NEET (UG)-2019 Examination Held on 05-05-2019 Code P1 Question Paper With Answer Key

NEET UG 2019 Examination Held on 05.05.2019 Code P1

PHYSICS

1. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of length L, the length of the wire becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy stored in the extended wire is:

(1)  Mgl

(2)  MgL

(3)    

(4)   

Answer: (3)

2. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when:

(1) the mass is at the highest point

(2) the wire is horizontal

(3) the mass is at the lowest point

(4)  inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical

Answer: (3)

3. Ionized hydrogen atoms and α-particles with same momenta enters perpendicular to a constant magnetic field, B. The ratio of their radii of their paths rH : rα will be :

(1)  2 : 1

(2)  1 : 2

(3)  4 : 1

(4)  1 : 4

Answer: (1)

4. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with another body B of mass 2m, at rest. The collision is head on and elastic in nature. After the collision the fraction of energy lost by the colliding body A is :

(1)  1/9

(2)  8/9

(3)  4/9

(4)  5/9

Answer: (2)

5. In a double slit experiment, when light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of the first minima formed on a screen placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What will be the angular width of the first minima, if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water? (μmax = 4/3)

(1)  0.266°

(2)  0.15°

(3)  0.05°

(4)  0.1°

Answer: (2)

6. In which of the following devices, the eddy current effect is not used?

(1) Induction furnace

(2) Magnetic braking in train

(3) Electromagnet

(4) Electric heater

Answer: (4)

7. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside the bubble equals at a point Z0 below the free surface of water in a container. Taking g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the value of Z0 is :

(1)  100 cm

(2)  10 cm

(3)  1 cm

(4)  0.5 cm

Answer: (3)

8. Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?

(1)  Red

(2)  Blue

(3)  Green

(4)  Violet

Answer: (1)

9. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop it?

(1)  3 J

(2)  30 kJ

(3)  2 J

(4)  1 J

Answer: (1)

10. The displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by

y = A0 + Asinωt + Bcosωt

Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given by :

(1)   

(2)   

(3)    

(4)  A + B

Answer: (2)

11. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal length f each, are kept coaxially in contact with each other such that the focal length of the combination is F1. When the space between the two lenses is filled with glycerin (which has the same refractive index (μ = 1.5) as that of glass) then the equivalent focal length is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be :

(1)  2 : 1

(2)  1 : 2

(3)  2 : 3

(4)  3: 4

Answer: (2)

12. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a container would lead to :

(1) Increase in its mass

(2) Increase in its kinetic energy

(3) Decrease in its pressure

(4) Decrease in intermolecular distance

Answer: (2)

13. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength is, (nearly) : (me = 9 × 10–31 kg)

(1)  12.2 × 1013 m

(2)  12.2 × 1012 m

(3)  12.2 × 1014 m

(4)  12.2 nm

Answer: (2)

14. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of unknown length have their increase in length independent of increase in temperature. The length of aluminium rod is :

Cu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 and αAl = 2.2 × 10–5 K–1)

(1)  6.8 cm

(2)  113.9 cm

(3)  88 cm

(4)  68 cm

Answer: (4)

15. Pick the wrong answer in the context with rainbow.

(1) When the light rays undergo two internal reflections in a water drop, a secondary rainbow is formed

(2) The order of colours is reversed in the secondary rainbow

(3) An observer can see a rainbow when his front is towards the sun

(4) Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion refraction and reflection of sunlight

Answer: (3)

16. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the earth. How much will it weigh half way down to the centre of the earth ?

(1)  150 N

(2)  200 N

(3)  250 N

(4)  100 N

Answer: (4)

17. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E and zero internal resistance.

The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation when two from section A and one from section B are glowing, will be :

(1)  4 : 9

(2)  9 : 4

(3)  1 : 2

(4)  2 : 1

Answer: (2)

18. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true ?

(1) Electrons are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.

(2) Holes are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.

(3) Holes are the majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.

(4) Electrons are the majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.

Answer: (2)

19. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in one complete vibration is :

(1)  Aω/2

(2)  Aω

(3)  Aω2/2

(4)  Zero

Answer: (4)

20. The unit of thermal conductivity is :

(1)  J m K1

(2)  J m1 K1

(3)  W m K1

(4)  W m1 K1

Answer: (4)

21. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required to stop after 2π revolutions is

(1)  2 × 106 N m

(2)  2 × 103 N m

(3)  12 × 104 N m

(4)  2 × 106 N m

Answer: (1)

22. A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in y-direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from y = 0 to y = 1 m is

(1)  30 J

(2)  5 J

(3)  25 J

(4)  20 J

Answer: (3)

23. Which of the following acts as a circuit protects device?

(1)  Conductor

(2)  Inductor

(3)  Switch

(4)  Fuse

Answer: (4)

24. In the circuits shown below, the readings of voltmeters and the ammeters will be

(1)  V2 > V1 and i1 = i2

(2)  V1 = V2 and i1 > i2

(3)  V1 = V2 and i1 = i2

(4)  V2 > V1 and i1 > i2

Answer: (3)

25. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from the centre

(1)  Increases as r increases for r < R and for r > R

(2) Zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as r increases for r > R

(3) Zero as r increases for r < R, increases as r increases for r > R

(4) Decreases as r increases for r < R and for r > R

Answer: (2)

26. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle of dip, δ = +25°. At a point B on the earth’s surface the angle of dip, δ = –25°. We can interpret that:

(1) A and B are both located in the northern hemisphere.

(2) A is located in the southern hemisphere and B is located in the northern hemisphere.

(3) A is located in the northern hemisphere and B is located in the southern hemisphere.

(4) A and B are both located in the southern hemisphere.

Answer: (3)

27. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, respectively:

(1) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV

(2) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV

(3) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV

(4) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV

Answer: (3)

28. In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in contact, what will be angle of refraction?

(1)  180°

(2)  0°

(3)  Equal to angle of incidence

(4)  90°

Answer: (4)

29. The work done to raise a mass m from the surface of the earth to a height h, which is equal to the radius of the earth, is:

(1)  mgR

(2)  2 mgR

(3)   

(4)    

Answer: (3)

30. When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60° with horizontal, it can travel a distance x1 along the plane. But when the inclination is decreased to 30° and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance. Then x1 : x2 will be:

(1)  1 : √2

(2)  √2 : 1

(3)  1 : √3

(4)  1 : 2√3

Answer: (3)

31. α-particle consists of :

(1) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only

(2) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons

(3) 2 electrons and 4 protons only

(4) 2 protons only

Answer: (1)

32. The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is flowing due east. If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross the river along the shortest path the angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by :

(1)  30° west

(2)  0°

(3)  60° west

(4)  45° west

Answer: (1)

33. A particle moving with velocity  is acted by three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR. The velocity of the particle will :

(1) increase

(2) decrease

(3) remain constant

(4) change according to the smallest force   

Answer: (3)

34. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA and rB with speed vA and vB Their time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of angular speed of A to that of B will be :

(1)  rA : rB

(2)  vA : vB

(3)  rB : rA

(4)  1 : 1

Answer: (4)

35. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the block stationary when the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its axis, will be : ((g =10 m/s2 )

(1)  √10 rad/s

(2)   

(3)  10 rad/s

(4)  10 π rad/s

Answer: (3)

36. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge densities +λ C/m and –λ C/m are placed at a distance of 2R in free space. What is the electric field mid-way between the two line charges?

(1)  Zero

(2)   

(3)   

(4)   

Answer: (3)

37. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and –Q respectively, are placed at certain distance apart and force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then force between the charges becomes :

(1)  F

(2)  9F/16

(3)  16F/9

(4)  4F/3

Answer: (2)

38. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 is present near the bottom of a fully filled open tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the rate of flow of water through the open hole would be nearly

(1)  12.6 × 106 m3/s

(2)  8.9 × 106 m3/s

(3)  2.23 × 106 m3/s

(4)  6.4 × 106 m3/s

Answer: (1)

39. 

The correct Boolean operation represented by the circuit diagram drawn is :

(1)  AND

(2)  OR

(3)  NAND

(4)  NOR

Answer: (3)

40. In which of the following processes, heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system?

(1)  Isothermal

(2)  Adiabatic

(3)  Isobaric

(4)  Isochoric

Answer: (2)

41. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10–5 When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf induced in the coil will be:

(1)  2 V

(2)  0.2 V

(3)  2 × 103 V

(4)  0.02 V

Answer: (4)

42. The radius of circle, the period of revolution, initial position and sense of revolution are indicated in the fig.

y-projection of the radius vector of rotating particle P is:

(1)  y(t) = −3 cos2πt, where y in m

(2)   

(3)    

(4)   

Answer: (4)

43. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 μF is being charged by a voltage source whose potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The conduction current through the connecting wires, and the displacement current through the plates of the capacitor, would be, respectively.

(1)  Zero, 60 μA

(2)  60 μA, 60 μA

(3)  60 μA, zero

(4)  Zero, zero

Answer: (2)

44. In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Then the maximum percentage of error in the measurement X, where  will be

(1)  (3/13)%

(2)  16%

(3)  −10%

(4)  10%

Answer: (2)

45. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying a constant current. The plot of the magnitude of the magnetic field. B with the distance d from the centre of the conductor, is correctly represented by the figure :

Answer: (3)

CHEMISTRY

46. The number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is

(1) 10 σ bonds and 3 π bonds

(2) 8 σ bonds and 5 π bonds

(3) 11 σ bonds and 2 π bonds

(4) 13 σ bonds and no π bonds

Answer: (1)

47. The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction, is

Answer: (2)

48. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is

Answer: (1)

49. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is

(1) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d

(2) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d

(3) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p

(4) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p

Answer: (1)

50. Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reaction?

Select the correct option from the following

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4)  (a) and (d) only

Answer: (1)

51. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is

(Given that 1 L bar = 100 J)

(1)  −30 J

(2)  5 kJ

(3)  25 J

(4)  30 J

Answer: (1)

52. Among the following, the one that is not a green house gas is

(1)  Nitrous oxide

(2)  Methane

(3)  Ozone

(4)  Sulphur dioxide

Answer: (4)

53. For the cell reaction

2Fe3+ (aq) + 2I(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + I2(aq)

cell = 0.24 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs energy (∆rG°) of the cell reaction is:

(1)  −46.32 kJ mol1

(2)  −23.16 kJ mol1

(3)  46.32 kJ mol1

(4)  23.16 kJ mol1

Answer: (1)

54. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the cofactor. M is :

(1)  Be

(2)  Mg

(3)  Ca

(4)  Sr

Answer: (2)

55. The most suitable reagent for the following conversion, is :

(1)  Na/liquid NH3

(2)  H2, Pd/C, quinoline

(3)  Zn/HCl

(4)  Hg2+/H+, H2O

Answer: (2)

56. Which is the correct thermal stability order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?

(1) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po

(2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po

(3) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O

(4) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S

Answer: (3)

57. Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(1)  PbF4 is covalent in nature

(2)  SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed

(3)  GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than XeX2

(4)  SnF4 is ionic in nature

Answer: (1)

58. Match the following :

(a) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine

(b) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid

(c) Contact process (iii) Ammonia

(d) Deacon’s process (iv) Sodium azide or Barium azide

Which of the following is the correct option?

(1)  (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)

(2)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

(3)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(4)  (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

Answer: (4)

59. Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only π bonds according to Molecular Orbital Theory?

(1)  O2

(2)  N2

(3)  C2

(4)  Be2

Answer: (3)

60. For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:

(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne

(2) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne

(3) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne

(4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne

Answer: (2)

61. The biodegradable polymer is:

(1) Nylon-6,6

(2) Nylon 2-Nylon 6

(3) Nylon-6

(4) Buna-S

Answer: (2)

62. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is:

(1)  0.5 × 1015

(2)  0.25× 1010

(3)  0.125 × 1015

(4)  0.5× 1010

Answer: (1)

63. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of 99% of the reaction is given by:

(1) t = 0.693/k

(2) t = 6.909/k

(3) t = 4.606/k

(4) t = 2.303/k

Answer: (3)

64. The non-essential amino acid among the following is:

(1)  valine

(2)  leucine

(3)  alanine

(4)  lysine

Answer: (3)

65. Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is:

Answer: (2)

66. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is:

(1)  Water + Nitric acid

(2)  Ethanol + water

(3)  Acetone + Carbon disulphide

(4)  Heptane + Octane

Answer: (1)

67. For the chemical reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g)

the correct options is :

(1)  

(2)   

(3)    

(4)   

Answer: (3)

68. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through Haber’s process is :

(1)  10

(2)  20

(3)  30

(4)  40

Answer: (3)

69. The compound that is most difficult to protonate is :

Answer: (4)

70. For an ideal solution, the correct option is :

(1) ∆mix S = 0 at constant T and P

(2) ∆mix V ≠ 0 at constant T and P

(3) ∆mix H = 0 at constant T and P

(4) ∆mix G = 0 at constant T and P

Answer: (3)

71. Conjugate base for  acids H2O and HF are :

(1) OH and H2F+, respectively

(2) H3O+ and F, respectively

(3) OH and F, respectively

(4) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively

Answer: (3)

72. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the formation of negatively charged colloidal [Agl]l ?

(1) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI

(2) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI

(3) 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI

(4) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI

Answer: (2)

73. Among the following, the narrow spectrum antibiotic is :

(1)  Penicillin G

(2)  Ampicillin

(3)  Amoxycillin

(4)  Chloramphenicol

Answer: (1)

74. An alkene “A” on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene “A” gives “B” as the major product. The structure of product “B” is:

Answer: (3)

75. What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal field theory?

(1)   

(2)   

(3)    

(4)    

Answer: (2)

76. Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl5 from the following:

(1) Three equatorial P–Cl bonds make an angle of 120° with each other

(2) Two axial P–Cl bonds make an angle of 180° with each other

(3) Axial P–Cl bonds are longer than equatorial P–Cl bonds

(4) PCl5 molecule is non-reactive

Answer: (4)

77. Which will make basic buffer?

(1) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH

(2) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH

(3) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH

(4) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH

Answer: (3)

78. The major product of the following reaction is:

Answer: (2)

79. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column-II and assign the correct code:

Column-I      Column-II

(a) XeF4         (i) pyramidal

(b) XeF6        (ii) square planar

(c) XeOF4      (iii)distorted octahedral

(d) XeO3        (iv) square pyramidal

(1)  (a) – (i), (b) –(ii), (c) –(iii), (d) – (iv)

(2)  (a) – (ii), (b) –(iii), (c) –(iv), (d) – (i)

(3)  (a) – (ii), (b) –(iii), (c) –(i), (d) – (iv)

(4)  (a) – (iii), (b) –(iv), (c) –(i), (d) – (ii)

Answer: (2)

80. The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral, due to :

(1) The π-bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese

(2) There is no π-bonding

(3) The π-bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of manganese

(4) The π-bonding involves overlap of d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese

Answer: (1)

81. Which of the following species is not stable?

(1)  [SiF6]2

(2)  [GeCl6] 2

(3)  [Sn(OH)6] 2

(4)  [SiCl6] 2

Answer: (4)

82. For a cell involving one electron E­°cell = 0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is :

(1)  1.0 × 102

(2)  1.0× 105

(3)  1.0 × 1010

(4)  × 1030

Answer: (3)

83. Which of the following is an amphoteric hydroxide?

(1)  Sr(OH)2

(2)  Ca(OH)2

(3)  Mg(OH)2

(4)  Be(OH)2

Answer: (4)

84. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume 20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas under the same conditions. The correct option about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is :

(1) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant

(2) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant

(3) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant

(4) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant

Answer: (3)

85. A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. The anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy 75% of octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is :

(1)  C2A3

(2)  C3A2

(3)  C3A4

(4)  C4A3

Answer: (3)

86. In which case change in entropy is negative?

(1)  Evaporation of water

(2)  Expansion of a gas at constant temperature

(3)  Sublimation of solid to gas

(4)  2H(g) → H2(g)

Answer: (4)

87. Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible region?

(1)  Lyman series

(2)  Balmar series

(3)  Paschen series

(4)  Brackett series

Answer: (2)

88. The method used to remove temporary hardness of water is :

(1) Calgon’s method

(2) Clark’s method

(3) Ion-exchange method

(4) Synthetic resins method

Answer: (2)

89. Which one is malachite from the following?

(1)  CuFeS2

(2)  Cu(OH)2

(3)  Fe3O4

(4)  CuCO3.Cu(OH)2

Answer: (4)

90. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is :

(1) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N

(2) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH

(3) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2

(4) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N

Answer: (1)

BIOLOGY

91. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called

(1) to reduce CO2 emissions and global warming

(2) for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits

(3) to assess threat posed to native species by invasive weed species

(4) for immediate steps to discontinue use of CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer

Answer: (2)

92. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the new born infants because it contains :

(1)  Natural killer cells

(2)  Monocytes

(3)  Macrophages

(4)  Immunoglobulin A

Answer: (4)

93. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from the following :

(1) Closure of stomata

(2) Flaccidity of bulliform cells

(3) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll

(4) Tyloses in vessels

Answer: (2)

94. The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as

(1) s-arm and l-arm respectively

(2) p-arm and q-arm respectively

(3) q-arm and p-arm respectively

(4) m-arm and n-arm respectively

Answer: (2)

95. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is

(1)  0.9

(2)  0.7

(3)  0.07

(4)  0.09

Answer: (2)

96. Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent?

(1)  Cyclosporin A

(2)  Statin

(3)  Streptokinase

(4)  Lipases

Answer: (2)

97. Match the following structures with their respective location in organs

(a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas

(b) Glisson’s Capsule       (ii) Duodenum

(c) Islets of Langerhans    (iii) Small intestine

(d) Brunner’s Glands        (iv) Liver

Select the correct option from the following

(1)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)

(2)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

(3)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

(4)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

Answer: (3)

98. Which of the following is the most important cause for animals and plants being driven to extinction?

(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation

(2) Drought and floods

(3) Economic exploitation

(4) Alien species invasion

Answer: (1)

99. Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation?

(1) Cerebrum

(2) Hypothalamus

(3) Corpus callosum

(4) Medulla oblongata

Answer: (2)

100. Consider following features

(a) Organ system level of organisation

(b) Bilateral symmetry

(c) True coelomates with segmentation of body

Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata

(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca

(3) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata

(4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata

Answer: (1)

101. Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth

(1) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum

(2) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Crop → Ileum → Colon → Rectum

(3) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Ileum → Crop → Colon → Rectum

(4) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop → Gizzard → Colon → Rectum

Answer: (1)

102. Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly responsible for green house effect?

(1) Ozone and Ammonia

(2) Oxygen and Nitrogen

(3) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide

(4) Carbon dioxide and Methane

Answer: (4)

103. Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited?

(1)  Tetany

(2)  Muscular dystrophy

(3)  Myasthenia gravis

(4)  Botulism

Answer: (2)

104. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these cells are mainly present in

(1) Bile duct and Bronchioles

(2) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct

(3) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct

(4) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

Answer: (4)

105. Match the Column-I with Column-II

Column-I               Column-II

(a) P – wave            (i) Depolarisation of ventricles

(b) QRS complex    (ii) Repolarisation of ventricles

(c) T – wave            (iii)Coronary ischemia

(d) Reduction in the (iv) Depolarisation of size of T-wave atira

                               (v) Repolarisation of atria

Select the correct option.

(1)  (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

(2)  (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (v)

(3)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (v), (d) – (iii)

(4)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (v), (d) – (iv)

Answer: (1)

106. Which one of the following is not a method in situ conservation of biodiversity?

(1) Biosphere Reserve

(2) Wildlife Sanctuary

(3) Botanical Garden

(4) Sacred Grove

Answer: (3)

107. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weight from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place?

(1) Directional Selection

(2) Stabilizing Selection

(3) Disruptive Selection

(4) Cyclical Selection

Answer: (2)

108. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is :

(1) M → G1 → G2 → S

(2) G1 → G2 → S → M

(3) S → G1 → G2 → M

(4) G1 → S → G2 → M

Answer: (4)

109. How does steroid hormone influence the cellular activities?

(1) Changing the permeability of the cell membrane

(2) Binding to DNA and forming a genehormone complex

(3) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell membrane

(4) Using aquaporin channels as second messenger

Answer: (2)

110. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes

(2) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes  are active under acidic pH

(3)  Lysosomes are membrane bound structures

(4) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: (4)

111. Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering plants is incorrect?

(1) Ovary develops into fruit

(2) Zygote develops into embryo

(3) Central cell develops into endosperm

(4) Ovules develop into embryo sac

Answer: (4)

112. Concanavalin A is

(1)  an alkaloid

(2)  an essential oil

(3)  a lectin

(4)  a pigment

Answer: (3)

113. Which one of the following equipments is essentially required for growing microbes on a large scale, for industrial production of enzymes?

(1)  BOD incubator

(2)  Sludge digester

(3)  Industrial oven

(4)  Bioreactor

Answer: (4)

114. Consider the following statement

(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called

prosthetic group.

(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.

Select the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(2) (A) is true but (B) is false.

(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.

(4) (A) is false but (B) is true

Answer: (2)

115. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are

(1) Adenine and thymine

(2) Adenine and guanine

(3) Guanine and cytosine

(4) Cytosine and thymine

Answer: (2)

116. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system.

(1) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra

(2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus

(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra

(4) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal → Urethra → Urethral meatus

Answer: (2)

117. Match the hominids with their correct brain size :

(a) Homo habilis                        (i) 900 cc

(b) Homo neanderthalensis        (ii) 1350 cc

(c) Homo erectus                        (iii) 650-800 cc

(d) Homo sapiens                       (iv) 1400 cc

Select the correct option.

(1)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)

(2)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

(3)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

(4)  (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

Answer: (3)

118. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries are

(1) random and directional

(2) random and directionless

(3) small and directional

(4) small and directionless

Answer: (2)

119. Which of the following pair of organelles does not contain DNA?

(1) Mitochondria and Lysosomes

(2) Chloroplast and Vacuoles

(3) Lysosomes and Vacuoles

(4) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria

Answer: (3)

120. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to

(1) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity

(2) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles

(3) proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls

(4)  reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes.

Answer: (2)

121. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Male fruit fly is heterogametic

(2) In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms have no sex-chromosome

(3) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny depends on the type of sperm rather  than egg

(4) Human males have one of their sexchromosome much shorter than the other

Answer: (3)

122. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with

(1) Isopropanol

(2) Chilled ethanol

(3) Methanol at room temperature

(4) Chilled chloroform

Answer: (2)

123. Select the correct group of biocontrol agents

(1) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic virus, Aphids

(2) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis

(3) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma

(4) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus

Answer: (2)

124. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Inbreeding increases homozygosity

(2) Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines in any animal.

(3) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive genes that reduce fertility and productivity

(4) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of superior genes and elimination of undesirable genes

Answer: (3)

125. Match the following organisms with the products they produce

(a) Lactobacillus     (i) Cheese

(b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd cerevisiae

(c) Aspergillus niger (iii)Citric Acid

(d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread

                                  (v) Acetic Acid

Select the correct option

(1)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (v), (d) – (iii)

(2)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (v)

(3)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (v), (d) – (i)

(4)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (v)

Answer: (2)

126. What is the direction of movement of sugars in phloem?

(1)  Non-multidirectional

(2)  Upward

(3)  Downward

(4)  Bi-directional

Answer: (4)

127. In some plants, the female gamete develops into embryo without fertilization. This phenomenon is known as

(1) Autogamy

(2) Parthenocarpy

(3) Syngamy

(4) Parthenogenesis

Answer: (4)

128. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as

(1) Chalaza

(2) Perisperm

(3) Hilum

(4) Tegmen

Answer: (2)

129. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?

(1) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 10% cross over.

(2) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 100% cross over.

(3) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over.

(4) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over.

Answer: (3)

130. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?

(1) 50 beats per minute

(2) 75 beats per minute

(3) 100 beats per minute

(4) 125 beats per minute

Answer: (3)

131. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in carrying out

(1) Nitrogen fixation

(2) Chemoautotrophic fixation

(3) Nitrification

(4) Denitrification

Answer: (4)

132. Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine?

(1) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone

(2) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys.

(3) Secretion of erythropoietin by Juxtaglomerular complex

(4) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filtration

Answer: (2)

133. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect?

(1) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

(2) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane.

(3) Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings.

(4) Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.

Answer: (2)

134. Xylem translocates.

(1)   Water only

(2) Water and mineral salts only

(3) Water, mineral salts and some organic nitrogen only

(4) Water, mineral salts, some organic nitrogen and hormones

Answer: (4)

135. Cell in G0 phase :

(1) exit the cell cycle

(2) enter the cell cycle

(3) suspend the cell cycle

(4)  terminate the cell cycle

Answer: (1)

136. Which of the statements given below is not true about formation of Annual Rings in trees?

(1) Annual ring is a combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in a year

(2) Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark bands of tissue early and late wood respectively.

(3) Activity of cambium depends upon variation in climate.

(4) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate region.

Answer: (4)

137. Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted?

(1) Pyramid of numbers in grassland

(2) Pyramid of energy

(3) Pyramid of biomass in a forest

(4) Pyramid of biomass in a sea

Answer: (4)

138. Placentation in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is

(1)  Basal

(2)  Axile

(3)  Parietal

(4)  Free central

Answer: (3)

139. Which of the following protocols did aim for reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbons into the atmosphere?

(1) Montreal Protocol

(2) Kyto Protocol

(3) Gothenburg Protocol

(4) Geneva Protocol

Answer: (1)

140. Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?

(1) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills Emergency contraceptives.

(2) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills.

(3) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives.

(4) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods.

Answer: (1)

141. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL, respectively. What will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?

(1)  1500 mL

(2)  1700 mL

(3)  2200 mL

(4)  2700 mL

Answer: (1)

142. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid?

(1) One fuses with egg other(s) degenerate (s) in the synergid.

(2) All fuse with the egg.

(3) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) with synergid nucleus.

(4) One fuses with the egg and other fuses with central cell nuclei.

Answer: (4)

143. What is the site of perception of photoperiod necessary for induction of flowering in plants?

(1)  Lateral buds

(2)  Pulvinus

(3)  Shoot apex

(4)  Leaves

Answer: (4)

144. Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus :

(1) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.

(2) Mangifera indica Linn.

(3) Mangifera indica

(4) Mangifera Indica

Answer: (2)

145. Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Identify the incorrect statement.

(1) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA.

(2) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.

(3) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.

(4) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.

Answer: (2)

146. From evolutionary point of view, retention of the female gametophyte with developing young embryo on the parent sporophyte for some time, is first observed in :

(1)  Liverwords

(2)  Mosses

(3)  Pteridophytes

(4)  Gymnosperms

Answer: (3)

147. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F1 generation pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :

(1)  This experiment does not follow the Principle of Dominance.

(2)  Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance

(3)  Ratio  of F2 1/4 (Red) : 2/4(Pink) : 1/4 (White)

(4)  Law of Segregation does not apply in this experiment

Answer: (4)

148. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalyzed by

(1)  Aldolase

(2)  Hexokinase

(3)  Enolase

(4)  Phosphofructokinase

Answer: (2)

149. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by

(1) methylation of morphine

(2) acetylation of morphine

(3) glycosylation of morphine

(4) nitration of morphine

Answer: (2)

150. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.

(1) Vaults, LNG-20

(2) Multiload 375, Progestasert

(3) Progestasert, LNG-20

(4) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375

Answer: (3)

151. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population?

(1) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)

(2) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)

(3) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)

(4) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)

Answer: (3)

152. Which of the following is true for Golden rice?

(1) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from daffodil

(2) It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis

(3) It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium vector

(4) It has yellow grains, because of a gene introduced from a primitive variety of rice

Answer: (1)

153. Pinus seed cannot germinate and established without fungal association. This is because :

(1) its embryo is immature.

(2) it has obligate association with mycorrhizae.

(3)  it has very hard seed coat.

(4) its seeds contain inhibitors that present germination.

Answer: (2)

154. Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by recombinant DNA technology?

(1) Genetic code is not ambiguous

(2) Genetic code is redundant

(3)  Genetic code is nearly universal

(4) Genetic code is specific

Answer: (3)

155. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?

(1)  Gonorrhoea

(2)  Genital warts

(3)  Genital herpes

(4)  Chlamydiasis

Answer: (3)

156. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Viroids lack a protein coat.

(2) Viruses are obligate parasites.

(3) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat.

(4) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins.

Answer: (3)

157. Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics :

(a) Pila                    (i) Flame cells

(b) Bombyx             (ii) Comb plates

(c) Pleurobrachia    (iii) Radula

(d) Taenia               (iv) Malpighian tubules

Select the correct option from the following :

(1)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

(2)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(3)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)

(4)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

Answer: (2)

158. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :

(1) Genes expressed as RNA

(2) Polypeptide expression

(3) DNA polymorphism

(4) Novel DNA sequences

Answer: (1)

159. Which is of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.

(2) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD.

(3) Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously.

(4) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae.

Answer: (4)

160. Match Column – I Column – II

Column – I

(a) Saprophyte

(b) Parasite

(c) Lichens

(d) Mycorrhiza

Column – II

(i) Symbiotic association of fungi with plant roots

(ii) Decomposition of dead organic materials

(iii) Living on living plants or animals

(iv) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi

(1)  (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)

(2)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

(3)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)

(4)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

Answer: (4)

161. Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent?

(1)  GLUT I

(2)  GLUT II

(3)  GLUT III

(4)  GLUT IV

Answer: (4)

162. Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent?

(1) Auto-immune response

(2) Humoral immune response

(3) Inflammatory immune response

(4) Cell-mediated immune response

Answer: (4)

163. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in :

(a)  Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body

(b)  Non-elimination of excess potassium ions

(c)  Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract

(d)  Reduced RBC production

Which of the following options is the most appropriate?

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct

(3) (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (a) and (d) are correct

Answer: (3)

164. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Cornea is an external, transparent and protective proteinacious covering of the eye-ball.

(2) Cornea consists of dense connective tissue of elastin and can repair itself.

(3) Cornea is convex, transparent layer which is highly vascularised.

(4) Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen and is the most sensitive portion the eye.

Answer: (4)

165. The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes was explained by :

(1)  T.H. Morgan

(2)  Gregor J. Mendel

(3)  Alfred Sturtevant

(4)  Sutton Boveri

Answer: (3)

166. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products :

(a) i gene (i) β-galactosidase

(b) z gene (ii) Permease

(c) a gene (iii) Repressor

(d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase

Select the correct option.

(1)  (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)

(2)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)

(3)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)

(4)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

Answer: (3)

167. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to produce flowers. Which combination of hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the year to increase yield?

(1) Auxin and Ethylene

(2) Gibberellin and Cytokinin

(3) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid

(4) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid

Answer: (1)

168. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various enzymes.

(1)  Chief Cells

(2)  Goblet Cells

(3)  Oxyntic Cells

(4)  Duodenal Cells

Answer: (2)

169. Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease?

(1)  Trichoderma

(2)  Chlorella

(3)  Anabaena

(4)  Lactobacillus

Answer: (1)

170. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks :

(1) Albuminous cells and sieve cells

(2) Sieve tubes only

(3) Companion cells only

(4) Both sieve tubes and companion cells

Answer: (4)

171. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs :

(1) after entry of sperm but before fertilization

(2) after fertilization

(3) before entry of sperm into ovum

(4) simultaneously with first cleavage

Answer: (1)

172. Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of following mRNA?

5’AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3′

(1) Insertion of G at 5th position

(2) Deletion of G from 5th position

(3) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions respectively

(4) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions

Answer: (4)

173. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula” regarding cell division was first proposed by

(1) Rudolf Virchow

(2) Theodor Schwann

(3) Schleiden

(4) Aristotle

Answer: (1)

174. What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll worm?

(1) Body temperature

(2) Moist surface of midgut

(3) Alkaline pH of gut

(4) Acidic pH of stomach

Answer: (3)

175. Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid.

(1) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test

(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test

(3) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test

(4) Salmonella typhi / Widal test

Answer: (4)

176. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development gynaecomastia, and is sterile ?

(1) Turner’s syndrome

(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(3) Edward syndrome

(4) Down’s syndrome

Answer: (2)

177. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic, has proved to be a good material for

(1) Making plastic sacks

(2) Use as a fertilizer

(3) Construction of roads

(4) Making tubes and pipes

Answer: (3)

178. Which of these following methods is the most suitable for disposal of nuclear waste?

(1) Shoot the waste into space

(2) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover

(3) Dump the waste within rocks under deep ocean

(4) Bury the waste within rocks deep below the Earth’s surface

Answer: (4)

179. Match the following hormones with the respective disease

(a) Insulin                         (i) Addison’s disease

(b) Thyroxin                     (ii) Diabetes insipidus

(c) Corticoids                   (iii) Acromegaly

(d) Growth Hormone       (iv) Goitre

                                         (v) Diabetes mellitus

Select the correct option.

(1)  (a) – (v), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

(2)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)

(3)  (a) – (v), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

(4)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

Answer: (3)

180. Select the correct option.

(1) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum.

(2) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.

(3) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum.

(4) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs.

Answer: (4)

NEET (UG)-2019 Examination Held on 20-05-2019 CODE G1 Question Paper With Answer Key

NEET (UG) Examination Held On 20.05.2019 Code G1

PART-A (BIOLOGY)

1. Which of the following cell organelles is present in the highest number in secretory cells?

(1)  Mitochondria

(2)  Golgi complex

(3)  Endoplasmic reticulum

(4)  Lysosomes

Answer: (2)

2. Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus are the site for active synthesis of

(1)  protein synthesis

(2)  mRNA

(3)  rRNA

(4)  tRNA

Answer: (3)

3. Which of the following nucleic acids is present in an organism having 70 S ribosomes only?

(1) Single stranded DNA with protein coat

(2) Double stranded circular naked DNA

(3) Double stranded DNA enclosed in nuclear membrane

(4) Double stranded circular DNA with histone proteins

Answer: (2)

4. After meiosis I, the resultant daughter cells have

(1) same amount of DNA as in the parent cell in S phase.

(2) twice the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete.

(3) same amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete

(4) four times the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete

Answer: (2)

5. Which of the following organic compounds is the main constituent of Lecithin?

(1)  Arachidonic acid

(2)  Phospholipid

(3)  Cholesterol      

(4)  Phosphoprotein

Answer: (2)

6. The main difference between active and passive transport across cell membrane is :

(1) passive transport is non-selective whereas active transport is selective.

(2) passive transport requires a concentration gradient across a biological membrane whereas active transport requires energy to move solutes.

(3) passive transport is confined to anionic carrier proteins whereas active transport is confined to cationic channel proteins.

(4) active transport occurs more rapidly than passive transport.

Answer: (2)

7. Match the items given in Column – I with those in Column – II and choose the correct option.

Column-I                          Column-II

(a) Renin                          (i) Vitamin B12

(b) Enterokinase              (ii) Facilitated transport

(c) Oxyntic cells               (iii) Milk proteins

(d) Fructose                     (iv) Trypsinogen

(1)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(2)  (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

(3)  (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(4)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

Answer: (4)

8. Kwashiorkor disease is due to

(1) simultaneous deficiency of proteins and fats

(2) simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories

(3) deficiency of carbohydrates

(4) protein deficiency not accompanied by calorie deficiency

Answer: (2)

9. Select the correct sequence of events.

(1) Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Cell differentiation → Organogenesis

(2) Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Organogenesis → Cell differentiation

(3) Gametogenesis → Syngamy → Gamete transfer → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Cell differentiation → Organogenesis

(4) Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell differentiation → Cell division (Cleavage) → Organogenesis

Answer: (1)

10. Which of the following hormones is responsible for both the milk ejection reflex and the foetal ejectionreflex?

(1)  Estrogen

(2)  Prolactin

(3)  Oxytocin

(4)  Relaxin

Answer: (3)

11. No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because :

(1) Follicles do not remain in the ovary after ovulation.

(2) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase

(3) LH levels are high in the luteal phase

(4) Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase

Answer: (4)

12. In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have evolved to share many similar characteristics. This type of evolution may be referred to as –

(1) Adaptive Radiation

(2) Divergent Evolution

(3) Cyclical Evolution

(4) Convergent Evolution

Answer: (4)

13. Match the items of Column – I with Column – II :

Column-I                                                           Column-II

(a) XX-XO method of sex determination      (i) Turner’s syndrome

(b) XX-XY method of sex Determination     (ii) Female heterogametic

(c) Karyotype-45                                          (iii) Grasshopper

(d) ZW-ZZ method of Sex Determination     (iv) Female homogametic

Select the correct option from the following:

(1)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

(2)  (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

(3)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

(4)  (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

Answer: (3)

14. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA?

3′ ATGCATGCATGCATG 5′ TEMPLATE STRAND

5′ TACGTACGTACGTAC 3′ CODING STRAND

(1)  3′ AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5′

(2)  5′ UACGUACGUACGUAC 3′

(3)  3′ UACGUACGUACGUAC 5′

(4)  5′ AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3′

Answer: (2)

15. Select the incorrect statement regarding inbreeding.

(1) Inbreeding helps in elimination of deleterious alleles from the population.

(2) Inbreeding is necessary to evolve a pure-line in any animal.

(3) Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and leads to inbreeding depression.

(4) Inbreeding depression can not be overcome by Out-crossing.

Answer: (4)

16. A biocontrol agent to be a part of an integrated pest management should be

(1) species-specific and symbiotic

(2) free living and broad spectrum

(3) narrow spectrum and symbiotic

(4) species-specific and inactive on non-target organisms

Answer: (4)

17. Match the following enzymes with their functions:

Column-I                                  Column-II

(a) Restriction endonuclease  (i) joins the DNA fragments

(b) Restriction exonuclease   (ii) extends primers on genomic DNA template

(c) DNA ligase                       (iii) cuts DNA at specific position

(d) Tag polymerase                (iv) removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA

(1)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)

(2)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

(3)  (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

(4)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

Answer: (2)

18. The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR 322 are for

(1)  Ampicillin and Tetracycline

(2)  Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol

(3)  Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline

(4)  Tetracycline and Kanamycin

Answer: (1)

19. Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational companies without authorization from the concerned country is referred to as

(1)  Bioweapon

(2)  Biopiracy

(3)  Bioethics

(4)  Biowar   

Answer: (2)

20. Carnivorous animals – lions and leopards, occupy the same niche but lions predate mostly larger animals and leopards take smaller ones. This mechanism of competition is referred to as –

(1)  Character displacement

(2)  Altruism

(3)  Resource partitioning

(4)  Competitive exclusion

Answer: (3)

21. Decline in the population of Indian native fishes due to introduction of Clarias gariepinus in river Yamuna can be categorised as

(1)  Co-extinction

(2)  Habitat fragmentation

(3)  Over exploitation

(4)  Alien species invasion

Answer: (4)

22. Match the following RNA polymerases with their transcribed products:

Column-I                          Column-II

(a) RNA polymerase I      (i) tRNA

(b) RNA polymerase II     (ii) rRNA

(c) RNA polymerase III    (iii) hnRNA

Select the correct option from the following:

(1)  (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii)

(2)  (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii)

(3)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i)

(4)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i)

Answer: (3)

23. In a marriage between male with blood group A and female with blood group B, the progeny had either blood group AB or B. What could be the possible genotype of parents?

(1)  IA i(Male) : IBIB (Female)

(2)  IAIA(Male) : IBIB (Female)

(3)  IAIA (Male) : IB i (Female)

(4)  IA  i (Male) ; IB i(Female)

Answer: (1)

24. A population of a species invades a new area. Which of the following condition will lead to Adaptive Radiation?

(1) Area with large number of habitats having very low food supply.

(2) Area with a single type of vacant habitat.

(3) Area with many types of vacant habitats.

(4) Area with many habitats occupied by a large number of species.

Answer: (3)

25. Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action.

Select the correct option from the following:

(1) A = Steroid Hormone; B = Hormone receptor Complex; C = Protein

(2) A = Protein Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Cyclic AMP

(3) A = Steroid Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Second Messenger

(4) A = Protein Hormone; B = Cyclic AMP; C = Hormone-receptor Complex

Answer: (2)

26. Humans have acquired immune system that produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Still innate immune system is present at the time of birth because it

(1) is very specific and uses different macrophages,

(2) produces memory cells for mounting fast secondary response.

(3) has natural killer cells which can phagocytose and destroy microbes

(4) provides passive immunity.

Answer: (3)

27. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) An action potential in an axon does not move backward because the segment behind is in a refractory phase.

(2) Depolarization of hair cells of cochlea results in the opening of the mechanically gated Potassiumion channels.

(3) Rods are very sensitive and contribute to daylight vision.

(4) In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is the stretching of muscle and response is its contraction.

Answer: (3)

28. Match the following joints with the bones involved:

Column-I                          Column-II

(a) Gliding joint                (i) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb

(b) Hinge joint                  (ii) Between Atlas and Axis

(c) Pivot joint                    (iii) Between the Carpals

(d) Saddle joint                 (iv) Between Humerus and Ulna

Select the correct option from the following:

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(3) (a)-(iv), (b(-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-i)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (1)

29. Which of the following diseases is an auto-immune disorder

(1) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Arthritis

(3) Osteoporosis

(4) Gout

Answer: (1)

30. Artificial light, extended work-time and reduced sleep-time disrupt the activity of

(1)  Thymus gland

(2)  Pineal gland

(3)  Adrenal gland

(4)  Posterior pituitary gland

Answer: (2)

31. Which of the following conditions will stimulate parathyroid gland to release parathyroid hormone ?

(1)  Fall in active Vitamin D levels

(2)  Fall in blood Ca+2 levels

(3)  Fall in bone Ca+2 levels

(4)  Rise in blood Ca+2 levels

Answer: (2)

32. Which of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced.

(2) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself.

(3) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.

(4) IUDs suppress gametogenesis.

Answer: (3)

33. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do not specifically affect reproductive organs ?

(1) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B

(2) Syphilis and Genital herpes

(3) AIDS and Hepatitis B

(4) Chlamydiasis and AIDS

Answer: (3)

34. Match the following genera with their respective phylum :

(a) Ophiura (i) Mollusca

(b) Physalia (ii) Platyhelminthes

(c) Pinctada (iii) Echinodermata

(d) Planaria (iv) Coelenterata

Select the correct option :

(1)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(3)  (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (2)

35. Which of the following animals are true coelomates with bilateral symmetry ?

(1)  Adult Echinoderms

(2)  Aschelminthes

(3)  Platyhelminthes

(4)  Annelids

Answer: (4)

36. The contrasting characteristics generally in a pair used for identification of animals in Taxonomic Key are referred to as :

(1)  Lead

(2)  Couplet

(3)  Doublet

(4)  Alternate

Answer: (2)

37. Match the following cell structure with its characteristic feature :

(a) Tight junctions

(b) Adhering junctions

(c) Gap junctions

(d)Synaptic junctions

(i) Cement neighbouring cells together to form sheet

(ii) Transmit information through chemical to another cells

(iii) Establish a barrier to prevent leakage of fluid across epithelial cells

(iv) Cytoplasmic channels to facilitate communication between adjacent cells

Select correct option from the following :

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b )-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (3)

38. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?

(1) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision with less sensitivity and more resolution

(2) A mushroom-shaped gland is present in the 6th-7th abdominal segments of male cockroach.

(3) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment of female cockroach

(4) Female cockroach possesses sixteen ovarioles in the ovaries.

Answer: (1)

39. Select the correct statement.

(1) Expiration occurs due to external intercostal muscles.

(2) Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the atmospheric pressure during inspiration.

(3) Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure.

(4) Expiration is initiated due to contraction of diaphragm.

Answer: (2)

40. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is known as :

(1) Expiratory Capacity

(2) Vital Capacity

(3) Inspiratory Capacity

(4) Total Lung Capacity

Answer: (2)

41. All the components of the nodal tissue are autoexcitable. Why does the SA node act as the normal pacemaker ?

(1) SA node has the lowest rate of depolarisation.

(2) SA node is the only component to generate the threshold potential.

(3) Only SA node can convey the action potential to the other components.

(4) SA node has the highest rate of depolarisation.

Answer: (4)

42. A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the lower corner of the right atrium, close to Atrio-ventricular septum, delays the spreading of impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 sec.

This delay allows –

(1) blood to enter aorta.

(2) the ventricles to empty completely.

(3) blood to enter pulmonary arteries.

(4) the atria to empty completely.

Answer: (4)

43. Match the following parts of a nephron with their function:

(a) Descending limb of Henle’s loop

(b) Proximal convoluted tubule

(c) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop

(d) Distal convoluted tubule

(i) Reabsorption of salts only

(ii) Reabsorption of water only

(iii) Conditional reabsorption of sodium ions and water

(iv) Reabsorption of ions, water and organic nutrients

Select the correct option from the following :

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i),(c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (2)

44. Match the items in Column – I with those in Column – II :

Column – I             Column – II

(a) Podocytes       (i) Crystallised oxalates

(b) Protonephridia (ii) Annelids

(c) Nephridia         (iii) Amphioxus

(d) Renal calculi     (iv) Filtration slits

Select the correct option from the following:

(1) (a)-(iii), (b )-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (3)

45. Which of the following receptors are specifically responsible for maintenance of balance of body and posture ?

(1) Basilar membrane and otoliths

(2) Hair cells and organ of corti

(3) Tectorial membrane and macula

(4) Crista ampullaris and macula

Answer: (4)

46. Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN?

(1) Hand written scientific names should be underlined.

(2) Every species should have a generic name and a specific epithet.

(3) Scientific names are in Latin and should be italized.

(4) Generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.

Answer: (4)

47. Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an organism which has :

(1) Inert crystalline

(2) Abnormally folded protein

(3) Free RNA without protein coat

(4) Free DNA without protein coat

Answer: (2)

48. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.

(2) Algal component of lichens is called mycobiont.

(3) Fungal component of lichens is called phycobiont.

(4) Lichens are not good pollution indicators.

Answer: (1)

49. Match the organisms in column I with habitats in column II.

Column I                         Column II

(a) Halophiles                   (i) Hot springs

(b)Thermoacidophiles      (ii) Aquatic environment

(c) Methanogens               (iii) Guts of ruminants

(d) Cyanobacteria             (iv) Salty areas

Select the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (1)

50. In the dicot root the vascular cambium originates from :

(1)  Tissue located below the phloem bundles and a portion of pericycle tissue above protoxylem.

(2) Cortical region

(3) Parenchyma between endodermis and pericycle

(4) Intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue in a ring

Answer: (1)

51. Which of the following shows whorled phyllotaxy ?

(1)  Mustard

(2)  China rose

(3)  Alstonia 

(4)  Calotropis

Answer: (3)

52. Regeneration of damaged growing grass following grazing is largely due to :

(1)  Lateral meristem

(2)  Apical meristem

(3)  Intercalary meristem

(4)  Secondary meristem

Answer: (3)

53. Bicarpellary ovary with obliquely placed septum is seen in :

(1)  Brassica

(2)  Aloe

(3)  Solanum

(4)  Sesbania

Answer: (3)

54. Which is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms?

(1)  Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of divisions

(2) Monosporic with three sequential mitotic divisions

(3) Monosporic with two sequential mitotic divisions

(4)  Bisporic with two sequential mitotic divisions

Answer: (2)

55. From the following, identify the correct combination of salient features of Genetic Code

(1) Universal, Non-ambiguous,Overlapping

(2) Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless

(3) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate

(4) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non ambiguous

Answer: (4)

56. Which scientist experimentally proved that DNA is the sole genetic material in bacteriophage ?

(1) Beadle and Tautum

(2) Messelson and Stahl

(3) Hershey and Chase

(4) Jacob and Monod

Answer: (3)

57. In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase I transcribes –

(1) mRNA with additional processing, capping and tailing

(2) tRNA, 5 S rRNA and snRNAs

(3) rRNAs – 28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S

(4) Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA

Answer: (3)

58. In which genetic condition, each cell in the affected person, has three sex chromosomes XXY?

(1) Thalassemia

(2) Kleinfelter’s Syndrome

(3) Phenylketonuria

(4) Turner’s Syndrome

Answer: (2)

59. What initiation and termination factors are involved in transcription in Eukaryotes ?

(1)  σ and ρ, respectively

(2)  α and β, respectively

(3)  β and γ, respectively

(4)  α and σ, respectively

Answer: (*)

60. Which of the following statements is correct about the origin and evolution of men ?

(1) Agriculture came around 50,000 years back.

(2) The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus primates existing 15 million years ago, walked like men.

(3) Homo habilis probably ate meat.

(4) Neanderthal men lived in Asia between 100000 and 40000 years back

Answer: (4)

61. The production of gametes by the parents the formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants can be understood using

(1)  Pie diagram

(2)  A pyramid diagram

(3)  Punnet square

(4)  Wenn diagram

Answer: (3)

62. Match the column I with column II.

Column I                         Column II

(a) Golgi apparatus          (i) Synthesis of protein

(b) Lysosomes                 (ii) Trap waste and excretory products

(c) Vacuoles                    (iii) Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids

(d) Ribosomes                (iv) Digesting biomolecules

Choose the right match from options given below:

(1)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (1)

63. Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes in that,

(1) they require metal ions for their activity.

(2) they (prosthetic groups) are tightly bound to apoenzymes.

(3) their association with apoenzymes is transient.

(4) they can serve as co-factors in a number of enzyme-catalyzed reactions.

Answer: (2)

64. Crossing over takes place between which chromatids and in which stage of the cell cycle?

(1) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I.

(2) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I.

(3) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I.

(4) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I.

Answer: (2)

65. “Ramachandran plot” is used to confirm the structure of

(1)  RNA

(2)  Proteins

(3)  Triacylglycerides

(4)  DNA

Answer: (2)

66. Which of the following is not a feature of active transport of solutes in plants ? .

(1) Occurs against concentration gradient

(2) Non-selective

(3) Occurs through membranes

(4) Requires ATP

Answer: (2)

67. Which of the following bacteria reduce nitrate in soil into nitrogen ?

(1)  Nitrobacter

(2)  Thiobacillus

(3)  Nitrococcus

(4)  Nitrosomonas

Answer: (3)

68. What will be the direction of flow of water when a plant cell is placed in a Hypotonic solution?

(1) Water will flow in both directions.

(2) Water will flow out of the cell.

(3) Water will flow into the cell.

(4) No flow of water in any direction.

Answer: (3)

69. Where is the respiratory electron transport system (ETS) located in plants?

(1) Mitochondrial matrix

(2) Outer mitochondrial membrane

(3) Inner mitochondrial membrane

(4)  Intermembrane space

Answer: (3)

70. In Hutch and Slack pathway, the primary CO2 acceptor is –

(1) Oxaloacetic acid

(2) Phosphoglyceric acid

(3) Phosphoenol pyruvate

(4) Rubisco

Answer: (3)

71. Removal of shoot tips is a very useful technique to boost the production of tealeaves. This is because

(1) Gibberellins prevent bolting and are inactivated.

(2) Auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages.

(3) Effect of auxins is removed and growth of lateral buds is enhanced.

(4) Gibberellins delay senescence of leaves.

Answer: (3)

72. One scientist cultured Cladophora in a suspension of Azotobacter and illuminated the culture by splitting light through a prism. He observed that bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of :

(1)  Violet and green light

(2)  Indigo and green light

(3)  Orange and  yellow light

(4)  Blue and red light

Answer: (4)

73. In order to increase the yield of sugarcane crop, which of the following plant growth regulators should be sprayed ?

(1)  Ethylene

(2)  Auxins

(3)  Gibberellins

(4)  Cytokinins

Answer: (3)

74. What type of pollination takes place Vallisneria?

(1) Pollination occurs in submerged condition by water.

(2)  Flowers emerge above surface of Water and pollination occurs by insects.

(3) Flowers emerge above water surface and pollen is carried by wind.

(4) Male flowers are carried by water currents to female flowers at surface of water.

Answer: (4)

75. In which one of the following, both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented?

(1)  Wheat

(2)  Papaya

(3)  Castor

(4)  Maize

Answer: (2)

76. Match the placental types (column-I) with their examples (column-II)

Column–I              Column–II

(a) Basal                 (i) Mustard

(b) Axile                 (ii) China rose

(c) Parietal             (iii) Dianthus

(d) Free central      (iv) Sunflower

Choose the correct answer from the following

(1)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii),(c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(2)  (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (3)

77. A selectable marker is used to :

(1) help in eliminating the non transformants so that the transformants can be regenerated

(2) identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien organism

(3) select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific crop

(4) mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using restriction enzyme

Answer: (1)

78. Western Ghats have a large number of plant and animal species that are not found anywhere else. Which of the following terms will you use to notify such species ?

(1)  Endemic

(2)  Vulnerable

(3)  Threatened

(4)  Keystone

Answer: (1)

79. Which of the following statements about ozone is correct ?

(1) Tropospheric ozone protects us from UV radiations.

(2) Stratospheric ozone is ‘bad’.

(3)  Tropospheric ozone is ‘good’.

(4) Stratospheric ozone protects us from UV radiations.

Answer: (4)

80. Exploration of molecular, genetic and species level diversity for novel products of economic importance is known as :

(1) Biopiracy

(2) Bioenergetics

(3) Bioremediation

(4)  Bioprospecting

Answer: (4)

81. Which of the following is an innovative remedy for plastic waste ?

(1) Burning in the absence of oxygen

(2) Burrying 500 m deep below soil surface

(3) Polyblend

(4) Electrostatic precipitator

Answer: (3)

82. Between which among the following, the relationship is not an example of commensalism ?

(1) Orchid and the tree on which it grows

(2) Cattle Egret and grazing cattle

(3) Sea Anemone and Clown fish

(4) Female wasp and fig species

Answer: (4)

83. If an agricultural field is liberally, irrigated for a prolonged period of time, it is likely to face a problem of :

(1) Metal toxicity

(2) Alkalinity

(3) Acidity

(4) Salinity

Answer: (3)

84. Which of the following statements about methanogens is not correct?

(1) The can be used to produce biogas,

(2) They are found in the rumen of cattle and their excreta.

(3) They grow aerobically and breakdown cellulose-rich food.

(4) They produce methane gas.

Answer: (3)

85. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic, virus and powdery mildew were brought about by :

(1)  Mutation breeding

(2)  Biofortification

(3)  Tissue culture

(4)  Hybridization and selection

Answer: (1)

86. Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from

(1)  Papaver somniferum

(2)  Atropha belladona

(3)  Erythroxylum coca

(4)  Datura

Answer: (3)

87. Among the following pairs of microbes, which pair has both the microbes that can be used as biofertilizers ?

(1) Aspergillus and Rhizopus

(2) Rhizobium and Rhizopus

(3) Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium

(4) Aspergillus and Cyanobacteria

Answer: (3)

88. Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using Gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements.

(a) DNA is negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the Anode terminal.

(b)  DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not affect movement of DNA.

(c) Smaller the size of DNA fragment, larger is the distance it travels through it.

(d) Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing to UV radiation.

Choose correct answer from the options given below:

(1)  (a), (c) and (d)

(2)  (a), (b) and (c)

(3)  (b), (c) and (d)

(4)  (a), (b) and (d)

Answer: (4)

89. An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from ends of DNA is :

(1)  DNA ligase

(2)  Endonuclease

(3)  Exonuclease

(4)  Protease

Answer: (3)

90. In RNAi, the genes are silenced using:

(1)  ds – RNA

(2)  ss – DNA

(3)  ss – RNA

(4)  ds – DNA

Answer: (1)

PARTB-B (CHEMISTRY)

91. The reaction that does not give benzoic acid as the major product is –

Answer: (3)

92. The amine that reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to give an alkali insoluble product is –

Answer: (1)

93. Which structure(s) of proteins remains(s) intact during denaturation process ?

(1) Both secondary and tertiary structures

(2) Primary structure only

(3) Secondary structure only

(4) Tertiary structure only

Answer: (2)

94. The polymer that is used as a substitute for wool in making commercial fibers is –

(1)  melamine

(2)  nylon-6, 6

(3)  Polyacrylonitrile

(4)  Buna-N

Answer: (3)

95. The artificial sweetner stable at cooking temperature and does not provide calories is –

(1)  Saccharin

(2)  Aspartame

(3)  Sucralose

(4)  Alitame

Answer: (3)

96. The liquefied gas that is used in dry cleaning along with a suitable detergent is –

(1)  Water gas

(2)  Petroleum gas

(3)  NO2

(4)  CO2

Answer: (2)

97. The hydrolysis reaction that takes place at the slowest rate. among the following is

Answer: (1)

98. When vapour of a secondary alcohol is passed over heated copper at 573 K, the product formed is

(1)  a carboxylic acid

(2)  an aldehyde

(3)  a ketone

(4)  an alkene

Answer: (3)

99. The major product C and D formed in the following reaction respectively are :

(1) H3C−CH2−CH2−I and I−C(CH3)3

(2) H3C−CH2−CH2−OH and I−C(CH3)3

(3) H3C−CH2−CH2−I and HO−C(CH3)3

(4) H3C−CH2−CH2−OH and HO−C(CH3)3

Answer: (1)

100. Match the oxide given in column A with its property given column-II

Column -I      Column-II

(i) Na2O         (a) Neutral

(ii) Al2O3       (b) Basic

(iii) N2O        (c) Acidic

(iv) Cl2O7      (d) Amphoteric

Which of the following options has all correct pairs ?

(1) (i) − (b), (ii) − (a), (iii) − (d), (iv) − (c)

(2) (i) − (c), (ii) − (b), (iii) − (a), (iv) − (d)

(3) (i) − (a), (ii) − (d), (iii) − (b), (iv) − (c)

(4) (i) − (b), (ii) − (d), (iii) − (a), (iv) − (c)

Answer: (4)

101. Match the catalyst with the process :

Catalys                   Process

(i) V2O5                            (a) The oxidation of ethyne to ethanal

(ii) TiCl4 + Al(CH3)3         (b) Polymerisation

(iii) PdCl2                         (c) Oxidation of SO2 in the manufacture of H2SO4

(iv) Nickel complexes       (d) Polymerisation of ethylene

(1) (i) − (c), (ii) − (d), (iii) − (a), (iv) − (b)

(2) (i) − (a), (ii) − (b), (iii) − (c), (iv) − (d)

(3) (i) − (a), (ii) − (c), (iii) − (b), (iv) − (d)

(4) (i) − (c), (ii) − (a), (iii) − (d), (iv) − (b)

Answer: (1)

102. The most stable carbocation among the following is

(1)  (CH3)3C−CH+−CH3

(2)  CH3−CH2-CH+−CH2−CH3

(3)  CH3−CH+−CH2−CH2−CH3

(4)  CH3−CH2−CH+

Answer: (3)

103. The alkane that gives only one monochloro product on chlorination with Cl2 in precence of diffused sunlight is –

(1)  2,2,-dimethylbutane

(2) neopentane

(3) n-pentane

(4) Isopentane

Answer: (2)

104. In the following reaction

number of (σ) bond present in product (A) is –

(1)  21

(2)  9

(3)  24

(4)  18

Answer: (1)

105. Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution forms a complex ‘A’, in which hybridisation state of Al is ‘B’. What are ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively ?

(1)  [Al(H2O)6]3+, sp3d2

(2)  [Al(H2O)4]3+, sp3

(3)  [Al(H2O)4]3+, dsp2

(4)  [Al(H2O)6]3+, d2sp3

Answer: (1)

106. Which of the following compounds is used in cosmetic surgery ?

(1)  Silica

(2)  Silicates

(3)  Silicones

(4)  Zeolites

Answer: (3)

107. Identify the incorrect statement

(1) The scientific and technological process used for isolation of the metal from its ore is known as metallurgy

(2) Minerals are naturally occurring chemical substances in the earth’s crust

(3) Ores are minerals that may contain a metal

(4) Gangue is an ore contaminated with undesired materials

Answer: (3)

108. A compound ‘X’ upon reaction with H2O produces a colorless gas ‘Y’ with rotton fish smell. Gas ‘Y’is absorbed in a solution of CuSO4 to give Cu3P2 as one of the products. Predict the compound ‘X’

(1)  Ca3P2

(2)  NH4Cl

(3)  As2O3

(4)  Ca3(PO4)2

Answer: (1)

109. Which of the following oxoacids of phosphorus has strongest reducing property ?

(1)  H4P2O7

(2)  H3PO3

(3)  H3PO2

(4)  H3PO4

Answer: (3)

110. Identify the correct formula of ‘oleum’ from the following

(1)  H2S2O7

(2)  H2SO3

(3)  H2SO4

(4)  H2S2O8

Answer: (1)

111. When neutral or faintly alkaline KMnO4 is treated with potassium iodide, iodide ion is converted into ‘X’, ‘X’ is –

(1)  I2

(2)  IO4

(3)  IO3

(4)  IO

Answer: (3)

112. The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) for [CoCl6]4 is 18000 cm1 , the CFSE for [CoCl4]2will be

(1)  6000 cm1

(2)  16000 cm1

(3)  18000 cm1

(4)  8000 cm1

Answer: (4)

113. following limiting molar conductivities are given as

(1)  x – y + 2z

(2)  x + y + z

(3)  x – y + z

(4)   

Answer: (3)

114. A first order reaction has a rate constant of 2.303 × 103 s1. The time required for 40 g of this reactant to reduce to 10 g will be −[Given that log10 2 = 0.3010]

(1)  230.3 s

(2)  301 s

(3)  2000 s

(4)  602 s

Answer: (4)

115. For a reaction, activation energy Ea = 0 and the rate constant at 200 K is 1.6 × 106s1. The rate constant at 400 will be –[Given that gas constant, R = 8.314 J K1 mol1]

(1)  3.2 × 104 s1

(2)  1.6 × 106 s1

(3)  1.6 × 103 s1

(4)  3.2 × 106 s1

Answer: (2)

116. The correct option representing a Freundlich adsorption isotherm is –

(1)    

(2)    

(3)   

(4)   

Answer: (1)

117. Which of the following is paramagnetic ?

(1)  N2

(2)  H2

(3)  Li2

(4)  O2

Answer: (4)

118. Which of the following is the correct order of dipole moment?

(1)  NH3 < BF3 < NF3 < H2O

(2)  BF3 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O

(3)  BF3 < NH3 < NF3 < H2O

(4)  H2O < NF3 < NH3 < BF3

Answer: (2)

119. Crude sodium chloride obtained by crystallization of brine solution does not contain-

(1)  MgSO4

(2)  Na2SO4

(3)  MgCl2

(4)  CaSO4

Answer: (4)

120. Which of the alkali metal chloride (MCl) forms its dehydrate salt (MCl.2H2O) easily ?

(1)  LiCl

(2)  CsCl

(3)  RbCl

(4)  KCl

Answer: (1)

121. The pH of 0.01 M NaOH (aq) solution will be –

(1)  7.01

(2)  2

(3)  12

(4)  9

Answer: (3)

122. Which of the following cannot act both as Bronsted acid and as Bronsted base ?

(1)  HCO3

(2)  NH3

(3)  HCl

(4)  HSO4

Answer: (3)

123. The molar solubility of CaF2 (Ksp = 5.3 × 1011) in 0.1 M solution of NaF will be-

(1)  5.3 × 1011 mol L1

(2)  5.3 × 108 mol L1

(3)  5.3 × 109 mol L1

(4)  5.3 × 1010 mol L1

Answer: (3)

124. The oxidation sate of Cr in CrO6 is –

(1)  −6

(2)  +12

(3)  +6

(4)  +4

Answer: (3)

125. The number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) associated with CuSO4. 5H2O is –

(1)  3

(2)  1

(3)  2

(4)  5

Answer: (2)

126. Formula of nickel oxide with metal deficiency defect in its crystal is Ni98O. The crystal contains Ni2+ and Ni3+ ions. The fraction of nickel existing as Ni2+ ions in the crystal is –

(1)  0.96

(2)  0.04

(3)  0.50

(4)  0.31

Answer: (1)

127. Which of the following statements is correct regarding a solution of two component A and B exhibiting positive deviation from idea behavior ?

(1) Intermolecular attractive force between A-A and B-B are stronger than those between A-B.

(2)  ∆mix H = 0 at constant T and P.

(3) ∆mix V = 0 at constant . T and P.

(4) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are equal to those between A-B.

Answer: (1)

128. In water saturated air, the mole fraction of water vapour is 0.02. If the total pressure of the saturated air is 1.2 atm, the partial pressure of dry air is –

(1)  1.18 atm

(2)  1.76 atm

(3)  1.176 atm

(4)  0.98 atm

Answer: (3)

129. The standard electrode potential (E0) value of Al3+/Al, Ag+/Ag, K+/K and Cr3+/Cr are −66 V, 0.80 V, −2.93 V & −0.79 V respectively. The correct decreasing order of reducing power of metal is-

(1) Ag > Cr > Al > K

(2) K > Al > Cr > Ag

(3) K > Al > Ag > Cr

(4) Al > K > Ag > Cr

Answer: (2)

130. The densiy of 2 M aqueous solution of NaOH is 1.28 g/cm3. The molality of the solution is [Given that molecular mass of NaOH = 40 gmol1]

(1)  1.20 m

(2)  1.56 m

(3)  1.67 m

(4)  1.32 m

Answer: (3)

131. Orbital having 3 angular nodes and 3 total nodes is :

(1)  5 p

(2)  3 d

(3)  4 f

(4)  6 d

Answer: (3)

132. In hydrogen atom, the de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the second Bohr orbit is: [Given that Bohr radius, a0 = 52.9 pm]

(1)  211.6 pm

(2)  211.6 π pm

(3)  52.9 π pm

(4)  105.8 pm

Answer: (3)

133. The volume occupied by 1.8 g of water vapour at 374ºC and 1 bar pressure will be- [Use R = 0.083 bar LK1 mol1]

(1)  96.66 L

(2)  55.87 L

(3)  3.10 L

(4)  5.37 L

Answer: (4)

134. An ideal gas expands isothermally from 103 m3 to 102 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure of 105 Nm2. The work done on the gas is :

(1)  +270 kJ

(2)  −900 J

(3)  +900 kJ

(4)  −900 kJ

Answer: (2)

135. Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal and adiabatic conditions are as shown in the figure :

Which of the following options is not correct?

(1)  ∆Sisothermal > ∆Sadiabatic

(2)  TA = TB

(3)  Wisothermal > Wadiabatic

(4)  TC > TA

Answer: (4)

PART-C (PHYSICS)

136. Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the other of radius 2R respectively have the same surface charge density σ. They are brought in contact and separated. What will be the new surface charge densities on them?

(1)    

(2)    

(3)    

(4)    

Answer: (4)

137. The distance covered by a particle undergoing SHM in one time period is (amplitude = A),

(1)  zero

(2)  A

(3)  2 A

(4)  4 A

Answer: (4)

138. A mass falls from a height ‘h’ and its time of fall ‘t’ is recorded in terms of time period T of a simple pendulum. On the surface of earth it is found that t = 2T. The entire set up is taken on the surface of another planet whose mass is half of that of earth and radius the same. Same experiment is repeated and corresponding times noted as t’ and T’. Then we can say

(1)  t’=√2T’

(2)  t’ > 2T’

(3)  t’ > 2T’

(4)  t’ = 2T’

Answer: (4)

139. A tuning fork with frequency 800 Hz produces resonance in a resonance column tube with upper end open and lower end closed by water surface. Successive resonances are observed at lengths 9.75 cm, 31.25 cm and 52.75 cm. The speed of sound in air is,

(1)  500 m/s

(2)  156 m/s

(3)  344 m/s

(4)  172 m/s

Answer: (3)

140. An object flying in air with velocity  suddenly breaks into two pieces whose masses are in the ratio 1: 5. The smaller flies off with a velocity  The velocity of the larger piece will be

(1)   

(2)   

(3)     

(4)   

Answer: (1)

141. An object kept in a large room having air temperature of 25ºC takes 12 minutes to cool from 80ºC to 70ºC.

The time taken to cool for the same object from 70º to 60ºC would be nearly,

(1)  10 min

(2)  12 min

(3)  20 min

(4)  15 min

Answer: (4)

142. Two small spherical metal balls, having equal masses, are made from materials of densities ρ1 and ρ21 = 8 ρ2) and having radii of 1 mm and 2 mm, respectively. They are made to fall vertically (from rest in a viscous medium whose coefficient of viscosity equals η and whose density is 0.1 ρ2. The ratio of their terminal velocities would be

(1)  79/72

(2)  19/36

(3)  39/72

(4)  79/36

Answer: (4)

143. A particle starting from rest, moves in a circle of radius ‘r’. It attains a velocity of V0 m/s in the nth round. Its angular acceleration will be:

(1)    

(2)   

(3)   

(4)  

Answer: (3)

144. A person standing on the floor of an elevator drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor in time t1 if the elevator is moving uniformly. Then

(1)  t1  < t2 or t1 > t2 depending upon whether the lift is going up or down

(2)  t1 < t2

(3)  t1 > t2

(4)  t1 = t2

Answer: (4)

145. A truck is stationary and has a bob suspended by a light string, in a frame attached to the truck. The truck, suddenly moves to the right with an acceleration of a. The pendulum will tilt

(1)  to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is sin1 (g/a)

(2)  to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is tan1(a/g)

(3)  to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is sin1 (a/g)

(4)  to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is tan1 (g/a)

Answer: (2)

146. In a u-tube as shown in the figure water and oil are in the left side and right side of the tube respectively. The heights from the bottom for water and oil columns are 15 cm and 20 cm respectively. The density of the oil is:

(1)  1200 kg/m3

(2)  750 kg/m3

(3)  1000 kg/m3

(4)  1333 kg/m3

Answer: (2)

147. A deep rectangular pond of surface area A, containing water (density = ρ, specific heat capacity = s), is located in a region where the outside air temperature is at a steady value of −26ºC. The thickness of the frozen ice layer in this pond, at a certain instant is x.

Taking the thermal conductivity of ice as K, and its specific latent heat of fusion as L, the rate of increase of the thickness of ice layer, at this instant, would be given by

(1)  26K/ρx(L-4s)

(2)  26K/(ρx2L)

(3)  26K/(ρxL)

(4)  26K/ρx(L+4s)

Answer: (3)

148. An LED is constructed from a p-n junction diode using GaAsP. The energy gap is 1.9 eV. The wavelength of the light emitted will be equal to

(1)  10.4 ×1026 m

(2)  654 nm

(3)  654 Å

(4)  654 ×1011 m

Answer: (2)

149. The circuit diagram shown here corresponds to the logic gate,

(1)  NOR

(2)  AND

(3)  OR

(4)  NAND

Answer: (1)

150. The value of  for hydrogen helium and another ideal diatomic gas X (whose molecules are not rigid but have an additional vibrational mode), are respectively equal to,

(1)  7/5, 5/3, 9/7

(2)  5/3, 7/5, 9/7

(3)  5/3, 7/5, 7/5

(4)  7/5, 5/3, 7/5

Answer: (1)

151. An equiconvex lens has power P. It is cut into two symmetrical halves by a plane containing the principal axis. The power of one part will be,

(1)  0

(2)  P/2

(3)  P/4

(4)  P

Answer: (4)

152. In Young’s double slit experiment, if there is no initial phase difference between the light from the two slits, a point on the screen corresponding to the fifth minimum has path difference

(1)    

(2)    

(3)    

(4)   

Answer: (3)

153. A double convex lens has focal length 25 cm. The radius of curvature of one of the surfaces is double of the other. Find the radii if the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5.

(1)  100 cm, 50 cm

(2)  25 cm, 50 cm

(3)  18.75 cm, 37.5 cm

(4)  50 cm, 100 cm

Answer: (3)

154. Two bullets are fired horizontally and simultaneously towards each other from roof tops of two buildings 100 m apart and of same height of 200 m, with the same velocity of 25 m/s. When and where will the two bullets collide? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) after 2s at a height of 180 m

(2) after 2s at a height of 20 m

(3) after 4s at a height of 120 m

(4) they will not collide

Answer: (1)

155. The stress-strain curves are drawn for two different materials X and Y. It is observed that the ultimate strength point and the fracture point are close to each other for material X but are far apart for material Y. We can say the materials X and Y are likely to be (respectively),

(1)  ductile and brittle

(2)  brittle and ductile

(3)  brittle and plastic

(4)  plastic and ductile

Answer: (2)

156. A body of mass m is kept on a rough horizontal surface (coefficient of friction = μ). A horizontal force is applied on the body, but it does not move. The resultant of normal reaction and the frictional force acting on the object is given by F, where F is,

(1)   

(2)    

(3)    

(4)    

Answer: (3)

157. A particle of mass 5 m at rest suddenly breaks on its own into three fragments. Two fragments of mass m each move along mutually perpendicular direction with speed v each. The energy released during the process is,

(1)    

(2)    

(3)   

(4)    

Answer: (4)

158. An object of mass 500 g, initially at rest, is acted upon by a variable force whose X-component varies with X in the manner shown. The velocities of the object at the points X = 8 m and X = 12 m, would have the respective values of (nearly)

(1)  18 m/s and 24.4 m/s

(2)  23 m/s and 24.4 m/s

(3)  23 m/s and 20.6 m/s

(4)  18 m/s and 20.6 m/s

Answer: (3)

159. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 50 cm rolls up an inclined plane of angle of inclination 30º. The centre of mass of the cylinder has speed of 4 m/s. The distance travelled by the cylinder on the inclined surface will be, [take g = 10 m/s2]

(1)  2.2 m

(2)  1.6 m

(3)  1.2 m

(4)  2.4 m

Answer: (4)

160. Two toroids 1 and 2 have total no. of turns 200 and 100 respectively with average radii 40 cm and 20 cm respectively. If they carry same current i, the ratio of the magnetic fields along the two loops is

(1)  1 : 1

(2)  4 : 1

(3)  2 : 1

(4)  1 : 2

Answer: (1)

161. A straight conductor carrying current I splits into two parts as shown in the figure. The radius of the circular loop is R. The total magnetic field at the centre P of the loop is,

(1)  zero

(2)  3μ0i/32R, outward

(3)  3μ0i/32R, inward

(4)   

Answer: (1)

162. The variation of EMF with time for four types of generators are shown in the figures. Which amongst them can be called AC ?

(1)  (a) and (b)

(2)  (a), (b), (c), (d)

(3)  (a) and (b)

(4)  only (a)

Answer: (2)

163. The radius of the first permitted Bohr orbit, for the electron, in a hydrogen atom equals 0.51Å and its ground state energy equals −6 eV. If the electron in the hydrogen atom is replaced by muon (μ) [charge same as electron and mass 207 me], the first Bohr radius and ground state energy will be

(1)  0.53 × 1013 m, −3.6 eV

(2)  25.6 × 1013 m, −2.8 eV

(3)  2.56 × 1013 m, −2.8 eV

(4)  2.56 × 1013 m, −13.6 eV

Answer: (3)

164. The reading of an ideal voltmeter in the circuit shown is

(1)  0.6 V

(2)  0 V

(3)  0.5 V

(4)  0.4 V

Answer: (4)

165. The metre bridge shown is in balance position with  If we now interchange the positions of galvanometer and cell, will the bridge work ? If yes, what will be balance condition ?

(1)   

(2)  no, no null point

(3)   

(4)    

Answer: (4)

166. The relations amongst the three elements of earth’s magnetic field, namely horizontal component H, vertical component V and dip δ are, (BE = total magnetic field)

(1)  V = BE tan δ, H = BE

(2)  V = BE sin δ, H = BE cos δ

(3)  V = BE cos δ, H = BE sin δ

(4)  V = BE , H = BE tan δ

Answer: (2)

167. The rate of radioactive disintegration at an instant for a radioactive sample of half life 2.2 × 109 s is 1010 s1. The number of radioactive atoms in that sample at that instant is

(1)  3.17 × 1020

(2)  3.17 × 1017

(3)  3.17 × 1018

(4)  3.17 × 1019

Answer: (4)

168. The time period of a geostationary satellite is 24 h, at a height 6RE (RE is radius of earth) from surface of earth. The time period of another satellite whose height is 2.5 RE from surface will be :

(1)  6√2 h

(2)  12√2 h

(3)    

(4)    

Answer: (1)

169. A circuit when connected to an AC source of 12 V gives a current of 0.2A. The same circuit when connected to a DC source of 12 V, gives a current of 0.4 A. The circuit is :

(1)  series LR

(2)  series RC

(3)  series LC

(4)  series LCR

Answer: (1)

170. A cycle wheel of radius 0.5 m is rotated with constant angular velocity of 10 rad/s in a region of magnetic field of 0.1 T which is perpendicular to the plane of the wheel. The EMF generated between its centre and the rim is :

(1)  0.25 V

(2)  0.125 V

(3)  0.5 V

(4)  zero

Answer: (2)

171. For a transparent medium, relative permeability and permittivity, μr and ∈r are 1.0 and 1.44 respectively. The velocity of light in this medium would be :

(1)  2.5 × 108

(2)  3 × 108

(3)  2.08 × 108 m/s

(4)  4.32 × 108 m/s

Answer: (1)

172. A sphere encloses an electric dipole with charges ±3 × 106 What is the total electric flux across the sphere?

(1)  −3 × 106

(2)  Zero

(3)  3 × 106 Nm2/C

(4)  6 × 106 Nm2/C

Answer: (2)

173. Two identical capacitors C1 and C2 of equal capacitance are connected as shown in the circuit. Terminals a and b of the key k are connected to charge capacitor C1 using battery of emf V volt. Now disconnecting a and b the terminals b and c are connected. Due to this, what will be the percentage loss of energy?

(1)  75%

(2)  0%

(3)  50%

(4)  25%

Answer: (3)

174. The main scale of a vermier calipers has n divisions/cm. n division of the vermier scale coincide with (n − 1) divisions of main scale. The least count of the vernier calipers is :

(1)   

(2)   

(3)    

(4)   

Answer: (3)

175. A person traveling in a straight line moves with a constant velocity v1 for certain distance ‘x’ and with a constant velocity v2 for next equal distance. The average velocity v is given by the relation :

(1)    

(2)   

(3)    

(4)    

Answer: (2)

176. Assuming that the gravitational potential energy of an object at infinity is zero, the change in potential energy (final − initial) of an object of mass m, when taken to a height h from the surface of earth (of radius R), is given by :

(1)   

(2) 

(3)  mgh

(4)  

Answer: (2)

177. 1 g of water, of volume 1 cm3 at 100ºC, is converted into steam at same temperature under normal atmospheric pressure ≃1 × 105Pa . The volume of steam formed equals 1671 cm3. If the specific latent heat of vaporization of water is 2256 J/g, the change in internal energy is :

(1)  2423 J

(2)  2089 J

(3)  167 J

(4)  2256 J

Answer: (2)

178. Angular width of the central maximum in the Fraunhofer diffraction for λ = 6000 Å is θ0. When the same slit is illuminated by another monochromatic light, the angular width decreases by 30%. The wavelength of this light is

(1)  1800 Å

(2)  4200 Å

(3)  6000 Å

(4)  420 Å

Answer: (2)

179. The work function of a photosensitive material is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photon emission from the substance is (approximately)

(1)  3100 nm

(2)  966 nm

(3)  31 nm

(4)  310 nm

Answer: (4)

180. A proton and an α-particle are accelerated from rest to the same energy. The die Broglie wavelength λp and λα are in the ratio :

(1)  2 : 1

(2)  1 : 1

(3)  √2 : 1

(4)  4 : 1

Answer: (1)

ICICI Bank RTGS-HO Branch IFSC Code ICIC0TREA00 SWIFT Code Phone email address

The IFSC Code for ICICI Bank RTGS-HO Branch is ICIC0TREA00

ICICI Bank RTGS-HO Branch Full Details

Particulars Details

ICICI Bank Branch Name / Office Name

RTGS-HO

ICICI Bank RTGS-HO Branch IFSC Code

ICIC0TREA00

ICICI Bank RTGS-HO Branch Contact Number

0

ICICI Bank RTGS-HO Branch Address

ICICI Bank Towers, Bandra Kurla Complex, Mumbai 400051

ICICI Bank RTGS-HO Branch City 1

Greater Bombay

ICICI Bank RTGS-HO Branch City 2

Mumbai

ICICI Bank RTGS-HO Branch Greater Bombay Location Map:

About ICICI Bank., RTGS-HO Branch

ICICI Bank RTGS-HO branch is situated in Greater Bombay City of Maharashtra. The address for ICICI Bank RTGS-HO branch is ICICI Bank Towers, Bandra Kurla Complex, Mumbai 400051. The contact telephone number is 0.

The IFSC Code of this RTGS-HO Branch is ICIC0TREA00.


ICICI Bank Customer Facilitation Centre for NEFT Transactions:

ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Care Number: Tel: 040-41084049
ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Facilitaion Email ID: [email protected]

ICICI Bank Branches in Greater Bombay

ICICI Bank Branches in Maharashtra

ICICI Bank Branches in India


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ICICI Bank CMS Branch IFSC Code ICIC0SF0002 SWIFT Code Phone email address

The IFSC Code for ICICI Bank CMS Branch is ICIC0SF0002

ICICI Bank CMS Branch Full Details

Particulars Details

ICICI Bank Branch Name / Office Name

CMS

ICICI Bank CMS Branch IFSC Code

ICIC0SF0002

ICICI Bank CMS Branch Contact Number

0

ICICI Bank CMS Branch Address

ICICI Bank Towers, Bandra Kurla Complex, Bandra E,Mumbai-400051

ICICI Bank CMS Branch City 1

Greater Bombay

ICICI Bank CMS Branch City 2

Mumbai

ICICI Bank CMS Branch Greater Bombay Location Map:

NA

About ICICI Bank., CMS Branch

ICICI Bank CMS branch is situated in Greater Bombay City of Maharashtra. The address for ICICI Bank CMS branch is ICICI Bank Towers, Bandra Kurla Complex, Bandra E,Mumbai-400051. The contact telephone number is 0.

The IFSC Code of this CMS Branch is ICIC0SF0002.


ICICI Bank Customer Facilitation Centre for NEFT Transactions:

ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Care Number: Tel: 040-41084049
ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Facilitaion Email ID: [email protected]

ICICI Bank Branches in Greater Bombay

ICICI Bank Branches in Maharashtra

ICICI Bank Branches in India


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ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau Branch IFSC Code ICIC00ZSMAU SWIFT Code Phone email address

The IFSC Code for ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau Branch is ICIC00ZSMAU

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau Branch Full Details

Particulars Details

ICICI Bank Branch Name / Office Name

Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau Branch IFSC Code

ICIC00ZSMAU

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau Branch Contact Number

0

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau Branch Address

Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd, 275, Indira Complex, 2Nd Floor, Sahadatpura, Mau ┬Û 275001

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau Branch City 1

Mau

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau Branch City 2

Sahadatpura

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau Branch Mau Location Map:

NA

About ICICI Bank., Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau Branch

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau branch is situated in Mau City of Uttar Pradesh. The address for ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau branch is Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd, 275, Indira Complex, 2Nd Floor, Sahadatpura, Mau ┬Û 275001. The contact telephone number is 0.

The IFSC Code of this Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Mau Branch is ICIC00ZSMAU.


ICICI Bank Customer Facilitation Centre for NEFT Transactions:

ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Care Number: Tel: 040-41084049
ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Facilitaion Email ID: [email protected]

ICICI Bank Branches in Mau

ICICI Bank Branches in Uttar Pradesh

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ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara) Branch IFSC Code ICIC00ZSKTW SWIFT Code Phone email address

The IFSC Code for ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara) Branch is ICIC00ZSKTW

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara) Branch Full Details

Particulars Details

ICICI Bank Branch Name / Office Name

Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara)

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara) Branch IFSC Code

ICIC00ZSKTW

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara) Branch Contact Number

0

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara) Branch Address

Main Branch Badrinath Marg, Kotdwara, Uttarakhand-246149

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara) Branch City 1

Garhwal

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara) Branch City 2

Kotdwara

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara) Branch Garhwal Location Map:

About ICICI Bank., Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara) Branch

ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara) branch is situated in Garhwal City of Uttarakhand. The address for ICICI Bank Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara) branch is Main Branch Badrinath Marg, Kotdwara, Uttarakhand-246149. The contact telephone number is 0.

The IFSC Code of this Zila Sahakari Bank Ltd Garhwal (Kotdwara) Branch is ICIC00ZSKTW.


ICICI Bank Customer Facilitation Centre for NEFT Transactions:

ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Care Number: Tel: 040-41084049
ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Facilitaion Email ID: [email protected]

ICICI Bank Branches in Garhwal

ICICI Bank Branches in Uttarakhand

ICICI Bank Branches in India


Disclaimer : All the information provided herewith are checked with due care. However, Users are requested to read our Disclaimer before using information about any bank, IFSC code, etc. from this website.


 

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar Branch IFSC Code ICIC00ZSBSN SWIFT Code Phone email address

The IFSC Code for ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar Branch is ICIC00ZSBSN

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar Branch Full Details

Particulars Details

ICICI Bank Branch Name / Office Name

Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar Branch IFSC Code

ICIC00ZSBSN

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar Branch Contact Number

7398680286

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar Branch Address

Bank Road Tetri Bazar Siddharthnagar Up

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar Branch City 1

Sidharthanagar

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar Branch City 2

Naugarh

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar Branch Sidharthanagar Location Map:

NA

About ICICI Bank., Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar Branch

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar branch is situated in Sidharthanagar City of Uttar Pradesh. The address for ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar branch is Bank Road Tetri Bazar Siddharthnagar Up. The contact telephone number is 7398680286.

The IFSC Code of this Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Siddharthnagar Branch is ICIC00ZSBSN.


ICICI Bank Customer Facilitation Centre for NEFT Transactions:

ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Care Number: Tel: 040-41084049
ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Facilitaion Email ID: [email protected]

ICICI Bank Branches in Sidharthanagar

ICICI Bank Branches in Uttar Pradesh

ICICI Bank Branches in India


Disclaimer : All the information provided herewith are checked with due care. However, Users are requested to read our Disclaimer before using information about any bank, IFSC code, etc. from this website.


 

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur Branch IFSC Code ICIC00ZSBLS SWIFT Code Phone email address

The IFSC Code for ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur Branch is ICIC00ZSBLS

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur Branch Full Details

Particulars Details

ICICI Bank Branch Name / Office Name

Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur Branch IFSC Code

ICIC00ZSBLS

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur Branch Contact Number

8874205632

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur Branch Address

2 Mall Road, Begum Bagh, Sitapur 261001

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur Branch City 1

Sitapur

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur Branch City 2

Sitapur

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur Branch Sitapur Location Map:

NA

About ICICI Bank., Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur Branch

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur branch is situated in Sitapur City of Uttar Pradesh. The address for ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur branch is 2 Mall Road, Begum Bagh, Sitapur 261001. The contact telephone number is 8874205632.

The IFSC Code of this Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Sitapur Branch is ICIC00ZSBLS.


ICICI Bank Customer Facilitation Centre for NEFT Transactions:

ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Care Number: Tel: 040-41084049
ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Facilitaion Email ID: [email protected]

ICICI Bank Branches in Sitapur

ICICI Bank Branches in Uttar Pradesh

ICICI Bank Branches in India


Disclaimer : All the information provided herewith are checked with due care. However, Users are requested to read our Disclaimer before using information about any bank, IFSC code, etc. from this website.


 

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow Branch IFSC Code ICIC00ZSBLL SWIFT Code Phone email address

The IFSC Code for ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow Branch is ICIC00ZSBLL

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow Branch Full Details

Particulars Details

ICICI Bank Branch Name / Office Name

Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow Branch IFSC Code

ICIC00ZSBLL

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow Branch Contact Number

8756400205

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow Branch Address

Jagdish Building Hazratganj Lucknow 226001

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow Branch City 1

Lucknow

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow Branch City 2

Lucknow

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow Branch Lucknow Location Map:

About ICICI Bank., Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow Branch

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow branch is situated in Lucknow City of Uttar Pradesh. The address for ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow branch is Jagdish Building Hazratganj Lucknow 226001. The contact telephone number is 8756400205.

The IFSC Code of this Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Lucknow Branch is ICIC00ZSBLL.


ICICI Bank Customer Facilitation Centre for NEFT Transactions:

ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Care Number: Tel: 040-41084049
ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Facilitaion Email ID: [email protected]

ICICI Bank Branches in Lucknow

ICICI Bank Branches in Uttar Pradesh

ICICI Bank Branches in India


Disclaimer : All the information provided herewith are checked with due care. However, Users are requested to read our Disclaimer before using information about any bank, IFSC code, etc. from this website.


 

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi Branch IFSC Code ICIC00ZSBLJ SWIFT Code Phone email address

The IFSC Code for ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi Branch is ICIC00ZSBLJ

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi Branch Full Details

Particulars Details

ICICI Bank Branch Name / Office Name

Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi Branch IFSC Code

ICIC00ZSBLJ

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi Branch Contact Number

0

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi Branch Address

156/1 Civil Lines Jhansi (U.P) – 284001

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi Branch City 1

Jhansi

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi Branch City 2

Jhansi

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi Branch Jhansi Location Map:

About ICICI Bank., Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi Branch

ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi branch is situated in Jhansi City of Uttar Pradesh. The address for ICICI Bank Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi branch is 156/1 Civil Lines Jhansi (U.P) – 284001. The contact telephone number is 0.

The IFSC Code of this Zila Sahkari Bank Ltd Jhansi Branch is ICIC00ZSBLJ.


ICICI Bank Customer Facilitation Centre for NEFT Transactions:

ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Care Number: Tel: 040-41084049
ICICI Bank NEFT Customer Facilitaion Email ID: [email protected]

ICICI Bank Branches in Jhansi

ICICI Bank Branches in Uttar Pradesh

ICICI Bank Branches in India


Disclaimer : All the information provided herewith are checked with due care. However, Users are requested to read our Disclaimer before using information about any bank, IFSC code, etc. from this website.