UGC NET Exam December 2013 Library and Information Science Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

LIBRARY & INFORMATION SCIENCE

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Name the scientist who said that Information Science is cluster of many disciplines where in the central core is ‘Information’.

(A) B.C. Brooks

(B) Fritz Machlup

(C) Daniel Bell

(D) N.J. Belkin

Answer: (B)

2. Which committee recommended that imperial library be designated as copyright library ?

(A) Fayzee Committee, 1939

(B) Richey Committee, 1926

(C) Statham Committee, 1932

(D) Sadler Committee, 1916

Answer: (B)

3. Who was the first Librarian of Imperial Library, Calcutta ?

(A) John MacFarlane

(B) Harinath De

(C) B.S. Kesavan

(D) S.R. Ranganathan

Answer: (A)

4. Who coined the phrase ‘Information Retrieval’ ?

(A) Calvin Mooers

(B) S.R. Ranganathan

(C) J.D. Brown

(D) H.P. Luhan

Answer: (A)

5. In colon classification which indicator has been used for indicating interpolation ?

(A) Comma

(B) Hyphen

(C) Astericks

(D) Ampersand

Answer: (C)

6. What is Denudation ?

(A) Is dividing classes to decrease the extension.

(B) Is dividing classes to increase the extension.

(C) Is dividing classes to increase intension and decrease extension.

(D) Is dividing classes to decrease intension.

Answer: (C)

7. The International Body that coordinates the assignment of unique domain names, protocol address is

(A) IGF

(B) IANA

(C) ICANN

(D) ISP

Answer: (D)

8. Name the Indian Librarian who was honoured with the title of “Khan Bahadur” in 1935 by the British Government.

(A) S.R. Ranganathan 

(B) B.S. Kesavan

(C) K.M. Asadullah

(D) D.R. Kalia

Answer: (C)

9. Which approach of information is not given by Wersig and Neveling ?

(A) Structural Approach

(B) Knowledge Approach

(C) Meaning Approach

(D) Technique Approach

Answer: (D)

10. Which of the following citation style manuals are from the same publisher ?

(i) A.P.A.

(ii) Turabian

(iii) Chicago

(iv) M.L.A.

Codes :

(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.

(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Answer: (B)

11. Pre co-ordinate Indexing system perceives :

(i) Syntax

(ii) Semantic

(iii) Context

(iv) Relation

Codes :

(A) (i) and (iv) are correct

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Answer: (C)

12. An indispensable function of Thesaurus is to

(i) Knowledge Classification

(ii) Grouping the words together according to similarity of meaning

(iii) Representation of Relationship between concepts

(iv) Knowledge Engineering

Codes :

(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.

(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(D) (i) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (B)

13. Which of the following are the basic components of expert system ?

(i) User interface

(ii) Knowledge base

(iii) Inference Mechanism

(iv) Schema

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (iii), (iv) and (i)

(D) (iv), (iii) and (ii)

Answer: (A)

14. Which of the following are the types factors studies under ANOVA ?

(i) Fixed

(ii) Frequency

(iii) Calculated

(iv) Random

Codes :

(A) (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(B) (i) and (iv) are correct.

(C) (i) and (iii) are correct.

(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (B)

15. Which of the following are the models of communication ?

(i) Economic Theory Model

(ii) Stock Adjustment Model

(iii) Shanon Weaver Model

(iv) Schramm Model

Codes :

(A) (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(C) (i) and (ii) are correct.

(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (A)

16. Which of the following are criteria for Web evaluation ?

(i) Revision

(ii) Response time

(iii) Format

(iv) Archiving facility

Codes :

(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.

(B) (ii) and (iv) are correct.

(C) (i) and (iii) are correct.

(D) (ii) and (iii) are correct.

Answer: (B)

17. Which of the following countries do not have a code of Ethics for library profession ?

(i) America

(ii) Sri Lanka

(iii) India

(iv) China

Codes :

(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.

(B) (i) and (iv) are correct.

(C) (iii) and (ii) are correct.

(D) (iii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (D)

18. Which of the following are the components of Search Engine ?

(i) Spider

(ii) TCP/IP

(iii) Search Mechanism

(iv) Index

Codes :

(A) (iv), (i) and (ii)

(B) (iii), (ii) and (i)

(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (ii), (iv) and (iii)

Answer: (C)

19. When the permission of copyright owner is not needed ?

(i) Criticism or review

(ii) Translation

(iii) Research purpose

(iv) Photocopy for sale

Codes :

(A) (i) and (iii) are correct.

(B) (i) and (iv) are correct.

(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(D) (ii) and (iii) are correct.

Answer: (A)

20. Which of the following are Library net works ?

(i) Internet

(ii) Indonet

(iii) INFLIBNET

(iv) OCLC

Codes :

(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.

(B) (ii) and (iv) are correct.

(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(D) (i) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (C)

21. Arrange the following University Libraries according to the year of their establishment :

(i) Madras University Library

(ii) Delhi University Library

(iii) Calcutta University Library

(iv) Bombay University Library

Codes :

(A) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: (D)

22. What is the correct sequence of the following sections of the main entry as per classified catalogue code (CCC) ?

(i) Note Section

(ii) Leading Section

(iii) Heading Section

(iv) Title Section

Codes :

(A) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(D) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

Answer: (B)

23. Arrange the following indexing sources according to the year of their first publication :

(i) Biological Abstracts

(ii) Chemical Abstracts

(iii) Index Medicus

(iv) Poole’s Index to Periodical Literature

Codes :

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(C) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

Answer: (B)

24. Arrange the following library associations according to their year of emergence :

(i) CILIP

(ii) ALA

(iii) SLA

(iv) ASLIB

Codes :

(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Answer: (C)

25. Match the following :

Answer: (B)

26. Match the following :

Answer: (C)

27. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

28. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

29. Match the following :

Answer: (D)

30. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

31. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

32. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

33. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

34. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

35. Match the following :

Answer: (C)

36. Assertion (A) : In the study of History, as an academic discipline, a primary source is an artefact, a document, a recording
or other source of information that was created during the event or immediately after the event.

Reason (R) : Primary sources are considered as original material or evidences about the topic and are fundamental to history.

Codes :

(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (C)

37. Assertion (A) : Indian National Bibliography is the most comprehensive source of Indian publications.

Reason (R) : National Library of Kolkata is entitled to receive one copy of each Indian publication under Delivery of Book Act.

Codes :

(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (B)

38. Assertion (A) : As per the generally accepted principles of construction of statistical tabulation, every table should have a clear, concise and adequate title so as to make the table intelligible without reference to the text and this title should always be placed just below the body of the table.

Reason (R) : A statistical table which reflects its title just above the table and supply information about several interrelated
characteristics of data makes the table unwield and inconvenient.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

39. Assertion (A) : Knowledge Management involves a number of assets and value added to them.

Reason (R) : Knowledge Management is the core activity of information transfer.

Codes : 

(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 

(B) (A) is true, but (R) is partially true.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true. 

(D) (A) is partially true but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

40. Assertion (A) : According to Horton and Merchant, information is a commodity like other resources.

Reason (R) : Information is a tangible commodity. 

Codes :

(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

41. Assertion (A) : Reference section in a Library became insignificant.

Reason (R) : The Web. 2.0 services replaces the reference desk services.

Codes :

(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

42. Assertion (A) : Newspaper Digests are the best sources of information to get current and authentic information like books.

Reason (R) : These sources are compiled by going through various newspapers.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(B) (A) is partially true but (R) is true.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(D) (A) is true but (R) is partially true.

Answer: (B)

43. Assertion (A) : Encyclopaedias have been regarded as the substitute of all categories of reference sources as these provide all types of information.

Reason (R) : Encyclopaedias provide comprehensive information on all aspects which otherwise are scattered in different categories of reference sources.

Codes :

(A) (R) is true but (A) is false.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (C)

44. Assertion (A) : Chi-square is an important non-parametric test which does not require rigid assumptions in respect of the
type of population being studied. 

Reason (R) : Since χ2 is a nonparametric test, it requires only the degrees of freedom (implicitly, the size of the population) for using the test. 

Codes :

(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(C) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (B)

45. Assertion (A) : Information is commodity. 

Reason (R) : Commodity is a marketable item produced to satisfy human wants or needs.

Codes :

(A) (A) is false, and (R) is true.

(B) (R) is false and (A) is true.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true.

Answer: (D)

Read the passage given below and answer the questions based on your understanding of the passage (Question Nos. 46-50) :

  According to Wikipedia ‘social media’ is media designed to be disseminated through social interaction, created using highly accessible and scalable publishing techniques. According to search engine partner, the term social media describes media that is posed by the user and can take many different forms. Some type of social media are forums, message boards, blogs, wikis and podcarts. Social media applications include Google, Facebook and You tube. In social media, communication takes place through messages, status updates, voice chats etc. or through photos/videos sharing, games, virtual goods etc. Antony Mayfield in his e-book titled ‘What is Social Media’ ? has defined social media as online media, which encourages contributions and
feedback from everyone who is interested, is open to feedback and participation, is a two way conversation, allows communities
to form quickly and communicate effectively to share common interests and thrive on their connectedness.

The growth of social media is phenomenal. It is being used by all netizens all over the world to a great extent in all areas including business, government, fashion etc. A research conducted by the Institute for Prospective Technological Studies (IPTS) indicates that high take up of social media application outside formal educational settings provides new opportunities for innovation and modernisation.

With this growing trend, political leaders have also realized its importance as an effective tool to spread awareness and to reach out their voters. Democratic presidential candidate Barack Obama used it during the Presidential elections. Since then, social media is being highly used by a number of politicians all over the world. Myspace has more than 7400 discussion groups related to politics. According to a survey by manpower, 29% of the companies in America and 20% of companies worldwide have a social media policy.

People even update themselves through micro-blogging on every aspect of human life including the natural and human diasters. In China, Twitter became the first media in the world to break the news of the Wenzhou earthquake. Social media is being used in fashion industry as well to generate interest in a brand through publicity across online communities and
websites.

India is one of the most culturally, linguistically and genetically diverse regions having more than one billion people. It is ranked third in Asia in terms of the internet users and quite a number of them are using social media. In fact, approximately 60 millions to 65 millions netizens in India open most of their time on social media/networking sites.

46. Who defined social media as ‘online media’ which encourages contributions and feedback from everyone who is interested ?

(A) Wikepedia

(B) Institute for Prospective Technological Studies (IPTS)

(C) Myspace

(D) Antony Myfield

Answer: (D)

47. Who used the social media for conversing during recent Presidential Election in U.S.A. ?

(A) Jimmy Carter

(B) Barack Obama

(C) George Bush

(D) John F. Kennedy

Answer: (B)

48. In China, which social media became the first media to break the news of earthquake ?

(A) Facebook

(B) Youtube

(C) Twitter

(D) Myzamana

Answer: (C)

49. In Asia, which country is ranked third in terms of using social media by the people ?

(A) China

(B) Pakistan

(C) Japan

(D) India

Answer: (D)

50. Which social website has more than 7400 discussion groups relate to politics ?

(A) Orkut

(B) Myspace

(C) Facebook

(D) Twitter

Answer: (B)

UGC NET Exam December 2013 Law Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

LAW

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Social, economic and political Justice is

(A) an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India

(B) guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India

(C) a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into consideration while making enactments

(D) guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the High Courts and Supreme Court

Answer: (A)

2. Without paying proper remuneration, labour taken from the prisoners is ‘forced labour’ and violation of

(A) Art. 20 of the Constitution of India

(B) Art. 21 of the Constitution of India

(C) Art. 22 of the Constitution of India

(D) Art. 23 of the Constitution of India

Answer: (D)

3. Art. 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of

(A) Citizens of India

(B) Public Servants

(C) All those who run public and private sectors

(D) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers

Answer: (A)

4. The appropriate writ issued by Supreme Court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is

(A) Certiorari

(B) Mandamus

(C) Prohibition

(D) Quo-Warranto

Answer: (D)

5. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a

(A) Legislative power

(B) Executive power

(C) Quasi-judicial power

(D) Judicial power

Answer: (A)

6. The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by

(A) The President of India

(B) The Parliament by resolution

(C) The Parliament by Law

(D) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

Answer: (C)

7. At the first instance, the President can issue a proclamation of financial emergency for a period of

(A) Fifteen days

(B) Two months

(C) One month

(D) Six months

Answer: (B)

8. Legal Theory is based on 

(A) a systematic study of positive laws

(B) purely logical and empirical study

(C) concepts like morality, justice and ethics

(D) total exclusion of customary practices, morality and social vagaries

Answer: (C)

9. Who separated jurisprudence from religion ?

(A) Kant

(B) Hugo Grotius

(C) Salmond

(D) Jethro Brown

Answer: (B)

10. Under how many categories the five theories of punishment can be divided ?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 3

Answer: (D)

11. On which one of the following one can have corporeal ownership ?

(A) A right

(B) Trademark

(C) Movable property

(D) A debt

Answer: (C)

12. “Sovereignty must be determinate, it is essential, is indivisible and is unlimited and illimitable.” Who conceived this about the sovereignty ?

(A) Hobbes

(B) Austin

(C) Jean Bodin

(D) Plato

Answer: (B)

13. Consider the following statements :

1. Statements, which are not partaking of the character of ratio decidendi can be ignored while deciding the latter case.

2. The ratio decidendi is not the reason of decision.

3. Only that part of the judgment in an earlier decision is binding which constitutes the ratio decidendi of that case.

4. A judicial decision has a binding force for subsequent cases but the whole judgment is not binding, only a part of it is biding.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?

(A) 1, 3, 4

(B) 1, 2, 3

(C) 2, 3, 4

(D) 1, 2, 4

Answer: (A)

14. “Case law is gold in the mine, a few  grains of the precious metal to the tons of useless matter, while statute law is coin of the realm ready for immediate use.” Who said these words ?

(A) Ihering

(B) Austin

(C) Kelson

(D) Salmond

Answer: (D)

15. Which of the following statements are true ?

1. There is no rule to determine when usage shall give rise to a custom.

2. Customary rules of International law are diminishing and are being replaced by Treaties and Conventions.

3. Treaty contracts are not direct source of International law. 

4. International law is a positive morality.

Codes :

(A) 1, 2, 3 & 4

(B) 2, 3 & 4

(C) 1, 2 & 3

(D) 1 & 2

Answer: (C)

16. “The law of National or International law may be defined as the body of rules and principles of actions which  are binding upon civilized states in their relations with one-another.”

This definition of International law was given by

(A) J.L. Brierly

(B) Torsten Vitel

(C) Hackworth

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

17. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

18. The Charter of the United Nations can be amended by

(A) Five-third of the members of General Assembly.

(B) The Security Council only

(C) Two-third of the members of the U.N. including all permanent members of the Security Council after recommendations by a twothirds vote of a conference convened for the purpose, is received .

(D) Two-thirds of the members of the Security Council including five permanent members.

Answer: (D)

19. In which of the following case, International Court of Justice denied existence of customary rule ?

(A) North Sea Continental Shelf case.

(B) The Lotus case.

(C) Both of the above.

(D) None of the above.

Answer: (C)

20. Which organ of the United Nations has been given responsibility of promoting international co-operation in the realisation of human rights ?

(A) General Assembly

(B) Security Council

(C) Both of the above

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

21. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that even the wife of a void marriage is entitled to maintenance ?

(A) Amarjeet Kaur Vs. Harbhajan Singh (2003) 10 SCC 228.

(B) Chand Dhawan Vs. Jawaharlal Dhawan (1993) 3 SCC 406.

(C) Nirmala Devi Vs. Ram Dass (2001) 2 SCC. 4

(D) Ramesh Chandra Vs. Veena Kausal AIR 1978 SC 1807

Answer: (B)

22. In which of the following case, the court held that “Dower is a sale price of woman” ?

(A) Maina Bibi case

(B) Humara Bibi case

(C) Subrunnisan case

(D) Abdul Kadir case

Answer: (C)

23. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Find correct answer using codes given below :

Assertion (A) : “Option of Puberty” is an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Hindu Law.

Reason (R) : “Option of Puberty” is not an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Muslim Law.

Codes : 

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) and (R) both are correct. 

(C) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.

(D) (A) and (R) both are incorrect. 

Answer: (B)

24. ‘Tuhr’ means

(A) Period of menstruation

(B) Period of iddat

(C) Period between menstruation

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

25. Match an item in List – I with correct answer in List – II using the codes given below :

Answer: (C)

26. Which form of talaq is revocable during period of ‘iddat’ ?

(A) Talaq-i-Ahsan

(B) Talaq-i-Hasan

(C) Triple Talaq

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

27. Essentials of valid contract is

(A) Meeting of minds

(B) Meeting of parties

(C) Meeting to discuss consideration

(D) Meeting to discuss proposal and acceptance

Answer: (A)

28. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.

Assertion (A) : A proposal, when accepted, results in an agreement.

Reason (R) : It is only after the acceptance of the proposal that a contract between the two parties can arise.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

29. A minor is son of a beggar. He is told by a law professor that he would not be liable for any goods he purchases. The minor purchases a car and a bread loaf. Decide liability for payment of car and bread loaf, using codes given below.

(A) The minor is liable to pay price of car and bread loaf.

(B) The minor is liable to pay reasonable compensation for car.

(C) The minor is liable to pay price of bread.

(D) The minor’s parent/guardian is liable to pay reasonable compensation for bread loaf.

Answer: (D)

30. Arrange following concepts in sequence in which they occur, using codes given below :

(i) Offer

(ii) Acceptance

(iii) Damage

(iv) Damages

Codes :

(A) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

(B) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

(C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (D)

31. A contract may be vitiated by :

(i) Fraud

(ii) Mistake

(iii) Frustration

(iv) Undue influence

Find correct answer, using codes :

Codes :

(A) Only (i) is correct.

(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.

(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(D) All are correct.

Answer: (D)

32. Match items in Table A with items in Table B, using codes given below :

Answer: (B)

33. P, owner of a car, asked his friend Q to drive the car to Bombay where he would join him. As the car was about five kilometres from Bombay, it hit a pedestrian R, on account of Q’s negligent driving and injured him seriously. R sued P for damages. In this case :

(A) P is not liable.

(B) The liability is solely of Q, as P was not accompanying him.

(C) Since Q was driving P’s car was under his authority, P is liable.

(D) P has the defence of inevitable accident.

Answer: (C)

34. “If it was lawful act, however ill the motive might be, the defendant had a right to do it.” This observation was made by the court in one of the following cases :

(A) Mayor of Bradford Corporation Vs. Pickles

(B) Ashby Vs. White

(C) Christie Vs. Davey

(D) Hollywood Silver Fox Farm Ltd. Vs. Emmet

Answer: (A)

35. P and Q, unknown to R, sought and got a lift in R’s car, but on account of  some mechanical defect in the car, of which R was not aware, one of the front wheels of the car got detached and flew away, and the car toppled. P and Q got serious injuries and later on, P died of his injuries. Q and P’s next kin sued R for damages for negligent driving. What defence R has ?

(A) Volenti non fit injuria

(B) No responsibility towards P and Q who got a free lift

(C) Inevitable accident

(D) No defence

Answer: (C)

36. In contributory negligence : 

(A) Both parties have contributed to the negligence equally.

(B) Only one party is negligent and other has not taken due care.

(C) One party is negligent resulting in injury while the other has taken due care.

(D) When lack of care is equal on both sides.

Answer: (B)

37. P shoot at Q with the view to kill him. When Q was being taken to hospital, a tree fell upon Q on the way and Q died in the hospital a few days later. If it was proved that the falling of the tree caused Q’s death, then

(A) P shall be responsible for the death of Q.

(B) Falling of tree has broken the chain of causation.

(C) P is not liable to pay compensation to the dependents of Q.

(D) P is responsible for the death of Q as Q’s death was the direct consequence of P’s act.

Answer: (B)

38. Which one of the following has been laid down as basis of responsibility by the rule in Rylands Vs. Fletcher ?

(A) Fault liability

(B) Conditional liability

(C) Strict liability

Answer: (C)

39. Read Assertion – I and Reason – II and with the help of codes given below decide what offence if any was committed ?

Assertion – I : A and Z agree to fence with each other for a game. But because of foul, despite playing fairly, Z was injured.

Reason – II : a. No offence by virtue of consent between A and Z. b. Consent was obtained in good faith to gain prize, so no
offence by A. c. A is criminally liable because he had knowledge about the likelihood of injury. d. Despite implied consent the intention was bad so A is liable.

Codes :

(A) Reason ‘a’ is true when ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.

(B) Reason ‘b’ is true when ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.

(C) Reason ‘c’ is true when ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.

(D) Reason ‘d’ is true when ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ are not asserted.

Answer: (A)

40. Read Assertion – I and Reason – II and with the help of codes given below select the correct answer :

Assertion – I : Common intention is asserted.

Reason – II : a. A period which is anterior in time among the offenders. b. From the facts of pre-arranged plan.c. From the act of conduct resulting from prior concert. d. From the totality of circumstances in which the act was committed.

Codes :

(A) ‘a’ is false because ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ do not support it.

(B) ‘d’ is true as ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ support it.

(C) ‘c’ is true irrespective of support of ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’.

(D) ‘b’ is true being supported by ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.

Answer: (B)

41. Select the statement that is most suitable in law :

Culpable homicide is not murder when one is deprived of the power of self-control resulting from :

(A) Grave and sudden provocation

(B) When death results by voluntary provocation.

(C) Where death results in course of obedience of law.

(D) When death results by mistake. 

Answer: (A)

42. B a married man commits sex with C a girl child of 16 years with her consent. What offence B has committed ?

(A) Adultery

(B) Rape

(C) No offence

(D) Sexual outraging

Answer: (C)

43. Fill in the blank :

Extortion is ________, when it is committed under fear of instant hurt.

(A) Theft

(B) Attempt to steal property

(C) Robbery

(D) Wrongful restraint

Answer: (C)

44. Find answer of the following question :

What is the distinctive feature between false information and false charging ?

(A) Using lawful power to cause annoyance so as to institute a criminal proceeding.

(B) To omit act which ought not to be done.

(C) A case for false information can only be started by a complaint while false charge can be initiated by police.

(D) There is no real distinction.

Answer: (B)

45. Collective bargaining serves purposes :

(A) Regulating wages and conditions of service

(B) Regulating labour management relations.

(C) Both (A) and (B).

(D) None of the above.(D) Insurance liability

Answer: (C)

46. In which country where statutes make it obligatory to negotiate nonperformance of the obligation invites penalty, failure to carry obligation is treated as unfair labour practice ?

(A) U.K.

(B) U.S.A.

(C) France

(D) India

Answer: (B)

47. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that “there was no rule of thumb that in every case of termination of workman’s service in violation of Section 25F of ID Act relief of re-instatement should be granted ?

(A) Talwara Co-operative Credit & Service Society Ltd. Vs. Sushil Kumar (2009) I LLJ 326 S.C.

(B) Gujarat Steel Tubes Ltd. Vs. G.S.T. Mazdoor Sabha (1980) I LLJ 137 (S.C.)

(C) Mavji C. Lakum Vs. Central Bank of India (2008) III LLJ.1.(SC)

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

48. The Registrar to Pensions Appeal Tribunal was appointed as presiding officer of a Labour Court. The appointment is

(A) Valid

(B) Void

(C) Void ab-initio

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

49. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Answer: (C)

50. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R), using codes given below, select correct answer :

Assertion (A) : Strike is individual stoppage of work to press management to get more pay.

Reason (R) : Individual has fundamental right of strike. 

Codes :

(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) and (R) are false.

(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (C)

UGC NET Exam December 2013 Labour Welfare and Industrial Relations Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

LABOUR WELFARE AND INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. Attempt all the questions.

1. Match the following :

Answer: (A)

2. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of planning ?

(A) It deals with future

(B) It involves selection of particular course of action

(C) It is pervasive

(D) It is not strategic

Answer: (D)

3. Premature evaluation is a type of

(A) semantic barrier

(B) psychological barrier

(C) organisational barrier

(D) personal barrier

Answer: (B)

4. Which of the following is not a feature of systems approach ?

(A) A system is a combination of parts

(B) Parts and sub-parts are related to one another

(C) It is not necessary for a system to have a boundary

(D) System transforms inputs into outputs

Answer: (C)

5. Which of the following organisations is a two-dimensional structure ?

(A) Functional structure

(B) Matrix structure

(C) Line structure

(D) Divisional structure

Answer: (B)

6. Job description includes information about

(A) Job responsibilities, duties and working conditions.

(B) Job responsibilities, duties and worth in terms of wage and salary.

(C) Job responsibilities and qualifications for performance.

(D) Job responsibilities, duties and qualifications for performance.

Answer: (A)

7. Differentiation between line and staff functions is necessary because it helps in

(A) providing specialized services.

(B) maintaining adequate checks and balances.

(C) maintaining accountability.

(D) All the above.

Answer: (D)

8. Which of the following refers to analysis of handwriting to determine writer’s basic personality traits ?

(A) Kinesics

(B) Graphology

(C) Polygraphy

(D) Both (B) and (C)

Answer: (B)

9. The five basic features of Scanlon plan of incentive payment are

(A) control, individuality, competence, involvement and sharing of benefits.

(B) cooperation, identity, competence, involvement and sharing of benefits.

(C) control, individuality, commitment, involvement , and sharing of benefits.

(D) cooperation, identity, control, involvement and sharing of profits.

Answer: (B)

10. Which of the following is a process of systematically identifying,  assessing and developing organisational leadership to enhance performance ?

(A) Manpower planning 

(B) Career planning

(C) Succession planning

(D) Human Resource planning

Answer: (C)

11. Who is the profounder of the sociopsychological approach to Human Resource Development ?

(A) T.W. Schultz

(B) Lorraine Corner

(C) Lim Teck Ghee

(D) David McClelland

Answer: (D)

12. Read the following statements on HRD need analysis. Identify the one which is not true :

(A) HRD needs can be identified at strategic, organisational, operational, task and person levels

(B) HRD needs can be diagnostic, analytic, compliance oriented and proactive

(C) competency mapping, performance appraisal and clarity of career paths identify HRD needs at task level only

(D) Task related KSA analysis and training need analysis are integral part of HRD need analysis

Answer: (C)

13. Assertion (A) : Performance Appraisal cannot be error free and unbiased.

Reason (R) : The Appraisal Methods are covertly influenced by human judgement which may be vitiated by inter-personal
discriminatory impulses. 

(A) Assertion (A) is right, Reason (R) is wrong.

(B) Assertion (A) is wrong, Reason (R) is right.

(C) Reason (R) does not subscribe to the Assertion (A).

(D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are right, and Reason (R) validate Assertion (A).

Answer: (D)

14. Match the following theories of career planning with their propagators :

Answer: (C)

15. When Human Relations training is given to managers the method adopted is :

(A) In-Basket Exercise

(B) Role-play method

(C) Managerial Grid Training

(D) Sensitivity Training

Answer: (D)

16. When team-building can be attempted by creating artificial teams in which people get opportunity to experiment and learn from their behaviour in a less threatening context, it is based on :

(A) Behaviour Modification Approach

(B) Action Research Approach

(C) Simulation Approach

(D) Team Role Approach

Answer: (C)

17. Match the Themes with the respective approaches :

Answer: (C)

18. Who has extended the Vroom’s Expectancy Theory of Motivation by suggesting that motivation is not equal to satisfaction and performance and by depicting what happens after performance ?

(A) Harold Kelly

(B) Edward Tolman

(C) Alderfer

(D) Porter and Lawler

Answer: (D)

19. Which of the following is an invisible part but a powerful template that shapes, what happens at the workplace ?

(A) Organisational culture

(B) Organisational climate

(C) Organisational dynamics

(D) Organisational structure

Answer: (A)

20. Match the following :

Answer: (C)

21. The trusteeship approach to industrial relations was advocated by :

(A) Karl Marx

(B) Max Weber

(C) Allan Flanders

(D) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: (D)

22. Which of the following is a machinery for the settlement of Industrial Disputes in India ? 

(A) National Commission on Labour

(B) Wage Board

(C) Industrial Tribunal

(D) Standing Labour Committee

Answer: (C)

23. In which year, the International Institute of Labour studies was established ?

(A) 1919

(B) 1926

(C) 1950

(D) 1960

Answer: (D)

24. Match the following Acts/Code with the provisions :

Answer: (A)

25. Who advanced the concept of ‘Three tier institutional structure’ of Industrial Relations ?

(A) John T. Dunlop

(B) Allan Flanders

(C) Kochan, Katz & Mckersie

(D) Roy Adam

Answer: (C)

26. Which of the following is not a correct statement pertaining to the meaning of trade union ?

(A) It is a continuous association of wage earners for maintaining or improving the conditions of their working lives.

(B) It is a society of individuals in one or more professions for the purpose of protecting and advancing, members’ economic
interest.

(C) It is a combination with an objective of regulating the relation between workmen and workmen, workmen and employer, employer and employer

(D) It is any combination, whether temporary or permanent formed primarily for regulating relations between the two parties.

Answer: (B)

27. Who formed the Bombay Millhands Association ?

(A) Sorabjee Shaprujee Bengali

(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(C) N.M. Lokhande

(D) V.V. Giri

Answer: (C)

28. In which country the trade union movement began with industrial unions ?

(A) Great Britain

(B) U.S.A.

(C) India

(D) Canada

Answer: (C)

29. Which one is not a right of a recognized union ? 

(A) A right of ‘Check-off’

(B) To use notice board on the premises of the undertaking

(C) To appear on behalf of the union on domestic inquiry

(D) inspecting the undertaking

Answer: (A)

30. The criteria for recognition of trade union under the code of discipline are 

(a) union claiming recognition should have been functioning for atleast one year after registration.

(b) the membership of a union should cover atleast 5% of the workers in that establishment.

(c) A union can claim recognition as representative union for an industry in a local area if it has 25% workers as members in that industry in that area.

(d) When a union is recognised there shall be no change in the position for 5 years.

(A) All the provisions are correct

(B) All the provisions are incorrect

(C) Only (a) and (c) are correct

(D) Only (d) and (b) are correct

Answer: (C)

31. Which of the following subjects is not enumerated in the ‘concurrent list’ of the Indian constitution ?

(A) Oil fields

(B) Trade Unions

(C) Factories

(D) Vocational and technical training of labour

Answer: (A)

32. Which of the following statements relating to the Employees’ Compensation Act is not correct ?

(A) This Act has a link with the Workmen’s Compensation Act

(B) This act is the outcome of the amendment that was made to the Workmen’s Compensation Act

(C) This act does not have any provision relating to temporary disablement of workmen 

(D) This act has a provision relating to permanent partial disablement

Answer: (C)

33. Under the Maternity Benefit Act, a woman employee would get a medical bonus of :

(A) Rs 3000

(B) Rs 3500

(C) Rs 4000

(D) Rs 4500

Answer: (B)

34. Which section of the Factories Act deals with appointment of Welfare Officers ?

(A) Section 45

(B) Section 49

(C) Section 51

(D) Section 55

Answer: (B)

35. The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 1988 provides for extension of the benefits to shops and commercial establishments employing a minimum of :

(A) 7 persons

(B) 8 persons

(C) 10 persons

(D) 20 persons

Answer: (D)

36. Which of the following is not considered to be a legal status for a registered union ?

(A) No power to acquire and hold both movable and immovable property

(B) Power to contract with other entities

(C) Perpetual succession and common seal

(D) A body corporate by the name under which it is registered

Answer: (A)

37. Under the Minimum Wages Act, which of the following can not be appointed by the appropriate government by notification under the official gazette for deciding claims arising out of payment of less than the minimum rates of wages ?

(A) Any commissioner for Workmen’s compensation

(B) Any officers of the Central Government exercising functions as a Labour Commissioner for any region

(C) Any officer of the State Government not below the rank of Labour Commissioner

(D) Any officer not less than the rank of District Magistrate

Answer: (D)

38. Match the following according to the objectives of legislations :

Answer: (B)

39. Which of the following is ‘true’ as per the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act ?

An employer need not issue any “Notice of Change” in respect of 4th Schedule of the Act.

(A) Where the change is affected in pursuance of any settlement.

(B) In respect of any matter specified in the schedule affecting workmen.

(C) In respect of conditions of service applicable to any workman.

(D) None of the above. 

Answer: (A)

40. Which of the following amendments of Industrial Employment (standing order) Act provided for payment of subsistence allowance by the employer to a suspended employee pending enquiry against him ?

(A) Industrial Employment (standing order) Amendment Act, 1956

(B) Industrial Employment (standing order) Amendment Act, 1963

(C) Industrial Employment (standing order) Amendment Act, 1982

(D) Industrial Employment (standing order) Amendment Act, 1961

Answer: (C)

41. The ‘New Lanark’ experiment is associated with :

(A) Human Relations at workplace 

(B) Networking Organisations

(C) Welfare Movement in Industries

(D) Behavioural Theory

Answer: (C)

42. Social security provided by a ‘means test’ is called :

(A) Social Insurance

(B) Mutual Insurance

(C) Social Assurance

(D) Social Assistance

Answer: (D)

43. Match the following Themes with the concepts of Labour Welfare :

Answer: (D)

44. In which of the following approaches ‘good will’ is considered as an important goal of labour welfare work ?

(A) Placating Theory

(B) Public Relations Theory

(C) Fundamental Theory

(D) Philanthropic Theory

Answer: (B)

45. For which of the following categories of workers, there is no provision for welfare fund ?

(A) The Beedi workers

(B) Workers working in Mica Mines

(C) Cine Workers

(D) Workers working in the Printing Industry

Answer: (D)

46. Under which segment of the Indian Constitution, the Labour Policy is designed ?

a. Preamble

b. Fundamental Rights

c. Directive Principles of State Policy

d. Fundamental Duties

(A) Only c

(B) a, b and c

(C) a and c

(D) a, b, c and d

Answer: (B)

47. The conversion of the ‘nominal wages’ into ‘Real Wages’ is done by which of the following indices ?

(A) Human Development Index

(B) Poverty Index

(C) Wholesale Price Index

(D) Consumer Price Index

Answer: (D)

48. Match the following Themes of Theories of Wages with their propagators :

Answer: (C)

49. Which of the following statements about wage differentials is not true ?

(A) Wage differentials can be attributed to imperfections in employment market.

(B) Social prejudices do not influence the wage differentials.

(C) Inter-industry wage differentials are bound to occur.

(D) Geographical wage differentials are a common phenomenon.

Answer: (B)

50. Which of the following formulae is used for determining Minimum wages ?

(A) Adarkar’s Formula

(B) Rege Committee’s Formula

(C) Dr. Aykroid’s Formula

(D) Royal Commission on Labour’s Formula

Answer: (C)

UGC NET Exam December 2013 Indian Culture Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

INDIAN CULTURE

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. One of the following Harappan culture sites is noticed in the Gangatic Doab :

(A) Kalibangan

(B) Alamgirpur

(C) Ropar

(D) Lothal

Answer: (B)

2. The mention of the city named Ayodhya occurs for the first time in

(A) Rigveda

(B) Atharvaveda

(C) Yajurveda

(D) Samaveda

Answer: (B)

3. During the period of sixteen Mahajanpadas Sothavatinagri was the capital of

(A) Vajji

(B) Surasen

(C) Vatsa

(D) Chedi

Answer: (D)

4. Which of the following physicians was a contemporary of Gautama Buddha ?

(A) Charaka

(B) Sushena

(C) Jivaka

(D) Vag Bhatt

Answer: (C)

5. Which source of Mauryan history informs that there was no slavery in India ?

(A) Asokan Rock Edict – II

(B) Megasthenes’ Indica

(C) Mudrarakshasa

(D) Dipavamsa 

Answer: (B)

6. In which of the following inscriptions Asoka propagated the idea of Dharma vijaya ?

(A) Rock Edict – III

(B) Rock Edict – XIII

(C) Rock Edict – XII

(D) Rock Edict – V

Answer: (B)

7. Who among the following Kings made a request to a foreign King for figs, wine and Sophist ? 

(A) Bimbisara

(B) Chandragupta Maurya

(C) Dasaratha

(D) Bindusara

Answer: (D)

8. Which of the following texts mentions Guna-Karm theory regarding Varna system ?

(A) Atharvaveda

(B) Chhandogya Upanishad

(C) Bhagvadgita

(D) Abhijnanasakuntala

Answer: (C)

9. Which one of the following dynasties is not mentioned in the Sangam Literature ?

(A) Chola

(B) Pallava

(C) Chera

(D) Pandya

Answer: (B)

10. Arrange the following stupas in chronological order :

i. Bharhut

ii. Amaravati

iii. Dhamek

iv. Bodhgaya

Select your correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) i, ii, iii, iv

(B) ii, i, iv, iii

(C) i, iv, ii, iii

(D) iv, iii, i, ii

Answer: (C)

11. The mention of coin Karshapan occurs in the following inscription :

(A) Hathigumpha Inscription

(B) Rummindei

(C) Naneghat Inscription

(D) Junagarh Inscription

Answer: (C)

12. Who among the following was an Alwar Saint ?

(A) Appar

(B) Kulasekhar

(C) Sambandar

(D) Sundarar

Answer: (B)

13. Durjanpur Trithankar images were carved during the time of which ruler ?

(A) Chandragupta – I

(B) Ramagupta

(C) Skandagupta

(D) Purugupta

Answer: (B)

14. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Chandragupta – II married his daughter with Vakataka ruler Rudrasen – II.

Reason (R) : This relation could help him in uprooting the Sakas from Western India.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

15. Which one was a prominent centre of sculptural art during the Gupta period ?

(A) Amaravati

(B) Mathura

(C) Sanchi

(D) Gandhara

Answer: (B)

16. Where did Virasena, who accompanied Chandragupta – II in his military expedition, excavate a cave in honour of Shiva ?

(A) Eran

(B) Kausambi

(C) Sanchi

(D) Udaigiri

Answer: (D)

17. Which one of the following places is known for rock-cut temple architecture ?

(A) Kanchipuram

(B) Mamallapuram

(C) Thanjavur

(D) Gongaikonda Cholapuram

Answer: (B)

18. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :

Answer: (A)

19. In which of the following inscriptions Kalidas and Bharvi both are referred together ?

(A) Allahabad Pillar Inscription of Samudragupta

(B) Mehroli Iron Pillar Inscription of Chandra

(C) Junagarh Inscription of Skandagupta

(D) Aihole Inscription of Chalukya Pulkesin – II

Answer: (D)

20. The site representing the renowned educational centre Vikramashila Mahavihara is to be located in the region of

(A) Bhagalpur

(B) Gaya

(C) Rajagrih

(D) Vaishali

Answer: (A)

21. The most gigantic rock-cut Bahubali image is located in

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Karnataka

(D) Kerala

Answer: (C)

22. The gajahasta posture is associated with

(A) Shiva

(B) Vishnu

(C) Buddha

(D) Ganesha

Answer: (A)

23. Which of the following inscriptions informs us the provision made for the treatment for men and animals by Asoka ? 

(A) Rock Edict – XII

(B) Rock Edict – II

(C) Rock Edict – XIII

(D) Rock Edict – V

Answer: (B)

24. Which of the following Chandella temple was originally a Vishnu temple but later converted to a different deity ?

(A) Lakshaman temple

(B) Chaturbhuj temple

(C) Chitragupta temple

(D) Devi Jagdambi temple

Answer: (D)

25. Natraj bronze images were cast during the period of

(A) Chandellas

(B) Cholas

(C) Pallavas

(D) Rashtrakutas

Answer: (B)

26. Which of the following temples Natya Mandap and Bhog Mandap are the architectural parts ?

(A) Chola temple

(B) Chalukya temple

(C) Orissan temple

(D) Parmar temple

Answer: (C)

27. In which of the following temples Gopuram is the architectural part ?

(A) Chandella temple

(B) Chola temple

(C) Parmar temple

(D) Pratihar temple

Answer: (B)

28. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Answer: (A)

29. Who profounded the theory that Brahma is true Jagat is false ?

(A) Ramanuja

(B) Sankaracharya

(C) Vallabhacharya

(D) Nibarakacharya

Answer: (B)

30. Kayotsarga posture is associated with the image of

(A) Vishnu

(B) Buddha

(C) Tirthankar

(D) Shiva

Answer: (C)

31. Which among the following works is not the work of Amir Khusaro ?

(A) Qiran-us-Sádain

(B) Nuh Sipehar

(C) Miftah-ul-Fatuh

(D) Khair-ul-Majlis

Answer: (D)

32. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the list :

Answer: (A)

33. Which tradition of music flourished during the period of Akbar and has contributed significantly to Indian Classical Music ?

(A) Ast chhap

(B) Tilak chhap

(C) Kirtan chhap

(D) Gun chhap

Answer: (A)

34. Paintings showing women working in building construction at Agra are extant in

(A) Akbarnama

(B) Alamgirnama

(C) Iqbalnama-i-Jahangiri

(D) Marwar-re-Pargana-ri-vigat

Answer: (A)

35. Which of the following fort is known as ‘Katargarh’ ?

(A) Kumbhalgarh

(B) Rohtashgarh

(C) Gwalior Fort

(D) Chittorgarh

Answer: (A)

36. Who is the author of the ‘Vijaypal Raso’ ?

(A) Jagnik

(B) Nalha Singh

(C) Narpat Nath

(D) Sarangdhar

Answer: (B)

37. Who among the following acquired the title of ‘Haindav- Dharmoddharak’ ?

(A) Shivaji

(B) Sawai Jai Singh

(C) Mirza Raja Jai Singh

(D) Jaichand

Answer: (A)

38. Shariat means

(A) Revenue laws

(B) Sufi way of life

(C) Islamic laws

(D) State laws

Answer: (C)

39. In the second half of the 18th century the Journal ‘Asiatic Researches’ was started by whom ?

(A) William Jones

(B) James Mill

(C) V. Smith

(D) W. Irvine

Answer: (A)

40. A foreign traveller of the Vijaynagar Empire was also an Ambassador of his country :

(A) Farnow Nooniz

(B) Domingo Paes

(C) Abdur Razzaq

(D) Nicoli Conti

Answer: (C)

41. The term Qaum refers to 

(A) Community based on common descent

(B) Local Muslim association

(C) Muslim respectable class

(D) Custodians of Sufi shrines

Answer: (A)

42. The Act which allowed the Missionaries to preach religion and start education in India for the first time, was

(A) The Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(B) The Charter Act, 1813

(C) The Charter Act, 1833

(D) The Charter Act, 1853

Answer: (B)

43. Who was the founder of the Widow Marriage Sangh in 1861 ?

(A) Devendranath Tagore

(B) Dayanand Saraswati

(C) Ram Mohan Roy

(D) M.G. Ranade

Answer: (D)

44. Arrange the following in chronological order from their foundation and select the answer from the codes given below :

i. The Indian Patriotic Association

ii. The Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental College

iii. The Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association

iv. The Mohammadan Anglo- Oriental Educational Conference.

Codes :

(A) ii, iv, i, iii

(B) ii, iii, i, iv

(C) i, iv, iii, ii

(D) i, iii, iv, ii

Answer: (A)

45. Arrange the following in chronological order of their occurrence :

i. Lord Macaulay’s Minutes on Indian Education

ii. Vernacular Press Act to control seditious publications

iii. Foundation of Asiatic Society of Bengal

iv. Abolition of Sati. 

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) iv, iii, ii, i

(B) iii, i, ii, iv

(C) iv, i, iii, ii

(D) iii, iv, i, ii

Answer: (D)

46. Who launched the self-respect movement in South India for the uplift of the dignity of the lower castes ?

(A) E.V. Ramaswamy

(B) Jyotiba Phule

(C) Bhim Rao Ambedkar

(D) C. Rajagopalachari

Answer: (A)

47. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The Constitutional Reforms of 1909 provided to the Indian Muslims an official legitimacy to their minority
status.

Reason (R) : Muslim identity from minority status to nationhood took a long time.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

48. Consider the following statements concerning the Peasant Movements of the colonial period. 

i. The movements that took place after 1857 were mainly localized or isolated but had wider impact.

ii. The Indian agrarian society which had a complex class structure had its bearing on the movement.

iii. The movements often cut across the cultural categories of religion and caste.

iv. It was not so easy to mobilize the peasantry along with their religious or caste identity. 

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) i and ii are correct only.

(B) ii and iii are correct only.

(C) i, ii and iii are correct only.

(D) ii, iii and iv are correct only.

Answer: (C)

49. Who started the paper ‘Voice of India’ ? 

(A) Dadabhai Naoroji

(B) V.D. Savarkar

(C) Motilal Nehru

(D) Subhashchandra Bose

Answer: (A)

50. Match List – I with List – II and  select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :

Answer: (C)

UGC NET Exam December 2013 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

ARAB CULTURE AND ISLAMIC STUDIES

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. “Be loyal to thy tribe.” The slogan represented

(A) Asabiyah

(B) Adabiyah

(C) Asliyah

(D) Hubb al-Qabilah

Answer: (A)

2. The Arabicized Arabs were called

(A) – Aribah

(B) Ma‘ribah

(C) Ajānib

(D) Musta‘ribah

Answer: (D)

3. The Ottoman ruler who captured Egypt was

(A) Sulaiman the magnificent

(B) Salim-I

(C) Murad-I

(D) Bayazid-I

Answer: (B)

4. The Ottoman rule was established in the year

(A) 1279

(B) 1289

(C) 1299

(D) 1309

Answer: (C)

5. The Moon-God of the pre-Islamic Arabs was

(A) Laat

(B) Wadd

(C) Uzza

(D) Hubal

Answer: (B)

6. Al-Hijāz means

(A) The barrier

(B) The rocky tract

(C) The pilgrimage centre

(D) The great desert

Answer: (A)

7. The Holy Prophet was brought up by Halimah who belonged to

(A) Banu Sa‘eed

(B) Banu As‘ad

(C) Banu Su‘ād

(D) Banu Sa‘d

Answer: (D)

8. The first war in which the Holy Prophet participated before prophethood was

(A) Fijar

(B) Dahis

(C) Basus

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

9. The first wife of the Holy Prophet after the death of Hazrat Khadijah was Hazrat

(A) Hafsah

(B) Aishah

(C) Saudah

(D) Zainab

Answer: (C)

10. Observing fasts of Ramadhan was made obligatory in the year

(A) 1 A.H.

(B) 2 A.H.

(C) 4 A.H.

(D) 5 A.H.

Answer: (B)

11. Kitab al-Maghazi is written by

(A) Al-Zamakhshari

(B) Al-Mas‘udi

(C) Al-Jahiz

(D) Al-Waqidi

Answer: (D)

12. Laylat al-Qadr means night of

(A) Power

(B) Bounty

(C) Destiny

(D) Mercy

Answer: (A)

13. The expedition of Tabuk was against the

(A) Bedouins and Christians

(B) Bedouins and Jews

(C) Christians and Jews

(D) Bedouins and Abyssinian mercenaries

Answer: (C)

14. Riddah war was fought against

(A) Christians

(B) Apostates

(C) Quraish

(D) Jews

Answer: (B)

15. The battle of al-Qadisiyah took place during the caliphate of Hazrat

(A) Mu ‘awiyah

(B) Uthman

(C) Ali

(D) Umar

Answer: (D)

16. Abdullah ibn Wahb al-Rāsibi was the leader of the

(A) Ash‘arites

(B) Mu‘tazilites

(C) Kharijites

(D) Rasibites

Answer: (C)

17. Yazid sent a force against the people of Madinah under the leadership of

(A) Al-Hajjaj

(B) Amr bin al-Ās

(C) Abul Ās

(D) Omar ibn Sa‘d ibn Abi Waqqās 

Answer: (A)

18. Arrange the construction of the following mosques chronologically.

Use the code given below :

i. Mosque of the Prophet

ii. Damascus Mosque

iii. Samarrah Mosque

iv. Azhar Mosque

Codes :

(A) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(C) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

(D) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

Answer: (B)

19. Mu‘awiyah-II was Yazid’s

(A) Uncle

(B) Cousin

(C) Step-brother

(D) Son

Answer: (D)

20. Postal service was developed under

(A) Mu‘awiyah

(B) Umar bin Abdul Aziz

(C) Abdul Malik

(D) Hishām

Answer: (C)

21. Abul Abbas al-Saffah was nominated as the first Caliph of the Abbasid dynasty by his brother.

(A) Ibrahim

(B) Ismail

(C) Ishaq

(D) Yaqub

Answer: (A)

22. The author of ‘al-Hawi’ was

(A) Ibn Sina

(B) Ibn Hazm

(C) Ibn Khaldun

(D) Al-Razi

Answer: (D)

23. The first Islamic coins were struck at Damuscus by

(A) Yazid

(B) Abdul Malik

(C) Marwan

(D) Al-Walid

Answer: (B)

24. Arrange the following Caliphs in chronological order using the code given below :

(i) Umar bin Abdul Aziz

(ii) Hisham

(iii) Al-Walid

(iv) Marwan-I

Codes :

(A) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

(B) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

(C) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (C)

25. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

(A) Kitab al-Manazir – Ibn Arabi

(B) Kitab al-Hind – Al-Mas‘udi

(C) Kitab al-Āin – Al-Jahiz

(D) Kitab al-Aghani – Abul Faraj Isfahani

Answer: (D)

26. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(A) Fusus al-Hikam – Ibn Taymiyah

(B) Kitab al-Shifa – Ibn Sina

(C) Kitab al-Hayawan – Al-Jahiz

(D) Al-Manar – Rashid Ridha

Answer: (A)

27. ‘Yaqut al-Hamavi’ was a 

(A) Poet

(B) Historian

(C) Traditionist (Muhaddis)

(D) Qur‘anic exegesist

Answer: (B)

28. ‘Al-Baladhuri’ is the author of

(A) Mu‘jim al-Buldan

(B) Qamus al-Buldan

(C) Al-Milal wa Al-Nehal

(D) Futuh al-Buldan

Answer: (D)

29. The Hadith narrated by a liar is called

(A) Maqlub

(B) Mastur

(C) Matr–uk

(D) Mudraj

Answer: (C)

30. Who among the following is known for emphasizing ‘Nazm-e-Qur’an ?

(A) Mufti Mohammad Shafi

(B) Hamid-ud-Din Farahi

(C) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

(D) Abul A’la Maududi

Answer: (B)

31. Who is the author of al-Akhbar al- Tiwāl ?

(A) Abu Hanifah al-Dinawari

(B) Al-Kindi

(C) Al-Ghazzali

(D) Al-Mas‘udi

Answer: (A)

32. The Saljuqs were

(A) Arabs

(B) Abyssinians

(C) Turks

(D) Iranians

Answer: (C)

33. Saifud Daula was

(A) Aghlabi

(B) Fatimi

(C) Ayyubi

(D) Hamdani

Answer: (D)

34. Imam Malik was

(A) Mufassir

(B) Muhaddith

(C) Mutakallim

(D) Mu‘arrikh

Answer: (B)

35. Al-Zahra Palace was built by

(A) Abdul Rahman-II

(B) Abdul Rahman al-Dakhil

(C) Abdul Rahman al-Kawakibi

(D) Abdul Rahman al-Nasir

Answer: (D)

36. Shahnamah was written by

(A) Firdausi Tusi

(B) Nizam al-Mulk Tusi

(C) Asadi Tusi

(D) Nasir al-Din Tusi

Answer: (A)

37. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?

(A) Fi Zilal al-Qur’an– Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

(B) Tafheem al-Qur’an– Maulana Maududi

(C) Jami‘ al- Bayan Fi Tafsir al-Qur’an – Abul Kalam Azad

(D) Tarjumanal- Qur’an – Mohammad Ibn Jarir al- Tabari

Answer: (B)

38. Ibn al-Baytār was bron in

(A) Egypt

(B) Syria

(C) Spain

(D) Iraq

Answer: (C)

39. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Ithna ‘Ashari – Imamat

(B) Al-Qanun – Ibn Sina

(C) Sayyed Qutub Shaheed – Egypt

(D) Kitab al-Hayawan – Ibn Khaldun

Answer: (D)

40. Dar ul-Hikmah was established in

(A) Egypt

(B) Iraq

(C) Syria

(D) Yemen

Answer: (A)

41. The Crusaders captured Jerusalem in

(A) 1072

(B) 1085

(C) 1089

(D) 1099

Answer: (D)

42. Arrange the following personalities in chronological order according to their birth, using the code given below :

(i) Abul Faraj Isfahani

(ii) Ibn Rushd

(iii) Ibn Hazm

(iv) Imam Bukhari

Codes :

(A) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

(B) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)

(C) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (B)

43. The founder of the Fatimid dynasty was

(A) Al-Mansur

(B) Ulugh Beg

(C) Ubaidullah

(D) Al-Mu’izz

Answer: (C)

44. Rukn al-Din Baybars belonged to

(A) Bahri Mamluks

(B) Burji Mamluks

(C) Fatimids

(D) Ayyubites

Answer: (A)

45. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?

(A) Al-Qa’im – Saljuq

(B) Shajarat al-Durr – Fatimid

(C) Nur al-Din Zangi – Crusade

(D) Qalawun – Ayyubid

Answer: (C)

46. The great age of translation was during

(A) Umayyad period

(B) Fatimids

(C) Buwayhids

(D) Early Abbasid period

Answer: (D)

47. Jabir ibn Hayyan was a renowned

(A) Astrologer

(B) Chemist

(C) Geographer

(D) Historian

Answer: (B)

48. The issue of Khalq-e-Qur’an emerged during the rule of the

(A) Orthodox Caliphate

(B) Umayyads

(C) Abbasids

(D) Ottomans

Answer: (C)

49. Armugham-e-Hijaz is the work of

(A) Iqbal

(B) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

(C) Shah Waliullah

(D) Ashraf Ali Thanvi

Answer: (A)

50. Al-Fawz al-Kabir was written by

(A) Hasan al-Bannā

(B) Muhammad Abduh

(C) Jamal al-Din Afghani

(D) Shah Waliullah

Answer: (D)

UGC NET Exam December 2013 Physical Education Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

PHYSICAL EDUCATION

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. In Beijing Olympics, Michael Phelps broke the record of

(A) Mark Spitz

(B) Wilson Cherian

(C) Ian Thorpe

(D) Rolland Matthews

Answer: (A)

2. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched ?

(A) Impulse is the product of – Force and distance

(B) Sagittal axis is perpendicular to – Sagittal plane

(C) Linear motion is created by – Centric force

(D) Nature of collision during kicking a ball – Perfectly elastic collision

Answer: (C)

3. Select the correct choice :

Haemoglobin is found in

(A) Red Blood Corpuscles (RBC)

(B) White Blood Corpuscles (WBC)

(C) Platelets

(D) Bone marrow

Answer: (A)

4. The motion of a pole vaulter in downward direction after clearing the bar is an example of

(A) Regular motion

(B) Regularly accelerated motion

(C) Decelerated motion

(D) Irregularly decelerated motion

Answer: (B)

5. Select the correct option :

A skill where there is time to prepare, preview the situation and completely control the movement is termed as :

(A) closed skill

(B) self-paced skill

(C) mixed paced skill

(D) externally paced skill

Answer: (B)

6. The National Plan of Physical Education was published by Government of India in

(A) 1956

(B) 1957

(C) 1958

(D) 1959

Answer: (A)

7. Newton’s Third Law of Motion can be primarily used to explain :

(A) Running and jumping

(B) Throwing and catching

(C) Kicking and hitting

(D) Bowling and batting

Answer: (A)

.8. Which of the following Vitamins is available from Sun rays ?

(A) Vitamin A

(B) Vitamin B

(C) Vitamin C

(D) Vitamin D

Answer: (D)

9. Transition period in training cycle aims at

(A) Recovery

(B) Peaking

(C) Rehabilitation

(D) Super compensation

Answer: (A)

10. If we toss three coins, probability of three heads will be

(A) 1/8

(B) 2/8

(C) 3/8

(D) 4/8

Answer: (A)

11. When the reliability and validity of a test have already been established, it  is called

(A) Objective test

(B) Teacher-made test

(C) Standardised test

(D) Subjective test

Answer: (C)

12. Which of the following is against the principles of organisation ?

(A) Overlapping of authority

(B) Proper communication

(C) Proper decentralisation

(D) Delegation of power

Answer: (A)

13. How much protein a working woman should take everyday ?

(A) 27 gm

(B) 46 gm

(C) 37 gm

(D) 50 gm

Answer: (C)

14. The first institute in India to propagate the cause of indigenous physical activities is

(A) YMCA, Madras

(B) LNIPE, Gwalior

(C) H.V.P. Mandal, Amravati

(D) Punjab Government College of Physical Education, Patiala

Answer: (C)

15. Which one of the following is not a research tool ?

(A) Stop watch

(B) Video camera

(C) Questionnaire

(D) Survey

Answer: (D)

16. The ambit within which the sports management must not perform is generally referred to as

(A) Evaluation in Sports

(B) Innovation in Sports

(C) Sphere of Sports Management

(D) Leadership in Sports

Answer: (B)

17. Advantages of Interschool sports are :

I. Development of proficiency in skills

II. Overemphasis on winning

III. Less emphasis on mass participation

IV. Development of high level of physical fitness

Find the correct combination :

Codes :

(A) I, II

(B) II, III

(C) I, IV

(D) II, IV

Answer: (C)

18. Which of the following combination of food components does not produce Heat and Energy in the body ?

I. Carbohydrates

II. Vitamins

III. Water

IV. Lipids

Select the correct answer :

(A) II & III

(B) I & II

(C) II & IV

(D) I & IV

Answer: (A)

19. Select the correct order of arrangement of the following anatomical structures in descending order of their locations :

(A) Xiphoid process, Glenoid cavity, Coracoid process, Acetabulum

(B) Glenoid cavity, Xiphoid process, Acetabulum, Coracoid process

(C) Coracoid process, Glenoid cavity, Xiphoid process, Acetabulum

(D) Acetabulum, Xiphoid process, Glenoid cavity, Coracoid process

Answer: (C)

20. It is alleged that Istanbul lost the bid to host 2020 Summer Olympic Game mainly due to these reasons :

I. Geopolitical uncertainties in neighbouring country

II. Poor presentation by their officials

III. Lesser economic resources

IV. Unsure of ability to provide

required standard of facilities Find the correct combination :

Codes :

(A) II & IV

(B) I & III

(C) II & III

(D) IV & I

Answer: (B)

21. Professional ethics in physical education includes :

I. Dedication to profession

II. Physical efficiency

III. Sociability

IV. Moral values

Find the correct combination :

Codes :

(A) I, II

(B) II, III

(C) I, IV

(D) II, IV

Answer: (C)

22. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Answer: (C)

23. The process of super-compensation involves

I. Optimum level of fatigue

II. Administering load

III. Rest and Recovery

IV. Compensation of energy

Arrange the above in proper sequential order :

Codes :

(A) II, I, III, IV

(B) I, II, III, IV

(C) III, IV, I, II

(D) IV, III, II, I

Answer: (A)

24. Select the correct combination of guidelines to be followed for asking questions during interview from the  codes given below :

Guidelines :

I. Questions should be ambiguous.

II. Questions should be unbiased.

III. Questions should be relevant.

IV. Questions should be short.

Codes :

(A) I, II and III

(B) II, III and IV

(C) II, IV and I

(D) IV, I and II

Answer: (B)

25. The test, measurement and evaluation are used to perform the following functions :

I. Determining status

II. Making comparison

III. Making appreciation

IV. Giving warning

Find out the correct combination from the following codes :

Codes :

(A) I, III

(B) I, IV

(C) II, III

(D) I, II

Answer: (D)

26. Find out the correct sequence from the codes given below :

Following are the main functions of sports management :

I. Controlling

II. Coordinating

III. Planning

IV. Organising

Codes :

(A) II, III, IV, I

(B) III, IV, II, I

(C) I, II, III, IV

(D) IV, I, II, III

Answer: (B)

27. Use the correct code given below :

Arrange the skeletal muscles sequentially in descending order :

I. Sterno mastoid

II. Trapezius

III. Quadriceps

IV. Gastrocnemius

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, I, III, IV

(C) III, IV, I, II

(D) IV, III, II, I

Answer: (A)

28. Carron has identified two basic systems for conceptualizing the leadership process. They are :

I. Influence system

II. Social system

III. Reward system

IV. Power system

Find the correct combination :

Codes :

(A) I and II

(B) I and III

(C) II and IV

(D) III and IV

Answer: (B)

29. The underlying factors governing training of advanced athletes are :

I. Growth and development

II. Environmental factors

III. Nature and volume of previous training

IV. Talent

Find the correct combination :

Codes :

(A) I, II

(B) III, IV

(C) II, IV

(D) I, III

Answer: (B)

30. Given below are some stages of acquisition of knowledge. Arrange them in a sequential order from the codes given below :

I. Analysis

II. Information

III. Evaluation

IV. Application

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, III, IV, I

(C) IV, I, II, III

(D) II, I, IV, III

Answer: (D)

31. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Physical Education is not only limited to physical development.

Reason (R) : Competitive Sports stress only on winning a competition.

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

32. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Circulatory system is also known as the system of Transportation.

Reason (R) : Heart sends O2 and digested food material to every cell and receives CO2 & wastes from cells.

In the context of two statements, which one of the following statements is correct ?

(A) Both (A) & (R) are right and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) & (R) are right, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(D) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

Answer: (A)

33. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Type – III lever provides advantage in form of speed.

Reason (R) : Type III lever has longer resistance arm.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

34. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Psychological core of personality is the deepest component which includes attributes, value, interests, motives and self-worth of an individual.

Reason (R) : Psychological core of personality is dynamic and external and make adjustment to the environment.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (C)

35. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Curriculum development at elementary school level should concentrate on perceptual motor learning
and movement education.

Reason (R) : Education is a life long process, and we continue to learn from experience throughout our lives.

In the context of two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

36. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Norms of a standard test provide means to assess the performance of an athlete.

Reason (R) : Values of norms of a standard test can not be changed by any one.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is true ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

37. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : First-aid and safety education should be the part of curriculum of school education.

Reason (R) : Knowledge of health and safety skills are required to face any emergency situation in life.

In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (R) is true and (A) is false.

(D) (A) is true and (R) is false.

Answer: (A)

38. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Degrees of freedom are the numbers of scores in a sample that are free to vary.

Reason (R) : ‘t’-value to test the level of significance depends on degrees of freedom.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

39. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Blood pressure is also used as a guide to the efficiency of the heart and blood vessels. Normal values
are 120 mm/80 mm.

Reason (R) : At systole, when the heart thrusts from the left ventricle into the aorta, the pressure is 120 mm. At diastole, the left ventricle is being refilled, the pressure is 80 mm.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(D) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

Answer: (B)

40. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : WADA coordinates doping programme at the National and International levels.

Reason (R) : WADA works to protect athletes from the harmful effects of performance-enhancing drugs and strives to create an equal opportunity in athletic competition.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (D)

41. Arrange the following schemes in a sequential order based on their chronological origination :

I. NSS

II. NDS

III. NCC

IV. NPFP

Codes :

(A) III, IV, II, I

(B) I, II, III, IV

(C) II, III, IV, I

(D) IV, III, II, I

Answer: (A)

42. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(A) Rejection of Null hypothesis when Ho is true – Type-I error

(B) Acceptance of Null hypothesis when Ho is false – Type-II error

(C) Acceptance of Null hypothesis when Ho is true – Type-I error

(D) Rejection of Null hypothesis when Ho is false

Answer: (C)

43. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (B)

44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (D)

45. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option using the codes given below :

Answer: (C)

46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Answer: (C)

47. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option using the codes given below :

Answer: (A)

48. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (A)

49. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Answer: (D)

50. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (D)

Yoga Classes in Doranda (Ranchi) Yoga Home Classes in Ranchi-Atmdarshan Yoga Kendra

Name: Yoga Home Classes in Ranchi-Atmdarshan Yoga Kendra

Area: Doranda

Pincode: 834002

Address: Yoga Home Classes in Ranchi-Atmdarshan Yoga Kendra, House no 276, Gauri shankar Nagar, North Office Para, Doranda, Ranchi, Landmark Near – St. Anthony School, Doranda, Ranchi, Jharkhand 834002

Contact Number: 094317 81023

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