UGC NET Exam June-2013 Human Rights and Duties Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

HUMAN RIGHTS AND DUTIES

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which of the following is not a Civil Right ?

(A) Right to Life

(B) Right to Marriage

(C) Right to Education

(D) Right to Divorce

Answer: (C)

2. Who of the following was the main mover behind the Universal Declaration of Human Rights ?

(A) Woodrow Wilson

(B) Franklin D. Roosevelt

(C) Thomas Paine

(D) Eleanor Roosevelt

Answer: (D)

3. Third Generation of Human Rights is also known as

(A) Citizen’s Rights

(B) Developmental Rights

(C) Group Rights

(D) Women’s Rights

Answer: (C)

4. At the time of adoption of the declaration of the right of development by the U.N. General Assembly in 1986 only State to express its divert was

(A) The United States of America

(B) Peoples Republic of China

(C) Iran

(D) France

Answer: (A)

5. Which one of the following determines that the Indian constitution is federal ?

(A) A written and rigid constitution

(B) An independent judiciary

(C) Vesting of residuary power with the centre

(D) Distribution of powers between the centre and the states

Answer: (D)

6. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was initiated in 1983 with the pioneering efforts of

(A) Justice R.N. Mishra

(B) Justice Chandrachud

(C) Justice P.N. Bhagawati

(D) Justice Venkatswami

Answer: (C)

7. Which of the following was the first international treaty having significant portents for International Human Rights Law ?

(A) Congress of Vienna

(B) Geneva Convention

(C) League of Nations

(D) Treaty of Westphalia

Answer: (D)

8. Who of the following was the pioneer of United Nations Peace keeping operations ?

(A) Trygve Li

(B) Kofi Annan

(C) U. Thant

(D) Dag Hammarjskold

Answer: (D)

9. Who among the following wrote the book ‘The Theory of Justice’ ?

(A) Thomas Hegal

(B) John Rawls

(C) Jean Jacques Rousseau

(D) Thomas Hobbes

Answer: (B)

10. Who among the following defined rights as “those conditions of social life without which no man can reacts in general, to be his best” ?

(A) Harold J. Laski

(B) Bernard Bosanquet

(C) Leonard Hobhouse

(D) Hurst Hannum

Answer: (A)

11. In which case Supreme Court held that Parliament has no power to amend the Fundamental Rights ?

(A) Golak Nath Case

(B) Sajjan Singh Case

(C) Shankari Prasad Case

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

12. What is the full form of COFEPOSA ?

(A) Conservation of Foreign Exchange & Prevention of Smuggling Act

(B) Conservation of Foreign Economy and Prevention of South Africa.

(C) Conservation of Foreign Export Problems of South Asia.

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

13. Which one of the following sets of Articles in Part – III of the Constitution emphasis its secular character ?

(A) Articles 8 to 11

(B) Articles 25 to 28

(C) Articles 45 to 48 A

(D) Articles 14 to 19

Answer: (B)

14. ‘No taxation without representation’ was the slogan of which of the following revolutions ?

(A) Glorious Revolution of Britain

(B) Bolshevik Revolution

(C) French Revolution

(D) Chinese Revolution

Answer: (A)

15. Who was the first Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission in India ?

(A) Rangnath Misre

(B) A.S. Anand

(C) J.S. Verma

(D) P.B. Gajendragadkar

Answer: (A)

16. Who of the following was not a member of the Fundamental Rights sub-committee of the Advisory Committee of Constituent Assembly in India ?

(A) K.T. Shah

(B) B.R. Ambedkar

(C) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: (D)

17. Who of the following developed the notion of Human Development Index ?

(A) Mohd. Yunus

(B) J.K. Galbraith

(C) Amartya Sen

(D) Mahbub-ul-Haq

Answer: (D)

18. Which of the following is not a new social movement ?

(A) Environmental Movements

(B) Feminist Movements

(C) Peasant Movements

(D) Differently-Abled Rights Movements

Answer: (C)

19. Who among the following did not have an influence on shaping the thinking of Mahatma Gandhi ?

(A) Ruskin Bond

(B) Leo Tolstoy

(C) Thoreau

(D) Ernest Hemingway

Answer: (D)

20. Husband and wife have a right to each other’s company. This right is called

(A) Legal Right

(B) Matrimonial Right

(C) Consortium Right

(D) Conjugal Right

Answer: (D)

21. Where are Juvenile delinquents sent ?

(A) Borstal

(B) Asylums

(C) Protective custody

(D) Reformation centre

Answer: (A)

22. Which of the following rights are included in cultural and educational rights ?

(A) Right to linguistic minorities to promote their language.

(B) Right against discrimination for admission to educational institutions on the grounds of religion, race or caste.

(C) Right of the minorities to establish and administer their educational institutions.

(D) All of these

Answer: (D)

In question numbers 23 to 32 examine whether the statements given are correct and related to each other with the help of the
codes attached.

23. Assertion (A) : Preventive Detention is an integral part of the constitution of India.

Reason (R) : Preventive detention is an essential part of a democratic system.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (C)

24. Assertion (A) : The rise of Human Rights Non-Governmental organisations in India has been a recent phenomenon with the National Emergency of 1975 acting as a trigger for their emergence and increased activities.

Reason (R) : Before 1975 there were no human rights violations.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct  explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (C)

25. Assertion (A) : Governments can reserve the right not to apply a specific part of a treaty and have to declare so when
ratifying a treaty by submitting a reservation.

Reason (R) : Governments may not be in a position to undertake the obligations at the time of ratification. 

Codes : 

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (A)

26. Assertion (A) : Not only the rights of the present generation but also that of the future generations to live and lead a healthy life is embodied in the right to a healthy environment.

Reason (R) : The right to life itself is dependent upon good and healthy environment.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (A)

27. Assertion (A) : The Right to equality suggests that people ought to have an equal opportunity to exercise their particular capabilities and not be governed by the accident of their birth. 

Reason (R) : All men are born equal in strength, talent and capacity.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (C)

28. Assertion (A) : The welfare state of today provides various social services such as health, education, old age protection etc. free.

Reason (R) : Welfare state is based on socialist ideology.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. 

(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (C)

29. Assertion (A) : Torture was abolished from criminal procedure during the age of enlightenment, and is prohibited, without exception even in emergency situation, by present international law. 

Reason (R) : Torture is not a scientific method of investigation. 

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct. 

Answer: (B)

30. Assertion (A) : The Phenomenon of globalization has, among other things, given rise to a variety of Global social movements. 

Reason (R) : Globalization ushers in an era of human rights.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (C)

31. Assertion (A) : Every Juvenile of compulsory school age has the right to education suited to his or her needs and abilities and designed to prepare him or her for return to society.

Reason (R) : Juvenile’s Commission of crime does not necessarily have criminal mindset.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct. 

Answer: (B)

32. Assertion (A) : Judicial review is the power of courts to pronounce upon the constitutionality of legislative acts.

Reason (R) : Constitution is the foundation and source of other legislative authorities in the polity.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (A)

33. Arrange the following in chronological order in which they addressed the issue of racial discrimination :

i. United Nations Declaration on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination.

ii. International Convention on the suppression and punishment of the crime of aparthied.

iii. International convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination.

iv. International Convention against Aparthied in sports. 

Codes :

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii i iii iv

(C) i iii ii iv

(D) iii ii iv i

Answer: (C)

34. Arrange the following instruments in the chronological order of their introduction using codes given below :

i. American convention 

ii. Refugee convention

iii. Geneva convention

iv. European torture convention

Codes :

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iii i iv

(C) iii ii i iv

(D) i iii iv ii

Answer: (C)

35. Arrange the following cases in chronological order of their disposal.

i. Keshavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala

ii. A.D.M. Jabalpur vs. S. Shukla 

iii. Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India

iv. Galak Nath vs. State of Punjab

Codes :

(A) iv i ii iii

(B) i ii iii iv

(C) ii iv i iii

(D) iii ii iv i

Answer: (A)

36. Arrange the following in chronological order in which they were established :

i. Asia Pacific Human Rights Network

ii. Amnesty International 

iii. People’s Union for civil liberties

iv. Human Rights Watch 

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iv iii i

(C) iii i iv ii

(D) iv iii ii i

Answer: (B)

37. Arrange the following conference in the order in which they were held. 

i. World Conference on Human Rights, Tehran

ii. Fourth World Conference on Women, Beijing

iii. Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro

iv. International Conference on population and Development, Cairo

Codes :

(A) i iii iv ii

(B) ii iv i iii

(C) iv iii ii i

(D) iii iv ii i

Answer: (A)

38. Arrange in sequence the adoption of following Acts in India for the protection of rights of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.

i. Protection of Civil Rights Act 

ii. Employment of Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrine (prohibition) Act

iii. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (prevention of atrocities) Act.

iv. Panchayats (Extension of the scheduled areas) Act

Codes :

(A) i iii ii iv

(B) ii i iii iv

(C) ii iii i iv

(D) iii ii iv i

Answer: (A)

39. Arrange the following Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India in order of sequence.

i. Right to Freedom

ii. Right to Education

iii. Right to Freedom of Religion

iv. Right against Exploitation

Codes :

(A) i iii ii iv

(B) i ii iv iii

(C) ii iv i iii

(D) iv i ii iii

Answer: (B)

40. Arrange the following in chronological order of their inception :

i. International Criminal Court

ii. International Court of Justice 

iii. The European Court of Human Rights

iv. Inter-American Court of Human Rights

Codes :

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iii iv i

(C) iii i iv ii

(D) iv iii ii i

Answer: (B)

41. Arrange the following UN Agencies in chronological order of their formation :

i. United Nations Environment Programme

ii. United Nations Development Programme

iii. International Labour Organisation

iv. World Health Organisation

Codes :

(A) iii iv ii i

(B) iv iii ii i

(C) i ii iii iv

(D) ii i iv iii

Answer: (A)

42. Arrange chronologically the instruments in order of their introduction using codes given below :

i. The Magna Carta

ii. The Petition of Rights

iii. The Bill of Rights

iv. Glorious Revolution

Codes :

(A) i ii iv iii

(B) ii iii i iv

(C) iv i iii ii

(D) i iv ii iii

Answer: (A)

43. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (C)

44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (A)

45. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (B)

46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

 

Answer: (C)

47. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer with the codes given below :

Answer: (A)

48. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (A)

49. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (B)

50. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (A)

UGC NET Exam June-2013 International and Area Studies Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

INTERNATIONAL AND AREA STUDIES

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which one of the following theoretical positions you will associate with the statement that “Economic globalization is an
uneven, hierarchical process, where economic power is increasingly concentrated in leading industrialized countries” ?

(A) Marxism

(B) Realism

(C) Neo-Marxism

(D) Post-structuralism

Answer: (C)

2. From the names given below, identify the Radical Dependency Theorists :

(A) A.G. Frank and J.M. Keynes

(B) Samir Amin and F.H. Cardoso

(C) J.M. Keynes and F.H. Cardoso

(D) A.G. Frank and Samir Amin

Answer: (D)

3. Assertion (A) : Postpositivists are critical of any established truth valid for all.

Reason (R) : The task is to examine the world from a large variety of political, social, cultural, economic, other and gendered perspectives.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

4. Match the following thinkers in List – I with their theories in List – II and give the correct with the help of code given below :

Answer: (B)

5. Arrange the following books in the chronological ascending order of their publication :

i. The Strategy of Conflict

ii. Theory of International Politics

iii. The Tragedy of Great Power Politics

iv. A Liberal World Order in Crisis

Codes :

(A) iii iv i ii

(B) iv iii ii i

(C) i ii iv iii

(D) ii i iii iv

Answer: (D)

6. Who described the environmental threats as ‘threats without enemies’ ?

(A) Gwyn Prins

(B) B. Buzan

(C) De Wilde

(D) Simon Dalby

Answer: (A)

7. Assertion (A) : The restrictive immigration policy in many EU States reflects racial and religious prejudices.

Reason (R) : They feared that the absorption of immigrants will dilute their culture and nationalism.

Codes :

(A) (A) is not correct, (R) is correct.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.

Answer: (B)

8. The new globalizers, according to the terminology of World Bank, refer to countries 

(A) who have best taken advantage of global economic integration.

(B) who made progress towards poverty alleviation.

(C) who are alternatively formulating their own economic rules.

(D) who promoting inclusive growth.

Answer: (A)

9. Assertion (A) : The central focus of International Relations is not evil, but tragedy.

Reason (R) : States often share common interests, but the structure of the situation prevents them from bringing about the mutually desired situation.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.

(B) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.

Answer: (C)

10. Match the following authors in Table – I with their writings in Table – II, with the help of correct code given below :

Answer: (A)

11. Choose the correct ascending chronological order on the basis of the code given below :

(A) Group 77, SAARC, ASEAN, APEC

(B) ASEAN, Group 77, SAARC, APEC

(C) ASEAN, SAARC, Group 77, APEC

(D) Group 77, ASEAN, SAARC, APEC

Answer: (D)

12. Economic globalization is conceived as having three logics : 

(A) technical, economics and politics

(B) structural, economic and social

(C) technical, structural and procedural

(D) politics, economics and sociology

Answer: (A)

13. The current world economic order displays attributes, such as 

(A) Secular trend

(B) Short-term capital flows

(C) Deepening of market integration

(D) All the above

Answer: (D)

14. Assertion (A) : The nation state has always suffered from a limited capacity to deal with genuinely global problems.

Reason (R) : The tragedy of the commons provides a compelling model of the consequences of this lack of capacity, pointing to
the need for effective and democratic institutions of global governance.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, (R) is false. 

(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

15. Identify the correct code for the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) as given below :

Assertion (A) : In a globalised world, terrorism has crossed national frontiers and has acquired international dimensions.

Reason (R) : Mobility, fire power and interconnectedness through information and communication technologies have enabled
terrorists to strike everywhere and anywhere in the world.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.

(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (B)

16. Negation of shooting war is called as 

(A) Unconventional war

(B) Sub-national war

(C) Proxy war

(D) Cold war

Answer: (D)

17. Who, among the following, claimed that ‘nuclear weapons provided the glue that had held the Western alliance together’ ?

(A) Henry Kissinger

(B) James Schlesinger

(C) Robert McNamara

(D) George P. Shultz

Answer: (B)

18. Who, among the following, categorised nuclear weapon as ‘Absolute weapon’ in the immediate aftermath of the destruction of  Hiroshima and Nagasaki ?

(A) Bernard Brodie

(B) Herman Kahn

(C) Henry Kissinger

(D) Stephen Waltz

Answer: (A)

19. Match the following from Table – I (Country) and Table – II (Missiles) by using the correct code given below :

Answer: (A)

20. Which one of the following countries is employing the ‘String of Pearls’ strategy against India ?

(A) China

(B) U.S.A.

(C) Japan

(D) Russia

Answer: (A)

21. Arrange the following in chronological order according to their establishment using code given below :

i. BIMSTEC

ii. ASEAN

iii. SAARC

iv. BRICS

Codes :

(A) i iii ii iv

(B) i ii iii iv

(C) ii iii i iv

(D) iii iv i ii

Answer: (C)

22. Match the following books in List – I with the authors in List – II with the code given below :

Answer: (B)

23. Identify the correct code for the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) as given below :

Assertion (A) : India should not contemplate retaliation even if there is another 26/11 or Mumbai – type attack. This is nothing short of Pakistan’s nuclear blackmail. Not different from the irresponsible behaviour one witnesses in North Korea.

Reason (R) : Pakistan believes that it has brought down the threshold of nuclear use to the theatre level by miniaturisation and development of tactical nuclear weapons.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.

(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (B)

24. ‘One for all, all for one’ signifies one of the following :

(A) Collective Defence

(B) Collective Security

(C) Military Alliance

(D) Regional Economic Grouping

Answer: (B)

25. Which one of the following countries, calls its coastal regions collectively as ‘Golden Coast’ ?

(A) China

(B) Thailand

(C) Malaysia

(D) Vietnam

Answer: (A)

26. Match the Countries in List – I with their Ports in List – II from the code given below :

Answer: (D)

27. The name of the incumbent Secretary General of ASEAN is

(A) Rodolto Severino

(B) Le Luong Minh

(C) Ong Keng Yong

(D) Surin Pitswan

Answer: (C)

28. The first Asian astronaut was from one of the following countries :

(A) India

(B) China

(C) Vietnam

(D) Japan

Answer: (C)

29. Identify the correct code for the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Regional trade agreements enhance the attractiveness of economies to potential foreign investors, in South and Southeast Asia. 

Reason (R) : In an integrated global economy these agreements have become more important when countries are competing as preferred hosts for foreign investors.

Codes :

(A) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct. 

(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not the right answer.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are not true.

Answer: (C)

30. Which one of the outside powers helped Vietnam to invade Cambodia ?

(A) The United States of America

(B) China

(C) The Soviet Union

(D) France

Answer: (C)

31. In which CIS country did the Andijan ethnic clashes take place in 2005 ?

(A) Kazakhstan

(B) Tajikistan

(C) Uzbekistan

(D) Kyrgyzstan

Answer: (C)

32. Identify the correct code for Assertion (A) and Reason (R) as given below :

Assertion (A) : Andropov advocated ‘Taking the fight to the enemy as a foreign policy approach’.

Reason (R) : This was in continuation with the Brezhnev doctrine as part of the Cold War strategy.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

33. Match the names of the Foreign Ministers given in List – I with their countries in List – II with the help of the code given below :

Answer: (A)

34. Arrange the following events in an ascending chronological order with the help of given code :

i. U2 incident

ii. Helsinki Conference on Security and Co-operation in Europe.

iii. Nikita Khrushchev ousted from Soviet Leadership

iv. Nuclear Test Ban Treaty signed 

Codes :

(A) ii i iii iv

(B) i iv iii ii

(C) iv ii i iii

(D) iii iv ii i

Answer: (B)

35. Which one of the following connects Red Sea and Persian Gulf ?

(A) Bab-el-Mandeb

(B) Gulf of Akaba

(C) Suez Canal

(D) Galilee Sea

Answer: (A)

36. Arrange the following events in an ascending chronological order with the help of given code :

i. Formation of the PLO

ii. Iran-Iraq War

iii. Baghdad Pact

iv. Islamic Revolution in Iran

Codes :

(A) iv iii ii i

(B) iii i iv ii

(C) ii iii i iv

(D) i ii iii iv

Answer: (B)

37. Match the following Leaders given in List – I with their Countries given in List – II with the help of given code :

Answer: (A)

38. When did Israel occupied West Bank ?

(A) The 1956 War between Israel and Egypt

(B) 1967 Arab-Israel War 

(C) 1983 Israel-Lebanon War

(D) 1973 Arab-Israel War

Answer: (B)

39. Match the following countries (I) with their boundary disputes (II) :

Answer: (C)

40. The United States launched the Global War on Terror after 9/11 firstly against one of the following :

(A) Afghanistan’s Taliban and Al Qaeda

(B) Saddam rule in Iraq

(C) Gaddafi rule in Libya

(D) Asad’s rule in Syria

Answer: (A)

41. Match the following Countries (I) with their Presidents (II) on the basis of code given below :

Answer: (A)

42. The terrorists accountable for Boston bombing on 15 April 2013 originally belong to one of the following :

(A) Bolivia

(B) Chechnya 

(C) Ukraine

(D) Belarus

Answer: (B)

43. Identify the correct code for the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) as given below :

Assertion (A) : In anarchic international milieu, States maintain military capabilities for their own defence. 

Reason (R) : In war time or tension-prone environment, there is clear-cut military advantages gained from having larger armed forces and superior weapon systems or military doctrines.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.

(C) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (A)

44. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Identify the correct code for them.

Assertion (A) : International law of human rights provides an elaborate structure of rights that cover civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights and other rights.

Reason (R) : It intended to promote an acceptable standard of human life. 

Codes :

(A) (A) is right, but (R) is not the right answer.

(B) (A) and (R) both are correct. 

(C) (A) is not right, but (R) is correct.

(D) (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (B)

45. The concept of ‘intergenerational equity’ was popularised by Brundtland Commission Report in the following year :

(A) 1992

(B) 1985

(C) 1987

(D) 1996

Answer: (C)

46. Match the following conventions in List – I with years in List – II, with the help of the code given below :

Answer: (B)

47. The UN Secretary General’s Report to the General Assembly in 2010 emphasised on

(A) State Sovereignty

(B) Preventive Diplomacy

(C) Human Security

(D) Humanitarian Intervention

Answer: (C)

48. The changing global context made India’s foreign policy shift from

 (A) Bialignment – Nonalignment – Multialignment

(B) Nonalignment – Regional alignment – Multialignment

(C) Regional alignment – Multialignment – Unilateralism

(D) Nonalignment – Bialignment – Multialignment

Answer: (D)

49. Arrange the following personalities in an ascending chronological order :

i. Mao Ze Dong

ii. Deng Xiao Ping

iii. Hu Jintao

iv. Jiang Zemin

Codes :

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) i ii iv iii

(C) i iii ii iv

(D) iii ii i iv

Answer: (B)

50. Galicia, a province which is striving for its independence, is a part of

 (A) Germany

(B) Italy

(C) France

(D) Spain

Answer: (D)

UGC NET Exam June-2013 Electronic Science Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

ELECTRONIC SCIENCE 

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. The p-n junction diode is a

(A) Passive device

(B) Vacuum device

(C) Unilateral device

(D) Bilateral device

Answer: (C)

2. A semiconductor has ______ temperature co-efficient of resistance

(A) Zero

(B) Positive

(C) Negative

(D) One

Answer: (C)

3. A JFET has

(A) One built-in diode

(B) Two built-in diode

(C) Three built-in diode

(D) Four built-in diode

Answer: (B)

4. The superposition theorem is essentially based on the concept of 

(A) Quality

(B) Linearity

(C) Reciprocity

(D) Non-linearity

Answer: (B)

5. A counter that counts in binary from 0000 to 1010 is known as

(A) Binary counter

(B) Decade counter

(C) BCD counter

(D) Mod-10 counter

Answer: (A)

6. A digital multiplexer is a/an

(A) Combinational circuit

(B) Sequential circuit

(C) Amplifier

(D) Memory device

Answer: (A)

7. An 8086 has how many number of flags ?

(A) 5

(B) 7

(C) 9

(D) 11

Answer: (C)

8. In 8085, microprocessor, the register which holds the address of the next instruction to be executed is

A) Instruction register

(B) Stack pointer

(C) Temporary register

(D) Program counter

Answer: (D)

9. The Pentium III processor is a

(A) 16 bit processor

(B) 32 bit processor

(C) 64 bit processor

(D) 128 bit processor

Answer: (C)

10. Demodulation is a process 

(A) done at the transmitter

(B) of filtering the carrier

(C) of removing the sidebands

(D) similar to modulation

Answer: (B)

11. The terms frequency pushing and pulling are related to

(A) Reflex Klystron

(B) Two cavity klystron

(C) Pulsed radar system

(D) Magnetron 

Answer: (D)

12. Out of the following memory types, one that is volatile is

(A) Magnetic disc

(B) Ferrite core

(C) Semiconductor ROM

(D) Semiconductor RAM

Answer: (D)

13. When Q of an antenna increases, the bandwidth

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(C) stays constant equal to zero

(D) stays constant equal to unity

Answer: (B)

14. The value of intrinsic-stand-off ratio of UJT should be

(A) >1

(B) <1

(C) 0 (zero)

(D) 10

Answer: (B)

15. In a normal ECG waveform which wave has the maximum amplitude ?

(A) P wave

(B) R wave

(C) Q wave

(D) T wave

Answer: (B)

16. The output impedance in an ideal Op-Amp is 

(A) Zero

(B) 20 Ω

(C) 60 Ω

(D) infinity

Answer: (A)

17. What will be the output of the following statements ?

int a = 5, b = 2, c = 10, i = a > b

Void main ( )

{print f(“hello”); main ( );}

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) infinite number of times

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

18. Which data communication method is used for sending data in both directions at the same time ?

(A) Super duplex

(B) Simplex

(C) Half duplex

(D) Full duplex

Answer: (D)

19. The highest data rate in fiber optic communication occurs in

(A) Single-mode fiber

(B) Graded-index fiber

(C) Multimode fiber

(D) Co-axial cable

Answer: (A)

20. Routh’s array for a system is given below :

The system is

(A) Stable

(B) Unstable

(C) Marginally stable

(D) Conditionally stable

Answer: (B)

Assertion-Reason type questions :

The following items consist of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

21. Assertion (A) : In a common base amplifier voltage gain is more than 1.

Reason (R) : In a common base amplifier current gain is less than 1.

Answer: (A)

22. Assertion (A) : Op-Amp is used for amplification of weak signals. 

Reason (R) : To rectify EMG signals, precision rectifiers are used.

Answer: (B)

23. Assertion (A) : Gray is unweighted code.

Reason (R) : Gray code is not self complementary.

Answer: (A)

24. Assertion (A) : TDM and FDM accomplish the same end by different means.

Reason (R) : FDM involves simpler instrumentation as compared to TDM.

Answer: (C)

25. Assertion (A) : A SSB system is used for broadcasting applications.

Reason (R) : The saving of power in SSB system is ≥ 75%.

26. Assertion (A) : Dual slope A/D converter is the most preferred conversion technique employed in most of the digital multimeters.

Reason (R) : Dual slope A/D converter provides high accuracy while at the same time suppresses the HUM effect on the input signal.

Answer: (A)

27. Assertion (A) :The system of propagation in waveguides is in accordance to field theory. 

Reason (R) : The system of propagation in transmission line is in accordance with circuit theory.

Answer: (B)

28. Assertion (A) : For a function to be odd f(–x) = –f(x).

Reason (R) : If a function is odd, its Fourier series only contains cosine terms.

Answer: (C)

29. Assertion (A) : A number of thyristors operating in parallel can not share a common heat sink. 

Reason (R) : For simultaneous firing of the thyristor opto isolators may be employed in the gate driving circuit.

Answer: (D)

30. Assertion (A) : ABCD parameters are transmission parameters. 

Reason (R) : The relationship between input and output is given by : 

Answer: (C)

31. Consider the following devices :

1. RTL

2. High Speed TTL

3. ECL

4. CMOS

The correct sequence of their decrease in power dissipation is

(A) 3, 1, 2, 4

(B) 3, 1, 4 ,2

(C) 1, 3, 2, 4

(D) 3, 2, 4, 1

Answer: (A)

32. Arrange the following in terms of their increasing conductivity :

1. Copper

2. Steel

3. Leather

4. Rubber

The correct sequence is

(A) 4, 3, 2, 1

(B) 4, 3, 1, 2

(C) 3, 4, 2, 1

(D) 2, 1, 3, 4

Answer: (A)

33. Following are the EM waves :

1. Red colour light

2. Blue colour light

3. Microwaves

4. X-rays

The correct sequence of decreasing order of wavelength is

(A) 2, 4, 3, 1

(B) 1, 3, 2, 4

(C) 3, 1, 4, 2

(D) 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: (D)

34. Following are the process steps to fabricate an IC :

1. Crystal growth

2. Epitaxial growth

3. Photo etching

4. Diffusion

5. Vacuum evaporation of Aluminium

The correct sequence of fabrication is

(A) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2

(B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(C) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

(D) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5

Answer: (B)

35. Following are the modulation/multiplexing techniques :

1. AM

2. FM

3. CDMA

4. WDM

The correct sequence of carrier frequency in decreasing order is

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4

(B) 4, 3, 1, 2

(C) 4, 3, 2, 1

(D) 3, 4, 2, 1

Answer: (C)

36. Match the following :

Answer: (C)

37. Match the following :

Answer: (B)

38. Match the lists :

Answer: (A)

39. Match the following :

Answer: (D)

40. Match the following lists :

Answer: (C)

41. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

42. Match the following lists :

Answer: (A)

43. Match the following lists :

Answer: (C)

44. Match the List – I and List – II :

Answer: (B)

45. Match the following lists :

 

Answer: (C)

Read the paragraph and answer the questions 46 to 50 :

p-i-n photodiode contains a layer of intrinsic semi-conductor material sandwiched between p-and-n regions. The depletion
layer is wholly contained within the i region. Thickness of the intrinsic region can be adjusted to produce device with optimum
sensitivity and frequency response. P-i-n photodiode is most common type of depletion layer photodiode.

The other class of photodiodes, avalanche photodiodes, are reverse-biased p-n junction diodes that are operated at voltages above the breakdown voltage. Current multiplication of electron-hole pairs generated by the incident electromagnetic radiation, occurs due to avalanche process. The photomultiplication factor Mpn is defined as ratio of the multiplied
photocurrent Ipm to the photocurrent Ipho at voltage below breakdown where no avalanche multiplication takes place.

46. Semiconductors are sensitive to

(A) heat

(B) magnetic field

(C) light energy

(D) all of the above

Answer: (D)

47. Which of the following elements is a semiconductor ?

(A) Germanium

(B) Copper

(C) Carbon

(D) Phosphorous

Answer: (A)

48. When a reverse bias is applied to a junction diode

(A) potential barrier is lowered 

(B) majority carrier current is increased

(C) minority carrier current is increased

(D) potential barrier is raised

Answer: (D)

49. Photo-diode is reverse biased because

(A) only one side is illuminated 

(B) majority swept are reverse biased across the function

(C) reverse current is small as compared to photo current 

(D) reverse current is large as compared to photocurrent

Answer: (C)

50. Avalanche photodiodes are preferred over PIN diodes in optical communication systems because of

(A) Speed of operation

(B) Higher sensitivity

(C) Larger bandwidth

(D) Larger power handling capacity

Answer: (D)

UGC NET Exam June-2013 Forensic Science Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

FORENSIC SCIENCE

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. A dead body for autopsy is to be preserved in a cold chamber whose preferred temperature is

(A) – 4°C

(B) 0°C

(C) 4°C

(D) 10°C

Answer: (C)

2. Which of the following is not a feature of immediate change after death ?

(A) Cessation of brain function

(B) Cessation of heart function

(C) Cooling of the body

(D) Stoppage of respiration

Answer: (C)

3. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

4. Match the following :

Answer: (B)

5. The test to identify vaginal epithelial cells in a case of sexual assault is

(A) Barberio’s test

(B) Florence’s test

(C) Lugol’s iodine test

(D) Precipitin test

Answer: (C)

6. Rule of Hasse helps in the determination of

(A) Age of Fetus

(B) Congenital anomalies of fetus

(C) Sex of fetus

(D) Stature of fetus

Answer: (A)

7. Which of the following conditions does not resemble rigor mortis ?

(A) Cold stiffening

(B) Gas stiffening

(C) Pugilistic attitude

(D) Tetanus

Answer: (D)

8. The total number of temporary molars in a child aged 7 years 

(A) zero

(B) four

(C) eight

(D) twelve

Answer: (C)

9. Fine, white lathery froth that is copious and tenacious around mouth and nostrils is suggestive of death due to

(A) Drowning

(B) Epilepsy

(C) Morphine poisoning

(D) Snake bite

Answer: (A)

10. Which is the best bone for determination of sex from skeletal remains ?

(A) Skull

(B) Pelvis

(C) Scaphoid

(D) Pisiform

Answer: (B)

11. Intersex means

(A) Intermingling of sexual traits in a person

(B) Determination of fetal sex

(C) Female homosexuality

(D) Sodomy

Answer: (A)

12. The diameter of LG shot is

(A) 9.14 mm

(B) 8.43 mm

(C) 6.83 mm

(D) 5.16 mm

Answer: (A)

13. Derringers are single shot pistols, which possess

(A) Single barrel

(B) Multiple barrel

(C) Choke in the barrel

(D) Magazine

Answer: (B)

14. The kinetic energy of a moving projectile is determined by

Answer: (B)

15. In the firing mechanism of firearm trombone action is also called as

(a) Pump action

(b) Lever action

(c) Bolt action

(d) Slide action

Codes :

(A) (a) and (b) are correct

(B) (a) and (c) are correct

(C) (b) and (d) are correct

(D) (a) and (d) are correct

Answer: (D)

16. The probable time of last fire from a firearm can be determined by

(A) Dispersion of pellets

(B) Fouling

(C) Trajectory of projectile

(D) Muzzle velocity of projectile

Answer: (B)

17. Assertion (A) : In Absorption-Inhibition method, specific absorption is allowed to proceed by placing antigenic material in contact with its homologous antibody.

Reason (R) : This absorption renders the serum less potent, and the inhibition of its activity is measured.

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (C)

18. The major metabolite of benzodiazepines is

(A) Benzoylecgonine

(B) Oxymorphone

(C) THC-acid

(D) Desmethyldiazepam

Answer: (D)

19. The presence of BHC is established by separation of its constituents by 

(A) SDS-PAGE

(B) Northern blotting

(C) Chromatography

(D) Southern blotting

Answer: (C)

20. Ester test is done for the identification of which of the following poisons ?

(A) Dhatura

(B) Opium

(C) Calatropis

(D) Abrus

Answer: (C)

21. Which of the following reagents is used to identify the vaginal secretion on the basis of detecting glycogenated epithelial cells ?

(A) Benzidene reagent

(B) Periodic acid-schiff reagent

(C) Nessler’s reagent

(D) Iodoplatinate reagent

Answer: (B)

22. The presence of blood in the semen causing pink or reddish colour is known as

(A) Azoospermia 

(B) Histospermia

(C) Oligospermia

(D) Hematospermia

Answer: (D)

23. Double helix structure of DNA was reported by

(A) Watson and Crick

(B) Saikai and Mullis

(C) Oswald Avery

(D) Alec Jeffreys

Answer: (A)

24. Individuals who produce A, B and H blood group specific substances in body fluids are called as

(A) Secretors

(B) Non-secretors

(C) Lewis positive

(D) Lewis negative

Answer: (A)

25. In STR loci, the tandem repeat unit consists of

(A) 2-7 bp

(B) 242 bp

(C) 1100 bp

(D) 35 bp

Answer: (A)

26. The major advantage of the SEM includes the following except 

(A) its great depth of field

(B) its high resolution

(C) its high magnification

(D) its ability to polarize light

Answer: (D)

27. IR spectra fail to distinguish

(A) tautomer

(B) enantiomers

(C) conformers

(D) stereoisomers

Answer: (B)

28. The numerical aperture of an objective lens is

Answer: (B)

29. Match the following :

Answer: (C)

30. First G.E.Q.D. in India was started at

(A) Kolkata

(B) Shimla

(C) Hyderabad

(D) Delhi

Answer: (B)

31. Juvenile courts are meant for trial of

(A) Mentally ill persons

(B) Foreign citizens

(C) Criminal lawyers

(D) Children below 18 years

Answer: (D)

32. Which of the following courts is not a court of trial ?

(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(B) First Class Judicial Magistrate

(C) Additional District and Session Judge

(D) Hight Court

Answer: (D)

33. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

34. After collecting the blood stained soil from the scene, it should be sent for examination :

(A) As such without drying

(B) After drying in oven

(C) After drying under fan

(D) After drying under shade

Answer: (D)

35. Prostate-specific antigen is also called as

(A) Proteinase K

(B) Amylase

(C) P30

(D) Ptylase

Answer: (C)

36. Seminal acid-phosphatase is produced in the

(A) Adrenal gland

(B) Prostate gland

(C) Thyroid gland

(D) Pituitary gland

Answer: (B)

37. Microscopic air packets or vacuoles within the cortex of hair is called as 

(A) Ovoid bodies

(B) Protein fibrils

(C) Cortical fussi

(D) Vacuum pockets

Answer: (C)

38. Creatinine in urine reacts with picric acid to form

(A) Di-sodium picrate

(B) Ammonium picrate

(C) Albumin picrate

(D) Creatinine picrate

Answer: (D)

39. Graying hair is as a result of loss of

(A) tyrosinase activity

(B) proteinase activity

(C) pectinase activity

(D) glucomylase activity

Answer: (A)

40. Type lines can be defined as the two innermost ridges which start parallel, diverge and surround or tend to surround _____.

(A) Pattern area

(B) Inner terminus

(C) Outer terminus

(D) Core

Answer: (A)

41. All the ten fingers having loop pattern will have classification as _________.

(A) 0/0

(B) 1/1

(C) 32/32

(D) 64/64

Answer: (B)

42. _________ technique is used to decipher latent finger-prints on wet non-porous surfaces.

(A) Small Particle Reagent (SPR) 

(B) Ninhydrin

(C) Crystal violet

(D) Amido Black

Answer: (A)

43. Which of the following are examples of diacritic marks in handwriting ?

(A) dots of i and j

(B) loops of g and j

(C) curves of i and j

(D) loops of p and y

Answer: (A)

44. Which of the following techniques is considered effective to develop latent fingerprints on non-porous surfaces ?

(A) Super glue

(B) Ninhydrin

(C) Diazafluorenone (DFO)

(D) Crystal violet

Answer: (A)

45. A bright halo observed near the border of a glass particle immersed in a liquid of a different refractive index is known as 

(A) Refractive point

(B) Birefringence

(C) A straight line

(D) Becke line

Answer: (D)

46. Compressive strength analysis is done in case of

(A) Paint smear

(B) Hair

(C) Footprint

(D) Cement block

Answer: (D)

47. The following compound is not present in Borosilicate glass :

(A) Silica (SiO2)

(B) K2O

(C) Al2O3

(D) CaO

Answer: (D)

48. 4R rule of glass fracture relates to 

(A) Concentric fracture

(B) Radial fracture

(C) Rib mark

(D) Hackle mark

Answer: (B)

49. Match the following ingredients of paint :

Answer: (D)

50. Radioactivity of a substance can be measured by

(A) Geiger Muller Counter

(B) Neon tubes

(C) Radiometric methods

(D) Photomultiplier tubes

Answer: (A)

UGC NET Exam June-2013 Social Medicine & Community Health Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

SOCIAL MEDICINE & COMMUNITY HEALTH

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. The following vaccine is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine :

(A) Measles

(B) BCG

(C) Salk Vaccine

(D) Hepatitis B Vaccine

Answer: (B)

2. Which of the following is an internationally notifiable disease ?

(A) Diphtheria

(B) Tuberculosis

(C) Yellow Fever

(D) Malaria

Answer: (C)

3. Nested case – control study is a type of

(A) Retrospective study

(B) Prospective study

(C) Descriptive study

(D) Cross-sectional study

Answer: (B)

4. Bhopal Gas Tragedy is an example of

(A) Point source epidemic

(B) Propagated epidemic

(C) Continuous epidemic

(D) Modern epidemic

Answer: (A)

5. Point prevalence overestimates the disease with

(A) High incidence

(B) Low incidence

(C) Low mortality

(D) High mortality

Answer: (C)

6. While studying health and illness, who propounded the notion of ‘Sick Role’ from among the following ?

(A) Talcott Parsons

(B) Karl Marx

(C) Weber

(D) Francis Bacon

Answer: (A)

7. ‘Nirmal Gram Abhiyan’ deals with which of the following ?

(A) Soft loan for the villages

(B) Education of the villagers

(C) Sanitation incentives for the villages

(D) State award for sanitation 

Answer: (C)

8. The drug given prophylactically to prevent parent-to-child transmission of HIV infection under NACO is

(A) Zidovudine

(B) Nevirapine

(C) Ritonavir

(D) Saguinavir

Answer: (B)

9. The type of Pneumoconiosis that cotton dust causes is known as

(A) Bagassosis

(B) Byssinosis

(C) Anthrocosis

(D) Silicosis

Answer: (B)

10. Where is the WHO established international laboratory for monitoring and studying air pollution, located in India ?

(A) Delhi

(B) Pune

(C) Nagpur

(D) Mumbai

Answer: (C)

11. Against which of the viral hepatitis, vaccine is currently available in India ?

I. Hepatitis A

II. Hepatitis B

III. Hepatitis C

IV. Hepatitis D

Codes :

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) I and III are correct.

(C) I and IV are correct.

(D) II and IV are correct.

Answer: (A)

12. Correctly identify ICMR recommended dietary intakes for a normal adult male doing sedentary work.

I. Cereals – 460 gms

II. Milk – 250 gms

III. Green leafy vegetables – 100 gms

IV. Pulses – 40 gms

Codes :

(A) I and II are correct

(B) II and III are correct

(C) I and IV are correct

(D) II and IV are correct

Answer: (C)

13. Which of the following are measures of dispersion ?

I. Mean Deviation

II. Mode

III. Standard Deviation

IV. Inter-quartile range

Codes :

(A) I and II are correct

(B) I, III and IV are correct

(C) II, III and IV are correct

(D) I and III are correct

Answer: (B)

14. Which of the following are parametric test of significance ?

I. Analysis of variance

II. χ2 test

III. ‘t’ test

IV. ‘Z’ test

Codes :

(A) I and II are correct

(B) II and IV are correct

(C) I and III are correct

(D) I, III and IV are correct

Answer: (D)

15. Which of the following are probability sampling methods ?

I. Simple Random Sampling

II. Cluster Sampling

III. Stratified Sampling

IV. Quota Sampling

Codes :

(A) II and IV are correct

(B) I, II and III are correct

(C) I, II and IV are correct

(D) II and III are correct

Answer: (B)

16. Grassroots level health workers who are salaried include :

I. Village Health Worker

II. Anganwadi Worker

III. Auxiliary Nurse Midwife

IV. Accredited Social Health Activist

Codes :

(A) I, II and III are correct

(B) I and IV are correct

(C) II and III are correct

(D) II, III and IV are correct

Answer: (*)

17. Medical tourism is fast becoming a growing industry in India. Name the States which are major contributors to medical tourism.

I. Kerala

II. Himachal Pradesh

III. Andhra Pradesh

IV. Rajasthan

Codes :

(A) II, III and IV are correct

(B) I, III and IV are correct

(C) I, II and IV are correct

(D) I, II and III are correct

Answer: (D)

18. The earlier centres for Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) through surrogacy in India were in which of the following States ?

I. Karnataka

II. Gujarat

III. Delhi

IV. Maharashtra

Codes :

(A) I and II are correct

(B) II and IV are correct

(C) I and III are correct

(D) II, III and IV are correct

Answer: (B)

19. Correctly identify the inherent properties of a screening test :

I. Yield

II. Sensitivity

III. Specificity

IV. Predictive Accuracy

Codes :

(A) II and IV are correct

(B) I and III are correct

(C) I, II and IV are correct

(D) II, III and IV are correct

Answer: (D)

20. Which of the following are the asymmetrical frequency distributions ?

I. Normal Distribution

II. Bimodal Distribution

III. ‘J’ shaped Distribution

IV. ‘V’ shaped Distribution

Codes :

(A) I, II and III are correct

(B) I and IV are correct

(C) II, III and IV are correct

(D) I and II are correct

Answer: (C)

Given below (21 to 30) consists of the two paired statements, Statement A (Assertion) and Statement R (Reason). Select
appropriate answer using the codes given below as follows :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

21. Assertion (A) : Geometric mean is a commonly used measure in demography.

Reason (R) : Population growth is exponential.

Answer: (A)

22. Assertion (A) : When two live vaccines are to be administered simultaneously, it is recommended that they be
given at different sites.

Reason (R) : Live vaccines have all major and minor antigenic components.

Answer: (B)

23. Assertion (A) : A selection bias can be controlled at the time of analysis by stratification.

Reason (R) : Berksonian bias is an example of selection bias.

Answer: (D)

24. Assertion (A) : Height for age is a stable measure of growth as opposed to weight for age.

Reason (R) : Weight for age reflects only the present height status of the child, height indicates the events in the past also.

Answer: (A)

25. Assertion (A) : The prevalence of chronic non-communicable diseases is rising in the developing world.

Reason (R) : There is a dual burden of communicable and non-communicable diseases in  the developing world.

Answer: (B)

26. Assertion (A) : It is postulated that 80% of the cancers are due to environmental factors.

Reason (R) : The sites of the body most commonly affected in occupational cancers are skin, lungs, bladder and blood forming organs.

Answer: (B)

27. Assertion (A) : More than 90% of HIV infections in India are transmitted through sexual mode of transmission.

Reason (R) : Sexual mode of transmission is the most efficient mode of transmission.

Answer: (C)

28. Assertion (A) : Workers in unorganised sector have poor access to services from Public Health Institutions.

Reason (R) : People comprising the unorganised sector do not have documents to establish their identity and proof of residence.

Answer: (B)

29. Assertion (A) : Bio social model of health allows for understanding the social determinants of health. 

Reason (R) : Social determinants play an important role in addressing the health problems.

Answer: (B)

30. Assertion (A) : In some diseases the disease agent is not completely eliminated leading to carrier state.

Reason (R) : Shedding of the disease agent in the discharges or excretions acts as a source of infection for other persons.

Answer: (B)

31. Identify the correct sequence in which the agents of following viral diseases were identified :

(A) Hepatitis E, Hepatitis C, H1 N1, Rotavirus 

(B) Rotavirus, Hepatitis E, Hepatitis C, H1 N1

(C) Hepatitis C, Hepatitis B, Rotavirus, H1 N1

(D) Rotavirus, H1 N1, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C

Answer: (*)

32. Identify the correct order from lower to higher level of infrastructure under Vision 2020.

(A) Service centers, Training centers, Center of excellence, Vision centers

(B) Vision centers, Center of excellence, Service centers, Training centers

(C) Vision centers, Service centers, Training centers, Center of excellence

(D) Center of excellence, Vision centers, Service centers, training centers

Answer: (C)

33. Write the descending order of achievement of immunization coverage (2010) ?

(A) BCG, Measles, OPV3, Hep B3

(B) BCG, OPV3, Measles, Hep B3

(C) OPV3, BCG, Measles, Hep B3

(D) Measles, BCG, Hep B3, OPV3

Answer: (B)

34. Arrange the following data sources in chronological order of their establishment in India :

(A) Census, Health Statistics of India, NFHS, DLHS 

(B) Census, NFHS, DLHS, Health Statistics of India

(C) Health Statistics of India, NFHS, DLHS, Census

(D) Census, DLHS, NFHS, Health Statistics of India

Answer: (A)

35. Arrange the descending order of the following States according to their sex ratio at birth (2011) :

(A) Kerala, Gujarat, Haryana, M.P. 

(B) Kerala, M.P., Haryana, Gujarat

(C) Kerala, M.P. Gujarat, Haryana

(D) Haryana, M.P., Kerala, Gujarat

Answer: (C)

36. Identify the correct sequence of iron content of some Indian foodstuffs in descending order :

(A) Colocasia leaves, Rice flakes, Garden cress seeds, Mint leaves

(B) Garden cress seeds, Mint leaves, Rice flakes, Colocasia leaves

(C) Garden cress seeds, Rice flakes, Mint leaves, Colocasia leaves 

(D) Mint leaves, Colocasia leaves, Rice flakes, Garden cress seeds

Answer: (B)

37. Identify correct sequence of invisible fat content of some foods in ascending order :

(A) Ragi, Fenugreek seeds, Soya bean, Almonds

(B) Fenugreek seeds, Soya bean, Almonds, Ragi

(C) Soya bean, Ragi, Almonds, Fenugreek seeds

(D) Almonds, Soya bean, Fenugreek seeds, Ragi

Answer: (A)

38. Identify correct sequence of proportion of phenotypes of ABO blood groups in descending order.

(A) O, A, B, AB

(B) A, O, B, AB

(C) O, B, A, AB

(D) AB, A, B, O

Answer: (C)

39. Identify the correct ascending order of the protein content per 100 gm of  the following foodstuffs :

(A) Soya bean, Bengal gram, Egg, Rice

(B) Rice, Egg, Bengal gram, Soya bean

(C) Bengal gram, Egg, Soya bean, Rice

(D) Egg, Soya bean, Rice, Bengal gram

Answer: (B)

40. Identify the correct descending order of the incubation period of the following diseases/conditions.

(A) Salmonella food poisoning, Diphtheria, Chicken pox, Hepatitis B

(B) Diphtheria, Chicken pox, Salmonella food poisoning, Hepatitis B

(C) Hepatitis B, Diphtheria, Chicken pox, Salmonella food poisoning

(D) Hepatitis B, Chicken pox, Diphtheria, Salmonella food poisoning

Answer: (D)

Question 41 to 50 are matching items. This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in List – I with an item in the List – II :

Answer: (C)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (B)

UGC NET Exam June-2013 Visual Arts Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

VISUAL ARTS

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Theodore Gericault was a famous European painter. He represented to which art movement ?

(A) Mannerism

(B) Neo-classicism

(C) Romanticism

(D) Realism

Answer: (C)

2. Name the artist who is considered as the leading signature in Earth Art. 

(A) Rockne Krebs

(B) Richard Lippold

(C) Robert Smithson

(D) Donald Judd

Answer: (C)

3. Who is known as the father of Indian Archaeology ? 

(A) Sir John Marshall

(B) Sir Mortimer Wheeler

(C) Sir Alexander Cunningham

(D) Sir Marc Aurel Stein

Answer: (C)

4. Regarding the Kandariya Mahadeo Temple at Khajuraho, which characteristics does not fit in from the following options ?

(A) Double Latin Cross 

(B) High Podium

(C) Sandhara Prakara

(D) Latina type Shikhara

Answer: (D)

5. Who painted “King, Vulture and Griffin” ?

(A) Mansur

(B) Basawan

(C) Bihzad

(D) Mir Sayyad Ali

Answer: (A)

6. When did Picasso paint “Man with Violin” ?

(A) 1912

(B) 1916

(C) 1918

(D) 1930

Answer: (A)

7. After whom is the process “Tonking” named in oil-painting ?

(A) Sir Jean Tonk

(B) Jean Dubuffet

(C) Sir Henry Tonk

(D) Pablo Picasso

Answer: (C)

8. In which cave at Ajanta is the “Sibi Jataka” painted ?

(A) Cave No. 24

(B) Cave No. 18

(C) Cave No. 1

(D) Cave No. 21

Answer: (*)

9. Why is grease added to the ground in printmaking ?

(A) It is a lubricant.

(B) It produces soft-ground.

(C) It produces a transparent base.

(D) It is a component of tusche.

Answer: (D)

10. Where was printing technique first evolved ?

(A) India

(B) Japan

(C) China

(D) Germany

Answer: (C)

11. How is traditional Japanese woodcut printing executed ?

(A) Using photographic equipment

(B) By hand

(C) Through Computer

(D) By hand-press machine

Answer: (B)

12. Who has popularized color viscosity printing among the following ?

(A) Carol Summers

(B) Paul Lingran

(C) Stanley Hayter

(D) William Blake

Answer: (C)

13. Ramkinkar Baij did sculptures mostly in which medium ?

(A) Clay

(B) Marble

(C) Cement Concrete

(D) Granite

Answer: (C)

14. The term Ceramics implies the importance of which of the following ?

(A) Clay body

(B) Surface treatment

(C) Glaze

(D) Composition

Answer: (*)

15. What is patina ?

(A) Paint coating

(B) Chemical reaction

(C) Scrubbing of surface

(D) Washing of surface

Answer: (B)

16. Abdul Gaffer Khan’s portrait was made by

(A) Sarbari Roy Chowdhury

(B) Pradosh Das Gupta

(C) Dhanraj Bhagat

(D) Sankho Chaudhary 

Answer: (D)

17. “Moulin Rouge” is one of the famous posters of

(A) Toulouse Lautrec

(B) Jules Cheret

(C) Salvador Dali

(D) Pablo Picasso

Answer: (A)

18. The font “Helvetica” was developed in 1957 by Swiss designers

(A) Max Miedinger with Edward Hoffman

(B) Paul Rand with Saul Bass

(C) Piyush Pandey with Prasoon Joshi

(D) Piet Mondrian with Peter Max

Answer: (A)

19. Which poster-artist is associated with “Art Nouveau” ?

(A) Alphonse Mucha

(B) Ian Lenica

(C) Pierre Bonnard

(D) Peter Max

Answer: (A)

20. “Times Roman” is a widely used typeface which falls in the category of

(A) Uncial

(B) Serif

(C) Sans-serif

(D) Script

Answer: (B)

21. Choose the correct chronological sequence of the following rock-cut architectures :

(A) Ajanta Cave XIV, Karle, Bhaja chaitya, Lomas Rishi cave

(B) Lomas Rishi cave, Bhaja chaitya, Karle, Ajanta Cave XIV

(C) Karle, Ajanta Cave XIV, Bhaja chaitya, Lomas Rishi cave

(D) Lomas Rishi cave, Karle, Ajanta Cave XIV, Bhaja chaitya

Answer: (B)

22. Choose the correct chronological sequence of the buildings :

(A) Dome of Rock, Hagia Sophia, Chartres Cathedral, St. Peter’s in Vatican

(B) Chartres Cathedral, Hagia Sophia, St. Peter’s in Vatican, Dome of Rock 

(C) Hagia Sophia, St. Peter’s in Vatican, Chartres Cathedral, Dome of Rock

(D) St. Peter’s in Vatican, Hagia Sophia, Dome of Rock, Chartres Cathedral

Answer: (A)

23. Select the correct chronological sequence of the paintings :

(A) Impression Sunrise, Glass of Absinthe, Starry Night, Man with violin

(B) Starry Night, Man with violin, Impression Sunrise, Glass of Absinthe

(C) Man with violin, Impression Sunrise, Glass of Absinthe, Starry Night

(D) Glass of Absinthe, Starry Night, Impression Sunrise, Man with violin

Answer: (A)

24. Select the correct sequence in printmaking procedure :

(A) nitric acid, acid proof ground, resin dust, printing 

(B) nitric acid, resin dust, printing, acid proof ground

(C) resin dust, acid proof ground, nitric acid, printing

(D) resin dust, printing, nitric acid, acid proof ground

Answer: (C)

25. Select the correct chronological sequence for the following printmakers :

(A) Palaniappan, Y.K. Shukla, Anant Nikam, Laxma Goud 

(B) Y.K. Shukla, Laxma Goud, Palaniappan, Anant Nikam

(C) Laxma Goud, Anant Nikam, Y.K. Shukla, Palaniappan

(D) Palaniappan, Laxma Goud, Anant Nikam, Y.K. Shukla

Answer: (B)

26. Select the correct chronological sequence for the following artists :

(A) Paul Cezanne, Rembrandt Van Rijn, Jacques-Louis David, Giotto di Bondone

(B) Rembrandt Van Rijn, Giotto di Bondone, Jacques-Louis David, Paul Cezanne

(C) Giotto di Bondone, Rembrandt Van Rijn, Jacques-Louis David, Paul Cezanne

(D) Jacques-Louis David, Paul Cezanne, Giotto di Bondone, Rembrandt van Rijn

Answer: (C)

27. Select the correct sequence of the ad agencies in terms of inception :

(A) J.W. Thompson, Ogilvy & Mather, McCann Erickson, FCB Ulka

(B) J.W. Thompson, McCann Erickson, Ogilvy & Mather, FCB Ulka

(C) FCB Ulka, J.W. Thompson, Ogilvy & Mather, McCann Erickson

(D) Ogilvy & Mather, McCann Erickson, J.W. Thompson, FCB Ulka

Answer: (B)

28. Select the correct chronological sequence with respect to seniority of these advertising stalwarts :

(A) Leo Burnett, Rosser Reeves, David Ogilvy, William Bernbach

(B) William Bernbach, Leo Burnett, Rosser Reeves, David Ogilvy

(C) Rosser Reeves, William Bernbach, David Ogilvy, Leo Burnett

(D) William Bernbach, Rosser Reeves, Leo Burnett, David Ogilvy

Answer: (A)

29. Place in chronological order the following sculptors who were famed for wood carving :

(A) Sankho Chaudhury, Mahendra Pandya, Dhanraj Bhagat, Chintamani Kar

(B) Dhanraj Bhagat, Chintamani Kar, Sankho Chaudhury, Mahendra Pandya

(C) Chintamani Kar, Sankho Chaudhury, Mahendra Pandya, Dhanraj Bhagat

(D) Chintamani Kar, Dhanraj Bhagat, Sankho Chaudhury, Mahendra Pandya

Answer: (B)

30. Place in sequence the procedure for metal casting.

(A) Waste mould, piece mould, waxing, investment mould 

(B) Waxing, investment mould, waste mould, piece mould

(C) Waste mould, waxing, investment mould, piece mould

(D) Investment mould, waste mould, waxing, piece mould

Answer: (A)

31. Assertion (A) : Silk Screen printing process is adopted in many other fields.

Reason (R) : Because it is a versatile medium.

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct. 

(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (C)

32. Assertion (A) : Wood engraving and woodcut have been printmaking media used extensively for expression and publicity.

Reason (R) : Because wood is an easily available medium and easy to engrave.

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Answer: (D)

33. Assertion (A) : While composing a sculpture, maximum flexibility and freedom can be exercised in the medium of bronze
casting as compared to other media.

Reason (R) : Bronze sculptures, once cast cannot break therefore any types of shapes can be explored.

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(C) But (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) But (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (A)

34. Assertion (A) : Balbir Singh Katt did the tallest sculptures in marble and sandstone.

Reason (R) : Balbir Singh Katt liked working in hard material.

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (A)

35. Assertion (A) : Company painting is a synthesis of European and Indian pictorial characteristics.

Reason (R) : Company painting was the result of Indian painters painting for European patrons.

Codes : 

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) are (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) are (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (C)

36. Assertion (A) : Benode Behari Mukherjee was blind when he did the 1972 tile-mural in Shantiniketan.

Reason (R) : Because he was completely blind from birth. 

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (A)

37. Assertion (A) : In Tughlaq architecture walls were made of rubble stones plastered but bartered.

Reason (R) : Because bartered wall being made of rubble and mortar gives more stability and strength to defence.

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (C)

38. Assertion (A) : Sgraffito is a technique much popularized by the French artist Jean Dubuffet.

Reason (R) : Jean Dubuffet invented this technique because it was easy for reproduction of copies of paintings.

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (A)

39. Assertion (A) : It becomes necessary for the companies to simplify their “Logos”, with the advent of internet and fax
machines.

Reason (R) : Because memorability and recognition is accountable to the simplicity of the logo.

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (C)

40. Assertion (A) : Colour offers an instantaneous method for conveying meaning and message without words.

Reason (R) : Because colour and psychology for branding are unlinked.

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. 

(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. 

Answer: (A)

41. Match the following :

Answer: (B)

42. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

43. Match the following :

Answer: (C)

44. Match the following :

Answer: (B)

45. Match the following :

Answer: (B)

46. Match the following :

Answer: (C)

47. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

48. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

49. Match the following :

Answer: (C)

50. Match the following ad philosophers with their famous headlines

Answer: (B)

UGC NET Exam June-2013 Women’s Studies Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

WOMEN STUDIES

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which of the following variables is the most critical for those who focus on gender oppression theory ?

(A) Power

(B) Money

(C) Mothering

(D) Culture

Answer: (A)

2. ‘Anyone who knows anything of history, knows that great social changes are impossible without feminine ferment. Social position of women can be measured exactly, by the social position of fair sex”. Who among the following made the statement ?

(A) Shulamith Firestone

(B) Mary Daly

(C) Karl Marx

(D) Betty Freidan

Answer: (C)

3. Match the List – I with List – II as given below :

Answer: (A)

4. Who describes the development of Feminist theory as having three phases ?

i. ‘Feminist Critique’

ii. ‘Gynocriticism’

iii. ‘Gender Theory’

(A) Neera Desai

(B) Juliet Mitchell

(C) Simone de Beauvoir

(D) Elaine Showalter

Answer: (D)

5. Which of the following statement is incorrect about hypothesis ? 

(A) It is essential for every research design.

(B) It is a statement which is yet to be tested.

(C) It is derived from the existing theories of the concerned issue.

(D) It can be null also.

Answer: (A)

6. When the researcher wants to know the impact of some variable on the target population, which research design can be appropriately applicable ?

(A) Exploratory

(B) Experimental 

(C) Diagnostic

(D) Descriptive

Answer: (B)

7. Find out the correct sequence concerning various steps to conduct research effectively :

i. Developing hypothesis

ii. Data analysis

iii. Preparation of report

iv. Formulating research problem

Codes :

(A) iii ii i iv

(B) i ii iii iv

(C) ii iv i iii

(D) iv i ii iii

Answer: (D)

8. Gender sensitive curriculum refers to that type of curriculum which 

(A) has separate provision for women students

(B) excludes Mathematics and Physical Science

(C) attempts to challenge the gender stereotypes

(D) includes only women’s issues 

Answer: (C)

9. Which of the pair is not correctly matched ?

(A) Of Women Born – Adrienne Rich

(B) The Dialectic of Sex – Shulamith Firestone

(C) The Origin of the Family, Private property and State – Karl Marx 

(D) Feminist Politics and Human Nature – Alison Jaggar

Answer: (C)

10. Match the List – I with List – II as given below :

Answer: (B)

11. The book ‘Sexual Politics’ is written by

(A) Mary Wollstone Craft

(B) Kate Millet

(C) Catharine MacKinnon

(D) Mary Daly

Answer: (B)

12. Women’s Studies is a discipline that advocates

(A) Women’s superiority over men

(B) Preservation of cultural identity

(C) Suppression of the male voice

(D) An egalitarian human society

Answer: (D)

13. Match the following from List – I and List – II :

Answer: (C)

14. Which one of the following is pioneer in developing gender sensitive budget initiative ?

(A) Asia

(B) Australia

(C) Europe

(D) Africa

Answer: (B)

15. Arrange the following Commissions in chronological sequence : 

i. The National Committee on Women’s Education

ii. D.S. Kothari Commission 

iii. Yashpal Committee Report 

iv. National Knowledge Commission

Codes :

(A) ii iii iv i

(B) i ii iii iv

(C) iii ii i iv

(D) iv iii i ii

Answer: (B)

16. Main workers are those workers who work for the major of the reference period which is

(A) Eight months or more

(B) Four months or more

(C) Six months or more

(D) Nine months or more

Answer: (C)

17. ‘Women’s Component Plan’ was initiated in which Five Year Plan ?

(A) 6th Five Year Plan

(B) 7th Five Year Plan

(C) 5th Five Year Plan

(D) 9th Five Year Plan

Answer: (D)

18. Assertion (A) : Political Parties in India speak much about equality of women but have somehow ignored the dalit women.

Reason (R) : The 73rd Amendment provide space to Dalit women to sit in Panchayats. But it is seen as a threat to social hierarchy.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(C) (A) is false and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is true and (R) is false.

Answer: (*)

19. Who among the following has been founder members of Women’s World Banking ?

(A) Ella Bhatt

(B) Promilla Kapur

(C) Devaki Jain

(D) Maithreyi Krishnaraj

Answer: (A)

20. Mark the incorrect answer of ‘Sexual Harassment’ as defined in Visakha Judgement ?

(A) Unwelcome sexually determined behaviour

(B) Showing pornography

(C) Extending invitation

(D) Sexually offensive physical contact or advances

Answer: (C)

21. Which is the correct chronological sequence of enactments of the following Acts ?

i. Muslim Women (Protection of Right on Divorce) Act

ii. Family Courts Act 

iii. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act

iv. Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act

Mark the correct sequence from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) ii iv iii i

(B) iii i iv ii

(C) i ii iii iv

(D) iv ii i iii

Answer: (D)

22. In the organized sector, there are certain laws which enjoin the employer to make provision for creches if a certain number of women are employed in their establishments :

i. Factories Act

ii. Plantation Labour Act

iii. Contract Labour Act

iv. Inter-state Migrant Workers Act

Codes :

(A) i only

(B) iv only

(C) i, ii, iii & iv

(D) i, ii & iv

Answer: (C)

23. Sahitya Academy Award winner among the following women is

(A) Shobha De

(B) Amrita Patel

(C) Amrita Pritam

(D) Kishwar Desai

Answer: (C)

24. India ranks in Human Development Index (2013) at

(A) 132

(B) 136

(C) 131

(D) 128 

Answer: (B)

25. Match the goals (List – I) with Five Year Plans (List – II) of India :

Answer: (B)

26. Match the List – I with List – II.

Answer: (C)

27. Executive Director of UN Women is

(A) Michelle Bachelet

(B) Hillary Clinton

(C) Phumzile Mlambo-Ngcuka

(D) Lakshmi Puri

Answer: (C)

28. The only woman member of the Planning Commission of India is

(A) Jayanti Ghosh

(B) Aruna Roy

(C) Syeda Hameed

(D) Zoya Hassan

Answer: (C)

29. First Indian Woman President of the Indian National Congress :

(A) Sucheta Kriplani

(B) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

(C) Sarojini Naidu

(D) Annie Besant

Answer: (C)

30. Assertion (A) : Micro credit is the panacea for poverty reduction and women’s empowerment.

Reason (R) : The poverty reduction and women’s empowerment will be a distant goal unless ‘physical capital’ and ‘financial capital’ is strengthened.

Codes :

(A) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

(C) Both (A) are (R) are false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

31. Assertion (A) : Political parties in India speak much about equality  of women but have somehow ignored the Dalit women.

Reason (R) : The 73rd Amendment provides space to Dalit women to sit in Panchayats, but it is seen as a threat to social hierarchy.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false (R) is true.

Answer: (D)

32. Assertion (A) : Unwed mothers and their children are given shelter in Swadhar Ghar with Government support.

Reason (R) : Bearing children beyond marriage is not natural.

 Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation for (A).

(B) (A) is correct, (R) is false and (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).

(C) (A) is false and (R) is correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (B)

33. Assertion (A) : SHG women are taking up micro enterprises. 

Reason (R) : Banks and Cooperative societies and other Financial Institutions are supporting SHG women to start micro enterprises. 

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).

(C) Both (A) and (R) are false. 

(D) (A) is true, (R) is false.

Answer: (A)

34. Which country declares National Holiday on ‘Women’s Day’ ?

(A) America

(B) Russia

(C) China

(D) India

Answer: (B)

35. The First Chairperson of the National Commission for Women was 

(A) Girija Vyas

(B) Mohini Giri

(C) Poornima Advani

(D) Jayanti Patnaik

Answer: (D)

36. Non-formal Education was evolved in India through a resolution of

(A) National Council for Educational Research and Training

(B) National Council of Women’s Education

(C) Central Advisory Board of Education

(D) National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration

Answer: (C)

37. Mark the correct expansion of DAWN :

(A) Development Association with Women in a New era 

(B) Development Alternatives with Women for a New era 

(C) Development Crises and Alternatives for Women in a New era

(D) Development Associated Movement for Women in a New era 

Answer: (B)

38. The Department of Science and Technology (DST) has facilitated married women to be at her husband’s place and continue their research work. Write the name of that scheme.

(A) ASHA

(B) YOJANA

(C) DISHA

(D) RAKSHA

Answer: (C)

39. Match List – I with List – II :

Answer: (D)

40. Female rural literacy rate in India is

(A) 56.4%

(B) 48.6%

(C) 46.1%

(D) 52.2%

Answer: (C)

41. Assertion (A) : ‘Honour Killings’ are increasing in our society. 

Reason (R) : Religious, discriminatory beliefs, and Khap Panchayats decisions lead to more honour killings.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

(C) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(D) (A) is true and (R) is false.

Answer: (B)

42. Which one of the ILO conventions is not ratified by India ?

(A) Equality of Treatment (Social Security) Convention, 1962

(B) Night Work (Women) Convention (Revised), 1948 

(C) Maternity Protection Convention, 2000 

(D) Underground Work (Women) Convention, 1935

Answer: (C)

43. Match the following from List – I and List – II :

Answer: (C)

44. Match List – I with List – II :

Answer: (D)

45. WFS stands for

(A) Women Foreign Services

(B) Women Feature Service

(C) Women Financial Services

(D) Women Family Services

Answer: (B)

46. Match List – I with List – II :

Answer: (C)

47. Which of the following statements regarding the functions of the Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of women are correct ?

i. To consider reports submitted by the National Commission for Women and State Commissions for women.

ii. To report on the working of the welfare programmes for the women.

iii. To examine measures taken by the Union Government and State Governments for Women’s equality. 

iv. To examine measures taken by the Union Government for comprehensive education and adequate representation of
women in legislative bodies. 

Codes :

(A) ii and iv

(B) I and iii

(C) iv only

(D) iii only

Answer: (A)

48. Who recommended co-education as the general pattern at the elementary stage of education ?

(A) The Bhakthavatsalam Committee

(B) The Kothari Commission

(C) The Hansa Mehta Committee

(D) The Radhakrishnan Commission

Answer: (B)

49. Child sex-ratio is lower in developed States in comparison to economically backward ones of the country is not
because of 

(A) High son preference 

(B) Male child really inherits property

(C) Easy availability of scientific method

(D) Women are more rational

Answer: (D)

50. What is responsible for the current discriminatory pattern of gender relations in society ?

(A) Female Foeticide

(B) Neglect of the female child

(C) Dowry Deaths

(D) Patriarchy

Answer: (D)

UGC NET Exam June-2013 Comparative Literature Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

COMPARATIVE LITERATURE

Paper-II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Andre Lefevere is the author of 

(A) Translation, Rewriting and the Manipulation of Literary Fame 

(B) The Translator’s Invisibility 

(C) Of Grammatology

(D) Toward a Science of Translating 

Answer: (A)

2. Comparison n’est pas raison : La crise de la littērature comparée is authored by

(A) Rene Etiemble

(B) Ferdinand Brunetiere

(C) Jean Frappiere

(D) Jean Jacques Rousseau

Answer: (A)

3. Which among the following is not a Gothic novel ?

(A) The Sorrows of Young Weather

(B) The Castle of Otranto

(C) Ferdinand Count Fathom

(D) Rinaldo Rinaldini

Answer: (A)

4. Death of a Discipline which addresses the need to usher in changes within the discipline of Comparative Literature, is written by

(A) Gayatri Chakravorty Spivak

(B) Harry Levin

(C) Charles Bernheimer

(D) T.S. Eliot

Answer: (A)

5. Writing literary history by moving away from the author to the way the work is received at different moments is the method developed by

(A) Rene Wellek

(B) Viktor Shklovsky

(C) Hayden White

(D) Haus Robert Jauss

Answer: (D)

6. Which God named below is not a God of War ?

(A) Hermes

(B) Mars

(C) Ares

(D) Reshep

Answer: (A)

7. In describing Indian lterary history, who is critical of the use of period ? 

(A) Sisir Kumar Das in A History of Indian Literature 

(B) Suniti Kumar Chatterjee in Languages and Literatures of Modern India

(C) Ganesh Devy in Of Many Heroes : An Indian Essay in Literary Historiography 

(D) Douwe Fokkema in Literary History, Modernism and Post-Modernism

Answer: (C)

8. Rita Kothari’s Translating India is sub-titled

(A) The Politics of Translating from Gujarati into English

(B) Language, Culture, Industry

(C) The Linguistic Politics of India

(D) The Cultural Politics of English 

Answer: (D)

9. ‘Hamartia’ means

(A) purging of excess emotions

(B) a lack of confidence on the part of the hero

(C) the poetic ability of the protagonist

(D) a tragic flaw or error in the protagonist

Answer: (D)

10. The following Malayalam film is an adaptation of Shakespeare’s Othello.

(A) Kāryam Nissāram

(B) Kaliveedu

(C) Kaliyāttam

(D) Kāthodu Kāthoram

Answer: (C)

11. Strophe, anti-strophe and epode are parts of

(A) a sonnet

(B) a one-act play

(C) an ode

(D) a ballad 

Answer: (C)

12. The first German adaptation of the legend of ‘The Chalk Circle’ was done by

(A) Goethe

(B) Brecht

(C) Klabund

(D) Mann

Answer: (C)

13. The Agony and the Ecstasy is a biography of

(A) Vincent Van Gogh

(B) Pablo Picasso

(C) Michelangelo

(D) Leonardo da Vinci

Answer: (C)

14. ‘Epinicia’ means

(A) Song of lamentation

(B) Wedding song

(C) Song of victory

(D) Divine hymns

Answer: (C)

15. Identify the person who wrote – “Just as this earth is not the sum of patches of land belonging to different people
and to know the earth as such is sheer rusticity, so literature is not the mere total of works composed by different hands. Most of us, however, think of literature in what I have called the manner of the rustic.”

(A) U.R. Ananthamurthy

(B) Premchand

(C) Rabindranath Tagore

(D) Thakazhi Shivshankara Pillai

Answer: (C)

16. The Reluctant Fundamentalist is written by

(A) Kamila Shamsie

(B) Bapsie Sidhwa

(C) Mohsin Hamid

(D) Zulfikar Ghose

Answer: (C)

17. A Change of Skies is 

(A) a novel

(B) an epic poem

(C) a tragi-comedy

(D) a silent film

Answer: (A)

18. In Indian poetics, the ‘Padya’ was divided as

(A) Sargabandha and Muktaka

(B) Prabandha and Muktaka

(C) Sargabandha and Prabandha

(D) Muktaka and Parva

Answer: (A)

19. Name the author of Jaisa ka Taisa, an adaptation of Moliere’s L’amowe medecin.

(A) Girish Karnad

(B) Bhartendu Harishchandra

(C) Girishchandra Ghosh

(D) K.P. Khadilkar

Answer: (C)

20. René is a

(A) play written by Moliere

(B) a novella written by Chetanbrind 

(C) a play written by Chetanbrind 

(D) tragedy by Racine

Answer: (B)

21. Thomas Mann in The Transposed Heads borrows his theme from 

(A) Kathasaritsagara

(B) Hayavadana

(C) Nagamandala

(D) Aesop’s Fables

Answer: (A)

22. Nouvean roman means

(A) new romance

(B) new Romanticism

(C) non-romance

(D) new novel

Answer: (D)

23. The traditional ‘box in box tale’ model was attempted in modern fiction as an alternative to the western novel by

(A) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

(B) Phaniswarnath Renu

(C) Qurratulain Hyder

(D) Trilokinath Mukhopadhyay

Answer: (D)

24. The Tale of Genji is 

I. a Chinese story

II. written by Yukio Mishima

III. a Japanese novel

IV. written by Murasaki Shikibu

The correct combination according to the code is

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) II and III are correct.

(C) III and IV are correct.

(D) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (C)

25. Gilgamesh is

(A) a Roman epic

(B) a Sumerian epic

(C) a German romance

(D) a Spanish romance

Answer: (B)

26. Apuleius’ The Golden Ass includes the following stories :

(A) Pelops and Hippodemia + Cupid and Psyche

(B) Cupid and Psyche + Thyestes and Atreus

(C) Aristomenes + Cupid and Psyche

(D) Aristomenes + Pelops and Hippodemia

Answer: (C)

27. The international body of Comparatists is called 

(A) International Association of Comparative Literature

(B) International Comparative Literature Association

(C) World Literature and Comparative Literature Association

(D) International Association of Comparative Literary Studies 

Answer: (B)

28. “Gorkhey Jeep” is a very famous Indian short story written in Nepali language by

(A) Rabindrakumar Moktan

(B) Shivkumar Rai

(C) Indra Bahadur Rai

(D) Jas Youzon Piyasi

Answer: (A)

29. The Vaishnava love lyrics were composed by

(A) Chandidas and Ramprasad

(B) Ramprasad and Govindadas

(C) Bharatchandra and Vidyapati

(D) Vidyapati and Chandidas

Answer: (D)

30. The concept of estrangement was used differently for literary analysis by

(A) Wellek & Prawer

(B) Iser & Jauss

(C) Brecht & Shklovsky

(D) Freud & Lacan

Answer: (C)

31. He Aranya He Mahanagar is 

(A) a collection of Ahamiya poems by Nabakanta Barua 

(B) a collection of Bangla poems by Rabindranath Tagore

(C) an anthology of ecocritical essays in Bangla by Rabindranath Tagore

(D) a collection of Oriya poems by Nilakantha Das

Answer: (A)

32. “On Linguistic Aspects of Translation” is written by

(A) Friedrich Schleiermacher

(B) Roman Jakobson

(C) John Dryden

(D) Walter Benjamin

Answer: (B)

33. Abhinava Bharati is 

(A) a commentary of Natyashastra

(B) a biography of Abhinava Gupta

(C) a history of Kashmir

(D) an exposition of Mahabharata

Answer: (A)

34. According to “Natyashastra”, women characters will talk in

(A) Sauraseni Prakrit

(B) Sanskrit

(C) Magadhi Prakrit

(D) Prachya

Answer: (A)

35. The Haun Saussy report deals with 

(A) Problems of multiculturalism after the end of the Cold War

(B) Chinese Aesthetics

(C) State of the Discipline of Comparative Literature 

(D) Orientalism

Answer: (C)

36. The writer of the travelogue, Englondey Bangamahila first published in 1885 was

(A) Krishnabhavini Das

(B) Rassundari Dasi

(C) Mirza Muhammad Hadi Ruswa

(D) Kasturba Gandhi

Answer: (A)

37. Identify the dominant ‘rasa’ of drama :

(A) Vira/Hasya

(B) Sringara/Vira

(C) Hasya/Raudra

(D) Sringara/Karuna

Answer: (B)

38. In a drama (Natyavastu) situationwise and meaningwise how many ‘Sandhis’ are there ?

(A) 10

(B) 6

(C) 5

(D) 4

Answer: (C)

39. Jnanesvari is a famous 

(A) Avadhi Commentary of Ramcharitmanas

(B) Hindi translation of Mahabharata

(C) Marathi exposition of Bhagavadgita

(D) Autobiography of Marathi saint poet Jnanesvara

Answer: (C)

40. Colonization provides a backdrop of 

(A) The Magic Mountain 

(B) Siddhartha

(C) Things Fall Apart

(D) The Little Prince

Answer: (C)

41. The first literary adaptation of the German story of Faust was done by

(A) Thomas Mann

(B) J.W. Goethe

(C) Murnau

(D) Christopher Marlowe

Answer: (D)

42. Aeosopica is

(A) a book of songs

(B) a book of legends

(C) a book of limerics

(D) a book of fables

Answer: (D)

43. “A translation has to be true to the translator no less than to the originals … Translation is choice, interpretation, an assertion of taste, a betrayal of what answers to one’s needs, one’s envies.” – Identify the author :

(A) A.K. Ramanujam

(B) Lawrence Venuti

(C) Salman Rushdie

(D) Susan Bassnett

Answer: (A)

44. Jakobson’s achievements include

(A) Communications functions

(B) Deconstruction

(C) Psychoanalytic study of literature

(D) New criticism

Answer: (A)

45. The American pioneer in the development of the theory and practice of Bible translation is

(A) Leonard Bloomfield

(B) Eugene A. Nida

(C) Edwin Gentzur

(D) Mildred L. Larson

Answer: (B)

Read the following passage and answer the questions :

    Traditionally, readers of literature, postulated an instantly responsive reader and strove to read like one. It is possible, however, to replace this postulate with the postulate of an initially unresponsive reader. Although it is strictly a  postulate, it seems to correspond to observed reader behaviour at first meetings with a literary work. It is well known that the first reaction to unfamiliar music is one of puzzlement, apathy, or even dislike and that only continued exposure builds up a ‘taste’ or a capacity for response. This applies, in varying degrees, to music in general and then at lower levels of generalization, to a composer, a composition, a musician or singer, and an individual piece of music or a song. It similarly applies, again, varying degrees to literature, a genre, an author, a literary work and a particular passage.

46. The author is of the view that 

(A) readers of literature are dumb 

(B) readers of literature are believed to naturally respond to texts

(C) readers of literature take their time in responding to what is before them

(D) readers of literature respond without any prejudice

Answer: (B)

47. That readers naturally and instinctively respond to literature is a/an _______

(A) antiquated view

(B) modern view

(C) traditional view

(D) erroneous view

Answer: (C)

48. On what basis does the author advance his postulate of “an initially unresponsive reader” ?

(A) Personal observation

(B) Observed behaviour of readers

(C) Behaviour of observant readers

(D) General statistical information

Answer: (B)

49. What, according to the author, is conducive to better appreciation of art objects ?

(A) Taste

(B) Continued exposure to art objects

(C) Postulates relating to art objects

(D) Patience

Answer: (B)

50. What does the expression “in varying degrees” refer to in this passage ?

(A) Literature, genre, author, etc.

(B) Composer, composition, musician etc.

(C) Capacity for response

(D) Capacity for appreciation

Answer: (C)

UGC NET Exam June-2013 Folk Literature Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

FOLK LITERATURE 

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.

1. Folklore means “of the people, by the people and for the people” is commented by

(A) Stith Thompson

(B) Archer Taylor

(C) Theodor H. Gaster

(D) George M. Foster

Answer: (C)

2. Grimm brothers denoted ‘oral folk narratives” as

(A) Volkskunde

(B) Landeskunde

(C) Kulturkunde

(D) Herrenvolk

Answer: (A)

3. Analytical Psychology deals with 

(A) Castration Complex

(B) Oedipus Complex

(C) Collective Unconscious

(D) Individual Consciousness

Answer: (C)

4. Ethnography is 

(A) the study of social setting of folktale

(B) the study of village architecture

(C) the study of verbal folklore

(D) the study of a community

Answer: (D)

5. According to R.M. Dorson, the literary critic establishes relation with folk tradition through three evidences

(A) Biographical, internal, corroborative 

(B) History, Geography, narrative 

(C) Oral tradition, mythology, biography

(D) Personal narrative, oral history, corroborative

Answer: (A)

6. Oicotype is

(A) Globalization of tale tradition

(B) Localization of tale tradition

(C) Nationalization of tale tradition

(D) Internationalization of tale tradition

Answer: (B)

7. World Heritage Day is celebrated on 

(A) 18 March

(B) 18 May

(C) 18 April

(D) 18 June

Answer: (C)

8. ‘Brihat Katha Sarit Sagar’ is written by

(A) Vishnu Sharma

(B) Subandhu

(C) Gunadhya

(D) Somadev

Answer: (D)

9. ‘Folklore is an echo of the past but at the same time it is also the vigorous voice of the present, stated by

(A) Y. Lotman

(B) Sokolov

(C) Gorky

(D) Lenin

Answer: (B)

10. Alan Dundes is the author of

I. The Morphology of North American Indian Folktales  

II. Savage mind and Myth in primitive psychology

III. Folktales of the Arabs 

IV. The Study of Folklore

Codes :

(A) I and III are correct.

(B) II and IV are correct.

(C) II and III are correct.

(D) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (D)

11. Shamanism is related to

I. Folk music

II. Folk divination

III. Folk healing

V. Folk art

Codes :

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) II and III are correct.

(C) I and IV are correct.

(D) III and IV are correct.

Answer: (B)

12. Find out the correct Folk Genre group :

(A) Song, Narrative, Wisdom

(B) Material culture, Chant, Lyric

(C) Folk medicine, Short story, Folk game

(D) Epic, Riddle, Ethnic Slur

Answer: (D)

13. The characteristics of Folklore are

I. Oracy

II. Multiple existence

III. Context free

IV. Authorial

Codes :

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) II and III are correct.

(C) I and IV are correct.

(D) III and IV are correct.

Answer: (A)

14. Richard Dorson’s classification of Folklore is

I. Oral Folklore

II. Social Folk Custom

III. Material Culture

IV. Performing Folk Arts

Codes :

(A) II and III are correct.

(B) I and IV are correct.

(C) II and IV are correct.

(D) All are correct.

Answer: (D)

15. “Myth is like language. It is a higher level of communication, just as language can be analysed, myth can also be analysed” is the statement of 

(A) Alan Dundes 

(B) Dell Hymes

(C) Levi-Strauss

(D) Marcel Mauss

Answer: (C)

16. Assertion (A) : Millman Parry in order to understand the process of composition and performance in epics, studied the Yugoslavian narrative poetry.

Reason (R) : Only during rendition by the folk singers, the process of composition can be understood.

Codes :

(A) (A) is false and (R) is correct explanation.

(B) (A) is true and (R) is correct explanation.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(D) (A) is true and (R) is false.

Answer: (B)

17. Assertion (A) : Children folk games according to Marxists represent non-hegemonic structure.

Reason (R) : Hegemonic structures reveal hierarchies and children games are not power centric.

Codes :

(A) (A) is false and (R) is not correct explanation.

(B) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation.

Answer: (C)

18. Assertion (A) : According to Jung, the collective unconscious is universal.

Reason (R) : It is shared by all human beings.

Codes :

(A) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(B) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(C) (A) is correct explanation, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is true and (R) is correct explanation.

Answer: (D)

19. Assertion (A) : The shadow constitutes the contents of the psyche which a person does not prefer to show.

Reason (R) : Because, they are the parts of the self that are strong, presentable and socially acceptable.

Codes :

(A) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(B) (A) is true and (R) is not correct explanation.

(C) (A) and (R) are true.

(D) (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (B)

20. Assertion (A) : Meta folklore is folklore about folklore.

Reason (R) : Proverbial tales are meta folklore.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(C) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(D) (A) is true and (R) is false.

Answer: (A)

21. Assertion (A) : Max Muller’s concept of Malady of Language is derived from the Christian worldview.

Reason (R) : According to Christian theology man is created in the image of God.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(B) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(C) (A) is false and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (D)

22. Assertion (A) : ‘Museum of Man’ is meant for the preservation of artefacts.

Reason (R) : Globalisation affects life styles and production of artefacts.

Codes :

(A) Both(A) and (R) are false.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (C)

23. Arrange the sequence of concepts in folklore studies :

(A) Active bearers, Oicotype, Oral formulae, Ritual process 

(B) Ritual process, Active bearers, Oicotype, Oral Formulae

(C) Active bearers, Ritual process, Oral formulae, Oicotype

(D) Oicotype, Ritual process, Active bearers, Oral formulae

Answer: (A)

24. Identify the rivers in the order of geographical origin from north to south 

(A) Ganges, Tamraparani, Krishna, Tapti

(B) Ganges, Tapti, Krishna, Tamraparani

(C) Tapti, Ganges, Krishna, Tamraparani

(D) Krishna, Ganges, Tamraparani, Tapti

Answer: (B)

25. Arrange the ritual dance forms from South to North :

(A) Theyyam, Bhutakola, Rasaleela, Bihu

(B) Bhutakola, Theyyam, Rasaleela, Bihu

(C) Rasaleela, Theyyam, Bihu, Bhutakola

(D) Theyyam, Bhutakola, Bihu, Rasaleela

Answer: (D)

26. Which one is the correct sequence ? 

(A) Film, print, computer, television

(B) Television, film, print, computer

(C) Print, film, television, computer

(D) Television, computer, print, film

Answer: (C)

27. Which one is the correct group of theories of folklore ?

(A) Philological, Contextual, Mass cultural

(B) Folk-cultural, Oral-formulaic, Popular cultural

(C) Cross-cultural, Structural, Existential

(D) Functional, Psychoanalytical, Contextual

Answer: (D)

28. Sequence the pilgrim places from South to North :

(A) Rishikesh, Varanasi, Ujjain, Srisailam

(B) Varanasi, Rishikesh, Ujjain, Srisailam

(C) Srisailam, Ujjain, Varanasi, Rishikesh

(D) Rishikesh, Ujjain, Varanasi, Srisailam

Answer: (C)

29. Point out the chronological order of the books of Alan Dundes :

I. Folklore Matters

II. Interpreting Folklore

III. Life is Like a Chicken Coop

Ladder : A Portrait of German Culture Through Folklore IV. The Morphology of North American Indian Folktales

Codes :

(A) IV, II, III, I

(B) I, III, II, IV

(C) IV, I, II, III

(D) II, I, III, IV

Answer: (A)

30. Identify the concepts propounded by Derrida, Foucault, Ricour and Barthes in the order of sequence :

I. Difference

II. Death of the Author

III. Meta-Archaeology

IV. Narrative Identity

Codes :

(A) I, III, IV, II

(B) I, III, II, IV

(C) IV, III, II, I

(D) IV, II, III, I

Answer: (A)

31. Match the following List – I with List – II :

Answer: (C)

32. Match the following List – I with List – II :

Answer: (D)

33. Match the following List – I with List – II :

Answer: (B)

34. Match the following List – I with List – II :

Answer: (A)

35. Match the following List – I with List – II :

Answer: (C)

36. Match the following List – I with List – II :

Answer: (B)

37. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

(A) Dynamics of Folklore : Alan Dundes

(B) Folklore and Folklife : Richard Bauman

(C) Verbal Art as Performance : Ben-Amos

(D) Foundations in Sociolinguistics : Dell Hymes

Answer: (D)

38. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(A) Etymological Study : Word Origin

(B) Paremiological Study : Proverb

(C) Etiological Study : Origination

(D) Ethnological Study : Language

Answer: (D)

39. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

(A) Harmonium : Percussion instrument

(B) Shahanai : Wind instrument

(C) Bansuri : Metal instrument

(D) Chanda : String instrument

Answer: (B)

40. The book “Singer of Tales” deals with 

I. Oral narrative tradition

II. Composition of oral epics by bards

III. Memorization skills of bards

IV. Transmission of oral traditions 

Codes :

(A) I and IV are correct.

(B) I and III are correct.

(C) II and III are correct.

(D) II and IV are correct.

Answer: (C)

41. According to Neil R. Grobman there are three sources of Folklore in Literature :

(A) Indigenous, acquired, borrowed

(B) Verbal, lexical, oral

(C) Traditional, modern, innovative

(D) Myth, legend, proverb

Answer: (A)

42. According to Malinowski-myths are not viewed by the primitives as mere stories but as revealing

(A) the primitive basis of life

(B) the folk basis of life

(C) the secular basis of life

(D) the sacred basis of life

Answer: (D)

43. The context of folklore means

(A) the area where folklore event occurs 

(B) the situation in which folklore event occurs

(C) the culture in which folklore event occurs

(D) the people among whom folklore event occurs

Answer: (B)

44. Ritual is a

(A) social practice both structured and structuring

(B) typical tradition of the whole nation

(C) belief acted out in a symbolic action

(D) historical practice and history producing

Answer: (C)

45. Oral literature is

(A) spoken, sung and voiced forms of traditional utterance

(B) written, sung and non-voiced form of utterance

(C) telecasted through mass media to create tradition

(D) orally performed in public sphere

Answer: (A)

46. Assertion (A) : Frany Boas had claimed that tribal narratives mirrored the ethnography of the culture.

Reason (R) : His student Ruth Benedict countered with illustrations to show that the folklore often violated the cultural norms as a means of gratifying fantasies and expressing the hostilities of the culture bound.

Codes :

(A) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(C) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct explanation.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct. 

Answer: (D)

Read the passage below and answer the questions (47 – 50) :

     Verbal art is composed and transmitted verbally, while literature is composed in writing and transmitted in writing. Yet it is obvious that these two traditions have not followed independent courses, but have intermingled and influenced one another. One result has been tales, proverbs, or other forms of verbal art which have been reworked and adapted to literary standards of style and propriety, and are thereafter transmitted by writing or printing. This would include not only the utilization of the materials of folklore but also the use of folktales from other lands for children in our own society. For the lack of a better term, these may be referred to as literary adaptations.

      There are instances where materials  from written or printed resources have been incorporated into the verbal tradition, and in the course of time have been reworked and modified in accordance with its standards. These we may call folkloriazation.

47. Which is the correct idea ?

(A) Verbal art and literature are independent and have their own influences drawn from within.

(B) Verbal art and literature are interdependent and hardly intermingled.

(C) Verbal art and literature have intermingled and not followed independent course.

(D) Verbal art and literature have taken independent course but have intermingled.

Answer: (C)

48. Influence of verbal art on literature and vice-versa can be seen in 

(A) Proverbs

(B) Folktales

(C) Riddles

(D) All the above

Answer: (D)

49. What is folkloriazation ?

(A) Reworked and modified performative forms incorporated into verbal tradition.

(B) Reworked and modified printed sources incorporated into verbal tradition.

(C) Reworked and modified print material entering into written tradition.

(D) Reworked and modified verbal tradition incorporated into printed tradition.

Answer: (B)

50. Literary adaptations are

(A) Utilization of folklore material through writing and printing

 (B) Utilization of folklore material through verbal transmission 

(C) Utilization of literary material through print transmission 

(D) Utilization of verbal material through oral transmission

Answer: (A)