Nos. 191 to 200) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage, against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case..

This happened thousands of years ago. Life was hard as people had to do all the work by themselves. A large number of people were (191) – they would travel from one place to another in search of food and shelter. While travelling one day, a man arrived at the (192). of a desert. he was walking on the sand, when suddenly, he came across a frightening creature it had extremely long, thin legs, a giant hump and a long neck. It was this neck that he extended towards the man, who scared out of his (193) ran away from the spot. the following day, he met the creature again. It was standing near a lake, (194) water. This time, the man was fascinated at what he saw – the creature putting its long neck into the lake and drinking water continuously. Then suddenly, aware it was being watched. The giant creature looked up and stared straight into the eyes of the man standing across. But this time, an (195) of water separated the two, and the man did not run away. he stood and watched the animal, which made no effort to come closer. In the following weeks, the man saw more such creatures, again and again. It seemed they were all over the desert, aimlessly walking about for miles on (196). The man began to observe the creatures very closely. He saw that they were vegetarian. Moreover, despite their huge size, they were remarkably meek and (197). And the stamina the creatures had was (198). They could walk the entire length of the desert without being exhausted. Observing them the man thought, “What if I (199) this creature and make it ferry all my staff ? I could then make the desert my home.” So, one day, while one of the creatures was dozing, the man went up to it and put a bridle in its mouth. Then he rode around on it, after placing an enormous amount of load on its back. With that, the taming of the camel was complete (for that was who the creature was). And ever since that day, the camel has faithfully (200) up to its title of ‘Ship of the Desert’.

191.

(1)   masons

(2)   cobblers

(3)   farmers

(5)   potters

192.

(1)   edge

(2)   base

(3)   banks

(4)   shore

(5)   line

193.

(1)   humour

(2)   mind

(3)   wits

(4)   life

(5)   face

194.

(1)   flowing

(2)   drinking

(3)   eating

(4)   watching

(5)   listening

195.

(1)   expanse

(2)   stretch

(3)   wedge

(4)   pond

(5)   element

196.

(1)   kilometres

(2)   metres

(3)   star

(4)   end

(5)   miles

197.

(1)   scary

(2)   gentle

(3)   ferocious

(4)   foolish

(5)   aimless

198.

(1)   unarguable

(2)   unbelievable

(3)   unforgivable

(4)   unbearable

(5)   unavailable

199.

(1)   tame

(2)   support

(3)   kill

(4)   eat

(5)   call

200.

(1)   been

(2)   ran

(3)   seen

(4)   lived

(5)   stood

## Bank of India Clerks’ Grade Recruitment Examination (Ist Shift) Held on 03-10-2010 Question Paper With Answer Key

Bank of India

Clerks’ Grade Recruitment Examination (Ist Shift)

Held on 03-10-2010

Reasoning Ability and Numerical Aptitude

Directions (Q. 1-3) The letters in the word PROTEIN are rearranged in such a way that the consonants are arranged alphabetically and then the vowels are arranged alphabetically.

1. How many letters will be there between R and I after the rearrangement?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   More than three

2. Which of the following will be the third from right after the rearrangement?

(1)   T

(2)   O

(3)   R

(4)   I

(5)   None of these

3. Which of the following will be the third from left after the rearrangement?

(1)   R

(2)   N

(3)   O

(4)   P

(5)   None of these

4. ‘26’ is related to ‘5’ in the same way as ‘65’ is related to

(1)   7

(2)   9

(3)   8

(4)   6

(5)   None of these

5. How many such digits are there in the number 724513 each of which is as for away from the beginning in the number as when they are arranged in ascending order starting from left?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   More than three

Directions (Q. 6-10) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

6.

(1)   342

(2)   346

(3)   345

(4)   348

(5)   None of these

7. 07% of 1250 – 0.02% of 650 = ?

(1)   0.625

(2)   0.545

(3)   0.615

(4)   0.745

(5)   None of these

8.

(1)   24

(2)   32

(3)   18

(4)   12

(5)   None of these

9.

(1)   5

(2)   50

(3)   500

(4)   2.5

(5)   None of these

10. 23 + 4632.14 – ? = 4022.12

(1)   5955.25

(2)   5595.25

(3)   5295.55

(4)   5255.95

(5)   None of these

11. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CREDIT each of which as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   More than three

12. ‘Cub’ as related to ‘Tiger’ in the same way s ‘Kitten’ is related to

(1)   Dog

(2)   Cat

(3)   Duck

(4)   Swan

(5)   None of these

13. ‘On’ is related to ‘Off’ in the same way as ‘Hot’ is related to

(1)   Water

(2)   Switch

(3)   Tap

(4)   Liquid

(5)   None of these

14. ‘MORE’ is related to ‘EORM’ in the same way as ‘SUIT’ is related to

(1)   TIUS

(2)   ISTU

(3)   IUST

(4)   TUIS

(5)   None of these

15. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters LMEA using each letter only once in each word?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   More than three

Directions (Q. 16-20) What will in p lace of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

16.

(1)   90

(2)   99

(3)   108

(4)   117

(5)   None of these

17.

(1)   3/2

(2)   2/3

(3)   3/4

(4)   4/3

(5)   None of these

18.

(1)   3/4

(2)   2/5

(3)   4/5

(4)

(5)   None of these

19. 12% of 580 + ? = 94

(1)   26.4

(2)   24.4

(3)   30.4

(4)   28.4

(5)   None of these

20. (3692 + 1863 + 2410) ÷ 125 = ?

(1)   63.82

(2)   63.92

(3)   63.42

(4)   63.72

(5)   None of these

21. In a certain code BROWN is written as CSPXO. How is PART written in that code?

(1)   OBQU

(2)   QBSU

(3)   OZQS

(4)   RBTU

(5)   None of these

22. If all those numbers from 1-40 each of which is exactly divisible by 4 and/or has 4 as a digit in it are removed, how many numbers will remain?

(1)   27

(2)   29

(3)   28

(4)   26

(5)   None of these

23. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1)   13

(2)   37

(3)   73

(4)   53

(5)   39

24. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

(1)   T

(2)   L

(3)   E

(4)   Y

(5)   X

25. In a certain code DEAL is written as ‘3524’ and LIE is written as ‘475’. How is IDLE written in that code?

(1)   7345

(2)   3745

(3)   7342

(4)   7245

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. 26-30) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

26. 59 – ? = 607.88 – 351.46

(1)   449.28

(2)   419.17

(3)   429.17

(4)   439.28

(5)   None of these

27.

(1)   193920

(2)   199320

(3)   199230

(4)   192390

(5)   None of these

28. (87)2 = (61)2 + (62)2 + ?

(1)   1

(2)   2

(3)   3

(4)   4

(5)   None of these

29. 1884456 ÷ 52346 = √?

(1)   1296

(2)   1156

(3)   1024

(4)   1444

(5)   None of these

30. (4000 + ?) ÷ 23 = 211

(1)   843

(2)   753

(3)   863

(4)   743

(5)   None of these

31. Pointing to a boy, Meena said, “He is the son of my grandmother’s only child”. How is the boy related to Meena?

(1)   Brother

(2)   Uncle

(3)   Nephew

(4)   Cannot be determined

(5)   None of the above

32. The positions of the first and the second digits in the number 421653 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the third and the fourth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the third digit from the right end after the rearrangement?

(1)   6

(2)   2

(3)   1

(4)   4

(5)   None of these

33. Ashok walked 5 m towards East, took a right turn and walked 10 m and again he took a right turn and walked 15 m. Which direction is he facing now?

(1)   South

(2)   West

(3)   North

(4)   South-West

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. 34-38) What will come in place of the question mar (?) in the following questions?

34. 764521 – 642436 + 179380 = ?

(1)   301465

(2)   301468

(3)   301488

(4)   301456

(5)   None of the above

35.

(1)   356

(2)   336

(3)   376

(4)   346

(5)   None of these

36. 3565 ÷ 23 + 4675 ÷ ? = 430

(1)   19

(2)   17

(3)   21

(4)   23

(5)   None of these

37. ?% of 8745 = 5159.55

(1)   49

(2)   54

(3)   57

(4)   47

(5)   None of these

38.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. 39-45) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :

M  2 R  D  E  K 5  7  B  J I 4 N  P  8  A  W  9  V 1  U  F  3

39. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between 7 and A?

(1)   P

(2)   N

(3)   4

(4)   I

(5)   None of these

40. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of the tenth from the left end?

(1)   P

(2)   N

(3)   K

(4)   4

(5)   None of these

41. Which of the following is the third to the left of the ninth from the right end?

(1)   N

(2)   K

(3)   1

(4)   P

(5)   None of these

42. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a consonant?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   More than three

43. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based in their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1)   RDE

(2)   57B

(3)   NP8

(4)   W9V

(5)   3FU

44. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   More than three

45. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a consonant?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   More than three

Directions (Q. 46-50) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

46. 1287935 – ? = 262041

(1)   1109584

(2)   1054982

(3)   1125804

(4)   1025894

(5)   None of these

47. 25 ÷ 0.10 × 0.04 + 0.006 = ?

(1)   0.16

(2)   0.006

(3)   0.1060.106

(4)   0.016

(5)   None of these

48.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)   None of these

49.

(1)   225

(2)   100

(3)   400

(4)   625

(5)   None of these

50. 874 ÷ 19 + 85 × 21 – 762 = ?

(1)   1069

(2)   1609

(3)   1960

(4)   1096

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. 51-55) Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2), if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3), if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4), if the data given in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (50, if the data in both the state3ments I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

51. How is ‘go’ written in a code language?

I. ‘come and then go’ is written as ‘5 3 9  6’ in that code language.

II. ‘go and play’ is written as ‘7 3 5’ in that code language.

52. B is brother of D. How is D related to E?

I. D is sister of M and B.

II. E is mother of M.

53. Among P, Q, R, S and T, who is the heaviest?

I. R is heavier than only P.

II. S is lighter than Q but heavier than R and T.

54. K is towards which direction of D?

I. D is towards North of N.

II. D is towards South of T which is towards West of K.

55. Who among B, C, D and W reached office first?

I. C reached office after W but before B and D.

II. B reached office after D.

56. The length of rectangle, which is 25 cm, is equal to the length of a square and the area of the rectangle is 125 cm, less than the area of the square. What is the breadth of the rectangle?

(1)   15 cm

(2)   20 cm

(3)   12 cm

(4)   10 cm

(5)   None of these

57. In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

150  450  750  1060  1350  1650  1950

(1)   1060

(2)   1950

(3)   450

(4)   1350

(5)   750

58. A car travels at the speed of 85 km/h and reaches its destinations in 5 h. What is the distance covered by the car?

(1)   485 km

(2)   325 km

(3)   450 km

(4)   425 km

(5)   None of these

59. How many rotations will the hour-hand of a clock complete in 72 h?

(1)   3

(2)   6

(3)   9

(4)   12

(5)   None of these

60. Students attending the flag hoisting function in a school are given 2 chocolates each. How many such chocolates should be ordered if 6354 students attended the functions?

(1)   12608

(2)   12808

(3)   12408

(4)   12508

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. 61-65) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. F is between C and A. B is second to the right of A. G is not an immediate neighbour of B. E is not an immediate neighbour of A.

61. Who is to the immediate left of E?

(1)   G

(2)   D

(3)   A

(4)   B

(5)   None of these

62. Who is between F and D?

(1)   B

(2)   G

(3)   E

(4)   C

(5)   None of these

63. Who is to the immediate right of A?

(1)   D

(2)   F

(3)   C

(4)   B

64. Who is to the immediate right of G?

(1)   E

(2)   B

(3)   C

(5)   None of these

65. Who is to the immediate left of C?

(1)   F

(2)   G

(3)   E

(5)   None of these

66. 1/4th of 3/4th of a number is 363. What is the square root of that number?

(1)   40

(2)   88

(3)   44

(4)   80

(5)   None of these

67. A man walks at the speed of 4 km/h and runs at the speed of 8 km/h. How much time will the man require to cover a distance of 24 km, if he completes half of his journey walking (12 km) and half of has journey running?

(1)   3 h

(2)   6 h

(3)   12 h

(4)   5 h

(5)   None of these

68. Three friends divide an amount of Rs. 45000, such that one of them takes 1/4th of the total amount and the other two divide the rest of the amount equally amongst themselves. What is the ratio of amount taken by one of the friends to the total amount taken by the other two friends together?

(1)   1 : 3

(2)   1 : 2

(3)   3 : 2

(4)   2 : 3

(5)   None of these

69. A company pays a rent of Rs. 25000 per month for office space to its owner. But if the company pays the annual rent at the beginning of the year the owner gives a discount of 5% on the total annual rent? What is the annual amount the company pays to the owner after the discount?

(1)   Rs. 285000

(2)   Rs. 275000

(3)   Rs. 300000

(4)   Rs. 295000

(5)   None of these

70. In a temple, the devotes are made to stand in 5 rows before entering the temple and only 265 devotes can stand in each row. On a certain day there were 4 rows of devotes at the beginning of the day, ,2 rows of devotes at mid-day and 5 rows of devotes at the end of the day. Each row had the fully capacity. How many devotes visited the temple on that day?

(1)   1060

(2)   2830

(3)   2925

(4)   2815

(5)   2915

Directions (Q. 71-75) In each of the questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.

Read the all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly know facts.

Give answer (1), if only conclusion I follows.

Give answer (2), if only conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3), if either conclusion I or Ii follows.

Give answer (4), if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Give answer (5), if both conclusions I and II follow.

71. Statements : Some trucks are houses, Some house are trains.

Conclusions : I. Some trains are trucks.

II. No train is truck.

72. Statements : All flowers are trees. All trees are fruits.

Conclusions : I. All flowers are trees. All trees are fruits.

II. All flowers are fruits.

Conclusions : I. Some kites are needles.

74. Statements : All chairs are buildings. All tables are buildings.

Conclusions : I. Some chairs are tables.

II. Some tables are chairs.

75. Statements : Some books are pens. All pens are papers.

Conclusions : I. Some papers are books.

II. All books are papers.

76. The difference between 3/4th of 2/5th of a number and 3/5th of 1/8th of the same number is 9. What is the number?

(1)   45

(2)   35

(3)   40

(4)   30

(5)   None of these

77. What is the area of a circle with circumference of 88 cm?

(1)   618 sq cm

(2)   516 sq cm

(3)   600 sq cm

(4)   615 sq cm

(5)   None of these

78. A students scores 55% marks in 8 papers of 100 marks each. He scores 15% of his total marks in English. How much does he score the English?

(1)   55

(2)   66

(3)   77

(4)   44

(5)   None of these

79. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

5690  5121  4552  3983  3414  2845  ?

(1)   2276

(2)   2516

(3)   2746

(4)   2356

(5)   None of these

80. Car ‘X’ covers a distance of 385 km in 7 h and car ‘Y’ covers a distance of 715 km in 13 h. What is the difference in the speed of the two cars?

(1)   2 km/h

(2)   1 km/h

(3)   3 km/h

(4)   5 km/h

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. 81-85) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

81. Problem Figures

82. Problem Figures

83. Problem Figures

84. Problem Figures

85. Problem Figures

86. The ratio of the present ages of Sunita and Viniat is 4 : 5. Six years hence the ratio of their ages will be 14 : 17. What will be the ratio of their ages 12 years hence?

(1)   15 : 19

(2)   13 : 15

(3)   16 : 19

(4)   17 : 19

(5)   None of the above

87. Find out the greatest possible number for which 30% of that number is less than 100?

(1)   331

(2)   335

(3)   325

(4)   333

(5)   328

88. ‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a + b + c = 130, then (b + c) – a = ?

(1)   38

(2)   42

(3)   44

(4)   34

(5)   None of these

89. Sharma takes loan of Rs. 25000 and repays an amount of Rs. 31000 at the end of 2 yr. What is the rate of simple interest at which he repays the loan?

(1)   8 per cent annum

(2)   6 per cent per annum

(3)   12 per cent per annum

(4)   9 per cent per annum

(5)   None of the above

90. If  is subtracted from  and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number?

(1)   2024

(2)   2104

(3)   2004

(4)   2014

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. 91-95) In each of the question given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

91. Problem Figures

92. Problem Figures

93. Problem Figures

94. Problem Figures

95. Problem Figures

96. The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer?

(1)   20

(2)   22

(3)   21

(4)   23

(5)   None of these

97. Each child from a certain school can make 5 items of handicraft in a day. If 1125 handicraft items are to be displayed in an exhibition, then in how many days can 25 children make these items?

(1)   6 days

(2)   9 days

(3)   8 days

(4)   7 days

(5)   None of these

98. The owner of a furniture shop charges his customers 15% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 9039 for a sofa set, then what is the cost price of the sofa set?

(1)   Rs. 7680

(2)   Rs. 7860

(3)   Rs. 7880

(4)   Rs. 7660

(5)   None of these

99. While withdrawing an amount of Rs. 49350 a customer by mistake collects Rs. 48150. The remaining amount is deposited back to his account by the bank, which shows the balance of Rs. 25376. What will be the customer’s balance after depositing the remaining amount?

(1)   Rs. 26576

(2)   Rs. 26676

(3)   Rs. 26586

(4)   Rs. 26686

(5)   None of these

100. 20% of the total cost of a plot with an area of 395 sq ft is Rs. 78210. What is the rate of per sq ft of the plot?

(1)   Rs. 1020

(2)   Rs. 999

(3)   Rs. 1000

(4)   Rs. 995

(5)   None of these

Clerical Aptitude

Directions (Q. 101-135) In each question below a combination of Name of Address is given in the first column at the let followed by four such combinations one each under the columns (1), (2)(3) and (4). You have to find out the combination which is exactly the same as the combination in the first column. The number of that column which contains that combination is the answer. If all the combinations are different, the answer is (5).

101. Vanavyl Dyes Ltd.

5 Balram Village

Tel-5492383

(1)   Vanavyl Dyes Ltd.

5 Balram Village

Tel-5492383

(2)   Vanavyl Dyes Ltd.

5 Bal Kam Village

Tel-5492383

(3)   Vanavyl Dyes Ltd.

5 Balram Village

Tel-5492383

(4)   Vanaval Dyes Ltd.

5 Balram Village

Tel-5492383

(5)   None

102. I. G. T. C. Chambers

Chamunda Lane

Chennai-36

(1)   I. C. T. G. Chambers

Chamunda Lane

Chennai-36

(2)   I. G. T. C. Chambers

Chamunda Lane

Chennai-36

(3)   I. G. T. Chambers

Chamunda Lane

Chenai-36

(4)   I. G. T. C. Chambers

Chomunda Lane

Chennai-36

(5)   None

103. Samrat Palak Gr.

Valmiki Towers

Tel-4182963

(1)   Samrat Palak Gr.

Valmiki Towers

Tel-4182963

(2)   Smart Palak Gr.

Vialmiki Towers

Tel-4182963

(3)   Samrat Palak Gr.

Valmiki Tawers

Tel-4182963

(4)   Samrat Palak Gr.

Valmiki Towers

Tel-4182693

(5)   None

104. Theresa D Pinto

Saneora Chawl

Ph-3694252

(1)   Theresa D Pinto

Saneora Chawl

Ph-3694252

(2)   Theresa D Pinto

Soneora Chawl

Ph-3694252

(3)   Therasa D Pinto

Saneora Chawl

Ph-3694252

(4)   Theresa B Pinto

Saneora Chawl

Ph-3694252

(5)   None

105. Ranganathan

Tel-958211890

(1)   R. Rangnathan

Tel-958211890

(2)   R. Rangnathan

Tel-958211890

(3)   R. Ramgnathan

Tel-958211890

(4)   R. Rangnathan

Tel-958112890

(5)   None

106. Asif Akhtar

H. No. 436/N

Waquar Galli-12

(1)   Asif Akhtar

H. No. 436/M

Waquar Galli-12

(2)   Asif Akhtar

H. No. 436/N

Waqar Galli-12

(3)   Asif Khtar

H. No. 436/N

Waquar Galli-12

(4)   Asif Akhtar

H. No. 436/N

Waquar Galli-12

(5)   None

Tel-26671243

Mathura Dairy

Tel-26671243

Tel-26671243

Tel-26671243

Tel-26671234

(5)   None

108. Suneel Mishra

Equino Holidays

Sect-C, Surat 16

(1)   Sunil Mishra

Equino Holidays

Sect-C, Surat 16

(2)   Suneel Mishra

Eqiuno Holidays

Sect-C, Surat16

(3)   Suneel Mishra

Equino Holidays

Sect-G, Surat 16

(1)   Sunel Mishra

Equino Holidays

Sect-C, Surat 16

(5)  None

109. Sundrabai Hall

Opp. L.B.S. Marg

Pin-358006

(1)   Sunderbai Hall

Opp. L. B. S. Marg

Pin-358006

(2)   Sundrabai Hall

Opp. L. B. S. Marg

Pin-385006

(3)   Sundrabai Hall

Opp. L. V. S. Marg

Pin-358006

(4)   Sundrabai Hall

Opp. L. B. S. Marg

Pin-358006

(5)   None

110. Plaza Banquet

Ph-26157964

(1)   Plaza Banquet

Ph-26159764

(2)   Plasa Banquet

Ph-26157964

(3)   Plaza Banquet

Ph-26157964

(4)   Plaza Banquet

Pin-26157964

(5)   None

111. Shyam Satham

15/22 K. Patil Rd.

(1)   Shyam Satham

22/15 K. Patil Rd.

(2)   Shyam Satham

15/1222 K. Patil Rd.

(3)   Shayam Satham

15/22 K. Patil Rd.

(4)   Shyam Satham

15/22 K. Patil Rd.

Nagpoda-96

(5)   None

112. Amarsons Pvt. Ltd.

Saluja Part 1

Tel-41857021

(1)   Amarsons Pvt. Ltd.

Saluja Part 1

Tel-41850721

(2)   Amarsons Pvt. Ltd.

Saluja Part 1

Tel-41857021

(3)   Amarsons Pvt. Ltd.

Saluja Pork 1

Tel-41857021

(4)   Amersons Pvt. Ltd.

Saluja Part 1

Tel-41857021

(5)   None

113. Samantha Parmar

Dagdi Lane-13

(1)   Samantha Parmar

Dagdi Lane-13

(2)   Samantha Paumar

Dagdi Lane-13

(3)   Samanta Parmar

Dagdi Lane-13

(4)   Samanta Parmar

Dagdi Lane-13

(5)   None

114. Sarang Kulkarni

HOD Marketing

Moricco Pharmas

(1)   Sarang Kulkarni

HOD Markating

Moricco Pharmas

(2)   Sarang Kulkarni

HOD Marketing

Morico Pharmas

(3)   Samang Kulkarni

HOD Marketing

Moricco Pharmas

(4)   Sarang Kulkarni

HOD Marketing

Moricco Pharmas

(5)   None

115. Fab Consultants

O. D. I. C. Colony

Tel-91867325

(1)   Fab Consultants

O.D. I. C. Colony

Fax-91867325

(2)   Fab Consaltants

O.D.I.C. Colony

Tel-91867325

(3)   Fab Consultants

O.D.C.I. Colony

Tel-91867325

(4)   Fab Consultants

O.D.I.C. Colony

Tel-91867325

(5)   None

116. Air Bharat Ltd.

172 ‘C’ Sect.M.

Cap. 46/VII/343

(1)   Air Bharat Ltd.

172 ‘C’ Sect M.

Cap. 46/VII/343

17/43 Park

(2)   Air Bharat Ltd.

172 ‘C’ Sect. M.

Cap. 46/VII/343

(3)   Air Bharat Ltd.

152 ‘C’ Sect. M.

Cap. 46/VII/343

(4)   Air Bharat Ltd.

172 ‘C’ Sect. M.

Cap. 46/VI/343

(5)   None

117. 17/43 Park

Avenue

Op. Heena Bazar

New Delhi-11

(1)   17/43 Park

Heena Bazar

New Delhi-11

(2)   17/43 Park

Avenue Opp.

Meena Bazar

New Delhi-11.

(3)   17/34 Park Avenue

Opp. Heena Bazar

New Delhi-11

(4)   17/43 Park Avenue

Opp. Heena Bazar

New Delhi-11

(5)   None

118. Surender Verma

H. No. 247/D

(1)   Surendra Verma

H. No. 247/D

(2)   Surendra Verma

H. No. 247/B

(3)   Surender Verma

H. No. 247/D

(4)   Surender Verma

H. No. 247/D

(5)   None

119. Kalsubai Metha

Fashion Wear St.

Ph-9322175649

(1)   Kalsubai Metha

Fashion Wear St.

Ph-93221176549

(2)   Kalsubai Metha

Fasihon Wear St.

Ph-9322175649

(3)   Kalsubai Metha

Fashion Wear St.

Ph.9323175649

(4)   Kalsibai Metha

Fashion Wear St.

Ph-93322175649

(5)   None

Bangalore-59

Ph-71735249

Bangalore-59

Pin-71735249

Bangalore-59

Ph-71735249

Bangalore-59

Ph-71735249

Banglore-59

Ph-71735249

(5)   None

121. Mohit K. Shastri

05 Shivaji Nagar

Pune-3142708

(1)   Mohit K. Shastri

05 Shiviji Nagar

Pune-3142708

(2)   Mohit K. Shastri

05 Shivaji Nagar

Pune-3142708

(3)   Mohit K. Shastri

05 Shivaji Nagar

Pune-3152708

(4)   Mohit K. Shastri

05 Shivaji Nagar

Pune-3147208

(5)   None

503/96 ‘A’ Block

Meerut-394843

503/96 ‘A’ Block

Meerut-394348

503/96 ‘A’ Block

Meerut-394843

503/69 ‘A’ Block

Meerut-394843

503/96 ‘B’ Block

Meerut-394843

(5)   None

123. Imran Deshmukh

Pin-173936

(1)   Imran Deshmukh

Pin-173936

(2)   Imran Deshmukh

Pin-173936

(3)   Imran Deshmukh

Ph-173936

(4)   Imran Deshmukh

Pin-173936

(5)   None

Fort House-27

New Rd, Byculla

Court House-27

New Rd, Byculla

Fort House-27

New Rd, Byculla

Fort House-27

New Rd, Byculla

For House-27

(5)   None

125. Sonubai Mhatre

Mahim (W)-21

(1)   Sonubai Mhatre

Mahim (W)-21

(2)   Sonabai Mhatre

Mahim (W)-21

(3)   Sonubai Mhatre

Mahim (W)-21

(4)   Sonubai Mahtre

Mahim (W)-21

(5)   None

126. Hotel Horizon

31/Amazon Valley

Ph-24815093

(1)   Hotel Horizon

31/Amazon Valley

Ph-24815093

(2)   Hotel Horizon

31/Amazon Valley

Pin-24815093

(3)   Hotel Horizon

31/Amazon Valley

Ph-24815903

(4)   Hotel Horezon

31/Amazon Valley

Ph-24815093

(5)   None

127. Clarity Opticians

312 Chakala Stop

Tel-28354018

(1)   Clarity Opticians

312 Chakola Stop

Tel-28354018

(2)   Charity Opticians

312 Chakala Stop

Tel-28354018

(3)   Clarity Opticians

312 Chakala Stop

Tel-28534018

(4)   Clarity Opticians

312 Chakala Stop

Tel-28354018

(5)   None

128. Kimaya More

M. H. D. S. Colony

IV/ ‘L’ 6585

(1)   Kimaya More

M. H. D. S. Colony

VI/ ‘L’ 6585

(2)   Kimaya More

M. H. D. S. Colony

IV/ ‘L’ 6585

(3)   Kimaya Mare

M. H. D. S. Colony

IV/ ‘L’ 6585

(4)   Kimaya More

M. H. S. D. Colony

IV/ ‘L’ 6585

(5)   None

129. Vaikunt Travels

Pandharpur-93

(1)   Vaikant Travels

Pandharpur-93

(2)   Vaikunt Travels

Pandharpur-93

(3)   Vaikunt Travels

Pandharpur-93

(4)   Vaikunt Travels

Pendharpur-93

(5)   None

Garwar Compound

Garwar Compound

Garwar Compound

Garwer Compound

(5)   None

131. Sashmita Sen

Final Touch Salon

Ph-38924639

(1)   Sashmita Sen

Finel Touch Salon

Ph-38924639

(2)   Sashmita Sen

Final Touch Salon

Ph-38942639

(3)   Sushmita Sen

Final Touch Salon

Ph-38924639

(4)   Sashmita Sen

Final Touch Salon

Ph-38924639

(5)   None

132. Ramakant Desai

Subhagriha-58

Cherapunji-1139

(1)   Ramakant Desai

Subhgriha-58

Cherapunji-1139

(2)   Ramakant Desai

Subhgriha-58

Cherapunji-1139

(3)   Ramakant Desai

Subgruha-58

Cherapunji-1139

(4)   Ramakant Desai

Subhgriha-58

Cherapunji-1139

(5)   None

133. Sarfaraz Momim

Ockwin House

Ph-9820492802

(1)   Sarfaraz Momim

Ockwin House

Ph-9820492802

(2)   Sarfaraz Momim

Ockwin House

Ph-9820429802

(3)   Sarfaraz Mamim

Ockwin House

Ph-9820492802

(4)   Sarfaraz Momim

Okckwin House

Ph-9820492802

(5)   None

134. Sudhakar Basu

Fun Grp Services

Tel-26357134

(1)   Sudhakar Basu

Fun Grp Services

Tel-26357134

(2)   Sudhakar Basu

Fun Grp Services

Tel-26351734

(3)   Sudhakar Basu

Fun Gpr Services

Tel-26357134

(4)   Shudhakar Basu

Fun Grp Services

Tel-26357134

(5)   None

135. Pithu Pattar Khan

Tasneen Manzil

Lucknow-19

(1)   Pithu Pattar Khan

Tasneen Manzil

Lucknow-58

(2)   Pithu Pattar Khan

Tasneem Manzil

Lucknow-59

(3)   Pithu Pattar Khan

Tanseen Manzil

Lucknow-59

(4)   Pithu Pathar Khan

Tasneen Manzil

Lucknow-59

(5)   None

Directions (Q. 136-140) Below the each question 5 words are given. Which of them will come at the third place if all of them are arranged alphabetically as in a dictionary?

136.

(1)   Round

(2)   Roam

(3)   Rotate

(4)   Rouge

(5)   Roast

137.

(1)   Salivate

(2)   Sandal

(3)   Sample

(5)   Salute

138.

(1)   Martyr

(2)   Mare

(3)   Marginal

(4)   Marks

(5)   Marsh

139.

(1)   Threesome

(2)   Thrive

(3)   Thorough

(4)   Thrust

(5)   Third

140.

(1)   Cord

(2)   Curdle

(3)   Curtain

(4)   Curt

(5)   Court

Directions (Q. 141-145) The letter group in each question below is to be codified in the following codes.

Letter                 : M   D   T  Q   A   L   H   S  V  C

Number Codes   : 7    0    3  8    6    1   4    9   2   5

You have to find out which of t he answer (1), (2), (3) or (4) has the correct coded from of the give letters and indicate it on your answersheet. If none is correct coded from give (5) ie, ‘None of these’ as answer and indicate it on your answersheet.

141.  DVTLMSQ

(1)   0231798

(2)   0312798

(3)   0231978

(4)   0321798

(5)   None of these

142. TACMQSH

(1)   3569874

(2)   3658974

(3)   3657974

(4)   3657894

(5)   None of these

143. AHDCTML

(1)   6450371

(2)   6405371

(3)   6403571

(4)   6405317

(5)   None of these

144. QCLHMVT

(1)   8547123

(2)   8514273

(3)   8454723

(4)   8514732

(5)   None of these

145. LDSAVHC

(1)   1069245

(2)   1906245

(3)   1096245

(4)   1096254

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. 146-150) The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas :-

(1) Politics

(2) Social Issues

(3) Sports

(4) Science and Health

(5) Miscellaneous

146. Sachdev will have to give up on her seat in the parliament.

(1)   Politics

(2)   Social Issues

(3)   Sports

(4)   Science and Health

(5)   Miscellaneous

147. 15 Dowry deaths recorded in a village during the same year.

(1)   Politics

(2)   Social Issues

(3)   Sports

(4)   Science and Health

(5)   Miscellaneous

148. A famous jeweler reports loss of jewels worth Rs. 2 lakhs.

(1)   Politics

(2)   Social Issues

(3)   Sports

(4)   Science and Health

(5)   Miscellaneous

149. A study shows, ‘Women more prone to Hypertension than Men’.

(1)   Politics

(2)   Social Issues

(3)   Sports

(4)   Science and Health

(5)   Miscellaneous

150. Indian Cricket team needs a new ‘Coach’.

(1)   Politics

(2)   Social Issues

(3)   Sports

(4)   Science and Health

(5)   Miscellaneous

English Language

Directions (Q. 151-165) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/expressions are given in bold in the passage to  help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

“My God, it speaks” uttered the Emperor of Brazil and the receiver of the Telephone slipped from his hand and banged aground. At the other end Alexander Graham Bell was still on line.

This incident goes back to 1876 when at an exhibition in Philadelphia (USA), ,Alexander Graham Bell was giving a demonstration of his new invention. This strange instrument known as Telephone was to revolutionize life in the years to come.

Bell was  born at Edinborough, Scotland. He was a teacher and, was dedicated to the noble cause of teaching the deaf and the dumb. Due to a severe illness, Bell was sent to Canada in 1870, where to he got engaged in helping the dumb-deaf to hear and speak. Thereafter, he shifted to the USA but continued with his work by opening a school for deaf to hear and dumb. Bell was fond of scientific inventions and was ever engaged in making some machines in his spare time. While at Boston, he tried to communicate through metal wire. his companion in this work was Watson. One day while experimenting with this instrument, Bell spoke to Watson standing at a distance. Watson was taken by a pleasant surprise as he had heard Bell clearly through his instrument. The instrument was a success and Bell patented it.

Graham Bell had some sterling qualities of head and heart. Apart from being as artist, he was a kind human being, ready to help the needy. He established an institution for the deaf and dumb children. He died in 1922 in Canada. The entire northern America paid him a tribute by hanging up their telephones for a while during his funeral.

151. The teaching activity undertaken by Bell was considered ‘noble’ particularly because……….

(1)   he was teaching the physically under-privileged persons

(2)   there was nobody else in the field of education

(3)   he was not accepting any salary of that job

(4)   he was a very famous scientist of his times

(5)   None of the above

152. The words uttered by the Emperor of Brazil suggest that her was extremely

(1)   angry

(2)   insulted

(3)   surprised

(4)   agitated

153. What according to the passage was the contribution of invention of telephone?

(1)   Interaction between two persons at some distance was possible.

(2)   Rich people were able to communicate with others

(3)   Graham Bell could converse with Watson regarding invention through telephone

(4)   It revolutionized human life

(5)   None of the above

154. Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as a quality of Graham Bell?

(1)   Lover of art

(2)   Kind natured person

(3)   Cooperative individual

(4)   Curiosity

(5)   All these are mentioned

155. Which of the following made Bell to invent telephone?

(1)   His activity of teaching

(2)   His service to the deaf and dumb

(3)   His keep interest in scientific inventions

(5)   The request from Emperor of Brazil

156. Graham Bell made the telephone call of his invention to the Emperor from the city of ……..

(1)   Edinborough

(3)   Brazil

(4)   Boston

(5)   None of these

(1)   treating a patient who was seriously ill

(2)   helping the deaf and dumb children to hear and speak

(3)   undergoing medical treatment for himself

(4)   devoting his full time to his invention

(5)   giving demonstration of his invention

158. Bell establishing an institution for the deaf and dumb children shows that he was ……..

(1)   an expert scientist

(2)   a curious explorer

(3)   a dedicated social worker

(4)   genuinely emphatic towards the technology

(5)   None of the above

159. The North Americans paid their last respects of Bell by

(1)   attending his funeral

(2)   suspending telephone lines for some time during funeral

(3)   establishing an institution for the deaf and dumb children

(4)   showing their readiness to help the poor and needy

(5)   patenting his invention.

Directions (Q. 160-162) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST NEARLY THE SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold?

160. Revolutionize

(3)   Illuminate completely

(4)   Change drastically

(5)   Emphasize favourably

161. Dedicated

(1)   Appointed

(2)   Deployed

(3)   Devoted

(4)   Relgious

(5)   Noteworthy

162. Apart from

(2)   At a long distance

(3)   Separated from

(4)   Inspite of

(5)   As against

Directions (Q. 163-165) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold?

163. Continued

(1)   Irregular

(2)   Destroyed

(3)   Reckoned

(4)   Suspended

(5)   Carried on

164. Pleasant

(2)   Disgusting

(3)   Nice

(4)   Indecent

(5)   Unexpected

165. Strange

(1)   Familiar

(2)   Unseen

(3)   Illfamed

(4)   Novel

(5)   Conservative

Directions (Q. 166-180) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) ie ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

166. A small piece / (1) of bread is / (2) better than / (3) having nothing to eat. / (4) No error/ (5)

167. Though I had been/ (1) his friend for quite a long time, /(2) I refused to help him/ (3) because his ill nature. / (4) No error/ (5)

168. Families are / (1) fortunate enough to own / (2) a house in the city / (3) are very few / (4) No error/ (5)

169. When he had been / (1) walked along the road / (2) a wild and ferocious dog / (3) hit him hard and knocked him down / (4) No error/ (5)

170. I am grateful to you/ (1) and all your friends / (2) for showing sympathy / (3) and kindness with me. / (4) No error/ (5)

171. That boy possess / (1) three beautiful pens / (2) but he would not / (3) show them to any one / (4). No error/ (5)

172. It was clear from the way/ (1) they were behaving / (2) that they had been / (3) lost their senses. / (4) No error/ (5)

173. Ramesh has been both/ (1) a dishonestly person / (2) and a gambler / (3) since his childhood. / (4) No error/ (5)

174. The boy who was guilt for/ (1) having broken the window glass / (2) came out / (3) with the truth. / (4) No error/ (5)

175. Your television set/ (1) is superior to / (2) our television set / (3) by all respects. / (4) No error/ (5)

176. I have been/ (1) living in Hyderabad / (2) at my uncle / (3) since my birth. / (4) No error/ (5)

177. He is the man/ (1) who I know / (2) has helped my son / (3) in the final examination. / (4) No error/ (5)

178. The number of employees / (1) reporting sick/ (2) has reduced significantly / (3) because of the incentive. / (4) No error/ (5)

179. Everyone of us know / (1) that the is not capable of / (2) remaining under water / (3) for such a long time. / (4) No error/ (5)

180. The leader was so shrewd/ (1) that he could not deceive / (2) by the words of / (3) the sycophant courtiers. / (4) No error/ (5)

Directions (Q. 181-185) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the question given below them.

(A) He felt that his honest ways were responsible for the poverty and starvation of his family.

(B) Sixteen miles away from Mysore, there is a dense forest.

(C) He told them how his honesty was useless and asked if he should try an alternative.

(D) They told him that they would prefer starving to dishonesty.

(E) Once there lived a poor but honest woodcutter in the forest.

(F) So he wanted to discuss his feeling with his wife and children.

181. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence?

(1)   (A)

(2)   (B)

(3)   (C)

(4)   (D)

(5)   (E)

182. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence?

(1)   (A)

(2)   (B)

(3)   (C)

(4)   (D)

(5)   (E)

183. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence?

(1)   (A)

(2)   (B)

(3)   (C)

(4)   (D)

(5)   (E)

184. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence?

(1)   (A)

(2)   (B)

(3)   (C)

(4)   (D)

(5)   (E)

185. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence?

(1)   (A)

(2)   (B)

(3)   (C)

(4)   (D)

(5)   (E)

Directions (Q. 186-200) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank approprimately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The Indian meterological department has sought permission to (186) a Doppler weather radar system used for long range weather forecasting. The gout had (187) the equipment in the wake of 26/7 and (188) to find a suitable location have been on (189) then. The key factor is that the radar’s antenna to be installed in an (190) area of a few square kilometers far from highrises, (191) at an attitude. The radar would also need to be (192) near the coast as it would be used to (193) high intensity storms or cyclones. MHLL has rinted it is willing to (194) clearance for the colabu site, but only after (195) the location. It was after (196) for locations across the city that the office proposed to locate the radar near the observatory. But the problem of finding a suitable site within the (197) still remains. The area is used conjusted. We will have to locate a site not only from the suitable (198) of view but also the radar needs to be at a height which is higher than all the buildings which are in the area are 13-14 storeys high. If at all its is to be set up at colaba, then it must be about the (199) structures so that signals relating the antenna are not (200).

186.

(1)   detach

(2)   install

(3)   launch

(4)   fix

(5)   attach

187.

(1)   granted

(2)   realized

(3)   obstained

(4)   seen

(5)   sanctioned

188.

(1)   try

(2)   project

(3)   commission

(4)   efforts

(5)   worked

189.

(1)   since

(2)   until

(4)   at

(5)   for

190.

(1)   inseparable

(2)   encumbered

(3)   unencumbered

(4)   Unpossessed

(5)   occupied

191.

(1)   hopelessly

(2)   hoping

(3)   enacting

(4)   preferably

(5)   undesirably

192.

(1)   erected

(2)   located

(3)   stalled

(4)   tied

(5)   build

193.

(1)   deduct

(2)   examine

(3)   fell

(4)   evaluate

(5)   detect

194.

(2)   launch

(3)   pass

(4)   grant

(5)   grand

195.

(1)   examining

(2)   study

(3)   scanning

(4)   combing

(5)   watching

196.

(1)   mareting

(2)   chasing

(3)   scouting

(4)   persuing

(5)   hurting

197.

(1)   campus

(2)   premises

(3)   area

(4)   perimeter

(5)   preinct

198.

(1)   site

(2)   point

(3)   angle

(4)   out

(5)   sight

199.

(1)   existing

(2)   enacting

(3)   demolished

(4)   planned

(5)   concectived

200.

(1)   stopped

(2)   hurdled

(3)   blocked

(4)   passed

(5)   halted

Held on 15-03-2009

Test I

Reasoning Ability

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?

(1)   56

(2)   35

(3)   49

(4)   42

(5)   51

2. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eight letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. If no such word can be formed your answer is N.

(1)   I

(2)   A

(3)   L

(4)   M

(5)   N

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, ,each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet ?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   More than three

4. If in the number 3856490271, positions of the first and the second digits are interchanged, positions of the third and fourth digits are interchanged an d so on till the positions is 9th and 10th digits are interchanged, then which digit will be fifth from the left end ?

(1)   6

(2)   4

(3)   9

(4)   0

(5)   None of these

5. In a certain MODE is written as #8%6 and DEAF is written as %67\$. How is FOAM written in that code ?

(1)   \$87#

(2)   \$#7%

(3)   #87%

(4)   \$87%

(5)   None of these

6. If the digits of the number 783219 are arranged in ascending order within the number, how many digits will be as far away from the beginning of the number as they are in the number ?

(1)   None

(2)   One

(3)   Two

(4)   Three

(5)   More than three

7. If in the word DOCUMENT all the vowels are first arranged alphabetically followed by all the consonants arranged alphabetically, then which letter will be fifth from the right ?

(1)   U

(2)   D

(3)   M

(4)   N

(5)   None of these

8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(1)   Salt

(2)   Pepper

(3)   Chilli

(4)   Corriander

(5)   Cumin

9. What will come next in the series ?

1 2 1 3 2 4 1 3 5 2 4 6 1 3 5

(1)   2

(2)   9

(3)   6

(4)   7

(5)   None of these

10. If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what is the value of ?

9 – 7 + 85 × 17 ÷ 15 ?

(1)   73

(2)   83

(3)   79

(4)   68

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. 11-15) : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decided which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow.

11. Statements : Some chalks and sticks. All sticks are pens. Some pens are notebooks.

Conclusions : I. Some notebooks are chalks.

II. No notebook is chalk.

12. Statements : Some stones are bricks. Some bricks are rods. All rods are windows.

Conclusions : I. Some windows are bricks.

II. Some rods are stones

13. Statements : All leaves are fruits. Some fruits are stems. All stems are roots.

Conclusions : I. Some roots are fruits.

II. Some stems are fruits.

14. Statements : Some bags are trolleys. Some trolleys are belts. No belt is machine.

Conclusions : I. No trolley is machine.

II. No bag is machine.

15. Statements : All fans are blades. All blades are computers. All computers are systems.

Conclusions : I. All systems are blades.

II. All fans are systems.

Directions (Q. 16-20) : These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arrangement. Study it carefully to answer these questions.

H I 6 D F 9 % ↑ R A B \$ 3 4 G E # 1 L Q M U 5 @ 7 J

16. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which element will be eleventh from the right end ?

(1)   G

(2)   3

(3)   4

(4)   E

(5)   None of these

17. Which element is seventh to the left of nineteenth element from the left ?

(1)   \$

(2)   3

(3)   G

(4)   E

(5)   None of these

18. How many such symbols are there in t he above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number or immediately followed by a number or both ?

(1)   3

(2)   6

(3)   5

(4)   4

(5)   None of these

19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1)   F6D

(2)   A↑R

(3)   L#1

(4)   5MU

(5)   E#G

20. Which element will be sixth to the left of fifteenth from the left if the order of all the elements is reversed ?

(1)   L

(2)   1

(3)   R

(4)   ↑

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. 21-25) : Each of the questions below consists of a questions and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decided whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

21. Among P, Q, R, S and T who reached the office first, if each of them reached in different time ?

I. R reached before Q only.

II. S reached after P only.

22. What is the code for ‘brave’ in the code language?

I. In the code language ‘boy is brave’ is written as ‘ha k a ta’.

II. In the code language ‘brave and clever’ is written as ‘na pe ka’.

23. How many children does Suneeta have ?

I. X is the only daughter of Suneeta.

II. Y is brother of X.

24. How many children are there in the class ?

I. Pole H is to the North-East of pole X and to the North of pole Y.

II. Pole R is to the East of pole X and to the North of pole Y.

25. Pole X is in which direction with respect to pole Y ?

I. Pole H is to the North-East of pole X and to the North of pole Y.

II. Pole R is to the East of pole X and to the North of pole Y.

Directions (Q. 26-30) : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Eight friends A, B, C, D E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. H is to the immediate left of E who is third to the right of B. C is second to the right of D and is not a neighbour of B. F is second to the right of G and is not a neighbour of C.

26. Who is second to the right of E ?

(1)   F

(2)   H

(3)   C

(4)   A

(5)   None of these

27. Who is third to the left of A ?

(1)   B

(2)   H

(3)   E

(4)   F

(5)   None of these

28. Which of the following pairs the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person ?

(1)   DA

(2)   AC

(3)   GC

(4)   BF

(5)   None of these

29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?

(1)   EC

(2)   AB

(3)   FD

(4)   HA

(5)   CH

30. Who is to the immediate left of B ?

(1)   G

(2)   C

(3)   F

(4)   D

(5)   None of these

Directions (Q. 31-35) : These questions are based on the following set of numbers.

358      426    853    674    592

31. If ‘1’ is subtracted from the middle digit of each number and then the numbers are arranged in descending order, what will be the sum of the digits of the second newly formed number ?

(1)   16

(2)   15

(3)   11

(4)   12

(5)   None of these

32. If in each number the first and the third digits are interchanged, then which number will be the largest ?

(1)   358

(2)   426

(3)   853

(4)   674

(5)   592

33. If the first and the second digits in each number are interchanged, then which number will be the smallest ?

(1)   358

(2)   426

(3)   853

(4)   674

(5)   592

34. If all the numbers are arranged in descending order what will be the difference between the third digit of second number and second digit of third number ?

(1)   1

(2)   2

(3)   4

(4)   5

(5)   None of these

35. If in each number first digit is replaced by the third digit, second digit is replaced by the first digit and third digit is replaced by the second digit, then which number will be the smallest ?

(1)   358

(2)   426

(3)   853

(4)   674

(5)   592

36. If the alphabets are assigned values such as A = 3, D = 6, G = 8, I = 2, L = 4 and T = 5, then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?

(1)   26

(2)   28

(3)   30

(4)   32

(5)   None of these

37. If in the word RECITAL each vowel is replaced by the next letter in English alphabet and each consonant is replaced b y the previous letter in English alphabet and then all the letters are arranged alphabetically which letter will be third from the right ?

(1)   F

(2)   K

(3)   S

(4)   J

(5)   None of these

38. AF : CH :: KT : ?

(1)   MU

(2)   LU

(3)   LV

(4)   MV

(5)  None of the above

Directions (Q. 39-40) : These questions are based on the following information.

‘A × B’ means ‘A is mother of B’.

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’.

‘A + B’ means ‘A is husband of B’.

‘A – B’ means ‘A is sister of B’.

39. Which of the following expressions indicate M is daughter of H ?

(1)   M – R ÷ H

(2)   M × R ÷ H

(3)   R + M – H

(4)   H × R – M

(5)   None of the above

40. In F + K × V – T, how is V related to F ?

(1)   Son

(2)   Niece

(3)   Nephew

(4)   Cannot be determined

(5)   None of the above

Directions (Q. 41-50) : In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued?

41. Problem Figures

42. Problem Figures

43. Problem Figures

44. Problem Figures

45. Problem Figures

46. Problem Figures

47. Problem Figures

48. Problem Figures

49. Problem Figures

50. Problem Figures

Test II

Numerical Ability

Directions (Q. 51-75) : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?

51. 7432 ÷ 32 × ? = 2787

(1)   8

(2)   14

(3)   15

(4)   12

(5)   None of these

52. [(11)3 × (6)2] ÷ (4)3 = ?

(1)   2994.75

(2)   748.6875

(3)   272.25

(4)   4492.125

(5)   None of these

53. 75% of 250 – ?% of 380 = 54.5

(1)   32

(2)   25

(3)   35

(4)   40

(5)   None of these

54. (4.6 × 2.8 × 5.5) – (3.2 × 4.5 × 2.8) = ?

(1)   36.28

(2)   30.42

(3)   28.35

(4)   32.52

(5)   None of these

55.

(1)   3249

(2)   3481

(3)   3721

(4)   3969

(5)   None of these

56. 74698 + 365 + 85213 + 95 = ?

(1)   160281

(2)   160641

(3)   160371

(4)   160362

(5)   None of these

57.

(1)   4.4

(2)   3.5

(3)   4.2

(4)   3.4

(5)   None of these

58.

(1)   49

(2)   51

(3)   45

(4)   37

(5)   None of these

59. (444 × 44 × 4) ÷ 40 = ?

(1)   1953.6

(2)   176

(3)   1776

(4)   1736.5

(5)   None of these

60. 4550 ÷ 25% of ? = 130

(1)   145

(2)   140

(3)   125

(4)   160

(5)   None of these

61. 8529 – (49)2 – 125 – (9)3 = ?

(1)   5994

(2)   5274

(3)   7626

(4)   5922

(5)   None of these

62. 748 × 362 = (520)2 + ?

(1)   382

(2)   374

(3)   365

(4)   376

(5)   None of these

63. 1720 – 258 + 428 × 5.5 = ?

(1)   3431

(2)   3716

(3)   3816

(4)   3388

(5)   None of these

64. 1895 – 225 ÷ 50 = ?

(1)   1890.5

(2)   33.4

(3)   1880.5

(4)   34.5

(5)   None of these

65. 6432 ÷ 16 ÷ ? = 6

(1)   69

(2)   57

(3)   63

(4)   56

(5)   None of these

66. 2110 ÷ 25 + 350 ÷ 50 = ?

(1)   91.4

(2)   8.688

(3)   281.33

(4)   86.2

(5)   None of these

67. 6999 + 3555 – 2333 = ?

(1)   8337

(2)   8444

(3)   7338

(4)   8221

(5)   None of these

68. 49 × 64 = (?)2

(1)   54

(2)   56

(3)   52

(4)   63

(5)   None of these

69. 8 × ? × 7.9 = 161.16

(1)   2

(2)   7

(3)   5

(4)   4

(5)   None of these

70. 16% of 380 × 5 = ?

(1)   276

(2)   284

(3)   304

(4)   312

(5)   None of these

71. 3604 ÷ 53 × ? = 2924

(1)   61

(2)   45

(3)   41

(4)   59

(5)   None of these

72. 4 × 0.5 × 0.2 = ?

(1)   6.04

(2)   0.064

(3)   6.4

(4)   0.64

(5)   None of these

73. 79845 – 64897 – 12343 = ?

(1)   2575

(2)   2650

(3)   2605

(4)   2550

(5)   None of these

74.

(1)   1.50

(2)   0.75

(3)   1.75

(4)   0.55

(5)   None of these

75. 345 ÷ 23 ÷ 5 = ?

(1)   3

(2)   3.5

(3)   2.5

(4)   2

(5)   None of these

76. What least number should be added to 8602 to make it a perfect square ?

(1)   234

(2)   47

(3)   128

(4)   36

(5)   None of these

77. The cost of 15 kg of rice is Rs 720 and the cost of 16 kg of wheat is Rs 576. What is the difference between the cost of 45 kg of rice and 56 kg of wheat ?

(1)   Rs 148

(2)   Rs 136

(3)   Rs 144

(4)   Cannot be determined

(5)   None of the above

78. In how many different ways can the letters of the word “TEST” be arranged ?

(1)   24

(2)   10

(3)   36

(4)   15

(5)   None of these

79. What should come in p lace of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?

888  888  444  148   ?  7.4

(1)   32

(2)   37

(3)   35

(4)   36

(5)   None of these

80. Sourabhi invested an amount of Rs 16840 at the rate of 6% per annum for 5 yr. What total amount will she obtain with the simple interest at the said rate at the and of 5 yr?

(1)   Rs 20984

(2)   Rs 21764

(3)   Rs 20584

(4)   Rs 21892

(5)   None of these

81. The average age of 60 boys in a class was calculated as 12. It was later realized that the actual age of one of the boys in the class was 12.5, but it was calculated as 14. What is the actual average age of the boys in the class?

(1)   11

(2)   11.275

(3)   11.50

(4)   11.975

(5)   None of these

82. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question ?

9685 ÷ 356 × 12.5 = ?

(1)   330

(2)   325

(3)   360

(4)   355

(5)   340

83. Birju, Bankim and Boney being to jog around a circular stadium. They complete their revolutions in 36 s, 48 s and 63 s respectively. After how many seconds will they be together at the starting point ?

(1)   1008

(2)   956

(3)   848

(4)   Cannot be determined

(5)   None of the above

84. Find the average of the following set of scores.

746    1020  321  12  63  428  226  144

(1)   367.5

(2)   370

(3)   360

(4)   368.75

(5)   None of these

85. What is 846 times 323 ?

(1)   280872

(2)   276488

(3)   273258

(4)   272412

(5)   None of these

86. A canteen requires 28 kg of sugar for a week. How many kilogram of sugar will it require for the month of March and April ?

(1)   248 kg

(2)   240 kg

(3)   250 kg

(4)   Cannot be determined

(5)   None of the above

87. The sum of the two digits of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the two digits of the two digit number is 3. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ?

(1)   72

(2)   56

(3)   54

(4)   Cannot be determined

(5)   None of the above

88. Seema obtained 674 marks out of the total 750 marks. What approximate percentage did she obtain in the examination ?

(1)   79

(2)   90

(3)   81

(4)   85

(5)   95

89. When (212) is subtracted from the square of a number the answer obtained is 1584. What is the number ?

(1)   2025

(2)   48

(3)   2304

(4)   45

(5)   None of these

90. A car covers a distance of 744 km in 2 h. What is the speed of the car in km/h ?

(1)   62

(2)   58

(3)   65

(4)   60

(5)   None of these

91. The cost of 2 rings and 4 bangles is Rs 254550. What would be the cost of 6 rings and 12 bangles ?

(1)   Rs 1018200

(2)   Rs 763650

(3)   Rs 509100

(4)   Cannot be determined

(5)   None of the above

92. If the fractions  are arranged in ascending order of their values, which fraction will be the fifth ?

(1)   3/5

(2)   2/3

(3)   1/6

(4)   5/11

(5)   None of these

93. If an amount of Rs 7698 is equally distributed amongst 75 people, how much approximate amount would each person get ?

(1)   Rs 100

(2)   Rs 110

(3)   Rs 107

(4)   Rs 103

(5)   Rs 96

94. A, B, C, D and E are consecutive even numbers respectively. The average of 5 numbers is 82. What is the product of C and E ?

(1)   6888

(2)   6720

(3)   7052

(4)   7224

(5)   None of these

95. 96% of a number is 19584. What is 56% of that number ?

(1)   11016

(2)   11222

(3)   11628

(4)   10812

(5)   None of these

96. Out of 820 employees in an organization 20% of the employees got promoted to a higher grade. How many employees did not get promoted ?

(1)   680

(2)   668

(3)   656

(4)   674

(5)   None of these

97. Deepa invested an amount of Rs 9450 at the rate of 5% per annum for 3 yr. What approximate amount of compound interest will she obtain at the end of 3 yr ?

(1)   Rs 1490

(2)   Rs 1475

(3)   Rs 1510

(4)   Rs 1500

(5)   Rs 1480

98. The average age of a lady and her daughter is 28.5. The ratio of their ages is 14 : 5 respectively. What is the daughters age ?

(1)   12 yr

(2)   15 yr

(3)   18 yr

(4)   Cannot be determined

(5)   None of the above

99. Smitha invests Rs 187000, which is 25% of her annual income in the stock market. What is Smithas’ approximate monthly income ?

(1)   Rs 63343

(2)   Rs 61206

(3)   Rs 60196

(4)   Rs 62185

(5)   Rs 62333

100. The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 4623. What is the product of the next two consecutive odd numbers ?

(1)   4899

(2)   4891

(3)   5037

(4)   5183

(5)   None of these

Test III

English Language

Directions (Q. 101-112) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

One day Nandu rode his horse to the village fair. On his way back he met Somendra, the merchant. The merchant was a crafty man, ready to do anything to earn some money. The villagers knew this. In fact no one knew what trick he would be up to next. Now, Nandu was poor and had no one in the world to call his own except a beautiful, white horse. He loved it more then anything else in the world. The merchant had his eye on the horse for a long time and tried to think of a way to get it for himself. Seeing Nandu, the merchant thought, “Nandu is a simpleton. Let me see if I can trick him out of his horse.” So he said to Nandu, “You live all alone. How do you manage ? What does a young boy like you need with a horse ? Sell it to me and I shall make you rich in return.” Nandu replied, “No I don’t want to sell my horse.”

But the merchant refused to give up so easily. He offered Nandu more money. Finally, when the offer reached five hundred gold coins, Nandu paused and said, “Five hundred gold coins seems like a good p rice. But I have a condition. If you agree to it, I shall give you my horse. “What is it ?” the merchant asked impatiently. “Give me the money right now and I shall give you my horse when I have given you ten lashes,” said Nandu. “Is that all ?” asked the merchant. He could easily bear ten lashes. After all the would resell the horse for over a thousand gold coins in the market. He would take twenty lashes for such a gain. He agreed instantly. He ran home and got the money for Nandu and brought along his whip as well. Nandu counted the money carefully. He then took the whip and the lashes fell on the merchant’s back in quick succession. By the eighth lash the merchant was almost in tears but he told himself that their were only two lashes to go and the horse would be h is ! The merchant held his breath waiting for the final lash. But Nandu had mounted his horse and was riding off. “Wait !” shouted the merchant in anger. “What about the tenth lash ? Where are you going with the horse ? We had a deal.”

Nandu stopped and said, “I agreed to give you the horse only after I had given you ten lashes. But it is upsetting my horse. I’ll give you the last lash later. Till then goodbye !” “ Come back you cheat !” the  merchant shouted. But the crowd that had gathered around agreed with Nandu. A deal was a deal. Till the last lash was given the horse could not belong to the merchant. Nandu rode away richer by five hundred gold coins and Somendra waited in vain for several days for the final lash which never came !

101. Why did the merchant offer to buy Nandu’s horse ?

(1)   He was very fond of horses and Nandu’s horse was a rare breed

(2)   It was his way of helping Nandu who was poor

(3)   The horse would be useful for carrying goods to the market

(4)   He hated Nandu and wanted to deprive him of something he loved

(5)   None of the above

102. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?

(A)  Nandu was an orphan.

(B)  The merchant was very persevering.

(C)  The merchant was fonder of Nandu’s horse than Nandu was.

(1)   None

(2)   Only (A)

(3)   Both (A) and (B)

(4)   All (A), (B) and (C)

(5)   None of these

103. Why did Nandu set the condition of giving the merchant ten lashes ?

(1)   To discourage the merchant from buying his horse

(2)   To demonstrate how painful a whipping was so that the merchant would never hit the horse.

(3)   To bargain with the merchant to offer more money

(4)   To outwit the merchant who was trying to cheat him

(5)   None of the above

104. Why did the bystanders take Nandu’s side in the argument ?

(A) They hoped that Nandu would give them a reward from the five hundered gold coins he had earned.

(B) They were sure that the merchant would ill treat the horse and wanted to prevent that from happening.

(C) They knew that Nandu would be miserable without his horse of whom he was very fond.

(1)   None

(2)   Only (A)

(3)   Both (A) and (B)

(4)   Only (C)

(5)   None of these

105. What reason did Nandu cite for not giving the merchant the final lash ?

(1)   He was tired and not in the mood

(2)   He realized that the merchant was in great pain and took pity on him

(3)   He was following the advice of the people around

(4)   His horse was distressed by the whipping

106. Which of the following can be said about Nandu ?

(A) He was very cunning.

(B) He needed money.

(C) He was cruel to people but loved animals.

(1)   Only (A)

(2)   Both (A) and (B)

(3)   Both (B) and (C)

(4)   All (A), (B) and (C)

(5)   None of these

107. What made the merchant agree to Nandu’s strange condition for buying the horse ?

(1)   He wanted to show Nandu how brave he was

(2)   The thought of the profit he would make on selling the horse

(3)   The fear that Nandu would raise the price of his horse otherwise

(4)   He did not think that Nandu would actually whip him

(5)   None of the above

108. Why did Nandu consider selling his horse to the merchant ?

(1)   He had no real use for the horse

(2)   The merchant’s offer was more than what the horse was worth

(3)   He had not managed to sell it at the village fair

(4)   He could no longer afford to feed  his horse

(5)   None of the above

109. Which of the following best describes the merchant’s reputation in the village ?

(2)   He was dishonest and would do anything to get what he wanted

(3)   He would squander his money on things he liked

(4)   He was generous and helped the less fortunate

(5)   He was successful because he was courageous and stubborn

Directions (Q. 110-111) : Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

110. return

(1)   reject

(2)   profit

(3)   settle

(4)   replace

(5)   exchange

111. paused

(1)   halted

(2)   relaxed

(3)   ended

(4)   stuck

(5)   interval

112. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word ‘gathered’ as used in the passage.

(1)   dissolved

(2)   collected

(3)   dispersed

(4)   melted

(5)   distributed

Directions (Q. 113-117) : In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) ie, ‘All correct’ as your answer.

113. We are now facing stiff competing from

(1)        (2)

foreign companies manufacturing similar

(3)                     (4)

products. All correct

(5)

114. I have mentioned this case to indicate how

(1)                                        (2)

deliberate it will be to achieve our goal.

(3)                                                       (4)

All correct

(5)

115. Today, thank to our support she has

(1)                    (2)

managed to purchase her own house.

(3)                    (4)

All correct

(5)

116. As per your request this is a detail list of our

(1)                      (2)

basic requirements. All correct

(3)              (4)                   (5)

117. The final decision of whether to go ahead

(1)                   (2)                     (3)

or not does not rest with the manager.

(4)

All correct

(5)

Directions (Q. 118-125) :  In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the  blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Initially, the Grameen Bank did not …(118)… to get involved with the education of its borrowers. But as time went by, they began to feel the ….(119)… for it. Most of the borrowers had no formal education …(120)… the ability to read and write the borrowers had difficulty expending their business. They …(121)… to be able to keep accounts, read …(122)… about business, health, new ways of farming etc. They …(123)… their children to school and their children in turn helped their parents to keep accounts, read instructions and …(124)… else needed to be read.

But this is not enough for the future. So the bank has see out to make sure that their borrowers …(125)… a hundred per cent literacy rate within five years.

118.

(1)   meant

(2)   deserve

(3)   plan

(4)   intent

(5)   realise

119.

(1)   concern

(2)   need

(3)   duty

(4)   relevance

(5)   value

120.

(1)   Except

(2)   Having

(3)   Besides

(4)   Unless

(5)   Without

121.

(1)   tried

(2)   must

(3)   knew

(4)   wanted

(5)   discovered

122.

(1)   knowledge

(2)   awareness

(3)   information

(4)   fact

(5)   circular

123.

(1)   sent

(2)   enrolled

(3)   insisted

(4)   urge

(5)   encourage

124.

(1)   above

(2)   nothing

(3)   anything

(4)   whatever

(5)   something

125.

(1)   acquire

(2)   quality

(3)   collect

(4)   reaching

(5)   fulfilling

Directions (Q. 126-130) : Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.

126. He has visited many places all over the city looked at the perfect location to setup his factory.

(1)   looking out

(2)   looking for

(3)   looking after

(4)   looked forward to

(5)   No correction required

127. No traffic will be allowed in this area since the minister visit scheduled today.

(1)   minister’s visit

(2)   minister is visiting

(3)   minister’s visit is

(4)   visit of minister

(5)   No correction required

128. Medical treatment here is very expensive that they had to sell off their land to pay for it.

(1)   quite expensive and

(2)   too expensive for

(3)   so expensive but

(4)   more expensive

(5)   No correction required

129. To be successful it is important to know why your failure in the past and ensure that it doesn’t happen again.

(1)   why you failed

(2)   because you have failed

(4)   where you were failed

(5)   No correction required

130. These hand woven shawls are much in demand in many European countries.

(1)   were much demand

(2)   are lots of demand

(3)   demanded much

(4)   will be lot of demand

(5)   No correction required

Directions (Q. 131-135) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

131. Some of our staff is worried / (1) that as soon as / (2) the project is over they / (3) will lose their jobs. / (4) No error. / (5)

132. If you decide to hold / (1) the function in Kolkata / (2) not much of us / (3) will be able to attend. / (4) No error. / (5)

133. In case you need five people / (1) to run a branch you / (2) should be selected / (3) ten since some may leave. / (4) No error. / (5)

134. Although he approached / (1) many private businesses to invest / (2) in his printing business / (3) nobody of them was interested. / (4) No error. / (5)

135. How can you give up / (1) this job when you are / (2) just about to be / (3) appointed for general manager. / (4) No error. / (5)

Directions (Q136-140) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Such was his down to earth nature.

(B) He p laced the album before the President saying, “Sir, please do us the honour of attending the prize distribution ceremony of our Institute.

(C) Hearing this, the man asked the photographer to take a photo of  him placing a shawl around the President’s shoulders as a memento.

(D) He entered the room with a photographer, holding an album and a shawl.

(E) The President glanced through it and said, “I shall not be able to make it but may God bless the children.”

(F) The man then left and I angrily pointed out that he had taken the shawl with him, to which the President replied, “I do not need it. Perhaps he does.”

136. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1)   A

(2)   B

(3)   C

(4)   D

(5)   E

137. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1)   A

(2)   B

(3)   C

(4)   D

(5)   E

138. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(1)   B

(2)   C

(3)   D

(4)   E

(5)   F

139. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1)   B

(2)   C

(3)   D

(4)   E

(5)   F

140. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?

(1)   A

(2)   B

(3)   C

(4)   D

(5)   E

Test IV

Clerical Aptitude

Directions (Q. 141-165) : In each question below a combination of Name and Address is given in the first column at the left followed by four such combinations one each under the columns 1, 2, 3 and 4. You have to find out the combination which is exactly the same as the combination in the first column. The number of that column which contains that combination is the answer. If the combinations are different, the answer is ‘5’.

141. Arthee Reddy

26 Ashok Sarai

Chennai (W)-68

(1)   Artee Reddy

26 Ashok Saral

Chennai (W)-68

(2)   Artee Reddy

26 Ashok Sarai

Chennai (W)-68

(3)   Arthee Reddy

26 Ahosk Sarai

Chennai (W)-68

(4)   Arthee Reddy

26 Ashok Sarai

Chennai (W)-68

(5)   None

142. Vinod Kumar

H. No. 226/108

Coimbatore-69

(1)   Vinod  Kumar

H. No. 226/108

Coimbatore-69

(2)   Vinod Kumar

H. No. 226/108

Coimbatore-69

(3)   Vinod Kumar

H. No. 226/108

Coinbatore-69

(4)   Vinod Kumar

H. No. 206/108

Coimbatore-69

(5)   None

143. Sourabh Day

4 S. V. Colony

Gaya-166961

(1)   Sourabh Day

4 V. S. Colony

Gaya-166961

(2)   Sourabh Day

4 S. V. Colony

Gaya-169661

(3)   Sourabh Day

4 S. V. Colony

Gaya-166961

(4)   Sourabh Day

4 S. V. Colony

Gaya-166961

(5)   None

144. Sophie Richard

Thakar Basti-57

Lucknow-249064

(1)   Sophie Richard

Thakar Basti-57

Kochi-490624

(2)   Sophi Richard

Thakar Basti-57

Kochi-496024

(3)   Sophie Richard

Thakar Basti-57

Kochi-496024

(4)   Sophie Richard

Thakar Colony-57

Kochi-496024

(5)   None

145. Nazrul Alam

Sahana Manzil

Lucknow-249064

(1)   Nazrul Alam

Sahana Manzil

Lucknow-247064

(2)   Nazrul Alam

Sahana Manzil

Lucknow-249064

(3)   Nazral Alam

Sahana Manzil

Lucknow-249064

(4)   Nazrul Alam

Sahara Manzil

Lucknow-249064

(5)   None

146. Kundan Sahu

R. No. 5 N. Hostel

Patna-842359

(1)   Kundan Sahu

R. No. 5 M. Hostel

Patna-842359

(2)   Kundan Sahu

R. No. 5 N. Hostel

Patna-843259

(3)   Kundan Sahu

R. No. 5 N. Hostel

Patna-842359

(4)   Kundan Sahu

H. No. 5 N. Hostel

Patna-842359

(5)   None

147. Derek Ralte

6 Bathes Circle

Shillong-706012

(1)   Derek Ralte

6 Bathes Circle

Shillong-706012

(2)   Derek Ratle

6 Bathes Circle

Shillong-706012

(3)   Derek Ralte

6 Bathes Square

Shillong-706012

(4)   Derek Ralte

6 Bathes Circle

Shillong-701062

(5)   None

148. Jayesh Ojha

36 Jayaraj Vihar

Kozhikode-15

(1)   Jayesh Ojha

36 Jayraj Vihar

Kozhikode-15

(2)   Jayesh Ojha

36 Jayaraj Vihar

Kozhikode-15

(3)   Jayesh Ojha

36 Jayaraj Vihar

Kozikode-15

(4)   Jayesh Ozha

36 Jayaraj Vihar

Kozhikode-15

(5)   None

L 92 : Tikonia

Ajmer 601925