SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment Main Examination Held on June 25, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment Main Examination Held on June 25, 2016
SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment Main Examination Held on June 25, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment Main Examination Held on June 25, 2016

Part I Reasoning Ability and Computer Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) In the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read them carefully and mark the appropriate answer.

Given answer

a. if either conclusion I or II follows

b. if neither conclusion I nor II follows

c. if only conclusion II follows

d. if both conclusions follow.

e. if only conclusion I follows

1. Statements Y < J = P ≥ R > I

Conclusions I. J > I          II. Y < R

Answer: (e)

2. Statements V ≥ K > M = N; M > 5; T < K

Conclusions I. T < N       II. V = 5

Answer: (b)

3. Statements G ≥ H = I < J; J > K; G < L

Conclusions I. K < H       II. L > I

Answer: (c)

4. Which of the following expressions is wrong, if the expression ‘G = B < C = D ≥ E’ is definitely true?

(a)  G < C

(b)  Other than those given as options

(c)  C ≥ E

(d)  G < D

(e)  B = D

Answer: (e)

5. Anil walks 4 m towards the East, takes a right turn and walks 3 m. He then takes a left turn and walks 5 m before taking a final left turn and walking 3 m. Towards which direction and how far should Anil walk to reach the point from where he initially started walking?

(a)  9 m towards West

(b)  8 m towards East

(c)  7 m towards West

(d)  9 m towards West

(e)  9 m towards East

Answer: (d)

6. Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.

One of the main reasons behind the lack of applicants for teachers’ training/degree programmes is that teachers have not experienced any improvement in working conditions and their salaries have not kept pace with salaries in other professions.

Which of the following cab be inferred from the given paragraph?

(a)  No direct relationship can be established between the work conditions of a particular profession and preference for it amongst the qualified candidates.

(b)  Number of applicants for teachers’ training progreammes will improve, if the salaries in other professions are reduced.

(c)  Training programmes for other professions are not as good as teachers training programmes.

(d)  Very high entrance exam is also one of the reasons behind plunging number of applicants for teachers training programmes.

(e)  In the years to come, the schools would face a crunch in terms of availability of qualified teachers, if the salaries and working conditions of teachers’ do not improve.

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 7-9) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Six people A, B, C, D, E and F are of different heights. Only two people are taller than C. B is taller than both A and E but not the tallest. F is taller than A and E but not as tall as C. Only one person is shorter than A. The one, who is second tallest is 165 cm and the one, who is the third shortest is 155 cm.

7. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

(a)  B’s height is definitely 165 cm.

(b)  F is taller than both D and A.

(c)  C is the tallest among them.

(d)  A’s height is possibly 157 cm.

(e)  All the given statements are true.

Answer: (a)

8. Who amongst the following is shortest among them?

(a)  A

(b)  F

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  B

Answer: (d)

9. Who amongst the following is possibly 170 cm?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  F

(e)  D

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 10-14) Each question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide, whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and mark the appropriate answer.

Give answer

a. if the data even in both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

b. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

c. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

d. if the in both statements together are necessary to answer the question.

e. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question.

10. How many sisters does Madhu have?

Statements

I. Madhu’s parents have four children.

II. Madhu has three brothers.

Answer: (d)

11. Is R the granddaughter of C?

Statements

I. The only sister of A is the mother of R’s brother, B.

II. C, the mother of A has only one grandson, B.

Answer: (d)

12. Four friends A, B, C and D are seated in circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Is anyone seated exactly between C and D, when counted from the left of C?

Statements

I. B is seated to the immediate right of C.

II. B is seated to the immediate left of A. D is not an immediate neighbour of B.

Answer: (e)

13. Among five friends M, N, O, P and Q (each earning a different amount), who earns the least?

Statements

I. M earns more than O, P and N.

II. P earns more than only O.

Answer: (a)

14. Among A, B, C, D and E, seated in a straight line, but not necessarily in the same order, facing North, who sits exactly in the middle of the line?

Statements

I. A sits third to left of D. B sits to the immediate right of C.

II. B sits second to right of A. E is not an immediate neighbour of D.

Answer: (d)

15. How many meaningful English words, starting with P, can be formed with the letters ETPS using each letter only once in each word?

(a)  More than three

(b)  One

(c)  Two

(d)  None

(e)  Three

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-21) In each question below, two/three statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide, which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

a. if either conclusion I or II follows

b. if neither conclusion I nor II follows

c. if only conclusion II follows

d. if both conclusions follow

e. if only conclusion I follows

16. Statements All trains are buses.

All buses are jeeps.

All jeeps are aeroplanes.

Conclusions I. Some buses are not aeroplanes.

II. All jeeps are trains.

Answer: (b)

17. Statements Some parties are celebrations.

All celebrations are occasions.

No occasion is a festival.

Conclusions I. No celebration is a festival.

II. Some occasions are parties.

Answer: (d)

18. Statements Some pens are erasers.

All erasers are staplers.

Conclusions

I. At least some staplers are pens.

II. There is a possibility that some erasers are neither staplers nor pens.

Answer: (d)

19. Statements No red is black.

Some black are yellow.

Conclusions I. No yellow is red.

II. All red being yellow is a possibility.

Answer: (c)

20. Statements All shores are beaches.

Some beaches are coasts.

All banks are coasts.

Conclusions I. Some banks are beaches.

II. No bank is a shore.

Answer: (b)

21. Statements All benches are parks.

No park is a tree.

All trees are swings.

Conclusions

I.All benches being swings is a possibility.

II. No tree is a bench.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 22-26) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In a certain code,

‘for profit order now’ is written as ‘ho ja ye ga’

‘right now for him’ is written as ‘ga ve ja se’

‘place order for profit’ is written as ‘ga bi ho ye’

‘only in right order’ is written as ‘ve du ye zo’

(All codes are two-letters codes only)

22. What is the code for ‘him’ in the given code language?

(a)  Cannot be determined

(b)  ga

(c)  ve

(d)  aj

(e)  se

Answer: (e)

23. Which of the following may represents ‘only for now’ in the given code language?

(a)  zo ga ja

(b)  zo ga ye

(c)  ja  bl zo

(d)  du bl ja

(e)  du zo ga

Answer: (a)

24. What is the code for ‘profit’ in the given code language?

(a)  ye

(b)  ho

(c)  ga

(d)  ja

(e)  bl

Answer: (b)

25. ‘fo ve du’ could be a code for which of the following in the given code language?

(a)  only in profit

(b)  order only him

(c)  place in right

(d)  in right spirits

(e)  order only now

Answer: (d)

26. What does ‘bl’ stand for in the given code language?

(a)  profit

(b)  for

(c)  place

(d)  order

(e)  now

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 27-28) In each question below, a statement is given followed  by two courses of action numbered I and II.. A course of action is a practicable and feasible step or administrative decision to be taken for follow-up, improvement, or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and decide, which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

a. Only II follows b. Both I and II follow

b. Only follows d. Neither I nor II follows

e. Either I or II follows

27. Statement There is no motivation among today’s generation to join the armed forces owing to frequent transfers to risky areas. Perhaps they are not aware of the good side of it.

Courses of Action

I. Short term internship should be introduced at high school level to give students a peek into the adventurous life of the forces and provide a more realistic job purview.

II. The salary level of the defence forces should be increased with immediate effect.

Answer: (c)

28. Statement People see tax as a burden and thus devise ways to underpay or avoid it altogether.

Course of Action

I. Government should educate and inform citizens about the ways in which taxes help in development of the nation.

II. Tax rates should be increased so that the under-recovery in collection is compensated.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 29-34) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z, out of whom one is a Pilot, Professor, Businessman, Doctor, Lawyer, Banker, Cricketer or an Architect (but not necessarily in the same order), are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. S, who is a banker sits third to the right of Z. The professor and the architect are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither the professor nor the architect is an immediate neighbour of either Z or S. The one, who is a professor sits second to the right of T, who is a lawyer. V, who is a cricketer, is not an immediate neighbour or the banker. Cricketer and the pilot are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither Z nor W is a pilot. Only R sits between the professor and the doctor. P sits third to the right of the pilot.

29. Who amongst the following sits exactly between T and Q?

(a)  Doctor

(b)  Banker

(c)  Professor

(d)  Cricketer

(e)  Architect

Answer: (b)

30. Who sits third to the right of the professor?

(a)  Q

(b)  The Lawyer

(c)  The Banker

(d)  S

(e)  The Cricketer

Answer: (e)

31. Which of the following is true regarding R?

(a)  He is an immediate neighbour of the professor.

(b)  He is a doctor.

(c)  None is true.

(d)  He is an immediate neighbour of the pilot.

(e)  R sits exactly between Q and T when counted from the right of Q.

Answer: (a)

32. What is the position of the businessman with respect to the pilot?

(a)  Third to the left

(b)  Second to the left

(c)  Immediately to the right

(d)  Fourth to the right

(e)  Second to the right

Answer: (a)

33. What is the profession of Z?

(a)  Doctor

(b)  Other than those given as options

(c)  Businessman

(d)  Professor

(e)  Architect

Answer: (a)

34. How many people sit between the ‘banker’ and ‘W’ when counted in anti-clockwise direction from banker?

(a)  Three

(b)  Four

(c)  One

(d)  None

(e)  Two

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 35-39) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Seven friends T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in a straight line facing North but not necessarily in the same order. W sits fifth to the right of T. W does not sit at any of the extreme ends. Two people sit between Z and X. Y sits third to the left of U. Y sits exactly in the middle. Z is not an immediate neighbour of Y.

35. What is Z’s position with respect to W?

(a)  Fourth to the left

(b)  Second to the left

(c)  Fourth to the right

(d)  Third to the right

(e)  Third to the left

Answer: (a)

36. Who is second to the right of T?

(a)  Other than those given as options

(b)  Y

(c)  X

(d)  V

(e)  U

Answer: (d)

37. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(a)  WX

(b)  ZT

(c)  YV

(d)  UW

(e)  XV

Answer: (e)

38. Who sit at the extreme ends of the line?

(a)  VX

(b)  XT

(c)  TU

(d)  YZ

(e)  XZ

Answer: (c)

39. If all the seven friends are made to sit alphabetically from right to left, positions of how many will remain unchanged?

(a)  Three

(b)  Two

(c)  Four

(d)  One

(e)  None

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 40-44) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G work in three departments of an organization viz, Finance, Marketing and HR. Not less than two and not more than three work in each department. Each of them likes a different colour-red, blue, green, white, yellow, pink and black, but not necessarily in the same order. E does not work in the HR department and likes Yellow. The one, who likes pink, works in the Marketing department. C works in the Finance department only with G. B likes red and works in the same department as D and F. No one working in the HR department likes blue or green. C does not like green and D does not like black.

40. Which of the following represents the friends working in Marketing department?

(a)  A, E

(b)  B, F

(c)  F, D

(d)  A, C

(e)  E, D

Answer: (a)

41. Which colour does G like?

(a)  White

(b)  Blue

(c)  Pink

(d)  Cannot be determined

(e)  Green

Answer: (e)

42. Which colour does A like?

(a)  Cannot be determined

(b)  Black

(c)  Green

(d)  White

(e)  Pink

Answer: (e)

43. Who likes the colour black?

(a)  D

(b)  A

(c)  G

(d)  F

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

44. Which of the following combinations of person-department-colour is correct?

(a)  F-HR-White

(b)  A-HR-Pink

(c)  D-Marketing-Black

(d)  None is correct

(e)  E-Marketing-Red

Answer: (d)

45. The position of first and the fourth letters of the word PRICED are interchanged, similarly, the positions of second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabets, which are at the extreme ends?

(a)  Three

(b)  Five

(c)  More than five

(d)  Two

(e)  Four

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)

Input gate 20 86 just not 71 for 67 38 bake sun 55

Step I bake gate 20 just not 71 for 67 38 sun 55 86

Step II for bake 20 just  no 67 38 sun 55 86 71

Step III gate for bake 20 just not 38 sun 55 86 71 67

Step IV just gate for bake 20 not 38 sun 86 71 67 55

Step V not just gate for bake 20 sun 86 71 67 55 38

Step VI sun not just gate for bake 86 71 67 55 38 20

Step VII is the last step of the above input.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input 31 rise gem 15 92 47  aim big 25 does 56 not 85 63 with moon

46. How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(a)  Eight

(b)  Six

(c)  Seven

(d)  Five

(e)  Nine

Answer: (a)

47. Which word/number would be at seventh position from the left of step IV?

(a)  rise

(b)  aim

(c)  big

(d)  15

(e)  does

Answer: (d)

48. Which step number is the following output?

Rise not moon gem does big aim 15 with 92 85 63 56 47 31 25

(a)  Step V

(b)  Step VII

(c)  Step IV

(d)  Step VIII

(e)  Step III

Answer: (b)

49. Which of the following represents the position of ‘92’ in step VI?

(a)  Ninth from the left

(b)  Fifth from the right

(c)  Sixth from the right

(d)  Ninth from the right

(e)  Seventh from the left

Answer: (c)

50. Which word/number would be at fifth position from the right in the last step?

(a)  gem

(b)  63

(c)  56

(d)  85

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (c)

Part II Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Study the table and answer the given questions.

The following table gives percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different subjects in an examination. The maximum marks in each subject is written in parenthesis.

51. What are the average marks obtained by all the seven students in Physics?

(a)  77.26

(b)  89.14

(c)  91.37

(d)  96.11

(e)  103.21

Answer: (b)

52. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by B in all the six subjects?

(a)  409

(b)  419

(c)  429

(d)  439

(e)  466

Answer: (e)

53. What is the overall percentage secured by D?

(a)  52.5%

(b)  55%

(c)  60%

(d)  73.42%

(e)  64.5%

Answer: (d)

54. The number of students, who obtained 60% and above marks in all the subjects is

(a)  none

(b)  four

(c)  one

(d)  three

(e)  two

Answer: (e)

55. In which of the following subjects, the overall percentage of the students is best?

(a)  History

(b)  Maths

(c)  Physics

(d)  Chemistry

(e)  Geography

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) Five different companies A, B, C, D and E make two items I and II. The total number of items produced by these five companies is Rs 80000. The cost of production of each item is Rs 5000. The distribution of the total production by these companies is given in the following pie-chart and the table shows the ratio of production of Item I to that Item II and the percentage profit earned by these companies on each of these items.

56. What is the profit earned by Company C on Item II?

(a)  Rs 57.6 lakh

(b)  Rs 55.4 lakh

(c)  Rs 56.8 lakh

(d)  Rs 54 lakh

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

57. What is the total cost of production of Item I by companies A and B together?

(a)  Rs 5 crore

(b)  Rs 6 crore

(c)  Rs 8 crore

(d)  Rs 9 crore

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

58. What is the total of the profit earned by  Company E on production of Item I and the profit of Company D on production of Item II?

(a)  Rs 1.56 crore

(b)  Rs 2.2 crore

(c)  Rs 1.3 crore

(d)  Rs 2.6 crore

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

59. What is the ratio of the cost production of Item II by Company A to the cost of production of Item I by Company E?

(a)  17 : 12

(b)  4 : 5

(c)  7 : 4

(d)  15 : 8

(e)  1 : 2

Answer: (d)

60. The cost of production of Item II for Company E is what percent of the cost of production of Item I for Company A?

(a)  80%

(b)  20%

(c)  60%

(d)  75%

(e)  40%

Answer: (b)

61. Train A crosses a pole in 25 seconds and another Train B crosses a pole in 1 minute and 15 second. Length of Train A is half length of Train B. What is the respective ratio between speed of Train A and Train B?

(a)  3 : 2

(b)  3 : 4

(c)  5 : 3

(d)  2 : 5

(e)  4 : 3

Answer: (a)

62. Amit and Roshan, two shopkeepers, buy article for Rs 1000 and Rs 2000 respectively. Roshan marks his article up by 2x% and offers a discount of x%, while Amit marks his article up by x%. If both make the same profit, what is the value of x?

(a)  40%

(b)  37.5%

(c)  12.5%

(d)  25%

(e)  50%

Answer: (d)

63. A man was assigned to find the average age of a class of 13 students. By mistake, the included the 35 years old teacher as well and hence the average went up by 2 years. Find the actual average age of the class.

(a)  8 yr

(b)  7 yr

(c)  15 yr

(d)  11 yr

(e)  9 yr

Answer: (b)

64. The length and breadth of a rectangular plot are in the ratio of 9 : 7. If the cost of fencing the plot @ 27.75 per meter is Rs 3552, what is the area of the plot?

(a)  1236 sq m

(b)  1008 sq m

(c)  1152 sq m

(d)  1288 sq m

(e)  1056 sq m

Answer: (b)

65. How many kg of salt of 42 paise per kg must man mix with 25 kg of salt at 24 paise per kg,, so that he may, on selling the mixture at 40 paise per k g gain 25% on the outlay?

(a)  15 kg

(b)  18 kg

(c)  20 kg

(d)  24 kg

(e)  26 kg

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) What value will come in place of question marks in the given equations?

66. 003 × 37.998 – 309.010 = ?

(a)  685

(b)  695

(c)  680

(d)  679

(e)  675

Answer: (d)

67. 009 – 519.999 – 94.989 = ?

(a)  7270

(b)  7300

(c)  7500

(d)  7220

(e)  7340

Answer: (a)

68. 

(a)  290

(b)  390

(c)  490

(d)  590

(e)  590

Answer: (a)

69. 302 – 117 = 24.52 + ?

(a)  127.70

(b)  127.65

(c)  182.75

(d)  172.05

(e)  165.28

Answer: (c)

70. 

(a)  105

(b)  95

(c)  115

(d)  125

(e)  135

Answer: (c)

71. A bag contains 20 tickets numbered from 1 to 20. Two tickets are drawn n at random. What is the probability that both numbers are prime?

(a)  8/20

(b)  14/95

(c)  7/20

(d)  21/190

(e)  21/95

Answer: (a)

72. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?

(a)  20 h

(b)  25 h

(c)  35 h

(d)  40 h

(e)  30 h

Answer: (c)

73. A certain amount of money is to be divided among P, Q and R in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 respectively. If the amount received by R is Rs 4000 more than the amount received by Q, what will be the total amount received by P and Q together?

(a)  Rs 8000

(b)  Rs 12000

(c)  Rs 1000

(d)  Rs 16000

(e)  Rs 20000

Answer: (d)

74. A number when divided by 627 leaves a remainder 43. By dividing the same number by 19, the remainder will be

(a)  24

(b)  43

(c)  13

(d)  5

(e)  7

Answer: (a)

75. In an examination, 34% of the students failed in mathematics and 42% failed in English. If 20% of the students failed in both the subjects, then what is the percentage of students who passed in both the subjects?

(a)  40%

(b)  42%

(c)  44%

(d)  46%

(e)  48%

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) What value will come in place of question marks in the given numbers series?

76. 15  365  587  717  785  815  ?

(a)  825

(b)  835

(c)  828

(d)  832

(e)  838

Answer: (a)

77. 1297  2117  3137  4357  5777  ?

(a)  7897

(b)  7367

(c)  7397

(d)  7837

(e)  7547

Answer: (c)

78. 8  288    968   2048   3528  5408   ?

(a)  7288

(b)  7388

(c)  7488

(d)  7688

(e)  7588

Answer: (d)

79. 18  43  204   1145   8190   ?

(a)  73915

(b)  73925

(c)  73935

(d)  73945

(e)  73955

Answer: (c)

80. 12  93   730  5097    30570   ?

(a)  152835

(b)  152837

(c)  152839

(d)  152841

(e)  152833

Answer: (c)

81. A and B enter into a partnership by making investments in the ratio 1 : 2, 5% of the total profit goes to charity. If B’s share is Rs 760, then what is the total profit earned?

(a)  Rs 1200

(b)  Rs 1800

(c)  Rs 2400

(d)  Rs 1560

(e)  Rs 2000

Answer: (a)

82. The simple interest on a certain sum for 8 months at 4% per annum is Rs 129 less than the simple interest on the same sum for 15 months at 5% per annum. What is the sum?

(a)  Rs 2580

(b)  Rs 2400

(c)  Rs 2529

(d)  Rs 3600

(e)  Rs 2900

Answer: (d)

83. If the ratio of radius of two cylinders A and B are in the ratio 3 : 5 and their heights in the ratio 10 : 9 respectively, then what is the ratio of volumes of their cylinders?

(a)  5 : 2

(b)  5 : 3

(c)  2 : 3

(d)  2 : 5

(e)  4 : 7

Answer: (d)

84. A boat can travel with a speed of 16 km/h in still water. If the rate of stream is 5 km/h, then what is the time taken by the boat to cover distance of 84 km downstream?

(a)  4 h

(b)  5 h

(c)  6 h

(d)  7 h

(e)  8 h

Answer: (a)

85. A can build up structure in 8 days and B can break it in 3 days. A has worked for 4 days and then B joined to work with A for another 2 days. In how many days will A alone build up the remaining part of the structure?

(a)  10

(b)  9

(c)  12

(d)  8

(e)  7

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) What value will co me in place of question marks in the following equations?

86. 8 * 13.5 * 16.2 * ? = 2340.09

(a)  0.15

(b)  0.25

(c)  0.5

(d)  0.75

(e)  1

Answer: (b)

87. 812 ÷ 162 of 323 × √256 = 2?

(a)  17

(b)  18

(c)  19

(d)  20

(e)  15

Answer: (a)

88. 

(a)  373

(b)  375

(c)  378

(d)  381

(e)  370

Answer: (c)

89. 486 ÷ ? * 7392 ÷ 66 = 1008

(a)  54

(b)  55

(c)  52

(d)  53

(e)  51

Answer: (a)

90. 81% of ? = 427.2 * 8.4% of 135

(a)  21784

(b)  24378

(c)  2716

(d)  28120

(e)  25315

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) In each of the following questions, there are two equations. You have to solve both equations.

Given answer

a. if x > y    b. if x ≥ y    c. if x < y     d. if x ≤ y

e. if x = y or relation cannot be established

91. I. 2x2 – 13x – 24 = 0 II. 3y2 + 17y + 24 = 0

Answer: (a)

92. I. 3x2 + 23x + 30 = 0 II. 6y2 + 13y + 5 = 0

Answer: (d)

93. I. 5x2 – 44x + 63 = 0 II. 15y2 – 37y + 18 = 0

Answer: (b)

94. I. x2 = 1296 

Answer: (e)

95. I. 12x2 – 8x – 7 = 0 II. 10y2 + 23y + 12 = 0

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Each question below consists of two statements numbered I and II given below it. You are to decide, whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and given answer

a. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

b. it the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

c. If the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

d. if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

e. if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

96. How many workers are required for completing the construction work in 10 days?

I. 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8 days.

II. 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days.

Answer: (c)

97. What is the monthly salary of Praveen?

I. Praveen gets 15% more than Sumit while Sumit gets 10% less than Lokesh.

II. Lokesh’s monthly salary is Rs 2500

Answer: (e)

98. How many people are there in the plane?

I. 25% passengers are women and 35% are children.

II. There are 24 men in the plane.

Answer: (e)

99. What is the distance between city P and city Q?

I. Two persons started simultaneously from P to Q, with their speeds in the ratio 4 : 5.

II. B reaches P one hour earlier than A to Q. The difference between speeds of A and B is 20 km/h.

Answer: (d)

100. What is the Vani’s present age?

I. Vani is three years older than Ami.

II. The ratio between Ami and Sammy’s age is 3 : 4.

Answer: (d)

Part III General English

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-105) Read the following sentence to find out, whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error,  if any, will be in one part of the sentence. That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’ (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

101. The tourist industry of the State/feels that the facility of visa-on-arrival/should be made available/to keeping the industry vibrant.

(a)  The tourist industry of the State

(b)  feels that the facility of visa-on-arrival

(c)  should be made available

(d)  to keeping the industry vibrant

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

102. Even a newly-recruited teacher/in a government high school gets/ more than what/ a former principal gets as pension.

(a)  Even a newly-recruited teacher

(b)  in a government high school gets

(c)  more than what

(d)  a former  principal gets as pension

(e)  No error

Answer: (e)

103. Six people fainted/ on board in an international flight/ promptly the emergency crew to check/ the plane for hazardous materials.

(a)  Six people fainted

(b)  on board in an international flight

(c)  promptly the emergency crew to check

(d)  the plane for hazardous materials

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

104. To be short-listed for the competition/the children have to fill up/ a contest firm that their/ respective schools will provide.

(a)  To be short-listed for the competition

(b)  the children have to fill up

(c)  a contest firm that their

(d)  respective schools will provide

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

105. The students of the school/ would be send to the zoo/ on a study tour/ to gain first-hand experience.

(a)  The students of the school

(b)  would be send to the zoo

(c)  on a study tour

(d)  to gain first-hand experience

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 106-112) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The residents of Kotobuki live not far from the glitzy shops and upscale restaurants of Yokohama. Japan’s second biggest city, adjoining Tokyo, the capital. Yet Kotobuki is an altogether different word, a squalid district, it is a pit stop for local Japanese on their way to destitution. Men living here in cheap hostels have lost jobs and families. Some survive on casual day work, but many have no work at all, A 250-bed, bed shelter dominates the centre of Kotobuki, part of a public network of around 40 built in the past decade. Though these have helped to take 18000 people off Japan’s streets, it has been harder to check the creeping poverty that put many of them there in the first place.

Last year, the Japanese government recorded relative poverty rates at 16%- defined as the share of the population living on less than half the national median income.

That is the highest on record. Poverty levels have been growing at a rate of 1.3% a y ear since the mid-1980s. On the same definition, a study by the OECD in 2011 ranked Japan sixth from the bottom among its 34 mostly rich members. Book shops advertise a slew of bestsellers on how to survive on an income of under ¥ 2 m ($ 16700), a poverty line below which millions of Japanese now live.

The country has long prided itself on ensuring that one of its citizens falls between the social cracks. Japan’s orderly, slum-free neighbourhoods seem to confirm that, street crime’, even in Kotobuki, is minuscule. Unemployment is below 4% and jobs are being generated as the Prime Minister attempts to  boost the economy through monetary easing. Yet the poor quality of new jobs in compounding the problem of the working poor.

Since late 2012, the number of irregular workers-often earning less than half the pay of the full-time counterparts with permanent employment contracts – has jumped over 1.5 m. Casual and part-time employees number n early 20 m, almost 40% of the Japanese workforce.

The effects of this shift to irregular work have not always been visible. One reason is parents’ benevolence. Millions of young workers remain living at home, rent-free. But o ne the older generation that drove Japan’s post-war boom goes, underlying  poverty will become more evident. The present situation may look grim, but there is hope as long, as the present government continues to do something about it.

106. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(a)  Youngsters in Japan, leave their parents’ house the minute they get an employment offer.

(b)  According to the OECD ranking of 2011, Japan stands among some of the poor nations.

(c)  The beauty of the country’s neighbourhoods is stained with slums.

(d)  Yokohama is the second biggest poor city  in the country.

(e)  None of the given statements is true.

Answer: (b)

107. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word ‘Confirm’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Strengthen

(b)  Remove

(c)  Hate

(d)  Contradict

(e)  Adopt

Answer: (a)

108. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘Grim as used in the passage?

(a)  Interesting

(b)  Trim

(c)  Cheerful

(d)  Foul

(e)  Unfavourable

Answer: (e)

109. Which of the following can be said about Kotobuki in the context to the passage?

A. Crime rate is very high.

B. It’s a place that provides shelter to people having minimum or no source of income.

C. More than 50% of the poor in the country have found their homes in this place.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Both A and C

(c)  Only B

(d)  Both B and C

(e)  Only C

Answer: (c)

110. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of the phrase, ‘none of its citizens falls between the social cracks’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Preventing the citizens from becoming poor.

(b)  Providing a luxurious lifestyle with plush amenities.

(c)  Providing an opportunity for everyone to vote in favour of the current Prime Minister.

(d)  Taking everyone out of Kotobuki to other neighbourhoods

(e)  Reducing corruption.

Answer: (a)

111. As mentioned in the passage, despite generating jobs, the problem of unemployment persists because

A. these are either irregular in nature or of poor quality.

B. people are not willing to take up poor quality jobs.

C. prevailing corruption prevents people from taking up these jobs.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Both A and C

(c)  Only B

(d)  Both B and C

(e)  Only C

Answer: (c)

112. Which of the following can be a suitable title of the passage?

(a)  Exploring the Role of the Government in Supporting Japan’s Economy

(b)  Japan and Poverty-A Synonym for Each Other

(c)  Poverty in Japan- The True Picture

(d)  The Beginning of the Rise of the Dragon

(e)  Exploring Benefits of Working Part-Time

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 113-120) Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Some time ago, there lived a king. The King should have been contented with his life, given all the riches and luxuries he had. However, this was not the case, the King always found himself wondering why he just never seemed contented with his life.

Sure, he had the attention of everyone wherever he went, attended fancy dinners and parties, but somehow, he still felt something was lacking and he couldn’t put his finger on it. One day, the King had woken up earlier than usual to stroll around his palace. He entered his huge  living room and came to a stop when he heard someone happily singing away. Following his singing, he saw that one of the servants was singing and had a very contented look on his face.

This fascinated the King and he summoned this man to his chambers. The man entered the King’s chambers as ordered. The King asked why he was so happy. To this the man replied, “Your Majesty, I am nothing but a servant, but I make enough of a living to keep my wife and children happy. We don’t need too much, a roof over our heads and warm food to fill our tummy. My wife and children are inspiration; they are content with whatever little I bring home. I am happy because my family is happy. “Hearing this, he King dismissed the servant and summoned his Personal Assistant to his chambers.

The King related his personal anguish about this feelings and then related the story of the servant to his Personal Assistant, hoping that somehow, he will be able to come up with some reasoning that here was a King, who could have anything he wished for at a snap of his fingers and yet was not contented, whereas his servant, having so little, was extremely contented. Personal Assistant listened attentively and come to a conclusion. He said, “Your Majesty, I believe that the servant has not been made part of The 99 Club.”

“The 99 Club? And what exactly is that?” The King inquired.

To which is Assistant replied, “Your Majesty, to truly known what The 99 Club is , you will have to do the following: Place 99 gold coins in a bag and leave it at the servant’s doorstep. You will then understand what. The 99 Club is.” That very same evening, the King arranged for 99 gold coins to be placed in a bag at the servant’s doorstep.

Although, he was slightly hesitant and the thought he should have put 100 gold coins into the bag, yet since h is assistant had advised him to put 99, that is what he did.

The servant was just stepping out of his house, when he saw a bag his doorstep, Wondering about its contents, he took it into his house and opened the bag. When he opened the bag, he let out a great big shout of joy, “Gold coins. So many of them.” He could hardly believe it. He called his wife to show her the coins.

He then took the bag to a table and emptied it out and began to count the coins. Doing so, he realized that there were 99 coins and he thought it was an odd number, so he counted again and again only to come to the same conclusion-99 gold coins.

He began to wonder, what could have happened to that last one coin? For no one would leave 99 coins. He began to search is entire house, looked around his backyard for houses, not wanting to lose out that one coin. Finally, exhausted, he decided that he would work harder than ever to make up for that one gold coin to make his entire collection an even 100 gold coins.

He got up the next morning in an extremely horrible mood, shouting at the children and his wife for his delay, not realizing that he had spent most of the night conjuring ways of working hard, so that he had enough money to buy himself that gold coin. He went to work as usual – but not in his usual best mood, singing happily – as he grumpily did his dally errands.

Seeing the man’s attitude change so drastically, the King was puzzled. He promptly summoned his Assistant to his chambers. The King related his thoughts about the servant and once again, his Assistant listened. The King could not believe that the servant who until yesterday had been singing away and was happy and contented with his life had taken a sudden change of a attitude, even though he should have been happier after receiving the gold coins.

To this the Assistant replied, “Ah! But your Majesty, the servant has now officially joined The 99 Club.” He explained: “The 99 Club is just a name given to those people, who have everything but yet are never contented, therefore they are always working hard and striving for t hat extra one to round it out to 100.

We have so much to be thankful for and we can live with very little in our lives, but the minute we are given something bigger and better, we want even more! We are not the happy contented person we used to  be. We want more and m ore and by wanting more and more we don’t realize the price we pay for it. We lose our sleep, our happiness; we hurt the people around us just as price to pay for our growing needs and desires. That is what joining. The 99 Club is all about. “Hearing this, the King decided that from that day onwards, he was going to start appreciating all the little things in life.

Striving for more is always good, but let’s not strive so hard and for so much that we lose all those near and dear to our hearts. We shouldn’t compromise our happiness for moments of luxuries?

113. Why did the King summon the servant?

(a)  Because the servant was singing a sad song.

(b)  Because he was fascinated by the happiness of the servant

(c)  Because the servant had shown disrespect to him.

(d)  Because the servant was also assigned the job of a spy.

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (b)

114. What was/were the reason for the servant’s happiness?

A. He was not a part of The 99 Club.

B. He was too poor to look after his family.

C. His family was happy.

(a)  A and B

(b)  B and C

(c)  A and C

(d)  All of these

(e)  Only B

Answer: (c)

115. What was not the effect of placing the bag containing 99 gold coins at the servant’s doorstep?

(a)  The servant became overjoyed to find the bag containing gold coins.

(b)  He counted the gold coins again and again to confirm whether they were just ninety nine or a hundred.

(c)  He began to search the last one coin in and around his house.

(d)  Finally, he could find the last one coin in his backyard.

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

116. What happened to the servant, when he became part of the 99 Club?

(a)  He got up the next morning in a horrible mood.

(b)  He rebuked the members of his family.

(c)  He went to work in a depressed mood.

(d)  He did his work grumpily.

(e)  All of the above

Answer: (e)

117. In the context of the passage, what do you mean by The 99 Club?

(a)  The 99 Club is a group of rich people.

(b)  It is the club of dissatisfied people.

(c)  It is a club of minister of the royal court.

(d)  It is the club of people.

(e)  Other than those given as options.

Answer: (b)

118. Choose the word, which is most similar in meaning to the word ‘Fascinated’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a)  Bored

(b)  Attracted

(c)  Repulsed

(d)  Exhausted

(e)  Irritated

Answer: (b)

119. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Stroll’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a)  Excursion

(b)  Lazy walk

(c)  Survey

(d)  Breath

(e)  Run

Answer: (b)

120. Choose the word, which is most similar in meaning to the word ‘Drastically’ given in bold as used in the passage?

(a)  Vehemently

(b)  Effectively

(c)  Firmly

(d)  Compulsively

(e)  Emphatically

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 121-125) Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. The full extent and impact of the forest fires in Uttarakhand can be assessed only after they have abated with better weather conditions, but the furious blaze that has swept the hill State drives home, the truth that governments are yet to find scientific ways to tackle the phenomenon.

B. Some of the studies reported by organizations affiliated to the Union Environment Ministry point to the effective intervention of community-led ‘Van Panchayats’ forest councils in preventing fires.

C. Progress can be made also by providing environmental education to local residents and officials.

D. Significantly, the use of biomass alternatives including cooking gas, has had a beneficial impact on fire risk and his must be expanded.

E. The Uttarakhand government should learn from the severity of the experience, and involved its large rural communities in preparing for the future.

F. It is possible that the changing patterns of climate may be exacerbating the problem; more research is required to conclude whether the EI Nino that set in last year, marked by a lack of pre-monsoon showers, also played a part in intensifying the fires.

121. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  E

(b)  B

(c)  F

(d)  A

(e)  C

Answer: (b)

122. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  E

(b)  B

(c)  F

(d)  A

(e)  C

Answer: (a)

123. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  D

(b)  E

(c)  A

(d)  B

(e)  F

Answer: (c)

124. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  E

(b)  D

(c)  B

(d)  A

(e)  C

Answer: (b)

125. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  E

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  A

(e)  B

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 126-130) In each questions below, two sentences I and II are given. Each sentence I and II has a blank in it. Against the question, five options are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both places in the context of each sentence. Mark that option as your answer.

126. I. I didn’t mean to ………. my heart out to you, but I guess I had to talk to someone.

II. She went to kitchen to ……….. herself a big glass of orange juice.

(a)  make

(b)  prepare

(c)  share

(d)  cry

(e)  pour

Answer: (e)

127. I. As Sheela’s motives were found to the harmless, no disciplinary ………. will be taken against her.

II. I imitated his ……….. even wearing his spectacles, thinking they might help solve the mystery.

(a)  trick

(b)  sentence

(c)  motion

(d)  deed

(e)  action

Answer: (e)

128. I. The plush residential complex will fulfill your wish of living in a ……… location.

II. Both the ……… Minister and our Ambassador in Vienna knew him and valued his contribution.

(a)  home

(b)  posh

(c)  finance

(d)  prime

(e)  aloof

Answer: (d)

129. I. If you are trying to make a ………. impression on your audience, you cannot do so by being ambiguous.

II. The crane is a large and ………. bird.

(a)  intense

(b)  strong

(c)  small

(d)  broken

(e)  agile

Answer: (b)

130. I. Police searched her father’s bag against his…………

II. My father excluded my siblings from his ……….

(a)  will

(b)  property

(c)  wish

(d)  list

(e)  consent

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 131-140) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered in bold. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which best fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

“Even after609 years of Independence, it is disgraceful that we are yet to put our infrastructure in (131). There are two types of infrastructure in the country. One is the basic infrastructure, such as water supply, drainage, education etc. The other is for comfort, such as excellent roads, high speed trains etc. We have not (132) on either. What is the problem? Is it lack of money or funds? It may not (133) be so. We simply do not know how to go about things. What we have done is that we have (134) a number of layers of decision making authorities and too (135) agencies and regulations. We must get a number of (136) to get anything done. We need leadership not only in  politics but also in administration. We need definition of our objectives, such as what we need, why we need, and when we need it. (137)  important point is clarity of ideology. Lastly and most importantly identification of a right person for the job is (138). What we need is systematic change. Leadership and commitment make all the (139) in getting things done. There has to be an appreciation that (140) in infrastructure delivers a force multiplier for the economy.”

131.

(a)  organize

(b)  place

(c)  vicinity

(d)  commitment

(e)  duty

Answer: (b)

132.

(a)  accomplished

(b)  attained

(c)  established

(d)  qualified

(e)  delivered

Answer: (a)

133.

(a)  quietly

(b)  inevitably

(c)  because

(d)  necessarily

(e)  voluntarily

Answer: (d)

134.

(a)  created

(b)  resulted

(c)  caused

(d)  invented

(e)  influenced

Answer: (a)

135.

(a)  great

(b)  abundant

(c)  many

(d)  much

(e)  manifold

Answer: (c)

136.

(a)  hardships

(b)  attempt

(c)  bribe

(d)  clearances

(e)  skill

Answer: (e)

137.

(a)  another

(b)  different

(c)  others

(d)  moreover

(e)  distinctly

Answer: (a)

138.

(a)  expected

(b)  dependent

(c)  awaited

(d)  inherent

(e)  essential

Answer: (e)

139.

(a)  basics

(b)  similarity

(c)  difference

(d)  rigidity

(e)  modesty

Answer: (c)

140.

(a)  building

(b)  investment

(c)  developing

(d)  generating

(e)  modifying

Answer: (b)

Part IV General Awareness

141. According to the current provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the BRI can issue banknotes in the denomination not more than

(a)  Rs 5000

(b)  Rs 1000

(c)  Rs 100000

(d)  Rs 10000

(e)  Rs 50000

Answer: (d)

142. The Valmiki National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following States in India?

(a)  Gujarat

(b)  Madhya Pradesh

(c)  Karnataka

(d)  Assam

(e)  Bihar

Answer: (e)

143. The low-cost train with Wi-Fi, entertainment screens and vending machines for passengers, recently announced by Indian Railways is

(a)  Humsafar Express

(b)  Antyodaya Express

(c)  Tejas Express

(d)  Deen Dayalu Express

(e)  UDAY Express

Answer: (c)

144. In Shishu category of Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, the maximum loan which can be availed, is

(a)  Rs 500000

(b)  Rs 100000

(c)  Rs 1000000

(d)  Rs 50000

(e)  Rs 10000

Answer: (d)

145. Which of the following States’ capital declare its own mascot?

(a)  Assam

(b)  Karnataka

(c)  Arunachal Pradesh

(d)  Andhra Pradesh

(e)  Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (a)

146. ‘NACH’ has been implemented by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) for banks, financial institutions, corporate and government. The full form of NACH is

(a)  National Automation Cleansing House

(b)  National Automated Clearing House

(c)  National Automatic Cleaning Hose

(d)  National Automate Cleansing House

(e)  National Automatic Cash House

Answer: (b)

147. ‘Wings of Fire’ is an autobiography of which of the following?

(a)  Mahatma Gandhi

(b)  Dr. BR Ambedkar

(c)  Yuvraj Singh

(d)  Pranab Mukherjee

(e)  APJ Abdul Kalam

Answer: (e)

148. The CRR and SLR are reserved in which form with the bank?

(a)  Cash and liquidity

(b)  Liquidity and cash

(c)  Both are reserved as cash

(d)  Both are reserved as liquidity

(e)  Both are reserved in other forms

Answer: (a)

149. The 11-digit alphanumeric code used to make all electronic money transactions across India is known as

(a)  MICR code

(b)  IFSC code

(c)  PIN code

(d)  ESC code

(e)  Demat account number

Answer: (b)

150. India recently (January, 2016) exports first batch of ‘Made in India’ metro coaches to Australia manufactured in

(a)  Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh)

(b)  Ludhiana (Punjab)

(c)  Nagpur (Maharashtra)

(d)  Baroda (Gujarat)

(e)  Jaipur (Rajasthan)

Answer: (d)

151. What is the current reverse repo rate in India?

(a)  21%

(b)  6.50%

(c)  6%

(d)  7%

(e)  15%

Answer: (c)

152. The Ahmedabad City is located on the banks of

(a)  Narmada river

(b)  Sabarmati river

(c)  Yamuna river

(d)  Godavari river

(e)  Tapti river

Answer: (b)

153. The currency of the Republic of Israel is

(a)  Peso

(b)  New Shekel

(c)  Jordanian Dinar

(d)  Egyptian Pound

(e)  Lira

Answer: (b)

154. Recently, an Indian sportsman Neeraj Chopra clinches silver medal in Warsaw (Poland). With which sport he is associated with?

(a)  Boxing

(b)  Javelin throw

(c)  Athletics

(d)  Judo

(e)  Chess

Answer: (b)

155. The RIDF was set-up by the government in 1995-96 for financing ongoing rural infrastructure projects. The term ‘I’ in RIDF stands for

(a)  Industry

(b)  India

(c)  Infrastructure

(d)  Instruction

(e)  International

Answer: (c)

156. The India’s first Defence Industrial Park is located in

(a)  Vishakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)

(b)  Mangalore (Karnataka)

(c)  Ottappalam (Kerala)

(d)  Surat (Gujarat)

(e)  Nagpur (Maharashtra)

Answer: (c)

157. The Gobi is large desert region in Asia. The desert is located in

(a)  India

(b)  Russia

(c)  China

(d)  Nepal

(e)  Iran

Answer: (c)

158. Recently (May 25, 2016) the Kerala was given a new Chief Minister named

(a)  Oommen Chandy

(b)  VS Achuthanandan

(c)  Pinarayi Vijayan

(d)  K. Chandrashekhar Rao

(e)  N. Chandrababu Naidu

Answer: (c)

159. Anant Geete, represents which of the following constituents in Lok Sabha?

(a)  Raigad (Maharashtra)

(b)  Maval (Maharashtra)

(c)  Ratlam (Madhya Pradesh)

(d)  Tikamgarh (Madhya Pradesh)

(e)  Dharwad (Karnataka)

Answer: (a)

160. HPCA Stadium is a cricket stadium located in the city of

(a)  Vishakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)

(b)  New Delhi

(c)  Jaipur (Rajasthan)

(d)  Surat (Gujarat)

(e)  Dharmashala (Himachal Pradesh)

Answer: (e)

161. The ECGC Limited provides export credit insurance support to Indian exporters and is controlled by the Ministry of Commerce. The term ‘G’; in abbreviation ECGC stands for

(a)  Global

(b)  Guide

(c)  Ground

(d)  Guarantee

(e)  Guest

Answer: (d)

162. Bank of India is headquartered in

(a)  New Delhi

(b)  Chennai

(c)  Bengaluru

(d)  Mumbai

(e)  Kokata

Answer: (d)

163. The Atomic Power Plant with largest capacity (540 MWe) is located in

(a)  Kaiga Generating System (Karnataka)

(b)  Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (Rajasthan)

(c)  Tarapore Atomic Power Station (Maharashtra)

(d)  Madras Atomic Power Station (Tamil Nadu)

(e)  Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (Gujarat)

Answer: (c)

164. Recently (June, 2016), India pulling all stops to raise funds for Chabahar Port. The port is located in

(a)  Iraq

(b)  Bangladesh

(c)  Sri Lanka

(d)  Iran

(e)  Pakistan

Answer: (d)

165. Piyush Goyal, who recently (June, 2016) launched Surya Mitra Mobile App, is a

(a)  Minister of State for Petroleum and Natural Gas

(b)  Minister of State for Civil Aviation

(c)  Minister of State for Railways

(d)  Minister of State for Culture and Tourism

(e)  Minister of State for Power, Coal and New Renewable Energy

Answer: (e)

166. July 28 is observed as the

(a)  World Hepatitis Day

(b)  International Yoga Day

(c)  World UFO Day

(d)  World Population Day

(e)  World Environment Day

Answer: (a)

167. Which country recently (June, 2016) returned to India over 200 stolen cultural artifacts, some dating back 2000 years?

(a)  United Kingdom

(b)  United States of America

(c)  Russia

(d)  UAE

(e)  South Africa

Answer: (b)

168. Wular Lake, one of the largest fresh water lake in Asia, is in the Indian State of

(a)  Sikkim

(b)  Himachal Pradesh

(c)  Uttarakhand

(d)  Jammu and Kashmir

(e)  Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (d)

169. Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited is India’s first …………… founded in August, 2000.

(a)  debit information company

(b)  credit insurance company

(c)  debit insurance company

(d)  credit information company

(e)  credit stabilizing corporation

Answer: (d)

170. In the context of banking, the term ‘L’ in MCLR stands for

(a)  Lending

(b)  Loss

(c)  Liquidity

(d)  Lender

(e)  Limited

Answer: (a)

171. Nairobi is the capital city of

(a)  Sudan

(b)  Kenya

(c)  South Africa

(d)  Egypt

(e)  Algeria

Answer: (b)

172. The International Development Association (IDA) is an international financial institution, which offers concessional loans and grants to the world’s poorest developing countries. IT is headquartered in

(a)  Washington DC (USA)

(b)  Vienna (Austria)

(c)  New York (USA)

(d)  New Delhi (India)

(e)  Berlin (Germany)

Answer: (a)

173. The Federal Reserve System, also known as the Federal Reserve or simply as the Fed, is the central banking system of

(a)  the UK

(b)  Russia

(c)  Denmark

(d)  the USA

(e)  France

Answer: (d)

174. KSE is a Stock Exchange Index of which of the following countries?

(a)  Pakistan

(b)  India

(c)  China

(d)  Russia

(e)  The USA

Answer: (a)

175. Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport, formerly known as Borjhar Airport, is situated at

(a)  Amravati (Andhra Pradesh)

(b)  Hyderabad (Telangana)

(c)  Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh)

(d)  Guwahati (Assam)

(e)  Kolkata (West Bengal)

Answer: (d)

176. Which of the following is not a motivational model?

(a)  Economic model

(b)  Learning model

(c)  Psycho-analytic model

(d)  Organizational model

(e)  All of these

Answer: (e)

177. The regulatory authority for Regional Rural Bank (RRB) is of

(a)  sponsor bank

(b)  State government

(c)  Central government

(d)  RBI and NABARD

(e)  SEBI

Answer: (d)

178. The private sector bank, which recently allowed children above 10 years to open savings bank accounts after the SBI is

(a)  IDBI Bank

(b)  HDFC Bank

(c)  ICICI Bank

(d)  Axis Bank

(e)  Kotak Mahindra Bank

Answer: (c)

179. A cheque, which is payable to any person, who presents it for payment at the bank counter, is called

(a)  Cross cheque

(b)  Bearer cheque

(c)  Open cheque

(d)  Close cheque

(e)  Lender cheque

Answer: (b)

180. Which one of the following is not method of selling prices?

(a)  Cost plus pricing method

(b)  Marginal cost pricing method

(c)  Break-even-pricing method

(d)  First-in-first-out cost method

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

181. Bancassurance is a relationship between bank and

(a)  education

(b)  insurance company

(c)  employee

(d)  customer

(e)  NABARD

Answer: (b)

182. Marketing Strategy means

(a)  to introduce in sales promotion scheme

(b)  population

(c)  preservance

(d)  demands

(e)  networth

Answer: (a)

183. Marketing should be resorted

(a)  only among rich person

(b)  depends on income

(c)  only in crowded areas

(d)  depends on the product

(e)  only among the poor

Answer: (d)

184. The incumbent Governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is

(a)  Arundhati Bhattacharya

(b)  Raghuram Rajan

(c)  UK Sinha

(d)  D. Subbarao

(e)  YV Reddy

Answer: (b)

185. To survive in the growing competition banks need to implement

(a)  free schemes

(b)  service orientation

(c)  marketing orientation

(d)  core banking

(e)  low interest rates

Answer: (c)

186. The process of gathering information about customers or market is known as

(a)  Customer inspection

(b)  Checking market area

(c)  Need of a bank

(d)  Market research

(e)  Checking customers demand

Answer: (d)

187. When costs are accumulated for an organizational unit or department, it is called

(a)  a cost centre

(b)  a cost benefit

(c)  a cost breaking

(d)  a cost of production

(e)  unit

Answer: (a)

188. Developing and spreading persuasive communications about an offer or product is known as

(a)  Promotion

(b)  Information

(c)  Channel usage

(d)  Distribution

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (a)

189. PMFBY, a scheme launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in January, 2016, is related to

(a)  health insurance

(b)  bank insurance

(c)  crop insurance

(d)  accident insurance

(e)  business insurance

Answer: (c)

190. Which State government’s business is not transacted by the RBI?

(a)  Himachal Pradesh

(b)  Bihar

(c)  Manipur

(d)  Assam

(e)  Sikkim

Answer: (e)

National Insurance Company Ltd. Recruitment of Administrative Officers Examination-2015 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

National Insurance Company Ltd. Recruitment of Administrative Officers Examination-2015 Quantitative Aptitude
National Insurance Company Ltd. Recruitment of Administrative Officers Examination-2015 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

National Insurance Company Ltd. Recruitment of Administrative Officers Examination-2015

Quantitative Aptitude

 

1. A rectangular plot has a concrete path running in the middle of the plot parallel to the length of the plot. The rest of the plot is used as lawn, which has an area of 253 sq. m. If the width of the path is 4m and the length of the plot is greater than its breadth by 8m, what is the area of the plot? (in m. sq.)

(a)  896

(b)  345

(c)  432

(d)  354

(e)  682

Answer: (b)

Directions (Qs. 2 to 6) : Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.

2. What is the respective ratio between total number of Blackberry mobile phones sold by stores C, D and G together and the total number of Apple mobile phones sold by the same stores together?

(a)  3 : 4

(b)  2 : 3

(c)  4 : 9

(d)  3 : 5

(e)  5 : 9

Answer: (None)

3. Average number of Nexus mobile phones sold by all the given stores together is by what percent more than the number of BlackBerry mobile phones sold by all the given stores together?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (a)

4. What is the difference between number of mobile phones of all three brands sold by stores F and A?

(a)  3,60,000

(b)  3,42,000

(c)  4,20,000

(d)  3,48,000

(e)  3.56.000

Answer: (c)

5. If the price of each BlackBerry mobile is Rs. 22,000, price of each Nexus mobile is Rs. 25,000 and the price of each Apple mobile is Rs. 28,000, by what percent are the total sales of store F more than the total sales of store D?

(rounded off to nearest integer)

(a)  34

(b)  31

(c)  44

(d)  36

(e)  42

Answer: (e)

6. The number of Nexus mobile phones sold by each store increased by 15% from 2008 to 2009, and the number of Apple mobile phones sold by each store increased by 10% from 2008 to 2009. What was the total number of Nexus and Apple mobile phones sold by stores B and E together in 2009?

(a)  12,72,100

(b)  12,79,000

(c)  11,77,200

(d)  12,77,200

(e)  11,72,100

Answer: (b)

Directions (Qs. 7 to 11) : What approximate value will come in place of questions mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not expected to calculate exact value).

7. 92/37.11 = ? – 163.02

(a)  534

(b)  208

(c)  329

(d)  424

(e)  256

Answer: (b)

8. 0032 + 23.982 – (1282.998 + 578.898) + 6.892 = ?

(a)  549

(b)  678

(c)  763

(d)  635

(e)  718

Answer: (None)

9. 99/31.12 + 323.898 ÷ 8.892 = ?

(a)  42

(b)  18

(c)  50

(d)  32

(e)  59

Answer: (c)

10. (√015 – √168.996)2/(√195.989 – √120.996)2 = ?

(a)  97

(b)  58

(c)  81

(d)  72

(e)  61

Answer: (c)

11. (29.989% of 4530.11) – (22.04% of 4599.99) = ? + 125.99

(a)  289

(b)  296

(c)  278

(d)  221

(e)  323

Answer: (d)

12. The speed of the boat in still water is 16 km/h and speed of the current is 2 km/h. It takes a total of 6.5 hours to row upstream from point A to point B and downstream from point B to point C. If the distance from point A to point B is two-thirds the distance between point B and C, what is the total distance travelled by the boat (both upstream and downstream)?

(a)  112 kms

(b)  98 kms

(c)  124 kms

(d)  90 kms

(e)  105 kms

Answer: (e)

13. 24 men can complete a piece of work in 14 days. 2 days after they started working, 4 more men joined them and after 2 more days 6 men left. How many more days will they now take to complete the remaining work?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 14 to 18) : Read the following information carefully to answer these questions.

   In college ‘B’, in a group of 1200 students boys and girls are in the ratio of 7 : 5 respectively. Students are studying either Computer Science or IT. Each one of them likes one or  more type of books out of Novel, Biography or Science Fiction.

Out of the boys, 48% study Computer Science and remaining study IT. Out of the boys studying Computer Science, 1/6th like only Novel, 1/4th like only Novel and Biography. 1/6th like only Novel and Science Fiction. 1/4th like only Novel and Science Fiction. 1/4th like all three types of books. Out of the boys studying IT, 1/7th like only Novel, 1/4th like only Novel and Biography, 1/13th like only Novel and Science Fiction. 1/7th like all three types of books.

Out of the girls, 56% study Computer Science and remaining IT. Out of the girls studying Computer Science, 1/7th like only Novel, 1/8th like only Novel and Biography. 1/4th like only Novel and Science Fiction. 1/8th like all three types of books. Out of the girls studying IT, 1/5th like only Novel, 1/11th like only Novel and Biography. 1/4th like Biography. 1/4th like only Novel and Science Fiction. 1/5th like all three types of books.

14. Out of the boys studying Computer Science number of boys who like only Science Fiction is 1/7th of the boys who like Novel. What is the total number of boys studying Computer Science who like either only Novel or only Science Fiction?

(a)  90

(b)  108

(c)  104

(d)  96

(e)  82

Answer: (d)

15. Total number of girls who like only Biography is 75% of the total number of girls who like only Novel. Total how many girls like Science Fiction?

(a)  291

(b)  298

(c)  198

(d)  287

(e)  185

Answer: (b)

16. If the total number of boys studying IT who like Science Fiction is 165, how many boys studying IT like only Biography?

(a)  63

(b)  47

(c)  46

(d)  67

(e)  56

Answer: (e)

17. What percent of the total number of students (boys and girls studying Computer Science and IT) like all three types of books?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (d)

18. How many girls studying IT do not like Novel?

(a)  49

(b)  51

(c)  43

(d)  65

(e)  57

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 19 to 24) : Refer to the pie charts answer these questions :

19. The number of Academic Books published by one Company E is what percent less than the number of Non-Academic Books published by the same company?

(a)  25%

(b)  30%

(c)  35%

(d)  22%

(e)  20%

Answer: (a)

20. The number of Non-Academic Books published by one Company C is what percent of the total number of Non-Academic Books published by Companies B and D together?

(a)  36

(b)  40

(c)  38

(d)  48

(e)  32

Answer: (a)

21. What is the respective ratio between the number of Academic Books published by Company A and the number of Non-Academic Books published by Company E?

(a)  5 : 9

(b)  9 : 11

(c)  7 : 9

(d)  4 : 5

(e)  3 : 5

Answer: (a)

22. What is the difference between the number of Academic Books and Non-Academic Books published by Company F?

(a)  580

(b)  640

(c)  512

(d)  768

(e)  456

Answer: (d)

23. The number of Non-Academic Books published by Company A is approximately what percent more than the number of Academic Books published by Company E?

(a)  26

(b)  21

(c)  10

(d)  18

(e)  32

Answer: (b)

24. How many Non-Academic Books were published by Company D?

(a)  3722

(b)  4096

(c)  3264

(d)  3584

(e)  2880

Answer: (b)

25. 1500 were invested for 5 years in scheme A which offers simple interest at a rate of 14% p.a. The amount received after 5 years and some additional money, is then invested in scheme B, for 2 years, which offers compound interest (compounded annually) at a rate of 20% p.a. If the compound interest received from scheme B after 2 years is Rs. 1408, what was the additional money invested in scheme B apart from the amount received from scheme A?

(a)  Rs. 450

(b)  Rs. 650

(c)  Rs. 500

(d)  Rs. 280

(e)  Rs. 520

Answer: (b)

26. How much time will train A take to completely cross train B running in opposite direction (towards each other)?

I. The total length of train A and train B together is 456m.

II. Train B can cross an electric pole in 8 seconds. The respective ratio of speed of train A and train B is 7 : 9.

(a)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(d)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

27. How many labourers are employed to do the piece of work?

I. If all the employed labourers report to work, the concerned piece of work can be completed in 36 days.

II. If 15 of the employed labourers are absent (do not report to work), the concerned piece of work can be completed in 56 days.

(a)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(d)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

28. What is the sum of money (in Rs.)?

I. The sum when invested in scheme A which offers simple interest @ 7 p.c.p.a., amounts to Rs. 7,752 in two years.

II. The sum when invested in scheme B, which offers compound interest (compounded annually) amounts to Rs. 8,228 in two years and Rs. 9050.80 in three years.

(a)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(d)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (a)

29. What was the percentage of discount given while selling the table?

I. The cost price of the table is Rs. 6,000.

II. 16% profit was earned by selling the table for Rs. 6,960. If there were no discount the earned profit would have been 24%.

(a)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(d)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

30. What is the volume of the cylinder? (in m3)

I. The height of the cylinder is 6m less than its radius.

II. The difference between the total surface are and curved surface area of the cylinder is 1232 m2.

(a)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(d)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 31 to 36) : Study the following table carefully to answer these questions:

31. What percent of the total number of population for States P, R and V together speaks Hindi language?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (e)

32. What is the difference (in thousands) between total employed population from states R, S and T together and the total unemployed population from these three states together?

(a)  8500

(b)  9100

(c)  8700

(d)  9300

(e)  9700

Answer: (e)

33. What percent of the population from states Q and V together is in the age group 21-30 years?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (a)

34. If the respective ratio of Urban to Rural population among total population of state S is 4 : 3 and that of state T is 3 : 2, what is the total number of rural population (in thousands) in these two states together?

(a)  2800

(b)  2500

(c)  3000

(d)  3450

(e)  3200

Answer: (b)

35. Out of the total employed population in all the given states, 55% are women and out of them 30% women are married. How many employed women (in thousands) are not married?

(a)  7825

(b)  8328

(c)  8365

(d)  9669

(e)  9163

Answer: (e)

36. What percent of the total population from stats Q and S together is unemployed?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (c)

37. Anurag’s annual income is Rs. 6,36,000. He spends 22% of h is monthly income on paying bills, 18% on household items, 12% on paying his children’s fees and 4% he donates to a charity. If two-fifth of the remaining amount he invests in mutual funds, what is the amount left with him every month?

(a)  Rs. 17,850

(b)  Rs. 12,162

(c)  Rs. 9,328

(d)  Rs. 13,992

(e)  Rs. 14,650

Answer: (d)

38. The population of a state in the year 2013 was 1,12,926. If the rate of increase was 10% and 20% respectively from the year 2011 to 2012 and 2012 to 2013, what was the population in the year 2011?

(a)  85,550

(b)  86,450

(c)  79,550

(d)  75,550

(e)  76,950

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 39 to 41) : Answer these questions on the following information.

   There are 4 red balls, 4 green balls and 6 blue balls, in a box.

39. If two balls are drawn randomly, what is t he probability that at least one of them is blue?

(a)  6/13

(b)  7/13

(c)  8/13

(d)  10/13

(e)  9/13

Answer: (e)

40. If one ball is drawn randomly, what is the probability that it is either red or blue?

(a)  5/9

(b)  7/9

(c)  4/7

(d)  3/7

(e)  5/7

Answer: (e)

41. If three balls are drawn randomly, what is the probability that one of them is green and the other two are blue?

(a)  15/91

(b)  24/91

(c)  20/91

(d)  10/91

(e)  12/91

Answer: (a)

42. In what respective ratio two varieties of rice costing Rs. 36 per kg and Rs. 60 per kg be mixed, so that by selling the mixture at Rs. 54 per kg 20% profit is earned?

(a)  3 : 2

(b)  7 : 5

(c)  5 : 3

(d)  5 : 2

(e)  4 : 3

Answer: (c)

43. 8 years ago, Jyoti’s age was equal to the Swati’s present age. If the sum of Jyoti’s age 10 years from now and Swati’s age 6 years ago is 88 years, what was Kusum’s age 14 years ago if Kusum is 8 years younger to Swati? (in years)

(a)  22

(b)  14

(c)  25

(d)  24

(e)  16

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 44 to 48) : In these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

44. I. 2x2 – 7x + 3 = 0

II. 2y2 – 7y + 6 = 0

(a)  x < y

(b)  x > y

(c)  x ≥ y

(d)  x ≤ y

(e)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Answer: (e)

45. I. 4x2 ­+ 16x + 15 = 0

II. 2y2 + 3y + 1 = 0

(a)  x < y

(b)  x > y

(c)  x ≥ y

(d)  x ≤ y

(e)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Answer: (a)

46. I. 9x2 – 45x + 56 = 0

II. 4y2 – 17y + 18 = 0

(a)  x < y

(b)  x > y

(c)  x ≥ y

(d)  x ≤ y

(e)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Answer: (b)

47. I. 2x2 + 11x + 14 = 0

II. 2y2 + 15y + 28 = 0

(a)  x < y

(b)  x > y

(c)  x ≥ y

(d)  x ≤ y

(e)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Answer: (c)

48. I. 6x2 + 11x + 4= 0

II. 4y2 – 7y – 2 = 0

(a)  x < y

(b)  x > y

(c)  x ≥ y

(d)  x ≤ y

(e)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Answer: (a)

49. A started a business with an investment of Rs. 14,000. After 2 months B joins in with 6/7 of the amount that A invested and A withdraws Rs. 4000. After 2 more months, C joins with Rs. 8000 and A again withdraws Rs. 2000. After a year, if C received Rs. 2,656 as his share then what was the total profit? (in Rs.)

(a)  16,954

(b)  11,668

(c)  12,284

(d)  14,326

(e)  13,548

Answer: (c)

50. In a yoga class there were 12 members. Two members left the class and 4 new members joined. If the average age decreased by 4 years and the total age decreased by 2, what is the new average age of the class? (in years)

(a)  22

(b)  27

(c)  23

(d)  28

(e)  18

Answer: (c)

Ministry of Home Affairs, Govt. of India Assistant Central Intelligence (Grade-II) Executive Examination-2015 Question Paper With Answer Key

Ministry of Home Affairs, Govt. of India Assistant Central Intelligence (Grade-II) Executive Examination-2015
Ministry of Home Affairs, Govt. of India Assistant Central Intelligence (Grade-II) Executive Examination-2015 Question Paper With Answer Key

Ministry of Home Affairs, Govt. of India Assistant Central Intelligence (Grade-II) Executive Examination-2015

1. Curcuma longa is the scientific name of which spice?

(1)  Cumin

(2)  Cloves

(3)  Turmeric

(4)  Coriander

Answer: (3)

2. Bones found in the hands and feet as the percentage of total number of bones in the body of an adult human being is nearly equal to

(1)  20%

(2)  30%

(3)  40%

(4)  50%

Answer: (4)

3. Europeans are believed to have brought potatoes to India in the 18th century. Which region of the world is believed to be the origin of potato cultivation?

(1)  Easter Ghana

(2)  Southern Peru

(3)  Portugal

(4)  West Indies

Answer: (2)

4. Oymyakons is generally considered the coldest inhabited area on Earth. Which country is Oymyakon located in?

(1)  Mongolia

(2)  Russia

(3)  Greenland

(4)  Iceland

Answer: (2)

5. Which gland in the human body is also known as the “third eye”?

(1)  Pineal

(2)  Pituitary

(3)  Mammary

(4)  Tear gland

Answer: (1)

6. Leukaemia is a group of cancers that usually begins in the bone marrow and results in high numbers of which abnormal cells.

(1)  White blood cells

(2)  Red blood cells

(3)  Platelets

(4)  All of these

Answer: (1)

7. During an earthquake, two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ record its intensity on Richter scale as 4.0 and 6.0, respectively. In absolute terms, the ratio of intensity of the earthquake at ‘A’ to that of ‘B’ is

(1)  2 : 3

(2)  7 : 8

(3)  141 : 173

(4)  1 : 100

Answer: (4)

8. On a cold day in January, the temperature at a place fell below the freezing point and was recorded as −40° On Fahrenheit scale, the same temperature would be

(1)  32℉

(2)  −8℉

(3)  −40℉

(4)  −72℉

Answer: (3)

9. Universal Gas Constant, R, is a property of

(1)  Idea Gases

(2)  Halogen Gases

(3)  Inert Gases

(4)  All Gases

Answer: (1)

10. In which place was the 1st Science Congress held in January, 1914?

(1)  Kolkata

(2)  Allahabad

(3)  Chennai

(4)  Pune

Answer: (1)

11. The class of elementary particles, bosons, was named after Satyendra Nath Bose, an Indian Physicist. Which of the following Indian scientists graduated from Presidency College Calcutta as a classmate of Satyendra Nath Bose?

(1)  Jagdish Chandra Bose

(2)  P. C. Mahalanobis

(3)  Praful Chandra Ray

(4)  Meghnad Saha

Answer: (4)

12. To which place Aryabhata, the great Mathematician, went for advanced studies?

(1)  Takshashila

(2)  Patliputra

(3)  Kashi

(4)  Kaushambi

Answer: (2)

13. The development of the world’s first practical design for an Inter-continental Ballistic Missile, A9/10, was undertaken in Nazi Germany during Word War II. It was intended for use in bombing.

(1)  London and other coastal cities of Britain.

(2)  Northern cities of France, including Venice.

(3)  New York and other American cities.

(4)  Interiors of USSR to cut off military supply lines to Moscow.

Answer: (3)

14. Homi Jahangir Bhabha, the father of Indian nuclear programme, was also the founding director of which of the following institute?

(1)  Tate Institute of Fundamental Research

(2)  Indian Institute of Science

(3)  Indian Institute of Technology, Mumbai

(4)  Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics, Kolkata

Answer: (1)

15. Who headed the Satellite Launch Vehicle (SLV) project launched by ISRO in 1970?

(1)  Dr. Vikram Sarabhai

(2)  Dr. K. Radhakrishanan

(3)  Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

(4)  Dr. G. Madhavan Nair

Answer: (3)

16. Where was Bhaskar, also known as Bhaskaraacharya or Bbaskara II, and Indian mathematician & astronomer, born?

(1)  Kanchipuram

(2)  Thanjavur

(3)  Bijapur

(4)  Madurai

Answer: (3)

17. The BrahMos, a short-range supersonic cruise missile, is a joint venture between which foreign country and Indian agency?

(1)  USA & ISRO

(2)  UK & ISRO

(3)  Russia & ISRO

(4)  Russia & DRDO

Answer: (4)

18. If the sum of 60% of a fractional number and the number’s square root is 5 greater than one fifth of the number, then the number is

(1)  6.25

(2)  0.25

(3)  12.25

(4)  2.25

Answer: (1)

19. If ‘Head’ appears consecutively in the first three tosses of a fair/unbiased coin, what is the probability of ‘Head’ appearing in the fourth toss also?

(1)  1/8

(2)  7/8

(3)  1/16

(4)  1/2

Answer: (4)

20. Archers ‘A’ and ‘B’ take aim at a target. If the probability of ‘A’ hitting the target is 90% and of ‘B’ missing the target is 90%, what is the probability that both ‘A’ and ‘B’ miss the target?

(1)  90%

(2)  09%

(3)  01%

(4)  81%

Answer: (2)

21. If 12 persons working 12 hours a day dig 12 metres of a tunnel in 12 days, how many men are required to dig additional 4 metres of the tunnel (of the same dimension) given that they work 4 hours a day for 4 days?

(1)  27

(2)  4

(3)  12

(4)  36

Answer: (4)

22. A man sells an article at a certain price incurring 20% loss. If he had sold the same article for Rs. 20 more, he would have earned 20% profit. What was the cost price of the said article?

(1)  Rs. 20

(2)  Rs. 40

(3)  Rs. 50

(4)  Rs. 60

Answer: (3)

23. Numerator of a fraction is increased by 60%, and at the same time its denominator is decreased by 60%. The new fraction is

(1)  2.56 times the older fraction

(2)  Equal to the older fraction

(3)  4 times the older fraction

(4)  0.36 times the older fraction

Answer: (3)

24. In a triangle ABC, one of the angles is average of the remaining two angles. Which of the following is always true about the triangle ABC?

(1)  Isosceles triangle

(2)  Equilateral triangle

(3)  One of its angles measures 60°

(4)  Right angled triangle

Answer: (3)

25. If the area of a circle ‘C’ is equal to the area of a square ‘S’, then the ratio of the square of the perimeter of ‘C’ to the square of the perimeter of ‘S’ is nearly equal to

(1)  22 : 7

(2)  11 : 14

(3)  88 : 7

(4)  1 : 1

Answer: (2)

26. The last digit of the number 32015 is

(1)  1

(2)  3

(3)  5

(4)  7

Answer: (4)

27. What is the square root of 49%?

(1)  0.7%

(2)  7.0%

(3)  70%

(4)  Undefined

Answer: (3)

28. Log(402 – 202) is equal to

(1)  log 3

(2)  log 60 + log 20

(3)  log 40 – log 20

(4)  log 20

Answer: (2)

29. Twelve persons meet in a conference and each shakes hands with all the others. How many handshakes take place?

(1)  66

(2)  72

(3)  144

(4)  132

Answer: (1)

30. A man travels uphill to city C from city B in a car at the speed of 40 km/hr, and returns to city B at a faster speed of 60 km/hr. What is his average speed for the round trip?

(1)  0

(2)  48 km/hr

(3)  50 km/hr

(4)  Data insufficient

Answer: (2)

31. (7 + 14 + 21 + 28 ……. +700) is equal to

(1)  35350

(2)  42714

(3)  49420

(4)  56707

Answer: (1)

32. In a group of 5 persons, P is taller than Q, but is shorter than both R and S. Both R and T are taller than Q but shorter than S. This implies that

(1)  R is taller than P, but shorter than T

(2)  T is taller than Q, but shorter than R

(3)  R is taller than Q, but shorter than T

(4)  S is taller than T while P is shorter

Answer: (4)

33. In group of Army Offices, 2% of Offices neither take Coffee nor Tea, while rest of them take either Tea or Coffee or both. If 60% of Officers take tea, while 58% take Coffee, what percentage of Officers take Tea but do not take Coffee?

(1)  2%

(2)  20%

(3)  40%

(4)  60%

Answer: (3)

34. The original name of Ho Chi Minh, the President of the Vietnam Democratic Republic, was Nguyen Van Thanh which he later changed to Ho Chi Minh before becoming the President. The literal meaning of Ho Chi Minh is

(1)  He Who Leads

(2)  He Who Fights

(3)  He Who Enlightens

(4)  He Who Protects

Answer: (3)

35. In which year, Mahatma Gandhi travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system?

(1)  1914

(2)  1915

(3)  1916

(4)  1917

Answer: (4)

36. With which objective, C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj Party within the Congress?

(1)  Spearhead the mass struggles

(2)  Forge Hindu-Muslim unity

(3)  Participate in elections to the provincial councils

(4)  Organize legislative protests against Rowlatt Act

Answer: (3)

37. The industrial working class did not participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement in large numbers, except in

(1)  Nagpur region

(2)  Madras region

(3)  Surat region

(4)  Calcutta region

Answer: (1)

38. B. R. Ambedkar clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the 2nd Round Table Conference demanding

(1)  Reservation for Dalits in Government jobs

(2)  Reservation for Dalits in Ministries

(3)  Separate citizen status for Dalits

(4)  Separate Electorate for Dalits

Answer: (4)

39. A scene of wrestling match in Bombay’s Hanging Gardens was shot by Harishchandra Bhatwadekar, and it became India’s first movie. It was shot in the year

(1)  1896

(2)  1907

(3)  1913

(4)  1925

Answer: (1)

40. Which famous leader once said, “We would not have made economic progress, if we had not intervened on very personal matters: how you live, the noise you make, how you spit….”

(1)  Adolf Hitler, Germany

(2)  Ho Chi Minh, Vietnam

(3)  Mussolini, Italy

(4)  Lee Kuan Yew, Singapore

Answer: (4)

41. Who brought the printing press for the first time to India in the mid-16th century?

(1)  Dutch cloth merchants

(2)  British traders

(3)  Portuguese Missionaries

(4)  Arab manuscript writers

Answer: (3)

42. Measures in India to impose censorship on printed material were intiated in 1798 by the East India Company. It was directed against

(1)  Bengali social reformers

(2)  Englishmen in India

(3)  Bengali writers

(4)  Indian Princely States

Answer: (2)

43. Munshi Premchand was born in 1880 and died in the year 1936. His best-known literary work, ‘Godan’ (The Gift of Cow) was published in

(1)  1920

(2)  1934

(3)  1936

(4)  1942

Answer: (3)

44. The caste-system during early Vedic age prohibited

(1)  Inter-caste dining

(2)  Inter-caste marriages

(3)  Both

(4)  None of these

Answer: (4)

45. In which year, Thums Up, one of India’s great brands, which was sold to Coca-Cola a few years ago, was launched?

(1)  1947

(2)  1958

(3)  1979

(4)  1991

Answer: (*)

46. Which among the below mentioned Upper Palaeolithic places in India is wrongly matched with the state it is located in?

(1)  Bhimbetka, Madhya Pradesh

(2)  Betamcherla, Andhra Pradesh

(3)  Inamgaon, Maharashtra

(4)  Singh Bhumi, Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (4)

47. Kalidasa’s Kumarasambhavam’ described the story of the birth of which mythological character?

(1)  Sanatkumar

(2)  Karttikeya

(3)  Pradyumna

(4)  Abhimanyu

Answer: (2)

48. Where and when was the 2nd Buddhist Council held?

(1)  Patliputra in 250 BC

(2)  Sri Lanka in the 1st century BC

(3)  Vaishali in 383 BC

(4)  Mandalay in 1871 AD

Answer: (3)

49. In which among the following cases, the Supreme Court of India propounded the theory of basic structure of the Constitution?

(1)  Gopalan vs. State of Madras

(2)  Golak Nath

(3)  Keshvanand Bharati

(4)  Minerva Mills

Answer: (3)

50. The 52nd Amendment to the Constitution of India is most closely related to

(1)  Extension of Reservations in Government jobs

(2)  Provision for special status to Tripura

(3)  Provisions for increasing age of eligibility for voting

(4)  Provisions against political defections.

Answer: (4)

51. Which among the following political party of India has an election symbol very similar to the election symbol of Republican Party of USA?

(1)  Samajwadi Party

(2)  Bahujan Samaj Party

(3)  Janata Dal (United)

(4)  Telugu Desam Party

Answer: (2)

52. How many members, the President of India can nominate to Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha, respectively?

(1)  12, 2

(2)  2, 12

(3)  2, 10

(4)  10, 2

Answer: (2)

53. Which among the following amendments to the Constitution of India, designated Delhi as National Capital Territory (NCT)?

(1)  63rd Amendment Act

(2)  69th Amendment Act

(3)  74th Amendment Act

(4)  76 Amendment Act

Answer: (2)

54. On August 29, 1947, the Drafting Committee for Indian Constitution was appointed, with Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members. Who among the following was not the member of the Drafting Committee?

(1)  N. Gopalaswami Ayengar

(2)  Jawaharlal Nehru

(3)  Kanaiyalal Maneklal Munshi

(4)  Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer

Answer: (2)

55. Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with Directive Principles of State Policy. This feature of Indian Constitution was influenced by a similar feature of

(1)  Canadian Constitution

(2)  Australian Constitution

(3)  American Constitution

(4)  Irish Constitution

Answer: (4)

56. Which among the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution deals with forms of Oaths or Affirmations?

(1)  2nd Schedule

(2)  3rd Schedule

(3)  4th Schedule

(4)  5th Schedule

Answer: (2)

57. Which of the following is not a Constitutional provision relating to Governors of States?

(1)  Same person can be appointed as Governor for two or more States

(2)  He shall be appointed by the President

(3)  He shall hold office during the pleasure of the President

(4)  He should have completed the age of 25 years

Answer: (4)

58. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with special provision with respect to the States of Maharashtra and Gujarat?

(1)  Article 370

(2)  Article 371

(3)  Article 371-A

(4)  Article 371-B

Answer: (2)

59. Indian Constitution provides for promotion of international peace and security. Which of the following deals with this provision?

(1)  Article 51 of the Directive Principles of the State Policy

(2)  It is implied by the Preamble of the Indian Constitution

(3)  The 12th Schedule of the Indian Constitution

(4)  Article 392 empowers the President in this regard

Answer: (1)

60. Which article of the Indian Constitution defines the Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

(1)  Article 129

(2)  Article 130

(3)  Article 131

(4)  Article 132

Answer: (3)

61. Government of India recently announced constitution of NITI Aayog as a policy think tank replacing Planning Commission. NITI stands for

(1)  National Institution for Transforming India

(2)  It is not an acronym, but only a Sanskrit word for policy

(3)  National Initiative for Technological India

(4)  New Initiative for Transforming India

Answer: (1)

62. The power of promulgate ordinates during recess of Parliament is vested with

(1)  The Council of Ministers

(2)  The Parliamentary Standing Committee Urgent Enactment

(3)  The President

(4)  The Prime Minister

Answer: (3)

63. In Alternative Current (AC), the direction and magnitude of the current varies

(1)  Randomly

(2)  Periodically

(3)  Exponentially

(4)  Do not vary

Answer: (2)

64. Albert Einstein received the Nobel Prize for Physics in the year 1921 for his work on.

(1)  Mass energy equivalence given by E = mc2

(2)  Hydrogen Atom

(3)  Theory of Relativity

(4)  Photoelectric effect

Answer: (4)

65. Sir C. V. Raman receive the Nobel Prize for Physics in the year 1930 for his ground-breaking work in the field of

(1)  Brownian motion

(2)  Scattering of light

(3)  String Theory

(4)  Nuclear Physics

Answer: (2)

66. Which of the following Indian national has been the recipient of Ramon Magsaysay Award for Community Leadership?

(1)  Arvind Kejriwal

(2)  Kiran Bedi

(3)  T. N. Seshan

(4)  Dr. M. S. Swaminathan

Answer: (4)

67. Which of the following awards Satyajit Ray received posthumously?

(1)  Dadasaheb Phalke Award

(2)  Ramon Magsaysay

(3)  Bharat Ratna

(4)  Honorary Oscar

Answer: (4)

68. In which individual event, the 1st Olympic medal for Independent India was won at Helsinki Olympics?

(1)  Archery

(2)  Boxing

(3)  Wrestling

(4)  Weightlifting

Answer: (3)

69. The Gini Coefficient is a measure of

(1)  Rodent population

(2)  Migration rate of Guineas nationals

(3)  Income inequality

(4)  Ratio of coinage to currency note

Answer: (3)

70. Which of the following indices is not considered while calculating Human Development Index (HDI)?

(1)  Life expectancy

(2)  Education

(3)  Housing

(4)  Income

Answer: (3)

71. For the financial year 2013-14, what percentage of total tax receipts of the Union Government came from income tax collections?

(1)  Around 05%

(2)  Around 10%

(3)  Around 20%

(4)  Around 40%

Answer: (3)

72. India’s industrial GDP growth rate for the fiscal year 2013-14 (at the factor cost of 2004-05) is estimated to be around

(1)  0.35%

(2)  1.43%

(3)  2.48%

(4)  4.74%

Answer: (4)

73. As per Census 2011 data, which is the most populated metro city in India?

(1)  Delhi

(2)  Mumbai

(3)  Chennai

(4)  Kolkata

Answer: (2)

74. As per Census 2011 data, which among the following States has higher sex ratio than the national average?

(1)  Nagaland

(2)  Delhi

(3)  Arunachal Pradesh

(4)  Tripura

Answer: (4)

75. Professor Arvind Panagariya was recently appointed as

(1)  Chairman, University Grants Commission

(2)  Vice-Chairman, NITI Aayog

(3)  Economic Advisor to the Prime Minister

(4)  Governor, Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (2)

76. Till data, 13 serving heads of State have received Nobel Peace Prize. Only one Head of State received it for Literature. Who was he?

(1)  Theodore Roosevelt, President of USA

(2)  Eisaku Sato, Prime Minister of Japan

(3)  Oscar-Arias Sanchez, President of Costa Rica

(4)  Winston Churchill, Prime Minister of United Kingdom

Answer: (4)

77. The Radcliffe Line is named after its architect, Sir Cyril Radcliffe. It is a boundary demarcation line between

(1)  Pakistan & Afghanistan

(2)  India & Bhutan

(3)  India & Pakistan

(4)  India & Myanmar

Answer: (3)

78. Which among the following is the oldest mountain range in India ?

(1)  The Western Ghats

(2)  The Aravalli Range

(3)  The Satpura Range

(4)  The Vindhya Range

Answer: (2)

79. Which among the following Indian rivers flows from east to west, eventually meeting the Arabian Sea?

(1)  Narmada

(2)  Godavari

(3)  Krishna

(4)  Kaveri

Answer: (1)

80. Which of the following National Parks of India is located in one of the north-eastern States? It is also declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

(1)  Betla

(2)  Dechigam

(3)  Manas

(4)  Silent Valley

Answer: (3)

81. Suzanna Arundhati Roy, an Indian author and political activist, was born in

(1)  Shillong

(2)  Chennai

(3)  Thiruvananthapuram

(4)  Jeddah

Answer: (1)

82. Yellow Revolution in India refers to growth of

(1)  Militancy in the north-east

(2)  Oilseeds production

(3)  Advertising industry

(4)  Jaundice outbreak

Answer: (2)

83. French Revolution ended in 1790s with the ascent of

(1)  Rousseau

(2)  King Louis XVI

(3)  Napoleon Bonaparte

(4)  Robespierre

Answer: (3)

84. In which subject did Dr. Bhabendra Nath Saikia, famous novelist and film director of Assam, obtain Ph.D. from University of London?

(1)  Assamese Literature

(2)  Physics

(3)  Mass Communication

(4)  Mathematics

Answer: (2)

85. In his youth, Adolf Hitler aspired to be a/an,

(1)  Architect

(2)  Painter

(3)  Singer

(4)  Footballer

Answer: (2)

86. Many of the famous political leaders had a University Degree in Law. Which of the following world leaders didn’t have a Degree in Law?

(1)  Nelson Mandela

(2)  Fidel Castro

(3)  Barack Obama

(4)  John F. Kennedy

Answer: (4)

87. Ernesto Che Guevara, the famous Marxist revolutionary of South America, was born in

(1)  Bolivia

(2)  Cuba

(3)  Argentina

(4)  Guatemala

Answer: (3)

88. Charlie Hebdo, the French statirical weekly, first appeared in 1970 as s successor to another French magazine that was banned for mocking the death of former French President Charles de Gaulle. What was the name of the banned magazine?

(1)  Le Monde

(2)  Hara Kiri

(3)  La Croix

(4)  Humanite Hebdo

Answer: (2)

89. Vasant Govarikar, who passed away recently, was a famous personality in which field?

(1)  Literature

(2)  Space Science

(3)  Classical Music

(4)  Cinema

Answer: (2)

90. Who is non-member who can participate in the debate of the Lok Sabha?

(1)  Vice President

(2)  Chief Justice of India

(3)  Attorney General of India

(4)  None of the above

Answer: (3)

91. Which of the following is the wrongly matched word-meaning pair?

(1)  Indict : Accuse

(2)  Onset : Beginning

(3)  Recite : Propose

(4)  Temerity : Boldness

Answer: (3)

92. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

(1)  Either he or I am mistaken

(2)  He gave me an advice

(3)  The sceneries here are very good

(4)  Let you and I do it.

Answer: (1)

93. Which of the following word is closest in meaning to the idiom, “cast down”?

(1)  Humiliated

(2)  Defeated

(3)  Depressed

(4)  Discouraged

Answer: (3)

94. The letter, ‘o’ on the word, ‘about’, is pronounced like letter, ‘o’ in the word:

(1)  Go

(2)  Boy

(3)  Got

(4)  Now

Answer: (4)

95. Khali was sitting on the fence, means Khali was:

(1)  Living dangerously

(2)  Undecided

(3)  Stubborn

(4)  Annoying

Answer: (2)

96. In the sentence, ‘Don’t talk so loud’, the word ‘loud’ is used as:

(1)  Adverb

(2)  Adjective

(3)  Idiom

(4)  Active verb

Answer: (1)

97. In the sentence, ‘None but the brave deserves the fair’, the word ‘but’ is used as:

(1)  An adverb

(2)  A preposition

(3)  A conjunction

(4)  A pronoun

Answer: (4)

98. Which of the following is a correctly matched adjective-noun pair?

(1)  Restless – Restlessly

(2)  Restless – Restlessness

(3)  Restless – Restive

(4)  Restless – Restivity

Answer: (2)

99. His bad eyesight exempted him military service. Fill in the blank with :

(1)  in

(2)  of

(3)  from

(4)  at

Answer: (3)

100. Which of the following is an incorrectly matched word-meaning pair?

(1)  Excursion – Short journey

(2)  Homage – Tribute

(3)  Sidekick – Close companion

(4)  Intact – Tactful

Answer: (4)

SBI Central Recruitment & Promotion Department PO Examination 2015 Question Paper With Answer Key

SBI Central Recruitment & Promotion Department PO Examination 2015
SBI Central Recruitment & Promotion Department PO Examination 2015 Question Paper With Answer Key

SBI Central Recruitment & Promotion Department PO Examination 2015

Directions (Qs. 1 to 6): Study the given information and answer the questions. When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line or words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digit numbers).

Input : 14 36 methodology 21 of research 59 crucial 98 very 62 is

Step I : 98 14 36 methodology 21 of research 59 crucial very is 62

Step II : 98 very 14 36 methodology 21 of 59 crucial is research 62

Step III :  59 98 very 14 methodology 21 of crucial is research 62 36

Step IV : 59 98 very of 14 21 crucial is methodology research 62 36

Step V : 21 59 98 very of crucial is methodology research 62 36 14

Step VI : 21 59 98 very of is crucial methodology research 62 36 14

Step VII is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input : 65 work in 23 to be 13 89 managed 48 97 load 34 healthy 55 style

1. Which element is exactly between ‘style’ and ‘be’ in second last step of the given arrangement?

(a)  work

(b)  healthy

(c)  23

(d)  load

(e)  be

Answer: (d)

2. What is the position of 48 from the right end in the third step?

(a)  sixth

(b)  seventh

(c)  fifth

(d)  eighth

(e)  ninth

Answer: (d)

3. Which of the following is fifth step of the arrangement based on the given input?

(a)  46 65 97 to managed in 23 be 13 load healthy style work 89 55 34

(b)  46 work 65 style 97 in 23 be 13 load healthy 89 managed 55 to 34

(c)  46 65 97 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to 89 55 34

(d)  34 46 55 65 89 97 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to

(e)  89 55 34 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to 46 65 97

Answer: (c)

4. In which step are the elements ‘be 13 healthy in’ found in the same order ?

(a)  third

(b)  sixth

(c)  fourth

(d)  the given order of elements is not found in any step

(e)  fifth

Answer: (b)

5. How many steps will be required to complete the given arrangement based on the given input ?

(a)  eight

(b)  ten

(c)  seven

(d)  nine

(e)  six

Answer: (a)

6. Which element is eighth to left of the element which is twelfth from the left end of the third last step?

(a)  97

(b)  23

(c)  work

(d)  style

(e)  to

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 7-11) : Each question below consists of a question and two statements I & II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.

7. All are the five friends F, G, H, I and J, sitting in a straight line facing north?

I. F sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between F and H. J sits to immediate left of H. G and J are immediate neighbours of each other.

II. J faces north and sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between J and I. H sits seconds to the right of I, H sits to immediate left of G.

(a)  The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d)  The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.

Answer: (a)

8. All are the five friends A, B, C, D and E who are sitting around the circular table facing the centre.

I. D sits to immediate right of E. E faces the centre. C sits second to the left of the D. A is not an immediate neighbour of B.

II. B sits to immediate right of C. A sits to immediate left of E. E is not an immediate neighbour of B. E faces the centre. D is not an immediate neighbour of C.

(a)  The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d)  The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

9. Is C the mother of B?

I. P is the father of A and B. R has only one brother P. C is sister-in-law of R. R is unmarried. F is the mother of R. F has only two children.

II. H has only two children P and R. P is the father of A. B is the only brother of A. R is unmarried. H is the father-in-law of C.

(a)  The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d)  The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

10. Five movies P, Q, R, S and T are scheduled to be screened from Monday to Friday of the same week. Which move will be screened on Friday?

I. Movie P will be screened on Tuesday. Only two movies will be screened between movies R and S. R will be screened before S.

II. Movie Q will be screened on Wednesday. Only one movie will be screened between movies Q and R. S will be screened immediately before movie T.

(a)  The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d)  The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.

Answer: (e)

11. How far is point R from point P?

I. A person starts from Point P, walks 15 metres to the south, takes right turn and walks 4 meteres. he then takes left turn and walks 7 metres. He takes left turn again, walks for 4 m and reaches point Q. If the person takes left turn and walks 7 m, he will reach point R.

II. A person starts from Point P, walks 14 m towards the east, takes a left turn and walks 3 m. He then takes a left turn again and walks for 14 m to reach point N. If he takes a right turn from point N and walks 5 m, he will be 27 m away from point R.

(a)  The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d)  The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 12-17) : Study the information carefully and answer these questions.

   Eight friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T sitting around a circular table are at equal distances between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of the people are facing the centre while some face outside (i.e. in a direction opposite to the centre).

Note: Facing the same direction means if one faces the centre then the other also faces the centre and vice versa. Facing opposite direction means if one person faces center then the other faces outside and vice versa.

S sits second to the right of P. P faces the centre. T sits second to the left of S. T is an immediate neighbour of both O and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. M sits second to the left of R. T sits second to the left of N. M sits second to the left of O. T faces the same direction as Q. N sits third to the right of M.

12. Who sits exactly between S and T, when counted from the left of S?

(a)  M

(b)  Q

(c)  P

(d)  O

(e)  N

Answer: (d)

13. How many people in the given arrangement face the centre?

(a)  One

(b)  Three

(c)  Five

(d)  Two

(e)  Four

Answer: (b)

14. Who sits second to the right of N?

(a)  R

(b)  P

(c)  T

(d)  S

(e)  O

Answer: (b)

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a)  R

(b)  S

(c)  Q

(d)  O

(e)  M

Answer: (c)

16. Which of the following is true regarding T as per the given sitting arrangements ?

(a)  T faces the centre

(b)  Only two people sit between N & T

(c)  Only three people sit between T and P

(d)  S sits second to the left of T

(e)  Only one persons sits between T and R

Answer: (c)

17. What is M’s position with respect to T?

(a)  Second to the left

(b)  Fifth to the right

(c)  Third to the right

(d)  Third to the left

(e)  Fourth to the right

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 18-23) : In each questions two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

18. Statements :

Some prices are costs.

Some costs are amounts.

All amounts are expenses.

Conclusion I :

At least some amounts are prices.

Conclusion II :

All amounts being prices is a possibility.

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true

(c)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(d)  Only conclusion II is true

(e)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (d)

19. Statements :

All invitations are rejections.

Some invitations are celebrations.

No rejection is an attraction.

Conclusion I :

Some celebrations are rejections.

Conclusion II :

All celebrations are rejections.

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true

(c)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(d)  Only conclusion II is true

(e)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (a)

20. Statements :

All grades are scales.

All scales are categories.

Conclusion I :

All grades are categories.

Conclusion II :

All categories are scales.

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true

(c)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(d)  Only conclusion II is true

(e)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (e)

21. Statements :

Some metals are papers.

All papers are alloys.

No alloy is a wood.

Conclusion I :

All woods being metals is a possibility

Conclusion II :

All metals being woods is a possibility.

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true

(c)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(d)  Only conclusion II is true

(e)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (c)

22. Statements :

Some metals are papers.

All papers are alloys.

No alloys is a wood.

Conclusion I :

No paper is a wood.

Conclusion II :

At least some metals are alloys.

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true

(c)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(d)  Only conclusion II is true

(e)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (b)

23. Statements :

Some prices are costs.

Some costs are amounts.

All amounts are expenses.

Conclusion I :

No expense is a cost.

Conclusion II:

At least some expenses are prices.

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true

(c)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(d)  Only conclusion II is true

(e)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (e)

24. A statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II given below it. A course of action is an administrative decision to be taken for improvements, follow-up or further action in regard to the problems, policy etc. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows from the given statements.

Statement: There have been structural shifts from agriculture to industry in country Z. While industries contribute to 67% of the country’s GDP, it is leading to steady and undesirable decline in the participation of labour force in agriculture.

I.The government should curtail number of industries growing up in the country in order to promote the agriculture.

II. Incentives for working in agriculture should be made competitive with that of other sectors.

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true

(c)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(d)  Only conclusion II is true

(e)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (d)

Directions (Qs. 25-27) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.

   Each of the six people U, V, W, X, Y and Z stayed for a different number of day in India. X stayed for less number of days than only V, Y stayed for more number of days then only two people. U did not stay less than Y. W did not stay for the minimum number of days. The one who stayed for the second lowest number of days stayed for eight days. U stayed for 17 days in India.

25. The one who stayed for the maximum number of days stayed for 15 more days than W. Which of the following is possibly the number of days for which it stayed in India?

(a)  5

(b)  32

(c)  23

(d)  20

(e)  17

Answer: (c)

26. Which of the following is true with respect to Z as per the given information?

(a)  The possible number of days for which Z stayed in India is 14 days

(b)  Z stayed for the minimum number of days

(c)  None of the given options is true

(d)  Only two peoples stayed for more number of days than Z.

(e)  Z definitely stayed for more number days than Y.

Answer: (b)

27. Which of the following may be the possible number of days for which Y stayed in India?

(a)  11

(b)  8

(c)  19

(d)  5

(e)  22

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 28-32) : Study the given information carefully and answer these questions.

   Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons in row-I, J, K, L, M and N are seated and all of them are facing north and in row-II P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all are facing south (but not necessarily in the same order). Each person also likes different flowers namely Gazania, Plumeria, Tulip, Orchids, Lily, Rose, Daffodil, Daisy, Peony and Dahlia (but not necessarily in the same order).

N sits exactly in the center of the row and faces the one who likes orchids. Only one person sits between N and the one who likes Lily. S faces one of the immediate neighbour of the one who likes Lily. Only one person sits between P and the one who likes Orchids. P is not an immediate neighbour of S. P faces on e of the immediate neighbour of L. M is neither an immediate neighbour of L nor faces S. Q is not an immediate neighbour of S and faces the one who likes Plumeria. M does not face R. M faces one of the immediate neighbour of the one who likes rose. Only one person sits between the one who likes Rose and the one who likes Gazania. The one who likes Peony and the one who likes Daisy face each other. Only two people sit between the one who likes Daisy face each other. Only two people sit between the one who likes Daisy and the one who likes Daffodila. J does not like Daffodil. The one who likes Dahlia sits fourth to the right of the one who likes Peony.

28. Who amongst the following is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Peony ?

(a)  The one who likes Rose

(b)  The one who likes Lily

(c)  The one who likes Gazania

(d)  K

(e)  T

Answer: (c)

29. Which of the following flowers does S like?

(a)  Lily

(b)  Gazania

(c)  Rose

(d)  Orchids

(e)  Daffodila

Answer: (c)

30. Which of the following is definitely true as per the given arrangement?

(a)  L faces R

(b)  Q is an immediate neighbour of P

(c)  The one who likes Daisy is an immediate neighbour of P

(d)  Q likes Daffodila

(e)  The one who likes Dahlia faces N

Answer: (b)

31. Which of the following pairs represent the people sitting at the extreme end of the two rows?

(a)  P, J

(b)  Q, L

(c)  R, K

(d)  S, K

(e)  S, L

Answer: (a)

32. Who amongst the following likes Tulip?

(a)  N

(b)  P

(c)  S

(d)  Q

(e)  J

Answer: (a)

33. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:

As per a recent survey 85% of the work force today is either actively looking for a job or open to talking to recruiters and relevant opportunities; the ones who are satisfied with their job.

Which of the following many be a reason for the above mentioned results of the survey.

(a)  As there is the wide array of opportunity today and head hunters are always seeking for professionals, people are not willing. to let go off an opportunity to do something new and challenging

(b)  As per a recent survey more than 40% people today are dissatisfied with their jobs as there is the wide gap between what they study in the class room as compared to the actual work they do

(c)  Some people in the country take education loan for completing higher education and are expected to repay the loans themselves after they start working

(d)  As employees today are of different age group and back-grounds it becomes difficult for the HR department to organize employment engagement activities to improve the job satisfaction of employees

(e)  Only a few people study for high specialized courses in the country and they are always in demand as there is high scale gap in many organizations.

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 34 & 35) : Each of the questions consists of a statement followed by two Reasons I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements numbered I and II weakens or strengthens the statement and mark the appropriate answer.

34. Statement :

The world should move towards using bio-fuels in the future as these are more environment friendly as compared to regular fossil-fuels.

Reasons:

I. While bio-fuels are cleaner to burn, the process to produce the fuel, including the necessary machinery leads to very-high carbon emission.

II. As bio-fuels are manufactured from materials such as crop waste, manure and other by-products, these, unlike fossil-fuels, are easily renewable.

(a)  Reason I weakens the information while reason II is a natural statement.

(b)  Both reasons I and II weaken the given statement.

(c)  Reason I strengthens the information while reason II weakens the statement.

(d)  Reason I weakens the information while reason II strengthens the statement.

(e)  Both reasons I and II strengthen the given statements.

Answer: (d)

35. Statement :

Always remain in an air conditioned environment for better health and well-being.

Reasons :

I. Filters in the air-conditioners lower exposure to allergy creating pollen and other outdoor allergies.

II. Spending too much time in an air-conditioned environment result in gradual intolerance of body towards natural temperatures.

(a)  Reason I weakens the information while reason II is a natural statement.

(b)  Both reasons I and II weaken the information

(c)  Reason I strengthens the information while reason II weakens the statement.

(d)  Reason I weakens the information while reason II strengthens the statement.

(e)  Both reasons I and II strengthen the information.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 36 to 41) : In each of these questions a statement is followed by two conclusions I and II. Select the correct option.

36. Statements :

B ≤ A = N > K ≥ S

Conclusion I :

A > S

Conclusion II :

B ≤ K

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true

(c)  Neither conclusion I nor II are true

(d)  Only conclusion II is true

(e)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (e)

37. Statement :

B ≤ A = N > K ≥ S

Conclusion I :

B ≤ N

Conclusion II :

S < N

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true

(c)  Neither conclusion I nor II are true

(d)  Only conclusion II is true

(e)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (b)

38. Statement :

K ≥ L = M ≥ N = O ≤ P

Conclusion I

K ≤ N

Conclusion II :

L = O

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true

(c)  Neither conclusion I nor II are true

(d)  Only conclusion II is true

(e)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (c)

39. Statement :

K ≥ L = M ≥ N = O ≤ P

Conclusion I :

K < P

Conclusion II :

M ≥ O

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true

(c)  Neither conclusion I nor II are true

(d)  Only conclusion II is true

(e)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (d)

40. Statement :

X < Y ≤ Z = W, K ≥ J > Z

Conclusion I:

Z < K

Conclusion II :

Y ≤ W

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true

(c)  Neither conclusion I nor II are true

(d)  Only conclusion II is true

(e)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (b)

41. Statement :

X < Y ≤ Z = W, K ≥ J > Z

Conclusion I:

X ≥ J

Conclusion II:

K > Y

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true

(c)  Neither conclusion I nor II are true

(d)  Only conclusion II is true

(e)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (d)

Directions (Qs. 42 to 44) : Study the following information and answer the given questions.

  A and Y are brothers of K. Y is the son of P and S. P is the daughter of X. M is the father-in-law of S. Q is the son of X.

42. If J is brother of X, then how is J related to Q.

(a)  Uncle

(b)  Nephew

(c)  Cannot be determined

(d)  Brother-in-law

(e)  Son-in-law

Answer: (a)

43. How is Y related to M?

(a)  Nephew

(b)  Father

(c)  Brother-in-law

(d)  Grandson

(e)  Brother

Answer: (d)

44. How is K related to Q?

(a)  Cannot be determined

(b)  Niece

(c)  Daughter

(d)  Nephew

(e)  Son-in-law

Answer: (a)

45. Read the given information carefully and answer the given question.

Five fisherman from Country X were sentenced to imprisonment by the High Court of Country Y on charges of smuggling narcotics from Country X to Country Y.

Which of the following supports the legal action taken by country Y?

(i) Country X had given details of a new fisherman that had no record of involvement in drug-related activities.

(ii) The naval authorities of both the countries X and Y have found traces of narcotics in the fish boxes that were shipped from Country X to Country Y by these fisherman.

(iii) All the fish boxes that are shipped between countries undergo a strict process of checking.

(iv) It was found that two of the five fisherman who were sentenced to death penalty were earlier imprisoned for the same reason a few years back.

(a)  Both (ii) and (iii)

(b)  Both (ii) and (v)

(c)  Only (v)

(d)  None of the given statements

(e)  Only (ii)

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 46-50) : Read the given information and answer the given questions.

  Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on separate floors of an 8-floor building. Ground floor is numbered 1, first floor is numbered 2 and so on until the top most floor is numbered 8.

C lives on floor No. 3. Only one person lives between C and F. Only one person lives between C and G.

E lives immediately above B.

H lives immediately above F. H lives on any of the floors below D.

Only one person lives between D and A. D lives above A.

46. Who lives on the floor immediately below D?

(a)  Other than those given as options

(b)  H

(c)  A

(d)  G

(e)  C

Answer: (d)

47. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

(a)  Only one person lives between E and G

(b)  A lives on an even numbered floor

(c)  A lives immediately below C

(d)  F lives on floor No. 5

(e)  A lives immediately above H.

Answer: (b)

48. How many people live between the floors on which D and C live?

(a)  One

(b)  More than three

(c)  Three

(d)  Two

(e)  No more

Answer: (d)

49. Who amongst the following lives between B and G?

(a)  No one

(b)  C

(c)  E

(d)  H

(e)  D

Answer: (e)

50. Who amongst the following lives on floor number 5?

(a)  A

(b)  G

(c)  F

(d)  D

(e)  H

Answer: (b)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Qs. 1 to 5) : In these questions, a sentence has two blanks, each blank indicates that something has been confined. Choose the word that best fits in the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

1. _______ Dinasours are believed to be the ancestors of modern birds, The discovery of soft issue in Dinasour fossils containing proteins found only in birds is very _______.

(a)  Though – Unfortunate

(b)  Recently – Common

(c)  Since – Exciting

(d)  Perhaps – Remarkable

(e)  Moreover – Welcome

Answer: (c)

2. The van Allon belts which are _____ between 13000to 60000 KM above the earth’s surface were discovered in 1958 and contain electrons which play ______ with electronic systems on satellites.

(a)  Somewhere – damages

(b)  Located – Havoc

(c)  Position – Mayhem

(d)  Situated – Part

(e)  Vicinity – Confusion

Answer: (b)

3. Rice farmers use ________ methods of farming and old equipments making the cost of price ______ twice as much as it is in other countries.

(a)  Obsolete – Economical

(b)  Modern – Expensive

(c)  Future – Virtuality

(d)  Antiquated – Almost

(e)  Sustainable – Approximate

Answer: (d)

4. Some experts believe that the best ______ to reduce the number of accidents caused by drivers using their mobile phones to create an app/_______ communications when the vehicle is in motion and unblocking them when the vehicle reaches its destination.

(a)  Tactic – Block

(b)  Strategy – Disabling

(c)  Part – Facilitating

(d)  Decision – Expediting

(e)  Method – Further

Answer: (a)

5. Services provided by money transfer companies are _______ for people who don’t have bank accounts or who are working far from home and are helpful to _______ trade and disperse wealth.

(a)  Fundamental – Compute

(b)  Prerequisite – Invigorating

(c)  Vitally – Strengthen

(d)  Essentially – Bolster

(e)  Inherent – Foster

Answer: (d)

Directions (Qs. 6 to 10) : Rearrange the given six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

(A) She follows in the footsteps of other renowned female politicians like Chile’s Michelle Bachelet and Germany’s Angela Merkel.

(B) Women are also rising to the forefront in other parts of the Government.

(C) And this leadership can  be seen in the growing number of women who are becoming political leaders and the most recent being Dilma Rousseff who look over as Brazil’s first women President.

(D) It is defined as the ability to influence or lead through persuasion or attraction by co-opting people rather than coercing them.

(E) The leadership of women in politics, business and society is becoming evident across the globe.

(F) These trends represent the growing needs for ‘soft power’ in today’s world.

6. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  F

(e)  E

Answer: (a)

7. Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  C

(b)  B

(c)  F

(d)  D

(e)  E

Answer: (d)

8. Which of the following should be the sixth (last) sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  E

(b)  D

(c)  B

(d)  A

(e)  F

Answer: (e)

9. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  E

(b)  D

(c)  B

(d)  F

(e)  C

Answer: (c)

10. Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  C

(c)  B

(d)  F

(e)  E

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 11-20) : Read the following passage carefully and answer these questions. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

   The evolution of Bring Your Own Device (BYOD)trend has been as profound as it has been rapid. It represents the more visible sign that the boundaries between personal life and work life are blurring. The 9 am – 5 pm model of working solely from office has become archaic and increasingly people are working extended hours from a range of locations. At the very heart of this evolution is the ability to access enterprise networks from anywhere and anytime. The concept of cloud computing serves effectively to extend the office out of office. The much heralded benefit of BYOD is greater productivity. However, recent research has suggested that this is the greatest myth of BYOD and the reality is that BYOD in practice poses new challenges that may outweigh the benefits. A worldwide survey commissioned by Fortinet chose to look at attitudes towards BYOD and security from the users point of view instead of the IT managers. Specifically the survey was conducted in 15 territories on a group of graduate employees in their early twenties because they represent the first generation to enter the workplace with an expectation of own device use. Moreover, they also represent tomorrow’s influencer and decision makers. The survey findings reveal that for financial organizations, the decision to embrace BYOD is extremely dangerous. Larger organizations will have mature IT strategies and policies in place. But what about smaller financial business? They might not have such well-developed strategies to protect confidential data.

Crucially, within younger employee group, 55% of the people share on expectation that they should be allowed to use their own devices in the workplace or for work purposes. With this expectation comes the very real risk that employees may consider contravening company policy banning the use of own devices. The threats posed by this level of subversion cannot be overstated. The survey casts doubt on the idea of BYOD leading to greater productivity by revealing the real reason people want to use their own devices. Only 26% of people in this age group cite efficiency as the reason they want to use their own devices, while 63% admit that the main reason is so they have access to their favourite applications. But with personal applications so close to hand, the risks to the business must surely include distraction and time wasting. To support this assumption 46% of people polled acknowledged time wasting as the greatest threat to the organization, while 42% citing greater exposure to theft or loss of confidential data. Clearly, from a user perspective there is great deal of contradiction surrounding BYOD and there exists an undercurrent of selfishness where users expect to use their own devices, but mostly for personal interest. They recognize the risks to the organization but are adamant that those risks are worth taking.

11. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons did Fortinet conduct the survey on a group of graduate employees in their early twenties?

(A) As this group represents the future decision makers

(B) As this group represents the first generation who entered the workforce with a better understanding of sophisticated gadgets.

(C) As this group represents the first generation to enter the workplace expecting that they can use their own devices for work purpose

(a)  All (A), (B) & (C)

(b)  Only (C)

(c)  Both (A) & (C)

(d)  Only (A)

(e)  Only (B)

Answer: (c)

12. Which of the following is not true about BYOD?

(a)  BYOD enables employees to access enterprise network from anywhere and anytime

(b)  Due to evolution of BYOD trend the 9 am – 5 pm model of working solely from office has become outdated

(c)  Recent research has confirmed that BYOD boosts organizational productivity

(d)  The concept of cloud computing facilitates the BYOD trend

(e)  All the given facts are true

Answer: (c)

13. According to the passage, why would the decision to embrace BYOD prove dangerous to smaller financial businesses?

(a)  Their employees have poor knowledge about their devices which in turn pose a threat to the confidential data of the organization

(b)  Their employees are more vulnerable to misplacement of devices

(c)  They may lack mature IT strategies and policies required to protect confidential data

(d)  They cannot afford to deal with damage liability issues of employee-owned devices

(e)  Their employees have a tendency to change jobs frequently

Answer: (c)

14. According to the passage, the expectation of younger employees that they should be allowed to use their own devices in the workplace, entails which of the following risks ?

(A) Younger employees may deliberately transfer confidential data of their companies to rivals if they are not allowed to use their own devices for work purpose.

(B) Younger employees may strongly fell like leaving the company if it prevents usage of own device and join some other company that does not have such stringent policies.

(C) Younger employees may consider flouting company policy prohibiting usage of their own devices in the workplace or for work purposes.

(a)  Only (C)

(b)  Only (B)

(c)  Both (A) & (C)

(d)  Only (A)

(e)  All (A), (B) & (C)

Answer: (a)

15. According to the findings of the survey conducted by Fortinet, why do majority of employees prefer using their own devices for work purpose ?

(a)  As they often find t hat the devices provided by the company lack quality

(b)  As they have access to their favourite applications while working

(c)  As majority of them believe that output doubles when they use their own devices for work purpose

(d)  As handling data from their own devices reinforces their sense of responsibility

(e)  As it helps them create a brand of their own

Answer: (b)

16. What is/are the author’s main objective(s) in writing the passage ?

(A) To break the  myth that BYOD promotes employee efficiency and organizational productivity

(B) To suggest ways to control subversion across levels of corporate chain of command

(C) To throw light upon the fact that employees even after knowing the risks involved, prefer to use their own devices for work purpose mostly for personal benefits

(a)  Both (A) & (C)

(b)  All (A), (B) & (C)

(c)  Only (C)

(d)  Only (A)

(e)  Only (B)

Answer: (b)

Directions (Qs. 17 & 18) : Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

17. Heralded

(a)  Suspected

(b)  Publicised

(c)  Dragged

(d)  Objective

(e)  Benefit

Answer: (b)

18. Outweigh

(a)  Control

(b)  Venture

(c)  Perish

(d)  Determine

(e)  Surpass

Answer: (e)

Direction (Qs. 19 & 20) : Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

19. Embrace

(a)  Contradict

(b)  Disobey

(c)  Curtail

(d)  Reject

(e)  Obscure

Answer: (d)

20. Subversion

(a)  Compliance

(b)  Sanity

(c)  Popularity

(d)  Destabilization

(e)  Clarity

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 21 to 25) : Which of the phrase given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is given as it is given and no correction is required, mark ‘No correction’ required i.e. (e) as the answer.

21. Getting tax refunds is a problematic not only for the common man but also senior officials.

(a)  are problems

(b)  is a problem

(c)  are a problem

(d)  is problem

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (b)

22. The World Bank represents a particularly difficult case of organization cultural changes.

(a)  represent

(b)  representing

(c)  representation

(d)  have representing

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (e)

23. Big companies are hiking stipends for summer internships by 40%, sending out a strong signal that they expects the economy to new up.

(a)  them expecting

(b)  they expect

(c)  these expectation

(d)  expect these

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (b)

24. Declining crude prices have raise hopes of interest of rate cuts.

(a)  have rise

(b)  have rising

(c)  have raised

(d)  has risen

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (c)

25. India continue to be on the top of the global consumer confidence this year as well.

(a)  continue to being

(b)  continuing to be

(c)  continuing too be

(d)  continues to be

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (d)

Directions (Qs. 26 to 30) : Read this sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistakes/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one  part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ i.e. (e) as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

26. After the cash-strapped corporation/ expressed its inability to provide funds / for various developmental works, the office-bearers of the civic body started / lobbying at special financial and from state governments.

(a)  After the cash-strapped corporation

(b)  expressed its inability to provide funds

(c)  for various developmental works, the office-bearers of the civic body started

(d)  lobbying at special financial and from state governments

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

27. Three things are / essential for a start-up to succeed, / a product that is in demand, / a good team and as well as a minimum expenditure.

(a)  Three things are

(b)  essential for a start-up to succeed,

(c)  a product that is in demand,

(d)  a good team and as well as a minimum expenditure.

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

28. We all have at / some point in our lives / wondered if we are actually / being too nice to someone.

(a)  We all have at

(b)  some point in our lives

(c)  wondered if we are actually

(d)  being too  nice to someone

(e)  No error

Answer: (e)

29. Anticipating a foggy winter, / the railway authorities have / decided to / cancel thirty trains.

(a)  Anticipating a foggy winter,

(b)  the railway authorities have

(c)  decided to

(d)  cancel thirty trains.

(e)  No error

Answer: (e)

30. New businesses today / are increasing focusing on / introducing various perks and motivation programmes / to help retain employees.

(a)  New businesses today

(b)  are increasing focusing on

(c)  introducing various perks and motivation programmes

(d)  to help retain employees.

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

Directions (Qs. 31 to 40) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

   In our day and age, technology is omnipresent and integral part of our lives. However, although the main purpose of technology is to make our lives easier, the reactions on opinions and technology are very diverse. This year, various sessions at the Women’s Forum covered the influence of new technologies in our daily life. It is worthwhile analyzing two contrasting perspectives in depth, to understand how broad this debate is.

On the one hand, technology and digital media can be a great help to reach out to other  people and spread your message to a very large platform. The session “How to be a digital influencer” was analyzing exactly this question, and introduced various platforms and strategies on how to use the digital world to your advantage. Social media removes all distances : Geographic, social and hierarchical. You can reach, at any time, and communicate in real time. Thus, a permanent link for communication has been created.

Today, everyone has the ability to transmit knowledge and thus credibility of the creator of knowledge is more important than even before. Technology has taken the universal communication method of storytelling and transformed it, in a way that now more stories can reach more people through social media platforms than ever before. People should find their digital media voice, tell sharable stories and drive engagement. Also, it is very important to be authentic and truly about the message you are trying to convey through the digital media.

Another session, the very same day, analyzed how exactly the opposite is true and how new technologies the opposite is true and how new technologies actually cause stress and suffering, because of a concept referred to as “infobesity”. During this session, it was argued that due to the acceleration of our lives led by the acceleration of our lives led by the acceleration of technology, we have changed the way we consume and generate information. People are trying to live ten lives at once and a lot of stress and anxiety occurs from that. Thus, we are suffering from digital bulimia, meaning that we take in a lot of information at once, without really processing it for ourselves, and in turn create a lot of new information. We are at the same time creators and victims of information overload. Thus, it is obvious that technological advancement has failed in its mission of making everybody’s life easier, as many people are reacting negatively to it.

31. According to the passage, which of the following is not true about the characteristics of ‘infobesity’?

(a)  The pace of our lives have increased significantly due to technology

(b)  With the help of technology, people try to do multiple things at the same time, leading to stress.

(c)  Technology makes our lives sedentary and leads to health problems

(d)  Due to technology, each individual is bombarded with excess information

(e)  All the options are rue according to the passage

Answer: (c)

32. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word given as bold as used in the passage?

DIVERSE

(a)  similar

(b)  separate

(c)  interwoven

(d)  simultaneous

(e)  together

Answer: (a)

33. Which of the following can be said about the invention of the car?

(A) More than being a boon, this invention has become an inconvenience tous.

(B) It has invoked in us the desire to travel to places that we would not have otherwise gone to.

(C) It has enabled us to have more time for ourselves.

(a)  Only A and C

(b)  Only B and C

(c)  Only A and B

(d)  All A, B and C

(e)  Only B

Answer: (d)

34. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the passage?

(a)  The Paradox of Technological Advance

(b)  The Different Types of Technology Available

(c)  Technology Propagation – The Road to Nowhere

(d)  Technology and Gainful Insight

(e)  Technological Progress Across the Continents

Answer: (a)

35. According to the author, which of the following can be said about reaching to people through the medium of technology?

(A) Today’s digital age  has made it essential for an individual to send a message that is genuine in nature.

(B) The ability to impact many people through a message is solely dependent on the number of times the same message goes out, regardless of its authenticity.

(C) Technology has made it easier to reach out to masses of people at the same time.

(a)  Only C

(b)  All A, B and C

(c)  Only A and C

(d)  Only A and B

(e)  Only B

Answer: (c)

36. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

(A) It is in our own interest that we keep check on the amount of digital information that we generate.

(B) The promise on which technology was designed was that it should make our lives simpler

(C) It is best that we learn to survive without any technological intervention in our lives.

(a)  Only A and B

(b)  All A, B and C

(c)  Only B and C

(d)  Only A

(e)  Only B

Answer: (a)

37. According to the passage, which of the following is author’s opinion/ statement about technology?

(a)  Beware! Technology can only bring doom if allowed to proliferate.

(b)  Take responsibility for how you let technology impact your life

(c)  Go head and invest in the latest technology, it is worth it.

(d)  What the future of technology holds for us is unknown, wait and watch

(e)  Other than those given as options.

Answer: (e)

38. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?

ENGAGEMENT

(a)  Appointment

(b)  Involvement

(c)  Meeting

(d)  Rendezvous

(e)  Date

Answer: (b)

39. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?

DESIGNED

(a)  Calculated

(b)  Deliberated

(c)  Attracted

(d)  Created

(e)  Patterned

Answer: (d)

40. Which of the following is the most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage ?

SPREAD

(a)  Collect

(b)  Take

(c)  Restrict

(d)  Join

(e)  Multiply

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 41 to 50) : In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.

   Changing an organization’s culture is one of the most difficult leadership challenges. That’s because an organization’s culture ….(41)…. interlocking set of goals, roles, processes, values communications practices, attitudes and assumptions. These elements …..(42)…. together as a mutually reinforcing system and combine to prevent any ….(43)… to change it. That is why single-fix challenges, such as the introduction of teams. Of lean, or agile, or scrum or knowledge management or some new process, may ….(44)…to make progress for a while, but …(45)… the interlocking elements of the organizational culture …(46)…. over and the change is inexorably drawn …(47)… into the existing organizational culture.

Changing a culture is large scale undertaking and eventually all of the organizational focus for changing minds will need to be put in play. However, the ….(48)… in which they are deployed has a critical …(49)… on the …(50)… of success.

41.

(a)  less

(b)  embraces

(c)  comprises

(d)  makes

(e)  composes

Answer: (c)

42.

(a)  amalgamate

(b)  conjoin

(c)  fill

(d)  stands

(e)  attach

Answer: (a)

43.

(a)  attempt

(b)  energy

(c)  ways

(d)  power

(e)  tries

Answer: (a)

44.

(a)  look

(b)  appear

(c)  perform

(d)  suspect

(e)  seek

Answer: (b)

45.

(a)  especially

(b)  presently

(c)  likely

(d)  eventually

(e)  lately

Answer: (d)

46.

(a)  bounce

(b)  throw

(c)  seize

(d)  jump

(e)  take

Answer: (e)

47.

(a)  forth

(b)  ahead

(c)  gain

(d)  set

(e)  back

Answer: (e)

48.

(a)  order

(b)  succession

(c)  idea

(d)  step

(e)  label

Answer: (a)

49.

(a)  affect

(b)  impact

(c)  control

(d)  jolt

(e)  shake

Answer: (b)

50.

(a)  change

(b)  odd

(c)  risk

(d)  likelihood

(e)  option

Answer: (d)

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Qs. 1 to 6): In each of these questions a number series is given. After the series a number is given followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) & (e). You  have to complete the series starting with the given number following the sequence of original series and answer these questions.

1. 48        24      36      90      315    5

    20        (a)     (b)     (c)      (d)     (e)

What will come in place of (d)?

(a)  131.25

(b)  133.75

(c)  136

(d)  140

(e)  142.25

Answer: (a)

2. 2          11      52      183    430    555

    4          (a)     (b)     (c)      (d)     (e)

What will come in place of (b)?

(a)  92

(b)  98

(c)  82

(d)  88

(e)  96

Answer: (a)

3. 7           9        21      67      273    1371

     6          (a)     (b)     (c)      (d)     (e)

What will come in place of (b)?

(a)  19

(b)  22

(c)  18

(d)  20

(e)  17

Answer: (a)

4. 9           8        12      27      92      435

      7          (a)     (b)     (c)      (d)     (e)

What will come in place of (c)?

(a)  19

(b)  12

(c)  13

(d)  15

(e)  16

Answer: (d)

5. 8          9        21      68      279    1404

     5          (a)     (b)     (c)      (d)     (e)

What will come in place of (d)?

(a)  106

(b)  169

(c)  156

(d)  184

(e)  174

Answer: (b)

6. 4           7        19      73      381    2161

     8          (a)     (b)     (c)      (d)     (e)

What will come in place of (c)?

(a)  106

(b)  169

(c)  156

(d)  184

(e)  174

Answer: (b)

Directions (Qs. 7 to 12) : Study the following table to answer these questions.

  Details of manpower deployed at different levels by a company in different departments

7. Total number of female employees (manager and officers) in Procurement Department is by what percent more than their male counterpart? (rounded off to the nearest integers)

(a)  11

(b)  12

(c)  15

(d)  14

(e)  13

Answer: (a)

8. What is the difference between total number of male officers in Advertising and Public Relations Departments and the total number of female managers in these two departments.

(a)  240

(b)  180

(c)  150

(d)  200

(e)  220

Answer: (d)

9. What is the respective ratio between total number of female managers from Operations and Finance Departments and the total numbers of male officers from these two departments?

(a)  4 : 5

(b)  3 : 5

(c)  1 : 2

(d)  3: 4

(e)  2 : 3

Answer: (d)

10. Total number of male officers in Advertising and Sales Department is what percent of the total number of officers in these two department?

(a)  52

(b)  54

(c)  56

(d)  58

(e)  65

Answer: (b)

11. Total number of female managers in Finance Department is what percent of the total number of male employees in Sales Department.

(a)  39.4

(b)  36.25

(c)  41.25

(d)  41.75

(e)  44.5

Answer: (a)

12. What is the ratio between total number of managers in Public Relations, Finance and Sales, and Operation Departments and the total number of officers in Advertising. Sales and Procurement Departments respectively.

(a)  7 : 8

(b)  11 : 13

(c)  6 : 7

(d)  13 : 15

(e)  13 : 16

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 13 to 17) : Each of these questions consist of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropriate option.

13. What is the speed of the train? (in kmph)

(I) The car takes 2 hours more than the train to cover a distance of 264 km.

(II) The train moves 22 kmph faster than the car.

(a)  If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  If the data in both the statements I & II together the necessary to answer the question.

(d)  If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

14. How many students are there in the class?

(I) The average weight of the class is 52 kg.

(II) If two students weighing 44 kg and 52 kg leave the class and are replaced by two students weighing 64 kg and 56 kg, the average weight of the class increases by 1.2 kg.

(a)  If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  If the data in both the statements I & II together the necessary to answer the question.

(d)  If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

15. Cedric mixed two types of rice for selling the mixtures in his shop. What is the quantity (in kg) of first type of rice in the mixture?

(I) The price of the first type of rice is Rs. 36 per kg. Cedric earned a profit of 20% by selling the mixture @ Rs. 57.60 per kg.

(II) The price of the second type of rice is Rs. 50 per kg. The difference between the quantity of first type of price and second type of price in the mixture is 3 kg.

(a)  If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  If the data in both the statements I & II together the necessary to answer the question.

(d)  If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

16. What was the percentages of discount given on the marked price of the table?

(I) 15% profit was earned by selling the table for Rs. 14490. If there were not discount, percent profit would have been 20%.

(II) Cost price of table is Rs. 12600.

(a)  If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  If the data in both the statements I & II together the necessary to answer the question.

(d)  If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (d)

17. What is area of the circle? (in sq. cm.)

(I) The diameter of the circle is 90 cm less than its circumference.

(II) The radius of the circle is equal to the length of a rectangle whose perimeter is 77 cm.

(a)  If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  If the data in both the statements I & II together the necessary to answer the question.

(d)  If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Qs. 18-20) : Study the following information and answer the given questions.

A bag contains four blue shirts, five red shirts and six yellow shirts.

18. Three shirts are drawn randomly. What is the probability that exactly one of them is blue?

(a)  36/91

(b)  40/91

(c)  44/91

(d)  48/91

(e)  31/91

Answer: (c)

19. One shirt is drawn randomly. What is the probability that is either red or yellow?

(a)  4/15

(b)  7/15

(c)  11/15

(d)  8/15

(e)  13/15

Answer: (c)

20. Two shirts are drawn randomly. What is the probability that both of them are blue?

(a)  3/35

(b)  1/35

(c)  2/35

(d)  5/35

(e)  6/35

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 21-25) : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

   As a part of renovation of an office flooring, painting and carpeting of a hall is to be undertaken. The hall has length 16 metres, breadth 12 m and height 5 m. Cost of flooring is Rs. 750 per m2 and cost of carpeting is Rs. 850 per m2.

21. What will be the cost of carpeting the hall leaving aside the area of 1.8 m ×5 m for the wooden cabinet?

(a)  Rs. 164200

(b)  Rs. 162660

(c)  Rs. 160905

(d)  Rs. 162200

(e)  Rs. 166645

Answer: (c)

22. What will be the total cost of flooring the hall and painting the ceiling?

(a)  Rs. 560000

(b)  Rs. 576000

(c)  Rs. 524000

(d)  Rs. 580000

(e)  Rs. 564000

Answer: (b)

23. What will be the cost of painting the four wall of the hall if it has a door of 1.6 m ×5 m and a window of 0.8 m × 1.5 m?

(a)  Rs. 190900

(b)  Rs. 208000

(c)  Rs. 196800

(d)  Rs. 198600

(e)  Rs. 206100

Answer: (e)

24. What will be the cost of flooring the hall if the contractor offered 12% discount on the total cost?

(a)  Rs. 380160

(b)  Rs. 336440

(c)  Rs. 328240

(d)  Rs. 342320

(e)  Rs. 360350

Answer: (a)

25. While painting the hall it was noticed that one wall on length side having no door or window required plastering which will cost Rs. 320 per m2. What will be the cost of plastering and painting that particular wall?

(a)  Rs. 85600

(b)  Rs. 84400

(c)  Rs. 82800

(d)  Rs. 86400

(e)  Rs. 85200

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 26 to 30) : Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions :

26. In which city is the difference between the cost of one kg of apple and cost of one kg of guava second lowest?

(a)  Jalandhar

(b)  Delhi

(c)  Chandigarh

(d)  Hoshiarpur

(e)  Ropar

Answer: (b)

27. Cost of one kg. of guava in Jalandhar is approximately what percent of the cost of two kgs. of grapes in Chandigarh?

(a)  66

(b)  24

(c)  28

(d)  34

(e)  58

Answer: (d)

28. What total amount will Ram pay to the shopkeeper for purchasing 3 kgs. of apples and 2 kgs. of guavas in Delhi?

(a)  Rs. 530

(b)  Rs. 450

(c)  Rs. 570

(d)  Rs. 620

(e)  Rs. 490

Answer: (c)

29. Ravinder had to purchase 45 kgs. of grapes from Hoshiarpur. Shopkeeper gave him discount of 4% per kg. What amount did he pay to the shopkeeper after the discount?

(a)  Rs. 8,208

(b)  Rs. 8,104

(c)  Rs. 8,340

(d)  Rs. 8,550

(e)  Rs. 8,410

Answer: (a)

30. What is the respective ratio between the cost of one kg. of apples from Ropar and the cost of one kg. of grapes from Chandigarh?

(a)  3 : 2

(b)  2 : 3

(c)  22 : 32

(d)  42 : 92

(e)  92 : 42

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 31 to 35) : Study the following radar graph carefully and answer these questions :

31. What was the difference between the number of students in university-1 in the year 2010 and the number of students in university-2 in the year 2012?

(a)  Zero

(b)  5,000

(c)  15,000

(d)  10,000

(e)  1,000

Answer: (a)

32. What is the sum of number of students in university-1 in the year 2007 and the number of students in university-2 in the year 2011 together?

(a)  50000

(b)  55000

(c)  45000

(d)  57000

(e)  40000

Answer: (e)

33. If 25% of the students in university-2 in the year 2010 were females, what was the number of male students in the university-2 in the same year ?

(a)  11250

(b)  12350

(c)  12500

(d)  11500

(e)  11750

Answer: (a)

34. What was the percent increase in the number of students in university-1 in the year 2011 as compared to the previous year?

(a)  135

(b)  15

(c)  115

(d)  25

(e)  35

Answer: (d)

35. In which year was the difference between the number of students in university-1 and the number of students in university-2 highest?

(a)  2008

(b)  2009

(c)  2010

(d)  2011

(e)  2012

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 36 to 40) : Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.

36. What is the total number of players participating in hockey from all the five schools together?

(a)  324

(b)  288

(c)  342

(d)  284

(e)  248

Answer: (b)

37. What is the respective ratio between number of players participating in basketball from school-1 and the number of players participating in Kho-Kho from school-3?

(a)  5 : 7

(b)  7 : 9

(c)  7 : 8

(d)  9 : 7

(e)  5 : 8

Answer: (c)

38. In which school is the number of players participating in hockey and basket ball together second highest?

(a)  School-1

(b)  School-2

(c)  School-3

(d)  School-4

(e)  School-5

Answer: (b)

39. Number of players participating in Kho-Kho from School-4 is what percent of number of players participating in hockey from School-2?

(a)  42

(b)  48

(c)  36

(d)  40

(e)  60

Answer: (d)

40. 25% of the number of the players participating in hockey from School-5 are females. What is the number of the hockey players who are males in School-5?

(a)  15

(b)  18

(c)  30

(d)  21

(e)  27

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 41 to 45) : Study the following bar-graph carefully and answer these questions

41. What is Gita’s average earnings over all the days together?

(a)  Rs. 285

(b)  Rs. 290

(c)  Rs. 320

(d)  Rs. 310

(e)  Rs. 315

Answer: (b)

42. What is the total amount earned by Rahul and Naveen together on Tuesday and Thursday together?

(a)  Rs. 1,040

(b)  Rs. 1,020

(c)  Rs. 980

(d)  Rs. 940

(e)  Rs. 860

Answer: (d)

43. Gita donated her earnings of Wednesday to Naveen. What was Naveen’s total earnings on Wednesday after Gita’s donation?

(a)  Rs. 520

(b)  Rs. 550

(c)  Rs. 540

(d)  Rs. 560

(e)  Rs. 620

Answer: (c)

44. What is the difference between Rahul’s earnings on Monday and Gita’s earnings on Tuesday?

(a)  Rs. 40

(b)  Rs. 20

(c)  Rs. 50

(d)  Rs. 30

(e)  Rs. 10

Answer: (a)

45. What is the respective ratio between Naveen’s earnings on Monday, Wednesday and Thursday ?

(a)  7 : 3 : 5

(b)  8 : 6 : 5

(c)  8 : 7 : 4

(d)  9 : 5 : 4

(e)  9 : 3 : 4

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 46 to 50) : Study the following pie-chart and answer these questions.

46. What is the difference between the total number of employees in Teaching and Medical profession together and the number of employees in Management profession?

(a)  6770

(b)  7700

(c)  6700

(d)  7770

(e)  7670

Answer: (c)

47. In Management profession three-fourth of the number of employees are female. What is the number of male employees in Management profession?

(a)  1239

(b)  1143

(c)  1156

(d)  1289

(e)  1139

Answer: (e)

48. 25% of employees from Film Production profession went on a strike. What is the number of employees from Film Production who have not participated in the strike?

(a)  3271

(b)  3819

(c)  3948

(d)  1273

(e)  1246

Answer: (b)

49. What is the total number of employees in Engineering profession and Industries together?

(a)  5698

(b)  5884

(c)  5687

(d)  5896

(e)  5487

Answer: (d)

50. In Teaching profession if three-fifths of the teachers are not permanent, what is the number of permanent teachers in the Teaching profession?

(a)  1608

(b)  1640

(c)  1764

(d)  1704

(e)  1686

Answer: (a)

SSC Stenographers (Grade ‘C’ and ‘D’) Examination Held on January-2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Stenographers (Grade 'C' and 'D') Examination Held on January-2016
SSC Stenographers (Grade ‘C’ and ‘D’) Examination Held on January-2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Stenographers (Grade ‘C’ and ‘D’) Examination Held on January-2016

PART-I : GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING

1. Rajan started from his house and went 2 km east, then he turned right and went 3 km, again turned right and went 3 km, again he turned right and covered 1 km and finally after turning right and going 1 km he reached point ‘K’. In which direction was Rajan walking when he reached there?

(A) North

(B) East

(C) West

(D) South

Answer: (B)

2. 4 friends, A, B, C, D are sitting in a coffee shop. A and B are sitting face to face. D is not sitting next to A but can see the facial expression of A clearly. B is talking to C who is sitting opposite to him. Who are sitting together?

(A) A and D

(B) A and C

(C) D and C

(D) A and B

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 3 to 11) : In these questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

3. Yard : Inch : : Quart : ?

(A) Milk

(B) Ounce

(C) Liquid

(D) Gallon

Answer: (B)

4. CAFD : IGLJ : : OMRP : ?

(A) USXV

(B) PONM

(C) ZYXW

(D) UTSR

Answer: (A)

5. Optimist : Cheerful : : Pessimist : ?

(A) Gloomy

(B) Helpful

(C) Petty

(D) Mean

Answer: (A)

6. 6 : 64 : : 27 : ?

(A) 64

(B) 125

(C) 81

(D) 212

Answer: (B)

7. 27 : 9 : : 64 : ?

(A) 16

(B) 20

(C) 12

(D) 8

Answer: (A)

8. 4 : 20 : : 6 : ?

(A) 8

(B) 36

(C) 12

(D) 42

Answer: (D)

9. Pesticide : Crop : : Antiseptic : ?

(A) Bleeding

(B) Wound

(C) Clothing

(D) Bandage

Answer: (B)

10. CIQY : DJRZ : : AGOW : ?

(A) BHPU

(B) BJPX

(C) BHPX

(D) BJRZ

Answer: (C)

11. GHJM : QRTW : : CDFI : ?

(A) NOPR

(B) GHIJ

(C) MNPS

(D) XYZQ

Answer: (C)

12. X is elder than Z, Y is younger than Z, Z is elder than W, W is younger than X, who is the eldest?

(A) W

(B) Y

(C) Z

(D) X

Answer: (D)

13. The following figure is folded to form a block. Which symbol will appear on the opposite of ▲?

(A) *

(B) ●

(C) ○

(D) ■

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 14 to 17) : In these question, select the missing number from the given responses.

14. 

(A) 11

(B) 33

(C) 22

(D) 12

Answer: (C)

15. 2     7        14

     3     4         5

    75    165     ?

(A) 185

(B) 165

(C) 285

(D) 425

Answer: (C)

16. 

(A) 10

(B) 20

(C) 15

(D) 40

Answer: (B)

17. 

(A) 11

(B) 15

(C) 10

(D) 20

Answer: (A)

18. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.

Measurement

(A) Assure

(B) Mantle

(C) Summit

(D) Master

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 19 to 22) : In these questions, a series is given with one (or more) term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series :

19. 720, 180, 176, 44, 40, 10, ?, ?

(A) 6, 4

(B) 4, 2

(C) 6, 1.5

(D) 8, 6

Answer: (C)

20. 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, ?

(A) 150

(B) 120

(C) 140

(D) 160

Answer: (D)

21. C4X, F9U, I16R, ?

(A) L27P

(B) K25P

(C) L25O

(D) L25U

Answer: (C)

22. 15, 21, 57, ?, 221

(A) 96

(B) 126

(C) 121

(D) 108

Answer: (C)

23. What do you infer from the following set of statements?

I have observed many plant roots.

All these plant roots were found to grow downward.

(A) I am a botanist.

(B) A plant root grows downward.

(C) Most of the plant roots grow downward.

(D) Some plant roots grow downward.

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 24 to 30): In these questions, find the odd word/number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

24. Find the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

(A) 112, 95

(B) 167, 150

(C) 84, 67

(D) 79, 63

Answer: (D)

25. Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

(A) Tent

(B) Lodge

(C) Inn

(D) Mansion

Answer: (A)

26. Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(A) AKWE

(B) LUCF

(C) JHMX

(D) PNTO

Answer: (C)

27. Find the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

(A) 24, 44

(B) 28, 82

(C) 36, 63

(D) 99, 99

Answer: (B)

28. Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(A) IJSO

(B) CBUV

(C) RQOP

(D) YXTU

Answer: (A)

29. Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

(A) Triangle

(B) Sphere

(C) Square

(D) Circle

Answer: (B)

30. Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

(A) Beak

(B) Wing

(C) Fin

(D) Rudder

Answer: (D)

31. Unscramble the following letters to frame a meaningful word, then find out the correct numerical position of the letters:

I           N       R       D       T       P       E       E       S

1          2        3        4        5        6        7        8        9

(A) 756432189

(B) 637914825

(C) 639185251

(D) 735124389

Answer: (B)

32. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Answer: (D)

33. If DANGER is coded as

11 – 8 – 21 – 14 – 12 – 25,

then how will be coded the word MACHINE?

(A) 20 – 8 – 10 – 16 – 17 – 22 – 13

(B) 20 – 10 – 8 – 12 – 15 – 16 – 7

(C) 10 – 21 – 15 – 14 – 26 – 17 – 18

(D) 20 – 8 – 10 – 15 – 16 – 21 – 12

Answer: (D)

34. Which number is wrong in the given series?

225, 169, 144, 100, 64, 48

(A) 144

(B) 64

(C) 48

(D) 225

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 35 & 36) : In these questions, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

35. bb_aab_caab_ca_

(A) bcab

(B) cbba

(C) abbc

(D) acab

Answer: (B)

36. _cdb_ddb_db_c_d

(A) cccbc

(B) bbbcc

(C) ccbcc

(D) bbcbb

Answer: (A)

37. A’s mother is sister of B and has a daughter C.

How can A be related to B from among the following?

(A) Father

(B) Uncle

(C) Daughter

(D) Niece

Answer: (D)

38. Choose the correct figure to complete the matrix:

Answer: (B)

39. If the following words are arranged in a dictionary order, which will be 3rd word?

Amphibian, Amorphous, Ambiguous, Ambidextrous, Ambivalent

(A) Ambiguous

(B) Amphibian

(C) Amorphous

(D) Ambivalent

Answer: (A)

40. If the number indicates the number of persons, then how many youth graduates are there?

(A) 20

(B) 30

(C) 40

(D) 50