Tughlaq Dynasty (1320 – 1412) in Indian History

Tughlaq Dynasty (1320 – 1412) in Indian History:

  • Tughlaq Dynasty was founded by Ghiazuddin Tughlaq. His real name was Ghazi Malik.
  • Ghiasuddin Tughlaq founded the dynasty after killing Khuzru Khan in 1320.
  • Ghiazuddin died by the collapse of a pavilion
  • He built the Tughlaqabad Fort in Delhi the third city of Delhi to the east of Qutub complex.
  • Ghiassudhin Tughlaq was the first Sulthan to start irrigation works.
  • GhiassuddinTughlaq was succeeded by his son Jauna Khan, popularly known as Muhammed Bin Tughlaq.
  • Muhammed Bin Tughlaq is considered as the single most responsible person for the decline of Delhi Sulthanate.
  • Muhammed Bin Tughlaq was known as a mixture of opposites, wisest fool, Pagal padushah, unfortunate idealogue and the predecessor of Akbar in intellectual and religious matters.
  • Ibn Batuta called him ‘‘an illstared idealist’’.
  • He shifted his capital from Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad) in 1327.
  • In 1330 he introduced token currency of bronze and copper.
  • Moroccan Traveller Ibn Batuta visited India during his period.
  • Edward Thanas described him as ‘prince of moneyers’.
  • Muhammed Bin Tughlaq was succeeded by his elderly cousin, Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
  • Firoz Shah Tughlaq was the first Sulthan of Delhi to impose Jaziya. It was a religious tax for the freedom of worship. He imposed it only upon Brahmins.
  • He built the city of Firozbad in Delhi. The Firoz shah Kotla was also built by him. The gate way of Firozshah Kottla is Khooni Darwaza, or blood stained gate. It was constructed by Shersha Suri.
  • He transplanted two Ashokan Pillars to Firozabad.
  • He is the author of Fatuhat -i- Firozshahi
  • After Firozshah Tughlaq Muhammed Shah Tughlaq or Naziruddin Muhammed came to the throne.
  • It was during the period of his reign that Timur the Lame or Tamerlain a Turkish conqueror of Tartar tribe from Samarkhand attacked India in 1398.
  • Timur appointed Khizr Khan, the governor of Multan his authority in India.

Khilji Dynasty (1290 -1320) in Indian History

Khilji Dynasty (1290 -1320) in Indian History:

  • Khilji dynasty was founded by Malik Firoz in 1290 and assumed the title Jalaluddin Khilji (1290- 96)
  • In 1292 the Mongols under Abdulla accepted defeat from Jalaluddin Khilji.
  • Alauddin Khilji, the nephew of Jalaluddin Khilji, killed him after his victory on Devagiri in 1296.
  • Alauddin Khilji’s early name was Ali Gurushap.
  • He became the Sulthan in 1296 AD and ruled till 1316 AD.
  • In 1303 Alauddin Khilji attacked Chittor, the capital of Mewar, to marry Padmini the wife of Chittor king Ratna Singh.
  • But Padmini and other Rajput women committed Juhar (Juhar is a mass suicide by Jumping into fire, committed by Rajput women to escape from being polluted by others)
  • Padmavat is a historical kavya about Padmini episode written by Malik Muhammed Jayasi.
  • Malik Muhammed Jayasi was the court poet of Shersha Suri.
  • Alauddin Khilji was the first Muslim ruler to at track South India.
  • Malik Kafur was Alauddin Khilji’s Commander who attacked South India.
  • Alauddin Khilji was the most famous ruler of the Khilji Dynasty.
  • Alauddin was the Sulthan of Delhi who banned the use of liquor.
  • Alauddin had a dream of a World Conquest so he assumed the title ‘Sikhandar-i-sani’ or Second Alexander.
  • Demitrius a Bactrian ruler is popularly known as Second Alexander.
  • Alauddin abolished the Zamindari System and imposed tax on cattle.
  • He was the first muslim ruler of Delhi to introduce measurement of land for tax assessment.
  • His market regulations were to get goods at controlled price to the people of Delhi.
  • Alauddin Khilji was the first Sulthan of Delhi who separated religion from politics.
  • He was also the first to proclaim ‘‘I am the Khalifa’’.
  • Alauddin constructed Alai Darwaza the gate way of Qutub Minar.
  • He built the city of Siri, the second of the seven cities of Delhi, near Qutub Minar.
  • The first marriage between a muslim ruler and a Hindu princess was between Alauddin and Kamala Devi, the widow of the ruler of Gujarat.
  • Alauddin Khilji was killed by his commander Malik Kafur by poisoning.
  • Amir Khusru was the court poet of Alauddin
  • Amir Khusru is known as the ‘Parrot of India’
  • He is considered as the father of Urdu language and the inventor of Sitar.
  • Laila Majnu and Tughlaq Nama are the famous works of Amir Khusru.
  • Alauddin khilji was the first Sulthan to maintain a permanent standing army.
  • Alauddin Khilji was responsible for the introduction of postal system in medieval India.
  • Mubarak shah khilji was the last ruler of the khilji Dynasty.
  • Khilji dynasty came to an end when the Mubarak shah Khilji was killed by Khusrau Khan.
  • Some historians consider Khusrau Khan as the last Khilji Sulthan.

Slave Dynasty (1206 – 1290) in Indian History

Slave Dynasty (1206 – 1290) in Indian History:

  • Slave Dynasty was also called Ilbari Dynasty, Yamini Dynasty or Mamluk Dynasty.
  • Qutub-ud-din Aibak was a slave of Muhammed Ghori and he founded the lave Dynasty in 1206 AD.
  • Aibak was the first Muslim ruler of India.
  • The capital of Qutub-ud-din Aibak was at Lahore
  • He was known as ‘Lakh Baksh’ or ‘giver of lakhs’ or ‘giver of favours’ for his magnanimity.
  • Hasan Nizami was a famous historian in the court of the Aibak.
  • Qutub-ud-din Aibak started the construction of Qutub Minar in 1199 in Delhi in memory of the Sufi saint Quaja Qutub – ud-din Bhaktiar Kaki. Its construction was completed by Ithumish. It is a five storied building.
  • Qutub-ud-din Aibak died 1210 by falling from horseback while playing Polo.
  • After the death of Qutubuddin, Aram Shah ascended the throne but he was deposed by Ilthumish and crowned himself the Sulthan.
  • During the period of Ilthumish (1210-1236) Chengizkhan, the Mongole conqueror attacked India (1221).
  • Ilthumish is considered as the real founder of Delhi Sulthanate.
  • Ilthumish is considered as the real founder of Delhi Sulthanate
  • Ilthumish was the first Sulthan of Delhi to get recognition of the Khalif of Bagdad.
  • Ilthumish was also the first Sulthan to make Delhi his capital.
  • He issued a purely Arabic coinage of Silver and was the first to do so.
  • Coins introdued by Ilthumish, ‘Silver Thanka’ and ‘Copper Jital’ were the two basic coins of the Sulthanate period.
  • He organised the ‘Chalisa’ or the famous Turkish forty to help him in the administration.
  • Iltumish completed the construction of Qutub Minar.
  • The revenue system of the Sulthanate ‘Iqta system’, was introduced by Ilthumish.
  • Ilthumish was succeeded by his son Ruknuddin Firoz Shah. But he was later executed and Razia became the sulthan (daughter of Ilthumish)
  • Sulthana Raziya, the only women ruler of, the Sultanate came to power in 1236 and reigned till 1240.
  • Sulthana Raizya rejected the Pardah, she adorned the male dress and held open courts.
  • In October 14, 1240 both Razia and Altunia who earlier raised arms against Razia but later joined with her were, beheaded at Kaithal.
  • After Raizya Behran Shah (1240 – 42) Allaud-din- Masudshah (1242 – 46) and Naziruddin Muhammad (1246 – 1266) ruled and Balban, the founder of the second Ilban dynasty, became the Sulthan.
  • Ghiasuddin Balban ‘a slave water carreer, huntsman, noble, statesman became the Sulthan of Delhi in 1266 and continued in power till 1686 AD.
  • Balban is considered as the founder of Second Ilbary Dynasty.
  • Balban described himself as ‘shadow of God’ or the ‘viceregent of God on Earth’ (Zil-i-illahi)
  • Balban because of his autocratic rule is considered as a ‘typical oriental despot’.
  • The Chalisa or forty established by Ilthumish was abolished by Balban.
  • His policies are considered to be ‘Draconian’.
  • He started the Iranian system of Sajda and Piabos.
  • He was a patron of men of letters and showed special favour to the poet Amir Khusrau.
  • After Balban’s death in 1286, Kayqubad (1287 -90) became the Sulthan.
  • Madhavacharya of the Dwaita Philosophy got help from Balban.
  • Balban’s Tomb is situated in Delhi. It was constructed by Balban himself.
  • Kayqubad was the last Slave Sulthan. (Kayumars who ruled for a term of three months was actually the last Slave Sulthan. He was killed by Jalaluddin Khilji) and founded the Khilji Dynasty.

Turkish Invasions in Indian History

Turkish Invasions in Indian History:

  • Ghazni in Afghanistan was ruled by a Turkish family called Gamini of haznavid dynasty.
  • Muhammed Ghazni was the first Turkish conqueror of North India.
  • Muhammad Ghazni’s father was Subu ktigin.
  • He attacked India only for want of wealth.
  • He attacked India seventeen times between 1000 and 1027 AD. He made all the raids in the guise of Jihad.
  • First Invasion was in 1001 AD.
  • He defeated Jaipal and Anandpal of Shahi dynasty in 1001 and 1009 respectively.
  • The most important raid of Muhammed was the Somanath expedition. It was in 1025. He completely distroyed the temple. Somanath Temple was on the sea coast of Gujarat.
  • Muhammed Ghazni died in 30th April 1030.
  • Later his son Masud attacked India and caputred Kashmir.
  • The famous Persian poet Firdausi who wrote ‘Shahnama’ (The Book of Kings) lived in his court.
  • Alberuni, an Arab Historian, who wrote Tarikhul- Hind (Reality of Hindustan), accompanied Muhammed Ghazni to India.
  • Al-Firdausi is known as ‘Indian Homer’, ‘Persian Homer’, or ‘The Immortal Homer of the East’.
  • Muhammed of Ghore attacked India betwen 1175 and 1206 AD.
  • Muhammed Ghori made his first expedition to India and captured multan in 1175 AD.
  • In the First Battle Tarain in 1191 (near Taneswar) Muhammed Ghori was defeated by the Rajput forces under Prithviraj Chauhan III.
  • In the Second Battle of Tarain (1192 AD) Muhammed Ghori assisted by Qutub -ud-din Aibek a slave, defeated Prithviraj Chauhan III and killed him.
  • In 1193 Muhamed Ghori attacked Jaichand, father in law of Prithviraj . III at Kanauj, Jaichand was defeated.
  • Muhammed Ghori returned from India by intrusting his territories in India in the hands of Qutub- Uddin Aibak.
  • After the death of Ghori in 1206 Aibek founded the Slave Dynasty.
  • Muhammed Ghoris Indian invasion resulted in the foundation of Islamic rule in India.

Delhi Sultanate

The five dynasties which founded subsequently after the Turkish invasion were collectively known as Delhi sulthanate. They are:
Slave Dynasty ………………… 1206 – 1290
Khilji Dynasty ……………….. 1290 – 1320
Tughlaq Dynasty …………….. 1320 – 1412
Sayyid Dynasty ………………. 1414 – 1451
Lodi Dynasty………………….. 1451 – 1526

 

Arab Conquest of Sindh in Indian History

Arab Conquest of Sindh in Indian History:

  • During the Khaliphate of Omar, Arab forces made fertile attempts to get Bombay
  • Arabs captured Sindh in 712 AD.
  • The Arab conquest of Sindh was led by Muhammed Bin Kassim.
  • Muhammed Bin Khasim was the nephew of Al- Hajaj, the governor of the Arab province of Basra.
  • Dahir, a Brahmin was the ruler of Punjab at that time. He was killed by Kassim.
  • The Arabs lost control over Sindh in 779 AD.
  • Arab conquest of Sindh resulted in the spread of Islam to North India.
  • But Islam was first introduced in India by Malik Ibn Dinar in Kerala in 644 AD.

 

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2010 With Answer Key

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010

Physics 

1. The dimensions of universal gas constant is

(a)  [ML2T2θ1]

(b)  [M2LT2θ]

(c)  [ML3T2θ1]

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

2. A metal plate 4 mm thick has a temperature difference of 32°C between its faces. It transmits 200 kcal/h through an area of 5 cm2.

Thermal conductivity of the material is

(a)  58.33 W/m-°C

(b)  33.58 W/m-°C

(c)  5 × 104 W/m-°C

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

3. A balloon rises from rest with a constant acceleration g/8. A stone is released from it when it has risen to height h. The time taken by the stone to reach the ground is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

4. A uniform cylinder has a radius R and length L. If the moment of inertia of this cylinder about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its circular face is equal to the moment of inertia of the same cylinder about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its length, then

(a)  L = R

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

5. If the value of g at the surface of the earth is 9.8 m/s2 then the value of g at a place 480 km above the surface of the earth will be (radius of the earth is 6400 km)

(a)  8.4 m/s2

(b)  9.8 m/s2

(c)  7.2 m/s2

(d)  4.2 m/s2

Answer: (a)

6. If pressure of CO2 (real gas) in a container is given by  then mass of the gas in container is

(a)  11 g

(b)  22 g

(c)  33 g

(d)  44 g

Answer: (b)

7. Two simple pendulums first of bob mass M1 and length L1, second of bob mass M2 and length L2. M1 = M2 and L1 = 2L2. If the vibrational energies of both are same. Then which is correct?

(a)  Amplitude of B greater than A

(b)  Amplitude of B smaller than A

(c)  Amplitude will be same

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

8. The mass and diameter of a planet are twice those of earth. The period of oscillation of pendulum on this planet will be (if it is a second’s pendulum on earth)

(a) 

(b)  2√2 s

(c)  2 s

(d) 

Answer: (b)

9. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M by a distance d with constant downward acceleration g/4. Work done by the cord on the block is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  Mgd

Answer: (c)

10. A force F is applied on the wire of radius r and length L and change in the length of wire is l. If the same force F is applied on the wire of the same material and radius 2r and length 2L, then the change in length of the other wire is

(a)  l

(b)  2l

(c)  l/2

(d)  4l

Answer: (c)

11. When a copper voltmeter is connected with a battery of emf 12 V. 2 of copper is deposited in 30 min. If the same voltmeter is connected across a 6 V battery then the mass of copper deposited in 45 min would be

(a)  1 g

(b)  1.5 g

(c)  2 g

(d)  2.5 g

Answer: (b)

12. A network of four capacitors of capacities equal to C1 = C, C2= 2C, C3 = 3C and C­4 = 4C are connected to a battery as shown in the figure.

The ratio of the charges on C2 and C­4 is

(a)  22/3

(b)  3/22

(c)  7/4

(d)  4/7

Answer: (b)

13. The work functions for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5 eV. According to Einstien’s equation, the metal(s) which will emit photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are

(a)  A only

(b)  A and B

(c)  All of these

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

14. The ratio of the dimensions of Planck’s constant and that of the moment of inertia is the dimensions of

(a)  frequency

(b)  velocity

(c)  angular momentum

(d)  time

Answer: (a)

15. Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction

(a)  increases the number of donors on the n-side

(b)  increases the electric field in the depletion zone

(c)  increases the potential difference across the depletion zone

(d)  widens the depletion zone

Answer: (a)

16. If a vector  is perpendicular to the vector  , then the value of α is

(a)  −1

(b)  1/2

(c)  −1/2

(d)  1

Answer: (c)

17. When an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, fraction o f heat energy supplied which increases the internal energy o f gas, is

(a)  2/5

(b)  3/5

(c)  3/7

(d)  3/4

Answer: (b)

18. A body of mass m rises to a height h = R/5 from the earth’s surface where R is earth’s radius. If g is acceleration due to gravity at the earth’s surface, the increase in potential energy will be

(a)  mgh

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

19. A clock with a metal pendulum beating seconds keeps correct time at 0° If it loses 12.5 s a day at 25°C, the coefficient of linear expansion of metal pendulum is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

20. A fork A has frequency 2% more than the standard fork and B has a frequency 3% less than the frequency of same standard fork. The forks A and B when sounded together produced 6 beats/s. The frequency of fork A is

(a)  116.4 Hz

(b)  120 Hz

(c)  122.4 Hz

(d)  238.8 Hz

Answer: (c)

21. A source of sound S is moving with a velocity of 50 m/s towards a stationary observer. The observer measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. What will be the apparent frequency of the source when it is moving away from the observer after crossing him? The velocity of the sound in the medium is 350 m/s.

(a)  750 Hz

(b)  857 Hz

(c)  1143 Hz

(d)  1333 Hz

Answer: (a)

22. A ball of mass 1 g and charge 108 C moves from a point A. Where potential is 600 V to the point B where potential is zero. Velocity of the ball at the point B is 20 cm/s. The velocity of the ball at the point A will be

(a)  22.8 cm/s

(b)  228 cm/s

(c)  16.8 m/s

(d)  168 m/s

Answer: (a)

23. A charged oil drop of mass 2.5 × 10−7 kg is in space between the two plates, each of area 2 × 10−2 m2 of a parallel plate capacitor. When the upper plate has a charge of 5 × 10−7 C and the lower plate has an equal negative charge, the oil remains stationary. The charge of the oil drop is (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(a)  9 × 10−1 C

(b)  9 × 10−6 C

(c)  8.85 × 10−13 C

(d)  1.8 × 10−14 C

Answer: (c)

24. In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential difference across the 4.5 μF capacitor is

(a) 

(b)  4 V

(c)  6 V

(d)  8 V

Answer: (d)

25. If two bulbs of wattages 25 and 100 W respectively each rated by 220 V are connected in series with the supply of 440 V, which bulb will fuse?

(a)  100 W bulb

(b)  25 W bulb

(c)  None of them

(d)  Both of them

Answer: (b)

26. A square conducting loop of side length L carries a current I. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is

(a)  independent of L

(b)  proportional to L2

(c)  inversely proportional to L

(d)  linearly proportional to L

Answer: (c)

27. A thin magnetic needle vibrates in the horizontal plane with a period of 4 s. The needle is cut into two halves by a plane normal to magnetic axis of the needle. Then the period of vibration of each half needle is approximately

(a)  4 s

(b)  2 s

(c)  8 s

(d)  1 s

Answer: (b)

28. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side 0.02 m is suspended from it vertex such that it is hanging in a vertical plane between the pole pieces of permanent magnet producing a uniform field of 5 × 102 If a current of 0.1 A is passed through the coil, what is the couple acting?

(a)  5√3 × 107 N-m

(b)  5√3 × 1010 N-m

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

29. A rectangular coil of 20 turns and area of cross-section 25 cm2 has a resistance of 100 Ω. If a magnetic field which is perpendicular to the plane of the coil changes at a rate of 1000 T/s, the current in the coil is

(a)  1.0 A

(b)  50 A

(c)  0.5 A

(d)  5.0 A

Answer: (c)

30. An AC ammeter is used to measure current in a circuit. When a given direct current passes through the circuit, the AC ammeter reads 3A. When another alternating current passes through the circuit, the AC ammeter reads 4A.Then the reading of this ammeter, if DC and AC flow through the circuit simultaneously, is

(a)  3 A

(b)  4 A

(c)  7 A

(d)  5 A

Answer: (d)

31. A transmitter transmits at a wavelength of 300 m. A condenser of capacitance 2.4 μF is being used. The value of the inductance for the resonant circuit is approximately

(a)  104 H

(b)  106 H

(c)  108 H

(d)  1010 H

Answer: (c)

32. A capacitor of capacitance 1 μF is charged to a potential of 1 V. It is connected in parallel to an inductor of inductance 103 The maximum current that will flow in the circuit has the value

(a) 

(b)  1 A

(c)  1 mA

(d)  1000 mA

Answer: (a)

33. The wave of wavelength 5900 Å emitted by any atom or molecule must have some finite total length which is known as coherence length. For sodium light, this length is 2.4 cm. The number of oscillations in this length will be

(a)  4.068 × 108

(b)  4.068 × 104

(c)  4.068 × 106

(d)  4.068 × 105

Answer: (b)

34. If a ray of light in a denser medium strikes a rarer medium at an angle of incidence i, the angles of reflection and refraction are respectively r and r’. If the reflected and refracted rays are at right angles to each other, the critical angle for the given pair of media is

(a)  sin1 (tan r’)

(b)  sin1(tan r)

(c)  tan1 (sin i)

(d)  cot1 (tan i)

Answer: (b)

35. In a photocell, with exciting wavelength λ, the faster electron has speed v. If the exciting wavelength is changed to 3λ/4, the speed of the fastest electron will be

(a)  v(3/4)1/2

(b)  v(4/3)1/2

(c)  less than v(4/3)1/2

(d)  greater than v(4/3)1/2

Answer: (b)

36. Work function of nickel is 5.01 eV. When ultraviolet radiation of wavelength 2000 Å is incident on electrons are emitted. What will be the maximum velocity of emitted electrons?

(a)  3 × 108 m/s

(b)  6.46 × 105 m/s

(c)  10.36 × 105 m/s

(d)  8.54 × 106 m/s

Answer: (b)

37. If 5% of the energy supplied to a bulb is irradiated as visible light, how many quanta are emitted per second by a 100 W lamp? (Assume wavelength of visible light as 5.6 × 105 cm)

(a)  1.4 × 1019

(b)  3 × 103

(c)  1.4 × 1019

(d)  3 × 104

Answer: (a)

38. A 1 kg stone at the end of 1 m long string is whirled in a vertical circle at constant speed of 4 m/s. The tension in the string is 6 N, when the stone at (g = 10 m/s2)

(a)  top of the circle

(b)  bottom of the circle

(c)  half way down

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

39. A 12 HP motor has to be operated 8 h/day. How much will it cost at the rate of 50 paise/kWh in 10 days?

(a)  Rs 350

(b)  Rs 358

(c)  Rs 375

(d)  Rs 397

Answer: (b)

40. In steel, the Young’s modulus and the strain at the breaking point are 2 × 1011 N/m2 and 0.15 respectively. The stress at the breaking point for steel is therefore

(a)  1.33 × 1011 N/m2

(b)  1.33 × 1012 N/m2

(c)  7.5 × 1013 N/m2

(d)  3 × 1010 N/m2

Answer: (d)

Directions for Q. No. 41 to 60 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) if both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) if both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) if Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) if Assertion and Reason are false.

41. Assertion Torque on the coil is the maximum, when coil is suspended in a radial magnetic field.

Reason The torque tends to rotate the coil on its own axis.

Answer: (b)

42. Assertion A transformer cannot work on DC supply.

Reason DC changes neither in magnitude nor in direction.

Answer: (a)

43. Assertion For an electric lamp connected in series with a variable capacitor and AC source; its brightness increases with increase in capacitance.

Reason Capacitive reactance decrease with increase in capacitance of capacitor.

Answer: (a)

44. Assertion The specific charge for positive rays is a characteristic constant.

Reason The specific charge depends on charge and mass of positive ions present in positive rays.

Answer: (b)

45. Assertion The mass of β-particles when they are emitted is higher than the mass of electrons obtained by other means.

Reason β-particle and electron, both are similar particles.

Answer: (b)

46. Assertion NAND or NOR gates are called digital building blocks.

Reason The repeated use of NAND (or NOR) gates can produce all the basic or complicated gates.

Answer: (a)

47. Assertion There is a no dispersion of light refracted through a rectangular glass slab.

Reason Dispersion of light is the phenomenon of splitting of a beam of white light into its constituent colours.

Answer: (b)

48. Assertion There is no effect of rotation of earth on acceleration due to gravity at poles.

Reason Rotation of earth is about polar axis.

Answer: (a)

49. Assertion The change in kinetic energy of a particle is equal to the work done on it by the net force.

Reason Change in kinetic energy of particle is equal to the work done only in case of a system of one particle.

Answer: (c)

50. Assertion A safe turn by a cyclist should neither be fast nor sharp.

Reason The bending angle from the vertical would decrease with increases in velocity.

Answer: (c)

51. Assertion A table cloth can be pulled from a table without dislodging the dishes.

Reason  To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Answer: (b)

52. Assertion If a gas container in motion is suddenly stopped, the temperature of the gas rises.

Reason The kinetic energy of ordered mechanical motion is converted into the kinetic energy of random motion of gas molecules.

Answer: (a)

53. Assertion Like light radiation, thermal radiations are also electromagnetic radiation.

Reason The thermal radiations require no medium for propagation.

Answer: (b)

54. Assertion The percentage change in time period is 1.5% if the length of simple pendulum increases by 3%.

Reason Time period is directly proportional to length of pendulum.

Answer: (c)

55. Assertion The fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe increases as the temperature is increased.

Reason As the temperature increases, the velocity of sound increases more rapidly than length of the pipe.

Answer: (a)

56. Assertion A paramagnetic sample displays greater magnetization (for the same magnetizing field) when cooled.

Reason The magnetization does not depend on temperature.

Answer: (c)

57. Assertion The quantity L/R possesses dimensions of time.

Reason To reduce the rate of increase of current through a solenoid should increase the time constant (L/R).

Answer: (b)

58. Assertion The threshold frequency of photoelectric effect supports the particle nature of sunlight.

Reason If frequency of incident light is less than the threshold frequency, electrons are not emitted from metal surface.

Answer: (b)

59. Assertion The average velocity of the object over an interval of time is either smaller than or equal to the average speed of the object over the same interval.

Reason Velocity is a vector quantity and speed is a scalar quantity.

Answer: (a)

60. Assertion Microwave propagation is better than the skywave propagation.

Reason Microwaves have frequencies 100 to 300 GHz, which have very good directional properties.

Answer: (a)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010

CHEMISTRY

61. The pH of the mixture obtained when equal volumes of N/10 NaOH and N/20 HCl are mixed, is

(a)  1.6

(b)  12.4

(c)  13.4

(d)  10.8

Answer: (b)

62. Which of the following buffer solution turns invalid on addition of 10 mL of 1.0 M HCl?

(a)  100 mL having 0.15 M NH3 and NH4Cl each

(b)  100 mL having 0.2 M NH3 and NH4Cl each

(c)  100 mL having 0.2 M NH3 and 0.1 M NH4Cl each

(d)  100 mL having 0.05 M NH3 and NH4Cl each

Answer: (d)

63. Which element belongs to 4n series?

(a)  Pb207

(b)  Bi209

(c)  Pb208

(d)  Pb206

Answer: (c)

64. 037 g f an alcohol, R–OH was added to C2H5MgI and the gas evolved measured 11.2 cc at STP. The molecular mass of R–OH will be

(a)  47

(b)  79

(c)  77

(d)  74

Answer: (d)

65. If the photon of the wavelength 150 pm strikes an atom and one of its inner bound electrons is ejected out with a velocity of 1.5 × 107 ms1, what is the energy with which it is bound to the nucleus?

(a)  1.2 × 102 eV

(b)  2.15 × 103 eV

(c)  7.6 × 103 eV

(d)  8.12 × 103 eV

Answer: (c)

66. Consider the sequence of oxides : Na2O, SiO2, P4O Which factor decreases from Na2O to SiO2 and also from SiO2 to P4O10?

(a)  Covalent character

(b)  Melting point

(c)  pH when mixed with water

(d)  Solubility in aqueous alkali

Answer: (c)

67. The type of hybrid orbitals used by iodine atom in hypoiodous acid molecule are

(a)  sp3

(b)  sp2

(c)  sp

(d)  sp3d

Answer: (a)

68.  is of intense pink colour though Mn is in +7 oxidation state. It is due to

(a)  oxygen gives colour to it

(b)  charge transfer when Mn gives its electron to oxygen

(c)  charge transfer when oxygen gives its electron to Mn making it Mn(+VI)

(d)  presence of unpaired electrons

Answer: (c)

69. [CoCl2(NH3)4]+ + Cl → [CoCl3(NH3)3] + NH3

In the reaction only one isomer of complex product is obtained. The initial complex is

(a)  cis isomer

(b)  trans isomer

(c)  not having stereoisomers

(d)  either cis or trans

Answer: (b)

70. The Brownian motion is due to

(a)  temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase

(b)  attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles

(c)  impact of the molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

(d)  convectional currents

Answer: (c)

71. For a first-order reaction A → B the plot of log {[A]t/1M} versus t is linear with a

(a)  positive slope and zero intercept

(b)  positive slope and non zero intercept

(c)  negative slope and zero intercept

(d)  negative slope and non zero intercept

Answer: (d)

72. At a certain temperature, the first order rate constant, k1 is found to be smaller than the second order rate constant, k2. If the energy of activation, E1 of the first order reaction is greater than energy of activation, E2 of the second order reaction then with increase in temperature

(a)  k1 will increase faster than k2, but always will remain less than k2

(b)  k2 will increase faster than k1

(c)  k1 will increase faster than k2 and becomes equal to k2

(d)  k1 will increase faster than k2 and becomes greater than k2

Answer: (a)

73. Highest electron affinity is shown by

(a)  O

(b)  F

(c)  Cl2

(d)  F2

Answer: (a)

74. An alkyl chloride (A) on reaction with magnesium in dry ether followed by treatment with ethanol gave 2-methylbutane. Give the possible structure of ‘A’

(a)  (CH3)2C(Cl)CH2CH3

(b)  (CH3)2CHCH2CH2Cl

(c)  CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2X

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

75. Which of the following reaction has zero activation energy?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

76. Structural formula of Lewisite is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

77. Which is optically inactive?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

78. The monomers of buna-S rubber are

(a)  vinyl chloride and sulphur

(b)  butadiene

(c)  styrene and butadiene

(d)  isoprene and butadiene

Answer: (c)

79. Passing H2S gas through nitric acid produces

(a)  rhombic sulphur

(b)  colloidal sulphur

(c)  amorphous sulphur

(d)  plastic sulphur

Answer: (b)

80. Which of the following aldehyde contains α-C atom but does not have any α-H atom?

(a)  Propionaldehyde

(b)  Benzaldehyde

(c)  Isobutyraldehyde

(d)  Formaldehyde

Answer: (b)

81. 

The final predominant product is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

82. Which of the following reaction is an example of calcination process?

(a)  2Ag + 2HCl + [O] → 2AgCl + H2O

(b)  2Zn + O12 → 2ZnO

(c)  2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2

(d)  MgCO3 → MgO + CO2

Answer: (d)

83. The following equilibria are given

The equilibrium constant for the reaction,

in terms of K1, K2 and K3 will be

(a)  K1K2K3

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

84. The root mean square velocity of one mole of a monatomic gas having molar mass M is Urms. The reaction between the average kinetic energy (E) of the gas and U­rms is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

85. C is

(a)  Ph–N+ ≡ NBF­4

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  Ph–F

Answer: (d)

86. Carbohydrates which differ in configuration at the glycoidic carbon (ie, C1 in aldose and C2 in ketoses) are called

(a)  anomers

(b)  epimers

(c)  diastereomers

(d)  enantiomers

Answer: (a)

87. The correct order of increasing covalent character is

(a)  LiCl, NaCl, BeCl2

(b)  BeCl2, NaCl, LiCl

(c)  NaCl, LiCl, BeCl2

(d)  BeCl2, LiCl, NaCl

Answer: (c)

88. The equivalent weight of H3PO2, when it disproportionate into PH3 and H3PO3 is

(a)  82

(b)  61.5

(c)  41

(d)  20.5

Answer: (b)

89. Catalyst used in dimerisation of acetylene to prepare chloropropene is

(a)  HgSO4 + H2SO4

(b)  Cu2Cl2

(c)  Cu2Cl2 + NH4OH

(d)  Cu2Cl2 + NH4Cl

Answer: (d)

90. The limiting radius ratio of the complex [Ni(CN)4]2 is

(a)  0.225 – 0.414

(b)  0.414 – 0.732

(c)  0.155 – 0.225

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

91. In a homonuclear molecule, which of the following sets of orbitals is degenerate?

(a)  σ1s and σ2s

(b)  π2px and π2py

(c)  π2px and σ2pz

(d)  σ2px and σ*2pz

Answer: (b)

92. If the concentration of CrO421 ions in a saturated solution of silver chromate is 2 × 104 M, the solubility product of silver chromate would be

(a)  32 × 1012

(b)  8 × 1012

(c)  16 × 1012

(d)  8 × 108

Answer: (a)

93. If ethanol dissolves in water then which of the following would happen?

(a)  Absorption of heat and contraction of volume

(b)  Liberation of heat and contraction of volume

(c)  Absorption of heat and increase in volume

(d)  Liberation of heat and increase in volume

Answer: (c)

94. The pH of 0.5 L of 1.0 M NaCl after the electrolysis for 965 s using 5.0 A current, is

(a)  1.0

(b)  12.7

(c)  13.0

(d)  1.30

Answer: (c)

95. The potential of hydrogen electrode having a solution of pH = 4 at 25°C is

(a)  −0.177 V

(b)  −0.236 V

(c)  +0.177 V

(d)  +0.236 V

Answer: (b)

96. The electronic configuration of actinides cannot be assigned with degree of certainty because of

(a)  small energy difference between 5f and 6d levels

(b)  overlapping of inner orbitals

(c)  free movement of electrons over all the orbitals

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (a)

97. The IUPAC name for tertiary butyl iodide is

(a)  4-iodobutane

(b)  2-iodobutane

(c)  1-iodo-3-methyl propane

(d)  2-iodo-2-methyl propane

Answer: (d)

98. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A) trifluoroacetic acid (B), benzoic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is

(a)  A > B > C > D

(b)  A > C > B > D

(c)  B > A > D > C

(d)  B > A > C > D

Answer: (c)

99. The correct order of basic strength of CH3NH2(I), (CH3)2NH(II), (CH3)3N(III), C6H5CH2NH2(IV) in gaseous phase is

(a)  IV < III < II < I

(b)  IV < III < I < II

(c)  I < II < III < IV

(d)  IV <  I < II < III

Answer: (d)

100. Secondary structure of proteins refers to

(a)  mainly denatured proteins and structure of prosthetic group

(b)  three dimensional structure, especially the bond between amino acid residue that are distant from each other in the polypeptide chain

(c)  linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain

(d)  regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain

Answer: (d)

Directions for Q. No. 101 to 120 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

101. Assertion One molar aqueous solution has always higher concentration than one molal.

Reason The molality of a solution depends upon the density of the solution whereas molarity does not.

Answer: (b)

102. Assertion The heat adsorbed during isothermal expansion of an ideal gas against vacuum is zero.

Reason The volume occupied by the molecule is zero.

Answer: (c)

103. Assertion If edge length of unit cell of LiCl, having NaCl type structure, is 5.14Å, the ionic radius of Cl ion is 1.82 Å.

Reason Anion-anion contact is retained in LiCl structure because anions constitute the lattice.

Answer: (a)

104. Assertion HOF bond angle is higher than HOCl bond angle in HOX.

Reason Oxygen is more electronegative than halogens.

Answer: (d)

105. Assertion Calcium carbide on hydrolysis gives ethylene.

Reason Calcium carbide contains C4anions.

Answer: (c)

106. Assertion Bithional is added to soap for its beautification and solidification.

Reason Bithional is a sulpha drug.

Answer: (d)

107. Assertion Only principal quantum number determines the energy of an electron in an orbital in Na atom.

Reason For one electron system, the expression of energy is quite different as that obtained in Bohr’s theory.

Answer: (d)

108. Assertion The HF2 ions exists in the solid state and also in liquid state but not in aqueous solution.

Reason The magnitude of hydrogen bonds in between HF–HF molecule is weaker than that in between HF and H2O molecules.

Answer: (a)

109. Assertion Chlorine when solidifies does not have zero entropy even at absolute zero.

Reason Chlorine is a pungent smelling gas and it is difficult to solidify it.

Answer: (b)

110. Assertion Noble gases have positive electron affinity.

Reason Noble gases have stable closed shell electronic configuration.

Answer: (a)

111. Assertion Al and Ga have nearly same atomic radii.

Reason Al and Ga show diagonal relationship.

Answer: (c)

112. Assertion Oxidation stat of Fe in Fe(CO)5 is zero.

Reason EAN of Fe in this complex is 36.

Answer: (b)

113. Assertion CO and NO both combine with haemoglobin.

Reason NO has more affinity than CO towards haemoglobin.

Answer: (b)

114. Assertion Vulcanisation increases the hardness of natural rubber.

Reason Vulcanisation introduces the polysulphide bridges at reactive sites.

Answer: (a)

115. Assertion The oxidation of ketone by perbenzoic acid gives esters.

Reason Perbenzoic acid oxidizes  because of the release of nascent oxygen on dissociation.

Answer: (c)

116. Assertion N3 is a weaker base than NH2.

Reason The lone pair of electrons on N atom in N3 is in a sp2-orbital while in NH2 it is in an sp3-orbital.

Answer: (a)

117. Assertion SN1 reaction is basically a solvolysis reaction.

Reason Polar protic solvents help the substrate to ionize and by the way get involved in SN1 reaction.

Answer: (a)

118. Assertion In the E2 elimination, β-H and leaving group should be antiperiplanar.

Reason In the E2 elimination, base always abstracts unhindered β-H.

Answer: (c)

119. Assertion 2-2-dimethyl propanal give Cannizaro reaction with concentrated NaOH.

Reason Cannizaro is a disproportionation reaction.

Answer: (b)

120. Assertion A primary amine has higher boiling point than any tertiary amine.

Reason  A tertiary amine has greater number of N–H bonds for H-bonding.

Answer: (c)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010

BIOLOGY

121. Appearance of dark-coloured pepper moths among the light-coloured ones as a result of increased industrial pollution is an example of

(a)  disruptive selection

(b)  stabilizing selection

(c)  directional selection

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

122. A fruit developed from a condensed inflorescence is

(a)  simple fruit

(b)  aggregate fruit

(c)  composite fruit

(d)  etaerio

Answer: (c)

123. The ratio of osmotic pressure exerted by 1 M sucrose and 1 M NaCl solution will be

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  0.1

(d)  0.5

Answer: (d)

124. The main function of the white blood cell in the human intestine system is to

(a)  combat and destroy antigenic particles

(b)  produce antigens to combat antibodies

(c)  carry oxygen around the body

(d)  transport antigens to B memory cells in the lymph nodes

Answer: (a)

125. Which one of the following is the best stage to observe the shape, size and number of chromosomes in a cell?

(a)  Interphase

(b)  Prophase

(c)  Metaphase

(d)  Telophase

Answer: (c)

126. In the blood of an adult man the total content of haemoglobin is roughly

(a)  several hundred grams

(b)  tens to gram (10-100 g)

(c)  several grams

(d)  several hundred milligram

Answer: (a)

127. Sinking of zooplankton during the day and rising to the surface at night is an example o f

(a)  circinal rhythm

(b)  circadian rhythm

(c)  tidal rhythm

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

128. Centre of DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD) is located at

(a)  Delhi

(b)  Chennai

(c)  Kolkata

(d)  Hyderabad

Answer: (d)

129. The function of nitrogen fixation in Anabaena (Cyanobacterium) is performed by

(a)  thylakoid

(b)  heterocyst

(c)  phycocyanin

(d)  phycoerythrin

Answer: (b)

130. In a bacterium, the amount of adenine was found to be 18 per cent. Suggest the cytosine base composition from the following

(a)  64%

(b)  36%

(c)  32%

(d)  18%

Answer: (c)

131. pBR322, which is frequently used as a vector for cloning gene in coli is a/an

(a)  original bacterial plasmid

(b)  modified bacterial plasmid

(c)  viral genome

(d)  transposon

Answer: (b)

132. Holandric genes are located

(a)  both in X and Y-chromosome

(b)  only in Y-chromosome

(c)  only in X-chromosome

(d)  only in autosomes

Answer: (b)

133. Match the columns.

(a)  A – 1; B – 2; C – 3

(b)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 1

(c)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 2

(d)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 1

Answer: (d)

134. In which of the following combinations, the compounds in ascending order based on their molecular weights are arranged?

(a)  DNA, RNA, AMP, ADP, ATP

(b)  DNA, RNA, ATP, ADP, AMP

(c)  AMP, ADP, ATP, RNA, DNA

(d)  AMP, ATP, ADP, DNA, RNA

Answer: (c)

135. The floral formula  represents

(a)  Solanum nigrum

(b)  Hibiscus rosa-sinensis

(c)  Citrus aurantum

(d)  Brassica campestris

Answer: (d)

136. Match the columns.

(a)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1

(b)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4

(c)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4

(d)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 4; D – 1

Answer: (d)

137. Elaters are absent in

(a)  Funaria

(b)  Marchantia

(c)  Pellia

(d)  Porella

Answer: (a)

138. The pollination of two flowers on different plants is known as

(a)  xenogamy

(b)  geitonogamy

(c)  cleistogamy

(d)  dichogamy

Answer: (a)

139. The callus is defined as

(a)  decaying cells

(b)  differentiated cells

(c)  sterile mass cells

(d)  undifferentiated mass of cells

Answer: (d)

140. Calcium dependent kinases can control

(a)  cell cycle activities

(b)  DNA replication

(c)  cell surface receptors

(d)  membrane structure

Answer: (a)

141. Which of the following serve as the anchoring junctions between the cells?

(a)  Tight junctions

(b)  Gap junctions

(c)  Desmosomes

(d)  Nexuses

Answer: (c)

142. Blood cells that increase in number during allergic conditions like asthma are

(a)  neutrophils

(b)  basophils

(c)  eosinophils

(d)  lymphocytes

Answer: (c)

143. The cornea is a very important component of the human eye. The main function of the cornea is to

(a)  bend the light before it reaches the lens

(b)  provide structural support to the eye

(c)  contain a concentrated amount of cone cells in the correct orientation

(d)  change the shape of the lens to enable the image to be focused on the retina

Answer: (a)

144. Acoelomate, triploblastic, body with bilateral symmetry is characteristic of

(a)  flatworm

(b)  roundworm

(c)  segmented worm

(d)  mollusc

Answer: (a)

145. Match the columns.

(a)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

(b)  A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

(c)  A – 1; B – 3; C – 4; D – 2

(d)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4

Answer: (c)

146. In a stable ecosystem, which of the following limits the number of trophic levels?

(a)  Biomass

(b)  The number of nutrients

(c)  Availability of nutrients

(d)  Presence of contaminants that increase in concentration along the food chain

Answer: (c)

147. Oxygen content reduction makes the glycolyse (glycogenesis) intensity increased due to

(a)  increase of ADP concentration in cell

(b)  increase of NAD+ concentration in cell

(c)  increase of ATP concentration in cell

(d)  increase of concentration of peroxides and free radicals

Answer: (a)

148. If a segment of an mRNA molecule has the sequence 5′ GUACCGAUCG 3′, which of the following could have been the template DNA molecule?

(a)  5′ GCUAGCCAUG 3′

(b)  5′ GUACCGAUCG 3′

(c)  5′ CATGGCTAGC 3′

(d)  5′ CGATCGGTAC 3′

Answer: (c)

149. Hardy-Weinberg’s principle of ‘zero evolution’ is based on

(a)  genetic equilibrium

(b)  random mating

(c)  no migrations

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

150. What does the term ‘reproductive isolation’ refers to?

(a)  An individual is unable to fertilize itself

(b)  Genes are not exchanged between two populations

(c)  Individuals from two populations never mate

(d)  Individuals from two populations never produce offsprings

Answer: (b)

151. Below are listed some pairs of character. The homologous pair is

(a)  forelimbs of dog and camel

(b)  insect wing and bat wing

(c)  feathers of birds and fins of fish

(d)  lens of vertebrate and arthropod

Answer: (a)

152. Glycolate induces opening of stomata in

(a)  presence of oxygen

(b)  low CO2 concentration

(c)  high CO2 concentration

(d)  absence of CO2

Answer: (b)

153. If Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired characters then what shall be correct according to it?

(a)  Useful organs become strong and developed while useless organs become extinct. These organs help in struggle for survival

(b)  Size of organs increase with ageing

(c)  Development of organs is due to will power

(d)  There should be some physical basis of inheritance

Answer: (c)

154. LSD is

(a)  hallucinogenic

(b)  sedative

(c)  stimulant

(d)  tranquilizer

Answer: (a)

155. Monoclonal antibodies are

(a)  obtained from a cell and act on one antigen

(b)  obtained from a group of cells and act on more than one antigens

(c)  obtained from a group of same type of cells and act on single antigen

(d)  obtained from a group of same type of cells and act on more than one antigens

Answer: (c)

156. Which of these is most infectious disease?

(a)  Hepatitis-B

(b)  AIDS

(c)  Cough and cold

(d)  Malaria

Answer: (a)

157. Microtubules are absent in

(a)  mitochondria

(b)  flagella

(c)  spindle fibres

(d)  centriole

Answer: (a)

158. Plant decomposers are

(a)  Monera and Fungi

(b)  Fungi and Plantae

(c)  Protista and Animalia

(d)  Animalia and Monera

Answer: (a)

159. Triticale is obtained by crossing wheat with

(a)  oat

(b)  barley

(c)  maize

(d)  rye

Answer: (d)

160. Occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to

(a)  extinction of these species from other regions

(b)  continental separation

(c)  absence of terrestrial route to these places

(d)  retrogressive evolution

Answer: (b)

Directions for Q. No. 161 to 180 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

161. Assertion Glycine, and amino acid, comes under the category of non-essential amino acids.

Reason The fact behind it is that glycine cannot be synthesized in the body.

Answer: (c)

162. Assertion The rate of decomposition o f detritus is reduced in the regions of high altitude.

Reason It happens due to immobilization of nutrients.

Answer: (c)

163. Assertion Green-house effect is due to thick layer of carbon dioxide.

Reason The glass panels of a green-house allowing the sunlight to filter through but preventing the h eat from being re-radiated in outer space.

Answer: (b)

164. Assertion Mammals, living in deserts contain more concentrated urine.

Reason  They contain very long loop of Henle in their nephrons.

Answer: (a)

165. Assertion The functional unit of excretory organs of lobsters is nephron.

Reason The filtration of blood occur in the Malpighian body (the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule).

Answer: (d)

166. Assertion Open circulatory system is found in most arthropods.

Reason Arthropods contain haemolymph which directly bathes internal tissues and organs.

Answer: (a)

167. Assertion Granulocytes are white blood cells.

Reason They contain lobed nuclei and tiny granules.

Answer: (b)

168. Assertion Bacteria, Protista do not have circulatory system.

Reason These organisms live in moist and watery environment.

Answer: (b)

169. Assertion Glycolysis begins in cytoplasm and yields two molecule of pyruvate.

Reason During glycolysis, four ATP molecules are produced and net yield is only two ATP molecules.

Answer: (b)

170. Assertion Mechanical tissues are absent or less developed in the floating and submerged parts of hydrophytic plants.

Reason Generally, elongated and loosely arranged spongy cells are found in the  body of submerged hydrophytic plants.

Answer: (a)

171. Assertion Inhibition of death of one organism by another through the production of some b-products is known as antibiosis.

Reason Antibiosis is a type of negative interaction.

Answer: (b)

172. Assertion Holoblastic cleavage with almost equal-sized blastomeres is a characteristic of placental animals.

Reason Eggs of most mammals, including humans are of centrolecithal type.

Answer: (c)

173. Assertion Only a single functional female gamete is formed from each primary oocyte cell.

Reason Meiosis in each primary oocyte gives rise to only one cell which functions as ovum.

Answer: (c)

174. Assertion Cytochrome oxidase enzyme contains copper.

Reason  Cyanide combines with the copper of cytochrome oxidase and prevents oxygen combining with it.

Answer: (b)

175. Assertion Urea is a less toxic excretory substance comparatively to uric acid.

Reason  Birds and insect are uricotelic animals.

Answer: (d)

176. Assertion Conducting tissues, especially xylem show greatest reduction in submerged hydrophytes.

Reason Hydrophytes live in water so no need of tissues.

Answer: (c)

177. Assertion Fructose-1, 6 diphosphate is converted into glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone-3-phosphate.

Reason Conversion of fructose-1, 6 diphosphate into 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone-3-phosphate is facilitated by the enzyme aldolase.

Answer: (b)

178. Assertion Process of maintain a constant internal environment is known as homeostasis.

Reason Kidneys are excretory and homeostatic organs.

Answer: (b)

179. Assertion Organochlorine pesticides are organic compounds that have been chlorinated.

Reason Fenitrothion is one of the organochlorine pesticides.

Answer: (c)

180. Assertion Thick layers of muscles are present in the wall alimentary canal.

Reason These muscles help in the mixing of food materials with the enzymes coming from different glands in the alimentary canal.

Answer: (a)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

181. Which of the following professor received the Physics Noble Prize for 2009 for his ‘ground breaking achievements concerning the transmission of light in fibres optical communication?

(a)  Danierl Colladon

(b)  Charles Kuen Kao

(c)  Walter Gerlach

(d)  John Tyndall

Answer: (b)

182. The Indian music composer, who got double Gramy Awards in Los Angeles on Feb 1, 2010, is

(a)  Ravi Shankar

(b)  Anu Malik

(c)  AR Rahman

(d)  Shankar Mahadevan

Answer: (c)

183. India on Jan 11, successfully test fired the missile ‘ Astra’ from its Integrated Test Range at Balasore. This missile works from

(a)  air to earth

(b)  earth to air

(c)  sea to air

(d)  air to air

Answer: (d)

184. On which day is annual ‘Pravasi Bharatiya Divas’ celebrated to commemorate the day when Mahatma Gandhi returned from South Africa in 1915?

(a)  Jan 7

(b)  Jan 8

(c)  Jan 9

(d)  Jan 10

Answer: (c)

185. ‘Aavatar’ has become the highest grossing movie of all time, surpassing the record made by ‘Titanic’. Who has directed both ‘Avatar’ and ‘Titanic’?

(a)  Steven Spielberg

(b)  Danny Boyle

(c)  Roger Avary

(d)  James Cameron

Answer: (d)

186. The United Nations (UN) has declared 2010 as the

(a)  International Year of Youth

(b)  International Year of Renewable Energy

(c)  International Year of Eco-Tourism

(d)  International Year of Bio-degradable Material

Answer: (a)

187. Which of these cricketers hold the record to play international cricket for the longest time?

(a)  Sachin Tendulkar

(b)  Garry Sobers

(c)  Colin Cowdrey

(d)  Wilfred Rhodes

Answer: (a)

188. Who has been conferred the 2009 GD Birl Award for Scientific Research?

(a)  Anil Kakodkar

(b)  Mahindra Agrawal

(c)  Rajeev Motwani

(d)  Vainu Bappu

Answer: (b)

189. Asia’s biggest Solar Power Plant has been recently unveiled at

(a)  Japan

(b)  Indonesia

(c)  Malaysia

(d)  Taiwan

Answer: (d)

190. Kaiane Aldorino has been named winner of the 2009 Miss World Pageant, recently held in Johannesburg. She belongs to

(a)  South Africa

(b)  Venezuela

(c)  Gibraltar

(d)  Columbia

Answer: (c)

191. Recently, which country suffered an earthquake which decimated its capital, killing millions of people?

(a)  Sumatra

(b)  Haiti

(c)  Japan

(d)  Sri Lanka

Answer: (b)

192. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) has been named after which famous national leader?

(a)  Mahatma Gandhi

(b)  Rajeev Gandhi

(c)  Indira Gandhi

(d)  Jawahar Lal Nehru

Answer: (a)

193. Who has won the National Snooker Championship, 2009?

(a)  Geet Sethi

(b)  Sourav Kothari

(c)  Pankaj Advani

(d)  Ashok Shandilya

Answer: (c)

194. Who has recently written the book ‘Idea of Justice’?

(a)  Montek Singh Ahluwalia

(b)  Amartya Sen

(c)  Omkar Goswami

(d)  C Rangarajan

Answer: (b)

195. On which date, is Hindi Day Celebrated?

(a)  Sep 5

(b)  Sep 10

(c)  Sep 14

(d)  Sep 20

Answer: (c)

196. ‘Mukhya Mantri Kanyadan Yojana’ is a scheme of which state given below?

(a)  Haryana

(b)  Gujarat

(c)  Uttar Pradesh

(d)  Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (d)

197. The first woman battalion to the deployed along the international border belongs to

(a)  ITBP

(b)  BSF

(c)  Coast Guards

(d)  Assam Rifles

Answer: (b)

198. Who among the following is the most powerful woman of the world as per a recent list of Forbes?

(a)  Angela Markel

(b)  Cristina Fernandez

(c)  Christine Lagarde

(d)  Sonia Gandhi

Answer: (a)

199. ‘KONKAN’ is an annual exercise between the India and which of the following Navies?

(a)  France

(b)  UK

(c)  US

(d)  Israel

Answer: (b)

200. What is the proposed venue of the 16th NAM Summit in 2012?

(a)  Cuba

(b)  Iran

(c)  Indonesia

(d)  India

Answer: (b)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2009 With Answer Key

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2009

Physics

1. The equation y = 4 + 2 sin(6t – 3x) represents a wave motion. Then wave speed and amplitude, respectively are

(a)  wave speed 1 unit, amplitude 6 unit

(b)  wave speed 2 unit, amplitude 2 unit

(c)  wave speed 4 unit, amplitude 1/2 unit

(d)  wave speed 1/2 unit, amplitude 5 unit

Answer: (b)

2. A closed organ pipe of length 1.2 m vibrates in its first overtone mode. The pressure variation is maximum at

(a)  0.4 m from the open end

(b)  0.4 m from the closed end

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  0.8 m from the open end

Answer: (a)

3. The ratio of intensities between two coherent sound sources is 4 : 1. The difference of loudness in decibels between maximum and minimum intensities, when they interfere in space, is

(a)  10 log 2

(b)  20 log 3

(c)  10 log 3

(d)  20 log 2

Answer: (b)

4. A conducting rod of length l and mass m is moving down a smooth inclined plane of inclination θ with constant velocity v. A current i is flowing in the conductor in a direction perpendicular to paper inwards. A vertically upwards magnetic field  exists in space. Then magnitude of magnetic field  is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

5. A bar of magnetic substance is placed in a magnetic field with its length making an angle of 30° with direction of the magnetic field. How will the bar behave?

(a)  It will align itself perpendicular to t he magnetic field

(b)  It will remain as before

(c)  It will align itself parallel to the magnetic field

(d)  Its behaviour cannot be predicted

Answer: (a)

6. A neutron breaks into a proton, an electron (β-particle) and antineutrino  The energy released in the process in MeV is

(a)  731 MeV

(b)  7.31 MeV

(c)  0.731 MeV

(d)  1.17 MeV

Answer: (c)

7. Let K1 be the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted by light of wavelength λ1 and K2 corresponding to wavelength λ2. If λ1 = 2λ2, then

(a)  2K1 = K2

(b)  K1 = 2K2

(c)  K1 < K2/2

(d)  K1 > 2K2

Answer: (c)

8. In the Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, the centripetal force is furnished by the Coulomb attraction between the proton and the electron. If a0 is the radius of the ground state orbit, m is the mass, e is the charge on electron and ε0 is the perimittivity of free space, the speed of the electron is

(a) 

(b)  zero

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

9. In an experiment of Wheatstone bridge, a null point is obtained at the centre of the bridge wire. When a resistance of 10 Ω is connected in one gap, the value of resistance in other gap is

(a)  10 Ω

(b)  5 Ω

(c) 

(d)  500 Ω

Answer: (a)

10. Seven resistances are connected as shown in the given figure. The equivalent resistance between A and B is

(a)  3 Ω

(b)  4 Ω

(c)  4.5 Ω

(d)  15 Ω

Answer: (b)

11. The curve drawn between velocity and frequency of photon in vacuum will be a

(a)  straight line parallel to frequency axis

(b)  straight line parallel to velocity axis

(c)  straight line passing through origin and making an angle of 45° with frequency axis

(d)  hyperbola

Answer: (a)

12. A monkey of mass m kg slides down a light rope attached to a fixed spring balance, with an acceleration a. The reading of the balance is w kg [g = acceleration due to gravity]

(a) 

(b) 

(c)  the force of friction exerted by the rope on the monkey is m(g – a)N

(d)  the tension in the rope is wg N

Answer: (c)

13. The displacement of a particle, starting from rest (at t = 0) is given by s = 6t2 – t3

The time in seconds at which the particle will attain zero velocity again is

(a)  2

(b)  4

(c)  6

(d)  8

Answer: (b)

14. An alternating current i in an inductance coil varies with time according to the graph given below. Which one of the following graphs gives the variation of voltage with time ?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

15. Two bar magnets having same geometry with magnetic moments M and 2M, are placed in such a way that their similar poles are on the same side, then its time period of oscillation is T1. Now, if the polarity of one of the magnets is reversed, then time period of oscillation is T2, then

(a)  T1 < T2

(b)  T1 > T2

(c)  T1 = T2

(d)  T2 = ∞, T1 = 0

Answer: (a)

16. A galvanometer has a resistance of 100 Ω. A potential difference of 100 mV between its terminals gives a full scale deflection. The shunt resistance required to convert it into an ammeter reading upto 5 A is

(a)  0.01 Ω

(b)  0.02 Ω

(c)  0.03 Ω

(d)  0.04 Ω

Answer: (b)

17. A steady current is set up in a metallic wire of non-uniform cross-section. How is the rate of flow K of electrons related to the area of cross-section A?

(a)  K is independent of A

(b)  K ∝ A1

(c)  K ∝ A

(d)  K ∝ A2

Answer: (c)

18. A hydrogen atom is in excited state of principal quantum number n. It emits a photon of wavelength λ when returns to ground state. The value of n is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

19. By what percentage should the pressure of a given mass of a gas be increased, so as to decrease its volume by 10% at a constant temperature?

(a)  5%

(b)  7.2%

(c)  12.5%

(d)  11.1%

Answer: (d)

20. Two inductors L1 and L2 are connected in parallel and a time varying current flows as shown in figure. Then the ratio of currents i1/i23 at any time is

(a)  L1/L2

(b)  L2/L1

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

21. Two equal and opposite forces at on a body at a certain distance. Then the body

(a)  is in equilibrium

(b)  will rotate about its centre of mass

(c)  may rotate about any point other than its centre of mass

(d)  cannot rotate about its centre of mass

Answer: (b)

22. The curve between charge density (ρ) and distances near p –n junction, will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

23. Equal masses of two liquids A and B contained in vessels of negligible heat capacity are supplied heat at the same rate. The temperature-time graphs for the two liquids are shown.

If S represents specific heat and L represents latent heat of liquid, then

(a)  SA > SB, LA < LB

(b)  SA > SB, LA < L­B

(c)  SA < SB, LA < LB

(d)  SA < SB, LA > LB

Answer: (d)

24. Two electric bulbs rated 50 W and 100 V are glowing at full power, when used in parallel with a battery of emf 120 V and internal resistance 10 Ω. The maximum number of bulbs that can be connected in the circuit when glowing at full power, is

(a)  6

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d)  8

Answer: (b)

25. If nearly 105 C charge liberates 1 g equivalent of aluminium then the amount of aluminium (equivalent weight = 9) deposited through electrolysis in 20 min by a current of 50 A will be

(a)  0.6 g

(b)  0.09 g

(c)  5.4 g

(d)  10.8 g

Answer: (c)

26. At what height above the surface of earth the value of acceleration due to gravity would be half of its value on the surface of earth?

(a)  2561 km

(b)  2650 km

(c)  3200 km

(d)  9800 km

Answer: (b)

27. The period of revolution of an earth’s satellite close to surface of earth is 90 min. The time period of another satellite in an orbit at a distance of four times the radius of earth from its surface will be

(a)  90√9 min

(b)  270 min

(c)  720 min

(d)  360 min

Answer: (c)

28. The graph shows the variation of velocity of a rocket with time. The time of burning of fuel from the graph is

(a)  10 s

(b)  110 s

(c)  120 s

(d)  Data insufficient

Answer: (a)

29. There are N coplanar vectors each of magnitude V. Each vector is inclined to the preceding vector at angle 2π/n. What is the magnitude of their resultant?

(a)  V/N

(b)  V

(c)  Zero

(d)  N/V

Answer: (c)

30. A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right angled prism as shown in figure. The refractive indices of the material of prism for red, green and blue colours, respectively are 1.33, 1.44, 1.47. The prism will be

(a)  separate part of blue colour from red and green colour

(b)  separate all the three colours from one another

(c)  separate part of the red colour from green and blue colours

(d)  not separate even partially any colour from the other two colours

Answer: (c)

31. Two particles of equal mass go round a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed v of each particle is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

32. Percentage error in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. The error in the estimation of kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass and speed will be

(a)  12%

(b)  10%

(c)  2%

(d)  8%

Answer: (d)

33. A nucleus at rest breaks into two nuclear parts which have their velocities ratio equal to 2 : 1. What will be the ratio of their radii of the nuclei?

(a)  21/3 : 1

(b)  1 : 21/3

(c)  23/2 : 1

(d)  1 : 23/2

Answer: (b)

34. The energy of hydrogen atom in ground state is 13.6 eV. The ionization energy of singly ionized helium He2+ will be

(a)  13.6 eV

(b)  3.4 eV

(c)  27.2 eV

(d)  54.4 eV

Answer: (d)

35. The oscillating electric and magnetic vectors of an electromagnetic wave are oriented along

(a)  the same direction but have a phase difference of 90°

(b)  the same direction and are in same phase

(c)  mutually perpendicular directions and are in same phase

(d)  mutually perpendicular directions but has a phase difference of 90°

Answer: (c)

36. If a player catches a ball of mass 200 g moving with the velocity 40 ms1, then he experiences a force of (time taken to catch the ball is 0.1s)

(a)  20 N

(b)  40 N

(c)  80 N

(d)  100 N

Answer: (c)

37. A perfect gas goes from state A to state B by absorbing 8 × 105 J of heat and doing 6.5 105 J of external work. It is now transferred between the same two states in another process in which it absorbs 105 J of heat. In the second process

(a)  work done on gas is 105 J

(b)  work done on gas is 0.5 × 105 J

(c)  work done by gas is 105 J

(d)  work done by gas is 0.5 × 105 J

Answer: (b)

38. A resonance in an air column of length 40 cm resonates with a tuning fork of frequency 450 Hz. Ignoring end correction, the velocity of sound in air is

(a)  1020 ms1

(b)  720 ms1

(c)  620 ms1

(d)  820 ms1

Answer: (b)

39. Let Ea be the electric field due to dipole in its axial plane at distance l and let Eeq be the field in the equatorial plane at a distance l, then the relation between Ea and Eeq will be

(a)  Ea = 4Eeq

(b)  Eeq = 2Ea

(c)  Ea = 2Eeq

(d)  Ea = Eeq/3

Answer: (c)

40. A vehicle with a horn of frequency n, is moving with a velocity of 30 ms1 in a direction perpendicular to the straight line joining the observer and the vehicle. The observer receives the sound to have a frequency n + n1. Then (if the sound velocity in air is 30 ms1)

(a)  n1 = 10 n

(b)  n1 = 0

(c)  n1 = 0.1 n

(d)  n1 = −0.1 n

Answer: (b)

Directions for Q. No. 41 to 60 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

41. Assertion The formula connecting u, v an f for a spherical mirror is valid only for mirrors whose sizes are very small compared to their radii of curvature.

Reason  Laws of reflection are s trictly valid for plane surfaces, but n ot for large spherical surface.

Answer: (c)

42. Assertion Endoscopy involves use of optical fibres to study internal organs.

Reason Optical fibres are based on phenomenon of total internal reflection.

Answer: (a)

43. Assertion A ship floats higher in the water on a high pressure day than on a low pressure day.

Reason Floating of ship in the water is not possible because of buoyancy force which is present due to pressure difference.

Answer: (d)

44. Assertion A proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular paths in a uniform magnetic field. The radii of their circular paths will be equal.

Reason Any two charged particles having equal kinetic energies and entering a region of uniform magnetic field  in a direction perpendicular to  , will describe circular trajectories of equal radii.

Answer: (c)

45. Assertion The power delivered to a light bulb is more just after it is switched ON and the glow of the filament is increasing, as compared to when the bulb is glowing steadily, ie, after sometime of switching ON.

Reason As temperature decreases, resistance of conductor increases.

Answer: (d)

46. Assertion The thick film shows no interference pattern. Take thickness of the order of few cms.

Reason For interference pattern to observe, path difference between two waves is of the order of few wavelengths.

Answer: (a)

47. Assertion The clouds in sky generally appear to be whitish.

Reason Diffraction due to clouds is efficient in equal measure at all wavelengths.

Answer: (c)

48. Assertion Electron capture occurs more than positron emission in a heavy nucleus.

Reason In a heavy nucleus, electrons are relatively close to nucleus.

Answer: (a)

49. Assertion Transducer in communication system converts electrical signal in to a physical quantity.

Reason For information signal to be transmitted directly to long distances, modulation is not a necessary process.

Answer: (d)

50. Assertion It is impossible for a ship to use the internal energy of sea water to operate its engine.

Reason A heat engine is different from a refrigerator.

Answer: (b)

51. Assertion A tennis ball bounces higher on hills than in plains.

Reason Acceleration due to gravity on the hill is greater than that on the surface of earth.

Answer: (c)

52. Assertion A cloth covers a table. Some dishes are kept on it. The cloth can be pulled out without dislodging the dishes from the table.

Reason For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Answer: (b)

53. Assertion A and B are two conducting spheres of same radius. A being solid and B hollow. Both are charged to the same potential. Then, charge on A = charge on B.

Reason Potentials on both are same.

Answer: (a)

54. Assertion Water at the foot of the water fall is always at different temperature from that at the top.

Reason The potential energy of water at t he top is converted into heat energy during falling.

Answer: (a)

55. Assertion Generally the path of a projectile from the earth is parabolic but it is elliptical for projectiles going to a very large height.

Reason The path of a projectile is independent of the gravitational force of earth.

Answer: (c)

56. Assertion Railway tracks are laid on small sized wooden sleepers.

Reason Small sized wooden sleepers are used so that rails exert more pressure on the railway track. Due to which rail does not leave the track.

Answer: (d)

57. Assertion The periodic time on a hard spring is less as compared to that of a soft spring.

Reason The periodic time depends upon the spring constant, and psring constant is large for hard spring.

Answer: (a)

58. Assertion To heart distinct beats, difference in frequencies of two sources should be less than 10.

Reason More the number of beats per second more difficult to hear them.

Answer: (b)

59. Assertion Circuit containing capacitors should be handled cautiously even when there is no current.

Reason The capacitors are very delicate and so quickly break down.

Answer: (c)

60. Assertion It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be available in the absorption spectrum.

Reason The spectrum of hydrogen atom is only absorption spectrum.

Answer: (d)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2009

CHEMISTRY

61. Two moles of each reactant A and B are taken in a reaction flask. The react in the following manner,

A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(g) + D(g)

At equilibrium, it was found that the concentration of C is triple to that of B. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is

(a)  4.5

(b)  6

(c)  9

(d)  1/6

Answer: (c)

62. If the dissociation constant of 5 × 104 M aqueous solution of diethylamine is 2.5 × 105, its pH value i s

(a)  8

(b)  3.95

(c)  10.05

(d)  2

Answer: (c)

63. The lead of the lead pencils melts at

(a)  2000°C

(b)  350°C

(c)  3170°C

(d)  75°C

Answer: (c)

64. The compound which is obtained by treating chloropropane with alcoholic KOH, when reacts with BH3/ THF followed by acetic acid gives

(a)  CH3CH2CH2OH

(b)  CH3CH2CH3

(c)  CH3CH(OH)CH3

(d)  CH3CH2CHOHCH3

Answer: (b)

65. The increasing order of hydrolysis of the following compounds is

(a)  (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)

(b)  (i) < (iv) < (iii) < (ii)

(c)  (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)

(d)  (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (ii)

Answer: (d)

66. The rubber, used for manufacturing tyres, is vulcanized with

(a)  3% S

(b)  7% S

(c)  1% S

(d)  All of the above can be used

Answer: (b)

67. Which of the following coordination entities should be expected to absorb light of lowest frequency?

(a)  [Cr(en)3­]3+

(b)  [CrCl6]3

(c)  [Cr(NH­3)6]3+

(d)  [Cr(CN)6]3

Answer: (b)

68. A sample of 0.42 mg 233UF6 shows an activity of 9.88 × 104 count per second. Its t1/2 is

(a)  5.13 × 1012 yr

(b)  1.628 × 105 yr

(c)  2.94 × 109 yr

(d)  2.35 × 108 yr

Answer: (b)

69. The correct set of reagents for the following conversion is

(a)  P4/I2, Na, Conc. H2SO4

(b)  P2O5, LiAlH4

(c)  P2O5/∆, H2O, P4/I2, Na

(d)  P4/I­2, Na, P2O5/∆

Answer: (d)

70. Sodium crystallizes in bcc arrangement with the interfacial separation between the atoms at the edge 53 pm. The density of the solid s

(a)  1.23 g/cc

(b)  485 g/cc

(c)  4.85 g/cc

(d)  123 g/cc

Answer: (a)

71. When nitric acid reacts with nitric oxide,, a gas is released, which converts H2S ­into

(a) 

(b)  S2

(c)  S

(d) 

Answer: (c)

72. For which of the following pairs, magnetic moment is same ?

(a)  MnCl2, CuSO4

(b)  CuCl2, TiCl3

(c)  TiO2, CuSO4

(d)  TiCl3, NiCl2

Answer: (b)

73. Select the incorrect statement, among the following.

(a)  Haemogolobin is soluble in water

(b)  α-keratin is soluble in water

(c)  Cellulose is a polymer of glucose

(d)  Chlorophyll is responsible for the synthesis of carbohydrates in plants

Answer: (b)

74. Which of the following azeotropic solutions has the boiling point less than boiling point of the constituents A and B?

(a)  CHCl3 and CH3COCH3

(b)  CS2 and CH3COCH3

(c)  CH3CH2OH and CH3COCH3

(d)  CH3CHO and CS2

Answer: (c)

75. 

the correct relation between k1, k2 and k3 is

(a)  3k1 = k2 = 2k3

(b)  k1 = 3k2 = 1.5k3

(c)  k1 = k2 = k3

(d)  2k1 = 3k2 = k3

Answer: (b)

76. Which will not show geometrical isomerism?

(a)  CH3CH = NOH

(b) 

(c)  HO – N = N – OH

(d)  (CH3)2C = NOH

Answer: (d)

77. A compound with molecular formula, C6H14 has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is

(a)  n-hexane

(b)  2-methyl pentane

(c)  2, 3-dimethyl butane

(d)  2, 3-dimethyl pentane

Answer: (c)

78. The hybridization scheme for the central atom includes as d-orbital contribution in

(a) 

(b)  PCl3

(c) 

(d)  H2Se

Answer: (a)

79. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a)  Zeolites have a more closed structure than feldspar.

(b)  H4As2O­7 is an ‘ortho’acid.

(c)  Pseudo-alum does not  have Na+ and K+.

(d)  Superphosphate of lime is 4Ca(H2PO4)2.

Answer: (c)

80. The number of hydroxyl ions in 100 mL of a solution having pH 10 is

(a)  1 × 104

(b)  3.012 × 104

(c)  6.02 × 1018

(d)  6.023 × 1019

Answer: (c)

81. Enthalpy of combustion of methane and ethane are −210 kcal/mol and −368 kcal/mol respectively. The enthalpy of combustion of decane is

(a)  −158 kcal

(b)  −1632 kcal

(c)  −1700 kcal

(d)  Data is incomplete

Answer: (b)

82. The de-Broglie wavelength of helium atom at room temperature is

(a)  6. 6 × 1034 m

(b)  4.39 × 1010 m

(c)  7.34 × 1011 m

(d)  2.335 × 1020 m

Answer: (c)

83. The solubility product of a salt having formula M2X3 is 2.2 × 1020. If the solubility of an another salt having formula M2X is twice the molar solubility of M2X2, the solubility product of M2X is

(a)  3 × 1012

(b)  9.16 × 105

(c)  4.58 × 105

(d)  2.76 × 1018

Answer: (a)

84. The product of which of the following reactions has the highest east to undergo electrophilic substitution?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

85. Formation of alcohol by oxymercuration-demercuration of alkenes

(a)  involves carbocations and rearrangement

(b)  involves carbanions and rearrangement

(c)  is stereospecific

(d)  does not involve rearrangement and carbocation.

Answer: (d)

86. The hormone that controls the processes like burning of fats, proteins and carbohydrates to liberate energy in the body, i s

(a)  cortisone

(b)  thyroxine

(c)  adrenalin

(d)  insulin

Answer: (d)

87. The reproduction potential at pH = 14 for the Cu2+/Cu couples is

(a)  0.34 V

(b)  −0.34 V

(c)  0.22 V

(d)  −0.22 V

Answer: (d)

88. x moles of potassium dichromate oxidizes 1 mole of ferrous oxalate, in acidic medium. Here x is

(a)  3

(b)  1.5

(c)  0.5

(d)  1.0

Answer: (c)

89. In the following redox equation,

the values of coefficients x, y and z are, respectively

(a)  3, 8, 2

(b)  3, 8, 7

(c)  3, 2, 4

(d)  3, 1, 8

Answer: (a)

90. If heavy water is taken as solvent instead of normal water while performing Cannizaro reaction, the products of the reaction are

(a)  RCOO + RCH2OH

(b)  RCOO + RCH2OD

(c)  RCOOD + RCD2OD

(d)  RCOO + RCD2OD

Answer: (b)

91. The most unlikely representation of resonance structure of p –nitrophenoxide is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

92. The correct order of electron affinities of N, O, S and Cl is

(a)  N < O < S < Cl

(b)  O < N < Cl < S

(c)  O ≈ Cl < N ≈ S

(d)  O < S < Cl < N

Answer: (a)

93. Which of the following pairs has almost same atomic radii?

(a)  Al, Ga

(b)  Be, Mg

(c)  Mg, Al

(d)  B, Be

Answer: (a)

94. The product ‘Y’ in the following reaction sequence is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

95. n and l for some electrons are given. Which of the following is expected to have least energy?

(a)  n = 3, l = 2

(b)  n = 3, l = 0

(c)  n = 2, l = 1

(d)  n = 4, l = 0

Answer: (c)

96. The order of boiling points of four equimolar aqueous solutions is C < B < A < D. The correct order of their freezing points is

(a)  D < C < B < A

(b)  D > C < B < A

(c)  D < B > A < C

(d)  D > A > B > C

Answer: (c)

97. In zone refining method, the molten zone

(a)  contains impurities

(b)  contains purified metal only

(c)  contains more impurity than the original metal

(d)  moves to either side

Answer: (c)

98. The minimum voltage required to electrolyze alumina in the Hall-Heroult process is :

(Given, ∆Gf° (Al2O3) = −1520 kJ mol1 ;

(a)  1.575 V

(b)  1.60 V

(c)  1.312 V

(d)  −2.62 V

Answer: (b)

99. The sweetest artificial sugar among the following is

(a)  aspartame

(b)  sucralose

(c)  alitame

(d)  sucrose

Answer: (c)

100. Select the incorrect statement.

(a)  Physical adsorption is reversible while chemical is irreversible.

(b)  High pressure favours physical adsorption while low pressure favours chemical adsorption

(c)  Physical adsorption is not specific while chemical is highly specific.

(d)  High activation energy is involved in chemical adsorption.

Answer: (b)

Directions for Q. No. 101 to 120 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

101. Assertion Sodium-2-dodecyl benzenesulphon ate is a biodegradable detergent.

Reason Detergents having highly branched chains are biodegradable.

Answer: (d)

102. Assertion On dilution, the equivalent as well as molar conductivity of solution increases.

Reason With dilution, the number of current carrying particles per cm3 increases.

Answer: (c)

103. Assertion 2-butenal lacks enolisable H-atom, α to carbonyl group, still it has sufficient acidic character.

Reason The conjugate base of 2-butenal is stabilized by resonance.

Answer: (a)

104. Assertion When NO reacts with FeSO4, a brown coloured complex is formed.

Reason In the complex, the coordination number of Fe is +6.

Answer: (b)

105. Assertion In Lyman series of H-spectra, the maximum wavelength of lines is 121.65 nm.

Reason Wavelength is maximum if there is transition from the very next level.

Answer: (a)

106. Assertion  gives red colour in Lassaigne’s test.

Reason Compounds having N along with C gives red colour with Lassaigne’s test.

Answer: (c)

107. Assertion Coloured cations can be identified by borax bead test.

Reason Transparent bead (NaBO2 + B2O3) forms coloured bead with coloured cation.

Answer: (a)

108. Assertion 575 g H2C2O4­ ∙ 2H2O in 250 mL solution makes it 0.1 N.

Reason H2C2O4 ∙ 2H2 is a dehydrate organic acid.

Answer: (b)

109. Assertion If β4 for [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is 2.1 × 1013, its instability constant is 4.76 × 1014.

Reason Overall dissociation equilibrium constant varies inversely with formation constant.

Answer: (a)

110. Assertion For the reaction,

2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)

increase in pressure favours the formation of NO2.

Reason The reaction is exothermic.

Answer: (b)

111. Assertion CO and CN are referred as π acid ligands.

Reason In CO and CN vacant π type orbitals are present.

Answer: (a)

112. Assertion In benzinidazole,

both the nitrogens (N and N) are basic.

Reason Long pair of electrons present on  are involved in delocalization.

Answer: (d)

113. Assertion Among the alkali metals, lithium salts exhibits the least electrical conductance in aqueous solutions.

Reason Smaller the radius of the hydrated cation, lower is the electrical conductance in aqueous solutions.

Answer: (c)

114. Assertion The value of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ for ammonia is larger than that of nitrogen gas.

Reason Molecular weight of ammonia is smaller than nitrogen gas.

Answer: (a)

115. Assertion A compound with delocalized electrons is more stable than that compound would be if all its electrons were localized.

Reason The extra stability, a compound gains as a result of having delocalized electrons, is called delocalization energy.

Answer: (b)

116. Assertion The enthalpy of formation of gaseous oxygen molecules at 298 K and under a pressure of one atmosphere is zero.

Reason The entropy of formation of gaseous oxygen molecule under the same conditions is zero.

Answer: (c)

117. Assertion Bleaching powder is a mixed salt.

Reason In the presence of COCl2, bleaching powder decomposes to give CaCl2 and O2.

Answer: (b)

118. Assertion K4­[Fe(CN)6] is diamagnetic and [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 is paramagnetic.

Reason Hybridization of central metal in K4[Fe(CN)6] is sp3d2, while in [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 is d2sp3.

Answer: (c)

119. Assertion London smog is oxidizing in nature.

Reason London smog contains O3, NO2 and hydrocarbons.

Answer: (d)

120. Assertion Alkynes are more reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction as compared to alkenes.

Reason Alkynes contain two pi bonds, while alkenes have only one bond.

Answer: (b)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2009

BIOLOGY

121. These organisms are fungus like in one phase of their life cycle and Amoeba like in another phase of their life cycle

(a)  diatoms

(b)  slime molds

(c)  dinoflagellates

(d)  water molds

Answer: (b)

122. Among the following stem cells, which are found in the umbilical cord?

(a)  Embryonic stem cells

(b)  Adult stem cells

(c)  Cord blood stem cells

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (c)

123. Which of the following rain forest is home to more than 40,000 species of plants, 3,000 of fishes, 1,300 of birds, 427 of mammals, 427 of amphibians, 378 of reptiles and more than 1,25,000 invertebrates?

(a)  Amazonian

(b)  Tropical

(c)  Arctic tundra

(d)  Temperate

Answer: (a)

124. During an allergic reaction, the binding of antigens to IgE antibodies initiates a response, in which chemicals cause the dilation of blood vessels and a host of other physiological changes. Such chemicals are

(a)  interferons

(b)  hormones

(c)  histamines

(d)  acetylamine

Answer: (c)

125. Which of the following four cell structures is correctly matched with the accompanying description?

(a)  Plasma membrane – Outer layer of cellulose or chitin, or absent

(b)  Mitochondria – Bacteria like elements with inner membrane forming sacs containing chlorophyll, found in plant cells and algae

(c)  Chloroplasts – Bacteria like elements with inner membrane highly folded.

(d)  Golgi apparatus – Stacks of flattened vesicles

Answer: (d)

126. Lipids, which can be found in oil based salad dressings and ice cream, during digestion are splitted into

(a)  fatty acid and glycerol

(b)  glycerol and amino acids

(c)  glucose and fatty acids

(d)  glucose and amino acids

Answer: (a)

127. The process by which ATP is produced in the inner membrane of a mitochondrion. The electron transport system transfers protons from the inner compartment of the outer; as the protons flow back to the inner compartment, the energy of their movement is used to add phosphate to ADP, forming ATP.

(a)  Chemiosmosis

(b)  Phosporylation

(c)  Glycolysis

(d)  Fermentation

Answer: (a)

128. Enzyme often have additional parts in their structures that are made up of molecules other than proteins. When this additional chemical part is an organic molecule, it is called

(a)  cofactor

(b)  coenzyme

(c)  substrates

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (b)

129. Animals posses nerve networks or nervous systems to respond to their environment. But the single called Amoeba does not possesses any nerve cell, so, how it come to known whether a particle it encounters is a grain of sand and not its dinner?

(a)  By chemotaxis

(b)  By skin

(c)  By hormones

(d)  All of these

Answer: (a)

130. Genetically engineered bovine (bST), sometimes called rbST (recombinant bovine somatotropin) or rbGH (recombinant bovine growth hormone)are used in the

(a)  therapeutic drugs

(b)  agriculture

(c)  dairy industry

(d)  DNA fingerprinting

Answer: (c)

131. This method of finding a gene is used when researchers known very little about the gene they are trying to find. This process results in a complete gene library : a collection of copies of DNA fragments that represent the entire genome of an organism.

(a)  Cloning

(b)  Shotgun cloning

(c)  Gene synthesis cloning

(d)  PCR

Answer: (b)

132. Which one of the following disorders and characteristic is correctly matched?

(a)  Cystic fibrosis – Production of thick mucous that clogs airways

(b)  Sickle cell anemia – Brain deterioration beginning at months of age

(c)  Achondroplasia – Extra fingers or toes

(d)  Huntington’s disease – Skeletal, eye and cardiovascular defects

Answer: (a)

133. Which of the following hormones is secreted by implanted blastocyst, that acts on the corpus luteum in the ovary, stimulating the body to produce estrogens and progesterone to maintain the uterine lining?

(a)  Estrogen

(b)  HCG

(c)  Progesterone

(d)  Oxytocin

Answer: (c)

134. Phythons possess tiny leg bones that serve no purpose in locomotion. Such organs are

(a)  homologous organs

(b)  analogous organs

(c)  vestigial organs

(d)  Both (a) and (c)

Answer: (c)

135. The two critical steps in the evolution of humans were the

(a)  evolution of bipedalism and the enlargement of the brain

(b)  making and using tools

(c)  using fire and making shelters

(d)  exhibiting culture and  having sophisticated tools

Answer: (a)

136. In which of the following patterns of viral replication, viruses enter a cell, replicate and then cause the cell to burst, releasing new viruses?

(a)  Lytic

(b)  Lysogenic

(c)  Repreogenic

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (a)

137. Cell A has osmotic potential of – 18 bars and pressure potential of 8 bars, whereas, cell B has osmotic potential of – 14 bars and pressure potential 2 bars. The direction of flow of water will be

(a)  from cell B to cell A

(b)  from cell A to cell B

(c)  no flow of water

(d)  in both the directions

Answer: (b)

138. The posterior part of the retina, which is just opposite to the lens is

(a)  cornea

(b)  yellow spot

(c)  are centralis

(d)  Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (d)

139. Tay-Sachs disease results due to lack of enzyme

(a)  glucokinase

(b)  hexosaminidase A

(c)  pyruvate kinase

(d)  Na – K+ ATPase

Answer: (b)

140. A woman is married for the second time. Her first husband was ABO blood type A, and her child by that marriage was type O. Her new husband is type B and their child is type AB.

What is the woman’s ABO genotype and blood type ?

(a)  IAIO; Blood type A

(b)  IA­IB; Blood type AB

(c)  IBIO; Blood type B

(d)  IOIO; blood type O

Answer: (a)

141. This pedigree is of a rare trait, in which children have extra fingers and toes. Which one of the following patterns of inheritance is consistent with this pedigree?

(a)  Autosomal recessive

(b)  Autosomal dominant

(c)  Y-linkage

(d)  Sex linked recessive

Answer: (c)

142. What is t he correct sequence of the steps given here ? Also work out the process depicted in the steps.

(i) Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of the cell; chromatids do  not separate

(ii) Chromosomes gather together at the two poles of the cell and the nuclear membranes reform

(iii) Homologous chromosomes pair and exchange segments

(iv) Homologous chromosomes align on a central plate

(v) The haploid cells separate completely

(a)  The correct sequence is III → IV → I → II → V and the process is meiosis-I

(b)  The correct sequence is II → I → V → IV → III and the process is mitosis

(c)  The correct sequence is IV → I → III → II → V and the process is meiosis-I

(d)  the correct sequence is II → V → IV → I → II and the process is mitosis

Answer: (a)

143. Which of the following matches correctly?

(a)  Factor II – Thromboplastin

(b)  Factor III – Prothrombin

(c)  Factor VIII – Antihaemophilic globulin

(d)  Factor XII – Haemophilic

Answer: (c)

144. Pick out the correct match

(a)  Sternum – 14

(b)  Pelvis – 3

(c)  Ribs – 20

(d)  Face – 5

Answer: (b)

145. The pH of the digestive juices within the human small intestine is between 7.5 and 8.5. This environment is slightly

(a)  basic

(b)  acidic

(c)  neutral

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

146. Who is known as father of physiological genetics or father of biochemical genetics?

(a)  Slatyer

(b)  Charles Elton

(c)  Taylor

(d)  Archibald Garrod

Answer: (d)

147. Which of the following matches correctly?

(a)  Inferior vena cava – Receives deoxygenated blood from the head and body

(b)  Superior vena cava – Receives deoxygenated blood from the lower body and organs

(c)  Pulmonary artery – Carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs

(d)  Hepatic artery – Carries deoxygenated blood to the gut

Answer: (c)

148. The thread like tendons of papillary muscles inserted upon the flaps of tricuspid and bicuspid valves are

(a)  chordate tendinae

(b)  yellow elastin fibres

(c)  reticulate fibres

(d)  collagen fibres

Answer: (a)

149. In the central nervous system myelinated fibres form the …………., while the non-myelinated fibre cells form the …………

(a)  grey matter’ white matter

(b)  white matter; grey matter

(c)  ependymal cells; neurosecretory cells

(d)  neurosecretory cells; ependymal cells

Answer: (b)

150. In prokaryotes, the process of replication is catalyzed by the following enzymes. Identify which of the enzymes is best coordinate with the role.

(a)  Helicase – Joins the ends of DNA segments

(b)  DNA polymerase-I – Synthesises DNA

(c)  DNA polymerase-II – Erases primer and fills gaps

(d)  Primase – Synthesises RNA primers

Answer: (d)

151. Which of the following is correct matched ?

(a)  Central Rice Research Institute – Shimla

(b)  National Botanical Research Institute – Delhi

(c)  Central Drug Research Institute – Cuttack

(d)  Central Food Technology Research Institute – Mysore

Answer: (d)

152. Wonder wheat is new wheat variety developed by

(a)  Mexico’s international Wheat and Maize Improvement Centre

(b)  Indian National Botanical Research Institute

(c)  Australian Crop Improvement Centre

(d)  African Crop Improvement Centre

Answer: (a)

153. Thiamine (B1) deficiency results in

(a)  Wernickes’ syndromes

(b)  Korsakoffs’ syndromes

(c)  osteonecrosis

(d)  tunnel vission

Answer: (a)

154. The government of India in 1980s has introduced a concept to work closely with the local communities for protecting and managing forests. The concept is

(a)  Forest Research Institutes

(b)  Panel of focal communities for forest management

(c)  Join Forest Management

(d)  Jhum Cultivation

Answer: (c)

155. The thickness of the ozone is measured in terms of

(a)  P

(b)  DU

(c)  μ

(d)  RA

Answer: (b)

156. hn-RNA undergoes two additional processing. Out of which, in one of t hem an unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5′-end of hn This is known as

(a)  capping

(b)  tailing

(c)  splicing

(d)  termination

Answer: (a)

157. In some seeds, reminants of nucellus are also persistent. This residual, persistent nucellus i s the

(a)  pericarp

(b)  perisperm

(c)  chalazosperm

(d)  mesosperm

Answer: (b)

158. The potential difference across the membrane of nerve fibre when it does not shown any physiological activity is called resting potential. It is about

(a)  −60 mv

(b)  −80 mv

(c)  +60 mv

(d)  +90 mv

Answer: (b)

159. FAD is a coenzyme derived from

(a)  riboflavin

(b)  vitamin-B12

(c)  thiamine

(d)  niacin

Answer: (a)

160. Echidna and Ornithorhynchus are the connecting links between

(a)  amphibians and aves

(b)  mammals and amphibians

(c)  reptiles and mammals

(d)  reptiles and amphibians

Answer: (c)

Directions for Q. No. 161 to 180 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

161. Assertion With few exceptions tropics harbou more species than temperate or polar areas.

Reason Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.

Answer: (a)

162. Assertion Reduction division occurs in anaphase-I. So there is no need of meiosis.

Reason Meiosis-II occurs to separate homologous chromosomes.

Answer: (d)

163. Assertion Allelopathy is a form of ammensalism that occurs in plants.

Reason Association of rooting plants with fungal hyphae, is an important example of ammensalism.

Answer: (c)

164. Assertion Generally, a woman do not conceive during lactation period.

Reason The hormone prolactin initiates and maintain lactation in a woman.

Answer: (b)

165. Assertion The imbalance in concentration of sodium and potassium ions and proteins generates the resting potential.

Reason To maintain unequal distribution of sodium and potassium, neurons use electrical energy.

Answer: (c)

166. Assertion The regulation of RBC production is accompanied by the kidneys.

Reason Erythropoietin hormone circulates to the red bone marrow, where it increases stem cell mitosis and speeds up the development of RBCs.

Answer: (a)

167. Assertion There is no chance of transmission of malaria to a man on the bite of a male Anopheles

Reason It carries a non virulent strain of Plasmodium.

Answer: (b)

168. Assertion Minerals are not biologically active substances.

Reason Some individuals suffer anaemia due to deficiency of copper.

Answer: (d)

169. Assertion Chimpanzee is the closest relative of present day humans.

Reason The banding pattern in the autosome number 3 and 6 are remarkably similar.

Answer: (a)

170. Assertion The honey bee queen copulates only once in life.

Reason It can lay both fertilized and unfertilized eggs.

Answer: (b)

171. Assertion King cobra is adaptive to oriental realm.

Reason Wallace line prevents interaction of king cobra and kangaroo.

Answer: (b)

172. Assertion Leaf butterfly and stick insect show mimicry to dodge their enemies.

Reason Mimicry is a method of acquire body colour blending with the surroundings.

Answer: (a)

173. Assertion Charcoal has equal heating power than wood.

Reason Charcoal burns without producing flame or smoke.

Answer: (d)

174. Assertion Recoginition site should be preferably sing and responsive to commonly used restriction enzyme.

Reason In pBR 322 alien DNA is ligated generally in the area of Bam-HI site of tetracycline resistance gene.

Answer: (b)

175. Assertion Recently, the government of India instituted the Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.

Reason We can speed up the reforestation by planting trees.

Answer: (b)

176. Assertion DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence.

Reason In repetitive DNA sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times.

Answer: (a)

177. Assertion Chlorella could serve as a potential source of food and energy.

Reason When dried, Chlorella has 15% protein, 45% fat, 10% carbohydrate, 20% fibre, and 10% minerals and vitamins.

Answer: (c)

178. Assertion Oil will form a film on the top of the water, affecting the amount of light entering the water.

Reason Oil is a polar molecule,, and forms hydrogen bonds.

Answer: (c)

179. Assertion Bacteria and other particles pass down the wind pipe and enter the lungs, causing damage to the tissue.

Reason Smoking reduces ciliary effectiveness.

Answer: (a)

180. Assertion Most evolutionary trees place unformation about the pattern of relationships among organisms on the vertical axis and information about time on the horizontal axis.

Reason An evolutionary tree depicts the pattern of relationships among  parents and their offsprings.

Answer: (d)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2009

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

181. Santosh Trophy is related to

(a)  Cricket

(b)  Badminton

(c)  Golf

(d)  Football

Answer: (d)

182. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorists of the Freedom Movement in

(a)  The Madras Presidency

(b)  Punjab

(c)  Bombay-Karnataka

(d)  East Bengal

Answer: (d)

183. Michael Ferreira is associated with which of the following games ?

(a)  Chess

(b)  Snooker

(c)  Golf

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

184. Moorish traveler, Ibn Batutah, came to India during the time of

(a)  Ala-ud-din Khalji

(b)  Firuz Shah Tughlaq

(c)  Balban

(d)  Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq

Answer: (d)

185. Red Cross was founded by

(a)  J.H. Durant

(b)  Baden Powell

(c)  Trygve Lie

(d)  Fredrick Passey

Answer: (a)

186. Where is the H.Q. of the Amnesty International?

(a)  Geneva

(b)  London

(c)  Paris

(d)  New York

Answer: (b)

187. Who were the three statements who formulated NAM?

(a)  Tito, Nasser and Bhutto

(b)  Nehru, Nasser and Gandhi

(c)  Nasser, Tito and Nehru

(d)  Nehru, Chouen-Lai and Bhutto

Answer: (b)

188. Who is known as ‘Little Corporal’?

(a)  Adolf Hitler

(b)  Napolean Bonaparte

(c)  William E. Cladstone

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

189. Who wrote As You Like It ?

(a)  Bernard Shaw

(b)  William Shakespeare

(c)  Leo. Tolstoy

(d)  Mulk Raj Anand

Answer: (b)

190. Ain-i-Akbari is written by

(a)  Firdausi

(b)  Ghalib

(c)  Abul Fazal

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

191. When was the Border Security Force (BSF) raised?

(a)  1947

(b)  1950

(c)  1960

(d)  1965

Answer: (d)

192. MODVAT relates to

(a)  sales tax

(b)  wealth tax

(c)  income tax

(d)  excise duty

Answer: (d)

193. The one rupee note bears the signature of

(a)  Secretary, Ministry of Finance

(b)  Governor, Reserve Bank of India

(c)  Finance Minister

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

194. Which among the following is the feature film produced in India by Dada Saheb Phalke?

(a)  Alam Ara

(b)  Raja Harishchandra

(c)  Shakuntala

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

195. In Indian Plan holiday was after

(a)  China-India war of 1962

(b)  Draught of 1966

(c)  Pakistan war of 1971

(d)  Pakistan war of 1965

Answer: (d)

Selected Questions from Ancient Indian History

Selected Questions from Ancient Indian History:

  • The source of Swastika symbol
    Indus Valley
  • Who is considered as the father of Indian archaeoloy
    Alexander Cunningham
  • Meter scale has been discovered from ………
    Harappa
  • Weapon never used by the Indus people
    Sword
  • What was the major industry in Chanhudaro?
    Bead making
  • The word ‘Sindhan’ used by the Indus people denoted
    Cotton
  • Evidence of fractional burial has been excavated from
    Harappa
  • The word ‘godhume’ used in the vedic period denote
    Wheat
  • ‘Yava’ denoted
    Barley
  • Term used to denote rice in the vedic text
    Vrihi
  • Vedic term sita denoted
    Ploughed field
  • Which veda mentions about wheel
    Rigveda
  • Vedi terms ‘Urvara’ or ‘kshetra’ denoted
    Cultivated field
  • The famous frog hymn in Rig Veda throws light to
    Vedic education
  • Who was considered as the god of the vedas?
    Varuna
  • Rigvedic term ‘Duhitri’ denoted
    Milker of cows
  • Method used to calculate the number of cows in the Vedic period
    Ashtakarni
  • Part of which veda has prose part
    Yajur Veda
  • Who spread Aryan religion in South India
    Agasthya
  • Vedic term ‘Aghanya’ denotes
    Cows
  • The term ‘Bharata’ and ‘Bharatavarsha’ were first used in
    Rig Veda
  • Upanishad which mentions the four Ashramas of Vedic period
    Jabala Upanishad
  • Largest number of hymns in Rigveda a are in praise of
    Indra