## GATE Exam 2019 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ______ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

2. Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

10. “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The Bt toxin gene from Bacillus thuringiensis used to generate genetically modified crops is
(A) cry (B) cro (C) cdc (D) cre

n p

Q.3 Tetracycline inhibits the
(A) interaction between tRNA and mRNA
(B) translocation of mRNA through ribosome
(C) peptidyl transferase activity
(D) binding of amino-acyl tRNA to ribosome

Q.4 Which one of the following is a database of protein sequence motifs?
(A) PROSITE (B) TrEMBL (C) SWISSPROT (D) PDB

Q.5 Which one o
genome? f the following enzymes is encoded by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
(A) Reverse transcriptase (B) Phospholipase
(C) Phospha tase (D) ATP synthase

Q.6 DNA synthesis in eukaryotes occurs during which phase of the mitotic cell cycle?
(A) M (B) G1 (C) S (D) G0

Q.7 Match the human diseases in Group I with the causative agents in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Amoebiasis 1. Leishmania donovani
Q. African sleeping sickness 2. Trypanosoma cruzi
R. Kala azar 3. Entamoeba histolytica
S. Chagas’ disease 4. Trypanosoma gambiense

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Q.8 Which one of t
number of gen he following techniques can be used to compare the expression of a large es in two biological samples in a single experiment?
(A) Polymerase chain reaction (B) DNA microarray
(C) Northern h ybridization (D) Southern hybridization

Q.9 Which of the following processes can increase genetic diversity of bacteria in nature?

P. Conjugation
Q. Transformation
R. Transduction
S. Transfection
(A) P only (B) P and Q only (C) P, Q and R only (D) P, Q, R and S

Q.10 Which one of the following is NOT a part of the human nonspecific defense system?
(A) Interferon (B) Mucous (C) Saliva (D) Antibody

Q.11 A mutation i
the last three n a gene that codes for a polypeptide results in a variant polypeptide that lacks amino acids. What type of mutation is this?
(A) Synonym ous mutation (B) Nonsense mutation
(C) Missens e mutation (D) Silent mutation

Q.12 Which one of the following equations represents a one-dimensional wave equation?
(A) 𝜕𝑢 = 𝑐2 𝜕2𝑢
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑥2 (B) 𝜕2𝑢 = 𝑐2 𝜕2𝑢
𝜕𝑡2 𝜕𝑥2 (C) 𝜕2𝑢 = 𝑐2 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑡2 𝜕𝑥 (D) 𝜕2𝑢 + 𝜕2𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑡2 𝜕𝑥2

Q.13 Which of the following are geometric series?

P. 1, 6, 11, 16, 21, 26, …
Q. 9, 6, 3, 0, -3, -6, …
R. 1, 3, 9, 27, 81, …
S. 4, -8, 16, -32, 64, …
(A) P and Q only (B) R and S only (C) Q and S only (D) P, Q and R only

Q.14 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT for enzyme catalyzed reactions? (𝛥𝐺 is Gibbs free energy change, 𝐾𝑒𝑞 is equilibrium constant)
(A) Enzymes affect 𝛥𝐺, but not 𝐾𝑒𝑞
(B) Enzymes affect 𝐾𝑒𝑞, but not 𝛥𝐺
(C) Enzymes affect both 𝛥𝐺 and 𝐾𝑒𝑞
(D) Enzymes do not affect 𝛥𝐺 or 𝐾𝑒𝑞

Q.15 Which one of the following can NOT be a limiting substrate if Monod’s growth kinetics is applicable?
(A) Extracellular carbon source
(B) Extracellular nitrogen source
(C) Dissolved oxygen
(D) Intracellular carbon source

Q.16 Which one of the following is the unit of heat transfer coefficient?
(A) W m2 K-1 (B) W m-2 K (C) W m-2 K-1 (D) W m2 K

Q.17 Which one o
bacterial cult f the following is catabolized during endogenous metabolism in a batch ivation?
(A) internal r eserves (B) extracellular substrates
(C) extracell ular products (D) toxic substrates

Q.18 Which one of the f ollowing need NOT be conserved in a biochemical reaction?
(A) Total mass (B) Total moles
(C) Number of ato ms of each element (D) Total energy

Q.19 The number of possible rooted trees in a phylogeny of three species is .

Q.20 Matrix A = [0 6 will be skew-symmetric when 𝑝 = .
𝑝 0]

Q.21 The solution of lim (𝑥2−64) is .
𝑥→8 𝑥−8

Q.22 The median value for the dataset (12, 10, 16, 8, 90, 50, 30, 24) is .

Q.23 The degree of reduction for acetic acid (C2H4O2) is .

Q.24 The mass of 1 kmol of oxygen molecules is g (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.25 Protein concentration of a crude enzyme preparation was 10 mg mL-1. 10 µL of this sample gave an activity of 5 µmol min-1 under standard assay conditions. The specific activity of
this crude enzyme preparation is units mg-1.

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 In general, which one of the following statements is NOT CORRECT?
(A) Hydrogen bonds result from electrostatic interactions
(B) Hydrogen bonds contribute to the folding energy of proteins
(C) Hydrogen bonds are weaker than van der Waals interactions
(D) Hydrogen bonds are directional

Q.27 For site-directed mutagenesis, which one of the following restriction enzymes is used to digest methylated DNA?
(A) KpnI (B) DpnI (C) XhoI (D) MluI

Q.28 Match the organelles in Group I with their functions in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Lysosome 1. Digestion of foreign substances
Q. Smooth ER 2. Protein targeting
R. Golgi apparatus 3. Lipid synthesis
S. Nucleolus 4. Protein synthesis
5. rRNA synthesis
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-4 (D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5

Which of
searched u

P. A large
Q. E-valu
R. A high
S. E-value the following statements are CORRECT when a protein sequence database is sing the BLAST algorithm?

r E-value indicates higher sequence similarity e < 10-10 indicates sequence homology
er BLAST score indicates higher sequence similarity
> 1010 indicates sequence homology
(A) P, Q a nd R only (B) Q and R only
(C) P, R a nd S only (D) P and S only

p

Which o
reaction

P. Mg2+
Q. pH
R. Ann f the following factors affect the fidelity of DNA polymerase in polymerase chain
?
concentration ealing temperature
(A) P an d Q only (B) P and R only
(C) Q an d R only (D) P, Q and R

Q.32 Group I lists spectroscopic methods and Group II lists biomolecular applications of these methods. Match the methods in Group I with the applications in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Infrared 1. Identification of functional groups
Q. Circular Dichroism 2. Determination of secondary structure
R. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance 3. Estimation of molecular weight
4. Determination of 3-D structure

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-4 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4

Q.33 The hexapeptide P has an isoelectric point (pI) of 6.9. Hexapeptide Q is a variant of P that contains valine instead of glutamate at position 3. The two peptides are analyzed by polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis at pH 8.0. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
(A) P will migrate faster than Q towards the anode
(B) P will migrate faster than Q towards the cathode
(C) Both P and Q will migrate together
(D) Q will migrate faster than P towards the anode

Q.34 Antibody-produci ng hybridoma cells are generated by the fusion of a
(A) T cell with a myeloma cell (B) B cell with a myeloma cell
(C) macrophage w ith a myeloma cell (D) T cell and a B cell

Q.35 Which of the following statements are CORRECT about the function of fetal bovine serum in animal cell culture?

P. It stimulates cell growth
Q. It enhances cell attachment
R. It provides hormones and minerals
S. It maintains pH at 7.4
(A) P and Q only (B) P and S only (C) P, Q and R only (D) P, Q, R and S

Q.36 Which one
and mRN of the following covalent linkages exists between 7-Methyl guanosine (m7G) As?
(A) 2’–3′ tr iphosphate (B) 3’–5′ triphosphate
(C) 5’–5′ tr iphosphate (D) 2’–5′ triphosphate

Q.37 Which one of the following amino acid residues will destabilize an α-helix when inserted in the middle of the helix?
(A) Pro (B) Val (C) Ile (D) Leu

Q.38 What is the solution of the differential equation 𝑑𝑦 = 𝑥 , with the initial condition, at 𝑥 =
𝑑𝑥 𝑦
0, 𝑦 = 1?
(A) 𝑥2 = 𝑦2 + 1 (B) 𝑦2 = 𝑥2 + 1 (C) 𝑦2 = 2𝑥2 + 1 (D) 𝑥2 – 𝑦2 = 0

Q.39 The Laplace transform of the function 𝑓(𝑡) = 𝑡2 + 2𝑡 + 1 is
(A) 1 + 3 + 1
𝑠3 𝑠2 𝑠 (B) 4 + 4 + 1
𝑠3 𝑠2 𝑠 (C) 1 + 2 + 1
𝑠3 𝑠2 𝑠 (D) 2 + 2 + 1
𝑠3 𝑠2 𝑠

Q.40 Which of the following factors can influence the lag phase of a microbial culture in a batch fermentor?

P. Inoculum size
Q. Inoculum age
R. Medium composition
(A) P and Q only (B) Q and R only (C) P and R only (D) P, Q and R

Q.41 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT about proportional controllers?
(A) The initial change in control output signal is relatively slow
(B) The initial corrective action is greater for larger error
(C) They have no offset
(D) There is no corrective action if the error is a constant

Q.42 Match the instruments in Group I with their corresponding measurements in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Manometer 1. Agitator speed
Q. Rotameter 2. Pressure difference
R. Tachometer 3. Cell number
S. Haemocytometer 4. Air flow rate

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Q.43 Which of the following statements is ALWAYS CORRECT about an ideal chemostat?

P. Substrate concentration inside the chemostat is equal to that in the exit stream
Q. Optimal dilution rate is lower than critical dilution rate
R. Biomass concentration increases with increase in dilution rate
S. Cell recirculation facilitates operation beyond critical dilution rate
(A) P and Q only (B) P, R and S only (C) P and S only (D) P, Q and S only

Q.44 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]

Assertion [a]: It is possible to regenerate a whole plant from a single plant cell. Reason [r]: It is easier to introduce transgenes in to plants than animals.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Q.45 A UV-visible spectrophotometer has a minimum detectable absorbance of 0.02. The minimum concentration of a protein sample that can be measured reliably in this
instrument with a cuvette of 1 cm path length is µM. The molar extinction coefficient of the protein is 10,000 L mol-1 cm-1.

Q.46 The difference in concentrations of an uncharged solute between two compartments is 1.6-fold. The energy required for active transport of the solute across the membrane separating the two compartments is cal mol-1 (rounded off to the nearest integer). (R
= 1.987 cal mol-1 K-1, T = 37 ºC)

Q.47 In pea plants, purple color of flowers is determined by the dominant allele while white color is determined by the recessive allele. A genetic cross between two purple flower- bearing plants results in an offspring with white flowers. The probability that the third offspring from these parents will have purple flowers is (rounded off to 2 decimal
places).

Q.48 The molecular mass of a protein is 22 kDa. The size of the cDNA (excluding the untranslated regions) that codes for this protein is kb (rounded off to 1 decimal
place).

A new game is being introduced in a casino. A player can lose Rs. 100, break even, win Rs. 100, or win Rs. 500. The probabilities (𝑃(𝑋)) of each of these outcomes (𝑋) are given in the following table:

𝑋 (in Rs.) -100 0 100 500
𝑃 (𝑋) 0.25 0.5 0.2 0.05

The standard deviation (σ) for the casino payout is Rs. (rounded off to the nearest integer).

∫−1 𝑓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 calculated using trapezoidal rule for the values given in the table is
(rounded off to 2 decimal places).

𝑥 −1 −2⁄3 −1⁄3 0 1⁄3 2⁄3 1
𝑓(𝑥) 0.37 0.51 0.71 1.0 1.40 1.95 2.71

Q.51 Yeast biomass (C6H10O3N) grown on glucose is described by the stoichiometric equation given below:
C6H12O6 + 0.48 NH3 + 3 O2  0.48 C6H10O3N + 3.12 CO2 + 4.32 H2O

The amount of glucose needed for the production of 50 g L-1 of yeast biomass in a batch reactor with a working volume of 1,00,000 L is _ kg (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.52 Phenolic wastewater discharged from an industry was treated with Pseudomonas sp. in an aerobic bioreactor. The influent and effluent concentrations of phenol were 10,000 and 10 ppm, respectively. The inlet feed rate of wastewater was 80 L h-1. The kinetic properties of the organism are as follows:
Maximum specific growth rate (µ𝑚) = 1 h-1 Saturation constant (𝐾𝑆) = 100 mg L-1
Cell death rate (𝑘𝑑) = 0.01 h-1
Assuming that the bioreactor operates under ‘chemostat’ mode, the working volume required for this process is L (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.53 In a cross-flow filtration process, the pressure drop (𝛥𝑃) driving the fluid flow is 2 atm, inlet feed pressure (𝑃𝑖) is 3 atm and filtrate pressure (𝑃𝑓) is equal to atmospheric pressure.
The average transmembrane pressure drop (𝛥𝑃𝑚) is atm.

Q.54 An industrial fermentor containing 10,000 L of medium needs to be sterilized. The initial spore concentration in the medium is 106 spores mL-1. The desired probability of contamination after sterilization is 10-3. The death rate of spores at 121 ºC is 4 min-1.
Assume that there is no cell death during heating and cooling phases. The holding time of the sterilization process is min (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.55 The dimensions and operating condition of a lab-scale fermentor are as follows: Volume = 1 L
Diameter = 20 cm Agitator speed = 600 rpm
Ratio of impeller diameter to fermentor diameter = 0.3
This fermentor needs to be scaled up to 8,000 L for a large scale industrial application. If the scale-up is based on constant impeller tip speed, the speed of the agitator in the larger reactor is rpm. Assume that the scale-up factor is the cube root of the ratio of fermentor volumes.

## GATE Exam 2019 Architecture and Planning (AR) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ______ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

2. Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

10. “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Architecture and Planning

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. Which of the following commands in AUTOCAD is used to create 3D solid between various cross sections?

(A) LOFT

(B) MESH

(C) XEDGES

(D) PFACE

2. Name the architect who criticized ornament in useful objects in his essay ‘Ornament and Crime’.

(A) John Ruskin

(B) H P Berlage

(D) Walter Gropius

3. A sanit ground ary landfill is provided with High Density Poly Ethylene (HDPE) lining along the surface. This is provided primarily to prevent

(A) Bleaching

(B) Leaching

(C) Ro dents

(D) Plant growth

4. Super-ele vation of a road with pre-determined radius of curvature is primarily dependent on

(A) Altitude

(B) Soil bearing capacity

(C) Traffic volume

(D) Design traffic speed

5. In a mono-centric urban model, land rent is expected to

(A) diminish as one moves towards the center

(B) diminish as one moves away from the center

(C) remain constant across the whole urban area

(D) be unrelated with distance from center

6. Fineness modulus of sand measures its

(A) Compressive strength

(B) Grading according to particle size

(C) Bulking of sand

(D) Ratio of coarse and fine sand

7. The spherical surface of the geodesic dome comprises of

(A) Equilateral triangles of various sizes

(B) Isosceles triangles of various sizes

(C) Equilateral triangles of uniform size

(D) Isosceles triangles of uniform size

8. The abrup t change or junction between two ecological zones is termed as

(A) Ecological niche

(B) Ecosystem

(C) Ecotype

(D) Ecotone

9. Complementary colours in a Munsell pigment colour wheel refers to

(A) Colours in alternate positions

(B) Colours opposite to one another

(C) Colours adja cent to each other

(D) A pair of secondary colours

10. The closing syntax, for an executable command line in C or C++ program, is

(A) :

(B) ,

(C) ;

(D) .

11. The term ‘Necropolis’ refers to

(A) Orginacally growing Settlment

(B) Origin of settlement

(D) Merging of two settlements

12. Which of the following projection types is adopted in the Universal Transeverse Mercator (UTM)?

(A) Spherical Conical

(B) Planar

(C) Cylindrical

13. The ing redient to be added to produce Aerated Cement Concrete, is

(A) Aluminum

(B) Calcium chloride

(C) Gypsum

(D) Sulphur

14. The cause of short column effect, during seismic occurrence, is due to

(A) Centralized rupture of the column

(B) Tearing of reinforcement bars

(C) Buckling of co lumn

(D) Stress concentration

15. The solar protection system consisting of fixed slats or grids, outside a building façade in front of openings, is known as

(A) Brise–soleil

(B) Solarium

(C) Malqaf

(D) Trombe wall

16. The Indian property inscribed by UNESCO on the World Heritage List in the year 2018 is

(A) Mattanchery Palace, Ernakulam

(B) The Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai

(C) Ancient Buddhist Site, Sarnath

(D) Mughal Gardens in Kashmir

17. Typical features of Buddhist architecture are

(A) Mandapa, Chattri, Amalaka, Torana

(B) Stambha, Torana, Vimana , Harmika

(C) Vedika, Chattri, Torana, Harmika

(D) Vedika , Stupa, Chaitya, Vimana

18. Identify the Queen closure

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

19. Identify th e role of Vermiculate in vertical landscapes

(A) Fertilizer

(B) Holding material

(C) Binding material

(D) Water retention element

20. Which of the following parameters is essential to estimate the Envelope Performance Factor (EPF) of a building as per the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC), 2011?

(A) Building Type

(B) Maximum humidity

(C) Maximum and minimum monthly temperature

(D) Building occupancy duration

21. The illumination level of a room is 300 lux and the efficacy of the lamps is 60. The Light Power Density (LPD) of the room in Watt/m2 is _____.

22. The load on a RCC column is 150 kN. The soil bearing capacity is 80 kN/m2. Assuming a factor of safety of 1.2, the side of the square column footing is meter (rounded off to one decimal place)________.

23. A room is separated by a partition wall. The average intensities of sound in the source and
receiving sides across the partition are 10-4 W/m2 and 10-7 W/m2 respectively. The transmission loss (TL) of the partition wall is dB______.

24. If the purchase price of 2BHK flat rises by 10 percent, the demand for such flats is observed to decrease by 8 percent. The price elasticity of the housing demand for 2BHK flats is (rounded off to one decimal place)________.

25. ‘Threshold of enclosure’ created by vertical surfaces or series of vertical elements in an urban plaza, represented by the ratio of height and distance, is given by an angle of degrees (rounded off to one decimal place)_______.

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. Match the instruments in Column – I with the various types of surveying in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

27. Match the characteristics of settlement systems in Column – I with their corresponding theory/rules in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(B) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

28. Match the architectural projects in Column – I with the architect in Column – II, and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(B) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

29. Match the Name of the book provided in Column – I with the corresponding author in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(B) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

30. Match the thermal properties in the Column – I and their respective units in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

31. Match the application in the field of construction in the Column – I and the respective items in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

32. Match the following types of masonry joints in Column – I with their corresponding description in Column – II, and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-5

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

33. Match the following in Column – I with their suitable description in Column – II, and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-5

(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

34. Match the units provided in Column – I with their corresponding items in Column – II, and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(D) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

35. Match the scientific names of the trees provided in Column – I with the corresponding color of their bloom in Column – II, and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-4, S-1

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(C) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1

36. Match the items in Column – I and their respective location in building/site in Column – II, and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(B) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

37. As per the Handbook on Barrier Free and Accessibility, CPWD – 2014, match the design guidelines in Column – I with their appropriate standards in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-1

38. Match the contemporary Urban Design Movements listed in Column – I with the corresponding principles listed in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-2

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1

39. Match the figures of vaults in Column – I with their corresponding types in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

40. A colony of 50 people is served by a septic tank. The rate of water supply is 90 lpcd in the colony and 40% of it is going to the septic tank. The retention period of the tank is 24 hours. The length of the septic tank is meter (rounded off to two decimal places)__________.

Assume, storage capacity/person = 0.085m3 (3 years)

Space for digestion = 0.0425 m3/person

Depth of tank = 1.4 m Length: Width = 2:1

41. A cone, with a base of 10 cm diameter and axis of 12 cm, is lying on Horizontal Plane (HP) along its generator. The internal angle which the base of the cone makes with the HP is _____ degrees.

42. A public utility building of 5000 m2 was constructed 5 years before, on a site of 1 hectare. The present value of open land in that location is Rs. 100/m2 and present construction cost of such building is Rs. 2500/m2. If the value of the building is assumed to be depreciating at a constant rate of 6 percent per annum, then the present value of the property using ‘Valuation by Cost Method’ is___ (in Rs. lakhs) (rounded off to one decimal place).

43. A residential area of 20 hectares is planned for three different types of plots of 500 m2, 300 m2 and 200 m2 with numbers of plot in each category are 100, 120 and 150 respectively. The rest of the area is allocated for roads and facilities such as schools, shops and parks. Each plot has one dwelling unit and the average household size is 5 persons.

The net residential density of the area in persons per hectare is ______.

44. In a single lane road, traffic volume of 1000 vehicle/h moving at 20 km/h, comes to a halt due to an accident. If jam density is 150 vehicle/km, the velocity of the shock wave generated (in absolute value) is _____ km/h.

45. In a site map, a rectangular residential plot measures 150 mm × 40 mm, and the width of the front road in the map measures 16 mm. Actual width of the road is 4 m. If the permissible F.A.R. is 1.2, the maximum built-up area for the residential building will be ____ m2.

46. The internal dimension of a room is 10m × 10m × 4m (height). The total area of the doors and windows are 16 m2. Keeping the doors and windows closed, the reverberation time of the room becomes 1.2 second. Assume all the interior surfaces including doors and windows have same sound absorption coefficient. If all the doors and windows of the room are kept fully open, the reverberation time will be_____ second (rounded off to two decimal places).

47. A depressed portion of a land is identified by three closed contours, as shown in the figure below. The area bounded by three contour lines are 6 m2, 24 m2 and 96 m2 respectively.

The contour interval is 1 m. Using prismoidal method, the volume of the earth needed to fill the land depression is_____ m3.

48. Solar panels are proposed to be installed on a building roof top to generate electricity. The size of each solar panel is 2 m2. The efficiency of each panel is 75%. The orientations of the solar panel and related solar data are given in the table below.

As per the above proposal ____ kWh solar power will be generated daily. (rounded off to one decimal place)

49. A power shovel is having 1.8 m3 excavation output per batch of operation. The average cycle time of the batch operation is 45 seconds. The lost time per hour of the excavation activity is 10 minutes. Assume six working hours of operation per day. The amount of soil excavated by the power shovel per day is _____ m3 (rounded off to two decimal places).

50. A room having dimension 12 m × 10 m × 3.5 m is required to be mechanically ventilated by air-conditioner. The temperature difference between outdoor ambient air and the supply air is 12°C. Consider three air exchanges per hour. The volumetric specific heat of the air is 1250 J/m3°C. Assume one ton of refrigeration (TR) is equal to 3.5 kW. The capacity of the air-conditioner for the room in TR will be _____.

51. A simply supported beam AB has a clear span of 7 meter. The bending moment diagram (BMD) of the beam due to a single concentrated load is shown in the figure below.

The magnitude of the concentrated load in kN is _____ .

52. For a symmetrical trapezoidal open drain in a landscape with grass and loose rock surface, the velocity of flow of water is _____ m/sec, (rounded off to two decimal places), given the following data.

Water edge width at the top = 750 mm

Water edge width at the bottom = 450 mm

Water depth = 600 mm

Manning’s coefficient of roughness = 0.05

Slope along the drain = 1 in 250

53. The stack pressure is created by 10 m height of stack and 15°C temperature difference. The motive force due to the stack pressure over a cross section area of 2.5 m2 is ____ N.

54. An industrial building contains 3000 kg of combustible materials, in dry state, distributed over three rooms of area 100 m2, 500 m2 and 300 m2 each, in a proportion of 30%, 50% and 20% of the contents, respectively. Calorific value of the material is 4400 kCal/kg.

The Total Fire Load of the rooms is equal to _____ kCal/ m2.

Answer: (61500 to 61700 OR 14600 to 14700)

55. A simple truss is shown in the figure below. The truss is loaded with horizontal and vertical force 15 kN and 25 kN, respectively. The force in the member AB will be _____ kN.

## GATE Exam 2019 Agricultural Engineering (AG) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ______ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

2. Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

10. “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Agricultural Engineering

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. has the value

(A) 0.785

(B) 0.915

(C) 1.000

(D) 1.245

2. The determinant of the matrix  is

(A) 1

(B) 0

(C) -1

(D) 2

3. In a relay race there are five teams A, B, C, D and E. Assuming that each team has an equal chance of securing any position (first, second, third, fourth or fifth) in the race, the probability that A, B and C finish first, second and third, respectively is

(A) 1/60

(B) 1/20

(C) 1/10

(D) 3/10

4. The path traced by the material threshed between the cylinder and the concave of an axial flow thresher is

(A) straight single pass and perpendicular to the cylinder shaft

(B) curved and perpendicular to the cylinder shaft

(C) helical and several times

(D) straight and parallel to the cylinder shaft

5. The farm machine/implement used only for preparing wetland is

(A) rotavator

(B) disk harrow

(C) hydro-tiller

(D) cultivator

6. The type of typical spray distribution profile of a hollow cone nozzle is

(A) steep sided slo pes

(C) narrow topped with gradual slopes

(D) narrow topped with steep sides

7. The amount of biogas required to run a diesel engine is 0.65 m3 kW-1h-1. The minimum size of the Deenbandhu model biogas plant in m3 required to run a 1 kW (brake power) diesel engine daily for one hour is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

8. A soil sample has a porosity of 40%. Void ratio of the soil sample is

(A) 0.367

(B) 0.467

(C) 0.567

(D) 0.667

9. In the Muskingum method of channel routing, the routing equation is written as 𝑄2 = 𝐶𝑜𝐼2 + 𝐶1𝐼1 + 𝐶2𝑄1. If the storage-time constant K = 12 h, weighting factor x = 0.15 and the time step for routing ∆𝑡 = 4 h, the coefficient 𝐶𝑜 is

(A) 0.016

(B) 0.048 .

(C) 0.328

(D) 0.656

10. Match the following items between Column-I and Column-II with the most appropriate combinations:

(A) 1-P,2-R,3-S,4-Q

(B) 1-S,2-P,3-Q,4-R

(C) 1-Q,2-S,3-P,4-R

(D) 1-S,2-Q,3-P,4-R

11. Tensiometer installed in the soil measures

(A) osmotic suction of soil moisture

(B) soil permeability

(C) soil moisture content

(D) capillary potential of the soil

12. Head pulley of a bucket elevator has an effective radius of 150 mm. In order to obtain the most satisfactory discharge from this elevator, the speed of the head pulley in rpm is

(A) 36

(B) 44

(C) 50

(D) 77

13. The clean paddy production per annum is 160 million tonnes. Average milling quality analysis indicates the husk content, total yield and degree of polish as 22%, 73.32% and 6%, respectively. For an average bran oil yield of 20%, the annual rice bran oil potential in million tonnes is

(A) 1.268

(B) 1.498

(C) 1.617

(D) 1.945

14. A batch of 10000 L milk is to be sterilized and thereafter packed in 20000 packets of 500 ml each. The mean Standard Plate Count (SPC) of Bacillus subtilis in 100 samples of fresh milk was found to be 50 ml -1. The milk is to be sterilized such that each 500 ml packet is completely devoid of the same organism. Minimum number of log cycle reduction for sterilization of this batch is_______ .

(A) 8

(B) 9

(C) 10

(D) 12

15. A tube-in-tube counter-flow heat exchanger is heating oil from 35°C to 77°C by circulating hot water at 100°C. The outlet temperature of water is 70 °C. The log-mean-temperature difference (LMTD) is

(A) exactly equal to the mean arithmetic temperature difference

(B) significantly greater than the mean arithmetic temperature difference

(C) significantly smaller than the mean arithmetic temperature difference

(D) very nearly equal to the mean arithmetic temperature difference

16. Using trapezoidal rule, the value of (rounded off to three decimal places)is_______ .

17. Two cards are drawn at random and without replacement from a pack of 52 playing cards. The probability that both the cards are black (rounded off to three decimal places) is__________.

18. The total width between the two extreme furrow openers in a tractor drawn 9-row wheat seed drill is 1.6 m. The average mass of wheat seeds dropped per meter of row length in each furrow opener is 2.15 g. Seed rate obtained with the seed drill in kg ha-1 (rounded off to one decimal place) is ________.

19. The purchase price of a tractor is Rs. 5,50,000. Useful life of the tractor is 10 years and its salvage value is 10% of the purchase price. Following the sum of the years digit method, the depreciation in 3rd year in Rs. is________ .

20. A pair of straight teeth spur gears is transmitting power at 500 rpm. The pinion has 16 standard full depth involute teeth of module 8 mm. The pitch line velocity of the pinion in m s-1 (rounded off to two decimal places) is __________.

21. A soil conservation structure has an expected life of 10 years and is designed for a flood magnitude of return period 50 years. The risk of this hydrologic design in percentage (rounded off to two decimal places) is _________.

22. A watershed of area 80 ha has a runoff coefficient of 0.3. A storm of intensity 5 cm h-1 occurs for a duration more than the time of concentration of the watershed. The peak discharge in m3 s-1 (rounded off to two decimal places) is _________.

23. A lateral has 12 sprinklers spaced 14 m apart in a sprinkler irrigation system. The laterals are spaced 20 m apart on the main line. If the recommended fertilizer dose is 80 kg ha-1, the amount of fertilizer to be applied at each setting in kg (rounded off to two decimal places) is_______.

24. In a rubber roll sheller, 250 mm diameter rolls are set at a clearance of 1 mm. If the mean thickness of paddy grains being shelled is 2 mm, the length of husking zone in mm (rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.

25. Air-water vapour mixture at 1 atmosphere pressure has 0.035 kg water vapour (kg dry air)-1 and dry bulb temperature of 37 oC. The value of Universal gas constant is 8.314 kJ (kg mole K)-1. The humid volume of this air-water vapour mixture in m3 (kg dry air)-1 (rounded off to three decimal places) is _________.

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 General soluti on to the differential equation y″ + 4y’ + 5y = 0 is

(A) 𝑒2𝑥(𝑎 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 + 𝑏 sin 𝑥)

(B) 𝑒−2𝑥(𝑎 cos 𝑥 + 𝑏 sin 𝑥)

(C) 𝑒𝑥(𝑎 cos 2𝑥 + 𝑏 sin 2𝑥)

(D) 𝑒−𝑥(𝑎 cos 2𝑥 + 𝑏 sin 2𝑥)

27. For vectors on the curve C (y = 2x2) in the x-y plane from (0, 0) to (1, 2) is

(A) -1.17

(B) 1.50

(C) -2.67

(D) 2.67

28. A 3-cylinder 4-stroke CI engine coupled with a turbocharger has a bore and stroke length of 120 mm and 130 mm, respectively. The engine is running at 1600 rpm with a volumetric efficiency of 150%. The air to fuel ratio for complete combustion on weight basis is 14.9:1 and the density of air entering the cylinder is 1.2 kg m-3. The fuel consumption in kg h-1 is

(A) 17.05

(B) 25.57

(C) 33.33

(D) 51.14

29. A level field of 1.2 ha (120 m × 100 m) is ploughed using a reversible mould board plough with a total effective cutting width of 0.64 m. The average field overlap is 80 mm between two consecutive laps. The average time taken for each turn is 30 seconds and the mean operating speed is 5.0 km h-1. The maximum effective field capacity in ha h-1 is

(A) 0.207

(B) 0.236

(C) 0.283

(D) 0.318

30. The thresher ‘A’ has output capacity of 170 kg h-1 while threshing paddy crop at 14% moisture content (m.c.) with a grain to straw ratio 45:55. The thresher ‘B’ has output capacity of 160 kg h-1 while threshing paddy crop at 13% m.c. with a grain to straw ratio 40:60. Both the threshers have threshing efficiency of 97%. If a farmer has to carry out threshing of paddy crop at 12% m.c. with a grain to straw ratio 40:60 in the least time, the selected thresher and its output in kg when operated for 5 hours will be

(A) A and 738

(B) A and 850

(C) B and 791

(D) B and 800

31. A horizontal axis drag type wind rotor, fitted with 4 thin rectangular blades having drag coefficient 1.29, is used to extract power when the average wind velocity in the rotor plane is 10 km h-1. The maximum power coefficient is

(A) 0.148

(B) 0.191

(C) 0.393

(D) 0.593

32.  A two-wheel drive tractor while operating a plough at a forward speed of 5 km h-1 experiences a wheel slip of 15%. If the angular speed of the rear axle is 2.4 rad s-1, the rolling radius of the traction wheel in meter will be

(A) 0.49

(B) 0.58

(C) 0.68

(D) 0.75

33. The combined mass of a tractor seat and operator is 75 kg and the undamped natural frequency of the operator seat is 10 rad s-1. If the seat suspension damping rate is 600 N m-1 s-1, the damping ratio is

(A) 0.2

(B) 0.4

(C) 0.6

(D) 0.8

34.  A catchment has eight raingauge stations. In a year, the annual rainfall recorded by the gauges (in cm) are 93.8, 106.5, 170.6, 138.7, 87.8, 156.2, 180.9 and 110.3. For a 10% error in the estimation of the mean rainfall, the optimum number of stations in the catchment is

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

35. On a 4% land slope in a medium rainfall zone, the horizontal spacing of bunds in meter and the length of bunds per hectare in meter, respectively are

(A) 25 and 300

(B) 25 and 400

(C) 30 and 300

(D) 30 and 400

36. In a drainage area of 15 ha, the slope and drainage coefficient are 0.4% and 11 mm/day, respectively. The value of Manning’s roughness coefficient is 0.016. The inside diameter (in mm) of the corrugated plastic tubing used for drainage is

(A) 200.51

(B) 205.52

(C) 209.51

(D) 215.23

37. A 20 cm diameter well fully penetrates a confined aquifer of thickness 20 m. After a long period of pumping at the rate of 1500 L min-1, the steady drawdowns in the wells at 30 m and 50 m from the pumping well are found to be 2.0 m and 1.5 m, respectively. Assuming π = 3.14, the transmissivity of the aquifer in m2 s-1 is

(A) 0.244

(B) 14.676

(C) 352.224

(D) 880.560

38. Water is flowing at a velocity of 1.6 m s-1 in a pipe of diameter 8 cm and length 100 m. Assuming the value of coefficient of friction for pipe, f = 0.005 and acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m s-2, the head loss (in meter) due to friction in the pipe is

(A) 1.28

(B) 2.28

(C) 2.78

(D) 3.26

39. A cream separator has discharge radii of 6 cm and 9 cm and the density of cream and skim milk are 860 and 1035 kg m-3, respectively. The ideal radius (in meter) for placing the feed inlet is

(A) 0.085

(B) 0.098

(C) 0.113

(D) 0.174

40.  Head rice contents in the samples collected at feed inlet, head rice outlet and broken rice outlet of an indented cylinder grader are 82%, 94% and 15%, respectively. If the grader receives the feed at 1200 kg h-1, the flow rate (in kg h-1) of head rice in the broken rice stream is

(A) 20.17

(B) 27.34

(C) 182.28

(D) 1017.72

41.  A batch of 100 kg grain at 32% moisture content (wet basis) is being dried using hot air at 70 °C and 30% RH. The values of Henderson equation’s constants c and n for the grain are 8.5×10-6 and 2.07, respectively. Considering the maximum possible drying of the batch, the quantity of moisture removed in kg is

(A) 10.20

(B) 17.05

(C) 21.98

(D) 25.07

42. A chiller used for 3 hours. kW and working on mechanical vapour compression refrigeration system (COP = 4.5) is cooling 12500 kg of fresh cow milk (cp = 3.8 kJ kg-1 K-1) from 30°C to 4°C in Assuming ideal compression process, the power consumed by the electric motor in the tonnage of refrigeration (TR), respectively are

(A) 25.4 and 32.5

(B) 25.4 and 114.3

(C) 32.5 and 25.4

(D) 114.3 and 25.4

43. Two streams of air with the following conditions are adiabatically mixed:

Latent heat of vapourization of water at 0°C = 2501 kJ kg-1 Specific heat capacity of dry air = 1.005 kJ kg-1 K-1 Specific heat capacity of water vapour = 1.880 kJ kg-1 K-1

Using above values, the dry bulb temperature and the absolute humidity of the mixed air in o°C and g water vapour (kg dry air)-1, respectively are

(A) 43 and 30

(B) 44 and 31

(C) 45 and 33

(D) 46 and 35

44. Directional derivative of 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) = 𝑥𝑦2 + 𝑦𝑧3 at the point (2, -1, 1) in the direction of vector  (rounded off to two decimal places) is __________.

45. The mean absolute deviation about the median for the data 3, 9, 5, 3, 12, 10, 18, 4, 7, 19, 21
(rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________.

46. The application rate of an 18-nozzle hydraulic sprayer is 1120 L ha-1. The nozzle spacing and forward speed are 400 mm and 3.4 km h-1, respectively. The operating pressure is 2.1 MPa and the pump efficiency is 60%. If 10% of the pump output power is used for agitating the liquid, the power needed to operate the sprayer in kW (rounded off to three decimal places) is ________.

47.  A two-wheel drive tractor is taking a turn with a radius of curvature 5.0 m. The minimum horizontal distance between the tipping axis and line of action of the CG is 800 mm. The angle between the line of action of centrifugal force and perpendicular direction to the tipping plane is 15o. If the vertical distance of the CG from the ground level is 900 mm, the limiting speed (in km h-1) of the tractor to prevent overturning (rounded off to two decimal places) is __________.

48. During operation, a two-wheel drive tractor with a total weight of 2000 kg has a weight distribution of 35% and 65% in front and rear axles, respectively. The width and diameter of the tyres fitted to the front axle are 0.18 m and 0.56 m, and those of the rear axle are 0.34 m and 1.10 m, respectively. If tyre deflection is 20%, then rolling resistance (in kN) of the tractor in a soil with average cone index 1000 kPa at a wheel slip of 15% (rounded off to two decimal places) will be __________.

49. The peak of a flood hydrograph due to a 5-hour storm is 670 m3 s-1. The total depth of rainfall is 9 cm. Assuming an average infiltration loss of 0.2 cm h-1 and a constant baseflow of 30 m3 s-1, the peak discharge of the 5-hour unit hydrograph for this catchment in m3 s-1 is ________.

50. A parabolic grassed water channel 8 m wide at the top and 60 cm deep is laid on a slope of 3%. Assuming the value of ‘n’ in Manning’s formula as 0.04 m-1/3 s, the discharge capacity (in m3 s-1) of the channel (rounded off to two decimal places) is __________.

51.  Undisturbed soil sample is collected from a field when the soil moisture is at field capacity. The inside diameter of the core sampler is 7.5 cm with a height of 15 cm. Weight of the core sampling cylinder with moist soil is 2.81 kg and that with oven dry soil is 2.61 kg. The weight of the core sampling cylinder is 1.56 kg. Assuming π = 3.14, the water depth in centimeter per meter depth of soil (rounded off to two decimal places) is _________.

52. An irrigation stream of 27 L s-1 is diverted to a check basin of size 12 m × 12 m. The water holding capacity of the soil is 15% and the average soil moisture content in the crop root zone prior to applying water is 7.5%. The depth of crop root zone is 1.2 m and apparent specific gravity of the soil is 1.5. Assuming no loss due to deep percolation, irrigation time (in minute) required to replenish the root zone moisture to its field capacity is _______.

53. Angle of internal friction of a certain grain (bulk density = 650 kg m-3) is 30°. A bin filled with this grain experiences a pressure of 60 kPa at its base. Ignoring the factor of safety, the safe height (in meter) to which water (density = 1000 kg m-3) can be filled in this bin (rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.

54. The steady-state mass transfer coefficient (kg) based on water vapour pressure differential (VPD) operating across stagnant, non-diffusing air was estimated to be 0.05 g mole s-1 m-2 kPa-1. If VPD varies from 12 kPa to 7 kPa over a distance of 2 mm, then the mass transfer coefficient (kyˈ) based on equimolar counter-diffusion in g mole s-1 m-2 (mole fraction)-1 (rounded off to one decimal place) is __________.

55.  In an air blast freezing operation, a flat tray of 1.0 m×1.0 m×0.02 m dimensions is used to freeze filled depodded peas. Bulk density and moisture content of peas are 550 kg m-3 and 85% (w.b.), respectively. Latent heat of freezing from water to ice at -1 −°C is 335 kJ kg-1 and heat transfer occurs identically from the top and the bottom surfaces of the tray. Convective film heat transfer coefficient on the heat transfer surfaces of the tray is 30 W m-2 K-1 and the thermal conductivity of frozen peas is 0.54 W m-1 K-1. Assuming the tray to be a semi-infinite slab, the freezing time (in minutes) to completely freeze the product (rounded off to one decimal place) is ________.

## GATE Exam 2019 Aerospace Engineering (AE) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ________ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

2.  Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6.  Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

10.  “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Aerospace Engineering

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1.  The maximum value of the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥𝑒−𝑥 (where x is real) is

(A) 1/𝑒

(B) 2/𝑒2

(C) (𝑒−1/2)/2

(D) ∞

2. Vector 𝑏⃗ is obtained by rotating 𝑎 = 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ by 90° about 𝑘̂, where 𝑖̂, 𝑗̂ and 𝑘̂ are unit vectors along the x, y and z axes, respectively. 𝑏⃗ is given by

(A) 𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂

(B) −𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂

(C) 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂

(D) −𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂

3. A scalar function is given by 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑥2 + 𝑦2. Take 𝑖̂ and 𝑗̂ as unit vectors along the x and y axes, respectively. At (𝑥, 𝑦) = (3, 4), the direction along which 𝑓 increases the fastest is

4. The dimensions of kinematic viscosity of a fluid (where L is length, T is time) are

(A) LT−1

(B) L2T −1

(C) LT −2

(D) L−2T

5. ϕ(𝑥, 𝑦) represents the velocity potential of a two-dimensional flow with velocity field are unit vectors along the x and y axes, tively. Which of the following is necessarily true?

(A) ∇2ϕ

(D) 𝑢 = −𝜕𝜙/𝜕𝑦,  𝑣  = 𝜕𝜙/𝜕𝑥

6. For a quasi-one-dimensional isentropic supersonic flow through a diverging duct, which of the following is true in the direction of the flow?

(A) Both the Mach number and the static temperature increase.

(B) The Mach number increases and the static temperature decreases.

(C) The Mach number decreases and the static temperature increases.

(D) Both the Mach number and the static temperature decrease.

7. For a NACA2415 airfoil of chord length c, which of the following is true?

(A) Maximum camber is located at 0.2c from the leading edge.

(B) Maximum thickness is located at 0.15c from the leading edge.

(C) Maximum camber is 0.02c.

(D) Maximum thickness is 0.05c.

8. When a propeller a the following state irplane in ground-roll during take-off experiences headwind, which of ments is FALSE?

(A) The drag on the airplane increases.

(B) The thrust from the propellers decreases.

(C) The wing lift in creases.

(D) The ground-roll distance increases.

9.  Which of the following graphs represents the response of a dynamically unstable airplane?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

10. The propulsive efficiency of a ramjet engine is lower than that of a low bypass turbofan engine operating under the same conditions and producing the same thrust, primarily because the ramjet engine

(A) has larger kinetic energy lost in the exhaust jet.

(B) has lower thrust power.

(C) is not self-starting.

(D) has higher thrust to weight ratio.

11. While flying at order from the l Mach 2.0, 11 km altitude and producing the same thrust, what is the correct owest thrust specific fuel consumption (tsfc) to the highest tsfc?

(A) Turbofan, R amjet, Turbojet

(B) Turbofan, Turbojet, Ramjet

(C) Ramjet, Tur bojet, Turbofan

(D) Turbojet, Turbofan, Ramjet

12. For a single stage subsonic compressor, which of the following statements about the highest possible compressor pressure ratio (CPR) is correct?

(A) CPR of an axial compressor > CPR of centrifugal compressor.

(B) CPR of an axial compressor < CPR of centrifugal compressor.

(C) CPR of an axial compressor = CPR of centrifugal compressor.

(D) CPR of any value can be attained with either an axial or a centrifugal compressor.

13. For a beam subjected to a transverse shear load through its shear center,

(A) the twist per unit length is zero.

(B) the shear stress is uniform throughout the cross-section.

(C) the bending stresses in the cross section are zero.

(D) the shear strain is zero at the shear center.

14. A function 𝑓(𝑥) is defined by  The value of

is (round off to 1 decimal place).

15. The value of the following limit is______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

16. To simulate the aerodynamic forces on a cylinder of 1 m diameter due to a uniform air flow of 1 m/s at standard temperature and pressure (STP), low-speed wind tunnel experiments at STP are conducted on a 0.1 m diameter cylinder. The free stream air speed in the wind tunnel experiments should be _____ m/s (round off to the nearest integer).

17. The power-off glide range for an airplane with a maximum Lift to Drag ratio of 18, when the glide starts at an altitude of 4 km, is _______ km (round off to the nearest integer).

18. For an airplane flying in a vertical plane, the angle of attack is 3°, the horizontal and vertical components of velocity in wind axis are 300 km/h and 15.72 km/h, respectively. The pitch attitude of the airplane is _______ degrees (round off to 2 decimal places).

19. An airplane is in steady level flight with a true air speed of 50 m/s. The ambient air density and ambient pressure at the flight altitude are 0.91 kg/m3 and 7×104N/m2, respectively. At sea level, air density is 1.225 kg/m3 and ambient pressure is 1.01×105 N/m2. The equivalent or indicated air speed of the airplane is ______ m/s (round off to 2 decimal places).

20. For the complete combustion of 1 mole of ethanol (C2H5OH), the required number of moles of oxygen is _____ .

21. One kg of diatomic gas is heated and its temperature increases from 100 K to 600 K. The energy added at constant pressure during this process is 500 kJ. The specific heat at constant volume for the gas is _____ kJ/kgK. (round off to 2 decimal places).

22. The number of independent elastic constants for a homogeneous isotropic linear elastic material is______ .

23. A thin plate with Young’s modulus 210 GPa and Poisson’s ratio 0.3 is loaded as shown in the figure. The change in length along the y-direction________ is mm (round off to 1 decimal place).

24. For the state of stress shown in the figure, the normal stress, 𝜎𝑛 , on a plane inclined at 45 degrees to the x-axis is MPa (round off to the nearest integer).

25. In the spring-mass system, shown in the figure, mass m = 3 kg and the spring stiffness k = 20 kN/m. The natural frequency of the system is _____ Hz (round off to the nearest integer).

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. The following system of equations

2𝑥 − 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 0,

−𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 𝑧 = 0,

−𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 0

(A) has no solution.

(B) has a unique solution.

(C) has three solutions.

(D) has an infinite number of solutions.

27. A supersonic flow in a constant area duct at Mach number M1 encounters a ramp of angle θ1 (see Figure 1). The resulting oblique shock with shock angle β1 is then reflected from the top wall. For the reflected shock, the turn angle is θ2 and the shock angle is β2.

Use the weak shock solution from the θ-β-M plot shown in Figure 2 to choose the correct option from the following.

(A) β1 > β2

(B) β1 < β2

(C) θ1 > θ2

(D) θ1 < θ2

28. Which of the following statements about adverse yaw of an airplane is/are correct?

P. It is caused by flow separation resulting from large rudder deflection.

Q. It is caused by dissimilar drag forces acting on the two halves of the wing resulting from aileron deflections of same magnitude.

R. It can be eliminated by ensuring that the upward deflection of one aileron is greater than the downward deflection of the opposite aileron.

(A) P only

(B) Q only

(C) P and R

(D) Q and R

29. In a turbojet engine, the compressor outlet temperature increases with decreasing efficiency of the compressor. If the turbine inlet temperature remains constant, with decreasing efficiency of the compressor, the thrust specific fuel consumption of the engine

(A) decreases, as the heat input is lower.

(B) remains unchanged.

(C) increases, as the compressor needs more work input from the turbine.

(D) decreases, as the thrust produced is higher.

30. For a 1 m long simply supported beam with a concentrated vertical load of 200 N and a concentrated bending moment of 100 Nm at the center as shown in the figure, the correct bending moment diagram is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

31. For real x, the number of points of intersection between the curves 𝑦 = 𝑥 and 𝑦 = cos 𝑥 is_________.

32. One of the eigenvalues of the following matrix is 1.

The other eigenvalue is ______ .

33. The curve 𝑦 = 𝑓(𝑥) is such that its slope is equal to 𝑦2 for all real x. If the curve passes through (1, -1), the value of y at 𝑥 = −2 is_______ (round off to 1 decimal place).

34. The inviscid, incompressible flow field resulting from a uniform flow past a circular cylinder of radius R centered at the origin is given by:

where ur and uθ are the radial and azimuthal velocity components in polar coordinates, (r, θ), as shown in the figure. U is the free stream speed. Ignore the effects of gravity. The azimuthal location (in the first quadrant) on the cylinder at which the pressure coefficient is zero is ______ degrees (round off to the nearest integer).

35. A cylindrical container of radius R = 50 cm is filled with water up to a height ho. Upon rotating the cylinder about its central axis at a constant angular speed, the free surface takes a parabolic shape (see figure), and is displaced upwards by h1 = 10 cm at r = R. The magnitude of the downward displacement h2 of the free surface at r = 0 _____ is cm (round off to the nearest integer).

36. A two-dimensional, incompressible fluid flow is described by the stream function Ψ = xy3 m2/s on the Cartesian x-y plane. If the density and dynamic viscosity of the fluid are 1 kg/m3 and 0.1 kg/m-s, respectively, the magnitude of the pressure gradient in the x direction at x=1 m and y=1 m is _______ N/m3 (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (3.5 to 3.7 or 2.3 to 2.5)

37. The static pressure ratio across a stationary normal shock is given by

where M1 is the upstream Mach number. For a stationary normal shock in air (γ = 1.4, 𝑅 = 287 J/kg-K) with upstream flow conditions given by: speed 800 m/s, static temperature 300 K and static pressure 1 atm., the static pressure downstream of the shock is ____atm. (round off to 2 decimal places).

38. For a symmetric airfoil at an angle of attack of 10º, assuming thin airfoil theory, the magnitude of the pitching moment coefficient about the leading edge is ______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

39. The span-wise distribution of circulation over a finite wing of span b = 10 m is

If Γ0 = 20 m2/s and the free stream density and speed are 1.2 kg/m3 and 100 m/s, respectively, the total lift is _______ kN (round off to 2 decimal places).

40. The airplane shown in figure starts executing a symmetric pull-up maneuver from steady level attitude with a constant nose-up pitch acceleration of 20 deg/s2. The vertical load factor measured at this instant at the centre of gravity (CG) is 2. Given that the acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2, the vertical load factor measured at point P on the nose of the airplane, which is 2 m ahead of the CG, is _______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

41. Consider an airplane with a weight of 8000 N, wing area of 16 m2, wing zero-lift drag coefficient of 0.02, Oswald’s efficiency factor of 0.8, and wing aspect ratio of 6, in steady level flight with wing lift coefficient of 0.375. Considering the same flight speed and ambient density, the ratio of the induced drag coefficient during steady level flight to that during a 30o climb is ______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

42. The product of earth’s mass (M) and the universal gravitational constant (G) is GM = 3.986×1014 m3/s2. The radius of earth is 6371 km. The minimum increment in the velocity to be imparted to a spacecraft flying in a circular orbit around the earth at an altitude of 4000 km to make it exit earth’s gravitational field is______ km/s (round off to 2 decimal places).

43. A propeller driven airplane has a gross take-off weight of 4905 N with a wing area of 6.84 m2. Assume that the wings are operating at the maximum of 13, the propeller efficiency is 0.9 and the specific fuel consumption of the engine is 0.76 kg/kW-hr. Given that the density of air at sea level is 1.225 kg/m3 and the acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2, the weight of the fuel required for an endurance of 18 hours at sea level is ________ N (round off to the nearest integer).

44. The design of an airplane is modified to increase the vertical tail area by 20% and decrease the moment arm from the aerodynamic centre of the vertical tail to the airplane centre of gravity by 20%. Assuming all other factors remain unchanged, the ratio of the modified to the original directional static stability ( due to tail fin) is ______ (round off to 2
decimal places).

45. For a rocket engine, the velocity ratio r is Va/Ve, where Va is the vehicle velocity and Ve is the exit velocity of the exhaust gases. Assume the flow to be optimally expanded through the nozzle. For r = 2, if F is the thrust produced and 𝑚̇ is the mass flow rate of exhaust gases, then, 𝐹/(𝑚̇𝑉𝑒) is__________ .

46. The specific impulse of a rocket engine is 3000 Ns/kg. The mass of the rocket at burnout is 1000 kg. The propellant consumed in the process is 720 kg. Assume all factors contributing to velocity loss to be negligible. The change in vehicle velocity Δu is ____ km/s (round off to 2 decimal places).

47. The combustion products of a gas turbine engine can be assumed to be a calorically perfect gas with γ = 1.2. The pressure ratio across the turbine stage is 0.14. The measured turbine inlet and exit stagnation temperatures are 1200 K and 900 K, respectively. The total-to- total turbine efficiency is_______ % (round off to the nearest integer).

48. The figure shows the velocity triangles for an axial compressor stage. The specific work input to the compressor stage is kJ/kg_______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

49. As shown in the figure, a rigid slab CD of weight W (distributed uniformly along its length) is hung from a ceiling using three cables of identical length and cross-sectional area. The central cable is made of steel (Young’s modulus = 3E) and the other two cables are made of aluminium (Young’s modulus = E). The percentage of the total weight taken by the central cable is______ % (round off to the nearest integer).

50. All the bars in the given truss are elastic with Young’s modulus 200 GPa, and have identical cross-sections with moment of inertia 0.1 cm4. The lowest value of the load P at which the truss fails due to buckling is _____ kN (round off to the nearest integer).

51. A solid circular shaft is designed to transmit a torque T with a factor of safety of 2. It is proposed to replace the solid shaft by a hollow shaft of the same material and identical outer radius. If the inner radius is half the outer radius, the factor of safety for the hollow shaft is (round off to 1 decimal place).

52. In the structure shown in the figure, bars AB and BC are made of identical material and have circular cross-sections of 10 mm radii. The yield stress of the material under uniaxial tension is 280 MPa. Using the von Mises yield criterion, the maximum load along the z- direction (perpendicular to the plane of paper) that can be applied at C, such that AB does not yield is N (round off to the nearest integer).

53. A thin-walled tube, with the cross-section shown in the figure, is subjected to a torque of T = 1 kN-m. The walls have uniform thickness t = 1 mm and shear modulus G = 26 GPa. Assume that the curved portion is semi-circular. The shear stress in the wall is_____ MPa (round off to 1 decimal place).

54. For a damped spring-mass system, mass m = 10 kg, stiffness k = 103 N/m, and damping coefficient c = 20 kg/s. The ratio of the amplitude of oscillation of the first cycle to that of the fifth cycle is______ (round off to 1 decimal place).

55. For the system of springs and masses shown below, k = 1250 N/m and m = 10 kg. The highest natural frequency, ω, of the system is _____ radians/s (round off to the nearest integer).

## MP Test

 Shri. T.P.R. Selvame Smt. B. Kobiga Shri. E. Theeppainthan Shri. S.V. Sugumaran Shri. A. Namassivayam Shri. Mnr. Balan Shri. N.S.J. Jayabal @ Ayyanar Shri. N. Rangasamy Shri.K. VENKATESAN VACANT Shri. V.P. Sivakolundhu Shri. M.O.H.F. Shahjahan Shri. Vaiyapuri Manikandan Shri. K. Lakshminarayanan Shri. A. Anbalagan Shri. R. Siva Shri. V. NARAYANASAMY Shri. A. Baskar Shri. T. Djeamourthy Shri. R.K.R. Anantharaman Shri. M. KANDASAMY Smt. V. VIZEAVENY Shri. N. DANAVELU Smt. S. CHANDIRA PRIYANGA Shri. R. Kamalakkannan Shri. P.R.N. Thirumurugan Shri. K.A.U. Asana Smt. A.Geetha Dr. V.Ramachandran Shri. Malladi Krishna Rao

## National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Under Graduate 2018 Question Paper With Answer Key

1. The average weight of a group of 20 boys was calculated to be 89.4 kg and it was later discovered that one weight was misread as 78 kg instead of 87 kg. The correct average weight is

(a) 88.95 kg

(b) 89.25 kg

(c)  89.55 kg

(d) 89.85 kg

2. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 7 : 5. When 9L of mixture are drained off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7 : 9. How many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?

(a) 10

(b) 20

(c)  21

(d) 25

3. The sum of first 50 odd natural number is

(a) 1000

(b) 1250

(c)  5200

(d) 2500

4. The number (6x2 + 6x) for natural number x is always divisible by

(a) 6 and 12

(b) Only 12

(c)  Only 6

(d) Only 3

5. By selling a bicycle for Rs 2850, a shopkeeper gains 14%. If the profit is reduced to 8%, then the selling price will be

(a) Rs 2600

(b) Rs 2700

(c)  Rs 2800

(d) Rs 3000

6. The least number, which is to be added to the greatest number of 4 digits so that the sum may be divisible by 345, is

(a) 50

(b) 6

(c)  60

(d) 5

7. If a number is much greater than 31 as it is less than 75, then the number is

(a) 44

(b) 74

(c)  53

(d) 106

8. Find the area of ∆ ABC whose vertices are A(10, −6), B(2, 5) and C(−1, 3).

(a) 12 sq units

(b) 37/2 sq units

(c)  455 sq units

(d) 49/2 sq units

9. Thrice the square of a natural number decreased by four times the number is equal to 50 more than the number. The number is

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c)  10

(d) 6

10. If the distance between the points (x, 0) and (−7, 0) is 10 units, then the possible values of x are

(a) 3 and 17

(b) −3 and 17

(c)  3 and −17

(d) −3 and −17

11. The sum of two number is 8 and their production is 15. The sum of their reciprocals is

(a) 8/15

(b) 15/8

(c)  23

(d) 7

12. Equal sums of money are lent to X and Y at 7.5% per annum for period of 4 yr and 5 yr, respectively. If the difference in interest paid by them was Rs 150, the sum lent to each was

(a) Rs 500

(b) Rs 1000

(c)  Rs 2000

(d) Rs 3000

13. A man ate 100 grape in 5 days. Each day, he ate 6 more grapes than those he ate on the earlier day. How many grapes did he eat on the first day?

(a) 8

(b) 12

(c)  54

(d) 76

14. A number whose one-fifth part increased by 4 is equal to its one-fourth part diminished by 10, is

(a) 260

(b) 280

(c)  240

(d) 270

15. The sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437. Then, the absolute difference between the numbers is

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c)  5

(d) 7

16. The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs 8000. The average salary of 7 technicians to Rs 12000 and the average salary of the rest is Rs 6000. The total number of workers in the workshop is

(a) 20

(b) 21

(c)  22

(d) 23

17. I paid 3/5 of a bill. If Rs 400 of the bill amount is still due, what was the total amount of the bill?

(a) Rs 1200

(b) Rs 1500

(c)  Rs 1800

(d) Rs 1000

18. A start a business with Rs 4000. B joins him after 3 months with Rs 8000. C puts a sum of Rs 20000 in the business for 2 months only. At the end of year, the business gives a profit of Rs 16800. How should the profit be divided amongst them?

(a) A = Rs 5040, B = 7560, C = Rs 4200

(b) A = Rs 7560, B = 5040, C = Rs 4200

(c)  A = Rs 4200, B = Rs 7560, C = Rs 5040

(d) A = Rs 4200, B = Rs 5040, C = Rs 7560

19. 2/3 is a rational number whereas √2/√3 is

(a) also a rational number

(b) an irrational number

(c)  not a number

(d) a natural periodic number

20. A rational number is expressed as ……, where p and q are integers and q ≠

(a) pq

(b) p + q

(c)  p – q

(d) p/q

21. For what value of p, the following pair of linear equations in two variables will have infinitely many solutions?

px + 3y – (p – 3) = 0

12x + py – p= 0

(a) 6

(b) −6

(c)  0

(d) 2

22. A and B can do a job together in 12 days. A is 2 times as efficient as B. In how many days can B along complete the work ?

(a) 18

(b) 9

(c)  36

(d) 12

23. The cost of carpeting of a room is Rs 120. If the width had been 4 m less, the cost of the carpet would have been Rs 20 less. The width of the room is

(a) 24 m

(b) 20 m

(c)  25 m

(d) 18.5 m

24. Two pipes (A and B) can fill a cistern in 3 h and 4 h, respectively and a waste pipe C can empty it in 2h. If all the three pies are kept open, then the cistern will be filled in

(a) 5 h

(b) 8 h

(c)  10 h

(d) 12 h

25. A path of uniform width runs round the inside of a rectangular field 38 m long and 32 m wide. If the path occupies 600 m2, then the width of the path is

(a) 30 m

(b) 5 m

(c)  18.75 m

(d) 10 m

26. A certain number when divided by 175 leaves a remainder 132. When the same number is divided by 25 the reaminder is

(a) 6

(b) 7

(c)  8

(d) 9

27. A and B invest Rs 3000 and Rs 4000, respectively in a business. A receives Rs 10 per month out of the profit as a remuneration for running the business and the rest of the profit is divided in proportion to the investments. If in a year A totally receives Rs 390, what does B receive?

(a) Rs 630

(b) Rs 360

(c)  Rs 480

(d) Rs 3800

28. A man losses 20% of his money. After spending 25% of the remainder, he has Rs 480 left. What is the amount of money he originally had?

(a) Rs 600

(b) Rs 720

(c)  Rs 800

(d) Rs 840

29. The area of the square park is Rs 25 sq km. The time taken to complete a round the field once, at a speed of 3 km/h

(a) 4 h 60 min

(b) 4 h 50 min

(c)  6 h 40 min

(d) 5 h 40 min

30. A bag contains Rs 1, 50 paise and 25 paise coins in the ratio of 8 : 9 : 11. If the total money in the bag is Rs 366, then find the number of 25 paise coins.

(a) 264

(b) 364

(c)  241

(d) 245

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 31-33) In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/proverb has been given, followed by four alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.

31. In black and white

(a) in short

(b) useless

(c)  in writing

(d) in full swing

32. Wet behind the cars

(a) stupid and slow-witted

(b) young and inexperienced

(c)  drenched in the rain

(d) unpunctual and lethargic

33. To rock the boat

(a) to conspire against

(b) to agitate against

(c)  to upset the balance

(d) to create difficulties

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 34-35) In each of the following questions below, only one among the given alternatives is correctly spelt. Find out the word with correct spelling.

34.

(a) Explanation

(b) Explination

(c)  Explaination

(d) Explainsion

35.

(a) Posesive

(b) Possessive

(c)  Possesive

(d) Posessive

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-37) In each of the following questions, choose the wrongly spelt word.

36.

(a) Aptitude

(b) Audible

(c)  Anonimus

(d) Resignation

37.

(a) Beautiful

(b) Carpenter

(c)  Brevity

(d) Futerstic

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 38-39) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate singular form.

38. Phenomenon

(a) Phenomenos

(b) Phenomenas

(c)  Phenomena

(d) Phenomenons

39. Machineries

(a) Machinery

(b) Machinerye

(c)  Machine

(d) Machineri

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 40-41) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate plural form.

40. Goose

(a) Gooses

(b) Geese

(c)  Gease

(d) Geeses

41. Formula

(a) Formula

(b) Formulas

(c)  Formulae

(d) Formulaes

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 42-45) In each of these question, choose the alternative which can replace the underlined word without changing the meaning of sentence.

42. Don’t light matches near inflammable

(a) non-flammable

(b) combustible

(c)  fire

(d) lightening

43. The sighting of the flying saucer was inexplicable.

(a) mysterious

(b) amusing

(c)  amazement

(d) enjoyable

44. Not even experts could figure out the magician’s clever

(a) original

(b) unimaginative

(c)  ingenious

(d) no replacement

45. Many have tried to copy the painter’s unique

(a) simple

(b) no replacement

(c)  ordinary

(d) inimitable

46. Johnny is a keen player but unfortunately he has ……….. skills.

(a) few

(b) none

(c)  some

(d) little

47. I didn’t have ……… trouble getting the passports. I only had a problem with my photo because it was an old one.

(a) any

(b) much

(c)  no

(d) several

48. When we get ready for dinner, I have to take my books …….. t he table.

(a) off

(b) from

(c)  out

(d) of

49. The lecture will be held right …………. the tutorial.

(a) at

(b) before

(c)  over

(d) beyond

Directions (Q. Nos. 50-53) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning of the underlined word.

50. He has been living in prosperity right since his childhood.

(a) sickness

(b) poverty

(c)  humility

(d) grandeur

51. He is of a very affable

(a) humble

(b) irritating

(c)  unfriendly

(d) None of these

52. The rich fellow saved his money because he has not earned it himself.

(a) hoard

(b) developed

(c)  collected

(d) dissipated

53. I asked to repeat the performance by the spectators.

(a) participants

(b) bystander

(c)  observers

(d) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 54-55) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative that can be substituted for the given sentence.

54. A constructor of crossword puzzles; also an enthusiast of word games, especially cross word puzzles

(a) Lexicographer

(b) Dittograph

(c)  Cruciverbalist

(d) Ambigram

55. One filled with excessive and mistaken enthusiasm in cause.

(a) Pedant

(b) Fanatic

(c)  Patriot

(d) Martyr

PASSAGE I

The superiority of the West is due to its intellectual integrity, the sincerity of its pursuit of truth. From the times of Socrates, the seeker of truth, down till today, Western mind, with rare exceptions, has been remarkably free from self complacency. Intellectual laziness and blind faith in ancients wisdom. It has never lost the sense of wonder, the eager curiosity to know and find out for oneself by observation and experiment, the truth of the near and far. Science has made life easier for millions of men and women. Our educators tried to impart how to use the scientific mind. The possession of the scientific spirit devices. We may be able to use the telephone and the wireless, the railway and the aeroplane, and yet be lacking in the scientific mind which is something organic and structural and not merely outward and decorative. The scientific spirit must be applied not only to be ordinary arrangement of life and leisure, to be distribution of materials goods, to the improvement of industry and agriculture, but also to the thing which touch the mind and the morals of the community.

Our scientific conscience must b e shocked not only by the contrasts of fabulous wealth and gruelling poverty but also by those of intense holiness and diseased superstition. In our relations with the another, we have failed to apply scientific and social wisdom. The failure is written large on our society. Social abuses like untouchability are tolerated simply because the spirit in us in supposed by the force of custom. They are practised by otherwise kind persons who have ceased to feel and whose understanding is petrified by tradition. There are millions in our country today who use scientific devices and yet revere superstition as mystical revelation and adhere to absurd social customs in the name of tradition. We owe our reverence to the seekers of truth, who conquer our minds by the spirit of truth and not be conformists, who enslave our minds in the name of tradition. Tradition cannot ever supersede truth, conscience cannot be silenced by scripture. We must clear mind of the cobwebs which are found there.

56. To what does the West owe its superiority over the East?

(a) Belief in material values

(b) Dignity of the individual

(c)  Intellectual discipline and disinterested search for truth

(d) Belief in moral and spiritual values

57. What do you mean by self complacency?

(a) Vanity

(b) Self-reliance

(c)  False sense of superiority self assurance

(d) Tendency of giving importance to self

58. Why is our scientific conscience shocked not only by the contrasts of fabulous wealth and gruelling poverty but also by those of intense holiness and diseased superstition?

(a) Because reason does not justify the intellectuality.

(b) Because these things are immoral.

(c)  Because these things are out of accord with our spiritual values of life.

(d) Because superstition kills open enquiry and encourages the tendency of accepting things as they are.

59. What do you mean by the expression ‘ the failure is written large on our society’?

(a) The society is suffering the consequences of the lack of the scientific spirit on our part.

(b) Not individuals but society has failed in coming out of grooves of dead habits.

(c)  The failures are recorded in the history books.

(d) The account of failures of society is written in large letters.

60. ‘Whose understanding is petrified by tradition’? What do you mean by this expression?

(a) The weight of customs and traditions is so great that their reason does not work to get at the reality.

(b) In course of time their understanding has left them and they have become totally insensitive to reason.

(c)  They are too much given to the worship of old ways and customs.

(d) Their common sense has been converted into stone.

PASSAGE II

Science, is so far as it consists of knowledge, must be regarded as having value, but in so far as it consists a technique, the question whether it is to be praised or blamed depends upon the use that is made of technique. In itself, it is neutral, neither good nor bad. Any ultimate view that we may have about what gives vale of this or that must come from some other source than science.

But good and evil almost, everything that distinguishes our age from its predecessors is due to science. In daily life we have electricity, the radio and the cinema. Because of the increased productivity of labour, we are able to devote a far greater proportion of our energies to war and preparation for wars that was formerly possible and we are able to keep the young in school very much longer than we formerly could. Owing to science we are able to disseminate information through the press and the radio practically to everybody. We can make it more enormously difficult that it used to the people whom the government dislikes to escape.

It would not be surprising if in the present day; a powerful anti-scientific movement were to arise as a result of the dangers to human life that are resulting from atom moms and may result from bacteriological warfare. But whatever people may feel about these horrors, they dare not turn against the men of science so long as war is at all probable because of one side equipped with scientists and the other not, the scientific side would almost certainly win.

61. What determines whether science is good or bad?

(a) Its analytical study

(b) Its Philosophical-conception

(c)  The manners of its origin

(d) The application in life

62. Which conceptions of science has the author mentioned in the passage?

(a) Its being good or bad.

(b) Its being a purely empirical enquiry.

(c)  Its being both a philosophical and empirical study.

(d) Science as knowledge and science as technique

63. If anti-science movement were to arise in the preset day what factor or factors according to the author would he held responsible for it?

(a) The misapplication of science

(b) Man’s destructive propensities

(c)  Man’s pugnacious instinct and h is desire for domination.

(d) Dangers to human life resulting from atom bombs and the, likely result from the bacteriological warfare.

64. How long are people not likely to turn against scientist?

(a) Until science is not fully developed.

(b) So long as war is at all probable.

(c)  Until the lot of mankind is ameliorated.

(d) So long as we are dominated by fighting instinct.

65. How is it most difficult in the present day for men disliked by the government to escape its clutches?

(a) A network of information media operating throughout the world will enable the government to catch hold of such persons.

(b) A highly efficient system of secret service will trace out the whereabouts of such persons.

(c)  People in the present day have become so slothful that they would not like to involve danger to their security.

(d) Such persons will find it difficult to obtain asylum anywhere in the world of today dominated of selfishness.

PASSAGE III

Edmund Burke called ‘the Press- the Fourth Estate of the realm, ‘I think he did not use his title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or class. The three Estates or Realms is England are the Lord Spiritual i.e. the Bishops in the House of Lords, the Temporal i.e. other Lords and Commons i.e., the common people. The Press has been rightly called the Fourth Estate as it also constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Common. It cannot be denied in a free country, that the Press exercises a good deal of influence in shaping public opinion and pointing out the weakness or defects of society or of government and, in general bringing to light all those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not limited or put under any check. The Press instead of being controlled by any one, controls life and thought of a nation. Hence, the Press constitutes an state by itself. Obviously the power which the press in any country wields depends upon the number of newspaper readers. The opinions and comments of newspaper can influence the life of a nation only when they are read by people reading, in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the spread, of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few, newspapers must necessarily be few. Their influence in the case, can extend, only to a small minority of population. In a country like India the percentage of literacy is very low and standard of journalism is not very high. So, the Press has to play the role of a teacher here.

66. What title was given by Edmund Burke to the Press?

(a) Instrument of public opinion

(b) Distributor of news

(c)  The Fourth Estate

(d) Lords Temporal

67. How much power does a free Press possess?

(a) Only that much which is allowed by government of the country.

(b) Unlimited power without any check.

(c)  Unlimited power subject to maintenance of law and order and public morality.

(d) No power at all

68. What is the secret power of the Press?

(a) The money which the newspaper owners can wield

(b) The number of newspaper readers

(c)  The extent to which it support official policy

(d) The patronage of the government enjoyed by it

69. What determines the number of newspaper readers?

(a) The low price of newspaper

(b) The patronage extended to it by the moneyed people

(c)  Education of the general masses of people

(d) The availability of newsprint to the newspaper owners

70. How does the press exercise power?

(a) It enlists the support of the people.

(b) It keeps watch over the acts of the Government.

(c)  It controls life and thought of a nation.

(d) It is a great materialistic concern.

PASSAGE IV

The emotional appeal of imperialism never completely stilled the British conscience, However, liberal thinks throughout the nineteenth century argued that democracy was incompatible with the maintenance of authoritarian rule over foreign people. To think empirically was to think in terms of restrictive and protective measures, in defiance of the revealed truths of classical economics. Thus, when the British government took over responsibility for India from the East India Company in 1858, many politicians were conscious of saddling Britain with a heavy burden. In the first seventy years of the nineteenth century, enlightened British liberals looked forward to the day when India would stand on its own feet. Even in the days of colonialism, British radicals continued to protest. The self proclaimed imperialists, however honourable their motives, would place fait accompli before the country and commit blunder of incalculable consequence. The danger they felt was all the greater because British foreign policy still remained a stronghold of the aristocracy, while that related and persuasive lobby, the British officer class also had a vested interest in imperial expansion.

It took the humiliation of the Boer to teach the British government what it would cost to hold an empire by force. However, this fact did not escape Gandhi, the supreme tactician of the Indian liberation movement. He saw that some perceptive British thinkers had much earlier recognised that Britain could not continue long to rule India except with the co-operations of may sections of its population. Once that co-operation was withdrawn, the foundation of British authority in India would crumble. Furthermore, the Indian nationalist leaders were able to exploit the aversion of the British liberal conscience to method used by the local colonial rulers in combating Indian non-cooperation.

71. ‘The emotional appeal of imperialism never completely stilled the British conscience’ What does it mean?

(a) The glorification resulting from imperialism never completely blinded the British people to the unjustness of their policy.

(b) The glorification resulting from the establishment of sway overseas did not make the British people complacent.

(c)  The British people became so dull and emotionally so cold that the glorification of their country attained through imperialism never stirred them of feel pround of this phenomenon.

(d) All of the above

72. What does the term authoritarian rule mean?

(a) Rule of authority of law

(b) Dictatorial rule unaccompanied by the rule of law

(c)  Arbitrary exercise of power by officials

(d) Rule having stability

73. What according to the author did the maintenance of imperialism result in?

(a) Economic exploitation of the subject people

(b) Mental enslavement of the subject people

(c)  The extinction of the sense of initiative in the people ruled by the imperialists

(d) Erection of trade barriers in the foreign trade and other restrictive measures

74. What do you think were the revealed truths of classical economics?

(a) Laissez fair and free trade

(b) Allowing only subsistence wages to the workers.

(c)  Clamping of artificial restriction on foreign trade.

(d) Wholesale nationalisation of the means of production.

75. What was the opinion of the British liberal thinkers regarding Britain’s continuing to rule India?

(a) That it could hold on only by force of arms.

(b) That it could maintain its rule only by following a policy of persuasion.

(c)  That British rule would collapse when the Indian masses rose in revolt against her.

(d) Thus, Britain could continue to rule India only with co-operation of many sections of its population.

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 76-79) Each of these questions has an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R).

(a) If both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’

(b) If both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’

(c) If ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

(d) If ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

76. Assertion (A) In India, the Judiciary is independent of the Executive.

Reason (R) Judiciary favours the Government and helps in the implementation of its plans.

77. Assertion (A) Clothes are not washed properly in hard water.

Reason (R) Hard water contains many minerals.

78. Assertion (A) Carbon monoxide when inhaled caused death.

Reason (R) Carbon monoxide combines with haemoglobin.

79. Assertion (A) Himalayas once laid under the sea.

Reason (R) Fossils of marine creatures are traced on the Himalayas.

80. How many 5’s are there in the following number sequence which are immediately followed by 4 but not immediately proceded by 6?

8 9 5 4 2 5 4 8 5 5 7 8 6 4 4 5 6 6 5 4 7 5 4 4 6 3 8

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c)  4

(d) 3

81. In a certain code language ‘Sun is bright’ is written as ‘pa ma la’, ‘sky is blue’ is written as ‘da ma re’ and ‘Sun is hot’ is written as ‘pa ma go’. Find the code for Sun.

(a) pa

(b) ma

(c)  Either ‘pa’ or ‘ma’

(d) re

82. In a students queue, Kamal is 12th from left and Deepak is 18th from right. When Kamal and Deepak interchange their position, then Kamal is 25th from left. Find the total number of students in the queue.

(a) 40

(b) 41

(c)  42

(d) 43

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 83-84) Answer the questions based on the following information.

A class is to be taught five subjects – Hindi, Physics, Chemistry, Biology 2nd Mathematics by five different teachers – A, B, C, D and E in five periods (1 to 5). A teacher can teach in only one of the periods. The following details are available about the teaching.

• A teachers Mathematics which is not taught in the first period.
• Physics is taught by D in an even numbered period.
• Chemistry is taught in an odd period, and it precedes Mathematics period.
• E teaches in the first period.
• C teaches Chemistry but not in the first or the last period.
• Hindi is taught in the last period.

83. Which of the following statements is necessarily true?

(a) Third period is of Hindi taught by B

(b) Second period of Physics taught by C

(c)  Fourth period is Mathematics taught by A

(d) Fifth period is Biology taught by D

84. Which subject is taught by B?

(a) Physics

(b) Chemistry

(c)  Biology

(d) Hindi

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 85-88) Complete the series by replacing the question mark.

85. 8, 16, 28, 44, ?

(a) 60

(b) 64

(c)  62

(d) 66

86. 230, 246, 271, 307, ?

(a) 412

(b) 356

(c)  518

(d) 612

87. 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, 127, ?

(a) 250

(b) 275

(c)  350

(d) 255

88. AZY, EXW, IVU, ?

(a) MTS

(b) MQR

(c)  NRQ

(d) LST

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 89-92) Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument?

(a) if only Argument I is strong

(b) if only Argument II is strong

(c) if either I or II is strong

(d) if both I and II are strong

89. Statement Should school education be made free in India?

Arguments I. Yes this is the only way to improve the level of literacy.

(II) No, it will add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.

90. Statement Should there be complete ban on manufacture of fire crackers in India?

Arguments I. No, this will render thousands of workers jobless.

(II) Yes, the fire cracker manufacturers use child labour to a large extent.

91. Statement Should young entrepreneurs be encouraged?

Arguments. I. Yes, they will help in the industrial development of the country.

(II) Yes, they will reduce the burden on the employment market.

92. Statement Should luxury hotels be banned in India?

Arguments I. Yes, these are places from where international criminals operate.

(II) No, affluent foreign tourists will have no place to stay.

93. Sheela is Ravi’s sister-in-law. Ram is Ravi’s brother. Ram’s wife is Sheela. Deepa is Ravis sister. Deepa’s mother is Shanthi. How is Sheela related to Shanthi?

(a) Mother-in-law

(b) Daughter-in-law

(c)  Grand daughter

(d) Daughter

94. A is the mother of D and sister of B. B has a daughter C, who is married of F. G is the husband of A. How is G related to D?

(a) Uncle

(b) Husband

(c)  Son

(d) Father

95. If the code of STEADY, is 931785, what will be the code of SEDATE?

(a) 814195

(b) 954185

(c)  614781

(d) 918731

96. A child is looking for his father. He went 90m in the East before turning to his right. He went 20m before turning to his right again to look for his father at his uncle’s place 30m from this point. His father was not there. From here he went 100m to his North before meeting his father in a street. How far did the son meet his father from the starting point?

(a) 80 m

(b) 100 m

(c)  260 m

(d) 140 m

97. Raju facing North and moves 20 km, then he turned to his right and moves 20 km and then he moves 10 km in North-East, then he turned to his right and moves 20 km and then he turned to his right and moves 20 km and again he turned to his left and moves 20 km. Now, in which direction Raju is facing?

(a) South-East

(b) North-East

(c)  South-West

(d) North-West

98. Which of the following diagrams best depicts the relation among liquids, Milk and River water?

99. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes. Professionals, Charted Accountant, Female

100. Which diagram represents the relationship among female, mother and doctors?

101. Which of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called e-Choupals?

(a) ITC

(b) Dabur

(c)  Hindustan

(d) Protector and Gamble

102. Which one of the following clothing brands was the sponsor of the Femina Miss India Beauty Pageant 2017?

(a) Lifestyle

(b) Fbb

(c)  Pantaloons

(d) Gucci

103. Who is the current CEO of an Indian fashion e-commerce company Myntra?

(a) Mukesh Bansal

(b) Ashutosh Lawania

(c)  Vineet Saxena

(d) Anath Narayanan

104. The tagline ‘Be You’ is associated with which of the following fashion e-commerce portal?

(a) Myntra

(b) Fernia’s pupshop

(c)  Jabong

105. Which among the following brands is not an Indian brand?

(a) Allen Solly

(b) Da Milano

(c)  Monte Carlo

106. Who has won the best actor award (male) at the 2018 Dadasaheb Phalke Excellence Awards?

(a) Salman Khan

(b) Akshay Kumar

(c)  Shah Rukh Khan

(d) Shahid Kapoor

107. Which city will host the 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBS) 2019?

(a) Bengaluru

(b) New Delhi

(c)  Gandhinagar

(d) Varanasi

(a) Philippines

(b) Geneva

(c)  New York

(d) Beijing

109. Who has won the 2018 Italian Open Tennis tournament?

(a) Alexander Zverev

(c)  Juan Martin del Potro

(d) Grigor Dimitrov

110. Which country has launched the world’s first floating nuclear power station?

(a) United States

(b) Russia

(c)  China

(d) France

111. Which country’s hockey team has won the 5th Women’s Asian Champions Trophy 2018?

(a) South Korea

(b) India

(c)  China

(d) Myanmar

112. ‘CaratLane’, the biggest online jewellery company in India, is associated with which brand?

(a) Kalyan

(b) Malabar Gold

(c)  Tanishq

(d) Tribhovandas Bhimji Zaveri (TBZ)

113. Who sworn in as Nepal’s 41st Prime Minister in February 2018?

(a) KP Sharma Oil

(b) Bidya Devi Bhandari

(c)  Nasirul Mulk

(d) Pushpa Kamal Dahal

114. Pankaj Advani is well-known Indian player of

(a) Cricket

(b) Chess

(c)  Billiards

(d) Hockey

115. Which of following countries got observer status in SAARC?

(a) Korea and China

(b) Russian and China

(c)  Japan and China

(d) India and Pakistan

116. NITI Ayog was set up in the year

(a) 2014

(b) 2015

(c)  2016

(d) 2017

117. Who won the Most Valuable Player in the 2018 Indian Premier League (IPL-11)?

(a) Rishabh Pant

(b) Shane Watson

(c)  Sunil Narine

(d) Kiwi Trent Boult

118. Which among the following sarees got the GI (Geographical Indication) tag?

(a) Banarasi saree

(b) Kovai Kora saree

(c)  Chanderi saree

(d) All of these

119. The ‘Valley of flowers’ is located in which state?

(a) Uttarakhand

(b) Punjab

(d) Jammu and Kashmir

120. Which city is known as ‘Venice of East’?

(a) Ajmer

(b) Udaipur

(c)  Jodhpur

(d) Jaipur

121. Which is the only country in the world to produce all five varities of silk?

(a) China

(b) Brazil

(c)  India

(d) Indonesia

122. Which Indian actress has launched her own fashion private label brand called ‘All About You’ on fashion app Myntra?

(a) Kareena Kapoor

(c)  Katrina Kaif

(d) Bipasha Basu

123. Teesta river dispute is common to Indian and

(a) Pakistan

(b) China

(d) Nepal

124. The Mohiniyattam dance form was developed in

(b) Karnataka

(c)  Kerala

125. ‘Mohey’ from the house of ‘Manyavar’ has signed which film star as their new brand ambassador?

(a) Virat Kohli

(b) Anushka Sharma

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 126-136) Read the following case and answer the questions given at the end each case on the basis of information provided.

CASE 1

Tata Group brand Mia, part of its jewellery division Tanisq, is eyeing Rs 1,000 crore turnover in the next 5-6 years as it expands it retail footprint across the country. Tanishq, which launched the brand for working women in 2011, sells the Mia jewellery range from its existing stores, standalone Mia stores and select shop-in-shops at multi brand outlets such as Shoppers Stop. The company plans to open 25 new standalone Mia stores by the end of the current financial year as it looks to grow turnover from the brand. While Tanishq will continue to sell Mia brand jewellery, growth of business for Mia will come from standalone stores. “Growth of Mia brand has been consistent for the last few years……upwards of 20-25 per cent CAGR. Right now, Mia brand is strongly under Tanisq’s shadow but we want to parallelly open a fresh retail line. We want to make Mia a Rs 1,000 crore brand in 5-6 years,” Titan Company Senior Vice-President (Retail and Marketing) – Jewellery Division, Sandeep Kulhalli told.

126. Tata Group brand Mia’s target group is

(a) Lower income class

(b) Higher income class

(c)  Working women

(d) Homemakers

127. While Tanishq will continue to sell Mia brand jewellery, growth of business for Mia will come from

(a) Existing stores

(b) Standalone stores

(c)  Multi brand outlets

(d) None of these

128. Tanisq wants to set up ‘Mia’ as a separate brand because

(a) it wants to target more working class women

(b) it wants to popularise it

(c)  it want to increase its turn over

(d) All of the above

CASE 2

The Luxury market in India gathers tremendous attention in recent years, as a vast majority of the international brands has arrived, or are relied upon to enter. Luxury retailers have understood that India is one of the world’s most energetic, diverse, and testing markets for brands who want to set sights in India. India is still at an early phase of its advancement as a luxury retail market. Due to its market fluctuation, it is difficult to analyse it. While India is pictured as an upcoming business sector due to its colossal potential, it is the size of the market which makes it extremely exciting for brands to venture into for the long haul. It was not too long ago we witnessed the badge brand syndrome boom, where the focus was all about logos which people wanted to flaunt since the premium positioning of brands had a strong foothold on consumers. The influence of Indian culture globally has grown tremendously by brands, designers and celebrities. Bollywood and sports celebrities are also playing a significant role in the overall domestic brand strategy which is trickling outwards on a global platform. They have changed the power of branding.

129. Luxury retailers are now flooding in India because they have understood that India is one of the world’s

(a) most energetic market

(b) most diverse market

(c)  most testing market

(d) All of the above

130. Indian luxury retail market is in

(a) mature phase

(b) early phase

(c)  developed phase

(d) None of these

131. It is difficult to analyse Indian luxury retail market due to

(a) its fluctuating nature

(b) its strong nature

(c)  its high growth potential

(d) None of the above

132. Badge brand syndrome boom is condition in which

(a) people became brand conscious

(b) people got attracted to new market

(c)  market become full of logos

(d) None of the above

133. The power of branding has been changed by

(a) designers

(b) bollywood celebrities

(c)  sports celebrities

(d) All of these

CASE 3

SWACH cooperative conducted the brand audit survey at three locations Bavdhan, Kothrud and Garware bridge from 16th May to 20th May, 2018. According to the survey, 87% of the waste was attributable to local/Indian brand owners such as Haldiram, Parrle, ITC, Amul and Britannia international, while 13% of the waste was attributable to international brand owners (or Indian subsidiaries) such as Unilever, Nestle, Mondelez (Cadbury) and Coca  Cola.

International brands whie having a smaller share, are being used throughout the world so would have a higher share in the total global waste. Supriya Bhadawad, a SWACH waste picker involved in the brand audit, said, “We sort and send all the hard plastics, shampoo bottles, carry bags, PET bottles and milk packets for recycling every day. But items like food product packaging, chips and biscuit covers, we cannot sell because they have no value. Companies using these materials should either change the packaging and make it recyclable or buy this sort of material from us at affordable rates. That way we can collect and sell it. It will increase our income and reduce the waste going into the landfill.” They also found 86% of the branded packaging was from food product packaging, followed by 8% personal care products and 6% household products.

134. In a survey conducted by SWACH cooperative, it was founded that 87% of the waste during garbage collection was attributable to

(a) Indian brands

(b) international brands

(c)  village industries

(d) None of these

135. Items like food product packaging, chips and biscuit covers cannot be sold because

(b) the y have no value

(d) they are reusable

136. What is the share of among branded packaging food product packaging?

(a) 8%

(b) 86%

(c)  8%

(d) 10%

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 137-150) In each of these questions a passage is followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

(a) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e., it directly follows from the facts given in the passage;

(b) if the inference is ‘probably true’ i.e, though not definitely true in the light of facts given;

(c) if you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though out definitely false in the light of facts given;

(d) if you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e., it contradicts the given facts.

CASELET-1

Ace designer Manish Malhotra, who has crossed the 4 million mark on his Instagram account, says the reach of digital space in fashion industry is phenomenal as people now have become more vocal about their opinions and craftsmanship, and this helps a brand to grow. He believes that the reach of the digital space in our industry is phenomenal and the impact it has on you brand is incomparable. People from across the globe can now access your brand and get a window inside y our world that was initially not a possibility. Currently, the label is reaching out to over 8 million people across platforms, said the designer, whose label registered a 300 per cent growth last year for him,, the digital world has allowed him to stay connected to the world at the click of a button enhancing accessibility and thus,, transcending the constraints of bricks-n-mortar, all at once.

137. The customers are better connected to a brand through social media than otherwise.

138. As people now have become more vocal about their opinions and craftsmanship, this helps brand to grow.

139. The digital word has enabled the fashion designers to stay connected to the world It promotes their brand and popularity as it enhances their accessibility.

CASELET-2

A report from the World Health Organisation on the occasion of World No Tobacco Day (May 31) suggests that India’s efforts to cut the prevalence of cigarette smoking are paying off. By 2025, the report projected, India will come in line to meet its 2025 target under a WHO global plan to tackle non-communicable diseases. Gutkha and other chewable tobacco items are equally, if not more, harmful compared to cigarettes. Surveys show that these products are sometimes mixed with carcinogenic compounds called nitrosamines. This is why, India banned their sale under the 2011 Food Safety and Standards Regulations. Why do they continue to be consumed, then? Experts blame their availability on loopholes in the law. The food safety rules target pre-mixed tobacco products, such as gutkha, which contains lime, sugar and other spices. This leaves  unflavoured items,, such as khaini or surthi, out of regulatory purview. Meanwhile, mislabelling of smokeless tobacco is common. Even when a product contains tobacco, it is passed off as being tobacco-free. Worse, one of the tactics of the tobacco industry is to use flavours such as cardamom and saffron to attract youngsters, triggering life-log addiction.

140. A report from the World Health Organization declared India free from cigarette smoking.

141. Surveys show that the product like gutkha and other chewable tobacco are sometimes mixed with carcinogenic compounds called nitrosamines.

142. Why these tobacco products continue to be consumed, then? Experts blame their availability solely on the loopholes in the law and there is no fault on the part of the public in general.

143. By 2025, the report projected, India will come in line to meet its 2025 target under a WHO global plan to tackle communicable diseases.

144. People consumes these chewable and non chewable tobacco products because of the use of flavours such as cardamom and saffron, which triggers life – long addiction.

145. Cigarette smoking has more harmful impacts than gutkha and other chewable tobacco.

CASELET-3

Three hundred people live on the small Mauritian archipelago of Agalega. They watch as their home is turned slowly into an Indian naval base. There is little that they can do. The government of Mauritius knows that there is far more to be gained from India than from the people of Agalega. Mauritius is one of the main routes for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India. It earns Mauritius a considerable fortune in fees – money that is enough for Mauritius to renege on its pledge to its own citizens. In 2015, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Mauritian counterpart Anerood Jugnauth watched as Navtej Srna (Ministry of External Affairs) and Sateeaved Seebaluck (Cabinet Secretary, Mauritius) signed an agreement that allows India to ‘develop infrastructure’ on the islands. The phrase is a euphemism for the building of military bases, which India is doing is not only on Agalega but also on Assumption Island (Seychelles).

146. Mauritian archipelago of Agalega has come under the control of Indian Navy after the development of Indian naval base there.

147. The government of Mauritius knows that there is far more to be gained from India than from the people of Agalega. Therefore, they allowed the construction of Indian naval base there.

148. Mauritius earns a considerable fortune in fees from India as it is one of the main routes for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India.

149. The deal between India and Mauritius will remain all time favourable to the people of Mauritius.

150. India wants to increase its influence in Indian Ocean by developing naval base in Mauritius.

## National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate 2019 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Post Graduate) Solved Paper – 2019

1. In a class of 80 students and 5 teachers, each student got sweets that are 15% of the total number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 25% of the total number of students.

How many sweets were there?

(a) 1030

(b) 1040

(c)  1050

(d) 1060

2. A sum of Rs 9000 is to be distributed among A, B and C in the ratio 4 : 5 : 6. What will be the difference between A’s and C’s shares?

(a) Rs 600

(b) Rs 1000

(c)  Rs 900

(d) Rs 1200

3. If a quantity is divided in the ratio 3 : 5, then the larger part is 75. Find the quantity.

(a) 120

(b) 130

(c)  240

(d) 150

4. A sum of money becomes Rs 13380 after 3 yr and Rs 20070 after 6 yr on compound interest. The sum (in rupees) is

(a) 8800

(b) 8890

(c)  8920

(d) 9040

5. B and C together can complete a work in 8 days. A and B together can complete the same work in 12 days and A and C together can complete the same work in 16 days. In how many days can A, B and C together complete the same work?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

6. The ages of Sulekha and Arunima are in the ratio of 9 : 8, respectively. After 5 yr, the ratio of their ages will be 10 : 9. What is the difference in years between their ages?

(a) 4 yr

(b) 5 yr

(c)  6 yr

(d) 7 yr

7. A sum of Rs 2200 is invested at two different rates of interest. The difference between the interests got after 4 yr is 202.40 What is the difference between the rates of interest?

(a) 3.3%

(b) 2.3%

(c)  3.5%

(d) 2.5%

8. A man and a boy received Rs 800 a wages for 5 days for the work they did together. The man’s efficiency in the work was three times that of the boy. What are the daily wages of the boy?

(a) Rs 76

(b) Rs 56

(c)  Rs 44

(d) Rs 40

9. Ninad, Vikas and Manav enter into a partnership. Ninad invests some amount at the beginning. Vikas invests double the amount after 6 months and Manav invests thrice the amount invested by Ninad after 8 months. They earn profit of Rs 45000 at the end of the year. What is the Manav’s share in the profit?

(a) Rs 25000

(b) Rs 15000

(c)  Rs 12000

(d) Rs 9000

10. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs 1516 is the same as loss incurred after selling the article for Rs 1112. What is the cost price of the article?

(a) Rs 1314

(b) Rs 1343

(c)  Rs 1414

(d) Rs 1434

11. Manoj sold an article for Rs 15000. Had he offered discount of 10% on the selling price, he would have earned a profit of 8%. What is the cost price?

(a) Rs 12500

(b) Rs 13500

(c)  Rs 12250

(d) Rs 13250

12. If x: y = 5 : 2, then (8x + 9y) : (8x + 2y) is

(a) 22 : 29

(b) 26 : 61

(c)  29 : 22

(d) 61 : 26

13. An equal amount of sum is invested in two schemes for 4 yr each, both offering simple interest. When invested in scheme A at 8% per annum the sum amounts to Rs 5280. In scheme B, invested at 12% per annum it amounts to Rs 5920. What is the total sum invested?

(a) Rs 4000

(b) Rs 3500

(c)  Rs 4200

(d) Rs 8000

14. A car covers its journey at the speed of 80 km/h in 10 h. If the same distance is to be covered in 4 h, by how much the speed of car will have to increase?

(a) 8 km/h

(b) 100 km/h

(c)  120 km/h

(d) 160 km/h

15. In two vessels A and B, there is mixture of milk and water. The ratio of milk and water in these vessels is 5 : 2 and 8 : 5, respectively. In what ratio these mixtures be mixed together, so that the ratio of milk and water in the new mixture becomes 9 : 4?

(a) 7 : 2

(b) 2 : 7

(c)  3 : 5

(d) 5 : 3

16. The average age of 80 boys in a class is 15 yr. The average age of a group of 15 boys in the class is 16 yr and the average age of another 25 boys in the class is 14 yr. What is the average age of the remaining boys in the class?

(a) 15.25 yr

(b) 14 yr

(c)  14.75 yr

(d) Cannot be determined

17. Twice the square of a number is six times the other number. What is the ratio of the first number to the second?

(a) 1 : 4

(b) 2 : 5

(c)  1 : 3

(d) Cannot be determined

18. When all the students in a school are made to stand in rows of 54, 30 such rows are formed. If the students are made to stand in the rows of 45, how many such rows can be formed?

(a) 25

(b) 42

(c)  36

(d) 32

19. A man buys a single apple for Rs 25. If he were to buy a dozen apples, he would have to pay a total amount of Rs 250. What would be the approximate per cent discount he would get on buying a dozen apples?

(a) 32%

(b) 20%

(c)  12%

(d) 17%

20. Vikas gets Rs 350 for every day that he works. If he earns Rs 9800 in a month of 31 days, for how many days did he work?

(a) 25 days

(b) 30 days

(c)  24 days

(d) 28 days

21. The mean value of 20 observations was found to be 75, but later on it was detected that 97 was misread as 79. Find the correct mean.

(a) 75.7

(b) 75.8

(c)  75.9

(d) 75.8

22. The average of 5 consecutive integers starting with m is n. What is the average of 6 consecutive integers starting with (m + 2)?

(a)

(b) (n+2)

(c)  (n +3)

(d)

23.

(a) −1/162

(b) 1/108

(c)  7696/106

(d) 1/109

24. A train passes a man standing on a platform in 8 s and also crosses the platform which is 264 m long in 20 s. The length (in metres) of the train is

(a) 188

(b) 176

(c)  175

(d) 96

25. A is thrice as good a workman as B and therefore is able to finish a job in 40 days less than B. Working together, they can do it in

(a) 14 days

(b) 13 days

(c)  20 days

(d) 15 days

26. A sum of money was lent at simple interest at a certain rate for 3 yr. Had it been lent at 2.5% per annum higher rate, it would have fetched Rs 540 more. The money lent was

(a) Rs 6400

(b) Rs 6472

(c)  Rs 6840

(d) Rs 7200

27. A DVD is listed at Rs 300 with a discount of 20%. The additional discount to be offered to bring the price to Rs 216 is

(a) 15%

(b) 10%

(c)  8%

(d)

28. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, then the dividend is

(a) 4236

(b) 4306

(c)  4336

(d) 5336

29. A dealer marks his goods at 40% above the cost price and allows a discount of 20% on the marked price. The dealer has a

(a) loss of 20%

(b) gain of 25%

(c)  loss of 12%

(d) gain of 12%

30. A box has 100 blue balls, 50 red balls and 50 black balls, 25% of blue balls and 50% of red balls are taken away. Then, percentage of black balls at present is

(a) 25%

(b)

(c)  40%

(d) 50%

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-34) In each sentence given below a word or phrase is underlined. From the given options, choose the word/phrase closest in meaning to the underlined part.

31. My impetuous cousin bought a car even before he got a job.

(a) judicious

(b) funny

(c)  impulsive

(d) jolly

32. The callow employee did many mistakes in his first assignment.

(a) inexperienced

(b) experienced

(c)  jovial

(d) comely

33. We had a sumptuous meal yesterday at the newly opened restaurant.

(a) expressive

(b) heavy

(c)  light

(d) expensive

34. People have become indifferent to the rampant corruption.

(a) concerned

(b) unconcerned

(c)  irritated

Directions (Q. Nos. 35-38) In the given questions, a word is given with four alternatives. Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

35. Corpulent

(a) Fat

(b) Thin

(c)  Even

(d) Corrupt

36. Hilarious

(a) Amusing

(b) Delightful

(c)  Serious

(d) Momentous

37. Erudition

(a) Intelligence

(b) Hollowness

(c)  Slowness

(d) Ignorance

38. Vindicate

(a) Reprieve

(b) Absolve

(c)  Indict

(d) Summon

Directions (Q. Nos. 39-42) In each of the following sentences there are blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four words denoted by numbers a, b, c and d. Find out which word can be filled up in the blank in the sentence to make it grammatically correct.

39. A company car and a big apartment are some of the ………. that some with the post of CEO.

(a) pricks

(b) blurbs

(c)  pastime

(d) perks

40. ……….. means that you express effectively and stand up for your point of view.

(a) passive

(b) sordid

(c)  aggressive

(d) assertive

41. The …… use of mobile phones can cause long-term problems.

(a) prudent

(b) severe

(c)  indiscriminate

(d) judicious

42. The officious clerk seldom looked at people and always sounded………. .

(a) rude

(b) rudely

(c)  soft

(d) polite

Directions (Q. Nos. 43-47) Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

43. (A) The elephant is distinguished by its massive body, large earns and a long trunk.

(B) Asian elephants differ in several ways from their African relatives.

(C) The largest mammal on earth, the African elephant weighs up to eight tons.

(D) Only some Asian male elephants have tusks.

(E) They are much smaller in size and their ears are straight at the bottom, unlike the large fan shape ears of the African species.

(a) ABCDE

(b) CEDAB

(c)  CABED

(d) CABDE

44. (A) The reporter-cum adventure is always on the move.

(B) Wherever Tintin goes, so does Snowy.

(C) And his pet dog Snowy is his ever-faithful shadow.

(D) The pair is inseparable, only leaving each other’s side when they are forcefully separated.

(E) Tintin can always rely on Snowy to be courageous in the face of danger, often helping him out of tight corners.

(a) BACED

(b) BACDE

(c)  ABCED

(d) ABCDE

45. (A) Aesop’s Fables is a collection of fables credited to Aesop.

(B) Aesop was a slave and storyteller.

(C) It is also called as Aesopica.

(D) This is a story from Aesop, set in Rome.

(E) He is believed to have lived on ancient Greece between 620 and 564 BCE.

(a) ACBDE

(b) ACBED

(c)  DECBA

46. (A) He was born on 8th February, 1828 in Nantes, France.

(B) His parents were Piere Verne, an attorney and Sophie Allote de la Fuye.

(C) His teacher, Mme Sambin, was a widow of a Naval Captain who had disappeared 30 years ago

(D) Jules Gabriel Verne is known as the father of science fiction.

(E) When he was six, he was sent to a boarding school.

(a) DAEBC

(b) ABEDC

(c)  BACED

(d) DABEC

47. (A) Low-lying areas like marshes and ponds, edges around lakes or oceans, and the delta at the mouth of a river are wetlands.

(B) A wetland is a place where the land is covered by water, either fresh or salty.

(C) They are known to support fauna-including mammals, birds and fish.

(D) They also support he cultivation of rice, a staple in the diet of half the world’s population.

(E) 2nd February is celebrated as International Wetlands Day.

(b) EABCD

(d) EBACD

Directions (Q. Nos. 48-51) Find the correctly spelt words

48.

(a) Prophesied

(b) Propheside

(c)  Prophesiedd

(d) Prophside

49.

(a) Garrulouss

(b) Garrulous

(c)  Garullous

(d) Garrullous

50.

(a) Aassasinnation

(b) Assassinationn

(c)  Assassination

(d) Assessination

51.

(a) Cemetery

(b) Cemetry

(c)  Cemettery

(d) Cemeteryy

Directions (Q. Nos.52-55) Choose the correct plural form the given words.

52. Sheep

(a) Sheeps

(b) Sheep

(c)  Sheepes

(d) Sheepes

53. Elf

(a) Elves

(b) Elfs

(c)  Elf

(d) Elfes

54. Nucleus

(a) Nucleus

(b) Nucleuses

(c)  Nucleuss

(d) Nuclei

55. Datum

(a) Datums

(b) Datumes

(c)  Data

(d) Datas

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-75) Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE 1

I was abruptly awakened by a noisy scuffle. The sun, a mere fringe over the horizon, immediately chased away the grey half-darkness. I was too sleepy to notice what was happening. Yuri was rolling over on the ground. I ran up to him but was struck dumb. With his right hand he was holding a cobra by the neck. Two sharp fangs showed from its jaws. The battle was over in a few minutes. A hollow hissing and convulsive jerks were then only reminders of a just-ended tussle. The catcher half-opened the lid of the box and calmly put the quarry in.

56.When the writer saw Yuri holding a cobra by the neck, he was ‘struck dumb’. This means that he was

(a) extremely delighted

(b) very much helpless

(c)  rather surprised

(d) absolutely shocked

57. From the passage, Yuri appears to be a man who is

(a) calm and courageous

(b) cunning and crafty

(c)  noisy and dangerous

(d) active and jumpy

58. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made

(1) The incident took place early in the morning.

(2) Yuri threw the snake away.

Which of these assumptions is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

59. Which word from the passage means ‘a short fight that is not very violent’.

(a) fringe

(b) quarry

(c)  strife

(d) scuffle

PASSAGE 2

I must say a word about the Eiffel Tower. I do not know what purpose it serves today. But I then heard it greatly disparaged as well as praised. I remember that Tolstoy was the chief among those who disparaged it. He said that the Eiffel Tower was a monument of man’s folly, not of his wisdom. Tobacco, he argued, was the worst of all intoxicants, inasmuch as a man addicted to it was tempted to commit crimes which a drunkard never dared to do; liquor made a man mad, but tobacco clouded his intellect and made him build castles in the air. The Eiffel Tower was one of the creations of a man under such influence. There is no art about the Eiffel Tower. In no way can it be said to have contributed to the real beauty of the Exhibition. Men flocked to see it and ascended it as it was a novelty and of unique dimensions. It was the toy of the Exhibition. Sol long as we are children we are attracted by toys, and the Tower was a good demonstration of the fact that we are children attracted by trinkets. That may be claimed to be the purpose served by the Eiffel Tower.

60. Why did Tolstoy disparage Eiffel Tower?

(1) Man was foolish to build it.

(2) Huge man-made structures did not appeal to him.

(3) Men flocked to see it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

61. Why did Tolstoy believe that tobacco was the worst of all intoxicants?

(a) Man lost his intellectual abilities under the influence of tobacco.

(b) Tobacco kept man in a state of inebriation.

(c)  People who commit crimes are invariably addicted to tobacco.

(d) Statements (a) and (b) above are correct in this context.

62. Why did men flock to the Eiffel Tower?

(a) Men were attracted to the castle built in the air.

(b) Men lost their wisdom under the influence of intoxicants.

(c)  Men were attracted to childish things.

(d) Men were attracted to things of no value.

63. Which word from the passage is the opposite of ‘praised’?

(a) folly

(b) disparaged

(c)  criticised

(d) trinket

PASSAGE 3

During the past three generation s the diseases affecting western societies have undergone dramatic changes. Polio, diphtheria, tuberculosis, commonly known as TB, are vanishing; one injection of an antibiotic often cures deadly diseases such as pneumonia or syphilis; and so many mass killers have come under control that two-thirds of all death are now associated with the diseases of old age. Those who die young are more often than not victims of accidents, violence, or suicide.

These changes in health status are generally equated with the decrease in suffering and attributed to more or better medical care. Almost everyone believes that at least one of his friends would not be alive and well except for the skill of a doctor. But there is in fact no evidence of any direct relationship between this change in the pattern or nature of sicknesses on the one hand and the so-called progress of medicine on the other hand. These changes are the results of political technological changes. They are not related to the activities that require the preparation and status of doctors or the costly equipment in which doctors takes pride. In addition, an increase in the number of new disease in the last fifteen years are themselves the result for medical intervention. They are doctor-made or iatrogenic.

64. In the western societies, the occurrence of polio, diphtheria and tuberculosis has

(a) increased

(b) completely stopped

(c)  decreased

(d) continued without changes

65. More deaths are now associated with old age than in the past because

(a) iatrogenic diseases are spreading faster now

(b) deadly diseases affecting the young have been well controlled

(c)  accidents, violence and suicide that killed many youths in the past are now under control

(d) political and technological changes now take better care of the young than the old

66. The writer probably is arguing for

(a) stopping the practice of western medicines completely

(b) stopping the use of costly equipment and medicines

(c)  rethinking about the successes and failures of the western medicines

(d) giving greater attention to new, iatrogenic diseases than to the old diseases such as polio, diphtheria and pneumonia

PASSAGE 4

Much has been said of the common ground of religious unity. I am not going just now to venture my own theory. But if anyone here hopes that this unity will come by the triumph of any one of the religions and the destruction of others, to him I say, “Brother, yours is an impossible hope.” Do I wish that the Christian would become Hindu? God forbid. Do I wish that the Hindu or Buddhist would become Christian? God forbid.

The seed is put in the ground, and earth and air and water are p laced around it. Does the seed become the earth, or the air, or the water? No. It becomes a plant. It develops after the law of its own growth, assimilates the air, the earth, and the water converts them into plant substance, and grows into a plant.

Similar is the case with religion. The Christian is not become a Hindu or a Buddhist, nor a Hindu or a Buddhist to become a Christian. But each must assimilate the spirit of the others and yet preserve his individuality and grow according to his own law of growth.

If the Parliament of Religions has shown anything to the word, it is this : it has proved to the world that holiness, purity and charity are not the exclusive possessions of any church in the world, and that every system has produced men and women of the most exalted character. In the face of this evidence, if anybody dreams of the exclusive survival of his own religions and the destruction of the others, I pity him from the bottom of my heart, and point out to him that upon the banner of every religion will soon be written in spite of resistance. : “Help and not fight,” “Assimilation and not Destruction,” “Harmony and Peace and not Dissension.”

67. According to the author of the passage, people should

(a) change their religions

(c)  follow their own religions and respect other religions

(d) disrespect other religions

68. The Parliament of Religions is

(a) a Christian organisation

(b) a Buddhist organisation

(c)  a Hindu organisation

(d) a platform for discussion about every religion of the world

69. What does the author think about those who dream about the exclusive survival of their own religions and the destruction of the others?

(a) He hates them

(b) He desires to imprison them

(c)  He pities them

(d) He praises them

70. According to the passage, what is ‘impossible hope’?

(a) One day, all the people of the world will follow only one religion

(b) One day, there will be no religion

(c)  Purity and charity are the exclusive possessions

(d) Banner of every religion will soon be written

PASSAGE 5

“Now, ladies and gentlemen,” said the conjuror, “having shown you that the cloth is absolutely empty, I will proceed to take from it a bowl of goldfish. Presto!”

All around the hall people were saying, “Oh, how wonderful! How does he do it?”

But the Quick Man on the front seat said in a big whisper to the people near him, “He-had-it-up-his-sleeve.”

Then the people nodded brightly at the Quick Man and said,, “Oh, of course”; and everybody whispered round the hall, “He-had-it-up-his-sleeve.”

“My next trick,” said the conjuror, “is the famous Hindostanee rings. you will notice that the rings are apparently separate, at a now they all join (clang, clang, clag)- Presto!”

There was a general buzz of stupefaction till the Quick Man was heard to whisper, “He must have had another lot up the sleeve.”

Again everybody nodded and whispered, “The rings-were-up-his-sleeve.”

The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering frown.

“I will now,” he continued, “show you a most amusing trick by which I am enabled to take any number of eggs from hat. Will some gentleman kindly lend me his hat? Ah, than you-Presto!”

He extracted seventeen eggs, and for thirty-five seconds the audience began to think that he was wonderful. Then the Quick man whispered along the front bench, “He has a hen up his sleeve.” and all the people whispered it on. “He has a lot of hens up his sleeve.”

The egg trick was ruined.

It went on like that all through. It transpired from the whispers of the Quick Man that the conjuror must have concealed up his sleeve, in addition to the rings, hens, and fish, several packs of cards, a loaf o bread, a doll’s cradle, a live guinea pig, a fifty-cent piece, and a rocking chair.

71.“The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering frown.” The sentence means that the conjuror

(c)  was rather angry

(d) was very afraid

72. ‘The egg trick was ruined.’ This means that

(a) eggs were all broken

(b) people were unconvinced

(c)  conjuror was disappointed

(d) the trick could not be performed

73. The author believes that the Quick Man was really

(a) foolish

(b) clever

(c)  wrong

(d) right

74. According to the Quick Man, the conjuror

(a) had everything bought for production

(b) produced things with the magic he know

(c)  had things in the large sleeves of his coat.

(d) created an illusion of things with his magic

75. The conjuror extracted seventeen eggs from the hat of

(a) the Quick Man

(b) his own

(c)  on gentleman from the audience

(d) None of the above

76. If two is subtracted from each odd digit and if two is added to each even digit in the number 9275436, then what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and second from the left of the new number thus formed?

(a) 6

(b) 8

(c)  2

(d) 1

77. In a certain code language, BANKER is written as LFSCBO, how will CONFER be written in that code?

(a) GFSDPO

(b) FGSDOP

(c)  GFSEPO

(d) FHSDPO

Directions (Q. Nos. 78-80) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

S is the husband of Q. A is the brother of D. A is the only son of B. D is the sister of Q. R is married to D. M is the father of R. N is the daughter of Q.

78. If V is the grandfather of N, then how is B related to R?

(a) Uncle

(b) Mother-in-law

(c)  Grandmother

(d) Aunt

79. How is S related to A?

(a) Father

(b) Grandfather

(c)  Brother-in-law

(d) Uncle

80. How is D related to N?

(a) Mother

(b) Sister-in-law

(c)  Cousin

(d) Aunt

81. In a row of 30 boys, R is 4th from the right end and W is 10th from the left end. How many boys are there between R and W?

(a) 15

(b) 16

(c)  17

(d) Cannot be determined

Directions (Q. Nos. 82-86) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G have different hobbies, viz. Travelling, Reading, Dancing, Painting Sculpting, Singing and Pottery making, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them belongs to a different state, viz. Punjab, Odisha, Kerala, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Karnataka, but not necessarily in the same order. A belongs to Maharashtra. D likes Pottery making. The person who likes Sculpting is from the state of Odisha.

The person who likes Dancing is from the state of Gujarat. F does not belong to Gujarat, Odisha, Punjab or Rajasthan. F does not like Singing, Reading or Painting. B does not belong to Kerala, Odisha, Punjab or Rajasthan. B does not like Painting, Travelling, Reading or Singing. C does not like Sculpting and he is not from Rajasthan or Punjab. Neither D nor G belongs to Punjab. A does not like Reading. The person from Kerala likes Singing.

82. Who among the following likes Singing?

(a) A

(b) C

(c)  E

(d) G

83. Which of the following combinations is true according to the given information?

(a) A-Travelling-Maharashtra

(b) C-Dancing-Gujarat

(d) D-Pottery making-Rajasthan

84. Who among the following belongs to the state of Karnataka?

(a) B

(b) D

(c)  F

(d) E

85. Which of the following combinations is true about G?

(a) Sculpting-Odisha

(b) Pottery making-Karnataka

(c)  Dancing-Gujarat

(d) Singing-Kerala

86. Person who belongs to Punjab, likes?

(a) Travelling

(b) Sculpting

(c)  Painting

87. A boat moves from a jetty towards East. After sailing for 9 nautical miles, she turns towards right and covers another 12 nautical miles. If she wants to go back to the jetty, what is the shortest distance now from her present position?

(a) 21 nautical miles

(b) 20 nautical miles

(c)  18 nautical miles

(d) 15 nautical miles

Directions (Q. 88-90) Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Each of the six friends, I, J, K, L, M and N working in an office handles different number of projects in a month. I handled the second lowest number of projects. K handles more projects than L and M, but less than J. J did not handle the maximum number of projects. L did not handle the minimum number of projects. The one who handle the third highest number of projects handled 31 projects . L. handled 12 projects.

88. How many projects did J possible handle?

(a) 28

(b) 10

(c)  36

(d) 9

89. If the number of projects handled by I + M is only three more than number of projects handled by L, how many projects were handled by I?

(a) 22

(b) 14

(c)  19

(d) 9

90. Which of the following is true regarding the number of projects handled by N?

(a) No one handles more projects than N

(b) Only J handled more number of projects than N

(c)  N possible handled 24 projects

(d) N handled more number of projects than only there people

Directions (Q. Nos. 91 and 92) In each question below a statement is given followed by two Assumptions/Inferences numbered I and II.

(a) If only Assumption I is implicit

(b) If only Assumption II is implicit

(c) If neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit

(d) If both Assumptions I and II are implicit

91. Statement Farmers must immediately switch over to organic fertilizers from chemical fertilizers for better yield.

Assumptions

(I) All the farmers use only chemical fertilizers.

(II) Organic fertilizers are readily available to the farmers.

92. Statement For any kind of problems with your mobile phone, contact our help desk immediately.

Assumptions

(I) Help desk has a solution to all kinds of problems related to mobile phones or will guide accordingly.

(II) Unless the problem is reported immediately it cannot be solved.

93. In a certain code, JEALOUS is written as BFKKTVP. How is HEARTEN written in that code?

(a) OFUQBFT

(b) BFIQOFU

(c)  BFIQUFO

(d) UFOQIBF

94. A person walks towards his house at 8 : 00 am and observes his shadow to his right. In which direction he is walking?

(a) North

(b) South

(c)  East

(d) West

Directions (Q. Nos. 95 and 96) What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following series.

95. AZY, EXW, IVU?

(a) MTS

(b) MQR

(c)  NRQ

(d) LST

96. 8, 16, 28, 44,?

(a) 60

(b) 64

(c)  62

(d) 66

Directions (Q. Nos. 97 and 98) In each question below is given a statement followed by two Courses of action numbered I and II.

(a) If only Course of action I follows

(b) If only Course of action II follows

(c) If neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows

(d) If both Courses of action I and II follow.

97. Statement A large part of the locality was flooded as the main pipe supplying drinking water burst while the workers of a utility company were laying cables in the area.

Course of Action

(I) The civic authority should immediately arrange to repair the damage and stop loss of water.

(II) The civic authority should seek an explanation and compensation from the utility company for the damage caused by them.

98. Statement Millions of pilgrims are expected to take a dip in the Ganges at the holy place during the next fortnight.

Course of Action

(I) The Government should restrict the number of pilgrims who can take dip each day during the fortnight.

(II) The Government should deploy and adequate number of security personnel to maintain law and order during the next fortnight at the holy place.

Directions (Q. Nos. 99 and 100) Each question below is followed by two Arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

(a) If only Argument I is strong

(b) If only Argument II is strong

(c) If neither Argument I nor II is strong

(d) If both Arguments I and II are strong

99. Statement Should vacations of court judges be reduced?

Arguments

(I) Yes, it will speed up judicial process and many people are likely to get justice in reasonable time.

(II) Yes, it is a sign of British legacy, why should we carry it further?

100. Statement Should the practice of transfers of clerical cadres employees from one city to another Government offices be stopped?

Arguments

(I) No, transfer of employees is a routine administrative matter and we must continue it.

(II) Yes, it involves lot of Governmental expenditure and inconvenience to many compared to the benefits it yields.

101. Who among the following is not a fashion designer?

(a) Ritu Kumar

(b) Shiv Kumar Sharma

(c)  Tarun Tahiliani

(d) Rahul Khanna

102. National Gallery of Modern Art is located at

(a) Mumbai

(b) Kolkata

(c)  New Delhi

(d) Lucknow

103. Who is the brand Ambassador of Lakme Cosmetics?

(a) Aishwarya Rai Bachhan

(c)  Kareena Kapoor

(d) Aushika Sharma

104. ‘Ekaya’, the traditional handloom Banarasi sarees brand is associated with

(a) Palak Shah

(b) Manish Arora

(c)  Rohit Bal

(d) Sabyasachi Mukherjee

105. Pond’s men face wash is being promoted by popular Indian filmstar?

(a) Varun Dhawan

(b) Shahrukh Khan

(c)  Hrithik Roshan

(d) John Abaraham

106. ‘Cherokee’, the global fashion lifestyle brand belongs to

(a) The USA

(b) The  UK

(c)  Singapore

(d) India

107. ‘Alrosa’, one of the largest rough diamond supplying companies globally belongs to

(a) South Africa

(b) Brazil

(c)  Egypt

(d) Russia

108. Who among the following fashion designers has own the prestigious Padma Shri Award on India’s 65th Republic Day?

(a) Sabyasachi Mukherjee

(b) Wendell Rodrick

(c)  Tarun Tahiliani

(d) None of the above

109. Popular Indian film star Amitabh Bachhan is associated with which one of the following jewellery brands?

(a) Amrapali Jewellers

(b) Kalyan Jewellers

(c)  Tribhovandas Bhimji Zaveri

(d) PC Jewellers

110. ‘AJIO.COM’ the online clothing, accessories and footwear brand belongs to …………

(a) Reliance

(b) Lifestyle

(d) Bharti Retail

111. ‘Inayat’, the designer jewellery collection is from the house of ………. .

(a) Malabar Jewellers

(b) Tanisq

(c)  Nakshatra

(d) PC Jewellers

112. Which one of the following sport lifestyle clothing line is launched by cricketer Yuvraj Singh?

(a) True Blue

(b) SKULT

(c)  YWC Fashion

(d) SEVEN

113. Indian Cricketer Virat Kohli endorses which one of the following Indian clothing brand?

(a) Manyavar

(b) Fashion by Big Bazaar

(c)  Pantaloons

(d) None of the above

114. In which of the following places world’s first Bollywood themed park is opened?

(a) London

(b) Singapore

(c)  Hong Kong

(d) Dubai

115. ……… city in Tamil Nadu is also called the ‘Textile city’.

(a) Thiruppur

(b) Tanjore

(c)  Coimbatore

(d) Nagapattinam

116. Which of the following fibres is the most difficult to dye?

(a) Cotton

(b) Nylon

(c)  Polyester

(d) Viscose nylon

117. Silk is produced from which among the following?

(a) Egg of silkworm

(b) Pupa of silkworm

(c)  Larva of silkworm

(d) Insect itself

118. Who among the following was popularly known as the ‘Frontier Gandhi?

(a) Hasrat Mohani

(c)  Iqbal Khan

(d) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

119. Article 123 of the Indian Constitution provides for which among the following?

(a) Ordinance Making power

(b) Supreme Court

(c)  Special Status of Jammu and Kashmir

(d) An Election Commission

120. Which of the following rivers does not flow into the Arabian Sea?

(b) Sabarmati

(c)  Mandovi

121. Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park is situated in the state of

(a) Kerala

(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(c)  Uttarakhand

(d) Sikkim

122. Who has been designated as a brand ambassador for global sportswear giant PUMA India?

(a) Swapna Barman

(b) Nirmala Sheoran

(c)  Dutee Chand

(d) Mary Kom

123. Which of the following publishes the Red List of Threatened Species?

(a) UNEP

(b) WWF

(c)  IUCN

(d) WNO

124. Which African nation is not a member of the African Union?

(a) Algeria

(b) Morocco

(c)  Lesotho

(d) Comoros

125. Which of the following decorative techniques would most successfully achieve fabric layering on jeans?

(a) Applique

(c)  Gold foiling

(d) Stencilling

Directions (Q. Nos. 126-139) Read each case very carefully and answer the questions that follow.

CASE I

According to the 2019Bloomberg Healthiest Country Index, six of the ten healthiest countries in the world are on the continent of Europe. In first place came Spain, which jumped from sixth in 2017. Spain is also according to the Institute for Health Metrics and Evaluation, set to have the highest global life expectancy in 2040-showing that the Iberian nation is leading the way in both quality of life and longevity. What put Spain on top? Life expectancy, yes, but also environmental factors like access to clean water and sanitation, as well as a lack of tobacco use and obesity. Their focus on a Mediterranean diet, which emphasises local fruits, vegetables, oils, and fish, is also touted as a reason. Following is Spain is Italy-as it turns out, living la dolce vita is good for your mind, body, and soul. The island of Sardinia in Italy, which has almost 10 times more centenarians per capita than the United States, also follows a Mediterranean diet and encourages an active, outdoor lifestyle with its mild climate. In third place is Iceland. yes, you guessed it, they also have a fish-heavy diet( another staple is skyr, a cultured dairy product that resembles yogurt). Despite their cold climate, Iceland residents also live a life full of routine physical activities. Japan came in fourth, the first Asian country to make the list. Rounding out the top ten were: Switzerland, Sweden, Australia, Singapore, Norway, and Israel. The United States ranked 35th.

126. According to the 2019 Bloomberg Healthiest Country Index, most healthiest countries lies in continent of

(a) Europe

(b) America

(c)  Asia

(d) Europe

127. Spain is on the top due to

(a) high life expectancy

(d) All of these

128. The island of Sardinia in Italy encourages

(a) resting

(b) meditation

(c)  active, outdoor lifestyle

(d) drinking

129. Which among the following is true in the context of above case?

(a) Those who live in cold regions have healthy life

(b) Physical activities are nil in cold areas

(c)  People who eat Mediterranean diet have relatively healthy life

(d) People should eat meat to stay healthy

CASE 2

Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientists in history. She discovered radius, with her husband Pierre, an element widely used for treating cancer, and studied uranium and other radioactive substances. Pierre and Marie’s amicable collaboration later helped to unlock the secrets of the atom. At any early age, Marie displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality. Her great exuberance for learning prompted her to continue with her studies after high school. She became disgruntled, however, when she learned that the university in Warsaw was closed to women Marie and Pierre were married in 1895 and spent may productive years working together in the physics laboratory. A short time after they discovered radius, Pierre was killed by a horse-drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish. Curie’s feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to succeed her husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne University. She was the first woman to be given a professorship at the world-famous university. In 1911, she received the Nobel Prize in chemistry for isolating radium. Although Marie Curie eventually suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to radius, she never became disillusioned about her work. Regardless of the consequences, she had dedicated herself to science and to revealing the mysteries of the physical world.

130. Marie discovered radium, with her husband Pierre, which is used widely

(a) in electric appliances

(b) to treat penumonia

(c)  to treat cancer

(d) in tyres

131. Pierre and Marie’s collaborated to unlock the

(a) secrets of the atom

(b) algebraic formulas

(c)  distance between Earth and moon

(d) None of the above

132. Curie’s feeling of desolation finally began to fade when

(a) she became professor at the Sorbonne University

(b) she discovered new element

(c)  her daughter became scientist

(d) she left her home

133. In which field did Marie Curie received Nobel Prize in 1911?

(a) Physics

(b) Biology

(c)  Anthropology

(d) Chemistry

CASE 3

When social media became a key communication platform for people to network, brands immediately began to realise their value to showcase their products and reach out to their audience. Few have done it more effectively than fashion brands, which realize their primary marketing impact is through the visual medium. With the advent of the Internet and social media, the ability to share and convey brand imagery exploded, leading to even niche brands and upcoming designers getting much greater exposure and visibility. This was seen as a boon for the fashion industry. With the increasing use of web and social analytics, designers are also able to predict style trends better, leading to a faster cycle of creation, and giving birth to the concept of fast fashion. Another important aspect of social media was the advent of the fashion bloggers, who express their opinions on fashion bloggers, who express their opinions on fashion and industry trends on the Internet and social media. Brands are unanimous in saying that these bloggers are helping them cover a much wider audience, leading to creation of new sales opportunities. Social media platforms have also provided an opportunity for all to showcase their own sense of style, clothing and a fashion outlook.

However, the flip side of this has been the reduction in the number of times a garment is worn. Once it is clicked and posted on social media, people do not want to the seen in the same outfit, therefore reducing the likelihood that it will be worn again. This is turn has led to the explosive growth of fast fashion as customers scan clothes more frequently. While this may lead people to think the fashion industry is doing well, the picture is not so rosy. People are now opting for cheaper clothes that looks stylish and look well in photographs, but are not necessarily durable and can be discarded after a couple of uses. This in turn creates pressure to manufacture at lower costs, using materials that are cheaper and not necessarily environment-friendly, dramatically increasing the carbon footprint of the industry. The industry is witnessing the impact of this tremendous growth of fast fashion in form of increasing pollution caused by the manufacturers and frequently discarded clothes. While several brands are taking steps to reduce the impact of synthetics on the environment, such as the use of recycled PET fabric in denims and sportswear, this effort is miniscule compared to the size of the problem.

134. How social media has impacted fashion industry?

(a) Greater reach to the masses

(b) Less competition in the market

(c)  More investments in the fashion industry

(d) Less development of trends

135. What is fast fashion?

(a) Fashion that changes quickly

(b) Vintage fashion

(d) None of the above

136. Social media has resulted in the advent of the

(a) models

(b) fashion bloggers

(c)  photographers

(d) designers

137. Fast fashion is resulting in

(a) pollution

(b) wastage of fabric

(c)  animal cruelty

(d) None of these

138. People are now opting for

(a) cheaper clothes

(b) stylish clothes

(c)  not necessarily durable

(d) All of the above

139. What is the purpose behind introducing recycled PET fabric in denims?

(a) to make them environment friendly

(b) to make them cheap

(c)  to make them stylish

(d) to make them durable

Directions (Q. Nos. 140-150) Each of the following questions has a statement based on the preceding caselet. Evaluate each statement and mark answer:

(a) if the statement is major objective in making the decision or one of the goals sought by the decision maker, then mark (a) as answer.

(b) if the statement is major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem specifically mentioned in the caselet, which fundamentally affects or determines the decision.

(c) if the statement is a minor factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a major factor rather than a major objective directly.

(d) if the statement is a major assumption in making the decision, a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factor and alternative.

CASELET 1

“A clean India would be the best tribute India could pay to Mahatma Gandhi on his 150 birth anniversary in 2019,” said Shri Narendra Mod as he launched the Swachh Bharat Mission at Rajpath in New Delhi. On 2nd October 2014, Swachh Bharat Mission was launched throughout length and breadth of the country as a national movement. The campaign aims to achieve the vision of a ‘Clean India’ (100%) by 2nd October 2019. The Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is the most significant cleanliness campaign by the Government of India. Prime Minister was helped spread the message of Swach Bharat by urging people through his words & action. he carried out a cleanliness drive in Varanasi as well. He wielded a spade near River Ganga at Assi Ghat in Varanasi under the Clean India Mission. He was joined by a large group of local people who cooperated in the Swachhta Abhiyan.

The Prime Minister, since the launch of this movement, said that the scope of hygiene was increased from 40 per cent to 98 per cent after the launch of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan. “Women safety and dignity was my prime motive behind announcing the Swachh Bharat Mission on 15th August 2014. It was because of the efforts made by the people of India, especially women, that the sanitation coverage in rural India, which stood at merely 39 per cent as of October 2014 even after 67 years of India’s Independence, has today crossed the 98 per cent mark in just over four years of the Swachh Bharat Mission,” PM Modi said.

140. The Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan has a target of achieving 100% cleanliness in India.

141. This programme considers cleanliness as one of the responsibility of government.

142. Women is one of the major section of Indian society who have contributed towards the aim of achieving cleanliness.

143. The programme has been launched in all states of India.

CASELET 2

The goal of Universal Health Coverage is to ensure that all people obtain the health services they need without suffering financial hardship when paying for them. This requires a strong, efficient, well-run health system; a system for financing health services; access to essential medicines and technologies; and a sufficient capacity of well-trained, motivated health workers. The National Health Protection Mission, dubbed “Modicare” after the country’s Prime Minister Narendra Modi, would offer 100 million families, or about 500 million people living in poverty, up to 500,000 rupees ( \$ 7,011) of coverage each year. If rolled out effectively, the NHPM would be a significant step toward achieving universal health coverage a key Sustainable Development Goal for 2030. While Modi has announced the program will be launched later in the month, experts wonder whether the program can truly the off the ground. Every year, 55 million Indians are propelled into poverty because of out-of pocket expenditure on health care, primarily medicine costs. The country currently spend just 1.4 per cent of its gross domestic product on health care – one of the lowest expenditures in the word. Last year, however, the country released it new National Health Policy, the first in 14 years, and pledged to boost health care spending up to 2.5 per cent by 2025. While care in government-run hospitals is technically free for everyone, the system is marred by long queues, poor quality of care, and a lack of human resources.

144. To ensure that all people obtain the health services they need without suffering financial hardship when paying for them.

145. Every year, 55 million Indians are propelled into poverty because of out-of-pocket expenditure on health care, primarily medicine costs.

146. New National Health Policy pledged to boost health care spending up to 2.5 percent by 2025.

147. The system in government run hospitals is marred by long queues, poor quality of care, and a lack human resources.

148. The country currently spend just 1.4 percent of its GDP on health care which is one of the lowest expenditure in the world, so by increasing the expenditure on health sector, health services can be improved.

149. The goal of Universal Health Coverage is to provide health services to only weaker section of society because they face economic hardships.

150. There is a need of a strong, efficient, well-run health system: a system for financing health services; access to essential medicines and technologies; and a sufficient capacity of well-trained, motivated health workers.

## National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) UNDER GRADUATE 2019 Question Paper With Answer Key

1. A sum of Rs 16800 is divided into two parts One part is lend at the simple interest of 6% per annum and the other at 8% per annum. After 2 yr total sum received is Rs 19000. The sum lend at 6% of simple interest is

(a)  Rs 12200

(b)  Rs 12000

(c)  Rs 11000

(d) Rs 10000

2. 2 men and 3 women together or 4 men together can complete a piece of work in 20 days. 3 men and 3 women will complete the same work in

(a)  12 days

(b)  16 days

(c)  18 days

(d) 19 days

3. A vessel has 30 L of wine and 10 L of water. 4L of mixture is taken out from vessel and 4 L of water is added. This process is repeated one more time. The ratio of quantity of wine is left and initial quantity of wine is

(a)  80 : 92

(b)  81 : 100

(c)  45 : 47

(d) 89 : 91

4. A man bought toffees at 6 for Rs. 1. How many toffees for Rs 1 must he sell to gain 50%?

(a)  5

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d) 6

5. A sum of Rs 221 is dived among X, Y and Z such that X gets Rs 52 more than Y. Y gets Rs 26 more than Z. The ratio of the shares of X, Y and Z respectively is

(a)  9 : 5: 3

(b)  9 : 3 : 5

(c)  5 : 9 : 3

(d) 10 : 6 : 5

6. 11 friends went to a hotel and decided to pay the bill amount equally. But 10 of them could pay Rs 60 each, as a result 11th has to pay Rs 50 extra than his share. Find the amount paid him.

(a)  Rs 105

(b)  Rs 110

(c)  Rs 115

(d) Rs 120

7. If on selling 12 notebooks any seller makes a profit equal to the selling price of 4 notebooks, what is his per cent profit?

(a)  50%

(b)  25%

(c)

8. The respective ratio between the present ages of Parag and Sapna is 21 : 19. Six years ago, the respective ratio between their ages was 9 : 8. How old is Lina, if her present age is 12 yr less than Sapna’s present age?

(a)  38 yr

(b)  28 yr

(c)  26 yr

(d) 30 yr

9. Samir drove at the speed of 45 km/h from home to a resort. Returning over the same route, he got stuck in traffic and took on hour longer, also her could drive only at the speed of 40 km/h. How many kilometers did he drive each way?

(a)  250 km

(b)  360 km

(c)  310 km

(d) 275 km

10. X is 3 times as fast as Y and is able to complete the work in 40 days less than Y. Then, the time in which they can complete the work together, is

(a)  15 days

(b)  10 days

(c)

(d) 5 days

11. Samira, Malura and Kaira rented a set of DVDs at a rent of Rs 578. If they used it for 8h. 12 h and 14 h. respectively. What is Kiara’s share of rent to be paid?

(a)  Rs 238

(b)  Rs 204

(c)  Rs 192

(d) Rs 215

12. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, then the dividend is

(a)  4236

(b)  4306

(c)  4336

(d) 5336

13. Rs 730 were divided among A, B, C in such a way that if A gets Rs 3, then B gets Rs 4 and if B gets Rs 3.50 then C gets Rs 3. The share of B exceeds that of C by

(a)  Rs 30

(b)  Rs 40

(c)  Rs 70

(d) Rs 210

14. The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 37°C and of Tuesday to Thursday was 34° If the temperature on Thursday was 4/5th that of Monday, then what was the temperature of Thursday?

(a)  36.5°C

(b)  36°C

(c)  35.5°C

(d) 34°C

15. If x : y :: 2 : 3 and 2 : x :: 4 : 8 the value of y is

(a)  6

(b)  8

(c)  4

(d) 12

16. A copper rod of 1 cm diameter and 8 cm length is drawn into a wire of uniform diameter and 128 m length. The radius (in cm) of wire is

(a)  1/15

(b)  1/30

(c)  2/15

(d) 15

17. A box filled with paper bundles weight 36 kg. If the weight of the box and paper bundles respectively are in the ratio of 3 : 22, then the weight of papers (in g) is

(a)  30680

(b)  30710

(c)  31500

(d) 31680

18. A solid sphere of 6 cm diameter is melted and recast into 8 solid spheres of equal volume. The radius (in cm) of each small sphere is

(a)  1.5

(b)  3

(c)  2

(d) 2.5

19. Three taps A, B and C together can fill an empty cistern in 10 min. The tap A alone can fill it in 30 min and the tap B alone in 40 min. How long will the tap C alone take to fill it?

(a)  16 min

(b)  24 min

(c)  32 min

(d) 40 min

20. A man travelled a distance of 80 m in 7 h partly on foot at the rate of 8 km/h and partly on bicycle at 16 km/h. The distance travelled on the foot is

(a)  32 km

(b)  48 km

(c)  36 km

(d) 44 km

21. The average of six number is 32. If each of the first three numbers is increased by 2 and each of the remaining three numbers is decreased by 4, then the new average is

(a)  35

(b)  34

(c)  31

(d) 30

22. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 14 days. The number of days taken by A alone to finish the work is

(a)  11 days

(b)  21 days

(c)  28 days

(d) 42 days

23. A shopkeeper sells an article at a loss of  . Had he sold an article for Rs 51.80 more, he would have earned a profit of 6%. The cost profit of an article is

(a)  280

(b)  580

(c)  370

(d) 450

24. A moving train passes a platform 50 m long in 14 s and a lamp-post in 10 s. The speed of the train is

(a)  24 km/h

(b)  36 km/h

(c)  40 km/h

(d) 45 km/h

25. Ramesh bought 10 cycles for Rs 500 each. He spent Rs 2000 on the repair of all cycles. He sold five of them for Rs 750 each and the remaining for Rs 550 each. Then, the total gain or loss % is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

26. Ratio between the monthly incomes of A and B is 9 : 8 and the ratio between their expenditures is 8 : 7. If they save Rs 500 each. Find A’s monthly income.

(a)  Rs 3500

(b)  Rs 4000

(c)  Rs 4500

(d) Rs 5000

27. When n is divided by 5 then remainder is 2. What is the remainder when n2 is dived by 5?

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  1

(d) 4

28. In an election there were only two candidates. One of the candidates secured 40% of votes and is defeated by the other candidate by 298 votes. Then the total number of votes polled is

(a)  745

(b)  1460

(c)  1490

(d) 1500

29. At some rate of simple interest. A lent Rs 6000 to B for 2 yr and Rs 1500 to C for 4 yr and received Rs 900 as interest from both of them together. The rate of interest per annum was

(a)  5%

(b)  6%

(c)  8%

(d) 10%

30. If the annual income of A, B and C is in the ratio 1 : 3 : 7 and the total annual income of A and C is Rs 80000, then the monthly salary of B (In Rs) is

(a)  20000

(b)  25000

(c)  30000

(d) 15000

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-33) In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/proverb has been given followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.

31. The boy turned a deaf ear to the pleading of all his well-wishers.

(a)  listened carefully

(c)  posed indifference

(d) did not pay any attention

32. Jones is in the habit of fishing in troubled waters.

(a)  taking advantage of troubled conditions for personal profits.

(b)  putting others in trouble

(c)  indulging in evil conspiracies

(d) aggravating the situation

33. He rides the high horse because of his high connection.

(a)  is famous

(b)  talks in a flattering way

(c)  puts on airs

(d) is prosperous

Directions (Q. Nos. 34 and 35) In each of the questions below, only one among the given alternatives is correctly spelt. Find out the word with correct spelling.

34.

(a)  Insolance

(b)  Insolence

(c)  Insoolence

(d) Insolense

35.

(a)  Parlamentary

(b)  Parliamentary

(c)  Parliamantry

(d) Parliamentery

Directions (Q. Nos. 36 and 37) In each of the following questions, choose the wrongly spelt words.

36.

(a)  Acknowledgment

(b)  Acrostic

(c)  Audible

(d) Accommodate

37.

(a)  Occasion

(b)  Commitment

(c)  Brevity

(d) Commitee

Directions (Q. Nos. 38 and 39) From among the options given below each word, choose the appropriate singular form.

38. Knives

(a)  Knive

(b)  Kniveses

(c)  Knife

(d) None of these

39. Teeth

(a)  Tooths

(b)  Teeths

(c)  Tooth

(d) Toth

40. Baby

(a)  Babys

(b)  Babies

(c)  Babes

(d) None of these

41. Sheep

(a)  Sheeps

(b)  Sheepes

(c)  Sheep

(d) Sheepesis

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-45) In each of these questions, choose the alternative which can replace the underlined word without changing the meaning of the sentence.

42. The bullet would proved to be fatal and the soldier died immediately.

(a)  serious

(b)  dangerous

(d) grievous

43. It is very difficult to retain all that you hear in the class.

(a)  ignore

(b)  recall

(c)  preserve

(d) conserve

44. In spite of their efforts, the team of scientists could not make much headway to solve the problem.

(a)  progress

(b)  thinking

(c)  efforts

(d) start

45. We didn’t believe in his statements but subsequent events proved that he was right.

(a)  later

(b)  many

(c)  few

(d) earlier

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-49) Fill in the blanks.

46. I commenced work ……. the 1st of January.

(a)  to

(b)  of

(c)  from

(d) on

47. An old feud existed ………… the two families.

(a)  among

(b)  within

(c)  in

(d) between

48. She ………. being questioned unnecessarily.

(a)  is disliking

(b)  has disliked

(c)  dislikes

(d) disliked

49. It was cloudy in the morning but the sun ….. now.

(a)  shines

(b)  is shining

(c)  has been shining

(d) shine

Directions (Q. Nos. 50-53) In each of the questions, choose the alternative which is closest to the opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

50. The king consolidated the empire into a powerful nation.

(a)  divided

(b)  isolated

(c)  fragmented

(d) weakened

51. Unsettled conditions in the land led to the exodus of hundreds of its citizens.

(a)  departure

(b)  evacuation

(c)  entrance

(d) retreat

52. It is obligatory for a common citizen to follow the rules.

(a)  optional

(b)  superfluous

(c)  necessary

53. The actor is well-known both for his humility and courage.

(a)  gentleness

(b)  courage

(c)  honesty

(d) pride

Directions (Q. Nos. 54 ad 55) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative that can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

54. A child who stays away from school without any good reason.

(a)  vagabond

(b)  delinquent

(c)  truant

(d) schizophrenia

55. An office or post with no work but high pay.

(a)  Honorary

(b)  Sinecure

(c)  Gratis

(d) Ex-officio

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-75) Read the following passages given below and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE I

Both plants and animals of many sorts show remarkable changes in form, structure, growth habits and even mode of reproduction, in becoming adapted to different climate environment, types of food supply or mode of living. This divergence in response to evolution is commonly expressed by altering form and function of some parts of the organism, the original identification of which is clearly discernible e.g., The creeping foot of the snail is seen in related marine pteropods to be modified into flapping organ useful for swimming and is changed into prehensile arms that bear suctorial disks in the squids and other cephalopods.

The limbs of modes of life for swift running (cursorial) as in the horse and antelope for swinging in trees (arboreal) as in the monkeys, for digging (fossorial) as in the moles and gophers, for flying (Volant) as in the bats, for swimming (aquatic) as in the seals, whales and dolphins and for other adaptations. The structure or organs that show man change in connection with this adaptive divergence are commonly identified readily as homologous, in spite of great alternations. Thus the finger and wrist bones of a bat and whale, for instance, have virtually nothing in common except that they are definitely equivalent element of the mammalian limb.

56. Which is the most appropriate title for the passage, based on its content?

(a)  Evolution

(b)  Our Changing Bodies

(d) Changes in Organs

57. The author provides information that would answer which of the following questions?

(i) What factors cause change in organism?

(ii) What is the theory of evolution?

(iii) Could structurally different organs be similar in evolution?

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a)  Only (i)

(b)  Only (ii)

(c)  (i) and (iii)

(d) All of these

58. The author organises the passage by

(a)  comparison and contrast

(b)  general statements followed by examples

(c)  hypotheses and proof

(d) definition of key terms

59. Which of the following words could best be substituted to ‘homologous’ without substantially changing the author’s meaning?

(a)  divergent

(b)  corresponding

(c)  altered

(d) tactile

60. The author’s style can best be described as

(a)  objective

(b)  humorous

(c)  esoteric

(d) patronising

PASSAGE 2

A great deal of discussion continues as to the real extent of global environmental degradation and its implications. What few people challenge however, is that the renewable natural resources of developing countries are today subject to stresses of unprecedented magnitude. These pressures are brought about, in part, by increased population and the quest for an ever expanding food supply. Because the health, nutrition and general well-being of the poor majority are directly dependent on the integrity and productivity of their natural resources, the capability of governments to manage them effectively over the long term becomes of paramount importance.

Developing countries are becoming more aware of the ways in which present and future economic development must build upon a sound and sustainable natural resource base. Some are looking at our long tradition in environmental protection and are receptive to US assistance which recognizes the uniqueness of the social and ecological systems in these tropical countries. Developing countries recognize the need to improve their capability to analyse issues and their own natural resource management. In February 1981, for example AID funded a National Academy of Sciences panel to advise Nepal on their severe natural resources degradation problems. Some countries such as Senegal. India. Indonesia and Thailand, are now including conservation concerns in their economic development planning process. Because so many governments of developing nations have recognize the importance of these issues, the need today is not merely one of raising additional consciousness, but for carefully designed and sharply focused activities aimed at the establishment of effective resource management regimes that are essential to the achievement of sustained development.

61. Some of the developing countries of Asia and Africa have

(a)  formulated very ambitious plans of protecting habitat in the region

(b)  laid a great stress on the conservation of natural resources in their educational endeavour

(c)  carefully dovetailed environmental conservation with the overall strategy of planned economic development.

(d) sought the help of US experts in solving the problem of environmental degradation.

62. Technical know-how developed in the USA

(a)  cannot be easily assimilated by the technocrats of the developing countries

(b)  can be properly utilized on the basis of developing countries being able to launch an in-depth study of their specific problems

(c)  can be easily borrowed by the developing countries to solve the problem of environmental degradation

(d) can be very effective in solving the problem of resource management in tropical countries.

63. There has been a pronounced deterioirationof habitat all over the globe because of

(a)  rigorous operation of the Malthusian principle

(b)  unprecedented urbanization and dislocation of self contained rural communities

(c)  optimum degree of industrialization in the developing countries

(d) large scale deforestation and desertification

64. The poor people of the developing world can lead a happy and contented life if

(a)  there is a North-South dialogue and aid flows freely to the developing world.

(b)  industries based on agriculture are widely developed.

(c)  economic development takes place within the ambit of conservation of natural resources.

(d) there is an assured supply of food and medical care.

65. How much environmental pollution has taken place in the developing and the developed world?

(a)  There has been a marginal pollution of environment in the developed world and extensive damage in the developing world.

(b)  There has been a considerable pollution of environment all over the globe.

(c)  There has been an extensive environmental degradation both in the developed and the developing world.

(d) The environmental pollution that has taken place all over the globe continues to be a matter of speculation and enquiry.

PASSAGE III

It is strange that, according to his position in life, an extravagant man is admired or despised. A successful business man does nothing to increase his popularity by being careful with his money. He is expected to display his success, to have a smart car, an expensive life, and to be lavish with his hospitality. If he is not so, he is considered mean, and his reputation in business may even suffer in consequence. The paradox remains that if he had not been careful with his money in the first place, he would never have achieved his present wealth.

Among the low income group, a different set of values exists. The young clerk, who makes his wife a present of a new dress when he hasn’t paid his house rent, is condemned as extravagant. Carefulness with money to the point of meanness is applauded as a virtue. Nothing in his life is considered more worthy than paying his bills. The ideal wife for such a man separates her housekeeping money into joyless little piles so much for rent, for food, for the children’s shoes; she is able to face the milkman with equanimity every month, satisfied with her economizing ways, and never knows the guilt of buying something she can’t really afford.

As for myself, I fall into neither of these categories. If I have money to spare, I can be extravagant, but when as is usually the case, I am hard up, then I am the meanest man imaginable.

66. We understand from the passage that

(a)  thrifty may lead to success.

(b)  wealthy people are invariably successful.

(c)  all mean people are wealthy.

(d) carefulness generally leads to failure.

67. As far as money is concerned, we get the impression that the writer

(a)  doesn’t often have any money to save

(b)  would like to be considered extravagant

(c)  is never inclined to be extravagant

(d) is incapable of saving anything

68. It seems that low paid people should

(a)  feel guilty if they overspend

(b)  borrow money to meet their essential needs

(c)  not keep their creditors waiting

(d) not pay their bills promptly

69. How does the housewife, described by the writer, feel when she saves money? She…..

(a)  wishes she could sometimes be extravagant

(b)  is still troubled by  a sense of guilt

(c)  wishes life were less burdensome

(d) is content to be so thrifty

70. The statement “she is able to face the milkman with equanimity” implies that

(a)  she is not upset as she has been paying the milkman his dues regularly.

(b)  she loses here nerve at the sight of the milkman who always demands his dues.

(c)  she manages to keep cool as she has to pay the milkman only a month’s dues.

(d) she remains composed and confidant as she knows that she can handle the milkman tactfully.

PASSAGE IV

The sole aim of journalism should be service. The newspaper press is a great power, but jus as an unchained torrent of water submerges whole countryside and devastates crops, even so an uncontrolled press serves but to destroy.

If the control is from without, it proves more poisonous than want of control. It can be profitable only when exercised from within. If this line of reasoning is correct, how many of the journals in the world would stand the test? But who would stop those that are useless? And who should be the judge? The useful and the useless must, like good and evil, go on together, and man must make his choice. The superficiality, the one-sidedness, the inaccuracy and often even dishonesty that have crept into modern journalism, continuously mislead honest men who want to see nothing but justice done.

I have before me extracts from journals containing some gruesome things. There is communal incitement, gross misrepresentation and incitement to political violence bordering on murder. It is of course easy enough for the government to launch out prosecutions or to pass repressive ordinances. These ‘fail’ to serve the purpose intended except very temporarily, and in no case do they convert the writers, who often take to secret propaganda, when the open forum of the press is denied to them.

The real remedy is healthy public opinion that will refuse to patronize poisonous Journals. We have our journalists associations. Why should it not create a department whose business would be to study the various journals and find objectionable articles and bring them to the notice of the respective editors?

The function of the department will be confided to the establishment of contact with the offending journals and public criticism of offending articles where the contact fails to bring about the desired reform. Freedom of the press is a precious privilege that no country can forego. But if there is, as there should be, no legislative check say that of the mildest character, an internal check, say as I have suggested should not be impossible and ought not to be resented?

I hold that it is wrong to conduct newspapers by the aid of immoral advertisements. I do believe that if advertisements should be taken at all there should be a rigid censorship instituted by newspaper proprietors and editors themselves and that only healthy advertisement should be taken.

The evil of immoral advertisements is overtaking even what are known as the most respectable newspapers and magazines.

The evil has to be combated by refining the conscience of the newspapers proprietors and editors. That refinement can come not through the influence of an amateur editor like myself but it will come when their own conscience is roused to recognition of the growing evil or when it is superimposed upon them by a government representing the people and caring for the people’s morals.

71. Which of the following is correct in terms of what is stated in the passage?

(i) External control of press is more dangerous than a press without any checks and control

(ii) Legislative checks are an important means for governing the conduct of press

(a)  Only (i)

(b)  Only (ii)

(c)  Both (i) and (ii)

(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)

72. What measure is suggested by the author for regularizing the standard of advertisement in newspapers?

(a)  Development of a healthy public opinion against them

(b)  Regulation by journalist association

(c)  Censorhip instituted from within by the newspapers proprietors and editors

(d) All of the above

73. According to the author the real remedy to improve quality of newspapers and journals lies in………

(a)  to put a total ban

(b)  to initiate a healthy public opinion

(c)  bring the objectionable matter to the notice of its proprietors and editors.

(d) Both (b) and (c)

74. The author laments that most of the journals and newspapers would fail the ‘test’. Which test is being referred to here?

(i) The test of accurate reporting

(ii) The test of control from within

(iii) The test meeting the standards laid by legislative provisions

(a)  (i), (ii) and (iii)

(b)  (i) and (ii)

(c)  Only (i)

(d) Only (ii)