UGC NET Exam December 2014 Physical Education Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

PHYSICAL EDUCATION

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Learning that results from input, better processing of the information that comes from input and feedback is referred to

(A) Psychoanalytic theory of learning

(B) Cybernetic theory of learning

(C) Reinforcement theory of learning

(D) Operant Conditioning theory of learning

Ans: (B)

2. The initial step in curriculum design is to

(A) Organize a curriculum committee

(B) Defining goals

(C) Defining objectives

(D) Defining a philosophy of physical education

Ans: (D)

3. In a gait cycle of walking the ratio of stance phase to swing phase is approximately

(A) 60 : 40

(B) 50 : 50

(C) 40 : 60

(D) 70 : 30

Ans: (A)

4. Following substances are ergogenic aid but find the one which is not approved by I.O.C. :

(A) Vitamin E

(B) Glutamine

(C) Caffeine

(D) Bicarbonate salts

Ans: (C)

5. Time of flight in projectile is calculated by

Ans: (D)

6. Personal sources of stress are

I. Event importance

II. Trait anxiety

III. Self-esteem

IV. Uncertainty

Find the correct answer :

Codes :

(A) I & II

(B) III & IV

(C) II & III

(D) I & IV

Ans: (C)

7. Taxonomy of behaviour of physical education teacher is developed by

(A) Stimulated training

(B) Workshop

(C) Refresher course

(D) Micro teaching

Ans: (A)

8. Vitamin B1 is also known as

(A) Calcium

(B) Thiamine

(C) Phosphorus

(D) Potassium

Ans: (B)

9. Which Hepatitis is slow killer ?

(A) Hepatitis-A

(B) Hepatitis-B

(C) Hepatitis-C

(D) Hepatitis-D

Ans: (C)

10. The main role of a Physical Education Teacher is identified with a

(A) Leader

(B) Planner

(C) Manager

(D) Motivator

Ans: (A)

11. Which of the following ability is both conditional and coordinative ?

(A) Flexibility

(B) Strength

(C) Speed

(D) Endurance

Ans: (C)

12. To test the hypothesis that group I is better than group II, which of the following statistical technique is appropriate ?

(A) One-tailed t-test

(B) Two tailed t-test

(C) F-test

(D) None of the above

Ans: (A)

13. Rationalisation theory of management unequivocally advocates

(A) Freedom of thought and action

(B) Division of responsibility

(C) Division of authority

(D) Right person for the right job

Ans: (A)

14. Intelligence Quotient is computed with which of the following formula ?

Ans: (C)

15. Physical characteristics of under 5 years children includes :

I. Children need frequent rest periods

II. Eye-hand co-ordination fully developed

III. Gender difference do not emerge

IV. Muscles of hands and fingers fully developed

Find the correct combination from the codes given below :

(A) Only I and II

(B) Only II, III and IV

(C) Only I, III and IV

(D) All are correct.

Ans: (C)

16. Find out correct agonist – antagonist pairs.

I. Trapezius – deltoid

II. Pactorals – latissimus dorsi

III. Adductor Magnus – Brevis

IV. Serratus anterior – Rhomboid

V. Soleus – gastrocnemius

(A) I, III and V

(B) III, IV and V

(C) II, III and V

(D) I, II and IV

Ans: (D)

17. Which of the following drugs are banned by I.O.C. as doping substance ?

I. Alcohol

II. Analgesics

III. Anabolic steroid

IV. Amphetamine

Find out the correct combination from the following codes :

Codes :

(A) I, II and IV are correct.

(B) II, III and IV are correct.

(C) III and IV are correct.

(D) I and III are correct.

Ans: (C)

18. Explanation of four terms are mentioned in ABCD below. Indicate the one which is wrongly matched :

Ans: (A)

19. Play theories are

I. Catharsis theory

II. Attribution theory

III. Psycho-analytic theory

IV. Individual zones of optimal functioning theory

Select the correct answer :

Codes :

(A) I & III

(B) II & IV

(C) II & III

(D) I & IV

Ans: (A)

20. Which of the following factors affect the structure of a training session ?

I. Climatic condition

II. Nutritional status

III. Environment

IV. Age of the trainee

Codes :

(A) I & IV

(B) I & II

(C) II & III

(D) II & IV

Ans: (A)

21. Intramural and extramural competitions are organised to accomplish different objectives :

I. Development of athletic talent

II. Development of institutional prestige

III. Development of athlete’s physical fitness

IV. Development of academic excellence

V. Achievement of educational objectives

Select the correct combination from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) I & II

(B) I & III

(C) I & IV

(D) I & V

Ans: (D)

22. A qualitative research question :

I. Is generally an open-ended question.

II. Asks a question about some process or phenomenon to be explored.

III. Is generally a closed-ended question.

IV. Is a contingency question.

Codes :

(A) I & III

(B) II & IV

(C) I & II

(D) I & IV

Ans: (C)

23. Criteria of a standard test involve :

I. Reliability

II. Complexity

III. Variability

IV. Norm

Select the correct combination.

(A) I & II

(B) II & III

(C) III & IV

(D) IV & I

Ans: (D)

24. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Fitness is a total concept which concerns the whole individual.

Reason (R) : Regular participation in physical activities contributes to physical development which means development of physical power, ability to recover and ability to resist fatigue.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) (A) is true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(B) (A) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

25. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other lablled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Muscles that pass across two joints are called bi-articular muscle.

Reason (R) : Two-joints muscle provides another type of human muscular coordination in the use of body lever.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following statement is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) : 

Assertion (A) : In the lungs O2 and CO2 exchange take place between capillary and lung alveoli.

Reason (R) : Due to pressure gradient of O2 and CO2 between alveoli and capillary, O2 enters and CO2 leaves the blood vessels.

In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is wrong.

(D) (A) is wrong, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

27. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : A champion sprinter is born and not made.

Reason (R) : Proper training, appropriate physical fitness and skill, conducive environment and mental make up play important role in shaping athletes.

In the context of the statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Each activity provides a gratifying outlet for some basic urge or need.

Reason (R) : The forms of recreation vary as widely as the interests of a single individual throughout his life time and as diverse as the differences between people.

Which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

29. Given below are two statements, one of which is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : School age children have developed cognitive abilities.

Reason (R) : Extracurricular activities effects on cognitive development.

In the context of two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (D)

30. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The training in the competition period aims at achieving and maintaining top form.

Reason (R) : Top form once achieved can last for a prolonged period of time.

In the context of two statements, which of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (C)

31. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data.

Reason (R) : Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participants’ own words.

Which of the following statement is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

32. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : An obese person has BMI more than 30.

Reason (R) : BMI indicates the nutritional status of a person.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (B)

33. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man.

Reason (R) : An effective teacher does not impose himself on the pupil with his superior wisdom and intelligence rather draws out the best in the pupil by creating right environment.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) (A) is true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(B) (A) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (B)

34. Focus of Physical Education has undergone change with passage of time. Arrange them in proper sequence using the codes given below :

I. Health oriented

II. Fitness oriented

III. Skill oriented

IV. Academic and research oriented

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, III, I, IV

(C) III, IV, II, I

(D) IV, III, II, I

Ans: (B)

35. Find the correct sequential order of the process of inspiration in our respiration :

I. Lung volume increases/pressure decreases

II. Air rushes in

III. Inter-costal muscles contract

IV. Diaphragm descends down

V. Sternum moves forward

Codes :

(A) II, I, V, III, IV

(B) I, II, IV, V, III

(C) IV, I, II, III, V

(D) IV, III, V, I, II

Ans: (D)

36. Put the following stages in a sequential order to indicate how a group becomes a team :

I. Storming

II. Norming

III. Forming

IV. Performing

Codes :

(A) III, I, II, IV

(B) II, III, IV, I

(C) I, II, III, IV

(D) IV, I, II, III

Ans: (A)

37. Which of these gives the correct sequence of phases in a ballistic movement ?

(A) Action, recovery, preparation

(B) Preparation, action, recovery

(C) Preparation, recovery, action

(D) Recovery, action, preparation

Ans: (B)

38. Fetal alcohol syndrome is associated with which of the following ?

(A) Leukaemia

(B) Hepatitis

(C) Phenylketonuria

(D) Developmental disabilities

Ans: (D)

39. Arrange the following measures of variability in a sequence :

I. Standard deviation

II. Range

III. Quartile deviation

IV. Average deviation

Codes :

(A) II, IV, III, I

(B) II, III, IV, I

(C) IV, III, II, I

(D) IV, II, III, I

Ans: (A)

40. Arrange the following tests in chronological order of their origination with the code given below :

I. Miller-Wall-Volly Test

II. Dyer Test

III. McDonald Soccer Test

IV. Barrow General Motor Ability Test

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, I, III, IV

(C) IV, III, II, I

(D) II, III, I, II

Ans: (B)

41. Arrange the following steps of organising an event in a proper sequence using the codes given below :

I. Assigning resources and responsibilities

II. Grouping of the tasks or responsibilities

III. Coordinating the activities and responsibilities

IV. Identifying specific tasks or activities

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, III, IV, I

(C) I, III, II, IV

(D) IV, II, I, III

Ans: (D)

42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Ans: (A)

43. Match the terms of List – I with that of List – II and indicate perfect matching out of ABCD below :

Ans: (A)

44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Ans: (D)

45. Make correct pairs :

Ans: (B)

46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option using the codes given below :

Ans: (C)

47. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Ans: (C)

48. Match the following pairs :

Ans: (C)

49. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Ans: (B)

50. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct option using the codes given below :

Ans: (ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT)

UGC NET Exam December 2014 Adult Education Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

ADULT EDUCATION

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which one is a component of ‘Adult Learning’ ?

(A) Face to face teaching

(B) Curriculum based teaching

(C) Stimulus and response based teaching

(D) Experimental teaching

Ans: (C)

2. What is the alternate name given to ‘Adult Teaching’ ?

(A) Remedial teaching

(B) Complete teaching

(C) Individual teaching

(D) Curricular teaching

Ans: (A)

3. Extension education is a form of

(A) Direct Education

(B) Non-formal Education

(C) General Education

(D) Individual Education

Ans: (B)

4. Who gave the statement ‘The isolated individual is a pigment of imagination’ ?

(A) Rement

(B) Ross

(C) Nunn

(D) Hagley

Ans: (A)

5. Who among the following has no association with ‘Bharat Gyan Vigyan Samiti’ ?

(A) K. Bhansali

(B) Yashpal

(C) M.P. Parmeswaram

(D) Krishna Kumar

Ans: (A)

6. Which of the following is not correct about Mahila Samakhya Programme ?

(A) It grew out of experiences of DWCRA.

(B) It helps women organise.

(C) Financial assistance to each woman is integral to the program.

(D) It helps create women leader.

Ans: (C)

7. World Health Day is celebrated on

(A) 7th March

(B) 11th August

(C) 7th April

(D) 10th June

Ans: (C)

8. Year in which Environment (Protection) Act was executed in India

(A) 1986

(B) 2013

(C) 1972

(D) 1988

Ans: (A)

9. ‘Gender’ is defined as

(A) A social construct

(B) A biological difference

(C) An achieved status

(D) An ascribed status

Ans: (A)

10. Extension education helps in

(A) Adoption of innovation

(B) Making people own decisions

(C) Using science and technology

(D) All of these

Ans: (D)

11. Which of the following state witnessed a litigation for equal pay for equal work for supervisors and instructors of literacy programme in 1987-1988 ?

(A) Haryana

(B) Punjab

(C) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Delhi

Ans: (A)

12. Determinant of population growth is

I. Family

II. Marriage

III. Birth rate

IV. Fertility

Codes :

(A) I, II are correct.

(B) I, II, III are correct.

(C) II, III, IV are correct.

(D) III, IV are correct.

Ans: (D)

13. Population Education deals with

I. Death rate

II. Population situation

III. Quality of life

IV. Economic growth

V. Ecological balance

Codes :

(A) I, II, III and V are correct.

(B) I, II and III are correct.

(C) I, II and IV are correct.

(D) II, III and V are correct.

Ans: (B)

14. Which of the following are more closer to ‘Extension Education’ ?

I. Out of school process

II. Voluntary

III. Teacher oriented

IV. Flexible

V. Learners are homogeneous

Codes :

(A) I, II and IV are correct.

(B) I, II and III are correct.

(C) II, III and IV are correct.

(D) III, IV and V are correct.

Ans: (A)

15. Hypothesis is a

I. Tentative answer to a proposed enquiry

II. Theory assumed for research

III. Method of data collection

IV. Method of marketing research

Codes :

(A) I and II

(B) III and IV

(C) II and IV

(D) IV and I

Ans: (A)

16. Which is the correct answer about Vietnam Literacy programme ?

I. Vietnam has 80% literacy in 2014.

II. Vietnam has 98% literacy in 2014.

III. Vietnam introduced popular literacy program.

IV. Vietnam started an ‘anti-literacy program’.

Codes :

(A) I and II

(B) IV and III

(C) II and IV

(D) I and IV

Ans: (C)

17. Aurobindo’s scheme of education asks for

I. Room for silence

II. Room for exercise

III. Room for prayer

IV. Room for lecture

Codes :

(A) I and II

(B) I and III

(C) I and IV

(D) III and IV

Ans: (D)

18. What is the correct answer about Paulo Friere’s understanding of education ?

I. Narrative character

II. Monologic nature

III. Dialogic nature

IV. Banking concept

Codes :

(A) I and II

(B) II and III

(C) IV and I

(D) II and IV

Ans: (C)

19. Training can be of

I. Refresher course

II. Short term course

III. Orientation course

IV. None of the above

Codes :

(A) I and II

(B) I, II and III

(C) II and III

(D) only IV

Ans: (B)

20. Adult learners are interested in

I. Problem solving education

II. Personal interest based education

III. Degree or Diploma centric education

IV. None of the above

Codes :

(A) I and II

(B) I and III

(C) II and III

(D) IV is correct

Ans: (A)

21. Assertion (A) : Philosophy paved the path of the growth of education.

Reason (R) : Idealism, Rationalism, Pragmatism failed to influence the growth of education.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(B) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(C) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Ans: (B)

22. Assertion (A) : Professional performance presumes the regular formalized exchange of information and experience among practitioners.

Reason (R) : Professional performance is guided by accepted system of work ethics and strong sense of public accountability.

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Ans: (D)

23. Assertion (A) : Literacy needs can be understood in both forms and substance.

Reason (R) : Control over reading and writing promotes access to the outside world and meaningful interaction.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Ans: (A)

24. Assertion (A) : Education is an agent of positive social change. 

Reason (R) : Social change is not a slow process.

Codes :

(A) (A) and (R) both are correct.

(B) (A) and (R) both are wrong.

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is wrong.

Ans: (C)

25. Assertion (A) : Adult learners share their experiences to each other.

Reason (R) : Group learning is encouraged in adult education.

Codes :

(A) (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(B) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is wrong.

Ans: (B)

26. Assertion (A) : Women constitute an important part of human resource of the country. 

Reason (R) : A large number of women are outside the reach of formal education.

Codes :

(A) (A) and (R) both are correct.

(B) (A) and (R) both are wrong.

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is wrong.

Ans: (A)

27. Match the following programmes given in List – I with the person given in List – II :

Ans: (A)

28. What are the broad objectives of Sakshar Bharat ?

I. Promotion of a learning society

II. Promotion of skill of non & neo-literates

III. Give functional literacy and numeracy to no-literate and non-numerate adults

IV. Promotion of continuing education and equivalency

Codes :

(A) I, II & III are correct.

(B) II, III and IV are correct.

(C) I, II, III and IV are correct.

(D) I, III and IV are correct.

Ans: (C)

29. What are the correct information about National Literacy Mission ?

I. Jan Sikshan Sansthan are part of NLM

II. NLM succeeded in achieving the 75% literacy in the country

III. The General Council of NLM is headed by the Cabinet Secretary

IV. The General Council of NLM is headed by HRD Ministers

Codes :

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) I and III are correct.

(C) II and III are correct.

(D) I and IV are correct.

Ans: (D)

30. Which of the following programmes are included in continuing programme ?

I. Equivalency

II. Income Generating

III. Sustainable Development

IV. Quality of Life Improvement

Codes :

(A) I, II and IV are correct.

(B) I, II and III are correct.

(C) II, III and IV are correct.

(D) I and III are correct.

Ans: (A)

31. Arrange the following Maslow’s hierarchy of needs in its correct order :

I. Shelter and Safety

II. Food

III. Esteem

IV. Love and belonging

V. Self Actualisation

Codes :

(A) II, I, IV, III, V

(B) I, II, IV, III, V

(C) II, IV, I, III, V

(D) I, IV, II, III, V

Ans: (A)

32. Arrange the following teaching steps in correct order :

I. Action

II. Interest

III. Attention

IV. Desire

V. Conviction

VI. Satisfaction

Codes :

(A) II, IV, III, I, V, VI

(B) III, II, IV, V, I, VI

(C) III, IV, II, I, V, VI

(D) II, III, IV, V, I, VI

Ans: (B)

33. Arrange the stages of research in order they are performed :

a. Generalisation

b. Data collection

c. Review of earlier work

d. Analysis

Codes :

(A) c b d a

(B) b d a c

(C) c d b a

(D) b a c d

Ans: (A)

34. Arrange the stages in Simulation (training) as they occur :

a. Learning materials arranged

b. Environment to let participants get into their role

c. Experience sharing

d. Place and person identified

Codes :

(A) d b c a

(B) d a b c

(C) d c a b

(D) d b a c

Ans: (B)

35. Arrange the phases of growth of adult literacy from earlier to latest in Indian context.

a. Developmental literacy

b. Functional literacy

c. Citizenship literacy

Codes :

(A) a b c

(B) b a c

(C) a c b

(D) c b a

Ans: (D)

36. What are correct statements about Sakshar Bharat Programme ?

i. It was started in 2007.

ii. It was started in 2009.

iii. It is primarily an adult women literacy program.

iv. It is primarily a women education program.

Codes :

(A) i and ii are correct.

(B) i and iii are correct.

(C) i and iv are correct.

(D) ii and iii are correct.

Ans: (D)

37. Match the following items given under List – I with the under List – II with the help of codes given below :

Ans: (A)

38. Match the following item given under List – I with the under List – II with the help of codes given below :

Ans: (C)

39. Match the following item under List – I with that of List – II with the help of codes given below :

Ans: (B)

40. Match the item under List – I with that of List – II by using the codes given below :

Ans: (D)

41. Match the following item given under List – I with the under List – II with the help of codes given below :

Ans: (D)

42. Match the following List – I with List – II by using the codes below :

Ans: (A)

43. Match the different teaching methods given under the List – II with their function given under the List – I with the help of given codes :

Ans: (B)

44. Match the following barriers to social change given under the List – II with List – I item :

Ans: (D)

45. Arrange the following international adult education programme chronologically :

a. Vietnam

b. China

c. Tanzania

d. Brazil

Codes :

(A) a b c d

(B) b c d a

(C) a c b d

(D) b c a b

Ans: (A)

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that followed based on your understanding of the passage (Q. 4650) :

The importance of Information, Education and Communication (IEC) in mobilizing people and in turn seeking their willing cooperation and participation is well recognised for any developmental programme. The main functions of communication considered in its broadest sense in any social system are information, socialization, motivation, education, debate and discussion, cultural promotion, entertainment and integration. Past studies show that communication has a vital role to play in the behavioural change as well. Its effective use has been an essential need for the success of any developmental programme. Thus to educate the target beneficiaries, related ‘Information’ is provided and disseminated to the audiences through various tools and inputs of ‘communication’ which includes inter-personal, group and mass communication. Looking at the importance of IEC, long back in 1966, “Mass Education Media Organisation” was established with in the newly established department of ‘Family Planning’. Since then, a series of IEC efforts have been made including introduction of ‘extension education approach’ for improving the outreach of the programme massages.

46. In this paragraph IEC stands for

(A) Informal Educational Communication

(B) Information Education Communication

(C) Information Educational Co-operation

(D) Information Education Co-operation

Ans: (B)

47. The importance of IEC in any developmental programme is to

(A) Mobilize people

(B) Motivate people for seeking co-operation

(C) Mobilize people for increasing their participation

(D) All of these

Ans: (D)

48. According to the writer of this paragraph communication is an important tool for

(A) Education, motivation and socialization

(B) Urbanisation and Modernisation

(C) Observation and Evaluation

(D) Expertization, Learning and Assessment

Ans: (A)

49. The writer in this paragraph has suggested that for educating the target beneficiaries

(A) All types of informations should be provided them.

(B) Important informations should be provided them.

(C) Basic informations should be provided them.

(D) Relevant informations should be provided them.

Ans: (D)

50. The writer has tried to highlight the importance of ‘Communication’ in

(A) Improving the quality of life of the people

(B) Making social harmony in the society

(C) Educating people for improving the ‘outreach’ of the developmental programmes

(D) Making people economically sound.

Ans: (C)

UGC NET Exam December 2014 Linguistics Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

LINGUISTIC

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Arbitrariness as a feature of language means that

(A) Words are mixed randomly in communication.

(B) The meanings of words changes frequently.

(C) There is no necessary connection between the form of a word and its meaning.

(D) There is an inherent connection between words and their meanings.

Ans: (C)

2. In the sentence ‘somebody stole my folder’, ‘somebody’ is a

(A) Common noun

(B) Proper noun

(C) Indefinite pronoun

(D) Demonstrative pronoun

Ans: (C)

3. In which function of communication ‘Addresser’ is the target factor ?

(A) Referential

(B) Emotive

(C) Conative

(D) Metalingual

Ans: (B)

4. Vakyapadiya has been authored by

(A) Yask

(B) Patanjali

(C) Nagesha

(D) Bhartrihari

Ans: (D)

5. Assertion (i) : In the sentence ‘My friend baked the cake’, the word ‘the’ is a definite article.

Assertion (ii) : The words ‘a’, ‘an’ and ‘the’ are examples of content words.

Codes :

(A) Both (i) and (ii) are true.

(B) (i) is true, but (ii) is false.

(C) (i) is false, but (ii) is true.

(D) Both (i) and (ii) are false.

Ans: (B)

6. The famous claim ;

‘The Sanskrit language, whatever be its antiquity, is of a wonder structure; more perfect than Greek, more copious than the Latin, and mere delicately refined than either…… was made by

(A) Leonard Bloom field

(B) Roy Harris

(C) William Jones

(D) Edward Sapir

Ans: (C)

7. The terms ‘stress’, ‘pitch’ and ‘intonation’ are called

(A) Segmental features

(B) Suprasegmental features

(C) Distinctive features

(D) Extra-linguistic features

Ans: (B)

8. Assertion (i) : An alternate sign language is the first language of a group that does not have access to spoken language.

Assertion (ii) : A primary sign language is a system of gestures for use in certain contexts where speech cannot be used, and is developed by people who use speech in normal circumstances.

Codes :

(A) Both (i) and (ii) are false.

(B) Both (i) and (ii) are true.

(C) (i) is false, but (ii) is true.

(D) (ii) is false, but (i) is true.

Ans: (A)

9. The following languages are written in the Devanagari script.

(A) Hindi, Sanskrit, Khasi

(B) Hindi, Brahmi, Pashto.

(C) Hindi, Pali, Manipuri.

(D) Hindi, Sanskrit, Dogri.

Ans: (D)

10. The English phonemes /f/ and /z/ differ in the following aspect/s.

(A) Place of articulation

(B) Manner of articulation

(C) Manner of articulation and voicing

(D) Place of articulation and voicing

Ans: (D)

11. During the process of Nasalization ______

(A) The air is fully released through the nasal passage.

(B) The air is released through both the nasal passage and oral passage.

(C) The air is partially released through the mouth.

(D) The air is partially released through the nasal passage.

Ans: (B)

12. Pick out the odd set off words from among the following :

(A) front; back

(B) aspirated; unaspirated

(C) rounded; unrounded

(D) low; high

Ans: (B)

13. The words ‘house’ and ‘mouse’ can be referred to as

(A) Minimal pair

(B) Homophones

(C) Disyllabic words

(D) Allophones

Ans: (A)

14. /r/ and /l/ are two independent phonemes in a language but in a few contexts e.g. /di:va:r/, /di:va:l/ the two items occur in free variation. How will you account for this process ?

(A) Merger

(B) Convergence

(C) Neutralization

(D) Coalesce

Ans: (C)

15. Morphological typology refers to the ‘classification’ languages on the basis of

(i) the nature and function of morphemes used in the languages.

(ii) polysynthetic languages give hard time to the morphologists for the concatenation of morphemes.

(iii) Isolating languages show abundant use of bound morphemes.

(iv) Inflectional languages use plenty of portmanteau morphemes.

Codes :

(A) Only (i) and (iv) are correct.

(B) Only (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

(D) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.

Ans: (C)

16. Match the following :

Ans: (D)

17. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II. Then choose the correct answer from the codes :

Ans: (D)

18. Assertion (i) : Base in morphology accepts ‘derivational marker’ while ‘stem’ can take ‘inflectional marker’.

Assertion (ii) : Once the inflectional marker is added to a morpheme, no further derivation of that morpheme is possible.

Codes :

(A) Only (i) is true, (ii) is false.

(B) Only (ii) is true, (i) is false.

(C) Both (i) and (ii) are true.

(D) Both (i) and (ii) are false.

Ans: (C)

19. The sound variants which are within the one set and so are not mutually contrastive are regarded as

(A) archiphonemes

(B) allophones

(C) antiphonemes

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

20. The aspects model is related to

(A) Standard Theory

(B) Extended Standard Theory

(C) Revised Extended Standard Theory

(D) Government and Binding

Ans: (A)

21. Match the items from List-I with List-II and select the correct items from the codes given below :

Ans: (D)

22. According to G-B theory, the case-assigner categories are

(i) INFL

(ii) Verb

(iii) Noun

(iv) Preposition

Codes :

(A) Both (i) and (iv)

(B) Only (iii)

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D) (iv), (iii) and (i)

Ans: (C)

23. A di-transitive verb as per the subcategorization rule/principle has following number of arguments(s) :

(A) One argument

(B) Zero argument

(C) Two arguments

(D) Three arguments

Ans: (C)

24. Transformations convert

(A) Surface structure to Deep Structure

(B) Deep Structure to Surface Structure

(C) Both from Deep to surface Structure and from Surface Structure to Deep Structure.

(D) Neither from Deep to Surface Structure and nor from Surface to Deep Structure.

Ans: (B)

25. Match the items in the List-I with those of List-II

Ans: (A)

26. Which of the following is an example of relative opposition ?

(A) Tenant – Landlord

(B) Animal – Lion

(C) Smoker – Non-smoker

(D) Alive – Dead

Ans: (A)

27. Relation between a pair of propositions such that the truth of the second proposition necessarily follows from the truth of the first.

(A) Presupposition

(B) Entailment

(C) Focus

(D) Projection

Ans: (B)

28. Match the linguistic expressions from List-I and the functions of these expression in List-II.

Ans: (C)

29. Which of the following is not a test to distinguish presupposition from assertion, implicature, maxims of conversation and speech acts

(A) Negation test

(B) Variation of speech act test

(C) Tensed sentence test

(D) Conjunction test with ‘and’

Ans: (C)

30. In sound changes, the term ‘syncope’ refers to

(A) the deletion of a vowel/consonant from the interior of a word.

(B) the addition of a vowel in the beginning of a word.

(C) the deletion of a vowel from the initial position of a word.

(D) the deletion of a vowel at the end of the word.

Ans: (A)

31. Assertion (i) : In a process of sound change ‘Lenition’ refers to weakening of a sound to its original counterpart.

Reason (ii) : A process of sound change in which ‘stops’ and ‘affricates’ change to fricatives is also sound weakening.

Codes :

(A) Only (i) is true, (ii) is false.

(B) Only (ii) is true, (i) is false.

(C) Both (i) and (ii) are true.

(D) Both (i) and (ii) are false.

Ans: (C)

32. Panini authored

(A) Mahabhasya

(B) Ash adhyayi

(C) Nagesa

(D) Patanjali

Ans: (B)

33. ‘Case syncretism’ refers to a process in which

(A) One case-marker changes to other.

(B) Two or more cases merge to one form.

(C) Semantics of cases are altered.

(D) Morphological cases are deleted.

Ans: (B)

34. Assertion (i) : Passive construction facilitates as to hide the action done by the agent.

Reason (ii) : Most Newspaper headlines are in passive-forms precisely due to the reason.

Codes :

(A) Both (i) & (ii) are false.

(B) Both (i) & (ii) are true.

(C) Only (i) is true, (ii) is false.

(D) Only (ii) is true, (i) is false.

Ans: (B)

35. Assertion (i) : A cognate is a word in a language that has a similar form with another language and is (was) used with similar meaning.

Reason (ii) : In most Indian languages words such as ‘bus’ ‘station’ ‘platform’ etc. from English language are cognates.

Codes :

(A) Both (i) & (ii) are true.

(B) Only (ii) is true, (i) is false.

(C) Only (i) is true, (ii) is false.

(D) Both (i) and (ii) are false.

Ans: (C)

36. The compound verbs in South Asian languages demand that

(i) there has to be minimum two verbs.

(ii) both V1 and V2 can be tense-inflected.

(iii) the meaning of V1 should be the meaning of compound verb.

(iv) only V2 takes the inflectional markers.

(A) all the above are true.

(B) only (i) and (ii) are true.

(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true.

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are false.

Ans: (C)

37. The term CALQUE refers to

(A) Borrowing Money

(B) Lending

(C) Loan shift

(D) Loan translation

Ans: (D)

38. ‘Ergativity’, where the subject of intransitive verb is case marked in similar way to the direct object and differently from the subject of transitive verb was proposed by

(A) R. Dixon

(B) M. Emaneau

(C) C.A. Ferguson

(D) L. BloomField

Ans: (A)

39. Assertion (i) : A ‘Register’ is illustrative of ‘use’ oriented variation in language.

Assertion (ii) : The use of a ‘register’ depends on the context of use, the topic, as well as the field.

Codes :

(A) Both (i) and (ii) are true.

(B) Both (i) and (ii) are false.

(C) (i) is true, but (ii) is false.

(D) (i) is false, but (ii) is true.

Ans: (A)

40. A basilect is best defined as

(A) a highly conservative version of Creole.

(B) a variety of language used by baseball players.

(C) the base form of a language.

(D) a variety of language used by a particular religion.

Ans: (A)

41. According to the structuralist, which of the following is not true with regard to child language acquisition ?

(A) Language is a result of conditioning.

(B) The mind of an infant is a tabula rasa.

(C) Children have an innate capacity to acquire a language.

(D) Language is acquired through imitation.

Ans: (C)

42. The study with its field concerned with acquired disorders of language associated with neurological damage is

(A) speech pathology

(B) Neuro linguistics

(C) Aphasiology

(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

43. ‘Diglossia’ is a term used to refer to the use of the following varieties of a language :

(A) High and Low

(B) Dialect and Idiolect

(C) Spoken variety and written variety

(D) Living variety and Extinct variety

Ans: (A)

44. Assertion (i) : Linguistic variation that is due to the context or topic is called stylistic variation.

Assertion (ii) : Linguistic variation that is due to the age and gender of the speaker is called Interactionally determined variation.

Codes :

(A) Only (i) is correct.

(B) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.

(C) (i) is correct, but (ii) is incorrect.

(D) (i) is incorrect, but (ii) is correct.

Ans: (A & C)

45. The term ‘inter language’ refers to a variety of language :

(A) used by adolescents for in-group communication.

(B) used by infants before they begin to use complete sentences.

(C) used by tourists for international communication.

(D) used by speakers at an intermediate stage of language learning.

Ans: (D)

46. Identify the correct sequence of Child Language Acquisition, from the given choices :

1. Babbling

2. Holophrastic stage

3. Cooing

4. Two word stage

Codes :

(A) 3, 1, 2, 4

(B) 1, 3, 2, 4

(C) 2, 3, 4, 1

(D) 4, 2, 1, 3

Ans: (A)

47. Which language teaching method ended up ‘teaching about the language’ instead of ‘teaching the language” ?

(A) Grammar Translation method

(B) Direct method

(C) Audio Lingual method

(D) Suggestopedia

Ans: (A)

48. Dyslexia is reportedly rare among learners of a language in which there is one to one correspondence between a sound and a letter.

(A) True

(B) False

(C) Open-ended

(D) To be verified

Ans: (A)

49. Parsing is meant to identify ______ in a sentence.

(A) clauses

(B) phrases

(C) lexemes

(D) idioms

Ans: (B)

50. Match the following :

Ans: (A)

UGC NET Exam December 2014 English Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

ENGLISH

Paper – II 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Two of the following list are “Angry Young Men” of the 1950’s British literary scene.

I. John Osborne

II. C.P. Snow

III. Anthony Powell

IV. Kingsley Amis

The right combination, according to the code

(A) I & II

(B) II & IV

(C) I & IV

(D) I & III

Ans: (C)

2. Laurence Sterne’s Tristram Shandy contains

(A) Six volumes

(B) Nine volumes

(C) Ten volumes

(D) Four volumes

Ans: (B)

3. Which of the following statement is NOT true of Areopagitica ?

(A) It was published in 1644.

(B) It argues for the liberty of Unlicensed Printing.

(C) It pleads for British privileges regarding Free Trade.

(D) It is a speech addressed to the Parliament of England.

Ans: (C)

4. Thomas Hardy’s last major novel was _______.

(A) Tess of the D’urbervilles

(B) Jude the Obscure

(C) The Return of the Native

(D) The Trumpet Major

Ans: (B)

5. The Hind and the Panther Transvers’d to the Story of the Country Mouse and the City Mouse is a satire on

(A) Alexander Pope

(B) Jonathan Swift

(C) John Dryden

(D) Samuel Butler

Ans: (C)

6. Match the columns :

Ans: (A)

7. In King Lear who among the following speaks in the voice of Poor Tom ?

(A) Kent

(B) Edgar

(C) Edmund

(D) Gloucester

Ans: (B)

8. In Wordsworth’s Prelude the Boy of Winander is affected by

(A) Blindness

(B) Deafness

(C) Muteness

(D) Lameness

Ans: (C)

9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as part of the London locale in The Waste Land ?

(A) St. Magnus Martyr

(B) King Arthur Street

(C) St. Mary Woolnoth

(D) Lower Thames Street

Ans: (B)

10. Which of the following novels is NOT written by Jean Rhys ?

(A) After Leaving Mr. Mackenzie

(B) Good Morning, Midnight

(C) The Quiet American

(D) Wide Sargasso Sea

Ans: (C)

11. The first official royal Poet Laureate in English literary history was _______.

(A) Ben Jonson

(B) William Davenant

(C) John Dryden

(D) Thomas Shadwell

Ans: (C)

12. Who does Alexander Pope refer to in the following lines ?

“Born to no pride; inheriting no strife,

Nor marrying discord in a noble wife,

Stranger to civil and religious rage,

The good man walked innoxious through his age.”

(A) Pope’s father

(B) Pope himself

(C) Dr. Arbuthnot

(D) The Duke of Marlborough

Ans: (A)

13. The Theory of Natural Selection is attributed to ________.

(A) Arthur Schopenhauer

(B) Charles Darwin

(C) A.N. Whitehead

(D) Aldous Huxley

Ans: (B)

14. Which character in William Golding’s Lord of the Flies maintains, “Life is scientific” ?

(A) Simon

(B) Piggy

(C) Ralph

(D) Jack

Ans: (B)

15. Match the authors under List – I with the titles under List – II :

Ans: (C)

16. How did Chaucer’s Pardoner make his living ?

(A) By selling stolen cattle from the neighbourhood ottery

(B) By selling indulgences to those who committed sins

(C) By pardoning those who stole property or committed other crimes

(D) By assisting the Friar in Church services

Ans: (B)

17. From among the following, identify Coleridge’s companion in a fanciful scheme to establish a Utopian community of free love on the banks of the Susquehaina river ?

(A) Lord Byron

(B) Robert Southey

(C) William Hazlitt

(D) William Wordsworth

Ans: (B)

18. Which of the following novels by H.G. Wells is about the condition of England as Empire ?

(A) The Island of Dr. Moreau

(B) The War of the Worlds

(C) Tono-Bungay

(D) The Invisible Man

Ans: (C)

19. Joothan by Om Prakash Valmiki is

(A) a collection of poems

(B) a play

(C) an autobiography

(D) a novel

Ans: (C)

20. Listed below are some English plays across several centuries :

Twelfth Night, She Stoops to Conquer, The Importance of Being Earnest, Pygmalion and Blithe Spirit.

What is common to them ?

(A) All problem plays; scheming and intrigue

(B) All tragedies; sin and redemption

(C) All ideologically framed; class and gender

(D) All romantic comedies; love and laughter

Ans: (D)

21. Who among the following wrote a poem comparing a lover’s heart to a hand grenade ?

(A) John Donne

(B) Abraham Cowley

(C) Wilfred Owen

(D) Robert Graves

Ans: (B)

22. The Uncertainty Principle is attributed to

(A) William James

(B) John Dewey

(C) Werner Heisenberg

(D) Charles Darwin

Ans: (C)

23. “Jabberwocky” is a creation in _______.

(A) Edward Lear’s poetry

(B) Lewis Carroll’s work

(C) Charles Dickens’s Martin Chuzzlewit

(D) Thomas Hardy’s Woodlanders

Ans: (B)

24. Who are Didi and Gogo ?

(A) They are two characters in Endgame.

(B) They are nicknames, respectively, for Lucky and Pozzo.

(C) They are nicknames, respectively, for Vladimir and Estragon.

(D) They are two characters in Breath.

Ans: (C)

25. Who among the following theorists talks about “the circulation of social energy” ?

(A) Raymond Williams

(B) Stephen Greenblatt

(C) Antonio Gramsci

(D) Haydon White

Ans: (B)

26. How many legends of good women could Chaucer complete in his The Legend of Good Women ?

(A) Six

(B) Seven

(C) Eight

(D) Nine

Ans: (D)

27. The Round Table is a collection of essays jointly written by ________.

(A) Charles Lamb and William Hazlitt

(B) Charles Lamb and Leigh Hunt

(C) William Hazlitt and Leigh Hunt

(D) William Hazlitt and Thomas de Quincey

Ans: (C)

28. Dylan Thomas is associated with the group _______.

(A) The New Apocalypse

(B) The Black Arts

(C) The Movement

(D) Deep Image Poetry

Ans: (A)

29. Which of the following writers writes from Canada ?

(A) V.S. Naipaul

(B) Margaret Atwood

(C) Derek Walcott

(D) James Joyce

Ans: (B)

30. “The boast of heraldry, the pomp of power, And all that beauty, all that wealth e’er gave, Awaits alike the inevitable hour The paths of glory lead but to the grave.”

What is the subject of awaits ?

(A) Hour

(B) The things mentioned in the first 2 lines.

(C) “And all that beauty, all that wealth e’er gave”

(D) Grave

Ans: (A)

31. “Heav’n has no rage, like love to hatred turn’d / Nor Hell a fury, like a woman scorn’d.”

Identify the text in which the above quote occurs :

(A) The Double-Dealer

(B) The Way of the World

(C) The Mourning Bride

(D) Love for Love

Ans: (C)

32. A Young Lady’s Entrance into the World is the sub-title of _______.

(A) Belinda

(B) Cecilia

(C) Evelina

(D) Camilla

Ans: (C)

33. “The old order changeth, yielding place to new” is from ________.

(A) “Morte d’Arthur”

(B) “Idylls of the King”

(C) “Paracelsus”

(D) “Asolando”

Ans: (B)

34. Which of the following cannot be classified as fantasy fiction ?

(A) The Inheritors (William Golding)

(B) The Magus (John Fowles)

(C) The Lord of the Rings (J.R.R. Tolkein)

(D) The History Man (Malcolm Bradbury)

Ans: (D)

35. Philosophy of Symbolic Forms is a work associated with _______.

(A) Wilhelm von Humboldt

(B) Ernst Cassirer

(C) Immanuel Kant

(D) Battista Vico

Ans: (B)

36. Which of the following facts is NOT true of Spenser ?

(A) He is a kind of English Homer, telling stories of heroic confrontations.

(B) He fashioned an original verse form : The Spenserian Stanza.

(C) He opposed England’s break with the Roman Catholic Church.

(D) He is a Christian poet.

Ans: (C)

37. William Blake developed the ideas of “Prolifics” and “Devourers” in

(A) Jerusalem

(B) Milton

(C) Marriage of Heaven and Hell

(D) Songs of Innocence and Songs of Experience

Ans: (C)

38. Surrealism is associated with

(A) Ernst Cassirer

(B) Tristan Tzara

(C) Henrik Ibsen

(D) Andre Breton

Ans: (D)

39. “And miles to go before I sleep” is a line from a poem by

(A) Emily Dickinson

(B) Walt Whitman

(C) Ralph Waldo Emerson

(D) Robert Frost

Ans: (D)

40. What common link do you find among

“The Disquieting Muses” by Sylvia Plath,

“The Starry Night” by Anne Sexton,

“Mourning Picture” by Adrienne Rich, and “Musee des Beaux Arts” by W.H. Auden ?

(A) They inspired paintings.

(B) They are confessional poems.

(C) They are all inspired by paintings.

(D) They are all inspired by Van Gogh’s paintings.

Ans: (C)

41. “All Rising to Great Place is by a _____ staire.” (Francis Bacon) 

(A) Murky

(B) Winding

(C) Crooked

(D) Sinister

Ans: (B)

42. In Jeremy Collier’s 1698 pamphlet attacking the immorality and profaneness of the English stage, who among the following was the principal target ?

(A) William Congreve

(B) John Dryden

(C) John Vanbrugh

(D) William Wycherley

Ans: (C)

43. Charles Dickens’s visit to the United States produced _________.

(A) Hard Times

(B) Nicholas Nickleby

(C) Martin Chuzzlewit

(D) Oliver Twist

Ans: (C)

44. Who among the following is a working-class poet ?

(A) John Betjeman

(B) Tony Harrison

(C) Thom Gunn

(D) Robert Graves

Ans: (B)

45. New Science is a work associated with _______.

(A) Ernest Cassirer

(B) Wilhelm von Humboldt

(C) G. Battista Vico

(D) Immanuel Kant

Ans: (C)

46. Identify Petrarch’s sonnet sequence from among the following :

(A) Rine Sparse

(B) Astrophel and Stella

(C) Amoretti

(D) Delia

Ans: (A)

47. The island setting of Latmos figures in Keats’s

(A) Endymion

(B) The Eve of St. Agnes

(C) Lamia

(D) Hyperion

Ans: (A)

48. The Artist Hero is a theatrical creation emphasized by ________.

(A) W.B. Yeats

(B) Charles Baudelaire

(C) Oscar Wilde

(D) Andre Gide

Ans: (ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT)

49. Which of the following African writers won the Nobel Prize for Literature ?

(A) Chinua Achebe

(B) Nadine Gordimer

(C) Ngugi wa Thiong’o

(D) Bessie Head

Ans: (B)

50. “My lute, be as thou wert when thou didst grow With thy green mother in some shady groove”
– William DrummondThe above quote is an example of _______.

(A) End-stopped rhyme

(B) Alliteration

(C) Run-on line

(D) Tercet

Ans: (C)

UGC NET Exam December 2014 Management Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

MANAGEMENT

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. In the market-oriented system, for the allocation of resources which one of the following is the most appropriate conveyor of information ?

(A) Finance Ministry

(B) Central Bank

(C) Market Price

(D) Advertisement Expenditure

Ans: (C)

2. A company supplies 20 units of a particular product per month, at a price of Rs 10 per unit. If price elasticity of supply is 5, how many units would the company supply at a price of Rs 15 ?

(A) 50

(B) 70

(C) 40

(D) 5

Ans: (B)

3. Which characteristic is not likely to be a part of perfect competition ?

(A) Absence of interdepence

(B) Deadweight loss is non-existent

(C) Strong rivalry

(D) Absence of advertisement

Ans: (C)

4. Match the items given in List – I and List – II by considering which of the following are macroeconomic issues and which are microeconomic ones :

Ans: (D)

5. In the recent years, world economy has witnessed the influence of unconventional monetary policy of the U.S.A. This policy stance is known as

(A) Bank rate

(B) Taylor rule

(C) Reserve requirement

(D) Quantitative easing

Ans: (D)

6. Rita, a young enthusiastic manager has joined an organization as a project co-ordinator. The project head counsels her to socialize less with non-management employees; whereas the product head tells her to learn more about market issues. She should socialize more with the non-management employees. Rita is confused, she is facing

(A) Inter-role conflict

(B) Intra-role conflict

(C) Interdepartmental conflict

(D) Hierarchical conflict

Ans: (B)

7. List – I consists of Motivation theories and List – II consists of the Motivation theorists. You have to match them and indicate the correct match as per code :

Ans: (A)

8. The conflict over content and goals of the work is called

(A) Functional conflict

(B) Process conflict

(C) Relationship conflict

(D) Task conflict

Ans: (D)

9. _________ theory of motivation ignores the inner state of the individual and concentrates solely on what happens when he or she takes some action.

(A) Equity

(B) Expectancy

(C) Goal-setting

(D) Reinforcement

Ans: (D)

10. In the “Big Five” personality factors widely accepted personality traits are mentioned. The trait of being dependable, organized, conforming and persevering on tasks is called 

(A) Extroversion

(B) Conscientiousness

(C) Agreeableness

(D) Emotional stability

Ans: (B)

11. Given below are four statements. Some of the statements are incorrect. You have to choose the correct one.

(A) A satisfied employee is a motivated employee.

(B) Employees who are happy “being around” are good contributors to the organization.

(C) Motivated employees do not need engagement.

(D) Customer loyalty has been found to be positively correlated with employee engagement.

Ans: (D)

12. The author of the book ‘The World is Flat : A Brief History of the Twenty First Century’ is 

(A) Thomas L. Friedman

(B) Raghuram Rajan

(C) Michael Armstrong

(D) Vineet Nayyar

Ans: (A)

13. ESOP stands for __________ and was developed by __________

(A) Employee Stock Ownership Plans; Wallace Forbes

(B) Employee Stock Ownership Programs; Louis Kelso

(C) Employee Stock Ownership Plans; Louis Kelso

(D) Employee Share Ownership Programs; Louis Kelso

Ans: (C)

14. Match items given in List – I, with those in List – II :

Ans: (A)

15. Match the items of List – I and List – II :

Ans: (B)

16. Consider the following two statements :

Statement I : Bond value would decline when the market rate of interest rises.

Statement II : There is a positive relationship between the value of a bond and the interest rate .

Select the correct code :

Codes :

(A) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.

(B) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(C) Statement II is correct, but Statement I is incorrect.

(D) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.

Ans: (B)

17. Match the following techniques of capital budgeting given in List – I, with one of the Characteristics given in List – II and select the correct code :

Ans: (B)

18. In the case of redeemable debentures issued at discount and to be redeemed at par, approximate cost of debenture (before tax adjustment) will be equal to

Ans: (D)

19. While granting the term loan, if lending institution puts a condition to reduce the debtequity ratio by issuing additional equity share-capital or preference share capital, it is known as

(A) asset-related restrictive covenant

(B) cash flow related restrictive covenant

(C) control related restrictive covenant

(D) liability related restrictive covenant

Ans: (D)

20. According to Lintner’s model of corporate dividend behaviour, the dividend for the year ‘t’ is dependent on :

I. earnings per share for the year t

II. dividend per share for the year t-1

III. adjustment rate

IV. target pay-out ratio

V. market price of share

Select the correct code :

(A) I, II and III are correct.

(B) II, III, IV and V are correct.

(C) I, II, III and IV are correct.

(D) I, II, IV and V are correct.

Ans: (C)

21. Which of the following concepts holds that consumers prefer the products which are easily available and are inexpensive ?

(A) The product concept

(B) The production concept

(C) The selling concept

(D) The marketing concept

Ans: (B)

22. ________ is the added value endowed to a product or service.

(A) Brand equity

(B) Brand image

(C) Brand loyalty

(D) Brand preference

Ans: (A)

23. Match the items/persons included in List – I with the items in List – II and indicate the correct pairing through codes given below :

Ans: (D)

24. The step after ‘concept testing’ in the new product development process is

(A) Business analysis

(B) Marketing strategy development

(C) Product development

(D) Test marketing

Ans: (B)

25. When the total market expands, the _________ usually gains the most.

(A) Market challenger

(B) Market leader

(C) Market follower

(D) Market nicher

Ans: (B)

26. ‘Large output per unit of space’ is an orientation of which type of plant layout ?

(A) Product layout

(B) Process layout

(C) Fixed-Position layout

(D) Cellular layout

Ans: (A)

27. Which of the following steps is the first step in production scheduling ?

(A) Sequencing

(B) Loading

(C) Expediting

(D) Classifying

Ans: (B)

28. A defence equipment manufacturing company uses bolts at a constant rate of 10000 kg per year. The bolt cost ` 80 per kg and the company estimates that it costs Rs 400 to place an order and the carrying cost of inventory is 10 percent per year. How frequently should orders for bolts be placed ?

(A) 5

(B) 10

(C) 15

(D) 20

Ans: (B)

29. The number of allocated cells in the optimal solution table of a transportation problem having m origins and n destinations is

(A) m + n – 1

(B) m + n –1 or more

(C) m + n –1 or less

(D) m + n

Ans: (C)

30. The co-efficient of artificial variable in a Maximization problem of LP is

(A) M

(B) –M

(C) 0

(D) 1

Ans: (B)

31. If p = 0.6 for a particular Bernouli process, the calculation indicates the probability of happening of

(A) 5 or more successes in eight trials

(B) 3 or more successes in eight trials

(C) Exactly 5 successes in eight trials

(D) Exactly 3 successes in eight trials

Ans: (C)

32. Chebyshev’s theorem provides that at least 89% of the values will lie within ± 3 standard deviations from the mean for

(A) Bell-shaped distributions

(B) Positively-skewed distributions

(C) Negatively-skewed distributions

(D) All distributions

Ans: (D)

33. How many degrees of freedom should be used to apply chi-square test statistic on a contingency table, having 5 rows and 4 columns ?

(A) 20

(B) 12

(C) 7

(D) 9

Ans: (B)

34. The ________ and its alternative provides the ability to serve dynamic content to browsers.

(A) Common Gateway Interface

(B) Cryptography

(C) General Pocket Radio Service

(D) Cellular Digital Pocket Data

Ans: (A)

35. Which is the most suitable domain extension for an Indian NGO to do e-business ?

(A) .gov

(B) .com

(C) .org

(D) .us

Ans: (C)

36. At which level in the company should market-oriented strategic planning begin ?

(A) Corporate level

(B) SBU level

(C) Marketing Department’s level

(D) Brand Manager’s level

Ans: (B)

37. Which of the following statements is not true ?

(A) A group of firms following the same strategy in a market is called a ‘strategicgroup’.

(B) The members of strategic group are the key competitors.

(C) The type of competition among them is known as generic competition.

(D) The height of entry barriers differ for each group.

Ans: (C)

38. In India Proctor & Gamble (P & G) (Home products division) is following the strategy of

(A) Cost leadership

(B) Differentiation

(C) Broad differentiation

(D) Focussed differentiation

Ans: (C)

39. Today, mobile phones have many features such as camera, GPS, Internet, music and video recording. This is an example of

(A) Convertibility of Industries

(B) Combination of Industries

(C) Competition among Industries

(D) Convergence of Industries

Ans: (D)

40. An organisation that is downsizing to reduce cost is implementing a strategy of

(A) Growth

(B) Focus

(C) Renewal

(D) Stability

Ans: (C)

41. Who propounded entrepreneurship as a theory of business ?

(A) Daniel Goleman

(B) Joseph A. Schumpeter

(C) Thomas A. Coleman

(D) Warren Buffet

Ans: (B)

42. Who among the following is not the first generation entrepreneur ?

(A) Dhirubhai Ambani

(B) Shiv Nadar

(C) K. Anji Reddy

(D) G.D. Birla

Ans: (D)

43. Which of the following is not a possible route to market entry for a small business owner/entrepreneur ?

(A) Franchise

(B) Corporate Venture

(C) Outright Purchase

(D) Buy-out

Ans: (B)

44. The number of items which can be exclusively manufactured in the small scale sector are

(A) 20 items

(B) 35 items

(C) 50 items

(D) 62 items

Ans: (A)

45. Which of the following is an external reason for the sickness of a small business ?

(A) Choice of an idea

(B) Inadequate finance

(C) Volatile business environment

(D) Lack of vertical and horizontal integration

Ans: (C)

46. In view of competitive global economy, corporations are involved in cost cutting, corporate restructuring, mergers and acquisitions and downsizing. All these activities canbe carried out successfully only if there is proper

(A) Business Ethics

(B) Ethical Audit

(C) Corporate Social Responsibility

(D) Corporate Governance

Ans: (D)

47. Statement (A) : Law and moral standards overlap to a certain extent.

Statement (B) : Law represents a minimum set of standards for regulating human behaviour in society.

(A) (A) and (B) both are incorrect.

(B) (A) is correct but (B) is not the right explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (B) is the right explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is incorrect and (B) is a correct statement in isolation.

Ans: (C)

48. In order to check the growing unethical practices in the field of information technology, the first cyber law passed in India is

(A) Information Technology Act

(B) Anti-hacking Law

(C) Cyber Law

(D) E-commerce Law

Ans: (A)

49. Match the items of two lists, indicating the correct code :

Ans: (A)

50. Which of the following is not a principle of CSR ?

(A) Protecting Environment

(B) Avoiding price discrimination

(C) Promotional activities

(D) Adopting the labour policies

Ans: (C)

UGC NET Exam December 2014 Music Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

MUSIC

Paper – II

Hindustani / Karnatik / Rabindra Sangeet

(Vocal, Instrumental & Musicology and Percussion Instrument)

Special Instructions

Note : Candidates are required to answer all the 25 questions in Part – I, which are compulsory. They should select any one of the groups from Part – II, Part – III, Part – IV, Part – V and answer all the 25 questions in that part.

Each question carries two (2) marks.

PART – I

Common to Hindustani / Karnatik / Rabindra Sangeet / Percussion Instrument.

1. Who has made the first attempt to establish Swaras on the string of Veena ?

(A) Pt. Lochan

(B) Pt. Shrinivas

(C) Pt. Hridaya Narayan

(D) Pt. Ahobal

Ans: (D)

2. First of all, who depicted the Rasa in music ?

(A) Abhinav Gupta

(B) Bharat

(C) Narad

(D) Matang

Ans: (B)

3. Match the following :

Ans: (B)

4. How many Mantras are there in Archika Samhita of Samaveda as recommended by all scholars ?

(A) 590

(B) 600

(C) 595

(D) 585

Ans: (D)

5. Who is the main singer in singing of Samagana ?

(A) Prastota

(B) Udgata

(C) Pratiharta

(D) Subrahmanya

Ans: (B)

6. Who is not sitar player ?

(A) Pt. Budhadity Mukharji

(B) Ustad Halim Jafar Khan

(C) Pt. Nayan Ghosh

(D) Ustad Ashish Khan

Ans: (D)

7. In which year U. Zakir Hussain was honoured with ‘Padmabhushan’ ?

(A) 2001

(B) 2002

(C) 2003

(D) 2004

Ans: (B)

8. Who introduced Gwaliar Gharana in Maharashtra ?

(A) Vasudeorao Joshi

(B) Balkrishnabuva Ichalkaranjikar

(C) Ramkrishnabuva Vaze

(D) Pt. Vishnu Digamber Paluskar

Ans: (B)

9. The importance of ‘Alaapa’ –

(A) Negligible

(B) Somewhat

(C) Countable

(D) Most countable

Ans: (D)

10. The number of Koota-Tanas in the old treatise :

(A) 48

(B) 49

(C) 50

(D) 51

Ans: (B)

11. ‘Lakshana should follow Lakshya’ is explained in

(A) Sangita Ratnakara

(B) Sangita Sara

(C) Svaramelakalanidhi

(D) Sangita Makaranda

Ans: (C)

12. Match the following :

Ans: (B)

13. The 108 Karnas can be seen in the temple at

(A) Tirupati

(B) Trichur

(C) Kudumiamalai

(D) Chidambaram

Ans: (D)

14. Nadai Pallavi is based on

(A) Gati Bheda

(B) Raga Bheda

(C) Drutam

(D) Anudrutam

Ans: (A)

15. The earliest example of Raga Sanchara can be seen in rock inscriptions at

(A) Madurai

(B) Pudukottai

(C) Chidambaram

(D) Suchindram

Ans: (B)

16. How many songs have been included in ‘Geetanjali’ ?

(A) 57

(B) 67

(C) 127

(D) 157

Ans: (D)

17. ‘Jhampak Tal’ was the creation of whom ?

(A) Rabindranath

(B) Dwijendranath

(C) Satyendranath

(D) Shantidev Ghosh

Ans: (A)

18. Match the following :

Ans: (A)

19. By which style of Singing Rabindranath was mostly influenced ?

(A) Banaras Gharana

(B) Gwalior Gharana

(C) Kirana Gharana

(D) Vishnupur Gharana

Ans: (D)

20. Which style of Hindustani Classical Singing got minimum importance in Rabindra Sangeet ?

(A) Khyal

(B) Dhrupad

(C) Dhamar

(D) Tappa

Ans: (A)

21. Who is the recipient of Padmashree Award ?

(A) Ramkumar Mishra

(B) Sri Anindo Chetterjee

(C) Sri Vijay Ghate

(D) Sri Kumar Bose

Ans: (C)

22. How many bores (Chhidra) are there in a Pudi of Tabla ?

(A) 16

(B) 32

(C) 48

(D) 64

Ans: (C)

23. Which State uses “Dhole Damama” as a prominent instruments ?

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Uttarakhand

(D) Madhya Pradesh

Ans: (C)

24. To which Swara is Tabla generally tuned ?

(A) Shadaj

(B) Gandhar

(C) Madhyam

(D) Pancham

Ans: (A)

25. Which taal vadya is traditionally played with Shahnai ?

(A) Tabla

(B) Dholak

(C) Dukkad

(D) Tasha

Ans: (C)

PART – II

Hindustani Music (Vocal / Instrumental)

26. If number of vibration of Shadaj String is 240, what will it be of a Pancham String ?

(A) 300

(B) 320

(C) 340

(D) 360

Ans: (D)

27. Why ‘Ma’ is called ‘Madhyama’ ?

(A) Placed in the middle between both the Shadajas in Veena.

(B) Due to distortion of sound.

(C) Due to becoming sharp in sound.

(D) Placed in the middle of both Mandra × Madhya Nishadas.

Ans: (A)

28. Who authored music books on the name of King Anoop Singh of Bikaner ?

(A) Damodar Pandit

(B) Ramamatya

(C) Madhav Vidhyaranya

(D) Bhavbhatt

Ans: (D)

29. Who has not used ‘Swarmandal’ instrument while singing ?

(A) Ustd. Bade Gulam Ali Khan

(B) Ustd. Najakat Ali Khan

(C) Pt. Kumar Gandharva

(D) Ustd. Rasheed Khan

Ans: (C)

30. Which of the following pair of Ragas has the same notes but different Thata ?

(A) Bhoopali Deskar

(B) Bahar – Miya Malhar

(C) Puriya – Sohni

(D) Todi – Multani

Ans: (A)

31. Where is Sangeet Natak Academy’s Head office situated ?

(A) Mumbai

(B) Delhi

(C) Kolkata

(D) Chennai

Ans: (B)

32. Which institution compaigns Indian Music in foreign countries ?

(A) I.C.H.R.

(B) I.C.A.R.

(C) I.C.C.R.

(D) I.C.S.R.

Ans: (C)

33. Which music-interval consonance did Bharat obtained after reducing one Shruti of Pancham in Sarana Chatushtayee ?

(A) Shadaj-Pancham Samwad

(B) Shadaj-Gandhar Samwad

(C) Shadaj-Madhyam Samwad

(D) Rishabh-Pancham Samwad

Ans: (D)

34. Which Gharana is famous for ‘Ashtanga Gayaki’ ?

(A) Agra Gharana

(B) Jaipur Gharana

(C) Gwalior Gharana

(D) Delhi Gharana

Ans: (C)

35. Arrange the following Sitar players according to their seniority :

i. Ustad Vilayat Khan

ii. Ustad Inayat Khan

iii. Ustad Imdad Khan

iv. Ustad Shujat Khan

Codes :

(A) i, ii, iv, iii

(B) iii, ii, i, iv

(C) ii, i, iv, iii

(D) iii, i, ii, iv

Ans: (B)

36. Who is the first Guitar player to play Indian classical music on Guitar ?

(A) Pt. Vishwamohan Bhatt

(B) Pt. Brijbhushan Kabra

(C) Shri Nalin Mazumdar

(D) Shrimati Kamla Shankar

Ans: (B)

37. Who does not belong to Maihar Gharana from the following ?

(A) U. Ali Akbar Khan

(B) Pt. Nikhil Banarjee

(C) Pt. Hariprasad Chaurasia

(D) Pt. Shivakumar Sharma

Ans: (D)

38. Name the instrument which is played as a solo instrument in Indian classical music.

(A) Loha Tarang

(B) Ghungru Tarang

(C) Jal Tarang

(D) Kashtha Tarang

Ans: (C)

39. Which chapter of Sangeet Ratnakar discusses dance ?

(A) Pratham

(B) Chaturtha

(C) Saptam

(D) Pancham

Ans: (C)

40. Name the instrument with the help of which Lav-Kush sang Ramayana.

(A) Panav

(B) Mridanga

(C) Veena

(D) Shankha

Ans: (C)

41. According to Sangeet Makarand, which instruments are plucked with nail ?

(A) Avanaddh Vadya

(B) Tantri Vadya

(C) Ghana Vadya

(D) Sushir Vadya

Ans: (B)

42. Which type of Veena is mentioned in Mahabharata ?

(A) Vallaki

(B) Shat-tantri

(C) Alabu

(D) Chitra

Ans: (A)

43. Which sign is used to show pitch in Western Music ?

(A) Key Signature

(B) Time Signature

(C) Bar Line

(D) Minim

Ans: (ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT)

44. How are two Swar-Melodies used in a ‘Canon’ ?

(A) Simultaneously

(B) One after another in a short distance

(C) In different directions

(D) One after another after a vast distance

Ans: (B)

45. Which class of instruments Trumpet belongs to ?

(A) Tat Vadya

(B) Awanadhha Vadya

(C) Sushir Vadya

(D) Ghana Vadya

Ans: (C)

46. Which one is prominent in ‘Ballet’ ?

(A) Vocal music

(B) Melody Instruments

(C) Taal Vadyas

(D) Dance

Ans: (D)

47. Match the following :

Ans: (A)

48. Name any raga belongs to ‘Udav Jati’ which has all Komal Swaras ?

(A) Bibhas

(B) Jogia

(C) Bairagi-Bhairav

(D) Bhupal-Todi

Ans: (D)

49. Which raga is not a ‘Paramel Praveshak’ from the following ?

(A) Multani

(B) Jaijavanti

(C) Madhuvanti

(D) Puria

Ans: (D)

50. Which two treatises have been authored by Jain Muni Sudhakalash ?

i. Sangeet Koumudi

ii. Sangeet Sudha

iii. Sangeetonishatsar

iv. Sangeetopanishad

Codes :

(A) i, iii

(B) ii, iii

(C) iv, i

(D) iii, iv

Ans: (ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT)

PART – III

Karnatik Music (Vocal, Instrumental, Percussion)

26. Pushpalatika is closer to

(A) Kharaharapriya

(B) Madhyamavati

(C) Maniranga

(D) Bhairavi

Ans: (C)

27. Assertion (A) : The 72 melakarta scheme includes vivadi melas.

Reasoning (R) : The idea of vivadi melas originated with Venkatamakhi.

Codes :

(A) (A) is true (R) is false.

(B) (R) is true (A) is false.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true.

Ans: (A)

28. The Solfa syllables led to the logical conclusion of

(A) Graha Svara

(B) Adhara Shadja

(C) Moorchana

(D) Kalpit Svaras

Ans: (B)

29. ‘Aligite’ in Huseni Raga is a

(A) Stotram (B) Javali

(C) Kriti

(D) Padam

Ans: (D)

30. Sequencing

(A) Dhavalambari, Hemavati, Latangi, Pavani

(B) Pavani, Latangi, Dhavalambari, Hemavati

(C) Latangi, Dhavalambari, Hemavati, Pavani

(D) Pavani, Dhavalambari, Hemavati, Latangi

Ans: (D)

31. Not a Samudaya Kriti

(A) Navagraha Kriti

(B) Navaratnamalika

(C) Kovur pancharatnam

(D) Samkeertanam

Ans: (D)

32. Match the following :

Ans: (C)

33. Traditional dance of Kerala

(A) Ottamtullal

(B) Rasalila

(C) Prinnal attam

(D) Karagam

Ans: (A)

34. Primary source for research

(A) Books

(B) Periodicals

(C) Manuscripts

(D) Journals

Ans: (C)

35. Drum accompaniment to Sopana Singing

(A) Maddalam

(B) Idakka

(C) Chenda

(D) Tavil

Ans: (B)

36. A Shadava Raga in ancient Tamil music

(A) Panniyam

(B) Chachaputa

(C) Tiranokku

(D) Pann

Ans: (A)

37. Composer of Svara Sahitya

(A) Muttaih Bhagavatar

(B) Ghanam Krishnayyar

(C) Subbaraya Shastri

(D) Papanasa Sivan

Ans: (C)

38. Ashtottara Sata Talas

(A) 801

(B) 108

(C) 800

(D) 810

Ans: (B)

39. Tevaram singers

(A) Nayanar

(B) Marar

(C) Oduvars

(D) Dasar

Ans: (C)

40. Hand gestures which are symbolic

(A) Hastas

(B) Hasta Mudras

(C) Nritta Hastas

(D) Hasta Bhedas

Ans: (B)

41. Bomalattam is similar to

(A) Katputli

(B) Tamasha

(C) Jatra

(D) Baul

Ans: (A)

42. Assertion (A) : All great works of Art were inspired by religious fervour.

Reasoning (R) : Dance is a Composite Art.

Codes :

(A) (A) is true (R) is false.

(B) (R) is true (A) is false.

(C) Both (R) and (A) are true.

(D) Both (R) and (A) are false.

Ans: (C)

43. Sequencing :

(A) Sangita Sara, Sangita Ratnakara, Svaramelakalanidhi, Sangita Darpana

(B) Sangita Ratnakara, Sangita Sara, Sangita Darpana, Svaramelakalanidhi

(C) Sangita Darpana, Sangita Sara, Svaramelakalanidhi, Sangita Ratnakara

(D) Sangita Sara, Sangita Ratnakara, Sangita Darpana, Svaramelakalanidhi

Ans: (D)

44. Abhinaya includes

(A) Four facets

(B) Three facets

(C) Two facets

(D) One facet

Ans: (A)

45. Art and Craft are

(A) Inter-related and not distinct

(B) Inter-related and distinct

(C) Not inter-related

(D) Not inter-related and not distinct

Ans: (B)

46. Guhadasa mudra was adopted by

(A) Patnam Subramania Iyer

(B) Mahavaidyanatha Iyer

(C) Subrama Dikshitar

(D) Subbaraya Shastri

Ans: (B)

47. Purandara Dasa composed

(A) Utsava Sampradaya Kriti

(B) Ugabogas

(C) Chindu

(D) Prabandham

Ans: (B)

48. Opera written by Tyagaraja

(A) Sarabendra Bhupala

(B) Nandanar Charitram

(C) Sitarama Vijayam

(D) Bhagavata mela nataka

Ans: (C)

49. Chembai music festival is held at

(A) Guruvayoor

(B) Trichur

(C) Trichy

(D) Chidambaram

Ans: (A)

50. A Padma Vibhushan awardee in Dance

(A) Kalamandalam Gopi

(B) Satyabhama

(C) Sonal Mansingh

(D) Suchita Chapekar

Ans: (C)

PART – IV

Rabindra Sangeet

26. Who lived in ‘Pathuriaghata’ among the following members of Tagore family ?

(A) Satyendranath Tagore

(B) Rabindranath Tagore

(C) Sourindramohan Tagore

(D) Rathindranath Tagore

Ans: (C)

27. Match the following :

Ans: (B)

28. Who was the founder of ‘Bengal Academy’ of Music ?

(A) Dinendranath Tagore

(B) Jotindramohan Tagore

(C) Sourindramohan Tagore

(D) Jyotirindranath Tagore

Ans: (C)

29. Which of the following songs comes under ‘Puja Paryay’ ?

(A) Nibida Ghana Andhare…..

(B) Prathama Adi Taba Shakti…..

(C) Prabhate Vimal Anande…..

(D) All of these

Ans: (D)

30. Who was the creator of Indian-English mixed tune of compositions like Skotch-Bhupali, Italian-Jhijhit etc ?

(A) Dwijendranath Tagore

(B) Jyotirindranath Tagore

(C) Sourindramohan Tagore

(D) Kshetramohan Goswami

Ans: (B)

31. ‘Bandh bhenge Dao, Bandh bhenge Dao…’ song is from which dance-drama ?

(A) Chandalika

(B) Shyama

(C) Chitrangada

(D) Taser Desh

Ans: (D)

32. ‘Aaji Dakhino-Duar Khola…’ song was composed in praise of which season of the year ?

(A) Summer (Grishma)

(B) Monsoon (Varsha)

(C) Autumn (Sarat)

(D) Spring (Basant)

Ans: (D)

33. Which song was composed on the occasion of ‘tree plantation’ at Shantiniketan ?

(A) Ama E Ghare

(B) Phire Chal Matir Tane

(C) Maru Bijoyer Ketan Udao

(D) Kon Puratan Praner Tane

Ans: (C)

34. ‘Anand’ is a main character of which dance-drama written by R.N. Tagore ?

(A) Shyama

(B) Chandalika

(C) Shapmochan

(D) Chitrangada

Ans: (B)

35. Match the following :

Ans: (B)

36. ‘Aaji Sarat Tapane…’ song was based on which raga ?

(A) Bibhas

(B) Khamaj

(C) Kafi

(D) Jogia

Ans: (D)

37. ‘Tahare Arati Kore Chandra Tapan…’ song is based on which raga ?

(A) Devgiri Bilawal

(B) Purvi

(C) Bahar

(D) Bada Hans-Sarang

Ans: (D)

38. Which one of the following is the original singing style of the song ‘Charan Dhwani Suni Taba Nath…’ ?

(A) Khyal

(B) Thumri

(C) Tappa

(D) Dhrupad

Ans: (D)

39. Match the following :

Ans: (D)

40. Which one of the following is the correct ‘Matra-Bibhag’ for ‘Nabatal’ ?

(A) 3 + 3 + 3

(B) 3 + 4 + 2

(C) 3 + 2 + 2 + 2

(D) 2 + 3 + 2 + 2

Ans: (C)

41. How many divisions are in ‘Ekadashi Tal’ created by Tagore ?

(A) Four

(B) Three

(C) Five

(D) Six

Ans: (A)

42. Who was the founder of ‘Vrindavadan’ (Orchestra) in the theatres of Kolkata ?

(A) Kshetramohan Goswami

(B) Gyanendramohan Goswami

(C) Sourindramohan Tagore

(D) Jyotirindranath Tagore

Ans: (A)

43. ‘Amar Sonar Bangla….’ song was composed following which type of music ?

(A) Kirtan

(B) Tappa

(C) Thumri

(D) Baul

Ans: (D)

44. Rabindranath was honoured by Mahatma Gandhi with a title of ‘________’.

(A) Mahakavi

(B) Rashtrakavi

(C) Guruji

(D) Gurudev

Ans: (D)

45. ‘Phule Phule Dhole Dhole…’ song was composed by Tagore following which English song among these ?

(A) Ye banks and braes of Bonnie

(B) The bee is to come

(C) Darling, you are growing old

(D) The British Grenadiers

Ans: (A)

46. Rabindra Sangeet is mostly composed in which notation system ?

(A) Dand Matrik Swaralipi System

(B) Vishnu Digambar Swaralipi System

(C) Aakar Matrik Swaralipi System

(D) None of them

Ans: (C)

47. Which song is not a ‘Baul’ based Rabindra composition ?

(A) Anando Loke Mangala Loke

(B) O Amar Man Jakhan Jagli Na Re

(C) Jodi Tor Dak Sune Keu Na Aase

(D) Amar Praner Manus

Ans: (A)

48. Which song is based on ‘Teental’ among the following ?

(A) Janoni Tomar Karuno Charano Khani

(B) Eso Shyamolo Sundaro

(C) Prathamo Adi Tabo

(D) Darun Agni Bane Re

Ans: (B)

49. Which song was composed by Rabindranath on the death of his father ?

(A) Chalo Jai Chalo

(B) Kon Alote Praner Pradeep

(C) Parobasi Chale Aaso Ghare

(D) Moron Sagaro Pare

Ans: (B)

50. Which song has described the philosophy of death in Tagore’s ‘Bhanu Singher Padavali’ ?

(A) Aaj Sakhi Muhu Muhu

(B) Ohe Dayamay

(C) Marano Re Tuhu Mamo

(D) Sawano Gagane

Ans: (C)

PART – V

Percussion Instruments

26. Who is the writer of “Mridang Sagar” ?

(A) Ghanshyam Das

(B) Purushottam Das

(C) Ram Das

(D) Shyam Das

Ans: (A)

27. Which instrument is traditionally used to accompany Veena ?

(A) Pakhawaj

(B) Tabla

(C) Dholak

(D) Tawil

Ans: (A)

28. Which Taal Vadya is used in Haveli Sangit ?

(A) Mridang

(B) Tabla

(C) Dholak

(D) Naal

Ans: (A)

29. Where is 13 Divasiya Sangeet Programme organised ?

(A) Pune

(B) Ahmedabad

(C) Banaras

(D) Dharvad

Ans: (B)

30. Which pair (father and son) is not suitable ?

(A) Maseet Khan – Karamatullah Khan

(B) Wazid Hussain – Aafaque Hussain

(C) Kanthe Maharaj – Kishan Maharaj

(D) Allahrakha – Zakir Hussain

Ans: (C)

31. In which taal Farmaisi Chakkardar of Aada Chautal can be used as a Sadharan Chakkadar without any change ?

(A) Jhap Taal

(B) Rudra Taal

(C) Pancham Sawari

(D) Teen Taal

Ans: (A)

32. The first Tabla player recipient of Padmabushan Award

(A) Pt. Shamta Prasad Mishra

(B) Ud. Allahrakha

(C) Ud. Ahamad Jan Thirkava

(D) Ud. Habibuddin

Ans: (C)

33. A matchless Tabla artists in playing ‘Nachkaran”

(A) Abid Hussain

(B) Allahrakha

(C) Kanthe Maharaj

(D) Anokhe Lal Mishra

Ans: (A)

34. The name of the teacher of Dr. Aaban E. Mistri

(A) Ud. Amir Hussain

(B) Ud. Allahrakha

(C) Ud. Ahamad Jan Thirkava

(D) Ud. Mehboob Khan Mirajkar

Ans: (A)

35. Which Treatise has first mentioned the definition of “Rasa” ?

(A) Nardiya Shiksha

(B) Sangeet Makrand

(C) Natyashastra

(D) Geet Govind

Ans: (C)

36. Which instrument is the most grave one ?

(A) Tabla

(B) Pakhawaj

(C) Daph

(D) Chang

Ans: (B)

37. Who played Tabla in the film “Jhanak-Jhanak Payal Baje” ?

(A) Pt. Shamta Prasad Mishra

(B) Pt. Kishan Maharaj

(C) Ud. Allahrakha

(D) Ud. Ahamad Jan Thirkava

Ans: (A)

38. The commendable Gharana of playing ‘Kayda’

(A) Delhi

(B) Banaras

(C) Azarana

(D) Lucknow

Ans: (A)

39. How many Matra are there in Ganesh Taal ?

(A) 19

(B) 20

(C) 21

(D) 22

Ans: (C)

40. How many varna are to be devoted for a Bedam Tihai (Sam to Sam) in Rudra Taal ?

(A) 14

(B) 15

(C) 16

(D) 17

Ans: (B)

41. Which is different in the following ?

(A) Darjedar Gat

(B) Manjhedar Gat

(C) Gat-Kayda

(D) Charbagh Gat

Ans: (C)

42. The old name of “Bhatkhande Sangeet Vishwa Vidyalaya”.

(A) Bhatkhande Sangeet Mahavidyalaya

(B) Bhatkande Sangeet Vidyalaya

(C) Meris College of Music

(D) Bhatkhande Sangeet School

Ans: (C)

43. In which taal a Bedam tihai (Barabar Laya) is not possible ?

(A) Rudra

(B) Shikhar

(C) Laxmi

(D) Kahrva

Ans: (C)

44. Who got excellence in playing Na, Dhin, Dhin, Na in Tabla ?

(A) Pt. Anokhe Lal Mishra

(B) Pt. Shamta Prasad Mishra

(C) Pt. Kishan Maharaj

(D) Pt. Kanthe Maharaj

Ans: (A)

45. Which composition is not liable to be developed ?

(A) Peshkar

(B) Kayda

(C) Fard

(D) Rela

Ans: ()

46. The number of Margi Talas :

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 7

Ans: (B)

47. The form of vocal music having possibility of being sung in the very fast tempo

(A) Tappa

(B) Tarana

(C) Dhrupad

(D) Quawali

Ans: (B)

48. From which matra the Gat of Maseetkhani Starts ?

(A) 10

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 13

Ans: (C)

49. The taal not included in Sap Sooladi Taals

(A) Dhruva

(B) Roopak

(C) Aadi

(D) Jhamp

Ans: (C)

50. The percussion instrument used for Odissi Nritya Accompaniment

(A) Mridang

(B) Maddalam

(C) Tabla

(D) Tavil

Ans: (B)

UGC NET Exam December 2014 Population Studies Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

POPULATION STUDIES

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory. 

1. Match items of List – I with items in List – II given below :

Ans: (B)

2. Which among the following promote urban growth ?

(A) High fertility and internal migration.

(B) Low fertility and low internal migration.

(C) Low fertility and high internal migration.

(D) High fertility and high inter-state migration.

Ans: (A)

3. Match the following cities with the international conferences hosted by them :

Ans: (B)

4. Match List – I with List – II.

Ans: (C)

5. Perinatal mortality is defined as

(A) Number of deaths of infants under 1 week of age per 1000 births during the year.

(B) Number of deaths of infants under 1 week of age per 1000 population during the year.

(C) Number of deaths of infants under 4 week of age per 1000 population during the year.

(D) Number of death of infants under 4 week of age per 1000 births during the year.

Ans: (A)

6. Which of the following factors that regulates population size ?

(A) Cold Conditions

(B) Floods

(C) Disease

(D) Fire

Ans: (C)

7. Match the following items in List – I with List – II.

Ans: (A)

8. Coale (1986) has divided the effects of below replacement level fertility into the following categories :

I. Demographic effects

II. Social effects

III. Family planning effects

IV. Political effects

Codes :

(A) I, II and III are correct

(B) I, II and IV are correct

(C) II, III and IV are correct

(D) II and III are correct

Ans: (B)

9. Match items of List – I of with the items of List – II given below.

Ans: (B)

10. Among the following Indian cities, which is the fastest growing ?

(A) Jaipur

(B) Surat

(C) Bangalore

(D) Indore

Ans: (C)

11. What below denotes the Physiological-ability of a woman to conceive children ?

(A) Fertility

(B) Fecundity

(C) Total fertility

(D) Gross fertility

Ans: (B)

12. Match items in List – I with those in List – II :

Ans: (B)

13. Match the items List – I with items in List – II.

Ans: (C)

14. Match different mathematical models of population projection in List – I with their respective formula in List – II.

Ans: (A)

15. Assertion (A) : The higher the job opportunities for female population in the paid labour market, the higher the acceptance of family planning.

Reason (R) : Job opportunity and cost of a child is directly proportional to the employment status of mother.

Codes :

(A) (A) is true, (R) is true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) (A) is true, (R) is true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

16. According to the Economist, Leibenstein, couples produced children because :

I. Consumption utility

II. Old age security utility

III. Work-income utility

IV. Contribution to extended family utility

Codes :

(A) I, II, III and IV are correct.

(B) I, II and III are correct.

(C) II and III are correct.

(D) I and II are correct.

Ans: (B)

17. The condition that supports maximum population size is called

(A) Population density

(B) Maximum Growth Rate

(C) Carrying Capacity

(D) Biotic potential

Ans: (C)

18. Which one of the following has window period ?

(A) T.B.

(B) STD

(C) RTI

(D) HIV

Ans: (D)

19. Which of the following is not a conventional classification of ‘household’ ?

(A) Non family household

(B) One-family household

(C) Two family household

(D) Multi-family household

Ans: (A)

20. The Government of India set up a population data Committee in which among the following year ?

(A) 1934

(B) 1944

(C) 1954

(D) 1964

Ans: (B)

21. Match items of List – I with the items in List – II given below :

Ans: (ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT)

22. Which of the following scheme is not run by the Jansankhya Sthirta Kosh ?

(A) Prerna Scheme

(B) Santushti Scheme

(C) National Toll free helpline

(D) Sanjeevani Scheme

Ans: (D)

23. Who proposed the concept of ‘Intervening Obstacles’ in the filed of migration theories ?

(A) Ravenstein

(B) Lee

(C) Todaro

(D) Zipf

Ans: (B)

24. According to 2011 census, the number of (census & statutory) towns is close to which of the following ?

(A) 5000

(B) 6000

(C) 7000

(D) 8000

Ans: (D)

25. Arrange natural growth rate of the following states in ascending order according to the SRS Bulletin, September 2013.

I. Andhra Pradesh

II. Gujarat

III. Karnataka

IV. Madhya Pradesh

Codes :

(A) IV, III, II, I

(B) III, II, I, IV

(C) II, I, III, IV

(D) IV, III, I, II

Ans: (ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT)

26. Which among the following country conducts census at every 3 years interval ?

(A) United Kingdom

(B) Canada

(C) United States

(D) Australia

Ans: (ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT)

27. Which of the following factors might push someone to migrate ?

i. Poverty

ii. Political persecution

iii. Natural calamities

Codes :

(A) i

(B) i, ii

(C) i, ii, iii

(D) ii

Ans: (C)

28. Assertion (A) : Crude Death Rate (CDR) should not be considered for purpose of comparison.

Reason (R) : CDR is affected by the age-composition of the population.

Codes :

(A) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.

(B) (A) is incorrect, (R) is incorrect.

(C) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is correct, (R) is in correct and (R) is explanation of (A).

Ans: (C)

29. Arrange natural growth rate of the following states in descending order according to the SRS Bulletin September, 2013.

I. Goa

II. Manipur

III. Meghalaya

IV. Nagaland

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, I, III, IV

(C) III, IV, II, I

(D) IV, II, I, III

Ans: (C)

30. Match List – I with List – II :

Ans: (B)

31. There are nine specific objectives of the policy for the empowerment of women. Which of the following is not one them ?

(A) Enjoyment of all human rights and fundamental freedom.

(B) Equal access to participation and decision making.

(C) Enabling environment for disabled.

(D) Strengthening legal systems aimed at elimination of all forms of discrimination against women.

Ans: (C)

32. Assertion (A) : Gender gap is reducing in India in all spheres of activity.

Reason (R) : More and more girls are attending schools and colleges in India.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

33. Death rates are standardized for which of the following purpose ?

(A) To eliminate the differential influence of one or more variables.

(B) To obtain an estimate of the ideal rates.

(C) To correct for under registration of the phenomenon in question.

(D) To obtain a correct statement of the actual rates.

Ans: (A)

34. In the life table, which one is not correct ?

Ans: (D)

35. Surat was affected by which of the following diseases in early 1990s.

(A) Tuberculosis

(B) Plague

(C) Malaria

(D) Dengue

Ans: (B)

36. Rank the following states in Descending order of sex ratio according 2011 census India.

(A) Tamil Nadu, Chattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh.

(B) Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Chattisgarh.

(C) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh.

(D) Chattisgarh, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.

Ans: (C)

37. Assertion (A) : HIV awareness is substantially lower for the lower wealth quantities.

Reason (R) : Awareness is lower for women and for rural households.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Ans: (B)

38. Assertion (A) : Social Scientists distinguish between sex and gender. Sex refers to biological differences between male and female bodies, while gender concerns the psychological social and cultural differences between men and women.

Reason (R) : Differences between male and female are genetically determined.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (B)

39. Assertion (A) : Women in India, today enjoy equal opportunities with men in all fields of work.

Reason (R) : The constitution of India prohibits any kind of discrimination against women.

Codes :

(A) (A) is true, (R) is true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) (A) is true, (R) is true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

40. Gender inequality refers to

(A) Differences in status, power and prestige enjoyed by women and men in various context.

(B) Differences in salaries in public and private sector for men and women workers. 

(C) Unequal distribution of property among sons and daughters.

(D) Division of labour based on sex.

Ans: (A)

41. In intermediate variables framework developed by Davis and Blake which among the following is not a conception variable ?

(A) Fecundity or infecundity as affected by involuntary causes.

(B) Use or non-use of contraception.

(C) Fecundity or infecundity as affected by voluntary causes.

(D) Voluntary abstinence.

Ans: (D)

42. Which state has compact settlements most found due to scarcity of water ?

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Gujarat

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) Andhra Pradesh

Ans: (A)

43. Which Indian states have lowest density of population according to census 2011 ?

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Assam

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

Ans: (D)

44. The National Nutrition Policy of India was adopted in which of the following years ?

(A) 1990

(B) 1993

(C) 1996

(D) 1999

Ans: (B)

Answer questions (45 to 50) based on the following table :

45. Which state has the highest TFR ?

(A) Bihar

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Odisha

Ans: (C)

46. Arrange the following states in ascending order (from low to high) according to levels of TFR.

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Odisha

(d) Bihar

Codes :

(A) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Odisha, Bihar.

(B) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha.

(C) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Odisha.

(D) Bihar, Rajasthan, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh.

Ans: (ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT)

47. Arrange the following districts in descending order (from high to low) according to districts with minimum TFR ?

(a) Bhopal

(b) Kanpur Nagar

(c) Jharsuguda

(d) Kota

Codes :

(A) Kota, Kanpur Nagar, Bhopal, Jharsuguda.

(B) Bhopal, Kota, Kanpur Nagar, Jharsuguda.

(C) Kota, Bhopal, Jharsuguda, Kanpur Nagar.

(D) Kanpur Nagar, Kota, Bhopal, Jharsuguda.

Ans: (A)

48. Arrange the following districts with maximum TFR in ascending order (from low to high).

(a) Shrawasti

(b) Barmer

(c) Bauddh

(d) Panna

Codes :

(A) Bauddh, Panna, Shrawasti, Barmer.

(B) Bauddh, Panna, Barmer, Shrawasti.

(C) Bauddh, Barmer, Panna, Shrawasti.

(D) Bauddh, Shrawasti, Panna, Barmer.

Ans: (B)

49. Which district has the lowest TFR in the Category of maximum TFR ?

(A) Panna

(B) Bauddh

(C) Hailakandi

(D) Barmer

Ans: (B)

50. Which state has showed largest difference between maximum and minimum TFR of districts ?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Odisha

Ans: (A)

UGC NET Exam December 2014 Public Administration Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Consider the following statements concerning deeply ingrained philosophical orientation and articulation of L.D. White :

(i) He assumes that there is an essential unity in the process of administration.

(ii) The study of Public Administration should start from foundation of law.

(iii) Administration is still primarily an art, having significant tendency to transfer it into science.

(iv) Administration is at the heart of the problems of modern government.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Ans: (B)

2. The New Public Administration is considered as anti-Positivist which means

(A) It rejects the definition of Public Administration as ‘value-free’.

(B) It advocates for social change.

(C) Realization of social equity is the purpose of Public Administration.

(D) Meaningful studies in Public Administration.

Ans: (A)

3. Which one of the following is not a root of New Public Service Theory ?

(A) Public Choice Theory

(B) Theories of Democratic Citizenship

(C) Models of Community and Civil Society

(D) Organizational Humanism and Discourse Theory

Ans: (A)

4. ‘Catalytic Government’ is a feature of

(A) Private Administration

(B) Entrepreneurial Government

(C) New Public Administration

(D) Principal-Agent Relationship

Ans: (B)

5. Who of the following was acknowledged by Woodrow Wilson for his source of the idea of Politics-Administration dichotomy ?

(A) Hamilton

(B) Bluntschili

(C) Medison

(D) Bentham

Ans: (B)

6. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from codes given below :

Ans: (C)

7. “Before a Science can develop principles, it must possess concepts.” This statement is made by

(A) Chester Barnard

(B) Herbert Simon

(C) Chris Argyris

(D) Rensis Likert

Ans: (B)

8. What is not true regarding the Theory – X ?

(i) Subordinates have little participation in seeking the organizational goals.

(ii) The communication is both upward and downward.

(iii) The control is internal, based on self-consciousness.

(iv) The focus of performance appraisal is on fault-finding.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i) and (iv)

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Ans: (B)

9. Arrange the major works of McGregor in a chronological order (ascending) of publication.

I. The Professional Manager

II. The Human Side of Enterprises

III. Leadership and Motivation

Select the correct answer from the codes below :

Codes :

(A) III, I, II

(B) I, II, III

(C) II, III, I

(D) II, I, III

Ans: (C)

10. Which of the following styles is not described in the Management Grid Theory of Blake and Mouton ?

(A) (9.9) – Team Management

(B) (1.9) – Country Club Management

(C) (9.1) – Task Management

(D) (1.1) – Consultative Management

Ans: (D)

11. A formal organization is mainly concerned with

(A) Satisfaction of organizational members

(B) Profitability of enterprises

(C) Service to the society

(D) Harmonious relations within organization

Ans: (B)

12. Consider the following statements about Henry VIII Clause in Britain :

(i) It gave power to the king to legislate by proclamation.

(ii) It has not been used in Britain since 1900.

(iii) Such Act resembles the Statute of Proclamation 1539.

(iv) The Donoughmore Committee on Minister’s powers called for discontinuance of Henry VIII Clause.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i) and (iii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i), (ii) and

(iv) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Ans: (D)

13. Which of the following statements about legislative control over administration in U.S.A. are correct ?

(i) Congress defines the organization, powers and duties of Administrative authorities.

(ii) It appoints Legislative Committees for investigation of Administrative lapses.

(iii) Legislative confirmation of appointments to certain high-ranking posts is a prerequisite.

(iv) All international treaties come into force only after the ratification by the Congress.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Ans: (A)

14. ‘The extent to which formally differentiated structures of a diffracted society co-exist with undifferentiated structures of a fused type’ is called

(A) Heterogeneity

(B) Formalism

(C) Overlapping

(D) Poly-communalism

Ans: (C)

15. Great Britain became the first country to develop a democratic code for civil services that is characterized by

(i) Loyalty

(ii) Secrecy

(iii) Neutrality

(iv) Anonymity

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Ans: (C)

16. Which of the following Committee for the first time examined the role of training for civil servants in U.K. ?

(A) Masterman Committee

(B) Brownlow Committee

(C) Assheton Committee

(D) Fulton Committee

Ans: (C)

17. The IMF promotes the use of fiscal reform to address environmental problems through

(i) Analytical work

(ii) Technical assistance

(iii) Outreach activities

(iv) Controlling energy prices

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (ii) and (iv)

Ans: (B)

18. Which of the following is not the feature of Development Administration ?

(i) It is people oriented.

(ii) It is change oriented.

(iii) It is unresponsive.

(iv) It promotes status quo.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i) and (ii)

(D) (iii) and (iv)

Ans: (D)

19. “All major decisions involving important deviation from the policy or where the policy is not clear should be reduced to writing with reasons attached.” This recommendations was made by

(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission

(B) Second Administrative Reforms Commission

(C) K. Santhanam Committee

(D) None of the above

Ans: (A)

20. What is correct about the constraints of Development Administration in developing countries ?

(i) Political Instability

(ii) Lack of Resources

(iii) Committed Bureaucracy

(iv) Cultural Hesitants

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Ans: (B)

21. Which of the following are the recommendations of the 2nd ARC regarding allocation and discharge of work by a State Secretariat ?

(i) Allocation of work to different departments should be based on the analysis of task to be performed by the government.

(ii) Ideally each of the secretariat departments should deal with inter-related and more or less homogeneous segment of administrative activities.

(iii) It should provide for an in-built mechanism for coordination of policies and programmes.

(iv) There should be larger delegation of power to the executive agencies/departments.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(C) (ii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Ans: (A)

22. Which of the following are the primary functions of the State Secretariat ?

(i) Carrying out regulatory work.

(ii) Drafting legislations, rules and regulations.

(iii) Issuing detailed implementation strategy.

(iv) Carrying out interdepartmental coordination.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Ans: (C)

23. Which article of the Constitution of India empowers the Governor of the State to appoint Advocate General for the State ?

(A) Article 153

(B) Article 155

(C) Article 164

(D) Article 165

Ans: (D)

24. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from codes given below :

Ans: (B)

25. Which of the following documents are presented to the Parliament along with the budget ?

(i) Economic Survey

(ii) An explanatory memorandum on the budget

(iii) A summary of demands for grants

(iv) An Appropriation Bill

(v) A Finance Bill

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (i)

Ans: (B)

26. Assertion (A) : The Public Accounts Committee is sometime described as the ‘twinsister’ of the Estimate Committee.

Reason (R) : The work of the Public Accounts Committee and the Estimate Committee is complementary.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

27. Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has empowered the Parliament to establish a Contingency Fund of India.

Reason (R) : The purpose of the Contingency Fund is to enable the Government to meet any unforeseen expenditure.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

28. In second performance audit report of Comptroller and Auditor General of India 2013 regarding Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MNREGS) which factor has not been high-lighted ?

(A) Skill-enhancement

(B) Mismanagement

(C) Institutional incapacity

(D) Lack of Public Awareness

Ans: (A)

29. On which of the following grounds the facts can be considered as the productive of theory ?

(i) Facts help to initiate theories.

(ii) Facts lead to the reformation of existing theory.

(iii) Facts change the focus and orientation of theory.

(iv) Facts cause the rejection of theories which do not fit the facts.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Ans: (D)

30. Who stated that “Science is for life; not life for Science” ?

(A) Robert S. Lynd

(B) Morris Cohen

(C) Karl Pearson

(D) John Dixie

Ans: (A)

31. Explain the purpose of using lottery method in sampling.

(A) Theorisation

(B) Interpretation

(C) Randomization

(D) Conceptualisation

Ans: (C)

32. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from codes given below :

Ans: (A)

33. Which of the following are the objectives of disinvestment policy ?

(i) To ensure better customer service.

(ii) To make effective use of disinvestment funds.

(iii) To focus more on social development.

(iv) To improve effectiveness of the public sector.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (ii) and (iii)

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Ans: (B)

34. ‘Central Board of Direct Taxes should be an autonomous body independent of the Ministry of Finance.’ This recommendation was made by

(A) Wanchoo Committee 1971

(B) Estimates Committee 1991 – 1992

(C) Choksi Committee 1978

(D) Expenditure Reforms Commission 1999 – 2000

Ans: (A)

35. Which of the following are the functions of the Department of Expenditure in the Ministry of Finance ?

(i) Pre-sanction appraisal of major schemes/projects.

(ii) Implementation of the recommendations of the Finance Commission.

(iii) Assisting Central Ministries/Departments in controlling the costs and prices of Public Services.

(iv) Reviewing systems and procedures to optimize outputs and outcomes of public expenditure.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (ii) and (iii)

(C) (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Ans: (A)

36. Which one of the following is not the merit of disinvestment ?

(A) In Public Sector the decision making process is quick and decisions are linked with the competitive market changes.

(B) The market participation in capital of PSUs through stock exchanges would evaluate the market to discover the Latent Worth of PSUs.

(C) Selling of profit-making and dividend paying PSUs would result in loss of regular source of income to the government.

(D) The disinvestment process would bring in better corporate governance, exposure to competitive corporate responsibility etc.

Ans: (C)

37. In which year, the Department of Disinvestment was set up as a separate department ?

(A) December 10, 1999

(B) September 6, 1999

(C) September 6, 2001

(D) May 27, 2004

Ans: (A)

38. The Ministry of Finance of Government of India consists of

(A) 7 Departments

(B) 6 Departments

(C) 5 Departments

(D) 4 Departments

Ans: (C)

39. Assertion(A) : Social Welfare is an organized system of Social Services.

Reason (R) : Social Welfare includes the intent to strengthen individual’s capacity to cope with their life situation.
Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (B)

40. Match List – I with List – II and answer from codes :

Ans: (B)

41. Which of the following is not under the administrative control of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment ?

(A) Minorities Commission

(B) National Institute of Social Defence

(C) National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development.

(D) National Commission for Women.

Ans: (D)

42. The Government grants recognition to an association of employees only when the following conditions are fulfilled :

(i) It should consist of government employees.

(ii) Its executive should be amongst its members only.

(iii) It should be neutral politically.

(iv) It should not entertain individual cases.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Ans: (D)

43. “Motivation is a general term applying to the entire class of drives, desires, needs, wishes and similar forces.”

This statement belongs to :

(A) Koontz O’ Donnell

(B) A.H. Maslow

(C) Frederick Herzberg

(D) Douglas McGregor

Ans: (A)

44. Fifth Pay Commission recommended reduction of quantum of work by way of :

(i) Passing on certain task to State Governments.

(ii) Transferring certain task to Corporate entities in Public Sector.

(iii) Contracting out certain task to Private Sector.

(iv) Converting some institutions into autonomous bodies.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Ans: (A)

45. The Foundational training of the IAS does not aim at –

(A) strengthening the understanding of the Political, Social environment in which an IAS Officer has to work.

(B) to develop values, ideas and attributes expected of an IAS Officer.

(C) emphasizing the understanding of public systems and their management.

(D) providing them inputs in Weaker Section Finance.

Ans: (D)

46. Which of the following match is wrong regarding the Committees and Commissions on Urban Local Governments ?

(A) Rural Urban Relationship – A.P. Jain

(B) National Commission on Urbanization – C.M. Correa

(C) Study Group on Constitution, Powers and Laws of Urban Local Bodies and Municipal Corporations – K.N. Sahaya

(D) Committee on Budgetary Reform in Municipal Administration – Rafiq Zakaria

Ans: (D)

47. Which one of the following is not true about the compulsory provisions made under 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act for Rural Local Government Institutions ? 

(A) Indirect elections to the post of Chairman at the intermediate and apex tiers. 

(B) Tenure of PRIs fixed at five years. 

(C) Giving voting rights to MPs and MLAs in Rural Local Bodies. 

(D) Creation of a State Election Commission.

Ans: (C)

48. At present which of the following is dealt by Central Council of Local Government ? 

(A) Matters of Rural Local Government only.

(B) Matters of Urban Local Government only.

(C) Matters of Rural and Urban Local Governments both.

(D) Matters of Semi-Urban Local Governments.

Ans: (B)

49. Which of the following statements about the Local Bodies are correct ?

(i) There is no synchronization of the period of recommendations of State and Central Finance Commissions.

(ii) Powers, authority and responsibilities of the Local Bodies lack clarity.

(iii) Poor revenue efforts by the PRIs.

(iv) Lack of administrative machinery for collection of taxes.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (iii) and (iv)

Ans: (C)

50. Which of the following Commission/Committee recommended that “There should be an integrated governing structure at the district level in the form of the ‘District Council’ with representation from both urban and rural areas.” ?

(A) First ARC

(B) Second ARC

(C) L.K. Jha Committee

(D) G.V.K. Rao Committee

Ans: (B)

Top 10 CBSE Schools in Kolkata

Top 10 CBSE Schools in Kolkata

CBSE Schools in Kolkata:

             Kolkata which is the capital city of West Bengal is one of the most preferred destinations for quality education in India. Initially, in early days, the medium of the schools was Bengali and Sanskrit which later changed into the medium of English due to the British rule in India. Now, English has become the predominant language in all schools, colleges and Universities of Kolkata. Thus, students from all over the world seek admission to the most famous Universities and colleges in Kolkata.

Kolkata consist of many renowned and famous institutions such as IIM Kolkata, Calcutta Medical College, West Bengal University of Health Sciences, and Jadavpur University and so on. In this series, Kolkata also consist of best CBSE schools which provide best education in the country.

The top most CBSE schools in Kolkata are:

  1. Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan
  2. Kendira Vidyalaya No.1 Salt Lake city
  3. Ashok Hall Girls Higher Secondary School
  4. Kendira Vidyalaya Sangathan
  5. Abhinav Bharti High School
  6. Apeejay School Kolkata
  7. Sushila Birla High School for Girls
  8. GSS Girls School
  9. Hariyana Vidya Mandir
  10. DAV Public School

These schools in detail are as below:

 

  1. Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan:

This CBSE school in Kolkata is one of the internationally reputed institutions and it was founded by Dr.K.M.Munshi on November 7, 1938.

The founders include Dr.Rajendra Prasad who was the First President of Republic of India, Pandit Jawaharhal Nehru who was the First Prime Minister of Republic India, Shri C.Rajagopalachari, the First Indian and Last Governor General of India and several other important leaders of Republic India.

This institution was awarded Gandhi Peace Prize in the year 2002 and Government of India recognized this institution as “An Institution of National Eminence”. This CBSE school has also spread its wings across the whole world in many countries like UK, Canada, USA, Kuwait, Mexico, Singapore, Australia, Portugal, and South Africa and so on. This is an English medium and co-educational school which is affiliated to Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) of New Delhi and its affiliation number is: 2430020

Facilities: Well ventilated big class rooms, audio and video rooms, Assembly hall, smart classrooms, Art rooms, laboratory, Library and so on.

Admission procedure:

  1. Official notifications are made on the official website for the admission of the classes above VI standard.
  2. Thus, parents or guardians please check the site for the important dates and buy the application form, fill it up with accuracy and submit it within the due date.
  3. Admission is possible only after written test and subsequent interviews.

               Block FA, Sector-III,

               Salt Lake City,

               Kolkata-700 097

               Phone number: 033-23351249

  • Kendira Vidyalaya No.1 Salt Lake City:

                 Kendira Vidyalaya No.1 CBSE School at Salt Lake City is one of the top most CBSE schools in Kolkata which is affiliated with Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi and its affiliation number: 2400002. This school was established in the year 1977 and runs as an Autonomous body under the Ministry of Human Rights Department, Government of India.

As every branch of KV, this branch was also established mainly to cater the educational needs of the children belonging to the transferable Central Government employees, Para-military personnel including defense sector to provide common platform of education. Also to develop a spirit of national integration among children by providing innovative learning methods through collaboration with bodies such as CBSE and National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT).

Facilities: The facilities which are inside the school campus are spacious class rooms, junior science lab, Biotech lab, computer science lab, Geography lab, math lab, Library, Arts rooms, games room, Medical room, etc.

Admission procedure:

  1. The admission process for the next academic year 2016-2017 is yet to be noticed. Thus, please check on the official site for more information.

                Kendira Vidyalaya No.1,

                Salt Lake,

                Sector-1,

                Labony,

                Kolkata-700064

                Phone number: 033- 23212767

 

 

  • Ashok Hall Girls Higher Secondary School:

         This CBSE school which was established in the year 1951 has now become one of the most famous and renowned premier institutions in India. The senior section of this school from the classes VI to class XII is situated at the southern part of the business district of Kolkata near Mino park whereas the Junior section from the class nursery to class V is situated at Palm Avenue of South Kolkata.

Facilities: This top CBSE school in Kolkata consists of multipurpose hall, math lab, computer lab, separate rooms for physical education classes, games and other sports, separate laboratories for Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Computer science, Fashion studies laboratory, commercial art room, etc. The other supports provided by the school administration are emergency medical facilities, Transport facility, Counselling support, large library with more than 27,000 books on every possible subjects, Computer aided learning in the classrooms and so on.

The curriculum which are covered for pre-primary sections are English, Number work, coloring, craft, dance, music, PT through EduSports.

The curriculum which are covered for Primary section (Class I to V) are English, Hindi, Bengali, Value education, life skills, calligraphy, art, craft, dance, music, chess and PT.

The curriculum which are covered for Secondary classes (Class VI to X) are English, Hindi, Bengali, Sanskrit, French, Mandarin, Mathematics, Fundamentals of Information Technology, Social Sciences, Environmental Science, Life skills and Value education.

The curriculum which are covered for Senior secondary level (Class XI and Class XII) are Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Computer science, Mathematics, Business studies, Accountancy, Economics, Biotechnology, Multimedia and web technology, Office procedures and practices, Financial accounting, etc.

The school has achieved highest aggregate in the subjects such as Commerce (96.2%), Science (95.8%), Humanities (95.4%), and Vocational (90.4%) in CBSE class XII board examination 2015.

Admission procedure:

  1. Admission notice for the upcoming academic year 2016-2017 has been announced. Please check the following link for further details.

http://www.ashokhall.net/pdf/admission_notice.pdf

                5A, Sarat Bose Road,

                Kolkata,

               West Bengal – 700020

              Phone number: 033-22871271

 

 

  • Kendira Vidyalaya Sangathan:

                             This school is an autonomous school under the Ministry of Human Rights of India and it is started in the year 1965 which is established mainly to cater the education needs of children belonging to the transferable central government employees, Para-military officers including defense service and so on.

As on April 2011, there are 1073 KV schools in India under 26 regions including the head quarters in New Delhi. KVS Kolkata region is one among the 26 regions which consists of 46 KV schools spread across West Bengal and Andaman Nicobar Islands. To be more detailed, 44 KVS schools are established in the West Bengal and 2 are established in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

The main objective of the KVS schools is to bring integrity among students by providing best and common learning platform all over the country. This school has participated and bagged many awards and titles in most of the National and international Competitions and conferences.

Facilities: The facilities such as Library, canteen facility, Transport facility, medical facility, laboratories for Chemistry, Physics, Computer science and so on.

Admission procedure:

  1. Admission notification for the next academic year 2016-2017 is yet to be announced. Thus, parents or students please check the official website for further details.

                 EB Block,

                 Laboni,

                 Sector-1,

                 Salt lake,

                 Kolkata-700064

                 Phone number: 033-23596099

 

 

  • Abhinav Bharti High School:

           This school was established on 1945 August initially as Montessori school which was later developed into Secondary school up to Class X on 1989. On 1993, Senior Secondary section was introduced with Science, Commerce and Humanities subjects.

This school is affiliated with Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), New Delhi and its affiliation number is: 2430036.

Facilities: This school has various facilities such as Air conditioned Auditorium Hall, Assembly hall, Play rooms, Library, Laboratories for all science subjects, A.C.Montessori hall and so on.

Admission procedure:

  1. The admission session starts from April 1st
  2. Admission criteria for the Nursery children are
  • Montessori: Age must be between 2.6+
  • Lower KG: Age must be 3.5+
  • Upper KG: Age must be 4.5+
  1. Registration form will be available from December 2nd 2015 for nursery admission whereas the registration forms for the classes I to IX will be available during the last week of March 2016.
  2. Important documents to be submitted are:
  • Birth Certificate
  • Progress report (For LKG and UKG)
  • Parents qualification certificate

                11, Pretoria Street,

                Kolkata-700071

                Phone number: 033-22823516

 

 

  • Apeejay School:

                       This school was started in the year 1975 with 50 students and 5 teachers at 15, Park Street and was later shifted to the present building on 1980. At, present the total strength of the school is around 2000 and it is affiliated with the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi.

In 1986, first batch of Apeejay students appeared in Secondary (CBSE X) Board Examination and in 1998, first batch of Senior Secondary Students appeared in the CBSE XII Board Examination. This school has proved excellent academic records in recent years with CGPA more than 9.8 and above.

Facilities: Laboratories for Multimedia, Web Technology, Physics, Chemistry, Biotechnology, fashion studies, Infirmary, canteen facilities, Transport facilities, Special education, NIIT classes, Classwalk classes, Co-curricular activities such as Spanish clubs, Literature clubs, Science clubs, Quiz, Dance, music and so on.

Admission Procedure:

  1. The minimum age for the admission to the nursery classes is 3+. Admission is granted to the students for the nursery level after interacting with the parents and children.
  2. For higher classes, admissions are announced only based on the vacancy available. The students are selected through written test, group discussions and personal interview.
  3. The important documents to be submitted during the time of admission are
  • Report cards showing clear promotion of the student.
  • Transfer certificate from the previous school
  • Municipal Birth Certificate.
  1. Admission for the classes XI starts on Second week of February 2016. Thus parents or students, who seek admission in this school, please refer the official website for any further details.

                Apeejay Schools,

               115, Park Street,

               Kolkata-700016

               Phone-033-22291779

 

 

  • Sushila Birla High school for Girls:

                         This school which is situated at Moira Street was started to afford best education for the students for their progress and development. This school received NOC from the Government of West Bengal during 2006 and it is affiliated with Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) since 2008 and its affiliation number: 2430096.

Facilities: This school has facilities such as internet supported library, infirmary, audio visual room, canteen, laboratories, co-curricular activities such as Guitar club, Hindi diwas, Music club, Annual Concert, Special Assembly, quiz clubs, debate clubs and so on. This school won in international programs such as “Asian Regional Space Settlement Design Competition” conducted by Johnson Space Centre, NASA. Also, this school has joined the International School Awards scheme this year which helps to add international dimension to its curriculum.

Admission procedure:

  1. The admission for the next academic year 2016-2017 has been announced and final list of selected students for Nursery admission are to be displayed in the official website on December 18th
  2. Parents of those students are requested to present at the respected venues for the interaction session. Also, please bring the important documents such as Registration acknowledgement receipt, proof of residence, Last qualification certificate or mark sheet and so on.
  3. Registered candidates are only allowed to attend the interaction session.
  4. Admission informations for the higher classes can be checked through the official website.

               7, Moira Street,

               Kolkata-700 017

               West Bengal,

               India

               Phone number: 033-22879006

 

 

  • GSS Girls School:

                         G.S.S School is founded by Sardar P.S.Sondhi and it is presently under Mrs. Ranjit Kaur who acts as a guiding light with her infinite inspiration to the staff members to reach the desired goal of the Founder. This school has classes between nursery and Class X only for girls and it is affiliated with the Central Board of Secondary education (CBSE), New Delhi. Each student is trained specially and separately for developing their intellectuals, cultural, moral and emotional abilities to the fullest. Thus, this school believes in the motto “Overcome Evil with Good”.

The syllabus covered at the Kinder garden level are English writing, games, singing, dancing, art/craft, conversion, physical education, Hindi/Bengali classes, General Knowledge and so on.

The syllabus covered for the classes I to IV are English, Hindi, and Mathematics, General Knowledge, Social studies, Art/craft, conversion and physical education.

The syllabus covered for the classes V to VIII are English, Hindi/Bengali, Mathematics, 3rd language, art and craft, library and Physical education, social studies, etc.

The syllabus covered for classes IX and X are English, Hindi/Bengali, Mathematics, Science, Social Science, Art, Library and physical education.

Facilities: Examination halls, auditoriums, library, medical facility, play grounds, transport facility, labs and so on.

Admission procedure:

  1. Please check the official website for any official notification regarding the admission process for the next academic year.

                65, Pratabaditya Road,

                Kolkata-700026

                Phone number:033- 24665406

 

 

  • Hariyana Vidya Mandir:

                         This school is run on a basis of “No profit and Loss basis” with a whole objective to provide education on low fees. The foundation stone of this school was laid by Shri.Jyothi Basu, Honorable Former Chief Minister of West Bengal during 1984. This school was initially started in the year 1992 with strength of 538 students. It first handled the classes from UKG to Class V and later handled up to Class VIII and Class IX successfully with total strength of the school to be more than 1000 students on the whole.

In the year 1996, the First batch of Secondary section students wrote AISSE (CBSE Class X) exam and in the year 1998 the first batch Senior Secondary Section wrote AISSCE (CBSE XII) exam. The curriculum follows Continuos and Comprehensive Education by CBSE and all the classrooms were digitalized to teach the students in the modern way.

Facilities: Digitalized classrooms, Bright and well ventilated classrooms, Transport facilities, Labs, Auditorium and so on. This school has secured excellent academic records in 2014-2015 CBSE examinations.

Admission Procedure:

  1. Please refer the official website to know the latest official notification regarding the admission for the next academic year.

               BA-193, Sector-1,

               Salt Lake,

               Kolkata-700064

               Phone number: 033-23342404

 

 

  • Dav Public School:

                   This is only one DAV school in Kolkata. This is a co-educational centre for education which provides education to all children to attain all round, balanced and harmonious development according to their personality. It is affiliated to the Central Board of Secondary education (CBSE) of New Delhi and its affiliation number is: 2430038. Most of the students of this school have secured a minimum of 95% of marks in the recent CBSE XII examination.

Facilities: The facilities such as senior computer lab, junior computer lab, physics, chemistry, biology labs, art and craft room, sports room and indoor games and so on.

Admission procedure:

  1. The minimum age for the admission of LKG is 3+.
  2. Please check the official website for any official notification for the admission of higher classes.
  3. Seats and admission are available only through merit basis and seats availability.

                D.A.V Public School,

                61, Diamond Harbour Road near Taratolla,

                Kolkata-700038

                Phone number: 033-23961320

 

 

UGC NET Exam December 2014 Home Science Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

HOME SCIENCE

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Following fat is the richest source of MUFA :

(A) Sunflower Oil

(B) Soyabean Oil

(C) Coconut Oil

(D) Olive Oil

Ans: (D)

2. Major function of Zinc in the human body is

(A) Haemoglobin synthesis

(B) DNA and RNA synthesis

(C) Bone health

(D) Vision

Ans: (B)

3. A menu where food items are priced separately is called

(A) Table d’ hote

(B) Du Jow

(C) Set menu

(D) A’ la carte

Ans: (D)

4. While washing cotton fabrics colour can be prevented from bleaching by using

(A) Vinegar

(B) Common Salt

(C) Sodium Carbonate

(D) Lissapol

Ans: (B)

5. Give the correct full form of SASMIRA.

(A) Silk And Synthetic Mills and Research Association.

(B) Synthetic & Art Silk Mills and Research Association.

(C) Silk And Art Silk Mills and Research Association.

(D) Standards And Specifications of Mills & Research Association.

Ans: (B)

6. Sandpaper, cotton and fabric are examples of variation in which element of art ?

(A) Texture

(B) Line

(C) Shape

(D) Colour

Ans: (A)

7. Ecological theory was propounded by

(A) Konrad Lorenz

(B) Albert Bandura

(C) Brofenbrenner

(D) Ivan Pavlov

Ans: (C)

8. Sri Niketan Project of Rural Development was initiated by

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(C) Vinoba Bhave

(D) Swami Vivekanand

Ans: (B)

9. Krishi Vigyan Kendras were launched for

(A) Promoting vocational training among farmers.

(B) Promoting credit facilities among farmers.

(C) Promoting agriculture among school students.

(D) Promoting credit facilities among college students.

Ans: (A)

10. When a hypothesis is false but the experimenter mistakenly accepts it, she is making a

(A) type one error

(B) standard error

(C) probability error

(D) type two error

Ans: (D)

11. Principle of complimentary action of proteins is used to improve the quality of protein in following food preparations :

I. Idli

II . Missi Roti

III. Vegetable Pullao

IV. Mathri

V. Khichdi

Codes :

(A) I, II and III

(B) II, III and IV

(C) I, IV and V

(D) I, II and V

Ans: (D)

12. Iodine deficiency disorders include the following :

I. Goitre

II. Stillbirth

III. Osteoporosis

IV. Mental retardation

Codes :

(A) I, II and III

(B) I, II and IV

(C) I, III and IV

(D) II, III and IV

Ans: (B)

13. Which of the following are intangible tools of management ?

I. Leadership

II. Organization chart

III. Communication

IV. Work schedule

V. Decision making

Codes :

(A) I, II, IV

(B) I, III, V

(C) II, III, V

(D) II, IV, V

Ans: (B)

14. Which of the following are French designers ?

I. Dior

II. Chanel

III. Anne Klein

IV. Yves Saint Laurent

Codes :

(A) I, II, III

(B) II, III, IV

(C) III, IV, I

(D) IV, I, II

Ans: (D)

15. Which of the following are twill weave fabrics ?

I. Gabardine

II. Drill

III. Calico

IV. Sergé

Codes :

(A) I, II, III

(B) I, II, IV

(C) II, III, IV

(D) I, IV, III

Ans: (B)

16. Identify the organizations related to consumerism.

I. CFBP

II. CERC

III. SERC

IV. ILO

V. VOICE

Codes :

(A) I, II and IV

(B) I, II and V

(C) I, IV and V

(D) II, III and V

Ans: (B)

17. Howard Gardener proposed 8 types of intelligence, that included :

I. Interpersonal skills

II. Naturalist skills

III. Fine Motor skills

IV. Musical skills

Codes :

(A) I, II and III

(B) II, III and IV

(C) I, III and IV

(D) I, II and IV

Ans: (D)

18. Some of the emerging aspects of extension are

I. Participatory Approach

II. Increased use of media

III. Teaching extension education in schools

IV. Privatisation of extension

Codes :

(A) I, II and III

(B) I, II and IV

(C) II, III and IV

(D) I, III and IV

Ans: (B)

19. Indicate the qualities which can increase the effectiveness of a communicator.

I. Knowledge of message

II. Heterophily

III. Positive Attitude

IV. Empathy

Codes :

(A) I, II and III

(B) I, III and IV

(C) I, II and IV

(D) II, III and IV

Ans: (B)

20. Properties of the Normal Distribution :

I. Terms tend to cluster around the point Z = 0.

II. Positively skewed.

III. Asymptotic to the horizontal axis.

IV. Symmetrical around the vertical axis.

Codes :

(A) I, II, IV

(B) I, III, IV

(C) I, II, III

(D) II, III, IV

Ans: (B)

21. Assertion (A) : Inclusion of plenty of fruits and vegetables in the daily diet are protective against certain types of cancers.

Reason (R) : Fruits and vegetables are rich source of phytochemicals.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is partial explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect.

(C) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Ans: (A)

22. Assertion (A) : Egg acts a leavening agent in the preparation of mayonnaise.

Reason (R) : Lecithin in egg prevents the separation of fat and aqueous layer in mayonnaise.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(C) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.

(D) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

Ans: (C)

23. Assertion (A) : QWL describes values that relate to the quality of human experiences in the work place.

Reason (R) : QWL is affected by factors that relate to the work, to the work environment and to the employee personally.

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).

Ans: (C)

24. Assertion (A) : For infant wear raglan sleeve is considered most appropriate.

Reason (R) : Raglan sleeve being set-in sleeve gives more room for movement.

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) & (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect.

Ans: (A)

25. Assertion (A) : Textured yarns & permanent pleats are produced by reforming materials at their Tg’s.

Reason (R) : The glass transition temperature is the point where crystalline regions of the fiber develop flow or melt.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct explanation.

Ans: (C)

26. Assertion (A) : Planning permits the action or work to be seen as a whole.

Reason (R) : Planning is essential to forecast future actions and it comprises of decision making.

Codes :

(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Ans: (D)

27. Assertion (A) : Private speech in children represents an early transition in becoming more socially communicative.

Reason (R) : When young children talk to themselves, they use language to govern their behaviour and guide themselves.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.

Ans: (C)

28. Assertion (A) : 73rd and 74th Amendments to Indian Constitution are important milestones for Women’s Development in India.

Reason (R) : Political participation of women is important for empowerment of women.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Ans: (A)

29. Assertion (A) : In order to make development programmes effective, the approach and procedure must be culturally appropriate.

Reason (R) : Culture is passed on from one generation to the next through communication.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(B) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.

(C) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Ans: (D)

30. Assertion (A) : The correlation coefficient is the mean of the cross products of the Z scores of two variables.

Reason (R) : The units of measurement of the variables have absolutely nothing to do with the correlation between the two variables.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (C)

31. Give the correct sequence of the stages of development of atherogenesis : 

I. Embolus

II. Fibrous plaques

III. Atheroma

IV. Thrombus

V. Fatty streaks

Codes :

(A) II, V, III, IV & I

(B) V, I, II, IV & III

(C) V, III, II, I & IV

(D) V, II, III, IV & I

Ans: (D)

32. Arrange in correct sequence the processing steps involved in manufacture of Black Tea :

I. Withering

II . Rolling

III. Drying

IV. Fermentation

V. Blending

VI. Grading

Codes :

(A) II, III, I, IV, VI and V

(B) I, II, IV, III, VI and V

(C) I, II, III, IV, V and VI

(D) II, I, IV, V, III and VI

Ans: (B)

33. Give the correct sequence of steps in buying non-perishable foods for food service institutions :

I. Develop purchase order

II . Write specifications

III. Award contract

IV. Issue bid request

Codes :

(A) I, II, IV, III

(B) II, I, IV, III

(C) IV, II, I, III

(D) II, IV, I, III

Ans: (B)

34. Give the correct sequence for preparing the fabric for draping :

I. Measure the dress form

II . Tear the fabric

III. Press the fabric

IV. Block the fabric

V. Mark the fabric

VI. Straighten the fabric
Codes :

(A) II, III, I, V, IV, VI

(B) III, II, I, V, IV, VI

(C) VI, I, II, IV, III, V

(D) V, IV, VI, I, II, III

Ans: (C)

35. Give the correct sequence of traditional cotton making process :

I. Opening & Carding

II . Spinning

III. Ginning

IV. Hand Picking

V. Weaving

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV, V

(B) II, I, III, IV, V

(C) IV, III, I, II, V

(D) III, I, II, V, IV

Ans: (C)

36. Arrange the household activities according to ascending order of workload :

I. Ironing

II . Dusting

III. Mopping

IV. Dish Washing

V. Chopping Vegetables

Codes :

(A) II, I, III, IV and V

(B) I, V, II, III and IV

(C) II, V, I, IV and III

(D) IV, V, II, III and I

Ans: (C)

37. Arrange the following Legislations in order of their year of enactment (ascending order) :

I. HAMA

II . JJ (C & P) Act

III. POCSO

IV. PNDT

Codes :

(A) I, IV, II, III

(B) I, IV, III, II

(C) II, I, III, IV

(D) IV, I, II, III

Ans: (A)

38. As per the Evrett Rogers’ Diffusion of Innovation model, the sequence of categories of adopters is

I. Late Majority

II . Laggards

III. Innovators

IV. Early Adopters

V. Early Majority

Codes :

(A) IV, V, I, II, III

(B) I, II, III, IV, V

(C) II, III, IV, V, I

(D) III, IV, V, I, II

Ans: (D)

39. Sequence the various functions of Management in extension.

I. Planning

II . Directing

III. Co-ordinating

IV. Reporting

V. Organizing

Codes :

(A) I, V, II, III, IV

(B) I, II, III, IV, V

(C) V, I, II, IV, III

(D) I, III, V, II, IV

Ans: (A)

40. Arrange the following steps in correct sequence :

I. Arrive at Statistical Conclusion.

II. Analyse Data.

III. State the Research Question

IV. Collect Data

V. State Statistical Question

VI. Arrive at Research Conclusion

Codes :

(A) III, IV, V, II, I, VI

(B) III, V, IV, I, II, VI

(C) V, III, IV, II, I, VI

(D) III, V, IV, II, I, VI

Ans: (D)

41. Match the nutrients in List – I with deficiency symptoms in List – II.

Ans: (A)

42. Match the Physiological groups given in List – I with RDA of iron in List – II.

Ans: (C)

43. Match the approaches to management in List – I with their characteristics in List – II.

Ans: (D)

44. Match the principles of design in the List – I with their examples given in List – II.

Ans: (D)

45. Match the Linear density units in List-I with their explanations in List-II.

Ans: (A)

46. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II.

Ans: (D)

47. Match List – I with List- II.

Ans: (B)

48. Match the development programme in List – II with the problem it addresses in List – I.

Ans: (B)

49. Match and relate items in List – I with those in List – II

Ans: (B)

50. Match the items in List – I with List – II.

Ans: (B)