Month: December 2020
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 06-03-2020 Time 1.00-2.00 PM Question Paper With Answer Key
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 06-03-2020 Time 1.00-2.00 AM
General Intelligence and Reasoning
1. Which of the following sets is the best represented by the given Venn diagram.
(a) Weeks, Years, Months
(b) Truck, Ships, Transport
(c) Paragraph, Sentence, Pen
(d) House, Window, Tenant
2. Which of the option figures is the exact mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held at the right side?
3. Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
11, 12, 36, 41, ?, 296
(a) 287
(b) 123
(c) 48
(d) 205
4. In a certain code language ‘VERBAL’ is written as ‘QNMYXK’ and ‘REACH’ is written as ‘MNXZF’. How will ‘BRAVE’ be written as in that language?
(a) KQNMX
(b) YNZQM
(c) KMQXN
(d) YMXQN
5. Read the given statements and conclusion carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statements.
Statements:
(1) All books are magazines.
(2) Some books are novels.
Conclusions:
(I) Some magazines are books.
(II) No magazine is a book.
(III) No novel is a magazine.
(IV) Some novels are books.
(a) Only conclusion II and III follow
(b) Only conclusion I and II follow
(c) Only conclusion I and IV follow
(d) Only conclusion I, II and IV follow
6. Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers in the given set.
(343, 98, 21)
(a) (1728, 288, 24)
(b) (512, 126, 27)
(c) (1331, 242, 33)
(d) (217, 72, 18)
7. Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
8. In a certain code language, BREATHER is coded as 29512859. How will AVIATION be coded as in that language?
(a) 12912954
(b) 14912956
(c) 12910965
(d) 14912965
9. Select the cube that can be formed by folding the given sheet (unfolded box) along the lines.
10. Select the set of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given letter series will complete the series.
_m_ln_mlmnk_k_nl
(a) l, n, k, l, n
(b) k, l, k, l, m
(c) m, n, k, l, m
(d) k, n, k, l, m
11. Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different.
(a) 28, 5
(b) 14, 8
(c) 56, 2
(d) 16, 7
12. Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
(a) VINE
(b) LAIM
(c) SWJK
(d) NOHA
13. Select the letter-cluster that can replace the questions mark (?) in the following series.
qDx, nHs, kLn, hPi, ?
(a) eSd
(b) eTd
(c) fTe
(d) EtD
14. A group of three friends, K, L and M, are sitting in a café. Their average age is 24 years, Another friend ‘N’ joins the group and the new average age of the group becomes 23 years. If another friend ‘R’, whose age is 2 years more than that of ‘N’, replaces ‘K’, then the average age of L, M, N and R becomes 22.5 years. What is the age of K?
(a) 22 years
(b) 24 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 25 years
15. How many triangles are present in the given figure?
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 18
16. If the following words are arranged as per their order in the English dictionary, which word will come fifth in the sequence?
(1) Weekly (2) Weather (3) Weird
(4) Weaver (5) Weight (6) Wielded
(a) Weight
(b) Wielded
(c) Weird
(d) Weekly
17. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
Crop : Farmer :: Food : ?
(a) Utensil
(b) Vegetables
(c) Chef
(d) Kitchen
18. A + B means ‘A is the father of B’;
A – B means ‘A is the sister of B’;
A × B means ‘A is the brother of B’;
A ÷ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’;
If R + S × T – V ÷ U then how is S related to U?
(a) Son
(b) Daughter
(c) Husband
(d) Brother
19. Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Select the odd word.
(a) Iron
(b) Silver
(c) Brass
(d) Copper
20. The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?
21. The two given expressions on both the side of the ‘=’ sign will have the same value if two numbers from either side or both side are interchanged. Select the correct numbers to be interchanged from the given option:
4 + 6 × 7 – 27 ÷ 3 = 7 × 8 – 4 + 39 ÷ 3
(a) 8, 7
(b) 3, 4
(c) 6, 4
(d) 6, 8
22. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 10
(d) 14
23. Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the sixth number is related to the fifth number.
78 : 117 : : 90 : ? : : 108 : 162
(a) 117
(b) 126
(c) 135
(d) 144
24. Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).
25. Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
_uvwuv_wvtuw_uvwuv_wv_uw
(a) t t u t v
(b) t v w t t
(c) t u t u t
(d) t t t t t
General Awareness
26. Which of the following monuments is NOT a part of the Qutub Complex?
(a) Buland Darwaza
(b) Qutub Minar
(c) Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque
(d) Alai Darwaza
27. Which ISO certification pertains to Environmental Management Systems?
(a) 9001
(b) 27001
(c) 14001
(d) 22000
28. In July 2019, which among the following operations was launched by the BSF to fortify the Pakistan border in Punjab and Jammu?
(a) Chakravyuth
(b) Vayuputra
(c) Garuda
(d) Sudarshan
29. In January 2020, with which country did India sign a MoU for content exchange programme between All India Radio and Betar?
(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh
30. In which year NABARD established?
(a) 1978
(b) 1979
(c) 1981
(d) 1982
31. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the Karachi Session of the Congress (1931)?
(a) The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was ratified
(b) Mahatma Gandhi presided over the session
(c) The Quit-India Resolution was passed
(d) The Khilafat movement was launched at this event
32. Under which Article can the Parliament amend the Constitution?
(a) Article 269
(b) Article 74
(c) Article 368
(d) Article 374
33. Which among the following is the food tube?
(a) Thymus
(b) Larynx
(c) Aorta
(d) Oesophagus
34. Which of the following is an east flowing river ?
(a) Brahmani
(b) Sabarmati
(c) Sharavati
(d) Mahi
35. Which of the following pairs is associated with the taxation system of the Marathas?
(a) Chauth and Sardeshmukhi
(b) Zat and Sawar
(c) Polaj and Parauti
(d) Iqta and Jagir
36. The Act that transferred the power from the British East India Company to the British Crown in India was:
(a) Government of India Act, 1833
(b) Government of India Act, 1835
(c) Government of India Act, 1947
(d) Government of India Act, 1858
37. The SASTRA-Ramanujan Prize is awarded in the field of:
(a) Mathematics
(b) Literature
(c) Chemistry
(d) Dance
38. The Arid Forest Research Institute is located in ______.
(a) Dehradun
(b) Jaipur
(c) Ahemdabad
(d) Jodhpur
39. Which country hosted the 13th South Asian Games?
(a) Maldives
(b) India
(c) Bhutan
(d) Nepal
40. Which of the following states does NOT share its boundary with Bhutan?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Meghalaya
(c) West Bengal
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
41. Who is the author of the book ‘Hazaar Chaurasi Ki Maa’?
(a) Rita Kothari
(b) Sugathakumari
(c) Krishna Sobti
(d) Mahasweta Devi
42. Which of the following is a heritage site of Madhya Pradesh?
(a) Hampi
(b) Lepakshi
(c) Bhimbetka
(d) Sasaram
43. Ozone at the higher level of the atmosphere is a product of ______ acting on oxygen molecules.
(a) x-rays
(b) UV radiation
(c) IR radiation
(d) gamma rays
44. The Battle of Chausa was fought between Humayun and ______.
(a) Sher Shah Suri
(b) Nadir Shah
(c) Hemu
(d) Krishnadeva Raya
45. Which female Indian cricketer won the BCCI C.K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award for 2019?
(a) Shantha Rangaswamy
(b) Diana Edulji
(c) Anjum Chopra
(d) Jhulan Goswami
46. In the context of rivers and their tributaries, which of the following pairs is correct?
(a) Indus-Subansiri
(b) Alaknanda-Pindar
(c) Krishna-Manjra
(d) Godavari-Kabini
47. How many degrees does the Earth rotate about its own axis in one hour?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 10
48. Under which of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India is defection to another party after election made illegal?
(a) 86th
(b) 61st
(c) 52nd
(d) 92nd
49. The first electron shell which is the nearest to the nucleus never holds more than ‘n’ electrons, where ‘n’ is equal to:
(a) 6
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8
50. With which sport is Archana Kamath associated?
(a) Squash
(b) Table Tennis
(c) Lawn Tennis
(d) Badminton
Quantitative Aptitude
51. Solve the following 113 × 87 = ?
(a) 10000
(b) 9831
(c) 10169
(d) 10026
52. In a wallet, there are notes of the denomination Rs 10 and Rs 50. The total number of notes is 12. The number of Rs 10 and Rs 50 notes are in the ratio of 1 : 2. Total money in the wallet is:
(a) Rs 280
(b) Rs 110
(c) Rs 360
(d) Rs 440
53. The coefficient of x in (x – 3y)3 is:
(a) 3y2
(b) −3y2
(c) −27y2
(d) 27y2
54. A manufacture sells cooking gas stoves to shopkeepers at 10% profit, and in turn they sell the cooking gas stoves to customer to earn 15% profit. If a customer gets a cooking gas stove for Rs 7,590, then what is its manufacturing cost?
(a) Rs 5,000
(b) Rs 5,090
(c) Rs 6,500
(d) Rs 6,000
55. During a medical check-up, the heights of 40 students in a class were recorded as shown in the following table
How many students have a height of 165 cm or more?.
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 16
(d) 10
56. In a rectangle, if the measures of two sides are 5 cm and 8 cm, then the third side can be:
(a) 3 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 14 cm
(d) 2 cm
57. Solve the following:
(a) 15
(b) −2
(c) 8
(d) 3
58. If 
then the value of 
(a) 10
(b) 140
(c) 110
(d) 80
59. If (cos2θ – 1) (1+ tan2θ) + 2tan2θ = 1, 0° ≤ θ ≤ 90° then θ is:
(a) 90°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°
60. In a school, 4% of the students did not appear for the annual exams. 10% of the students who appeared for the exams could not pass the exam. Out of the remaining students, 50% got distinction marks and 432 students passed the exam but could not get distinction marks. The total number of students in the school is:
(a) 960
(b) 878
(c) 1000
(d) 12000
61. Amit and Sunil together can complete a work in 9 days, Sunil and Dinesh together can complete the same work in 12 days, and Amit and Dinesh together can complete the same work in 18 days. In how many days will they complete the work if Amit, Sunil and Dinesh work together?
(a) 14 days
(b) 16 days
(c) 8 days
(d) 12 days
62. In the given figure, If AB = 10 cm, CD = 7 cm, SD = 4 cm and AS = 5 cm then BC = ?
(a) 8 cm
(b) 7.5 cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) 6 cm
63. The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 16 cm and 12 cm. Its area is:
(a) 96 cm2
(b) 48 cm2
(c) 69 cm2
(d) 28 cm2
64. The largest number which should replace * in the number 2365*4 to make the number divisible by 4 is:
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 2
(d) 0
65. In the given figure, if AB = 8 cm, AC = 10 cm, ∠ABD = 90° and AD = 17 cm, then the measure of CD is:
(a) 10 cm
(b) 8 cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) 11 cm
66. Two cyclists X and Y start at the same time from place A and go towards place B at a speed of 6 km/h and 8 km/h, respectively. Despite stopping for 15 minutes during the journey, Y reaches 10 minutes earlier than X. The distance between the places A and B is:
(a) 16.5 km
(b) 8 km
(c) 6 km
(d) 10 km
67. The following table shows the income (in Rs) for a particular month, together with their source, in respect of 5 employees (A, B, C, D and E).
How many employees got more than a total of Rs 10,000 as income other than salary?
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
68. The value of 
is:
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 
69. Solve the following:
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 0
(d) √6/8
70. A shopkeeper marked a computer table for Rs 7,200. He allows a discount of 10% on it and yet makes profit of 8%. What will be his gain percentage if he does NOT allow any discount?
(a) 18%
(b) 20%
(c) 9%
(d) 2%
71. The number of students enrolled in different streams in a college is shown in the following table.
The ratio of the total number of boys to that of girls in the college is:
(a) 27 : 23
(b) 23 : 27
(c) 13 : 12
(d) 1 : 1
72. The following table shows the daily earnings of 45 skilled workers.
How many workers earn less than Rs 1,100 in a day?
(a) 43
(b) 29
(c) 39
(d) 10
73. In the given figure, if ∠APO = 35°, then which of the following options is correct?
(a) ∠BPO = 35°
(b) ∠APB = 80°
(c) ∠APB = 60°
(d) ∠BPO = 55°
74. 24 students collected money for donation. The average contribution was Rs 50. Later on, their teacher also contributed some money. Now the average contribution is Rs 56. The teacher’s contribution is:
(a) Rs 56
(b) Rs 200
(c) Rs 104
(d) Rs 106
75. Amit borrowed a sum of Rs 25,000 on simple interest. Bhola borrowed the same amount on compound interest (interest compounded yearly). At the end of 2 years, Bhola had to pay Rs 160 more interest than Amit. The rate of interest charged per annum is:
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 8%
(d) 
English Comprehension
76. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
A child could understand his theory.
(a) His theory could be understood by a child.
(b) His theory is being understood by a child.
(c) His theory was understood by a child.
(d) His theory can be understood by a child.
77. Given below are four jumbled sentence. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
(A) These lotteries organized by State Governments sell dreams.
(B) Lured by this, millions of poor people waste their hard-earned money.
(C) Crores of rupees and gold are offered as prizes.
(D) People buy lotteries hoping to become rich overnight.
(a) DBCA
(b) CABD
(c) CBAD
(d) DACB
78. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Pull a fast one
(a) Believe someone easily
(b) Progress fast
(c) Trick someone
(d) Take quick action
79. In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
We had a long discussion at a cp of coffee.
(a) We had
(b) of coffee
(c) at a cup
(d) a long discussion
80. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The poor man was ______ entry to the restaurant.
(a) deluded
(b) denied
(c) derived
(d) devoid
81. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
FICKLE
(a) Stable
(b) Flighty
(c) Crafty
(d) Subtle
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Agra’s marble-marvel has such an overwhelming presence (1) _____ other monuments in the town have been relegated (2) ______ oblivion. Amongst such 60 odd monuments in (3) ______ town, the Red Taj is the most (4) ______ and relatively well-preserved. The tomb in red sandstone was (5) ______ by Ann Hissing, widow of Dutch officer, after his death in 1803.
82. Select the correct option to fill in the blank 1.
(a) but
(b) that
(c) than
(d) If
83. Select the correct option to fill in the blank 2.
(a) on
(b) to
(c) with
(d) by
84. Select the correct option to fill in the blank 1.
(a) their
(b) an
(c) a
(d) the
85. Select the correct option to fill in the blank 4.
(a) elegant
(b) adequate
(c) efficient
(d) active
86. Select the correct option to fill in the blank 5.
(a) building
(b) built
(c) to build
(d) build
87. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
DISHEARTENED
(a) disliked
(b) depressed
(c) disgusted
(d) disgraced
88. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
CORDIAL
(a) hard
(b) cold
(c) warm
(d) rude
89. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
(a) Opportunity
(b) Obsolete
(c) Omision
(d) Obscure
90. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
See eye to eye
(a) See clearly
(b) Stare at someone
(c) Be suspicious
(d) Agree with someone
91. Select the most appropriate one word substitution for the given group of words.
Pertaining to an individual from birth
(a) Habitual
(b) Anomaly
(c) Chronic
(d) Congenital
92. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
(A) These are generated by a violent undersea disturbance or ocean activity.
(B) Once generated, they travel outward on the ocean surface in all directions.
(C) A tsunami is made up of a series of very long waves.
(D) Spreading thus, they look like ripples caused by throwing a rock in a pond.
(a) BDCA
(b) CBDA
(c) CABD
(d) BADC
93. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
HASTE
(a) Lose
(b) Dash
(c) Rush
(d) Delay
94. In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
The both children go to the same school.
(a) to the
(b) same school
(c) children go
(d) The both
95. Select the most appropriate option to the substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
They stopped to laugh as soon as the teacher entered the classroom.
(a) stopped laughing
(b) No improvement
(c) stop laughing
(d) stopped laugh
96. Select the most appropriate one word substitution for the given group of words.
To increase the speed
(a) Assimilate
(b) Exhilarate
(c) Accelerate
(d) Activate
97. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Have you _____ for a job in this company?
(a) approved
(b) applied
(c) appointed
(d) supplied
98. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
Mahesh said to Rita, “Don’t play in the sun.”
(a) Mahesh advised Rita not to play in the sun.
(b) Mahesh told to Rita to not play in the sun.
(c) Mahesh requested Rita that don’t play in the sun.
(d) Mahesh ordered Rita that not play in the sun.
99. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select no improvement.
If they will get married, they will probably settle in Mumbai.
(a) No improvement
(b) If they get married
(c) If they will be getting married
(d) If they had got married
100. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
(a) Rebel
(b) Delegait
(c) Monarch
(d) Edible
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 06-03-2020 Time 10.00-11.00 AM Question Paper With Answer Key
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 06-03-2020 Time 10.00-11.00 AM
General Intelligence and Reasoning
1. In a certain code language, ‘DKQX’ is written as ‘WPJC’. How will ‘AFKP’ be written as in that language?
(a) ZUQJ
(b) ZVQL
(c) ZTOK
(d) ZUPK
2. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
(1) Some machines are kites.
(2) No machine is a pigeon.
Conclusion:
(I) Some machines are pigeons.
(II) All kites are pigeons.
(III) Some kites are not pigeons.
(a) Only conclusion III follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Only conclusion I and III follow
(d) Only conclusion I and II follow
3. Select the letter that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
A, E, I, ?, Q, U
(a) K
(b) N
(c) M
(d) O
4. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when a mirror is placed on the right of the figure.
5. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words.
North : South
(a) Ductile : Bendable
(b) Whole : Total
(c) Frown : Smile
(d) Integrity : Honesty
6. In the given Venn diagram, the ‘rectangle’ represents ‘travelers who like to travel by plane’, the ‘circle’ represents ‘travelers who like to travel by bus’, and the ‘triangle’ ‘represents travelers who like to travel by train’. The numbers given in the diagram represent the number of travelers in that particular category.
How many travelers like to travel either by train or plane but NOT by bus?
(a) 36
(b) 30
(c) 29
(d) 27
7. Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
(1) Quadrillion (2) Quintillion (3) Million
(4) Octillion (5) Trillion
(a) 4-3-5-1-2
(b) 2-3-5-1-4
(c) 3-5-1-2-4
(d) 3-5-1-4-2
8. Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
(a) FBL
(b) DDP
(c) GCV
(d) BJT
9. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
(a) 113
(b) 95
(c) 111
(d) 77
10. In a certain group of men and horse, the total number of legs is 14 more than twice the number of heads. How many horses are there in the group?
(a) 11
(b) 9
(c) 5
(d) 7
11. Four words been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different, Select the odd word.
(a) Trumpet
(b) Xylophone
(c) Saxophone
(d) Clarinet
12. Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
12 + 81 – 27 × 9 ÷ 3 = 36
(a) − & ÷
(b) × & −
(c) ÷ & ×
(d) + & ×
13. In a certain code language, ‘PAGE’ is coded as ‘161495’. How will ‘PART’ be coded as in that language?
(a) 16128620
(b) 16125020
(c) 16136220
(d) 16132420
14. Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different from the rest.
(a) 15:250
(b) 13:169
(c) 17:289
(d) 11:121
15. Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
16. Select the option that depicts how the given transparent sheet of paper would appear if it is folded at the dotted line.
17. Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
5, 10, 26, ?, 122, 170
(a) 77
(b) 65
(c) 82
(d) 50
18. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
(a) 82
(b) 92
(c) 98
(d) 88
19. Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
AG, CGK, EJO, ?, IPW
(a) GNZ
(b) GMS
(c) GMZ
(d) GNS
20. Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
62, 66, 74, 90, ?
(a) 122
(b) 106
(c) 120
(d) 116
21. How many triangles are there in the given figure?
(a) 16
(b) 22
(c) 28
(d) 25
22. A + B means ‘A is the husband of B’;
A – B means ‘B is the sister of A’;
A × B means ‘A is the mother of B;
A ÷ B means ‘B is the son of A’.
If, P + R × T – Q ÷ S + U, then how is P related to S?
(a) Maternal grandfather
(b) Uncle
(c) Paternal
(d) Father-in-law
23. ‘Astronomy’ is related to ‘Stars’ in the same way as ‘Agronomy’ is related to’
(a) Emotions
(b) Planets
(c) Crops
(d) Mines
24. Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the symbol that will be on the face opposite to the one showing ‘+’.
(a) $
(b) #
(c) @
(d) *
25. Select the option in the which the given figure is embedded (rotation is not allowed).
General Awareness
26. Which of the following is the primary sex organ in females?
(a) Uterus
(b) Ovary
(c) Vagina
(d) Fallopian tube
27. Which of the following diseases is NOT transmitted from one person to another?
(a) Cirrhosis
(b) AIDS
(c) Hepatitis B
(d) Syphilis
28. Which International organization released the ‘World Energy Outlook 2019’ Report?
(a) United Nations
(b) International Energy Agency
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) UNESCO
29. The Supreme Court has declared access to the internet a fundamental right under Article ______ of the Indian constitution.
(a) 19
(b) 14
(c) 21
(d) 17
30. Name the Indian wrestler who has been named the Junior Freestyle Wrestler of the year (2019) by United World Wrestling (UWW).
(a) B. P. Raju
(b) Kamareddy
(c) Amita Bagchi
(d) Deepak Punia
31. UN Women propose to partner with _____ gender park with an aim to secure gender parity is South Asia.
(a) Kerala’s
(b) Rajasthan’s
(c) Punjab’s
(d) Haryana’s
32. Which of the following is a natural flame retardant?
(a) RNA
(b) Skin
(c) DNA
(d) Flowers
33. Merchant Discount rate refers to ______.
(a) The total discount a bank offers to the merchant for promoting online transactions
(b) The rate charged to a merchant for payment processing services on debit and credit card transactions
(c) The total discount a merchant offers on online transactions
(d) Only taxes that a digital payment entails
34. Alyssa Healy who created a world record by becoming the highest scorer in women’s T20I, belongs to
(a) Japan
(b) India
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
35. In the sequence of planets in the Solar system, which planet comes in between Mercury and Earth?
(a) Uranus
(b) Venus
(c) Jupiter
(d) Mars
36. The SDG India index is developed by _____.
(a) Ministry of Home affairs
(b) World Bank
(c) Ministry of Environmental, Forests and Climate Change
(d) NITI Aayog
37. Who performs the task of capturing oxygen in the blood?
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Haemoglobin
(c) Red blood cells
(d) White blood cells
38. If the inflation in an economy is rising steadily, the Central Bank might_____.
(a) keep the repo rate unchanged
(b) decrease the repo rate
(c) increase the repo rate
(d) decrease the reverse repo rate
39. Name the only metal that is antibacterial.
(a) Iron
(b) Sodium
(c) Copper
(d) Aluminium
40. On which river and in which state is the Jayakwadi dam situated?
(a) Priyar river – Kerala
(b) Banas river – Rajasthan
(c) Ravi river – Punjab
(d) Godavari river – Maharashtra
41. Who is the first General of the Indian Army, whose retirement day is celebrated as the ‘Armed Forces Veterans Day’ every year?
(a) General K. S. Thimayya
(b) General S. M. Srinagesh
(c) General Maharaj Rajendra Sinhji
(d) General K. M. Cariappa
42. Which India journalist was honoured with India’s Most powerful Woman in Media Award during the prestigious Confluence Excellence Award ceremony held in the British Parliament on 27 September 2019?
(a) Kalli Puri
(b) Anubha Bhonsle
(c) Sunetra Chaudhary
(d) Sona Choudhary
43. Which of the following gases is consistently seen to be most abundant in a volcanic eruption?
(a) water vapour
(b) Carbon Dioxide
(c) Sulphur Dioxide
(d) hydrogen Sulphide
44. Maharunnisa who was known as Nur Jahan was the wife of
(a) Jahangir
(b) Saha Jahan
(c) Akbar
(d) Aurangzeb
45. Which leader gave us the C R Formula?
(a) Tilak
(b) C. R. Das
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) C. Rajagopalachari
46. Which of the following is the first South Asian country to cell match-fixing a crime?
(a) Pakistan
(b) India
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Nepal
47. To which of the following Indian states does Mardani Khel, one of the famous martial art forms in India belong?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
48. In which year did D. C. Sircar publish Indian Epigraphy and Indian Epigraphical Glossary?
(a) 1966-67
(b) 1967-68
(c) 1965-66
(d) 1964-65
49. Madhavpur Mela takes place in _____.
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Gujarat
50. When did the Vikrama Era Begin?
(a) 57 BC
(b) 55 BC
(c) 50 BC
(d) 47 BC
Quantitative Aptitude
51. A, B and C can individually complete a task in 24 days, 20 days and 18 days, respectively. B and C start the task, and they work for 6 days and leave. The number of days required by A alone to finish the remaining task, is:
(a) 10 day
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
52. If (2sinA + cosec A) = 2√2, 0° < A < 90°, then the value of 2(sin4A + cos4A) is:
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 0
53. If the number 687×29 is divisible by 9, then the value of 2x is:
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 3
54. If the value of (a + b – 2)2 + (b + c – 5)2 + (c + a – 5)2 = 0, then the value of 
is:
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 1
55. In the following table, the production of various crops (in tones) is given from 2015 to 2019. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.
The difference (in tones) between the average production of barley and average production of rice is:
(a) 471
(b) 549
(c) 780
(d) 231
56. An article was sold at a gain of 18%. If it had been sold for Rs 49 more, then the gain would have been 25%. The cost price of the article is:
(a) Rs 890
(b) Rs 700
(c) Rs 650
(d) Rs 570
57. The average of the marks of 30 boys is 88, and when the top two scores were excluded, the average marks reduced to 87.5. If the top of two scores differ by 2, then the highest marks is:
(a) 90
(b) 94
(c) 96
(d) 92
58. Two tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point P. If ∠OAB = 30°, then ∠APB is:
(a) 120°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 15°
59. If a sum of Rs 1,180 is to be divided among A, B and C, such that 2 times A’s share, 5 times B’s share and 7 times C’s share, are equal, then A’s share is:
(a) Rs 750
(b) Rs 500
(c) Rs 650
(d) Rs 700
60. In the following table, the production of various crops (in tones) is given from 2015 to 2019. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.
The percentage growth of maize in the year 2019 over the year 2015 is : (correct to two decimal places)
(a) 60.28%
(b) 65.12%
(c) 71.43%
(d) 77.77%
61. If the area of an equilateral triangle is 36√3 cm2, then the perimeter of the triangle is:
(a) 36√3 cm
(b) 18√3 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 36 cm
62. ABC is an equilateral triangle. P, Q and R are the midpoints of sides AB, BC and CA, respectively. If the length of the side of the triangle ABC is 8 cm, then the area of ∆PQR is:
(a) √3/3 cm2
(b) 8√3 cm2
(c) 4√3 cm2
(d) √3/4 cm2
63. A circular disc of area 0.64 π m2 rolls down a length of 1.408 km. The number of revolutions it makes is: (Take π = 22/7)
(a) 280
(b) 360
(c) 140
(d) 180
64. If 3a = 27b = 81c and abc = 144, then the value of 
is:
(a) 18/120
(b) 33/10
(c) 17/120
(d) 18/10
65. A shopkeeper marks the price of an article in such a way that after allowing a discount of 22%, he gets a gain of 11%. If the marked price is Rs 888, then the cost price of the article is:
(a) Rs 550
(b) Rs 895
(c) Rs 624
(d) Rs 782
66. What will be the difference in compound interest on a sum of Rs 7,800 at 8% for 1 year, when the interest is paid yearly and half yearly?
(a) Rs 19.46
(b) Rs 12.48
(c) Rs 29.18
(d) Rs 24.72
67. Solve the following:
(a) 1
(b) −2
(c) 2
(d) −1
68. A student takes 1.25 hours to travel from home to school at a speed of 4 km/h. By what percentage should he increase his speed to reduce the time by 25% to cover the same distance from school of home?
(a) 
(b) 45%
(c) 25%
(d) 50%
69. A metallic sphere of diameter 40 cm is melted into smaller spheres of radius 0.5 cm. How many such small balls can be made?
(a) 32,000
(b) 6400
(c) 64,000
(d) 3200
70. If a + b + c = 9 and ab + bc + ca = −22, then the value of a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc is:
(a) 783
(b) 1571
(c) 487
(d) 1323
71. If xcosA – ysinA = 1 and x sinA + y cosA = 4, then the value of 17x2 + 17y2 is
(a) 289
(b) 49
(c) 7
(d) 0
72. The population of a city increased by 30% in the first year and decreased by 15% in the next year. If the present population is 11,050 then the population 2 years ago was:
(a) 10,050
(b) 99,000
(c) 10,000
(d) 99,500
73. If ‘+’ means ‘−’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘×’ then the value of is:
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) −2
(d) −1
74. In the following table, the production of various crops (in tones) is given from 2015 to 2019. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.
The highest growth of sugarcane production over its previous year is recorded in the year:
(a) 2019
(b) 2017
(c) 2016
(d) 2018
75. In the following table, the production of various crops (in tones) is given from 2015 to 2019. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.
The average production of wheat (in tones) in the period given in the table is:
(a) 3600
(b) 3482
(c) 3300
(d) 4218
English Comprehension
76. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
The farmer is ploughing the fields.
(a) The fields were ploughed by the farmer.
(b) The fields are being ploughed by the farmer
(c) The fields are ploughed by the farmer.
(d) The fields have been ploughed by the farmer.
77. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
We came back because we had ran out of money.
(a) No improvement
(b) we have ran
(c) we had run
(d) we run
78. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words/phrase.
Having two opposing feeling at the same time
(a) Ambivalent
(b) Contemporary
(c) Coinciding
(d) Equivalent
79. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’
Those who are late they will not be allowed inside the classroom.
(a) No error
(b) Those who are late
(c) inside the classroom
(d) they will not be allowed
80. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Persist
(a) Cease
(b) Continue
(c) Remain
(d) Insist
81. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
“What a rare flower!” she said.
(a) She exclaimed that it was a very rare flower.
(b) She asked if it was a rare flower.
(c) She exclaimed what a rare flower it is.
(d) She told that what a rare flower it was.
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Atlas was made to hold the sky up on his shoulders as a punishment. Once, Hercules (1) ______ to hold it for Atlas while the latter went looking (2) ______ golden apples. When Atlas returned, he saw Hercules (3) _____ hard to hold the sky. The weight of the sky (4) _______ Hercules sweat and groan. Now Atlas did not want to (5) _______ a job as arduous as that!
82. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1.
(a) extended
(b) offered
(c) ordered
(d) afforded
83. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2.
(a) for
(b) after
(c) at
(d) on
84. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3.
(a) struggling
(b) tackling
(c) seeking
(d) coping
85. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4.
(a) were making
(b) has made
(c) make
(d) was making
86. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 5.
(a) take in
(b) take out
(c) take back
(d) take away
87. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Ovation
(a) Preparation
(b) Censure
(c) Applause
(d) Creation
88. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The roof of the old building _____ during the storm.
(a) demolished
(b) destroyed
(c) scratched
(d) collapsed
89. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
(a) Alliance
(b) Acquaintence
(c) Abandon
(d) Acquisition
90. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
(a) Feared
(b) Favoured
(c) Adored
(d) Compared
91. Select the appropriate option to fill in the blank.
She _____ how the magician had performed the rope trick.
(a) wondered
(b) bewildered
(c) puzzled
(d) suspected
92. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute, it select No improvement.
When it started raining, I ran to the nearer house for shelter.
(a) No improvement
(b) the nearest house
(c) a near house
(d) the near house
93. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Chicken-hearted
(a) Generous
(b) Miserly
(c) Selfish
(d) Cowardly
94. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Glee
(a) Fun
(b) Joy
(c) Woe
(d) Bliss
95. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
By and by
(a) Gradually
(b) Suddenly
(c) On the whole
(d) By any means
96. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
(A) The mountain range was covered with snow
(B) Napoleon had to cross the Alps in winter.
(C) Napoleon replied that the word impossible’ did not exist for him.
(D) So, someone told Napoleon that the task was impossible.
(a) DBCA
(b) BADC
(c) BDCA
(d) ADBC
97. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words/phrase.
A group of ships
(a) squad
(b) fleet
(c) swarm
(d) colony
98. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’
Everyone except she have travelled by air.
(a) travelled by air
(b) Everyone except
(c) she have
(d) No error
99. Select the wrongly spelt word.
(a) Fierce
(b) Sieze
(c) Piece
(d) Grief
100. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
(A) Much of this war had taken place along the Western Front.
(B) Both sides had dug in deep and each lost many men over little ground.
(C) This front was a line of trenches across which the two sides faced each other.
(D) Andre Maginot had fought a war with the French against the Germans.
(a) BCDA
(b) DACB
(c) ACDB
(d) DBCA
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 07-03-2020 Time 1.00-2.00 PM Question Paper With Answer Key
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 07-03-2020 Time 1.00-2.00 PM
General Intelligence and Reasoning
1. Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is not allowed).
2. Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
(a) EHKN
(b) PSVY
(c) TWZC
(d) NOSV
3. Read the given statements and consluions carefully. Assuming tht the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follows(s) from the statements.
Statements:
(1) All toys are pens.
(2) All games are pens.
Conclusions:
(I) No toy is game.
(II) No pen is a game.
(III) Some toys are games.
(a) Either conclusion I or III follows
(b) Only conclusions II and III follow
(c) All conclusions I, II and III follow
(d) Only conclusions I and II follow
4. What day of the week has 31 January 2007?
(a) Monday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Thursday
5. If ‘A’ stands for ‘subtraction’, ‘B’ stands for ‘multiplication’, ‘C” stands for ‘addition’, and ‘D’ stands for ‘division’, then what is the value of the following expression?
27A8B5C(11C3)B5C36D6
(a) 20
(b) 63
(c) 60
(d) 24
6. Which of the following Venn diagram best represents the relationship between the following classes?
Accounts, Girls, Internet users
7. Select the correct mirror image of the given alphanumeric-cluster when a vertical mirror is placed on the right side of the cluster.
654HBMA
8. Select the letter will replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
C, B, B, C, Z, E, W, H, S, ?, N
(a) K
(b) P
(c) L
(d) I
9. Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.
11 : 265 :: 20 : ?
(a) 835
(b) 840
(c) 841
(d) 838
10. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words.
Office : Work
(a) House : Bricks
(b) Hospital : Director
(c) School : Study
(d) Court : Lawyer
11. Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
PERSONA, ANPERSO, ANOSPER, ?
(a) NOSAREP
(b) ANOSERP
(c) ANSORPE
(d) ANOSREP
12. In a certain code language ‘PAINTS’ is written as ‘CRPKUV’. How will ‘PURITY’ be written as in that language?
(a) VSKTAZ
(b) WRKSNU
(c) XSISBM
(d) WRKTAV
13. Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
14. Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd word.
(a) Distance
(b) Litre
(c) Minute
(d) Kilogram
15. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
(a) 83
(b) 71
(c) 81
(d) 79
16. ‘Diabetes’ is related to ‘Blood Sugar’ in the same way as ‘Hypertension’ is related to ‘_______’.
(a) Blood Pressure
(b) Heart
(c) Body Cells
(d) Red Blood Cells
17. Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different from the rest.
(a) 33 : 109
(b) 30 : 94
(c) 27 : 85
(d) 44 : 136
18. A – B means ‘A is the mother of B’;
A × B means ‘A is the sister of B’;
A ÷ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
Which of the following expressions means ‘U is the daughter of Q’?
(a) K – U ÷ Z ×Q
(b) Q – Z × U ÷ K
(c) K – Z ÷ U × Q
(d) Q – Z ÷ U × K
19. Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
35, 36, 40, ?, 83, 208, 244
(a) 73
(b) 67
(c) 55
(d) 60
20. Arrange the following words in the order in which they would appear in an English dictionary.
(1) Temper (2) Temple
(3) Tamarind (4) Tender
(5) Tenacity
(a) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
(b) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(c) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
(d) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
21. The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?
22. In a certain code language, ‘SOLID’ is coded as ‘64’ and ‘POUR’ is coded as ‘74’. How will ‘TON’ be coded as in that language?
(a) 60
(b) 85
(c) 52
(d) 49
23. Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers in the given set.
(45, 24, 441)
(a) (35, 17, 324)
(b) (50, 30, 480)
(c) (41, 18, 630)
(d) (30, 60, 1024)
24. How many triangle are there in the given figure?
(a) 17
(b) 21
(c) 20
(d) 19
25. A cube is made by folding the given sheet. In the cube so formed, which of the following pairs of numbers will be on opposite sides?
(a) 3 & 6
(b) 2 & 4
(c) 1 & 5
(d) 1 & 2
General Awareness
26. Who won the ‘ICC (International Cricket Council) Spirit of Cricket, 2019’ award?
(a) Virat Kohli
(b) Rohit Sharma
(c) Pat Cummins
(d) Ben Stokes
27. The tidal mouth of a river where fresh and saline water get mixed is known as a/an___.
(a) Gorge
(b) Estuary
(c) Archipelago
(d) Fold
28. Which organization launched the Agricultural Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index (AMFFRI) in 2016?
(a) National Institute of Public Finance and Policy
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Indian Institute of Public Administration
29. Which of the following is one of the Articles of the Constitution of India that mentions the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(a) 352
(b) 148
(c) 156
(d) 280
30. A situation where the expenditure of the government exceeds its revenue is known as____.
(a) Morbidity
(b) Devaluation
(c) Default
(d) Deficit Financing
31. Which of the following martial art forms is practice in the state of Punjab and West Bengal?
(a) Kalaripayattu
(b) Lathi
(c) Thang-ta
(d) Mardaani khel
32. Which of the following can be diagnosed with the Widal Test?
(a) AIDS
(b) Cancer
(c) Typhoid Fever
(d) Tuberculosis
33. Which of the following schedules of the Constitution of India has been INCORRECTLY matched with its content?
(a) First Schedule-The states and the union territories
(b) Third Schedule-Forms of oath or affirmations
(c) Fourth Schedule-Allocation of seats in the council of states
(d) Second Schedule – Languages
34. Which of the following is sued for removing permanent hardness of water?
(a) Baking soda
(b) Bleaching powder
(c) Lime
(d) Washing soda
35. Who among the following was known as ‘Andhra Kesari’?
(a) T. Prakasam
(b) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Chittaranjan Das
36. Who is the author of the book title ‘The Anarchy: The East India Company, Corporate Violence, and the Pillage of an Empire?
(a) Pankaj Mishra
(b) William Dalrymple
(c) V. P. Menon
(d) Shashi Tharoor
37. In which part of India are the Patkai Bum hills located?
(a) Northern part of India
(b) Southern part of India
(c) Western part of India
(d) Eastern part of India
38. Where were the Khelo India Youth Games, 2020 held?
(a) Guwahati
(b) Bhopal
(c) Chandigarh
(d) New Delhi
39. Where was the 107th edition of the Indian Science Congress held?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Chennai
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Dehradun
40. Who discovered cells in the human body?
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Robert Hooke
(c) Herbert Spencer
(d) Albert Einstein
41. Who among the following was NOT a recipient of the Arjuna Awards in 2019?
(a) Swapana Burman
(b) Merzban Patel
(c) Ravindra Jadeja
(d) Poonam Yadav
42. In which year did the Third Round Table Conference take place?
(a) 1928
(b) 1929
(c) 1932
(d) 1930
43. Who wrote the play ‘Mricchakatika’ (The Little Clay Cart), a social drama with touches of grim reality?
(a) Magh
(b) Raidasa
(c) Sudraka
(d) Kalidasa
44. Which of the following is caused by a virus named ‘Varicella zoster’?
(a) Polio
(b) Chickenpox
(c) Rabies
(d) Cholera
45. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(a) Matter is made up of small particles
(b) Evaporation causes cooling
(c) Brass is a mixture of 30% zinc and 70% copper
(d) The measurable unit of pressure is denoted in Metre
46. On which lake is the world’s only floating post office situated?
(a) Wulr Lake
(b) Loktak Lake
(c) Chilika Lake
(d) Dal Lake
47. Who among the following was NOT associated with the revolt of 1857?
(a) Kunwar Singh
(b) Bhagat Singh
(c) Begum Hazrat
(d) Mangal Pandey
48. In which year did the battle of Khanua (Khanwa) take place between Babur and the Rajput forces led by Rana Sanga?
(a) 1527
(b) 1526
(c) 1522
(d) 1529
49. What is the name of the anti-hijacking exercise conducted by the Indian Navy in collaboration with the Indian Coast Guard?
(a) Nagah
(b) Indra
(c) Ekuverin
(d) Apharan
50. What is Gotabaya Rajapaksa’s nationality?
(a) Sri Lankan
(b) Burmese
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Indonesian
Quantitative Aptitude
51. If 18 men can cut a field in 35 days, then in how many days can 21 men cut the same field?
(a) 32
(b) 27
(c) 28
(d) 30
52. The following table shows the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different subjects in an examination.
What are the average marks obtained by all the seven students in Physics? (rounded off to two digits after the decimal)
(a) 75.90
(b) 85.12
(c) 89.14
(d) 80.15
53. In ∆ABC, D, E and F are the midpoints of sides AB, BC and CA, respectively. If AB = 12 cm, BC = 20 cm and CA = 15 cm, then the value of 
(a) 23.5 cm
(b) 5.88 cm
(c) 11.75 cm
(d) 15.67 cm
54. The following table shows the age-wise brand ownership of mobile phone handsets.
If a total of 5000 ‘C’ mobile phone sets are sold till date, then how many are more than one year old?
(a) 4350
(b) 4000
(c) 4200
(d) 4500
55. If 
then the value of 
is:
(a) 5/12
(b) −5
(c) 1
(d) 1/5
56. The two trains leave Varanasi for Lucknow at 11:00 a.m. and at 11:30 a.m., respectively and travel at a speed of 110 km/h and 140 km/h, respectively. How many kilometers from Varanasi will both trains meet?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
57. If x + y + z = 10 and xy + yz + zx == 15, then find the value of x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz.
(a) 550
(b) 660
(c) 575
(d) 525
58. If the perimeter of a certain rectangle is 50 units and its area is 150 sq. units, then how many units is the length of its shorter side?
(a) 15
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12
59. A contract is to be completed in 75 days and 187 men are to work 15 hours per day. After 65 days, 3/5 of the work is completed. How many additional men may be employed, so that the work may be completed in time, each man now working 17 hours per day?
(a) 528
(b) 495
(c) 514
(d) 532
60. If radius of a circle is decreased by 11%, then the total decrease in the area of the circle is given as:
(a) 20.79%
(b) 19.50%
(c) 20.50%
(d) 21%
61. If in 13 years a fixed sum doubles at simple interest, what will be the interest rate per year?
(a) 7.29%
(b) 7.69%
(c) 7.92%
(d) 8.69%
62. A man buys two matches ‘A’ and ‘B’ at a total cost of Rs 800. He sells both watches at the same selling price, and earns a profit of 18% on watch ‘A’ and incurs a loss of 22% on watch ‘B’. What are the cost prices of the two watches? (two place after decimal).
(a) A = Rs 350.32 or B = Rs 450.68
(b) A = Rs 317 or B = Rs 483
(c) A = Rs 220 or B = Rs 580
(d) A = Rs 318.37 or B = Rs 481.63
63. The following table shows the annual profit of a company (in Rs lakh).
The period which has the maximum percentage increase in profit over the previous year is :
(a) 2016-2017
(b) 2017-2018
(c) 2018-2019
(d) 2015-2016
64. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 300 and ab + bc + ca = 50m then what is the value of a + b + c ? (Given a, b and c are all positive).
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 22
(d) 25
65. The following table shows the number of employees working in various departments of an organization from 2016 to 2019.
In which year were the maximum number of employees working in the organization?
(a) 2016
(b) 2019
(c) 2017
(d) 2018
66. AB is a diameter of a circle with centre O. The tangent at a point C on the circle meets AB produced at Q. If ∠CAB = 42°, then what is the measure of ∠CQA?
(a) 17°
(b) 5°
(c) 6°
(d) 7°
67. If 7 divided a positive integer n, the remainder is 2. Which of the following numbers gives a reminder of 0 when divided by 7?
(a) n + 5
(b) n – 5
(c) n + 2
(d) n + 1
68. In quadrilateral PQRS, RM ⊥ QS, PN ⊥ QS and QS = 6 cm. If RM = 3 cm and PN = 2 cm, then the area of PQRS is:
(a) 15 cm2
(b) 14 cm2
(c) 13 cm2
(d) 11 cm2
69. The value of-
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
70. The cost price of goods, for a shopkeeper, was X. He marked them at 15% above the cost price. Finally, he sold the goods at a discount of 25%. ‘What is his profit/loss percentage?’
(a) 13.5% profit
(b) 13% loss
(c) 12% profit
(d) 13.75% loss
71. If 3sec2θ + tan θ = 7, 0° < θ < 90°, then the value of 
is:
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
72. The perimeter of an isosceles triangles is 50 cm. If the base is 18 cm, then find the length of the equal sides.
(a) 16 cm
(b) 18 cm
(c) 32 cm
(d) 25 cm
73. Anu spends 68% of her monthly income. If her monthly income increase by 20% and her monthly savings increase by 
then the percentage increase in her monthly expenditure is:
(a) 22%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 32%
74. 
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
75. A sum lent out at compound interest amounts to Rs 1,250 in one year and to Rs 1,458 in 3 years at a certain rate percentage p.a. What is the simple interest on the same sum for 
at the same rate of interest?
(a) Rs 600
(b) Rs 480
(c) Rs 500
(d) Rs 520
English Comprehension
76. Select the most appropriate Antonym of the given word.
Assist
(a) Conceal
(b) Obstruct
(c) Decline
(d) Support
77. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
The guard said to the visitors, “Do not take photographs inside the museum”.
(a) The guard warned the visitors not to be taking photographs inside the museum.
(b) The guard told the visitors that do not take photographs inside the museum.
(c) The guard forbade the visitors to take photographs inside the museum.
(d) The guard requested the visitors to not took photographs inside the museum.
78. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
The old lady nearly dead from fright.
(a) No improvement
(b) dead out of fright
(c) died with frightening
(d) died of fright
79. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
(A) I took a deep breath and inhaled the air.
(B) It was a fine spring morning.
(C) As soon as I entered the garden, lush green grass welcomed me.
(D) The freshness in the air drew my feet towards a garden.
(a) CADB
(b) BADC
(c) ACBD
(d) CDAB
80. Given below are jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
(A) It hurts the heart most of all by inflating blood pressure.
(B) You can blow up and let it out or bottle it up and ignore it.
(C) The question then arises – What to do about it?
(D) Researchers have long agreed that anger hurts your health.
(a) CADB
(b) DBCA
(c) BCAD
(d) DACB
81. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Come to the point
(a) To get reconciled to something
(b) To speak plainly about the real issue
(c) To unravel a mystery
(d) To meet at a designated place
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternative given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
There are certain spheres of one’s life in which one should go by one’s own (1) ______ rather than follow another’s counsel. The choice (2) ______ one’s subject of study is one such sphere. (3) _______ one is genuinely interested in a subject, one (4) _______ never opt for it. India is already full of (5) ______ pegs in round holes, who are unfit for their roles and are doing more them.
82. Select the most appropriate to fill in blank (1).
(a) alternative
(b) option
(c) possibility
(d) choice
83. Select the most appropriate to fill in blank (2).
(a) of
(b) between
(c) among
(d) at
84. Select the most appropriate to fill in blank (3).
(a) Although
(b) Even if
(c) Since
(d) Unless
85. Select the most appropriate to fill in blank (4).
(a) should
(b) could
(c) would
(d) ought
86. Select the most appropriate to fill in blank (5).
(a) small
(b) circular
(c) square
(d) large
87. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
He was greatly disappointed to be failed again.
(a) No improvement
(b) by being failed
(c) on failing
(d) to failed
88. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Affluent
(a) Prosperous
(b) Authentic
(c) Hostile
(d) Impoverished
89. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.
There are _____ errors in your assignment.
(a) multifold
(b) numerous
(c) sufficient
(d) abundant
90. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
(a) Actually
(b) Persuit
(c) Parallel
(d) Opinion
91. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Accurate
(a) Capable
(b) Precise
(c) Erroneous
(d) Compact
92. In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
The present what I buy for you yesterday was very expensive.
(a) What I buy
(b) The present
(c) was very expensive
(d) for you yesterday
93. Select the correct passive from of the given sentence.
He incurred heavy losses in business.
(a) Heavy losses was incurred in business by him.
(b) Heavy losses are incurred in business by him.
(c) Heavy losses were incurred in business by him
(d) Heavy losses are being incurred in business by him.
94. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
(a) Affiliate
(b) Exclaimation
(c) Aesthetic
(d) Annihilate
95. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Give a piece of one’s mind
(a) To share one’s ideas
(b) To advise someone
(c) To rebuke someone strongly
(d) To donate something valuable
96. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
A place where plants are grown for sale.
(a) Yard
(b) Nursery
(c) Aviary
(d) Garden
97. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Industrious
(a) Cautious
(b) Diligent
(c) Durable
(d) Lethargic
98. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.
There is a _______ growth of flowers in tropical countries.
(a) plenty
(b) pious
(c) powerful
(d) luxuriant
99. In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
He went to work but returned back immediately.
(a) to work
(b) immediately
(c) but returned back
(d) He went
100. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
Putting to death painlessly to end suffering.
(a) Blaspheme
(b) Euthanasia
(c) Genocide
(d) Altruism
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 07-03-2020 Time 10.00-11.00 AM Question Paper With Answer Key
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 07-03-2020 Time 10.00-11.00 AM
General Intelligence and Reasoning
1. Select the option figure in the which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).
2. Read the given statements and conclusion carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s)
Statements:
(1) Some cars are buses.
(2) Some buses are trucks.
(3) Some trucks are scooters
Conclusions:
(I) Some cars are scooters.
(II) Some trucks are buses.
(III) Some scooters are buses
(IV) All scooters are tucks.
(a) Only conclusions I and II follow
(b) Only conclusion II and IV follow
(c) Only conclusion II follows
(d) All the conclusions follow
3. Select the box that CANNOT be formed by folding the given unfolded box.
4. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
Amusing : Hilarious :: Moisten : ?
(a) Soak
(b) Dry
(c) Humid
(d) Water
5. Select the set of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given letter series will complete the series.
p_rsqrps_pqs_qr_qrps_p_s
(a) q, r, p, p, r, q
(b) q, r, p, s, r, q
(c) r, p, q, s, r, q
(d) p, r, p, s, r, p
6. The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?
7. Select the option that is related to third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the sixth number is related to the fifth number.
6:16::20:?::11:81
(a) 324
(b) 91
(c) 120
(d) 361
8. In a certain code language, CIRCULAR is coded as 24-3-9-24-1-15-5-9. How will VERTICAL be coded as in that language?
(a) 5-2-9-7-3-24-5-15
(b) 22-4-9-7-9-24-5-15
(c) 5-4-9-7-3-24-5-15
(d) 22-4-9-7-3-23-1-15
9. Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
(a) SVY
(b) FIK
(c) NQT
(d) XAD
10. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs, to balance the following equation.
(14 * 9 * 6) * 15 * 8
(a) ×, =, ÷, −
(b) −, ÷, ×, =
(c) ÷, −, =, ×
(d) ×, −, ÷, =
11. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words.
(a) Appraisal : Performance
(b) Painting : Painter
(c) Disease : Doctor
(d) Carelessness : Errors
12. Select the option in which the numbers are related the same way as are the numbers in the given set.
17 : 102 : 153
(a) 16 : 96 : 144
(b) 23 : 162 : 207
(c) 18 : 104 : 171
(d) 13 : 78 : 108
13. Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
eBd, hXi, kTn, nPs, ?
(a) qLx
(b) Qlv
(c) qKx
(d) pLw
14. Arrange the following words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary.
(1) Decipher (2) Decide (3) Decline
(4) Deceive (5) Decimal (6) Decision
(a) 4, 5, 2, 1, 6, 3
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5, 6
(c) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
(d) 3, 5, 4, 1, 6, 2
15. Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
16. Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different.
(a) 4/5 : 3
(b) 16/20 : 6
(c) 25/41 : 8
(d) 30/51 : 9
17. A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’;
A – B means ‘A is the husband of B’;
A × B means ‘A is son of B’;
A ÷ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
If, W × Z + Y ÷ X, then how is X related to Z?
(a) Son
(b) Husband
(c) Daughter
(d) Wife
18. A private taxi company charges fixed charge along with a per kilometer charge based on the distance covered. For a journey of 24 km, the charges paid are Rs 368 and for a journey of 32 km, the charges paid are Rs 464. How much will a person have to pay for travelling a distance of 15 km?
(a) Rs 290
(b) Rs 260
(c) Rs 280
(d) Rs 180
19. Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Select the odd word.
(a) Scream
(b) Roar
(c) Mumble
(d) Shout
20. The given Venn diagram represents results of a class of students:
The triangle represents students who scored 85% and above in Maths, the circle represents students who scored 85% and above in English, the rectangle represents students who scored 85% and above in Science, and the square represents students who scored 85% and above in Social Science. The numbers given in the diagram represent the number of students in that particular category.
How many students scored 85% and above in all subjects?
(a) 15
(b) 5
(c) 11
(d) 17
21. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 4
22. In a certain code language, ‘CREATION’ is written as RCAEITNO. How will ‘SEQUENCE’ be written as in that language?
(a) ESUQNEEC
(b) ESUQENEC
(c) QESEUENC
(d) QESEUCNE
23. Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
17, 19, 22, 27, 34, 45, 58, ?
(a) 67
(b) 73
(c) 75
(d) 78
24. How many triangles are present in the given figure?
(a) 26
(b) 22
(c) 28
(d) 30
25. Which of the option figure is the exact mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held at the right side?
BRWOQWRB
General Awareness
26. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana offers a protection term insurance cover of ____ to the insurer.
(a) Rs 2 Lakh
(b) Rs 5 Lakh
(c) Rs 8 Lakh
(d) Rs 4 Lakh
27. Which among the following is NOT an insulator?
(a) Ebonite
(b) Mercury
(c) Glass
(d) Dry Paper
28. Which Indian male cricketer won the BCCI CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award for the year 2019?
(a) K Srikanth
(b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Rahul Dravid
(d) Sunil Gavaskar
29. With reference to the Vedangas, which of the following terms denotes ‘Ritual’?
(a) Chanda
(b) Kalpa
(c) Vyakarana
(d) Shiksha
30. Where is the Dharmraja Ratha monument located?
(a) Suchindram
(b) Kanchipuram
(c) Mahabalipuram
(d) Khajurahoo
31. Who was appointed as brand ambassador of Visa – the payment technology company in 2019?
(a) PT Usha
(b) P. V. Sindhu
(c) Dutee Chand
(d) Sania Mirza
32. Who is the author of the book ‘Wise and Otherwise : A salute to life?
(a) Zoya Hasan
(b) Amrita Pritam
(c) Sudha Murthy
(d) Kiran Desai
33. Which of the following states does NOT share its boundary with Bangladesh?
(a) Mehgalaya
(b) Tripura
(c) Assam
(d) Manipur
34. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated on:
(a) 2nd January
(b) 8th January
(c) 9th January
(d) 1st January
35. The Pritzker Prize is an international award given to recognize contribution in the field of__.
(a) medicine
(b) literature
(c) mathematics
(d) architecture
36. Which of the following rivers forms the dhuandhar waterfall near Japalpur?
(a) Tapi
(b) Luni
(c) Narmada
(d) Tungabhadra
37. The power of a lens is -2.0 D.Here ‘D’ stands for:
(a) Dilation
(b) Distance
(c) Dioptre
(d) Degree
38. Select the correct pair of dance form and its state.
(a) Padayani – Kerala
(b) Dalkhai – Karnataka
(c) Thang Ta – Bihar
(d) Kalbelia – Himachal Pradesh
39. Which among the following has its refractive index closest to that of crown glass?
(a) Sapphire
(b) Ruby
(c) Diamond
(d) Canada balsam
40. The Indian National Congress session of September 1920 was held at
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Nagpur
(d) Lucknow
41. For which game has the Father of Leander Paes been a member of the Indian National Team?
(a) Hockey
(b) Basketball
(c) Tennis
(d) Badminton
42. What does ‘T’ stand for in ATM?
(a) Teller
(b) Transfer
(c) Transaction
(d) Trunk
43. Which of the pairs is correct with reference to mountain passess?
(a) Rohtang – Sikkim
(b) Lipulekh – Uttarakhand
(c) Bomdila – Himachal Pradesh
(d) Nathula – Arunachal Pradesh
44. In which year was the first amendment to the Constitution of India made?
(a) 1950
(b) 1953
(c) 1951
(d) 1952
45. Which among the following is a cation?
(a) Ammonium
(b) Iodide
(c) Chloride
(d) Fluoride
46. Which of the following monasteries is located in Sikkim?
(a) Rumtek
(b) Kye
(c) Hemis
(d) Tabo
47. The scientific study of a cell is called:
(a) taxonomy
(b) physiology
(c) histology
(d) cytology
48. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India guarantees the Right to Freedom of Religion?
(a) Articles 19-22
(b) Articles 23-24
(c) Articles 14-18
(d) Aritcles 25-28
49. In December 2019, the Rohtang passageway in Himachal Pradesh was renamed as:
(a) Atal Tunnel
(b) Mukherjee Tunnel
(c) Swaraj Tunnel
(d) Bose Tunnel
50. The council of Ministers during the time of Shivaji Maharaj was known as :
(a) Ashta Pradhan
(b) Navaratnas
(c) Agraharam
(d) Ashta Diggajas
Quantitative Aptitude
51. The value of 
is :
(a) −1
(b) 1
(c) −2sin2θcos2θ
(d) 0
52. From the given table, what is the percentage of students scoring 40 or more, but less than 70.
(a) 48%
(b) 8%
(c) 96%
(d) 56%
53. The value of 3 – (9 – 3 × 8 ÷ 2) is :
(a) -21
(b) 6
(c) 0
(d) 21/2
54. The coefficient of y in the expansion of (2y – 5)3, is:
(a) 150
(b) 50
(c) -30
(d) -150
55. In a school, the distribution of teachers is as follows:
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 39
(d) 18
56. Ten men or twelve women can finish the same work in 10 days. If 5 men and 2 women undertake the work together, how many days will they take to complete the work?
(a) 15
(b) 40
(c) 20
(d) 60
57. In an examination, Anita scored 31% marks and failed by 16 marks. Sunita scored 40% marks and obtained 56 marks more than those required to pass. Find the minimum marks required to pass.
(a) 3116
(b) 264
(c) 3944
(d) 7100
58. If the given number 925×85 is divisible by 11, then the smallest value of x is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
59. Two cars A and B leave Delhi at 8 : 30 a.m. and at 9 a.m. for Shimla, respectively. They travel at the speeds of 40 km/h and 50 km/h respectively. How many kilometers away from Delhi will the two cars be together?
(a) 45 km
(b) 100 km
(c) 200 km
(d) 5 km
60. What is the value of sin 30° + cos 30° − tan 45°?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
61. While selling an article of marked price Rs 5,040 at a discount of 40%, if a trader gains 20%, then the profit in Rs is :
(a) 642
(b) 504
(c) 720
(d) 2520
62. By selling 18 table fans for Rs 11,664 a man incurs a loss of 10%. How many fans should be sells for Rs 17,424 to earn 10% profit?
(a) 18
(b) 22
(c) 20
(d) 23
63. In the given figure, cos θ is equal to:
(a) 5/13
(b) 12/13
(c) 5/12
(d) 12/5
64. In the given figure, MP is tangent to a circle with centre A and NQ is a tangent to a circle with centre B. If MP = 15 cm, NQ = 8 cm, PA = 17 cm and BQ = 10 cm, then AB is:
(a) 28 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 13.5 cm
(d) 23 cm
65. In the given figure, the measure of ∠BAC is :
(a) 56°
(b) 62°
(c) 58°
(d) 48°
66. The simple interest on a sum of Rs 50,000 at the end of two years is Rs 4,000. What would be the compound interest on the same sum at the same rate for the same period?
(a) 4040
(b) 4080
(c) 4008
(d) 8000
67. If 1 – 64x3 – 12x + 9x2 = (1 – 4x)3, then the value of p is:
(a) 48
(b) -12
(c) -48
(d) 16
68. In the figure if ∠A = 100° then ∠C = ?
(a) 50°
(b) 90°
(c) 80°
(d) 100°
69. The value of 1512 – 1492 is:
(a) 600
(b) 300
(c) 4
(d) 400
70. In the given figure, ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle, in which AB = AC, AD ⊥ BC, BC = 6 cm and AD = 4 cm. The length of AB is:
(a) 7 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) 4 cm
71. The area of the four walls of a room having length 6 m, breadth 4 m and height 4 m, is:
(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 40
(d) 80
72. If A : B = 3 : 5, and B : C = 2 : 3, then A : B : C is equal to :
(a) 3 : 8 : 6
(b) 3 : 7 : 3
(c) 6:10 : 15
(d) 6: 15: 10
73. Study the given table carefully and answer the question that follows.
The percentage of students who have passed with distinction in the year 2012 is:
(a) 25%
(b) 20%
(c) 22%
(d) 27%
74. The average of five consecutive odd number is m. If the next three odd numbers are also included, then what is the increase in the average?
(a) 3
(b) 0
(c) 17
(d) 8
75. In a particular year, the number of students enrolled in different stream in a College is as follow :
The percentage of girl students is:
(a) 46%
(b) 50%
(c) 135%
(d) 54%
English Comprehension
76. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Sacred
(a) Holy
(b) Valued
(c) Scarce
(d) Precious
77. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
(a) Alien
(b) Accross
(c) Awful
(d) Already
78. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Look down upon
(a) To consider someone inferior
(b) The be full of guilt
(c) To look for something underground
(d) To look down from a height
79. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
The children sang the National Anthem with great enthusiasm.
(a) The National Anthem is sung with great enthusiasm by the children.
(b) The National Anthem has been sung with great enthusiasm by the children
(c) The National Anthem was being sung with great enthusiasm by the children.
(d) The National Anthem was sung with great enthusiasm by the children.
80. Select the option that can be used as a one word substitute for the given group of words.
A game in which neither party wins
(a) Quit
(b) Draw
(c) Flop
(d) Equal
81. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Native
(a) Rural
(b) Rustic
(c) Foreign
(d) Urban
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the banks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Advertising is the promotion of goods and services, it provides an (1) ______ to the manufacturing companies to sell their (2) ______ better than their competitors. Every time we switch (3) _______ the television we find some product or the other (4) _____ pushed towards us. It cannot be denied that the (5) ______ behind commercial advertising is to increase sales and earn more profit.
82. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (1).
(a) opportunity
(b) excuse
(c) occasion
(d) event
83. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (2).
(a) creation
(b) products
(c) compounds
(d) outcome
84. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (3).
(a) in
(b) on
(c) off
(d) at
85. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (4).
(a) be
(b) being
(c) been
(d) to be
86. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (5).
(a) influence
(b) feeling
(c) motive
(d) emotion
87. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
(A) When a calf is born under water, the mother must get it to the surface before it drowns.
(B) The young ones remain with their parents for up to fifteen years or more.
(C) Often another whale assists the mother nudging the baby gently and encouraging it to swim.
(D) Whales have highly developed maternal instincts.
(a) DBCA
(b) BCAD
(c) CBDA
(d) DACB
88. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.
She was loved by her employees for her _______.
(a) malevolence
(b) condolence
(c) benevolence
(d) insolence
89. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’
He married with a rich heiress last year.
(a) last year
(b) with a rich heiress
(c) He married
(d) No error
90. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Keep abreast of
(a) Keep up the good work
(b) Keep a watch on
(c) Keep ahead of
(d) Keep oneself updated
91. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it select No improvement.
Mother was watching a movie when the lights were going off.
(a) have gone off
(b) No improvement
(c) going off
(d) went off
92. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given option pick the one that gives their correct order.
(A) While he was doing this, he missed seeing a velvet purse full of gold coins lying on the road.
(B) Ramesh always worried about how he would become sick and weak in old age.
(C) To try how he would cope with blindness, Ramesh started walking with this eyes closed.
(D) He feared that he might even lose his sight and go blind.
(a) CABD
(b) BCAD
(c) DBAC
(d) BDCA
93. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Weary
(a) Touchy
(b) Lively
(c) Restless
(d) Exhausted
94. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Repulsive
(a) Revolting
(b) Hideous
(c) Brilliant
(d) Attractive
95. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.
The minister gave an _______ that strict action would be taken against the culprits.
(a) ambition
(b) assurance
(c) insurance
(d) admission
96. Select the most appropriate option to substitute segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
Scarcely had the passenger boarded the plane when the captain welcomed them.
(a) that the captain welcomed them
(b) when the captain had welcomed them
(c) than the captain welcomes them
(d) No improvement
97. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’
The famous author and actor are being honourd at a function today
(a) are being honoured
(b) The famous author and actor
(c) No error
(d) at a function today
98. Select the option that can be used as a one word substitute for the given group of words
That which cannot be satisfied
(a) Insane
(b) Ingenuous
(c) Inapt
(d) Insatiable
99. Select the correct indirect form the given sentence.
The traveler said to passerby, “Can you help me find my way, please?”
(a) The traveler requested to the passer by if he can help him find his way.
(b) The traveler asked the passer by that he can kindly help him find his way.
(c) The traveler asked the passer by if he could kindly help him find his way.
(d) The traveler asked the passer by could you kindly help me find my way?
100. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
(a) Guarranty
(b) Guardian
(c) Guidance
(d) Guilty
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 09-03-2020 Time 1.00-2.00 PM Question Paper With Answer Key
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 09-03-2020 Time 1.00-2.00 PM
General Intelligence and Reasoning
1. A – B means ‘A is the sister of B’;
A × B means ‘A is the husband of B’;
A ÷ B means ‘A is son of B’.
If, Y × M – T – Z ÷ L × U, then how is U related to Y?
(a) Mother
(b) Father
(c) Father-in-law
(d) Mother-in-law
2. Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
39, 50, 63, 80, ?, 122, 151, 182
(a) 108
(b) 105
(c) 99
(d) 90
3. Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
14 × 3 ÷ 27 + 54 – 9 = 21
(a) + and −
(b) × and −
(c) × and ÷
(d) ÷ and −
4. Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different.
(a) 39 : 270
(b) 31 : 214
(c) 21 : 154
(d) 37 : 256
5. Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship between the following classes?
Lady Constables, Uncles, Mothers
6. Select the letter will replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
A, J, E, L, I, N, O, P, U, ?
(a) B
(b) R
(c) K
(d) W
7. How many triangle are there in the given figure.
(a) 13
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 14
8. Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers in the given set.
(22, 64, 352)
(a) (27, 52, 453)
(b) (19, 52, 257)
(c) (14, 68, 238)
(d) (24, 16, 108)
9. Select the option in which the given figure X is embedded (rotation is not allowed).
10. What day of the week of 29 June 2010?
(a) Tuesday
(b) Sunday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Monday
11. The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?
12. Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which there are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
(a) KN
(b) LO
(c) AZ
(d) GT
13. Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion logically follow(s)
Statements:
(1) No garden is a park.
(2) Some gardens are schools.
Conclusions
(I) No park is a garden.
(II) Some schools are gardens.
(III) Some parks are gardens
(a) Either conclusion I or III and conclusion II follow
(b) Only conclusions II and III follow
(c) Either conclusion I or III follows
(d) Only conclusions I and II follow
14. Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd words.
(a) Cancer
(b) Asthma
(c) Diabetes
(d) Bone Marrow
15. Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.
3:51::7:?
(a) 319
(b) 679
(c) 609
(d) 335
16. Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
NAVIGATE, PCVIGATE, NAXKGATE, ?, NAVIGAVG
(a) NAVIJCTF
(b) PCVII CUG
(c) NAXKICTE
(d) NAVIICTE
17. Study the given pattern carefully and select he number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
15 18 ?
8 9 12
161 243 432
(a) 24
(b) 26
(c) 22
(d) 20
18. Select the correct mirror image of the given letter-cluster when a vertical mirror is placed on the right side of the cluster.
EWGZMPK
19. Select the dice that can be formed by folding the given sheet along the lines.
(a) Only A, B and C
(b) Only A and B
(c) Only A
(d) Only B and D
20. In a certain code language, ‘FIXATION’ is written as ‘AXIFNOIT’. How will ‘GLYCERIN’ be written as in that language?
(a) NIRECYLG
(b) CYLGNIRE
(c) LGZDGINR
(d) YLGECRNI
21. ‘Photoshop’ is related to ‘Software’ in the same way as ‘Optical Mouse’ is related to ‘________’.
(a) Touch-screen
(b) Hardware
(c) Hard-disc
(d) Malware
22. Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
23. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as t hat shared by the given pair of words.
Temple : Worship
(a) Church : Prayer
(b) Golden Temple : Amritsar
(c) Garden : Plants
(d) University : President
24. Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
(1) Casting (2) Acting (3) Film Shooting (4) Final Film (5) Editing
(a) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
(b) 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
(c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
(d) 3,1, 2, 5, 4
25. In a certain code language, ‘SPECIAL’ is coded as ‘20176410213’. How will ‘MACHINE’ be coded as in that language?
(a) 1424901056
(b) 1324810155
(c) 1524910146
(d) 1424910156
General Awareness
26. What does ‘C’ stand for in ITCZ?
(a) Constant
(b) Convection
(c) Circulation
(d) Convergence
27. What is the rank of India in the Global Peace Index 2019?
(a) 142
(b) 143
(c) 144
(d) 141
28. Who among the following was the mascot of the Men’s Hockey World Cup held at Bhubaneswar in 2018?
(a) Turtle Olly
(b) Shera
(c) Borobi
(d) Millie
29. Which tales are related with the painting and sculptures of the Ajanta caves?
(a) Pentamerone Tales
(b) Panchatantra Tales
(c) Hitopadesha Tales
(d) Jataka Tales
30. In 2019, IIT-Madras launched the country’s first indigenously designed standing wheelchair named is:
(a) Arise
(b) Optimist
(c) Marathon
(d) Awake
31. Who of the following authored the book ‘Revolution 2020’?
(a) Rupa Pai
(b) Arvind Kejriwal
(c) Devdutt Pattnaik
(d) Chetan Bhagat
32. How many medals did India win in the 2012 Summer Olympics?
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 4
33. Who among the following is NOT a recipient of the 2019 Mother Teresa Memorial Awards for Social Justice?
(a) Priti Patkar
(b) Medha Patkar
(c) Kailash Satyarthi
(d) Ajeet Singh
34. Which of the following ministries is NOT associated with the initiative of Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao Scheme?
(a) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(b) Ministry of Rural Development
(c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(d) Ministry of Human Resource Development
35. Which of the following events did NOT occur in 1919?
(a) Rowlatt Act was passed
(b) Partition of Bengal took place
(c) Montague Chelmsford Reform was announced
(d) Jallianwala Bagh tragedy took place
36. Constantan is an alloy of copper and ______.
(a) iron
(b) nickel
(c) aluminium
(d) tin
37. Which among the following is a non-biodegradable waste?
(a) Dead animals
(b) Plastic
(c) Flowers
(d) Vegetable
38. Who signed the treaty of Alinagar with the British?
(a) Alivardi Khan
(b) Mir Jafar
(c) Mir Qasim
(d) Siraj-ud-Daula
39. Which of the following is the lowermost layer of the Atmosphere?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Thermosphere
(d) Mesosphere
40. Which of the following states does NOT share its boundary with Nepal?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) West Bengal
(d) Bihar
41. How many molecules of ATP are obtained by the respiration of one molecule of glucose?
(a) 38
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 36
42. ‘Pedology’ is the science of:
(a) soil
(b) childhood illness
(c) ground water
(d) skin disease
43. Under which Amendment to the Constitution of India was Goods and Services Tax imposed?
(a) 97th
(b) 101st
(c) 99th
(d) 103rd
44. What is the rank of India in the Human Development Index 2019?
(a) 128th
(b) 89th
(c) 129th
(d) 130th
45. In July 2019, which of the following schemes was launched to accelerate water harvesting and conservation measures?
(a) Jal Vikas Abhiyan
(b) Jal Bachao Abhiyan
(c) Jal hi dhan hai Abhiyan
(d) Jal Shakti Abhiyan
46. Which of the following rivers was known as Purushni in the Vedic period?
(a) Chenab
(b) Sutlej
(c) Beas
(d) Ravi
47. In which state is the festival of Uttarayan uniquely celebrated?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Kerala
48. The rating for a fuse used in a household electric circuit is provided on the basis of:
(a) current
(b) resistance
(c) power
(d) voltage
49. Who among the following initiated ‘Din-i-illhai’?
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Jahangir
(d) Akbar
50. Who among the following is the Chief Minister of Mizoram as on November 2019?
(a) Neiphiu Rio
(b) Laldenga
(c) PU Zoramthanga
(d) Conrad Kongkal Sangma
Quantitative Aptitude
51. The following table shows the production of fertilizers (in lakh tonne) by six companies for 5 months (January to May).
There a continuous decrease in production over the months in:
(a) Company I
(b) Company II
(c) Company IV
(d) Company III
52. A shopkeeper buys two books from Rs 3000.. He sells the first book at a profit of 20% and the second book at a loss of 10%. What is the selling price of the first book, if, in the whole transaction there is no profit no loss?
(a) Rs 115
(b) Rs 125
(c) Rs 120
(d) Rs 110
53. When 2 is subtracted from each of the given an numbers, then the sum of the numbers so obtained is 102. When 5 is subtracted from each of them, then the sum of the numbers so obtained is 12. What is the average of the given n number?
(a) 5.8
(b) 5.4
(c) 6.6
(d) 6.2
54. A certain sum amounts to Rs 280900 in 2 years at 6% per annum, interest compounded annually. The sum is:
(a) Rs 350000
(b) Rs 250000
(c) Rs 200000
(d) Rs 550000
55. The average of 4 terms is 30 and the 1st term is 1/3 of the sum of the remaining terms. What is the first term?
(a) 40
(b) 30
(c) 20
(d) 60
56. Solve the following.
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 0
57. A wheel covers a distance of 1,100 cum in one round. The diameter of the wheel is:
(a) 100 cm
(b) 175 cm
(c) 125 cm
(d) 150 cm
58. Solve the following expression.
11 + 11 × 11 – 11 ÷ 11
(a) 22
(b) 131
(c) 121
(d) 11
59. If 5 divided the integer n, the remainder is 2. What will be the remainder if 7n is divided by 5?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4
60. The volumes of spheres A and B are in the ratio 125 : 64. If the sum of radii of A and B is 36 cm, then the surface area (in cm2) of A is:
(a) 800 π
(b) 512 π
(c) 1600 π
(d) 1024 π
61. Arrange the angles of the triangle from smallest to largest in the triangle, where the sides are AB = 7 cm, AC = 8 cm, BC = 9 cm. AB = 7 cm, AC = 8 cm, BC = 9 cm
(a) A, B, C
(b) C, B, D
(c) C, B, A
(d) B, A, C
62. If a = 2b = 8c and a + b + c = 13 then the value of 
is:
(a) 9/2
(b) 5/6
(c) −9/2
(d) −5/6
63. In a circle, chords PQ and TS are produced to meet at R. If RQ = 14.4 cm , PQ = 11.2 cm, and SR = 12.8 cm, then the length of chord of TS is:
(a) 18 cm
(b) 14.2 cm
(c) 12.4 cm
(d) 16 cm
64. A, B and C can individually complete a task in 24 days, 16 days, and 32 days respectively. If A and C start the work and worked for 6 days and left, then the number of days required by B to complete the remaining task, is:
(a) 9
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
65. The following table shows the imports and exports (in Rs 2019).
The average trade balance (in Rs crores) is:
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 12
66. Find the height of a cuboid whose volume is 330 cm2 and base area is 15 cm2.
(a) 22 cm
(b) 21 cm
(c) 19 cm
(d) 24 cm
67. If 5 cot θ = 3, find the value of 
(a) 20/41
(b) 44/21
(c) 11/40
(d) 21/44
68. If x, y, z are three numbers such that x + y = 13, y + z = 15 and z + x = 16, then the value of xy + xz is:
(a) 5/36
(b) 18/5
(c) 5/18
(d) 36/5
69. A train X travelling at 60 km/h overtakes another train Y, 225 m long, and completely passes it in 72 seconds. If the trains had been going in opposite directions, they would have passed each other in 18 seconds. The length (in m) of X and the speed (in km/h) of Y are respectively:
(a) 245 and 45/245
(b) 245 and 54/245
(c) 255 and 36/255
(d) 255 and 40/255
70. If a2 + b2 – c2 = 0, then the value of 
is:
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) 3
71. Study the following table and answer the question.
Expenditures of a company (in Lakh Rupees) per annum over the given Years
Total expenditure on all the items in 2014 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2018?
(a) 65.32%
(b) 68.32%
(c) 66.32%
(d) 60.32%
72. A man wanted to sell his bat at a discount of 8%. His brother who was the cricketer wanted to buy the bat, so the man sells it at a discount of 10%. In this deal, the man reduces Rs 70 in profit. What was the market value of the bat?
(a) Rs 3,000
(b) Rs 3,500
(c) Rs 2,500
(d) Rs 3,200
73. Amit travelled a distance of 50 km in 9 hours. He travelled partly on foot at 5 km/h and partly by bicycle at 10 km/h. The distance travelled on the bicycle is:
(a) 12 km
(b) 13 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 11 km
74. The value (cosec A + cot A + 1) (cosec A – cot A + 1) – 2 cosec A is:
(a) 2
(b) 0
(c) 4 cosec A
(d) 2 cosec A
75. The following table shows the production of fertilizers (in lakh tonne) by six companies for 5 months (January to May).
In which months does Company II have a contribution of approximately 20% iin the total fertilizer production?
(a) May
(b) April
(c) January
(d) March
English Comprehension
76. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Abort
(a) Continue
(b) Begin
(c) End
(d) Hate
77. In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
We must get this post send as soon as possible.
(a) We must get
(b) soon as possible
(c) this post
(d) send as
78. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select no improvement.
I was sitting at home doing nothing when I had heard that song again.
(a) hears
(b) heard
(c) has heard
(d) No improvement
79. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
(A) They also visit ailing friends and relatives, or attend to personal matters even during office hours.
(B) Once in office, they receive friends and relatives who call them any time without prior appointment.
(C) We can frequently find a large number of people sitting here and there and doing nothing.
(D) Even those who are employed often come late to office and leave early unless they are forced to be punctual.
(a) ABCD
(b) CDBA
(c) DCAB
(d) ACDB
80. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
Having something more than required
(a) Surplus
(b) Surrogate
(c) Surroundings
(d) Surcharge
81. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
“What are you going to call the puppy, Jane,?” the boy asked.
(a) Jane asked the boy what is he going to call the puppy.
(b) The boy wondered what Jane were going to call the puppy.
(c) The boy asked Jane what she was going to call the puppy.
(d) The boy told Jane what she was going to call her puppy.
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
In a way, adult education is an educational movement through the medium (1) _____ village school. In the beginning, the (2) ______ were suspicious. It was hard to persuade (3) _____ to realize that they were really getting something (4) _____ the schools. They were not at all sure that they wanted their (5) ______ to leave their homes.
82. Select the most appropriate option for the blank numbered 1.
(a) by
(b) in
(c) from
(d) of
83. Select the most appropriate option for the blank numbered 2.
(a) politicians
(b) villagers
(c) officers
(d) children
84. Select the most appropriate option for the blank numbered 3.
(a) us
(b) him
(c) them
(d) they
85. Select the most appropriate option for the blank numbered 4.
(a) by
(b) to
(c) from
(d) for
86. Select the most appropriate option for the blank numbered 5.
(a) teachers
(b) children
(c) parents
(d) villagers
87. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
Anger about an unfair situation or about someone’s unfair behavior.
(a) Indignation
(b) Indulgence
(c) Induction
(d) Indigenization
88. Select the most appropriate meaning of the following idiom.
Blind alley
(a) A person who comes to meet occasionally
(b) A situation in which no further progress can be made
(c) Taking first step after somebody’s approach
(d) A state of deep thought
89. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Mellow
(a) Medium
(b) Shiny
(c) Soft
(d) Hard
90. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
One evening, when father was coming home from work, I played in the front garden.
(a) was playing
(b) a playing
(c) play
(d) No improvement
91. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
(a) Guarantee
(b) Dilemma
(c) Athelete
(d) Convenience
92. Select the correct passive from of the given sentence.
The commander order his soldiers to move forward and attack the enemy camps.
(a) The soldiers were ordered by their commander to move forward and attack the enemy camps.
(b) The commander ordered his soldiers to be moved forward and attacked the enemy camps.
(c) The commander was ordered by his soldiers to move forward and attack the enemy camps.
(d) His soldiers were ordered by the commander to be move forward and attacked the enemy camps
93. Select the word appropriate synonym of the given word.
Exceed
(a) Improve
(b) Decline
(c) Surpass
(d) Decrease
94. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
My cousin’s study on the reading habits of school children across three states has been recognized as a _______ piece research.
(a) pioneering
(b) negligent
(c) useless
(d) proud
95. Select the most appropriate meaning of the following idiom
The acid test
(a) Throwing acid on someone’s face
(b) A critical situation or crisis
(c) A fact, event or situation that proves something
(d) An unpleasant or offensive test
96. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Suzerainty is having political control over a _______ state.
(a) democratic
(b) backward
(c) dependent
(d) unified
97. In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
Sita has no tate in classical dance.
(a) in
(b) classical dance
(c) Sita has
(d) no taste
98. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
(A) Accommodation and food were given free.
(B) This was held in a hostel for poor students built by a philanthropist.
(C) A few years ago, I was the chief guest at a small function.
(D) But the inmates of the hostel has to hear other expenses like clothing and toiletries.
(a) ABCD
(b) BCAD
(c) BCDA
(d) CBAD
99. Select the most appropriate ANOTNYM of the given word.
Emerge
(a) Surface
(b) Disappear
(c) Announce
(d) Appear
100. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
(a) Soldier
(b) Beginning
(c) Guidence
(d) Shining
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 09-03-2020 Time 10.00-11.00 AM Question Paper With Answer Key
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 09-03-2020 Time 10:00-11.00 AM
General Intelligence and Reasoning
1. Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers in the given set.
(88, 60, 37)
(a) (36, 70, 38)
(b) (43, 49, 27)
(c) (56, 38, 28)
(d) (94, 42, 34)
2. ‘Ethiopia’ is related to ‘Africa’ in the same way as ‘Brazil’ is related to’
(a) Brasilia
(b) South America
(c) Africa
(d) North America
3. Four letter-clusters have been given. Out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
(a) JNQS
(b) RSTU
(c) TVXZ
(d) ADGJ
4. In a certain code language, ‘POUND’ is coded as ‘106’ and ‘CLEAN’ is coded as ‘41’. How will ‘MAKER’ be coded as in that language?
(a) 112
(b) 50
(c) 54
(d) 78
5. Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is not allowed).
6. Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship between the classes?
Tables, Wooden objects, Chairs
7. Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different from the rest.
(a) 53 : 378
(b) 45 : 322
(c) 37 : 266
(d) 43 : 318
8. Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
DJQC, ELTG, FNWK, GPZO, ?
(a) HRCS
(b) HRBU
(c) HQCT
(d) GRDS
9. 60 students participated in one or more of the three competitions, i.e. Quiz, Extempore and Debate. A total of 22 students participated either in Quiz only or in Extempore only. 4 students participated in all three competitions. A total of 14 students participated in any of the two competitions only. How many students participated in Debate only?
(a) 22
(b) 11
(c) 20
(d) 14
10. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words.
Audition : Selection
(a) Competition : Poem
(b) Machine : Fault
(c) Examination: Pass
(d) Loyalty : Fraud
11. Select the letter that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
Y, R, L, G, ?, Z
(a) F
(b) E
(c) D
(d) C
12. Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd word.
(a) Volume
(b) Gallon
(c) Distance
(d) Weight
13. Arrange the following words in the order in which they would appear in an English dictionary.
(1) Realistic (2) Realism (3) Restore (4) Research (5) Resurge
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
(b) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(d) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
14. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known fats, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) the statements.
Statements:
(1) Some dancers are writers.
(2) All writers are students.
Conclusion:
(I) Some students are dancers.
(II) Some students are writers.
(III) No student is a dancer.
(a) Only conclusion II and III
(b) Either conclusion I or III follows
(c) Only conclusion I and II follows
(d) All conclusions I, II and III follows
15. Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.
56 : 30 :: 78 : ?
(a) 61
(b) 53
(c) 50
(d) 56
16. In a certain code language ‘DRONE’ is written as ‘SERFO’. How will ‘HOUSE’ be written as I that language?
(a) PIXFT
(b) QJXGB
(c) PQWGS
(d) PIVFT
17. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. Select from t he given answer figures, how it will appear when unfolded?
18. A + B means ‘A’ is the father of B’;
A × B means ‘A is the brother of B’;
A ÷ B means ‘A is the sister of B’.
Which of the following expression means ‘H is the paternal grandson of P’?
(a) P + K + D ÷ H × M
(b) D + H + K × M ÷ P
(c) P + K + D × H ÷ M
(d) H + K + D × P ÷ M
19. Identify the number that does NOT belong to the following series.
2, 6, 14, 0, 62, 126, 250
(a) 62
(b) 126
(c) 250
(d) 14
20. How many triangles are there in the given figure?
(a) 24
(b) 22
(c) 21
(d) 23
21. Select the correct mirror image of the given letter-cluster when a vertical mirror is placed on the right side of the cluster.
RQBKHNT
22. A cube is made by folding the given sheet. In the cube so formed, which of the following pairs of letters will be on opposite sides?
(a) A & Q
(b) Q & E
(c) L & U
(d) B & E
23. If ‘A’ stands for ‘subtraction’, ‘B’ stands for ‘multiplication’, ‘C’ stands for ‘addition’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘division’, then what is the value of the following expression?
32 B 4 A 12 B (35 A 24) C 52 D 4
(a) 47
(b) 9
(c) 39
(d) 19
24. Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
25. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
(a) 108
(b) 69
(c) 205
(d) 55
General Awareness
26. Name the Indian equestrian to qualify for the Tokyo Olympics officially after a wait/span of two decades.
(a) Fouaad Mirza
(b) Ghulam Mohammed Khan
(c) Raghubir Singh
(d) Vishal Singh
27. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) celebrated its _______foundation day on January 15, 2020.
(a) 135th
(b) 145th
(c) 140th
(d) 139th
28. In which of the following is citric acid present?
(a) Curd
(b) Black Gram
(c) Lemon
(d) Tamarind
29. The Paithan Hydro-Electric Project is on river ______.
(a) Godavari
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Narmada
(d) Yamuna
30. Shaukat Kaifi passed away in 2019. She was the mother of which famous actress?
(a) Dia Mirza
(b) Shabana Azmi
(c) Fatima Sana Shaikh
(d) Urmila Matondkar
31. Which of the following years is called the year of the Great Divide in the demographic history of India?
(a) 1931
(b) 1911
(c) 1921
(d) 1951
32. Jai Prakash Narayn Museum of Socialism is situated in:
(a) Amritsar
(b) New Delhi
(c) Lcuknow
(d) Vadodara
33. Fatehabad district derives its name from the eponymous headquarters town founded by ______ in the 14th century, who named it after his son Fateh Khan.
(a) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(b) Ghiyasuddin
(c) Humayun
(d) Allauddin Khilji
34. What is the yellow dust present in the middle of a flower called?
(a) Pollen
(b) Sperm
(c) Stomata
(d) Zygote
35. What does the writ of ‘Mandamus’ mean?
(a) We Command
(b) You May Have the Body
(c) By What Warrants
(d) To be Certified
36. _________ are called the ‘Powerhouses’ of the cell.
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Pituitary glands
(c) Arteries
(d) Lungs
37. Which of the following Acts was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework?
(a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934
(c) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961
(d) The Industrial Finance Corporation of India Act, 1948
38. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins causes Night Blindness?
(a) Vitamin B
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin A
39. Who designed the logo for Lokpal in India?
(a) Kamareddy
(b) B.P. Raju
(c) Prashant
(d) Deepak Punia
40. The wood of which of the following trees is used to make the large plucked string instrument used in Carnatic classical music known as Bobbili Veena/Saraswathi Veena?
(a) Sandal wood
(b) Jackfruit wood
(c) Teak wood
(d) Walnut wood
41. Name the author of the book ‘Ain-i-Akbari’?
(a) Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khan
(b) Dara Shikoh
(c) Todar Mal
(d) Abul’Fazl
42. Protium, deuterium and tritium are the naturally occurring isotopes of:
(a) hydrogen
(b) carbon
(c) gold
(d) nitrogen
43. Who launched the first phase of the Mumbai Trans Harbour Link (MTHL) on 15th January 2020?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Ajit Pawar
(c) Devendra Fadnavis
(d) Uddhav Thackeray
44. In which year was the first Round Table Conference held in London?
(a) 1930
(b) 1923
(c) 1907
(d) 1919
45. The Legislative Assembly of which state adopted a new logo on the 9th January 2020?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tripura
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Assam
46. What is the pass at the southern end of the Nilgiri hills called?
(a) Goran ghat pass
(b) Malshej ghat pass
(c) Palakkad gap
(d) Chorla ghat pass
47. On which country has the World Anti-doping Agency recently imposed a 4-year ban?
(a) China
(b) Pakistan
(c) Brazil
(d) Russia
48. Name the first actor to win the Oscar Awards.
(a) Lionel Barrymore
(b) Warner Baxter
(c) Emil Jannings
(d) Charlie Chaplin
49. What does GNP stand for?
(a) Gramin Nigam Parishad
(b) Gramin Nisak Praman
(c) Gross National Product
(d) Gross National Produce
50. In which year did the Portuguese capture Goa?
(a) 1610 (AD)
(b) 1510 (AD)
(c) 1540 (AD)
(d) 1475 (AD)
Quantitative Aptitude
51. In the figure, PA is a tangent from an external point P to the circle with centre O. If ∠POB = 110°, then the measure of ∠APO is:
(a) 30°
(b) 25°
(c) 20°
(d) 40°
52. If 6 tan θ – 5√3 sec θ + 12 cot θ = 0, 0° < θ < 90°, then the value of (cosec θ + sec θ) is:
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
53. X and Y are two stations which are 280 km apart. A train starts at a certain time from X and travels towards Y at 60 km/h. After 2 hours, another train starts from Y and travels towards X at 20 km/h. After how many hours does the train leaving from X meets the train which left from Y?
(a) 3 hours
(b) 6 hours
(c) 2 hours
(d) 4 hours
54. The following table represents the number of candidates that appeared and qualified in a competitive examination from different states over five years. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.
What was the total number of candidates appearing from all the states in the years 1997?
(a) 22,700
(b) 27,200
(c) 27,000
(d) 72,200
55. Expand : (4a + 3b + 2c)2
(a) 4a2 + 3b2 + 2c2 + 4ab + 12c + 16 ca
(b) 16a2 – 9b2 + 4c2 – 24ab + 12bc – 16 ca
(c) 16a2 + 9b2 + 4c2 + 24ab + 12bc + 16 ca
(d) 16a2 + 9b2 + 4c2 – 24ab – 12bc – 16ca
56. Ravi scores 72% marks in examinations. If these are 360 marks, then the maximum marks are:
(a) 350
(b) 450
(c) 400
(d) 500
57. (3a – 4b)3 is equal to:
(a) 27a3 – 64b3
(b) 27a3 – 64b3 – 108a2b + 144ab2
(c) 9a2 – 24ab + 16b2
(d) 9a2 – 16b2
58. Triangle PDC is drawn inside the square ABCD of side 24 cm where P lies on AB. What is the area of the triangle?
(a) 280 cm2
(b) 200 cm2
(c) 298 cm2
(d) 288 cm2
59. The following table represents the number of candidates that appeared and qualified in a competitive examination from different state over five years. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.
The total number of candidates that qualified from all the states together in 1998 is approximately what percentage of the total number of candidates that qualified from all the states together in 2001? (Correct to two decimal points)
(a) 94.7%
(b) 97.72%
(c) 96.70%
(d) 90.72%
60. What is the smallest integer that is a multiple of 5, 8 and 15?
(a) 40
(b) 60
(c) 600
(d) 120
61. If A + B = 12 and AB = 17, what is the value of A3 + B3?
(a) 1116
(b) 1106
(c) 1166
(d) 1213
62. The following table represents the number of candidates that appeared and qualified in a competitive examination from different states over five years. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.
What is the difference between the number of candidates qualifying in the year 1998, in the states M and P?
(a) 60
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 44
63. The single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 20% and 15% is:
(a) 32%
(b) 30%
(c) 28%
(d) 22%
64. The length, breadth and height of a cuboidal box are in the ratio 7 : 5 : 3 and its whole surface area is 27832 cm2. Its volume is:
(a) 208120 cm3
(b) 280120 cm3
(c) 288100 cm3
(d) 288120 cm3
65. In the given figure ∆ABC, if θ = 80°, the measure of each of the other two angles will be:
(a) 60°
(b) 40°
(c) 80°
(d) 50°
66. If 3A = 4B = 5C, then A : B : C is equal to:
(a) 10 : 7 : 6
(b) 10 : 5 : 4
(c) 20 : 15 : 12
(d) 20 : 15 : 16
67. The average age of A, B and C is 20 years, and that of B and C is 25 years. What is the age of age of A?
(a) 20 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 25 years
68. Ram and Shyam can complete a task in 
and 15 days, respectively. They work together for 4 days, and then Ram leaves. In how many days after Ram leaves, will Shyam complete the remaining task alone?
(a) 
(b) 2 day
(c) 3 day
(d) 4 day
69. Seema flies a kits on a 16 m string at an inclination of 60°. What is the height (h) of the kite above the ground?
(a) 4√3 m
(b) 16√3 m
(c) 6√3 m
(d) 8√3 m
70. The simple interest on a sum of money for 3 years at an interest rate of 6% p.a. is Rs 6,750. What will be the compound interest rounded off on the same sum at the same rate for the same period, compounded annually is closest to:
(a) Rs 7,103
(b) Rs 7,133
(c) Rs 7,663
(d) Rs 7,163
71. The following table represents the number of candidates that appeared and qualified in a competitive examination from different states over five years. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.
What is the average number of candidates that appeared from State Q during the given years?
(a) 8880
(b) 9000
(c) 8990
(d) 8980
72. The value of 1800 ÷ 20 × {(12 – 6) + (24 – 12)} is:
(a) 2720
(b) 840
(c) 1720
(d) 1620
73. What is the area of a sector of a circle of radius 14 cm and central angle 45°? (Take π = 22/7)
(a) 67 cm2
(b) 77 cm2
(c) 70 cm2
(d) 11 cm2
74. In the right angle triangle shown in the figure, what is the value of cosec θ?
(a) 13/5
(b) 12/13
(c) 5/13
(d) 5/11
75. Ram makes a profit of 30% by selling an article. What would be the profit percent if it were calculated on the selling price instead of the cost price? (Correct to one decimal place)
(a) 20.1%
(b) 24.2%
(c) 23.1%
(d) 22.4%
English Comprehension
76. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select no improvement.
Our new office will become operational from a weeks time.
(a) No improvement
(b) for a weeks time
(c) by the week’s time
(d) in a week’s time
77. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
You will not learn cycling Unless you don’t try.
(a) until you are not trying
(b) until you don’t try
(c) unless you try
(d) unless you didn’t try
78. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Solemn.
(a) Serious
(b) Ordinary
(c) Ignorant
(d) Furious
79. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Kill two birds with one stone
(a) To achieve two results with a single effort.
(b) To try something impossible
(c) To plan two murders simultaneously
(d) To be an expert shooter
80. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
Fortunately, the fire did not cause much damage.
(a) Fortunately, not much damage is being caused by the fire.
(b) Fortunately not much damage was caused by the fire.
(c) Fortunately, not much damage was being caused by the fire.
(d) Fortunately, not much damage is caused by the fire.
81. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
Rahul said to his mother, “Can I go out and play now?”
(a) Rahul asked his mother if he could go out and play then.
(b) Rahul asked his mother that could he go out and play then.
(c) Rahul asked his mother if can he go out and play now.
(d) Rahul asked to his mother could he go out and play now.
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Tourism can cause social, cultural or environmental disruption. The greatest concern is (1) ________ damage to environment. In order to attract more tourist, (2) ________ resorts are built which take neither the local architecture (3) _______ the ecology into consideration. Natural systems get (4) _______ as a result of indiscriminate construction to provide water (5) ________ waste disposal facilities along with recreational arrangements to tourists.
82. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (1).
(a) an
(b) one
(c) the
(d) a
83. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (2).
(a) spreading
(b) stretching
(c) scheming
(d) sprawling
84. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (3).
(a) none
(b) no
(c) or
(d) nor
85. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (4).
(a) destroyed
(b) distracted
(c) dismayed
(d) displayed
86. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (5).
(a) and
(b) also
(c) but
(d) as
87. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Persuade.
(a) Dissuade
(b) Pervade
(c) Induce
(d) Impress
88. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
(A) Their prestige and glory spread far and wide.
(B) The first Olympics were held at Olympia in Greece in 776 B.C.
(C) It was because the Christians believed that they encouraged pagan worship in temples.
(D) However, with the advent of Christianity, the games lost their importance.
(a) BADC
(b) DCAB
(c) BCDA
(d) ACDB
89. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Rear
(a) Front
(b) Lower
(c) Hind
(d) Back
90. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Eradicate
(a) Approve
(b) Magnify
(c) Condense
(d) Uproot
91. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Make off with
(a) To discover
(b) To transfer
(c) To run away
(d) To understand
92. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.
Do you want to _______ to Reader’s Digest magazine?
(a) Subscribe
(b) transcribe
(c) prescribe
(d) describe
93. In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
If a few drops of lemon are put in the milk, it has turned sour.
(a) drops of lemon
(b) are put in the milk
(c) If few
(d) it has turned sour
94. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
(a) Journy
(b) Furious
(c) Failure
(d) Delicious
95. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
Person or animal living on another
(a) Parasite
(b) Heir
(c) Successor
(d) Pupil
96. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
(a) Potraite
(b) Persevere
(c) Pageant
(d) Pamphlet
97. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.
Your demands are bound to lead to _____ in the family.
(a) discord
(b) barrier
(c) absence
(d) decrease
98. In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
Mohit did not went to school yesterday as he was unwell.
(a) went to school
(b) was unwell
(c) yesterday as he
(d) Mohit did not
99. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
(A) These baits were temptations that people couldn’t resist.
(B) He evolved a theory that the world was a rat-trap.
(C) Once, a peddler sat looking at his rat-traps.
(D) Here, people lay baits for others.
(a) CBDA
(b) BDAC
(c) DACB
(d) CADB
100. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
Central character in a story or play.
(a) Hedonist
(b) Cartoonist
(c) Opportunist
(d) Protagonist
Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2014 Question Paper
Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination-2014
Paper-I
Part-A : Mathematics
Directions (Qs. 1 to 20) : Bear 2 marks each.
1. Represent 4/8 and −7/4 on the number line.
2. 
3. The sum of two number is 15 and the sum of their squares is 113. Find the numbers.
4. Multiply : (a + 7) by (a2 + 3a + 5).
5. If 
find the value of 
6. Factorize: 25a2 – 4b2 + 28bc – 49c2.
7. 
8. Find the square root of 128881 by the division method.
9. Arun bought a pair of Skates at a sale where the discount given was 20%. If the amount he pays is Rs 1600. find the marked price.
10. Find the Compound interest on Rs 12600 for 2 yrs at 10% per annum Compounded annually.
11. Two adjacent angles of a Parallelogram have equal measures. Find the measure of each of the angles of the Parallelogram.
12. An Unbiased Die is thrown. What is the Probability of getting an even number greater than 5?
13. Find the ratio of the circumferences of two concentric circles of radii 2 m and 3 m.
14. The median of the given data is:
133, 73, 89, 108, 94, 140, 94, 85, 100, 120.
(a) 97 (b) 79
(c) 94 (d) None of these
15. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 3. If they differ by 18, then the numbers are:
(a) 36 and 54 (b) 36 and 18
(c) 45 and 27 (d) 63 and 45
16. The point (0, 6) lies on:
(a) X-axis (b) Y-axis
(c) Origin (d) None of these
17. The smallest natural number by which 392 must be multiplied so as to get a Perfect Cube is:
(a) 2 (b) 7
(c) 4 (d) 5
18. The diagonals of a rhombus are 64 cm and 48 cm. The height of the rhombus is:
(a) 30.5 cm (b) 36.5 cm
(c) 38.4 cm (d) 58.6 cm
19. In the figure given below, find the value of x.
20. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 105. Find the numbers.
Directions (Qs. 21 to 40): Bear 3 marks each.
21. A number consisting of two digits becomes 5/6 of itself, if its digits are interchanged. If the difference of the digits is 1, find the number.
22. 
23. 
24. Find the value of : 
25. If (x + y +z) = 9 and (xy + y z + zx) = 23, then find the value of (x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz)/
26. Find the area of a rhombus whose side is 6 cm and whose altitude is 4 cm.
27. 
28. An article was sold at Rs 18000 at a discount of 10%. Find the marked price of the article and the amount of discount allowed.
29. Find k, (3/7)−5 × (7/3)11 = (3/7)8k.
30. Divide: (x3/2 – xy1/2 + x1/2y – y3/2) by (x1/2 – y1/2)
31. There are 100 students in a hostel. Food provision for them is for 20 days. How long will these Provision last, if 25 more students join the group?
32. The area of a trapezium is 384 cm2. If its parallel sides are in the ratio 3:5 and the perpendicular distance between them is 12 cm, find the smaller of parallel sides.
33. If two adjacent angles of a parallelogram are in the ratio 5 : 4, find all the angles of the parallelogram.
34. Find the least number that must be added to 1300 so as to get a Perfect Square.
35. Simplify: (a + b) (c – d) + (a – b) (c + d) + 2(ac + bd).
36. Find the height of a Cylinder whose radius is 7 cm and the total Surface area is 968 cm2.
(Use π = 22/7)
37. Construct a frequency distribution table for the data on weights (in kg) of 20 students of a class using the intervals 30 – 35, 30 – 35 and so on.
40, 38, 33, 48, 60, 53, 31, 46, 34, 36, 49, 41, 55, 49, 65, 42, 44, 47, 38, 39.
38. Rs 1400 is divided among A, B, C so that A receives half as much as B and B receives half as much as C. How much will each of them get?
39. Examine if 117912 is a perfect cube or not. If not, find the smallest positive integer by which it must be multiplied so that the product is a perfect cube.
40. A well with 14 m inside diameter is dug 8 m deep. The Earth taken out of it has been evenly spread all around it to a width of 21 m to form an embankment. Find the height of the embankment.
Directions (Qs. 41 to 50): Bear 10 marks each.
41. Arjun is twice is old as Shriya. Five years ago his age was three times Shriy’s age. Find their present ages.
42. The adjacent figure HOPE is a parallelogram. Find the angles measures x, y and z.
43. A sum of money at compound interest amounts to thrice in 3 years. In how many years will it be 9 times itself at the same rate of interest?
44. (a) Factorise: x2 + 6x – 16.
(b) If a + b = 14 and ab = 20, find the value of a2 + b2
45. A road roller takes 750 complete revolutions to move once over to level a road. Find the area of the road if the diameter of a road roller is 85 cm and length is 1 m.
46. The shape of a garden is rectangular in the middle and semi-circular ends. Total length of the garden including the semi-circular ends is 20 m and its breadth is 7 m. Find the perimeter and area of the garden.
47. The denominator of a rational number is greater than its numerator by 8. If the numerator is increased by 17 and the denominator is decreased by 1, the number obtained is 3/2. Find the rational number.
48. During a Sale, a shop offered a discount of 10% on the marked prices of all the items. What would a customer have to pay for a pair of jeans marked at Rs 1450 and two shirts marked at Rs 850 each?
49. Factorise and then Simplify the expression, 12xy(9x2 – 16y2) ÷ 4xy(3x + 4y).
50. A cow it tied to a pole fixed at one corner of a square field of grass of side 40 m by means of a rope 20 m long. Taking π = 3.14
(i) find the maximum area of the part of the field in which the cow can graze.
(ii) find the area of the remaining part of the field.
(iii) find the length of the rope, if the cow grazes 1256 m2 of the field.
Part-B : Science
Note: Part ‘B’ bearing 75 marks, contains 37 questions, Q. Nos. 1 to 15 carry one mark each, Q. Nos. 16 to 25 carry two marks each Q. Nos. 26 to 35 carry three marks each, Q. Nos. 36 and 37 carry five marks each.
1. Malaria is caused by:
(a) Virus (b) Protozoa
(c) Bacteria (d) Fungi
Answer: (B)
2. The next nearest start to earth other than the Sun is:
(a) Aurora Australis (b) Aurora Barialis
(c) Alpha Centauri (d) Proxima Centauri
Answer: (D)
3. The only non-metal which is liquid in state at room temperature is:
(a) Bromine (b) Boron
(c) Iodine (d) Indium
Answer: (A)
4. A cubical wooden block has the dimension 30 cm × 20 cm × 10 cm, placed on a flat surface. In which of the following cases the pressure applied is maximum?
When it is placed on surface area
(a) 30 cm × 20 cm
(b) 20 cm × 10 cm
(c) 30 cm × 10 cm
(d) None of the above
Answer: (A)
5. What is the time taken by the moon to complete one revolution around the Sun?
(a) 29 days (b) 15 days
(c) 36 days (approx.) (d) 183 days (approx.)
Answer: (A)
6. Which one of the following is not a communicable disease?
(a) Cholera (b) Tuberculosis
(c) Common cold (d) Polio
Answer: (A)
7. Which is correct order to Agricultural practices?
(i) Tilling
(ii) Irrigation
(iii) Sowing
(iv) Adding manure and fertilizer
(v) Harvesting
(a) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii), (v)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii), (v)
(c) (ii), (i), (iv), (v), (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (ii), (v), (iv)
Answer: (B)
8. When disease carrying microbe enters our body, the body produces
(a) Antigen (b) Antidote
(c) Antibody (d) Antioxidant
Answer: (C)
9. The gland known as ‘Master gland’ in our body is:
(a) Sweat gland (b) Pituitary gland
(c) Salivary gland (d) Sebaceous gland
Answer: (B)
10. If a ray of light incident on a plane mirror along the normal then the measure of the angle of incidence (in degree)
(a) 90
(b) 45
(c) 0
(d) Depends on which direction the ray is reflected
Answer: (C)
11. The instrument used to detect the charge in a body is
(a) Electrometer (b) Electroscope
(c) Voltmeter (d) Barometer
Answer: (B)
12. For a male child the pair of chromosomes should be
(a) XX (b) XY
(c) YX (d) YY
Answer: (B)
13. The waves produces by earthquake on the surface of earth is known as
(a) Seismic wave (b) Shock wave
(c) Mechanical wave (d) Matter wave
Answer: (A)
14. The axis of the Earth inclined to its orbital plane at an angle of
(a) 23.5 degree (b) 53.6 degree
(c) 66.5 degree (d) 90 degree
Answer: (C)
15. If you stand between two parallel mirrors the number of image/images that you observe is/are
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Eight (d) Infinite
Answer: (D)
16. Write two suitable examples where friction is increased for our benefit.
17. When a copper vessel is exposed to moist air for long it acquires a dull green coating. Why?
18. Why fossil fuels are exhaustible natural resources?
19. What are Endemic and Endangered Species? Give one example of each?
20. A force of 60 N is applied towards east direction.
What is the magnitude and direction of the force so that:
(a) The net force is zero
(b) The net force is 110 N towards East?
21. What are chromosomes? What are their function?
22. What is Global warming? Why it is a major concern for us?
23. Why are the oily food stuffs such as chips and kurkures are kept in sealed packet and flushed with nitrogen?
24. Why ornaments are generally made with Gold and Silver?
25. Paper b itself catches fire easily whereas a piece of paper wrapped around an aluminum pipe does not-Give reason.
26. What is Acid rain? What are its consequences?
27. 
(a) Which sound wave is of more pitch?
(b) Which one is more loud sound?
28. How do amoeba reproduce? Explain in brief with suitable diagram.
29. Write has differences between a plant cell and animal cell.
30. Current is passed through Copper sulphate (blue colour) solution kept in a beaker by two copper rods connected with a battery.
(a) What changes do you notice in the solution and why?
(b) On which electrode a brown deposition is seen?
(c) Mark the two electrodes as anode and cathode.
31. What are Geostationary Satellites? What are their uses?
32. As a member of your society what would you do to reduce air pollution?
33. What are Hormones? Why adrenalin is known as Stress hormone? From where Insulin and Thyroxin hormones are produced?
34. Why lightning occurs between two clouds?
35. How do we hear any sound?
36. Two beakers marked ‘A’ and ‘B’ contains aqueous solution of copper sulphate (CuSO4) and Ferrous sulphate (FeSO4) respectively. An Iron rod is placed in beaker A and a copper rod in beaker B. What changes do you observe after some time in the two beakers?
37. If there is any change explain it with proper chemical equation.
(a) Draw a diagram of human eye and label
(i) Retina (iv) Cilliary muscles
(ii) Optic nerve (v) Eye lens
(iii) Cornea (vi) Iris
(b) How our eye adjusts automatically with the varying intensity of light?
Paper-II
Part-A : English Language
1. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 5 = 15)
Rain in countryside attracts the lovers of nature. It is pleasant and helpful. But rain in city creates a different kind of sight. For some people the heavy downpour may have a Chilling effect, but it has its charm with the roar of thunder and the flash of lightening. On a rainy day the lanes and the streets look like rivulets, and the entire city becomes magically converted into Venice. The street wears a deserted look. Occasionally a man tries to plod his way. His clothes are tucked up and he holds the umbrella in one hand and his bag in the other. A sudden gush of wind tilts his umbrella and he gets drenched. If a vehicle passes speedily by splashing muddy water on him, he looks a pitiable creature. Sometimes the streets become water-logged and traffic comes to a halt.
The men who dwell in comfortable house sit in their cosy rooms and look out of the window to catch a glimpse of some unusual sight. The howl of the wind and the patters of the rain constitute a symphony for them and some of them fell a poetic fervor in their hearts. The poor persons however, suffer a lot. Leaky roofs, rain-soaked floors and chocked up-drains fill them with despair. The street hawkers cannot carry on their trade. The busy house-wife wears a worry face as her oven does not burn.
Many people come out of their houses and wait for the town buses because they have the urgency of going to their work As the town buses do not come in time they feel irritated. Sometimes they are disappointed. Boys and girls do not go to school because of rain Life is painful when it rains in torrents.
When the rain stops, the sight becomes more interesting. Small children come out to the flooded streets and float paper boats. They like to splash water. Buses and cars begin moving on the streets. Life seems to begin normal activity as if a patient recovers from illness.
(a) How ‘Rain is pleasant and helpful’?
(b) How does rain bring happiness to rich while misery to poor section of the society?
(c) How does rain affect the daily life of the people?
(d) How does the life normalize after the rain subsides?
(e) Pick out the words from the given passage which mean
(i) Wet (para 1)
(ii) Live (paral 2)
(iii) Comfortable (para 2)
2. Write a paragraph in about 100 words on any one of the given topics. (10)
(a) Plan a picnic for your class.
or
(b) Harmful effects of junk fast food.
3. Your are Himanshu, a resident of Benaras Chowk, Ambikapur. Write a letter to the Chairman Municipality expressing your deep concern over the poor condition of roads and the inconvenience faced by the people of our locality.
(Maximum 150 words) (15)
4. Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions or adverbs given in the brackets. (2 × 5 = 10)
(a) My mother ran ………(up/out of/into) milk yesterday and I went to buy some.
(b) Could you turn ………….. (out/off/up) the music while I am talking?
(c) Geetanjali’s car broke ………..(up/off/down) on her way to office.
(d) Fazia’s boss called ……. (down/out/off) the
meeting till tomorrow.
(e) That problem is actually quite simple to figure ………. (up/out/down).
5. Complete these sentence by choosing the correct phrases from the brackets.
[poke his nose into, white collar, once in a blue moon, got the green signal, apple of their eyes] (2 × 5 = 10)
(a) Swati’s parents stopped at nothing for her wedding; clearly she is the …………. .
(b) Nishant ……… for his radical project.
(c) Why does he always have to ……… other people’s affairs?
(d) Though my gardener is uneducated and poor, he is saving to send his son to a good school since he wants the boy to get a ………… job.
(e) After joining the coaching classes I …….. get chance to play cricket with my friends.
6. Following sentences are INCORRECT. Find out the error and rewrite the following sentences correctly. (2 × 5 = 10)
(a) Money begets money, Don’t they?
(b) He, I and you were asked to write the details.
(c) They had no manner.
(d) No other boy of the class is more taller than Ram.
(e) No sooner had he reached the station when the train left.
7. Write one word for the following group of words. (1 × 5 = 5)
(a) One who eats human flesh?
(b) A person’s first speech.
(c) One who draws maps and charts.
(d) A group of angry people.
(e) One who dies for country?
8. Frame a meaningful sentence by using each word. (2 × 5 = 10)
(a) Accede, Exceed
(b) Morning, Mourning
(c) Hoist, Host
(d) Temper, Tamper
(e) Differ, Defer
9. Change the following DIRECT sentences into INDIRECT. (1 × 5 = 5)
(a) The student said to his teacher, “Do you teach my brother”?
(b) The cricketers said, “Hurrah! The ICC T20 World Cup is ours”.
(c) The father said to his son. “Don’t walk to fast else you may fall”.
(d) The clerk said to the officer, “Why do you not accept a bribe?”
(e) He said, “Let us to out for a picnic in this lovely weather.”
10. Look at the picture critically, think of a suitable theme and write a story. (in approx. 100 words) (10)
Part-B : Social Studies
1. State True/False. (1 × 15 = 15)
(a) The Battle of Seringapatam was fought between East India Company and Tipu Sultan in 1799.
(b) Captain Alexander Read introduced the Ryotwari system in India.
(c) Kunwar Singh was a leader of the rebel sepoys in Lucknow at the time of the Revolt of 1857.
(d) Dargah means the tomb of a Sufi Saint.
(e) The last Viceroy of British India was Lord Canning.
(f) Emigrants are people who arrive in a country.
(g) Information Technology Industry is known as Sunrise Industry.
(h) Cotton is also known as the ‘Golden Fibre’.
(i) Viticulture means cultivation of grapes.
(j) Kalpakkam nuclear power station is in Karnataka.
(k) Resources that are found everywhere like the air we breathes, are called localized resources.
(l) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India.
(m) Bhopal Gas Tragedy took place on 02 December, 1986
(n) There are 233 elected members in the Rajya Sabha.
(o) Right to Life is a Fundamental Right Under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
2. Fill in the blanks. (1 × 15 = 15)
(a) In 1875, the Arya Samaj was founded by ………… in Bombay.
(b) C. V. Raman was given the Nobel Prize for his work in Physics in ……. .
(c) ……… was the British Military Officer at the time of Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
(d) Silicon used in the computer industry is obtained from ………. .
(e) ……… is the largest producer of bauxite in the world.
(f) Petroleum and its derivatives are called …….. as they are very valuable.
(g) Silicon Valley is located in ……… .
(h) The Supreme Court of India was established in the year …………. .
(i) In India, Lok Sabha is presided over by the ………. .
(j) The ………. of India is the Supreme Law- making institution.
(k) New Delhi was constructed as a 10-square-mile city on ………….. Hill.
(l) Mala Irular is a tribal group of people who belong to the state of ……… .
(m) Gol Gumbaz, the largest dome in India is located in the state of ……….. .
(n) India’s first satellite ‘Arya-bhatta’ was launched in ………… .
(o) ‘Long Walk to Freedom’ is a book written by ………. .
3. Expand the abbreviations. (1 × 10 = 10)
(a) PIL
(b) EVM
(c) ASEAN
(d) DRDO
(e) FDI
(f) GSI
(g) NHRC
(h) IRBM
(i) ILO
(j) TELCO
4. Match the following columns. (1 × 10 = 10)
(a) Battle of Plassey (i) 1856
(b) Battle of Buxar (ii) 1757
(c) Annexation of Awadh (iii) 1764
(d) Annexation of Sindh (iv) 1849
(e) Annexation of Punjab (v) 1843
(f) Bhangi (vi) Gujarat
(g) Pabhi (vii) Andhra Pradesh
(h) Sikkaliar (viii) Tamil Nadu
(i) Manash National Park (ix) New Delhi
(j) Supreme Court of India (x) Assam
5. Write short notes on any five of the following topics (limit 50 words) (5 × 5 = 25)
(a) Indian women of Olympic Games.
(b) Key features of Indian Constitution.
(c) Right to Education.
(d) The “Blue Rebellion”.
(e) The Battle of Plassey.
(f) Fossil Fuel.
(g) Conservation of Water Resources.
(h) Renewable sources of Energy.
Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2015 Question Paper
Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination-2015
Paper-I
Part-A : Mathematics
Directions (Qs. 1 to 20) : Bear 2 marks each.
1. Find two rational numbers between ¼ and 3/8 and represent them in number line.
2. 
3. Fifteen years from now Mohan’s age will be four times his present age. What is Mohan’s age after five years from now.
4. Find the least number of three digits which is greater than 100 and a perfect square.
5. Find the value of 
6. Resolve into factors : 17 – 32y – 4y2.
7. Find the cube root of 91125.
8. There are certain number rows of trees in a garden. The number of trees in each row is twice the number of rows. If the number of trees in the garden is 1250, then the number of rows in the garden is ………… .
9. The marked price of an item is Rs 1200. Find the discount percentage allowed on the item if it is sold for Rs 1050.
10. A man borrowed Rs 16000 at 10% per annum interest compounded half yearly. Find the amount repayable after one year.
11. The four angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. Find the measures of the angles.
12. What must be added to 4x2 – 12x + 7 to make it a whole square.
13. (1298)9 is equal to
(a) 12917 (b) 1292
(c) 12972 (d) 1290
14. The mean of the first ten natural number sis:
(a) 5.10 (b) 5.5
(c) 5 (d) 6.2
15. Divide a sum of Rs 10 between two persons A and B such that A gets Re 1 more than B.
16. The sum of two number is 45 and their ratio is 7 : 8. Find the numbers.
17. If 56 men can do a piece of work in 42 days, how many men will do it in 14 days?
18. 
19. In the above figure, ABCD is a parallelogram, find all the angles of the parallelogram if measure of angle DCX = 130°.
20. A man loses 20% of his money. After spending 25% of the remainder, he has Rs 480.00 left. How much money did he originally have?
By selling a towel for Rs 126.90 a shopkeeper loses 6%. For how much should he sell the towel to gain 4%.
Directions (Qs. 21 to 40) : Bear 3 marks each.
21. The digits of a two digit number are such that one is twice the other. When the digits are interchanged, the new number obtained is greater than the original number by 27. Find the number.
22. 
23. 
24. If 
then find the value of 
25. A well is dug 20 m deep and has a diameter 7m. The earth which is so dug out is spread even on a rectangular plot 22 m long and 14 m broad. What is the height of the platform formed?
26. Find the area in sq cm of a rhombus whose side is 17 cm and one of its diagonals is 30 cm.
27. The marks obtained by 40 students in Mathematics are given below:
69, 59, 49, 39, 84, 68, 77, 48, 47, 57, 46, 41, 44, 67, 57, 45, 34, 36, 87, 89, 65, 41, 84, 78, 52, 49, 75, 37, 38, 42, 73, 31, 34, 37, 56, 59, 64, 85, 81 and 62.
Based on the above data, the frequency of the class 60 – 70 is ………… .
28. An article with a marked price of Rs 600 is available at a discount of 18%. Find the discount given and also the price at which the article is available for sale.
29. If 53x + 4 = 25 × 54x – 1 find the value of x.
30. Walking at 4 km an hour, a person reaches his office 5 minutes late. If he walks at 5 km an hour, he will be 4 minutes too early. Then the distance of his office from his residence is
31. The internal measures of a cuboidal room are 12 m × 8 m × 4 m. Find the total cost of whitewashing all four walls of the room, if the cost of whitewashing is Rs 5 per square metre. What will be the cost of whitewashing if the ceiling of the room is also whitewashed?
32. What least number must be subtracted from 2200 so as to get a perfect square?
33. A garrison of 2000 men has a provision for 15 weeks. How many men must leave so that the same provision may last for 20 weeks?
34. Multiply (a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca) by (a + b + c).
35. Construct a histogram for the frequency distribution below:
36. 
37. Pipe A can fill a tank in 14 minutes, pipe B can fill it in 7 minutes and pipe C can empty the full tank in 28 minutes. If all of them are opened simultaneously, find the time taken to fill the empty tank.
38. Four pipes 5 cm each in diameter are to be replaced by a single pipe discharging the same quantity of water. If the speed of water remains same in both the case, find the diameter of the single pipe.
39. Reduce the following expression into lowest term 
40. 
Directions (Qs. 41 to 50) : Bear 10 marks each.
41. A village, having a population of 4000. requires 150 litres of water per head per day. It has a tank which is 20 m long, 15 m broad and 6 cm high. For how many days will the water of this tank last? Given 1 m3 = 1000 litres.
42. The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 50 years. 5 years ago father’s age was 7 times the son’s age. Find their present ages.
43. (a) Solve the linear equation
x – 0.3 + 0.05x = 2 – 1 – 4x
(b) The sum of the digits of a certain two digits number is 7. Reversing its digits increases the number by 9. What is the number?
44. Construct a trapezium ABCCD in which AB &DC are parallel, AB = 6 cm, DC = 3.5 cm ∠A = 55°, AD = 3.5 cm.
45. Parikshit made a cuboid of plasticine having dimensions 2 cm, 5 cm, 5 cm. What is the minimum number of such cuboid required to make a cube?
46. A horse is tethered in a corner of rectangular plot 40 m by 36 m with a rope 14 m long. Find the area over which it can graze.
47. The pie chart below shows how Mr. Davis distributes his monthly income into different household expenses. See the pie chart to answer the following questions.
(a) In which of the above categories does Mr. Davis spend the greatest portion of his income?
(i) Grocery (ii) Entertainment
(iii) Eating out (iv) Rent
(b) What portion of the monthly income does Mr. Davis spend on entertainment?
(i) 10% (ii) 20%
(iii) 30% (iv) 25%
(c) What fraction of the monthly income does Mr. Davis spend on groceries?
(i) ¼ (ii) ½
(iii) 1/10 (iv) ¾
(d) If Mr. Davis earns Rs 2,000/- per month, how much does he spend on groceries?
(i) Rs 1,000 (ii) Rs 250
(iii) Rs 500 (div Rs 700
(e) What is the ratio of expenditure between entertainment and grocery?
(i) 3:4 (ii) 4:5
(iii) 3: 5 (iv) none of these
48. A man bought a TV and washing machine for Rs 8000 each. He then sold the TV at a loss of 4% and the washing machine at a profit of Rs 8%. Find the overall gain or loss percent in the whole transaction.
49. Factorise the following:
(a) m2 + n – mn – m
(b) x4 + 12x2 + 64
50. (a) Solve : (4x2 + 7x3y2) – (−6x2 – 7x3y2 – 4x) – (10x + 9x2)
(b) Using the identity:
(x + a) (x + b) = x2 + (a + b)x + ab
Solve: 107 × 108
Part-B : Science
Note: Part ‘B’ contains 37 questions, bearing 75 marks. Question No. 1 to 15 are multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each , Question No. 16 to 25 carry 2 marks each, Question No. 26 to 35 carry 3 marks each, Question No. 36 & 37 carry 5 marks each.
Fill in the blanks.
1. Blue green algae fix ……. directly from air to enhance fertility of soil.
2. Species found only in a particular area is known as ………… .
3. Synthetic fibres are synthesized from raw material called ………….. .
4. Phosphorus is a very ………… non metal.
5. Process of separation of different constituents from petroleum is called …………. .
Select the Correct Answer.
6. The most common carrier of communicable diseases is
(a) Ant (b) Housefly
(c) Dragonfly (d) Oxygen
Answer: (B)
7. Which of the following can be beaten into thin sheets
(a) Zinc (b) Phosphorus
(c) Sulphur (d) Oxygen
Answer: (A)
8. Unwanted sound is called as
(a) Music (b) Pitch
(c) Noise (d) Shrill
Answer: (C)
9. The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another material by means of electricity is called
(a) Mixing (b) Electrolyting
(c) Electroding (d) Electroplating
Answer: (D)
10. Which of the following is NOT a planet of the sun?
(a) Sirius (b) Mercury
(c) Saturn (d) Earth
Answer: (A)
Mark ‘T’ if the statement is True and ‘F’ if it is False.
11. Generally, non metal react with acids. ( )
12. Coke is almost pure form of carbon ( )
13. Kerosene is not a fossil fuel. ( )
14. Unicellular organisms have one celled body. ()
15. An embryo is made up of a single cell. ( )
Write answers within the space provided under the questions:
16. Does pure water conduct electricity? If not what can we do to make it conductive.
17. Explain why sliding friction is less than static friction.
18. A pendulum oscillates 40 times in 4 seconds. Find its time period and frequency.
19. Define:
(a) Force of Gravity
(b) Pressure
20. Define adolescence.
21. Give two difference between Zygote and foetus.
22. Nylon is used for making parachutes, car seat belts and ropes for rock climbing. Why?
23. List condition under which combustion can take place.
24. List two advantages of using CNG & LPG as fuels.
25. What is malleability ? Give two examples of malleable metals.
Write answers within the space provided under each questions:
26. What is Marble Cancer? Write the air pollutants that are affecting the beauty of Tajmajal.
27. Why is the distance between stars is expressed in light years? What do you understand by the statement that a star is eight light years away from the earth?
28. Explain why plastic containers are favoured for storing food?
29. What are the major groups of micro organisms?
30. What is constellation? Name any two constellation.
31. Explain the reason why water is not used to control fires involving electrical equipment?
32. Why Sodium and Potassium are stored in kerosene?
33. Why are children?infants given vaccination?
34. Briefly explain types of combustion.
35. Draw labeled diagrams of plant cell and animal cell.
36. Write short notes on
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Nucleus of a Cell
37. Briefly answer the following questions.
(a) Why porters place a round piece of cloth on their head when they have to carry a heavy load?
(b) An inflated balloon was pressed against a wall after it had been rubbed with a piece of synthetic cloth. It was found that, the balloon sticks to the walls. What force might be responsible for attraction between the balloon and the wall?
Paper-II
Part-A : English Language
1. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 5 = 15)
The beauties of nature are the greatest gifts of God to man. How unlucky are they who cannot enjoy and appreciate nature. Nature is all around us in varied aspects and shapes. We have the green charming hills, snow-capped mountains, and the rising and setting sun in its varied and unforgettable glory. The dew drops on the blades of grass look like iridescent pearls. The silvery moon and the twinkling starts bedeck the sky. The roaring waves in the vast ocean and the lakes which look like sheets of water add to the glorious treasure. Even the violent aspects of nature like the thundering clouds with dazzling flashes fighting, the torrential rain, and the all-powerful storm are some of the aspects of nature which Tennyson termed as nature “red in tooth and claw”. But they have their own charms which captivate man and even inspire in his heart.
One can enjoy the beauties of nature in an abundant measure at a hill station. The floating clouds, the dancing springs, the winding rivulets, the all pervading multicolour flowers, emitting sweet, soothing smell, the trees standing like sentinels with birds singing sweet harmonious songs in their branches, the cool breeze, the humming bees, the delicious fruits-all cater to human senses. Beauty lies in the eyes of the beholder on the earth, in the air, in the sky and in the ocean. His heart leaps up when he beholds a rainbow in the sky.
Nature teaches man the lesson of peace, innocence, purity, love, harmony, simplicity, hope and faith in the glory of God. Wordsworth believes that nature is the greatest store-house of wisdom, apart from being a source of eternal happiness:
(a) What is termed by Tennyson as “Red in tooth and Claw”?
(b) What are the captivating beauties of Hills?
(c) What lessons do nature teach humans?
(d) Write synonyms for the following words which means in above passage:
(i) Dazzling …………..
(ii) Capped ………….
(iii) Soothing ………..
(e) Pick out words opposite to following words from the passage:
(i) Calm …………..
(ii) Faded ……………..
(iii) Limited …………….
2. Write a para in about 100 words on ONE of the following given topics. (10)
(a) Hazards of Polythene
(b) Role of Media
3. Write a letter to collector inviting him for the children’s day function at your school. (limit your answer to 150 words) (15)
4. Fill in the blanks with suitable articles/ prepositions in the brackets. (2 × 5 = 10)
(a) Who has kept ……… eggs in fruit basket. (a/an/the)
(b) We have turned ……… better ways of living. (towards/about/back)
(c) It was i who fixed ……… your train journey. (at/up/in/under)
(d) In the busy road many were passing ………. (out/by/off/on)
(e) Indian food appeals ………… anybody’s taste. (after/to /into/in)
5. Change into passive voice: (2 × 5 = 10)
(a) Which team won the final match last year?
(b) We have sold all the tickets of the show.
(c) One should do one’s duty.
(d) We do not accept ATM cards.
(e) We will sell all kinds of clothes here.
6. Following sentences are INCORRECT. Find out the error and rewrite the following sentences correctly. (2 × 5 = 10)
(a) He gave me some advices.
(b) Will you tell me the reason of an earthquake?
(c) One should work had if he wants to pass the exam.
(d) All but I were present in class.
(e) The flower pot is placed in the centre.
7. Write one word for the following group of words. (1 × 5 = 5)
(a) One who is all powerful
(b) A study of body
(c) An animal who preys on other animal
(d) That through which light cannot pass
(e) One who looks at the dark side of things
8. Frame a meaningful sentence by using each word. (2 × 5 = 10)
(a) Ode, Owed (b) Ceiling, Sealing
(c) Mist. Missed (d) Chord, Cord
(e) Cite, Sight
9. Change the following DIRECT sentences into INDIRECT sentence. (1 × 5 = 5)
(a) Ruby said, “Raj, how is your knee today?”
(b) Raman said, “Let us decide on the place.”
(c) She said, “Wow! How lovely the house is.”
(d) I said “Did you call at my house last night?”
(e) He said, “Please lend me your umbrella”.
10. Look at the picture critically, think of a suitable theme and write a story. (in approx. 100 words) (10)
PART-B : Social Studies
1. State True or False. (1 × 15 = 15)
(a) James Mill glorified India and its culture in his book “A HISTORY OF BRITISH INDIA”.
(b) The Maratha power a crushed in the third Anglo – Maratha war.
(c) The mughal emperor appointed the company as the diwan of the provinces of Bengal in the year 1700.
(d) The tribal chiefs lost their authority under the British rule.
(e) Birsa Munda was convicted on the charges of rioting.
(f) After the revolt of 1857 the Governor- general of India was given the title of Admiral General.
(g) The Tata iron and steel company began to produce steel after the First World War.
(h) Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Aryasamaj in 1975.
(i) The Simon commission had two Indian representatives.
(j) The Jalianwalabagh massacre occurred in Amritsar on Baishakhi day.
(k) All natural resources of energy are renewable.
(l) Chile and Peru are leading producers of copper.
(m) Bauxite is the ore of aluminum.
(n) Our constitution guarantees rights of minorities against the majority.
(o) The total membership of the Loksabha is 500.
2. Fill in the blanks. (1 × 15 = 15)
(a) The court language of Mughals was ………… .
(b) The coin of Rupa was first issued by ………. .
(c) The first Europeans to come to India were ………… .
(d) The title of Governor General changed to that of Viceroy in the year ………. .
(e) Delhi became the capital of India in ……… .
(f) Type of party system that has evolved in India is ………. .
(g) The first General Election in India was held in ………. .
(h) Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the state of …………… .
(i) The last Moughal Emperor was ……… .
(j) The third research centre of India in Antarctica is ………. .
(k) ………. is the latest established High Court in India.
(l) ………… is often referred to as ‘Manchester of India’.
(m) The president of the constituent assembly was …………
(n) ………. allowed the company to use the vast revenue resources of Bengal.
(o) …… was the capital of British India before Delhi.
3. Expand the abbreviations. (1 × 10 = 10)
(a) RTI (b) SAARC
(c) ISRO (d) NDA
(e) BARC (f) NATO
(g) UNO (h) IPL
(i) TISCO (j) UNICEF
4. Match the following columns. (1 × 10 = 10)
(a) Rocks and minerals (i) Bangalore
(b) Tiger of Mysore (ii) Productive use of land
(c) Kunwar Singh (iii) a waterborne disease
(d) Humus (iv) Bihar
(e) William Jones (v) a biotic resources
(f) The arms act (vi) South Africa
(g) Simon commission (vii) a linguist
(h) Cholera (viii) 1878
(i) Diamond mines (ix) 1927
(j) Silicon Valley (x) Tipu sultan
5. Write short notes on ANY FIVE of the following topics (limit 50 words) (5 × 5 = 25)
(a) Women Empowerment.
(b) Revolt of 1857.
(c) Methods of Soil Conservation.
(d) Green Earth
(e) Cultural Diversity
(f) Conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.
(g) Panchayati Raj.
(h) Battle of Plassey.
Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2016 Question Paper
Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination-2016
Paper-I
Part-A : Mathematics
Section-I
1. Solve : 
2. Find any three rational numbers between and 4.
3. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 3. If they differ by 18, what are the numbers?
4. Convert the following ratios to percentages.
(i) 2 : 3 (ii) 3 : 4
5. Find the number of sides of a regular polygon whose each exterior angle has a measure of 45°.
6. State whether True or False.
(i) All rhombuses are parallelograms.
(ii) All parallelograms are trapeziums.
(iii) All squares are not parallelograms.
(iv) All squares are trapeziums.
7. The list price of a frock is Rs 220. A discount of 20% is announced on sales. What is the amount of discount on it and its sale price?
8. How many numbers lie between the squares of the following numbers?
(i) 25 and 26
(ii) 99 and 100
9. Find the square not of 6400 through prime factorization method.
10. A dice is thrown then, find the probability of getting prime number.
11. Shyam bought an air cooler for Rs 3300 including a tax of 10%. Find the price of the air cooler before VAT was added.
12. How many diagonals does each of the following have:
(a) Convex Quadrilateral
(b) A Regular Hexagon
13. Factorise : x2 – 7x + 12
14. Simplify the expression:
3y(2y – 7) – 3(y – 4) – 63 for y = −2.
15. Using the Identity (I), find (2x + 3y)2.
16. Find the area of the quadrilateral PQRS shown in the figure.
17. Find the height of a cylinder whose radius is 7 cm and the total surface area is 968 cm2.
18. Evaluate 
using law of exponents and powers.
19. Six pipes are required to fill a tank in 1 hour 20 minutes. How long will it take if only five pipes of the same type are used?
20. Solve : 
Section-II
21. The difference between two whole numbers is 66. The ratio of the two numbers is 2 : 5. What are the two numbers?
22. In the figure, BEST is a parallelogram. Find the values of angles x, y and z.
23. A bag has 4 red balls and 2 yellow balls. The balsa re identical in all respects other than colour. A ball is drawn from the bag without looking into the bag. Hat is the probability of getting a red ball? Is it more or less than getting a yellow ball?
24. Write a Pythagorean triplet whose smallest number is 8.
25. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs 10 each. However 5 bulbs were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs 12 each. Find the gain % or loss %.
26. Find Compound Interest on Rs 12,600 for 2 years at 10% per annum compounded annually.
27. Simplify : (a + b) (2a – 3b + c) – (2a – 3b)c.
28. For the given solid, draw the top view, front view and side view.
29. (a) How are prisms and cylinders alike?
(b) How are pyramids and cones alike?
(c) Is a square prism same as a cube?
30. A godown is in the form of a cuboid of measure 60 m × 40 m × 30 m. How many cuboid boxes can be stored if the volume of one box is 0.8 m3?
31. A rectangular piece of paper 11 cm × 4 cm is folded without overlapping to make a cylinder of height 4 cm. Find the volume of the cylinder.
32. Simply : 
33. If the three digit number 24x is divisible by 9, what is the value of x?
34. The four angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5 : 8. Find the angles.
35. Sum of two number is 74. One of the number is 10 more than the other what are the numbers?
36. The perimeter of a rectangle is 13 cm and its width is 
Find its length.
37. CERI is a rhombus as shown in figure. Find x, y, z.
38. A sum of Rs 10000 is borrowed at a rate of interest of 15% per annum for 2 years. Find the simple interest on this sum and the amount to be paid at the end of two years.
39. The population of a city was 20,000 in the year 2007. It increased at the rate of 5% per annum. Find the population at the end of year 2010.
40. If each edge of a cube is doubled
(i) How many times will its surface area increase?
(ii) How many times will its volume increase?
Section-III
41. Karan has a total of Rs 590 as currency notes in the denominations of Rs 50, Rs 20 and Rs 10. The ratio of number of Rs 50 notes and Rs 20 notes is 3 : 5. If he has a total of 25 notes, how many notes of each denomination does he have?
42. On a particular day, the sales (in rupees) of different items of a baker’s shop are given below. Draw a pie-chart for this data.
(a) Ordinary Bread : 320
(b) Fruit Bread : 80
(c) Cakes and Pastries : 160
(d) Biscuits : 120
(e) other : 40
43. A picnic is being planned in a school for class VIII. Girls are 60% of the total number of students and are 18 in number. The picnic site is 55 km from the school and the transport company is charging at the rate of Rs 12 per km. The total cost of refreshments will be Rs 4280. Find out the following:
(a) The ratio of the number of girls to the number of boys in the class.
(b) The cost per head if two teachers are also going with the class.
(c) If their first stop is at a place 22 km from the school, what per cent of the total distance of 55 km is this? What per cent of distance is left to be covered?
44. Total cost of 5 metres of a particular quality of cloth is Rs 210. Tabulate the cost of 2, 4, 10 and 13 metres of cloth of same type using proportions.
45. Observe the histogram on figure and answer the questions given below:
(i) What information is being given by the histogram?
(ii) What group contains maximum girls?
(iii) How many girls have a length of more than 145 cm?
(iv) If we divide the girls into the following categories, how many would there be in each?
150 cm and more – Group A
140 to less than 150 cm – Group B
Less than 140 cm – Group C
46. (a) Is 2352 a perfect square ? If not, find the smallest multiple of 2352 which is a perfect square. Find the square root of the new number.
(b) Find smallest number by which 9408 must be divided so that the quotient is a perfect square. Find the square root of the quotient.
47. The rectangular park in figure is of length 30 m and width 20 m. Having understood the figure answers the following questions.
(a) What is the total length of fence surrounding it?
(b) How much land is occupied by the park?
(c) There is a path of one metre width running inside along the perimeter of the park that has to be cemented. If 1 bag cement is required to cement 4 m2 area, how many bags of cement will be required to construct the cemented path?
(d) There are two rectangular flower beds of size 1.5 m × 2 m each in the park as shown in the diagram and the rest has grass in it. Find the area covered by grass.
48. The internal measures of a cuboidal room are 12 m × 8 m × 4 m. Find the total cost of white washing all the four walls of the room, if the cost of white washing is Rs 5 per m2. What will be the cost of white washing if the ceiling of the room is also white washed?
49. (a) Mass of earth is 5.97 × 1024 kg and mass of moon is 7.35 × 1022 What is the total mass?
(b) The distance between sun and earth is 1.496 × 1011 m and the distance between earth and moon is 3.84 × 108 m. During solar eclipse moon comes between earth and sun. At that time what is the distance between moon and sun?
50. Define the following:
(a) A Bar Graph
(b) A Pie-chart
(c) A Histogram
(d) Frequency
(e) A Pictograph
Part-B : Science
Select the correct answer of the following questions.
1. Penicillin is a drug that can:
(A) Interfere in the biological pathway of bacteria.
(B) An antibiotic that can kill bacteria
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the above
2. To hear a distinct echo the time interval between the original sound and the reflected sound must be:
(A) 0.2 S
(B) 1 S
(C) 2 S
(D) 0.1 S
3. The Non-metal which is highly reactive and stored under water is:
(A) Bromine
(B) Sulphur
(C) Phosphorus
(D) Iodine
4. Nitrogen fixation can be done by:
(A) Industries
(B) Rhizobium
(C) Lightning
(D) All of the above
5. The device used to measure the Purity of milk is:
(A) Hydrometer
(B) Lactometer
(C) Hygometer
(D) Maltometer
6. The Crops which are grown in the rainy season are called:
(A) Rabi Crops
(B) Kharif Crops
(C) Rainy Crops
(D) None of these
7. The number of nuclei present in a Zygote is:
(A) one
(B) two
(C) four
(D) None
8. Rayon is different from synthetic fibres because:
(A) It has a silk like appearance
(B) It is obtained from wood pulp
(C) Its fibres can also be woven like of natural fibres
(D) None of these
9. Choose the correct arrangement of the forces due to rolling, static and sliding friction in a decreasing order:
(A) rolling, static, sliding
(B) rolling, sliding, static
(C) static, sliding, rolling
(D) sliding, static, rolling
10. The process of transferring of charge from a charged body to earth is called:
(A) Discharging
(B) Charging
(C) Earthing
(D) None of these
11. The part of the eye which gives a distinct colour to the eye is:
(A) Iris
(B) Pupil
(C) Cornea
(D) Lens
12. Green house gases are:
(A) CO2
(B) CH4
(C) CFC
(D) All of the above
13. Hottest part of the candle flame is:
(A) Innermost
(B) Outermost
(C) Middle Zone
(D) Luminous
14. Those species of plants which are found in a particular area are called:
(A) Species
(B) Endemic species
(C) Endangered species
(D) None of these
15. A tadpole develops into an adult by the process of:
(A) Fertilization
(B) Metamorphosis
(C) Embedding
(D) Budding
Write answers of the following questions.
16. What is a constellation? Name any two constellations.
17. What is lateral inversion? Name the mirror in which image formed undergoes lateral Inversion.
18. What are chemical effects of electric current, give one use of such effect?
19. Write the difference between audible and inaudible sound.
20. Why objects moving in fluids must have special shapes?
21. Name of the type of force acting: