Pharmaceutical Science (PY) Competitive Examination-2017 (GPAT, CET, NIPER etc.) Question Paper With Answer Key

Pharmaceutical Science (PY) Competitive Examination-2017

(GPAT, CET, NIPER etc.)

1. An accurate clock shows the times as 30 minutes past two. The angle (in degrees) between the minute-hand and the hour-hand is:

(A)  120°

(B)  110°

(C)  105°

(D)  100°

Answer: (C)

2. If 2x + y = 10 & x + 3y = 10, then find x & y:

(A)  4 & 2

(B)  2 & 4

(C)  1 & 3

(D)  3 & 1

Answer: (A)

3. Highest number of USFDA approved pharmaceutical plants are placed in:

(A)  China

(B)  India

(C)  Brazil

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

4. Indian Patent Information office is situated at :

(A)  Mumbai

(B)  Nagpur

(C)  Kanpur

(D)  Bangalore

Answer: (B)

5. ‘In small bridged systems one can not have a double bond at the bridgehead position.’ This is:

(A)  Prelog’s rule

(B)  Bredt’s rule

(C)  Markowknikoff’s rule

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

6. Which of the following not a positive symptoms associated with Schizophrenia?

(A)  hallucination

(B)  anhedonia

(C)  delusion

(D)  Disorganized thoughts

Answer: (B)

7. Which of the following mood stabilizer would be most appropriate in a patient with liver diseases?

(A)  Lithium

(B)  Valproic acid

(C)  Carbamapezine

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

8. One is not correct about following structure :

(A)  It is an acid

(B)  it is fenamate

(C)  increases prostaglandin

(D)  it is an NSAID

Answer: (C)

9. Cefepime is …….. generation cephalosporin.

(A)  First

(B)  Second

(C)  Third

(D)  Fourth

Answer: (D)

10. When radiation modulated at an acoustical frequency, is absorbed by substance. The radiation is converted in to heat. This is called as:

(A)  Photoacoustic spectroscopy

(B)  Optoacoustic spectroscopy

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

11. Vector used in the Recombinant DNA technology is:

(A)  Plasmids

(B)  Cosmids

(C)  Bacteriophages

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

12. Borrelia recurrentis is s causative organism for :

(A)  Plague

(B)  Lyme disease

(C)  Relapsing fever

(D)  Dengue

Answer: (C)

13. Non-ionizing radiation used for sterilization is:

(A)  UV-rays

(B)  X-rays

(C)  γ-rays

(D)  Cosmic rays

Answer: (A)

14. Identification of specific RNA is done by:

(A)  Southern blot

(B)  Northern blot

(C)  Western blot

(D)  All of these

Answer: (B)

15. Deposition of enzyme on the carrier by applying electric current is called as:

(A)  Electrophoresis

(B)  Electroporation

(C)  Electrodeposition

(D)  Electrotransformation

Answer: (C)

16. Polyacrylamide gel is used as material in which tenchique of immobilization:

(A)  Covalent binding

(B)  Adsorption

(C)  Entrapment

(D)  Complexation

Answer: (C)

17. Radioallergosorbent test is related to ……… antibody.

(A)  IgE

(B)  IgM

(C)  IgA

(D)  IgD

Answer: (A)

18. Pseudomonas dentrificans is a source of:

(A)  Riboflavin

(B)  Vitamin B12

(C)  Ascorbic acid

(D)  Amino acid

Answer: (B)

19. In the fermentation process, animal or vegetables lipids are used as:

(A)  Antifoaming agent

(B)  Inhibitor of unwanted metabolic process in lack of O2

(C)  Source of carbon

(D)  pH maintaining agent

Answer: (A)

20. Bohrs effect is related to:

(A)  Lipids

(B)  Plasma protein

(C)  Hemoglobin

(D)  Vitamins

Answer: (C)

21. One of the following vitamin is known as harmone:

(A)  Vitamin D

(B)  Vitamin A

(C)  Vitamin C

(D)  Vitamin E

Answer: (A)

22. In nucleotide replacement, the phenomenon in which purine is replaced by pyrimidine & vice versa called as:

(A)  Transition

(B)  Transversion

(C)  Rearrangement

(D)  Exchange

Answer: (B)

23. Rapid amplification of DNA segment is called as:

(A)  General recombination

(B)  PCR

(C)  gene expression

(D)  Blotting technique

Answer: (B)

24. In cell culture, the phase in which cells dies is :

(A)  Lag phase

(B)  Exponential phase

(C)  Linear phase

(D)  Senescent phase

Answer: (D)

25. Icterus index is used to determine:

(A)  Serum albumin

(B)  Urine albumin

(C)  Serum bilirubin

(D)  Urine bilirubin

Answer: (C)

26. Carboxyhemoglobin is formed by binding of hemoglobin with :

(A)  CO

(B)  CO2

(C)  CHO

(D)  COOH

Answer: (A)

27. ETC is located at :

(A)  Inner mitochondrial membrane

(B)  Outer mitochondrial membrane

(C)  Intermembranous space

(D)  Mitochondrial matrix

Answer: (A)

28. Removal of one carbon atom from lipid occurs in:

(A)  β-oxidation

(B)  α-oxidation

(C)  ω-oxidation

(D)  All of these

Answer: (B)

29. In tissue culture, surface sterilization of explants is done by:

(A)  Distilled water

(B)  Methanol

(C)  Sodium hypochlorite

(D)  Propiolactone

Answer: (C)

30. Ornithin amino acid can never found in protein structure because :

(A)  Inability to form peptide bond

(B) Due to lack of zwitterions formation

(C)  Due to lack of codone

(D)  Due to structural dissimilarity

Answer: (C)

31. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is due to the deficiency of:

(A)  Hypoxanthin-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase

(B)  Formyltransferase

(C)  Adenine-phosphoribosyltransferase

(D)  Cyclohydrolase

Answer: (A)

32. One of the following phospholipid possesses antigenic properties :

(A)  Lecithin

(B)  Cephaline

(C)  Cardiolipin

(D)  Plasmalogens

Answer: (C)

33. Catalytic activity of enzyme is lost by :

(A)  Extreme pH

(B)  Extreme temperature

(C)  Denaturating agent

(D)  All the above

Answer: (D)

34. Three dimensional structure of a protein & the relative stereochemical position of its atom determined by :

(A)  X-ray crystallography

(B)  IR-spectroscopy

(C)  ESR

(D)  All the above

Answer: (A)

35. Aldolase enzyme belongs to class :

(A)  Transferase

(B)  Lyase

(C)  Ligases

(D)  Hydrolase

Answer: (B)

36. In un-compitative inhibition, inhibitors mainly binds to :

(A)  Enzyme

(B)  Substrate

(C)  Enzyme & enzyme-substrate complex

(D)  Enzyme-substrate complex

Answer: (D)

37. 1 IU of enzyme is equal to ………………

(A)  40 μ ketal

(B)  50 μ ketal

(C)  60 μ ketal

(D)  70 μ ketal

Answer: (C)

38. Mannitol is :

(A)  Polyhydroxy alcohol

(B)  Monosachharides

(C)  Both (A) & (B)

(D)  None

Answer: (A)

39. How many grams of menthol should be used to prepare this prescription containing 0.8% Menthol & Alcohol sq. 60.00 ml ?

(A)  0.48 g

(B)  0.8 g

(C)  4.8 g

(D)  1.48 g

Answer: (C)

40. “In dehydrohaloganation the more stable the alkene, the faster it is formed” This is :

(A)  Saytzeffs rule

(B)  Walden inversion

(C)  Tollens reaction

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

41. Starting product of Sandmeyer reaction is :

(A)  alkynes

(B)  Diazonium salts

(C)  o-toludine

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

42. 

These are ………………

(A)  Diastereomers

(B)  Enantiomers

(C)  Confirmational isomer

(D)  Bioisomer

Answer: (A)

43. ………. is a phase transfer catalyst.

(A)  crown ether

(B)  AlCl3

(C)  Both (A) & (B)

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

44. 

The reaction follows :

(A)  Kharasch rule

(B)  Markovnikov rule

(C)  Bredt rule

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

45. Perkin condensation yields :

(A)  Unsaturated acids

(B)  Saturated acids

(C)  Unsaturated ketones

(D)  Unsaturated aldehydes

Answer: (A)

46. 

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  5

(D)  no

Answer: (B)

47. 

are …………..

(A)  Confirmational isomer

(B)  Enantiomers

(C)  Distereomers

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

48. Nitrogen rule is used in the interpretation ……… spectra.

(A)  IR

(B)  NMR

(C)  Mass

(D)  ESR

Answer: (C)

49. CDRI is located at :

(A)  Lucknow

(B)  Kassuli

(C)  Itanagar

(D)  Chandigarh

Answer: (A)

50. GRAS is related to :

(A)  Safety

(B)  Stability

(C)  reactivity

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

51. Minister of chemical & Fertilizers Govt. of India is:

(A)  A. K. Antony

(B)  Ramvilasa Paswan

(C)  Sharad Pawar

(D)  Prafful Patel

Answer: (B)

52. The synonym of abduct :

(A)  Confined

(B)  Bound

(C)  Released

(D)  absolve

Answer: (A)

53. The antonym of Equivocate :

(A)  Distinguish

(B)  Pledge

(C)  Yields

(D)  Vary

Answer: (D)

54. Coulter counter works on the principle of :

(A)  electric resistance

(B)  light diffraction

(C)  light transmission

(D)  light absorption

Answer: (A)

55. Standard deviation is :

(A)  square of variance

(B)  square root of variance

(C)  square of difference between observation and mean

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

56. Guedels sign of anesthesia are based on effect of :

(A)  Diethyl ether

(B)  Thiopental

(C)  Ketamine

(D)  Fentanyl

Answer: (A)

57. Browning of vision due to retinal deposit is caused by :

(A)  Thioridazone

(B)  Clozapine

(C)  Haloperidol

(D)  Ariprazole

Answer: (A)

58. Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase inhibitor used as DMARDs is:

(A)  Methotrexate

(B)  Leflunomide

(C)  Azathioprine

(D)  Cyclosporine

Answer: (B)

59. Vaughan Williams classification system classify drug used in :

(A)  Parkinsonism

(B)  Arrhythmia

(C)  Huntington’s diseases

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

60. G-Proteins are …………….

(A)  Tetrameric

(B)  Bimeric

(C)  Trimeric

(D)  Pentameric

Answer: (C)

61. One of the following lipoprotein increases in type IV hyperlipidemia:

(A)  LDL

(B)  HDL

(C)  VLDL

(D)  Chylomicron

Answer: (C)

62. …………..measure the absorption & urninary excretion of radiolabled Vitamin B12

(A)  Carr test

(B)  Schilling test

(C)  Icterus index

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

63. Which of the following antiviral drug used as Antiparkinsonian agent :

(A)  Zidovudine

(B)  Amantadine

(C)  Foscarnet

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

64. Selective MAO-B inhibitor is:

(A)  Clogyline

(B)  Moclobemide

(C)  Tranylcypromine

(D)  Selegilline

Answer: (D)

65. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor used as Antiplatelate agent is :

(A)  Amrinone

(B)  Dipyridamol

(C)  Ticlopidine

(D)  Aspirin

Answer: (B)

66. Antimetic agent used during the cancer treatment is :

(A)  Promethazine

(B)  Metoclopramide

(C)  Odensetron

(D)  Cinnarizine

Answer: (C)

67. SMON Syndrome is related to :

(A)  Metronidazole

(B)  Diloxanide furoate

(C)  Quiniodochlor

(D)  Tetracycline

Answer: (C)

68. Cardiotoxicity is side effect of one of the following anticancer agent :

(A)  Dactinomycin

(B)  Doxorubicin

(C)  Bleomycin

(D)  Mitomycin

Answer: (B)

69. Macrolide derivative that used as Immunosuppresent is :

(A)  Cyclosporin

(B)  Tracolimus

(C)  Basiliximab

(D)  All of these

Answer: (B)

70. Hepatotoxicity is major side effect of followings drugs except:

(A)  Ethambutol

(B)  Isoniazide

(C)  Rifampicin

(D)  Pyrazinamide

Answer: (A)

71. All the following drugs acts better in acidic urine except :

(A)  Nitrofurantoin

(B)  Methanamine

(C)  Cloxacillin

(D)  Gentamicin

Answer: (D)

72. All the following macrolide derivatives are stable in acid except:

(A)  Azithromycin

(B)  Clarithromycin

(C)  Roxithromycin

(D)  Erythromycin

Answer: (D)

73. Drug of choice for motion sickness is :

(A)  Cinnarizine

(B)  Chlorpromazine

(C)  Prochlorperazine

(D)  Haloperidol

Answer: (A)

74. Plasma expander is:

(A)  Dextrans

(B)  Human Albumin

(C)  Hetastarch

(D)  All of these

Answer: (A)

75. All of the following are prodrug except:

(A)  Lisinopril

(B)  Enalapril

(C)  Perindopril

(D)  Ramipril

Answer: (A)

76. Competitive antagonist at GABA­A receptor is :

(A)  Muscimol

(B)  Bicuculline

(C)  Flumazenil

(D)  Picrotoxin

Answer: (B)

77. Class II Antiarrhythmic drugs…………….

(A)  Slows phase 0 depolarization

(B)  Suppress phase 4 depolarization

(C)  Shorten phase 3 depolarization

(D)  Prolong phase 3 depolarization

Answer: (B)

78. Mechanism of Antimanic drug Lithium is:

(A)  Decreases the release of NA & DA

(B)  Li+ partly replace Na+ & affect ionic fluxes across brain cell

(C)  Inhibit Inositol-1-phospate T reduces supply of Inositol for regeneration of brain membrane

(D)  All the above

Answer: (D)

79. Mianserin, Antidepressants agent acts by:

(A)  Inhibiting NA & 5-HT uptake

(B)  Blocking presynaptic α2 receptor

(C)  Inhibiting NA & DA uptake

(D)  All the above

Answer: (B)

80. All of the following true about Calcitonin except

(A)  Inhibits phosphate tubular reabsorption from kidney

(B)  Inhibits resorption of Ca from bone

(C)  Inhibits Ca tubular reasbsorption from kidney

(D)  Increases resorption of Ca from bone

Answer: (D)

81. A Grignard reagent does not react with ketones with bulky group but an………reagent reacts successfully with ketones with bulky groups.

(A)  organolithium

(B)  phosphonate

(C)  Both (A) & (B)

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

82. Stereospecific reaction of dimethyl maleate with butadiene yields cis-dimethyl cyclohexene-4, 5-dicarboxylate. This is………… reaction.

(A)  Claisen

(B)  Diels-Alder

(C)  Hoffmann

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

83. Pericyclic reactions are concerted, unaffected by catalyst or solvents & have ….. transition states.

(A)  acyclic

(B)  cyclic

(C)  both (A) & (B)

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

84. Sodium boronhydride is chemoselective. It does not reduce :

(A)  esters

(B)  ketones

(C)  aldehydes

(D)  acid chlorides

Answer: (A)

85. All protein amino acids belong to …………series.

(A)  L

(B)  D

(C)  DL

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

86. Exchange of pair of groups around a sterocentere gives a different :

(A)  configurational isomer

(B)  stereoisomer

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

87. 

Answer: (B)

88. …..stereoisomers are possible in 2,3-dibromobutane.

(A)  4

(B)  2

(C)  No

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

89. Water has ………. axis of symmetry.

(A)  C3

(B)  C4

(C)  no

(D)  C2

Answer: (D)

90. Troger’s base is:

(A)  chiral

(B)  achiral

(C)  can not say

(D)  Both (A) & (B)

Answer: (A)

91. 

This is chair conformation of cyclohexane, It has……..

(A)  S6 axis

(B)  S3 axis

(C)  center

(D)  All these

Answer: (D)

92. 

These structures are:

(A)  all equivalent (R)

(B)  all equivalent, (S)

(C)  first two equivalent

(D)  last two equivalent

Answer: (D)

93. 

One of the following is correct:

(A)  Pair A : Homomers, Pair B: Diastereomers

(B)  Pair A : Diastereomers, Pair B : Diastereomers

(C)  Pair A : Homomers, Pair B : Homomers

(D)  Pair A : Diastereomers, Pair B : Diastereomers

Answer: (A)

94. 

This sulfoxide is:

(A)  (S)

(B)  (R)

(C)  not chiral

(D)  symmetrical

Answer: (B)

95. (S)-(+)-2-bromobutane when exposed to bromide ion in acetone is racemized due to……….SN­2

(A)  irreversible

(B)  reversible

(C)  stereoselective

(D)  no

Answer: (B)

96. The activation energy for cyclohexane ring inversion (rapid process) is……kcal/mol.

(A)  10.8

(B)  3.8

(C)  20

(D)  40

Answer: (A)

97. Lithium aluminium hydride reduction of 4-t-butyl-cyclohexanone gives……alcohol.

(A)  axial

(B)  equatorial

(C)  no

(D)  Both (A) & (B)

Answer: (B)

98. Witting reaction is………..regioselective.

(A)  completely

(B)  not

(C)  partially

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

99. Most of the protein amino acids have S-configuration except:

(A)  L-Alanine

(B)  L-Proline

(C)  L-Cysteine

(D)  L-Serine

Answer: (C)

100. N-acyl-L-amino acids are……….molecules.

(A)  heterochiral

(B)  homochiral

(C)  Both (A) & (B)

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

101. The allenes of the type abC = C = Cab are……….due to non planar arrangement of our groups called a chiral………. .

(A)  chiral, axis

(B)  achiral, axis

(C)  chiral, point

(D)  achiral, point

Answer: (A)

102. 

This is……….reaction.

(A)  Reformatsky

(B)  Perkin

(C)  Mannich

(D)  Knoevenagel

Answer: (C)

103. Asymmetric synthesis yields?

(A)  one enantiomer predominantly

(B)  one distereomer predominantly

(C)  Both (A) & (B)

(D)  50% mixtures of both stereomers

Answer: (C)

104. MESNA is used to relieve the side effects of….. .

(A)  methotrexate

(B)  cyclophosphamide

(C)  hydroxyurea

(D)  5-fluorouaracil

Answer: (B)

105. Cisplatin acts by inhibiting…………… .

(A)  DNA polymerase

(B)  DNA gyrase

(C)  RNA polymerase

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (A)

106. Acyclovir is widely used in treatment of :

(A)  HIV

(B)  Polio

(C)  genital herpes simplex

(D)  varicella zoster infection

Answer: (C)

107. One of the following vitamin is used along with isoniazide:

(A)  riboflavin

(B)  pyridoxine

(C)  thiamine

(D)  niacin

Answer: (B)

108. The major side effect of metformin is:

(A)  lactic acidosis

(B)  agranulocytosis

(C)  hypoglycemia

(D)  renal failure

Answer: (A)

109. One of the following antidiabetic is not hypoglycemic, but it is antihyperglycemic:

(A)  Glipizide

(B)  Glibenclamide

(C)  Tolbutamide

(D)  Metformin

Answer: (D)

110. One of the following H2 antagonist contains furan ring:

(A)  cimetidine

(B)  famotidine

(C)  ranitidine

(D)  nizatidine

Answer: (C)

111. A synonym of decorous is :

(A)  momentary

(B)  emotional

(C)  suppressed

(D)  proper

Answer: (D)

112. A antonym of hallow is :

(A)  keep silence

(B)  desecrate

(C)  instigate

(D)  prove incorrect

Answer: (B)

113. If two or more dosage forms contain the same labeled quantities of the same drug, then it is called as:

(A)  bioequivalence

(B)  chemical equivalence

(C)  clinical equivalence

(D)  therapeutic equivalence

Answer: (B)

114. The drug which is resistant to biotransformation is called:

(A)  soft drug

(B)  hard drug

(C)  prodrug

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

115. The scheduled indicating list of minimum equipments for efficient running of a pharmacy is:

(A)  M

(B)  P

(C)  N

(D)  R

Answer: (C)

116. S-H stretching region in IR is:

(A)  2600-2550 cm1

(B)  2400-2220 cm1

(C)  1600-1400 cm1

(D)  1070-1030 cm1

Answer: (A)

117. NaCl is titrated by:

(A)  redox titration

(B)  argentometric titration

(C)  iodometry

(D)  acid base titration

Answer: (B)

118. Dropping mercury electrode is used in:

(A)  amperometry

(B)  potentiometry

(C)  polarography

(D)  conductometry

Answer: (C)

119. CDRI is located at:

(A)  Kanpur

(B)  Kolkata

(C)  Lacknow

(D)  Kasauli

Answer: (C)

120. Preparation of plate in TLC is done by:

(A)  pouring

(B)  dipping

(C)  spraying

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2011 Class-VIII Question Paper With Answer Key

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2011 Class-VIII

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test

Directions-(Q. 1-10) In these question here are four terms in each question. The terms to the right of the symbol : : have the same relationship as the terms to the left of the symbol : : Out of the four terms one term is missing which is one of the alternatives given below. Find out the correct alternative and write its letter against the corresponding question on your answer sheet.

1. Stealing : Sin : : Donation : ?

(A)  Rich

(B)  Poor

(C)  Holy work

(D)  Donar

Answer: (C)

2. Hunger : Food : : Thirst : ?

(A)  Milk

(B)  River

(C)  Ocean

(D)  Water

Answer: (D)

3. Knowledge : Ignorance : : Literate : ?

(A)  Education

(B)  Illiterate

(C)  Book

(D)  School

Answer: (B)

4. Mountain : Stone : : Desert : ?

(A)  Sand

(B)  Camel

(C)  Date

(D)  Tree

Answer: (A)

5. Foot : Shoe : : Head : ?

(A)  Body

(B)  Dress

(C)  Cap

(D)  Hair

Answer: (C)

6. Action : Cause : : Suffering : ?

(A)  Result

(B)  Life

(C)  Doctor

(D)  Disease

Answer: (D)

7. Where : When : : Place : ?

(A)  Direction

(B)  Time

(C)  Movement

(D)  Difference

Answer: (B)

8. Week : Day : : Year : ?

(A)  Month

(B)  Tuesday

(C)  September

(D)  August

Answer: (A)

9. Child : Man : : Plant : ?

(A)  Fruit

(B)  Forest

(C)  Leaf

(D)  Tree

Answer: (D)

10. Feet : Walking : : Brain : ?

(A)  Attraction

(B)  Liking

(C)  Thinking

(D)  Reading

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 11-20) These questions are based on letters series. In each question some letters are missing shown by (−). The missing letters are given in a proper sequence as one of the four alternatives given under each question. Find out the correct alternative and write its letter against corresponding question number on your answer sheet.

11. – aabb – a – ab − b

(A)  b a a b

(B)  b a b a

(C)  a b b a

(D)  a b a b

Answer: (D)

12. a – b aa – aa − ab

(A)  a b b a

(B)  a a a a

(C)  b a a a

(D)  b b b b

Answer: (A)

13. ab – aa – bbb – aaa − bbba

(A)  a a a b

(B)  a b a b

(C)  b a a b

(D)  a b b a

Answer: (C)

14. aa – aaa – aaaa – aaaa − b

(A)  b b b b

(B)  b b b a

(C)  b b a a

(D)  b a a a

Answer: (B)

15. − − aba – − b

(A)  b b a b

(B)  b a b a

(C)  a b b b

(D)  a b b a

Answer: (D)

16. KJ, MLK, ONM, ?, SRQ, UTS

(A)  PQR

(B)  QOP

(C)  QPO

(D)  ONP

Answer: (C)

17. a – bbc – aab − cca

(A)  a c b

(B)  b c a

(C)  c a b

(D)  b a c

Answer: (A)

18. DEF, HIJ, MNO, ?

(A)  RST

(B)  RTV

(C)  STU

(D)  TUV

Answer: (C)

19. a – ba – cbaac − a

(A)  b a c

(B)  b c a

(C)  a c b

(D)  c a b

Answer: (D)

20. AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?

(A)  EV

(B)  VE

(C)  EU

(D)  FW

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 21-30) These questions are based on number series. One term is missing in each series and indicated by question mark (?) find out the missing term out of the four alternations given below and write its letter against the correct question number on your answer sheet.

21. 1, 2, 4, 7, 11, 16, ?

(A)  20

(B)  23

(C)  22

(D)  21

Answer: (C)

22. 49, 48, 46, 43, 39, ?

(A)  44

(B)  42

(C)  35

(D)  34

Answer: (D)

23. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

(A)  34

(B)  36

(C)  32

(D)  18

Answer: (B)

24. 19, 18, 20, 19, 21, 20, ?

(A)  22

(B)  19

(C)  23

(D)  18

Answer: (A)

25. 0, 1, 8, 64, 125, ?

(A)  189

(B)  180

(C)  198

(D)  216

Answer: (D)

26. 2, 3, 6, 11, ? , 27

(A)  18

(B)  19

(C)  16

(D)  17

Answer: (A)

27. 6, 9, 18, 21, 42, 45, ?

(A)  98

(B)  90

(C)  93

(D)  96

Answer: (B)

28. 15, 17, 14, 18, 13, ? , 12

(A)  19

(B)  20

(C)  22

(D)  21

Answer: (A)

29. 2, 5, 9, 8, 11, 15, 14, 17, 21, ?

(A)  27

(B)  25

(C)  23

(D)  20

Answer: (D)

30. 1, 7, 3, 14, 6, 21, 10, 28, ?

(A)  15

(B)  14

(C)  16

(D)  10

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 31-40) In these questions each question has four terms. Three terms are alike in some way. One term is different from others. Write the letter of the different term against the corresponding question number on your answer sheet.

31.

(A)  POLISH

(B)  SUFFER

(C)  MATTER

(D)  ATTIRE

Answer: (A)

32.

(A)  RLTK

(B)  CTES

(C)  PVRU

(D)  VDZC

Answer: (D)

33.

(A)  HSRI

(B)  FSGR

(C)  EWVF

(D)  WDCX

Answer: (B)

34.

(A)  IJKL

(B)  APQR

(C)  OTQP

(D)  EKLM

Answer: (A)

35.

(A)  N

(B)  O

(C)  P

(D)  Q

Answer: (B)

36.

(A)  ABCD

(B)  EFGH

(C)  I J K L

(D)  OPST

Answer: (D)

37.

(A)  PQRS

(B)  BCBC

(C)  WXWX

(D)  HNHN

Answer: (A)

38.

(A)  UUXW

(B)  CCDE

(C)  QRSS

(D)  LLMN

Answer: (C)

39.

(A)  CXYZ

(B)  DPQR

(C)  CFGH

(D)  CLMN

Answer: (B)

40.

(A)  SPHS

(B)  SMCS

(C)  TBMI

(D)  SLPS

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 41-50) Read the following questions carefully. On the basis of given details choose the correct alternative of questions and write letter of correct alternative against corresponding question number on your answer sheet.

41. A book contains 400 pages. What will be the number of page number 96, if counting is made from the last page of the book.

(A)  304

(B)  305

(C)  306

(D)  302

Answer: (B)

42. If the price of Guava is just half in comparison to the price of Pomegranate and the price of Pomegranate is just double of price the bananas, then what will be the price of 6 Guava if the price of dozen bananas is ten rupees?

(A)  5 Rupees

(B)  4 Rupees

(C)  6 Rupees

(D)  10 Rupees

Answer: (A)

43. If a rope is to be cut is six equal parts. What will be the maximum number of pieces?

(A)  1

(B)  6

(C)  5

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

44. There are 8 boxes full of oranges and their weight is 400 kilogram. If the weight of each empty box is 10 kilogram then the weight of oranges will be-

(A)  480 kilogram

(B)  80 kilogram

(C)  400 kilogram

(D)  320 kilogram

Answer: (D)

45. The door of a house is in the north. Entering the door there is a room towards the right hand. After entering the room there is a window towards the right hand. What will be the direction of my face, if I am standing facing towards the window?

(A)  North

(B)  South

(C)  East

(D)  West

Answer: (A)

46. My house is one kilometer south from school and my friend’s house is one kilometer in the east from my house. What will be the direction of my friend’s house from the school?

(A)  East

(B)  South

(C)  South East

(D)  North West

Answer: (C)

47. To see the time in a watch, Mohan misunderstood the minute needle as hour needle and hour needle as minute needle. In this way he found two and a half minute to 6 O’Clock. What was the correct time?

(A)  11 Past 30 minutes

(B)  12 Past 30 minutes

(C)  10 Past 30 minutes

(D)  2 Past 30 minutes

Answer: (A)

48. Anurag is elder to Hemant. Sanjay is younger to Somesh, but Anurag is older to Sanjay. Who is the youngest?

(A)  Anurag

(B)  Somesh

(C)  Hemant

(D)  Sanjay

Answer: (D)

49. Alok moves 40 km in north direction then he turns to right and moves 50 km. After this he turns to right and moves 30 km. Again he turns to right and moves 50 km. How far is he from the starting point?

(A)  10 kilometre

(B)  20 kilometre

(C)  30 kilometre

(D)  40 kilometre

Answer: (A)

50. A man moves 3 km towards East then moves 5 km toward South and finally 9 km towards North. How far is he from the starting point?

(A)  3 kilometre

(B)  4 kilometre

(C)  5 kilometre

(D)  6 kilometre

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 51-60) In these questions there equations that have become wrong due to incorrect order of sings. Choose the correct order of sings from the four alternatives given below, so that the equations become correct. Write it on your answer sheet against the corresponding question number.

51. 12 × 12 + 8 = 3

(A)  + = ×

(B)  × = +

(C)  = + ×

(D)  + × =

Answer: (A)

52. 5 + 9 = 4 – 8

(A)  + – =

(B)  = + –

(C)  = – +

(D)  – + =

Answer: (B)

53. 4 ÷ 8 = 2 × 4

(A)  ÷ × =

(B)  = ÷×

(C)  = × ÷

(D)  × = ÷

Answer: (C)

54. 25 – 2 = 75 × 25

(A)  = × –

(B)  – × =

(C)  – = ×

(D)  – × =

Answer: (D)

55. 66 = 27 × 13 – 3

(A)  = – ×

(B)  × = –

(C)  × = +

(D)  + × =

Answer: (C)

56. 29 × 27 + 8 = 7

(A)  + = ×

(B)  = × +

(C)  × = +

(D)  + × =

Answer: (A)

57. 15 = 8 + 23 – 8 × 0

(A)  + × = –

(B)  – + × =

(C)  – + = ×

(D)  + – = ×

Answer: (D)

58. 81 – 9 ÷ 12 = 3

(A)  ÷ – =

(B)  ÷ = –

(C)  = ÷ –

(D)  = – ÷

Answer: (B)

59. 7 = 6 + 5 + 18

(A)  + = +

(B)  – + =

(C)  + + =

(D)  = – +

Answer: (C)

60. 61 = 16 +77

(A)  + =

(B)  – +

(C)  + +

(D)  + –

Answer: (A)

61. If in a code language BRASS is written as 63516 and RISK is written as 6147. What will be the code SIR in the same language?

(A)  631

(B)  315

(C)  536

(D)  617

Answer: (D)

62. If in a code language BEST is written CFTU. What will be code of GATE in same language?

(A)  HBUF

(B)  HIUF

(C)  BUFT

(D)  HUBF

Answer: (A)

63. If in a code language SYSTEM is written as SYSMET and NEARER is written as AFNRER then FRACTION will be written as-

(A)  ARFITOON

(B)  CARFNOIT

(C)  ARFITCNO

(D)  NOITCARF

Answer: (B)

64. If in a code language SCIENCE is written as UFMJTJM. What will be the code of GENE in same language?

(A)  H G Q I

(B)  I H R J

(C)  I H R I

(D)  I H S J

Answer: (B)

65. If in a code language PATIENCE is written as QBUJFODF. What will be the code of COOLER?

(A)  PPMES

(B)  DPPMFS

(C)  DPMMFS

(D)  PDMNFS

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 66-70) In these questions number are placed in the figure on the basis of some rules. One place is vacant which is indicated as (?). Find out the correct alternative to replace the question mark (?) and write its letter against the proper question number on your answer sheet.

66.

(A)  2

(B)  21

(C)  17

(D)  8

Answer: (A)

67. 

(A)  28

(B)  30

(C)  15

(D)  60

Answer: (B)

68. 

(A)  50

(B)  52

(C)  54

(D)  56

Answer: (D)

69. 

(A)  8

(B)  16

(C)  32

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

70. 

(A)  35

(B)  45

(C)  55

(D)  65

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 71-75) These questions are based on the following figure. Triangle represents literate person, circle represents women and square represents sports persons. See the picture carefully and find out the correct alternative and write its number on your answer sheet.

71. How many persons are literate?

(A)  5

(B)  17

(C)  3

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

72. How many women are literate?

(A)  6

(B)  4

(C)  19

(D)  9

Answer: (D)

73. How many sport women are there ?

(A)  4

(B)  2

(C)  13

(D)  9

Answer: (A)

74. How many persons are literate but not women?

(A)  9

(B)  8

(C)  12

(D)  17

Answer: (B)

75. How many sports women are not literate?

(A)  6

(B)  10

(C)  4

(D)  19

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 76-84) In these questions are four figures in each questions. The figures on the right to the symbol : : have the some relationship as the two figures on the left of the symbol : : Out of the four figures on figure is missing which is one of the four alternatives given in Answer figure. Find out the correct alternative and write its number against the corresponding question on your answer sheet.

76. 

Answer: (D)

77. 

Answer: (D)

78. 

Answer: (D)

79. 

Answer: (B)

80. 

Answer: (C)

81. 

Answer: (D)

82. 

Answer: (C)

83. 

Answer: (C)

84. 

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 85-90) In these questions each question has four figures, three figures are alike in some way. One figure is different from others. Find out the different figures letter and write it against the corresponding question number on your answer sheet.

85. 

Answer: (C)

86. 

Answer: (D)

87. 

Answer: (B)

88. 

Answer: (B)

89. 

Answer: (D)

90. 

Answer: (C)

Part-II

Scholastic Aptitude Test

(A) Science

91. Mercury is the ideal liquid for making thermometer because-

(A)  It does not stick to glass and is easily visible

(B)  Expands on heating

(C)  Its boiling point is high

(D)  All the above

Answer: (D)

92. The umbra is seen-

(A)  Inside the penumbra

(B)  Outside the penumbra

(C)  Away from the penumbra

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

93. The speed of sound depend upon-

(A)  Elasticity of the medium

(B)  Temperature

(C)  Density of the medium

(D)  All the above

Answer: (D)

94. The pressure exerted on the area of 0.25 m2 by 25000 Newton force will be-

(A)  10000 N/m2

(B)  10000 N/m2

(C)  1000000 N/m2

(D)  6250 N/m2

Answer: (B)

95. The element used in making a solar cell is-

(A)  Boron

(B)  Silver

(C)  Silicon

(D)  Copper

Answer: (C)

96. The chemical formula of potassium permanganate is-

(A)  KKNO4

(B)  KMnO4

(C)  K2MnO4

(D)  K­4MnO4

Answer: (B)

97. To remove temporary hardness of water by Clark method the substance used is-

(A)  Lime

(B)  Washing Soda

(C)  Zeolite

(D)  Caustic Soda

Answer: (A)

98. The coal gas is-

(A)  H2 + CO + C2H5OH + C6H6

(B)  H2 + CO2 + CCl4 + C6H6

(C)  H2 + CO + CH4 +  C2H4 + C2H2

(D)  H2 + CO2 + CH3OH + C2H4 + C2H2

Answer: (C)

99. The soil used in ceramic industry is-

(A)  Clay

(B)  Loaming soil

(C)  Sandy soil

(D)  Silt

Answer: (A)

100. Which of the following steps is different?

(A)  Calcination

(B)  Roasting

(C)  Concentration

(D)  Corossion

Answer: (C)

101. Which metal is related to Kollar mine?

(A)  Silver

(B)  Gold

(C)  Aluminium

(D)  Iron

Answer: (B)

102. Electric Fuse holders are made of-

(A)  Polythene

(B)  Clay

(C)  China Clay

(D)  Bakellite

Answer: (C)

103. Which part of Mulethi plant is used in Respiratory diseases?

(A)  Fruit

(B)  Stem

(C)  Flower

(D)  Root

Answer: (B)

104. Protein present in milk is-

(A)  Lactogen

(B)  Casein

(C)  Myosin

(D)  Actin

Answer: (B)

105. Which part of the plant is related to root cap?

(A)  Root

(B)  Bud

(C)  Seed

(D)  Stem

Answer: (A)

106. Full name of A.T.P. is-

(A)  Ammonium Triphosphate

(B)  Adenine Tetraphosphate

(C)  Adenosine Triphosphate

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

107. The tail of a Neuron cell is called-

(A)  Cyton

(B)  Axon

(C)  Dendron

(D)  Tendon

Answer: (B)

108. Which Tissues of the plant carry food from the leaves to other parts?

(A)  Collenchyma

(B)  Xylem

(C)  Sclerenchyma

(D)  Phloem

Answer: (D)

109. Though fats produce more energy than carbohydrates, patients are given a solution containing carbohydrates not the fat. The reason is-

(A)  Fats released energy much slower than carbohydrates

(B)  Carbohydrates are good in taste

(C)  Fats are not easily digestible

(D)  Fats are insoluble in water

Answer: (A)

110. Hyperlink is used in-

(A)  To open Internet

(B)  To link one page with another

(C)  To give password

(D)  To open windows

Answer: (B)

111. Internet explorer is-

(A)  Website

(B)  I.S.P.

(C)  Hardware

(D)  Browser

Answer: (D)

112. Fuse wire is made of-

(A)  Sn + Pb

(B)  Sn + Fe

(C)  Sn + Cu

(D)  Cu + Zn

Answer: (A)

113. A magnetic material loses its magnetic property when it is-

(A)  Dipped in water

(B)  Kept in sunlight

(C)  Heated strongly

(D)  Kept in electric field

Answer: (C)

114. When an object is placed on the focal length of a convex lens, the nature of the image formed is-

(A)  Real, inverted and equal

(B)  Real, erect and enlarged

(C)  Real, inverted and much enlarged

(D)  Real, inverted and diminished

Answer: (C)

115. Quantity of heat (Q) = ………….

(A)  mass × specific heat × change in temperature

(B)  mass × change in temperature × density

(C)  mass × volume × relative density

(D)  mass × heat capacity × change in temperature

Answer: (A)

116. The part of an electric bulb which is made of Tungsten metal in this picture is-

(A)  D

(B)  B

(C)  C

(D)  A

Answer: (B)

117. Diamond is soluble in-

(A)  Petrol

(B)  Alcohol

(C)  Water

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

118. When an acid is added to water slowly, then-

(A)  Heat is absorbed

(B)  No change in heat occurs

(C)  Heat is produced

(D)  Nothing happens

Answer: (C)

119. At what temperature the density of water is maximum ?

(A)  4°C

(B)  0°C

(C)  100°C

(D)  37°C

Answer: (A)

120. The cloth made from cotton and synthetic fibres is known as-

(A)  Rayon

(B)  Terilene

(C)  Tericot

(D)  Polyester

Answer: (C)

121. Copper glance ore is-

(A)  Carbonate ore

(B)  Sulphide ore

(C)  Oxide ore

(D)  Halide ore

Answer: (B)

122. Plasma contains water around-

(A)  30%

(B)  60%

(C)  90%

(D)  40%

Answer: (D)

123. The origin of species through natural selection theory was proposed by-

(A)  Hugo de-Vries

(B)  Malthus

(C)  Lamarck

(D)  Darwin

Answer: (D)

124. The reproductive cells of parents produce-

(A)  Ovum

(B)  Gamete

(C)  Testis

(D)  Zygote

Answer: (B)

125. Select the air borne disease from the following-

(A)  Penumonia

(B)  Tuberculosis

(C)  Diphtheria

(D)  Above all

Answer: (A)

(B) Social Science

126. The most significant achievement of the Neolithic age was-

(A)  Manufacture of useful tools

(B)  Invention of wheels

(C)  Beginning of community life

(D)  Domestication of animal

Answer: (D)

127. Harappa was discovered by-

(A)  Sir John Marshall

(B)  Martimer Wheeler

(C)  Roy Bahadur Dayaram Sahani

(D)  Dr. S. R. Rav

Answer: (C)

128. Mahavir Swami was born at-

(A)  Pawa

(B)  Kundagram

(C)  Lumbini

(D)  Rajgriha

Answer: (B)

129. Which religion believes in Triratan?

(A)  Buddhism

(B)  Vaishnavism

(C)  Shaivism

(D)  Shaktism

Answer: (A)

130. Who is the founder of Din-e-Ilahi?

(A)  Humayun

(B)  Mohd. Gaznavi

(C)  Shershah Suri

(D)  Akbar

Answer: (D)

131. The battle of Plassey was fought in-

(A)  1757 A.D.

(B)  1760 A.D.

(C)  1764 A.D.

(D)  1770 A.D.

Answer: (A)

132. Of which state, Tipu Sultan was ruler-

(A)  Mysore

(B)  Hyderabad

(C)  Ahmedabad

(D)  Khanpur

Answer: (A)

133. Who was the founder of Brahma Samaj?

(A)  Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(B)  Keshav Chandra Sen

(C)  Mahadev Govind Ranadey

(D)  Swami Dayanand

Answer: (A)

134. The first state to sign a Subsidiary Allia was-

(A)  Awadh

(B)  Hyderabad

(C)  Mysore

(D)  Satara

Answer: (B)

135. The first Railway line was opened in India between-

(A)  Howrah and Serampur

(B)  Bombay and Thane

(C)  Madras and Guntur

(D)  Delhi and Agra

Answer: (B)

136. The Salt Satyagrah began from-

(A)  Sabarmati

(B)  Calcutta

(C)  Bardoli

(D)  Lahore

Answer: (A)

137. Abhinav-Bharat was organized by-

(A)  Arvind Ghosh

(B)  Vein Chandra Pal

(C)  Ras Behari Bose

(D)  V. D. Savarkar

Answer: (D)

138. Who was the first Viceroy of India?

(A)  Lord Curzon

(B)  Lord Canning

(C)  Clive

(D)  William Bentic

Answer: (B)

139. The only active volcano in India is-

(A)  Etna

(B)  Vesuvius

(C)  Barren Island

(D)  Stromboli

Answer: (C)

140. What is the percentage of India’s population to the World Population?

(A)  6

(B)  16.7

(C)  26

(D)  36

Answer: (B)

141. Light from the sun reaches us in nearly-

(A)  Two minutes

(B)  Three minutes

(C)  Eight minutes

(D)  Sixteen minutes

Answer: (C)

142. Which city of India has the largest population?

(A)  Kolkata

(B)  Chennai

(C)  Mumbai

(D)  Delhi

Answer: (C)

143. Which state of India has the highest coal reserve with it?

(A)  Chhattisgarh

(B)  Orissa

(C)  Bihar

(D)  Jharkhand

Answer: (D)

144. World Population day is-

(A)  October 15

(B)  July 11

(C)  August 11

(D)  June 5

Answer: (B)

145. ‘Bishu’ is the folk dance of which state?

(A)  Uttar Pradesh

(B)  Assam

(C)  West Bengal

(D)  Maharashtra

Answer: (B)

146. The father of Green Revolution in India is-

(A)  Prakash Chandra

(B)  Abdul Kalam

(C)  M. S. Swaminathan

(D)  Birbal Sahani

Answer: (C)

147. Which continent has the highest population density?

(A)  Asia

(B)  Europe

(C)  Africa

(D)  South America

Answer: (A)

148. Which state is known as ‘Silicon state of India’ ?

(A)  Karnataka

(B)  Andhra Pradesh

(C)  Uttar Pradesh

(D)  Kerala

Answer: (A)

149. Who was called the father of Atomic Energy of India?

(A)  Homi J. Bhabha

(B)  Dr. K. S. Krishna

(C)  Prof. Satish Dhawan

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

150. Which is called ‘Plastic Money’?

(A)  Paper currency

(B)  Credit card

(C)  Discount coupon

(D)  Shares

Answer: (B)

151. The Headquarter of World Trade Organization is in-

(A)  Montreal

(B)  Seatle

(C)  Geneva

(D)  Rome

Answer: (C)

152. In which city the first atomic bomb was exploded ?

(A)  Hiroshima

(B)  Kabul

(C)  Lisbon

(D)  Rome

Answer: (A)

153. What is the minimum age requirement to become the Prime Minister of India?

(A)  21 years

(B)  25 years

(C)  30 years

(D)  35 years

Answer: (B)

154. Under the Indian Constitution who is the Guardian of the fundamental right?

(A)  Parliament

(B)  President

(C)  Cabinet

(D)  Supreme Court

Answer: (D)

155. The election to Panchayat are to be held in-

(A)  Every four years

(B)  Every five years

(C)  Every six years

(D)  At the Government discretion

Answer: (B)

156. The ex-officio chairman of planning commission is-

(A)  President

(B)  Finance Minister

(C)  Vice-President

(D)  Prime-Minister

Answer: (D)

157. The Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by-

(A)  Lok Sabha

(B)  Prime Minister

(C)  President

(D)  Chief Justice

Answer: (C)

158. How many states are there in India?

(A)  25

(B)  27

(C)  28

(D)  29

Answer: (C)

159. Who’s thought is known as Panchsheel ?

(A)  A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

(B)  Jawaharlal Nehru

(C)  Indira Gandhi

(D)  B. R. Ambedkar

Answer: (B)

160. Which of President of India is called the “Missile Man” ?

(A)  Dr. Radha Krishnan

(B)  Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

(C)  Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

(C) Mathematics

161. The value of  will be-

(A)  2

(B)  0

(C)  1

(D)  −1

Answer: (D)

162. If 50% of (x – y) = 30% of (x + y), then percentage of y/x will be-

(A)  25%

(B)  30%

(C)  15%

(D)  10%

Answer: (A)

163. A boy is 25 years younger than his father. Three years ago the boy’s age was one sixth the age of his father, then the present age of the boy will be-

(A)  10 years

(B)  6 years

(C)  8 years

(D)  4 years

Answer: (C)

164. Expression 461 + 462 + 463 + 464 will be divisible by-

(A)  3

(B)  10

(C)  11

(D)  13

Answer: (B)

165. If 4x – 4x – 1 = 24. Then the value of (2x)x will be-

(A)  55/2

(B)  51/3

(C)  41/2

(D)  61/2

Answer: (A)

166. The value of the following will be-

(A)  4

(B)  6

(C)  8

(D)  10

Answer: (A)

167. If the area of a triangle with base x is equal to the area of a square with side x, then the altitude of triangle will be-

(A)  x/2

(B)  x

(C)  2x

(D)  3x

Answer: (C)

168. The value of expression  will be-

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

169. In a rhombus ABCD, the diagonals intersects at O, if AB = 10 cm, diagonal BD = 16 cm, then the length of the diagonal AC will be-

(A)  12 cm

(B)  16 cm

(C)  8 cm

(D)  6 cm

Answer: (A)

170. In the figure, O is centre of a circle. If ∠ADC = 140°, the ∠BAC will be-

(A)  40°

(B)  50°

(C)  90°

(D)  70°

Answer: (B)

171. The value of a machine depreciates every year by 15%. If its present value is Rs. 50,000, then after a year the value of machine will be-

(A)  Rs. 40,000

(B)  Rs. 42,000

(C)  Rs. 42,500

(D)  Rs. 43,000

Answer: (C)

172. If  then the value of x will be-

(A)  1

(B)  13

(C)  27

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

173. Mean of 12 observations was found to be 18. Later on, it was detected that an observation 62 was misread as 26, then the correct mean of the observation will be-

(A)  28

(B)  31

(C)  33

(D)  36

Answer: (B)

174. If A and B are two sets. Then the value of A ⋃ (A ⋂ B) will be-

(A)  A

(B)  B

(C)  A ⋃ B

(D)  A – B

Answer: (A)

175. The least common multiple of two numbers is 28 times their highest common factor. The difference of least common multiple and highest common factor of these numbers is 810. If one number is 120, then the other number will be-

(A)  420

(B)  210

(C)  120

(D)  810

Answer: (B)

176. A ludo dice is rolled. The Probability that the number of dots less than 5 will be-

(A)  5/6

(B)  2/3

(C)  1/3

(D)  1/6

Answer: (B)

177. The ratio of bus and train fares from Calcutta to a certain place is 3 : 4, if the train fare increases by 20% and bus fare by 10%, then new ratio of bus and train fare will be-

(A)  12 : 16

(B)  16 : 11

(C)  4 : 3

(D)  11 : 16

Answer: (D)

178. The value of expression n will be-

(A)  n + m

(B)  m

(C)  n + m + 1

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

179. The price of a Maruti car rises by 30%, while the sales of the car goes down by 20%. The percentage change in the total revenue will be-

(A)  5%

(B)  4%

(C)  6%

(D)  10%

Answer: (B)

180. Sohan walks at 4/5 of his usual speed and reaches his school 4 minutes late. The usual time taken by him to reach his school will be-

(A)  16 minutes

(B)  12 minutes

(C)  15 minutes

(D)  20 minutes

Answer: (A)

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2012 Class-VIII Question Paper With Answer Key

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2012 Class-VIII

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test

   Directions-(Q. 1-10) Each question has four term. Three term are alike in some way. One term is different from three others. Find out the correct term which are different from three other of its alternative letter.

1.

(A)  Ranchi

(B)  Chennai

(C)  Agartala

(D)  Pune

Answer: (B)

2.

(A)  Mathematics

(B)  Trigonometry

(C)  Algebra

(D)  Geometry

Answer: (A)

3.

(A)  Tomato

(B)  Radish

(C)  Cauliflower

(D)  Brinjal

Answer: (B)

4.

(A)  CGK

(B)  EIM

(C)  HLP

(D)  KNQ

Answer: (D)

5.

(A)  L12, O15

(B)  M14, S20

(C)  F6, J10

(D)  K11, R18

Answer: (B)

6. 

Answer: (D)

7. 

Answer: (C)

8. 

Answer: (C)

9. 

Answer: (D)

10. 

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 11-20) There are four terms in each question. The terms right to the symbol : : have some relationship as the two terms of the left of symbol : : Out of the four term one term is missing which is one of the four alternative given below. Find out the correct alternative.

11. ENPR : HRUX : : GLNP : ?

(A)  IPTV

(B)  JPSV

(C)  JOTV

(D)  PTJU

Answer: (B)

12. LORV : JLNQ : : INQW : ?

(A)  GKMR

(B)  HKNR

(C)  FLNT

(D)  HLMU

Answer: (A)

13. FLMQ : ILPU : : HLOV : ?

(A)  MNTX

(B)  LPTZ

(C)  KPRZ

(D)  KOQW

Answer: (C)

14. IMQW : :LPTZ : : ELRU : ?

(A)  HPUX

(B)  HOUX

(C)  IPVW

(D)  IPWX

Answer: (B)

15. Lothal : Gujarat : Kalibanga : ?

(A)  Chhattisgarh

(B)  Tripura

(C)  Karnataka

(D)  Rajasthan

Answer: (D)

16. 

Answer: (A)

17. 

Answer: (C)

18. 

Answer: (D)

19. 

Answer: (A)

20. 

Answer: (D)

Direction- (Q. 21-25) are based on number series. In each series one term is missing which has been indicated by question mark (?). Find out the missing term from the given four alternative letter.

21. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?

(A)  37

(B)  39

(C)  41

(D)  34

Answer: (A)

22. 2, 7, 14, 23, ?

(A)  41

(B)  46

(C)  34

(D)  42

Answer: (C)

23. 3, 9, 16, 22, 29, 35, 42, ?

(A)  54

(B)  48

(C)  45

(D)  56

Answer: (B)

24. 195, 193, 190, 186, 181, ?

(A)  196

(B)  179

(C)  175

(D)  171

Answer: (C)

25. 5, 24, 61, 122, 213, ?

(A)  340

(B)  225

(C)  276

(D)  320

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 26-30) Each problems figure four design given at the left hand side consisting sequential order and the place of fifth figure is vacant, which has been shown by question mark (?). Four answer figure are given against each problem figure. Find out the correct answer figure-

26. 

Answer: (C)

27.

Answer: (A)

28. 

Answer: (C)

29. 

Answer: (A)

30. 

Answer: (C)

Directions- (Q. 31-35) The letters in column I are coded in form of numbers which are written in column II but the orders of numbers is different. Study the code of letters the find out the correct answer for each question from given four alternative-

Column I                                   Column II

ELN                                           435

CFN                                           372

GFN                                           632

CLS                                            758

31. What is the code for word CFGN ?

(A)  4359

(B)  7263

(C)  2635

(D)  5724

Answer: (B)

32. What is the code of word GNLE ?

(A)  3756

(B)  2463

(C)  4735

(D)  6354

Answer: (D)

33. What is the code for word CEG ?

(A)  746

(B)  623

(C)  753

(D)  463

Answer: (A)

34. What is the code for word ELFN ?

(A)  3267

(B)  7624

(C)  4523

(D)  5317

Answer: (C)

35. What is the code for word ECSN?

(A)  2573

(B)  9346

(C)  4783

(D)  6347

Answer: (C)

36. If in a code language BULLOCK is written as OCKLBUL How IMPROBITY is written in similar language-

(A)  ITYROBIMP

(B)  YTIBORPMI

(C)  ITYBORIMP

(D)  IYTROBIPM

Answer: (A)

37. If in a code language ‘LUNAR’ is written as ‘TPSQN’. How ‘NARUL’ is written in similar language-

(A)  SNQPT

(B)  SQNPT

(C)  SPQNT

(D)  STNQP

Answer: (B)

38. If in a code language CALCUTTA is written as 81. How MADRAS is written in similar language-

(A)  65

(B)  54

(C)  64

(D)  56

Answer: (D)

39. If in a code language PALACE is written as APALEC. How EQUALITY is written in similar language-

(A)  QEAUILYT

(B)  UAQLAYTI

(C)  QEUAILTY

(D)  YTILAUQE

Answer: (A)

40. If in a code language PRIEST is written as RPIETS. How MISSILE is written in similar language-

(A)  IMISSEL

(B)  MISSIEL

(C)  IMSSIEL

(D)  IMSSILE

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 41-45) Given below, four words/numbers are written in every question and Four answer alternative are given below against each question. The words/numbers in the question are related to each other in some way one word/number from among four answer alternative goes best with the words/numbers in the question. Find of the correct alternative-

41. Ranchi, Dehradun, Bhubeneshwar, Banglore-

(A)  Kolkata

(B)  Ahmedabad

(C)  Pune

(D)  Guwahati

Answer: (A)

42. 2, 6, 12, 20,

(A)  26

(B)  42

(C)  30

(D)  35

Answer: (C)

43. 17, 19, 23, 29,

(A)  34

(B)  31

(C)  45

(D)  51

Answer: (B)

44. Daman and Diu, Pondicherry, Lakshadweep, Delhi-

(A)  Dadar Nagar Haveli

(B)  Goa

(C)  Bihar

(D)  Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (A)

45. Onion, Garlic, Carrot, Beetroot-

(A)  Brinjal

(B)  Lady Finger

(C)  Radish

(D)  Bottle guard

Answer: (C)

Directions- (Q. 46-50) Are based on the information given below, Read the information carefully and find out the correct alternative number from the four alternative?

Anand have interest in Cricket, Chess and Football. Vein have interest in Football, Hockey and Cricket. Nitin have interest Cricket, Hockey and Football, Mukesh have interest in Cricket, Hockey and Chess.

46. In which game most people has interest?

(A)  Chess

(B)  Cricket

(C)  Football

(D)  Hockey

Answer: (B)

47. In which game least people has interest?

(A)  Chess

(B)  Hockey

(C)  Cricket

(D)  Football

Answer: (A)

48. Who play the chess?

(A)  Anand and Vipin

(B)  Anand and Nitin

(C)  Vein and Nitin

(D)  Anand and Mukesh

Answer: (D)

49. How many people has interest in Hockey game-

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  1

Answer: (C)

50. How many people has interest in Football game-

(A)  1

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  2

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 51-55) Each of the following questions has a group of the three words which are related to each other in some way. This relationship can be represented by one of the four figure alternative given in the beginning. Find out the correct figure alternative.

51. Parliament, Loksabha, Rajaysabha-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

52. Meter, Litre, Kilogram-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

53. House, Door, Window-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

54. India, Maharashtra, Mumbai-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

55. Jharkhand, Ranchi, Raipur-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 56-60) Each of the questions are based on the information given below. Read the information carefully and find out the correct alternative number form the four alternative.

   In graduate Ramesh opted History, Geography and Sanskrit, Santosh opted Economics, Sanskrit and Geography, Manoj opted Geography, Sanskrit and Philosophy and Manish opted Economics, History and Sanskrit.

56. Which subject has opted by the most student?

(A)  Geography

(B)  Sanskrit

(C)  Philosophy

(D)  Economics

Answer: (B)

57. Which subject has opted by the least student?

(A)  Economics

(B)  History

(C)  Philosophy

(D)  Sanskrit

Answer: (C)

58. The students who did not opt Geography subject?

(A)  Manish

(B)  Santosh

(C)  Manoj

(D)  Ramesh

Answer: (A)

59. How many students opted Philosophy subject?

(A)  4

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  1

Answer: (D)

60. The students who did not opt History subject?

(A)  Manoj and Ramesh

(B)  Ramesh and Santosh

(C)  Santosh and Manoj

(D)  Manish and Santosh

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 61-70) In questions the equations have become wrong because of the wrong order of sings. Choose the correct order of signs from the four option given below so as to make the equations right.

61. 7 – 6 + 73 = 31

(A)  + – =

(B)  = – +

(C)  × = –

(D)  × ÷ =

Answer: (C)

62. 9 ÷ 6 + 11 – 4

(A)  – + =

(B)  = + +

(C)  + – =

(D)  = × ÷

Answer: (B)

63. 9 ÷ 6 + 11 – 4

(A)  – + =

(B)  = + +

(C)  × – =

(D)  + – =

Answer: (D)

64. 83 + 19 – 68 = 4

(A)  – = –

(B)  – + =

(C)  = – +

(D)  – × =

Answer: (A)

65. 9 ÷ 6 + 11 =4

(A)  – + =

(B)  + – =

(C)  = – ×

(D)  = ÷ +

Answer: (B)

66. 9 + 9 × 49 = 32

(A)  – + =

(B)  = – +

(C)  × – =

(D)  ÷ + =

Answer: (C)

67. 9 = 3 × 7 – 10

(A)  ÷ + =

(B)  + – =

(C)  + + =

(D)  × – =

Answer: (A)

68. 39 = 3 × 5 – 65

(A)  × – =

(B)  = + ÷

(C)  = – ×

(D)  ÷ × =

Answer: (D)

69. 3 = 5 × 7 – 8

(A)  × + =

(B)  × – =

(C)  + ÷ =

(D)  = – ÷

Answer: (B)

70. 36 – 6 = 3 + 9

(A)  = + ÷

(B)  − ÷ =

(C)  – + =

(D)  ÷ + =

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 71-80) Questions are based on definite series. In given question some letters are missing shown by – The missing letters are given in proper sequence as one of the four alternative given under each question. Find out the correct alternative.

71. – CE – L – E – LC – K

(A)  KCLEK

(B)  ELCKE

(C)  LCKEL

(D)  LKCKE

Answer: (D)

72. – – L – N – LO – GL –

(A)  NGOGNO

(B)  ONGNGO

(C)  GONGNO

(D)  ONGLNG

Answer: (A)

73. – PK – J – K – JP – T

(A)  KJPTJ

(B)  JPKTP

(C)  JTPTK

(D)  TJKPT

Answer: (C)

74. – – C – O – CP – N – –

(A)  PNOCNPN

(B)  ONPNOCP

(C)  NCPONCP

(D)  CNPOCNO

Answer: (B)

75. – – C – L – C – LK – N

(A)  CNLKCN

(B)  NLKCNC

(C)  LKNKNC

(D)  LCKNLK

Answer: (C)

76. – FH – O – H – OF – N

(A)  ONFNH

(B)  NOFHN

(C)  OFHNN

(D)  OHFNO

Answer: (A)

77. – – P – R – PS – KP –

(A)  KSRSKR

(B)  RSRKRS

(C)  SRKSRK

(D)  RKSKRS

Answer: (D)

78. – SN – M – N – M – W

(A)  MSNWS

(B)  MWSWN

(C)  SWMNS

(D)  WSNMS

Answer: (B)

79. – – G – S – GT – R – –

(A)  STRGRST

(B)  SRGSTRT

(C)  SRTRSGT

(D)  RSTGRST

Answer: (C)

80. – – E – N – E – NM – P

(A)  NMPMPE

(B)  MNEPEM

(C)  NMEMPN

(D)  ENMNPE

Answer: (A)

81. If in a code language CFIK is written as EIMP. So how EGJM would be written in similar code language?

(A)  HJMR

(B)  IJNT

(C)  GJNR

(D)  GJMS

Answer: (C)

82. If in a code language SRNG is written as NNKE. So how PNLI would be written in similar code language ?

(A)  KJIG

(B)  JLIF

(C)  KKIH

(D)  LJIM

Answer: (A)

83. If in a code language DGHL is written as FKNT. So how FJLN would be written in similar code language?

(A)  GNSW

(B)  HMSU

(C)  NRHU

(D)  HNRV

Answer: (D)

84. If in a code language USNG is written as NMIC. So how WTPL would be written in similar code language?

(A)  PMLH

(B)  PNKH

(C)  RMKI

(D)  RNLJ

Answer: (B)

85. If in a code language CHJT is written as GDNP. So how FILV would be written in similar code language?

(A)  IEOR

(B)  JFPS

(C)  JEPR

(D)  KEQS

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q.86-90) Each of the questions are based on the information given below. Read the information carefully and find out the correct alternative number from the four alternative.

Among the five brothers and sisters, Bina is the elder than Nita. Ramesh is elder than Nita but younger than Bina. Dinesh is younger than Suresh and Nita. Nita is the elder than Suresh.

86. Who is the eldest among five brothers and sisters?

(A)  Bina

(B)  Nita

(C)  Suresh

(D)  Ramesh

Answer: (A)

87. Who is in the middle among five brothers and sisters?

(A)  Dinesh

(B)  Bina

(C)  Suresh

(D)  Nita

Answer: (D)

88. Who is the youngest among five brothers and sisters?

(A)  Suresh

(B)  Nita

(C)  Dinesh

(D)  Bina

Answer: (C)

89. Who is in between Bina and Nita?

(A)  Suresh

(B)  Ramesh

(C)  Dinesh

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

90.Who is in between Nita and Dinesh?

(A)  Bina

(B)  Ramesh

(C)  Suresh

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

Part-II

Scholastic Aptitude Test

(A) Science

91. Unit of specific heat is-

(A)  Joule

(B)  Calorie

(C)  Calorie/Kg

(D)  Joule/Kg °C

Answer: (D)

92 . Lens used in Myopia is-

(A)  Convex lens

(B)  Concave lens

(C)  Both

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

93. Hotest Planet is-

(A)  Jupitor

(B)  Mars

(C)  Saturn

(D)  Venus

Answer: (D)

94. If an object is at infinity then image formed by convex lens is-

(A)  On focus, real, small

(B)  Inside focus, real, same size

(C)  One infinite, virtual, very large

(D)  Double of focal distance, inverted, very big

Answer: (A)

95. Main constituent of L.P.G is-

(A)  Propane + Butane

(B)  Methane

(C)  Nitrous oxide

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

96. Gas filled in electric bulb is-

(A)  Argon

(B)  Carbondioxide

(C)  Neon

(D)  Methane

Answer: (A)

97. Radius of earth in meter is-

(A)  105

(B)  108

(C)  1011

(D)  107

Answer: (A)

98. Time taken to complete one revolution of earth around the sun is called-

(A)  Solar year

(B)  Solar day

(C)  Leap year

(D)  Light year

Answer: (A)

99. Dynamo is used in-

(A)  Generator

(B)  Electromagnet

(C)  Electric bulb

(D)  Photo voltic cell

Answer: (A)

100. Specific heat of water is-

(A)  4200 J/Kg°C

(B)  2400 J/Kg°C

(C)  42 J/Kg°C

(D)  233 J/Kg°C

Answer: (A)

101. Which gas contain smell of rotten egg?

(A)  Oxygen

(B)  Carbon dioxide

(C)  Hydrogen sulphide

(D)  Nitrogen

Answer: (C)

102. Which metal can not displace hydrogen from water?

(A)  Sodium

(B)  Copper

(C)  Potassium

(D)  Calcium

Answer: (B)

103. The lead of a pencil is made up of-

(A)  Graphite

(B)  Clay

(C)  Charcoal

(D)  Graphite and clay

Answer: (A)

104. Charge on electron is-

(A)  1.6 × 1019 C

(B)  1.78 × 108 C

(C)  1 × 1019 C

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

105. Gypsum is used in-

(A)  Plaster of Paris

(B)  Paper

(C)  Cosmetics

(D)  Glass

Answer: (A)

106. Absolute zero temperature is-

(A)  −273°C

(B)  373°C

(C)  273°C

(D)  −4°C

Answer: (A)

107. Which metal is preserved in kerosene?

(A)  Mercury

(B)  Sodium

(C)  Sulpher

(D)  Magnesium

Answer: (B)

108. Water gas is mixture of-

(A)  CO + H2

(B)  CO + H2O

(C)  N2 + H2O

(D)  CO2 + H2O

Answer: (A)

109. What is used in the purification of water?

(A)  I2

(B)  Br2

(C)  Cl2

(D)  SO2

Answer: (C)

110. Which element have 8 electrons in its outer most orbit?

(A)  O

(B)  Ne

(C)  Na

(D)  Mg

Answer: (B)

111. Which of the following is electrically neutral particle?

(A)  α

(B)  β

(C)  Proton

(D)  Neutron

Answer: (D)

112. Device used for measuring pressure is-

(A)  Barometer

(B)  Lectometer

(C)  Thermometer

(D)  Sesmometer

Answer: (A)

113. Which radioactive element is used in cancer therapy?

(A)  U­235

(B)  Cobalt-60

(C)  Zn

(D)  Duterium

Answer: (B)

114. Which of the following rays passes undeviated through an electric field?

(A)  α−Ray

(B)  β−Ray

(C)  Gama – Ray

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

115. Purest form of coal is-

(A)  Anthricite

(B)  Lignite

(C)  Bauxite

(D)  Pyrite

Answer: (D)

116. Pencillin was discovered by-

(A)  Alexander Fleming

(B)  Edward Zener

(C)  Hober Lander

(D)  Darwin

Answer: (A)

117. Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness?

(A)  Vitamin K

(B)  Vitamin B

(C)  Vitamin A

(D)  Vitamin C

Answer: (C)

118. Which blood group have antigen ?

(A)  Group A

(B)  Group B

(C)  Group AB

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

119. Ozone hole enhances-

(A)  UV radiation reaching earth surface

(B)  Skin Cancer

(C)  Both

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

120. Which metal harms us ?

(A)  Lead

(B)  Cobalt

(C)  Uranium

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

121. Bhopal gas tragedy took place because methyl isocynate reacted with-

(A)  DDT

(B)  Ammonia

(C)  Carbondioxide

(D)  Water

Answer: (D)

122. Jaundice is related with-

(A)  Kidney

(B)  Stomach

(C)  Lung

(D)  Liver

Answer: (D)

123. AIDS virus enters the human body through-

(A)  Food

(B)  Kissing

(C)  Water

(D)  Blood

Answer: (D)

124. AIDS was first reported in-

(A)  Russia

(B)  France

(C)  America

(D)  Germany

Answer: (C)

125. Malaria is spread by mosquito-

(A)  Male culex

(B)  Female culex

(C)  Male Anophelese

(D)  Female Anophelese

Answer: (D)

(B) Social Science

126. Sandal wood is produced in abundance in-

(A)  Andhra Pradesh

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Karnataka

(D)  Kerala

Answer: (C)

127. ‘Root Pressure’ is measured by-

(A)  Potometer

(B)  Barometer

(C)  Monometer

(D)  Oxcanometer

Answer: (B)

128. Which of the following is a common capital city of two states?

(A)  Delhi

(B)  Chandigarh

(C)  Jammu

(D)  Bengalooru

Answer: (B)

129. Which of the following food is obtained from trees?

(A)  Almond

(B)  Groundnut

(C)  Maize

(D)  Potato

Answer: (A)

130. Which one of these planets is warmer than Earth?

(A)  Jupiter

(B)  Venus

(C)  Plato

(D)  Saturn

Answer: (B)

131. Which city is famous for its rock garden-

(A)  Lucknow

(B)  Mysore

(C)  Hyderabad

(D)  Chandigarh

Answer: (D)

132. The highest Himalayan Peak is located in-

(A)  India

(B)  Bhutan

(C)  Nepal

(D)  Tibbet

Answer: (C)

133. The longest National Highway in India connects-

(A)  Mumbai and Kolkata

(B)  Kolkata and Delhi

(C)  Chennai and Kolkata

(D)  Varanasi and Kanyakumari

Answer: (D)

134. Which city is known as Pink City?

(A)  Udaipur

(B)  Agra

(C)  Jaipur

(D)  Kanpur

Answer: (C)

135. In following countries which country is also a continent?

(A)  New Zealand

(B)  Australia

(C)  England

(D)  India

Answer: (B)

136. Which one of the following town has winters when there is summer in India?

(A)  Shanghai

(B)  Damuscus

(C)  Melbourne

(D)  Osaka

Answer: (C)

137. How many days are there in a leap year?

(A)  365 days

(B)  366 days

(C)  386 days

(D)  327.3 days

Answer: (B)

138. Mahatma Gandhi started Dandi march on-

(A)  14 March, 1930

(B)  13 March, 1930

(C)  12 March, 1930

(D)  11 March, 1930

Answer: (C)

139. Gautam Buddha attained Enlightenment in-

(A)  Sarnath

(B)  Kapilvastu

(C)  Pataliputra

(D)  Bodh Gaya

Answer: (D)

140. Select the incorrect matching-

(A)  Punjab Kesari-Lala Lajpat Rai

(B)  Netaji – Subash Chandra Bose

(C)  Mahamana – Madan Mohan Malviya

(D)  Lok Nayak – Jawahar Lal Nehru

Answer: (D)

141. The first and the last women to rule from the throne of Delhi, was-

(A)  Chand Bibi

(B)  Jahan Ara

(C)  Noorjahan

(D)  Rajia Sultan

Answer: (D)

142. The first Prime Minister of Pakistan was-

(A)  Liaquat Ali Khan

(B)  Mohammed Ali Jinna

(C)  Abdul Gaffar Khan

(D)  Khwaja Nizamuddin

Answer: (A)

143. Which of the following discoveries led the Historic Man towards settled life?

(A)  Wheel

(B)  Agriculture

(C)  Stone Weapons

(D)  Fire

Answer: (D)

144. What was the food of Pre-Historic Man?

(A)  Root and Fruits

(B)  Cooked Meat

(C)  Wheat and rice

(D)  Milk and butter

Answer: ()

145. The Chief God of the Indus valley civilization was-

(A)  Ram

(B)  Krishna

(C)  Pashupati Shiva

(D)  Sheshnag

Answer: (C)

146. Which one of the following is the oldest scripture?

(A)  Rigveda

(B)  Maha Bharat

(C)  Valmiki Ramayana

(D)  Samveda

Answer: (A)

147. In order to propagate Buddhism, Ashoka the great sent his son and daughter to-

(A)  Malasiya

(B)  Burma

(C)  Sri Lanka

(D)  Thailand

Answer: (C)

148. In Ancient India, Society was divided in-

(A)  Eight Groups

(B)  Four Groups

(C)  Seven Groups

(D)  Six Groups

Answer: (C)

149. Who wrote ‘Shahnama’?

(A)  Omer Khayyam

(B)  Firdausi

(C)  Sheikh Sadi

(D)  Kaundilya

Answer: (B)

150. Who is the highest elected officer of Nagar Nigam?

(A)  Mayer

(B)  Deputy Mayer

(C)  Gram Pradhan

(D)  Commissioner

Answer: (A)

151. The Indian constitution was prepared by-

(A)  Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru

(B)  Mahatma Gandhi

(C)  Constituent Assembly

(D)  Supreme Cout

Answer: (C)

152. Constitution of India came to effect on-

(A)  26 January, 1950

(B)  14 November, 1948

(C)  2 October, 1947

(D)  15 August, 1947

Answer: (A)

153. The number of Fundamental Rights given in the Indian Constitution is-

(A)  5

(B)  6

(C)  7

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

154. Who protects our fundamental rights?

(A)  President

(B)  Prime Minister

(C)  Supreme Court

(D)  Parliament

Answer: (C)

155. The first fully literate State was-

(A)  Kerala

(B)  Karnataka

(C)  Rajasthan

(D)  Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (A)

156. What is the qualification for membership for the state legislature?

(A)  He must be a graduate

(B)  He must be an Indian citizen

(C)  He must be living in the Same State

(D)  He must be a social worker

Answer: (B)

157. The High Court of Uttar Pradesh is situated at-

(A)  Kanpur

(B)  Agra

(C)  Allahabad

(D)  Meerut

Answer: (C)

158. The Judges of the High Court at appointed by the-

(A)  The President of India

(B)  Chief Justice of India

(C)  Chief Justice of the concerned High Court

(D)  Ministry of Law and Justice

Answer: (A)

159. Right to vote can be exercised by one who has reached the age of-

(A)  18 years

(B)  21 years

(C)  25 years

(D)  28 years

Answer: (A)

160. In which direction of India China lies-

(A)  East

(B)  West

(C)  North

(D)  South

Answer: (C)

(C) Mathematics

161. If A’s money is more than B’s money by 25%. Then B’s money will less than A’s money by-

(A)  25%

(B)  20%

(C)  Equal

(D)  100%

Answer: (B)

162. A bus goes from house to school by speed of 60 km/hr and returns back with speed of 40 km/hr, then average velocity of bus will be-

(A)  50 Km/hr

(B)  48 Km/hr

(C)  45 Km/hr

(D)  60 Km/hr

Answer: (B)

163. If figure PA and PB are tangents to the circle whose centre is O. ∠APB = 60°, then measure of ACB will be-

(A)  60°

(B)  120°

(C)  240°

(D)  100°

Answer: (B)

164. If  then value of x will be-

(A)  36

(B)  6

(C)  30

(D)  15

Answer: (C)

165. The complete circle of radius 3 cm that can be cut from sheet of 18 cm length 12 cm width will be-

(A)  6

(B)  8

(C)  10

(D)  5

Answer: (A)

166. If x = 11, y = −7, z = −4, then value of x3 + y3 + z3 will be-

(A)  924

(B)  0

(C)  500

(D)  824

Answer: (A)

167. If 3x = 500, then value 3x – 2 will be-

(A)  100/9

(B)  1000/9

(C)  500/9

(D)  500/3

Answer: (C)

168. If 200% of number is 20, then 50% of that number will be-

(A)  5

(B)  10

(C)  15

(D)  20

Answer: (A)

169. If  then value of  will be-

(A)  52

(B)  42

(C)  16

(D)  64

Answer: (A)

170. If A and B are two sets than value of (A – B) ⋂ (B – A) will be-

(A)  A ⋃ B

(B)  A ⋂ B

(C)  ϕ

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

171. A card is drawn from a pack of card then probability of, it is a face card will be-

(A)  3/13

(B)  4/13

(C)  5/13

(D)  7/13

Answer: (A)

172. If ax = by = cz abc, then value of  will be-

(A)  −1

(B)  x y z

(C)  1

(D)  1/xyz

Answer: (C)

173. The value of  will be

(A)  3

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  0

Answer: (D)

174. The value of expression  will be-

(A)  9/19

(B)  10/19

(C)  10/21

(D)  11/21

Answer: (C)

175. 1/5th of a pole is black 1/4th is white and remaining 3 meters is yellow, then the length of pole will be-

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  5.5 m

Answer: (A)

176. Present age of A is twice that of B. 30 years from now age of A will be  that of B. The present age of A and B will be-

(A)  60, 30

(B)  30, 60

(C)  40, 80

(D)  80, 40

Answer: (A)

177. Arithmetic Mean of 12 observations is 15. If each observation is multiplied by 4 then new Arithmatic Mean will be-

(A)  15

(B)  30

(C)  45

(D)  60

Answer: (D)

178. If figure A, B and C are the centres of circles each of radius 7 cm. Then area of shaded region will be-

(A) 

(B) 

(C)  72 √3 cm2

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

179. The difference of squares of two consecutive odd number is 24, then smaller number will be-

(A)  1

(B)  5

(C)  25

(D)  49

Answer: (B)

180. The maximum value of expression 27 – 19x – 81 will be-

(A)  27

(B)  17

(C)  44

(D)  26

Answer: (A)

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2013 Class-VIII Question Paper With Answer Key

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2013 Class-VIII

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test

Directions-(Q. 1-10) Each question has four terms. Three terms are alike in some way. One term is different from others. Write the letter of the different term against the corresponding question number on your answer sheet-

1.

(A)  Mercury

(B)  Mars

(C)  Moon

(D)  Saturn

Answer: (C)

2.

(A)  Pistol

(B)  Sword

(C)  Gun

(D)  Rifle

Answer: (B)

3.

(A)  21

(B)  19

(C)  23

(D)  17

Answer: (A)

4.

(A)  9 – 169

(B)  25 – 81

(C)  16 – 36

(D)  121 – 49

Answer: (D)

5.

(A)  D B G

(B)  E B J

(C)  B D H

(D)  C E O

Answer: (D)

6.

Answer: (D)

7. 

Answer: (D)

8. 

Answer: (A)

9. 

Answer: (C)

10. 

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 11-20) There are four terms in each question. The term to the right of the symbol : : have the same relationship as the terms to the left of the symbol : : Out of the four terms one term is missing which is one of the alternatives given below. Find out the correct alternative and write its letter against the corresponding question on your answer sheet-

11. Jharkhand : Ranchi : : Chhattisgarh : ?

(A)  Pune

(B)  Dispur

(C)  Raipur

(D)  Bhopal

Answer: (C)

12. Sushil Kumar : Wrestling : : Unmukt Chand : ?

(A)  Chess

(B)  Cricket

(C)  Football

(D)  Table Tennis

Answer: (B)

13. 3 : 24 : : 5 : ?

(A)  120

(B)  126

(C)  136

(D)  115

Answer: (C)

14. F N R W : H P T Y : : H M P S : ?

(A)  I N P T

(B)  J O R V

(C)  K N O R

(D)  J O R U

Answer: (D)

15. D H O T : E J R X : : F K N V : ?

(A)  H L M U

(B)  I N P T

(C)  G M Q Z

(D)  J L M W

Answer: (C)

16.

Answer: (C)

17. 

Answer: (D)

18. 

Answer: (C)

19. 

Answer: (D)

20. 

Answer: (D)

21. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, ?

(A)  36

(B)  25

(C)  28

(D)  42

Answer: (C)

22. 2, 12, 20, 30, 42, ?

(A)  62

(B)  32

(C)  49

(D)  56

Answer: (D)

23. 2, 5, 11, 23, 47, ?

(A)  95

(B)  92

(C)  96

(D)  84

Answer: (A)

24. 13, 20, 28, 37, 47, 58, ?

(A)  67

(B)  65

(C)  70

(D)  72

Answer: (C)

25. 47, 44, 40, 35, 29, 22, ?

(A)  16

(B)  14

(C)  18

(D)  13

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 26-30) Each problem four figure is given at the left hand side consisting sequential designs and the place for firth figure is vacant which has been shown by question mark (?) Four answer figures are given against each problem figure. Find out the correct answer figure and write its alternative letter against the proper question number on your answer sheet.

26. 

Answer: (D)

27. 

Answer: (C)

28. 

Answer: (B)

29. 

Answer: (D)

30. 

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 31-35) Are based on letter series. In each question some letters are missing shown by (−). The missing letters are given in a proper sequence as one of the four alternative given under each question. Find out the correct alternative and write its letter against corresponding question number on  your answer sheet.

31. d b – c – c d – b c c −

(A)  d a c b

(B)  b c b c

(C)  c b d b

(D)  b b c c

Answer: (B)

32. S – C K – A – K S – C −

(A)  A C K S K

(B)  K A C A K

(C)  A S C A K

(D)  C A S K C

Answer: (C)

33. n n – p n – o p – n o −

(A)  n o p o

(B)  o n n p

(C)  n n o p

(D)  o n p o

Answer: (B)

34. J L – P J – N − − L N −

(A)  N L J P N

(B)  L J N L N

(C)  P L J L P

(D)  N L P J P

Answer: (D)

35. A M – Z O – A – A Z − N

(A)  A N M O

(B)  N N M N

(C)  M A N O

(D)  Z M N O

Answer: (A)

36. In any code language PENCIL is written as NCLAGL, in the same code language TABLE will be written as-

(A)  S Z A K C

(B)  R Y Z J E

(C)  Q X Y I B

(D)  R X B I E

Answer: (B)

37. If BAG is written as 14, CUB is written as 126, DIG will be written as-

(A)  20

(B)  156

(C)  252

(D)  124

Answer: (C)

38. If in a code language 237 is written as 144 and 159 is written as 225, in the same language the code of 627 will be written as-

(A)  324

(B)  289

(C)  225

(D)  144

Answer: (C)

39. If in any language TRUCK is written as GIFXP, in the same language LIGHT will be written as-

(A)  OQTRG

(B)  TRQGO

(C)  ORTSG

(D)  ROSGT

Answer: (C)

40. If any code language SUN is written as 8613, in the same language WAR will be written as-

(A)  3629

(B)  6324

(C)  9264

(D)  4269

Answer: (D)

41. If any code language abdomen is written as ebnamdo, in the same code language absence will be written as-

(A)  cbeanse

(B)  nscbeae

(C)  cbnseae

(D)  nsecbea

Answer: (A)

42. There are five Saturday in a 30 days month. What was the first day at that month-

(A)  Sunday

(B)  Friday

(C)  Wednesday

(D)  Monday

Answer: (B)

43. If it was Monday on 15th of March 1999. What was the day on 10th of July 1999-

(A)  Friday

(B)  Tuesday

(C)  Saturday

(D)  Wednesday

Answer: (C)

44. If day after tomorrow is Thursday, what was the day three days before yesterday?

(A)  Tuesday

(B)  Saturday

(C)  Friday

(D)  Sunday

Answer: (C)

45. In 2009, 15 August was celebrated on Saturday. In the same year 31 August had been celebrated on-

(A)  Thursday

(B)  Friday

(C)  Sunday

(D)  Monday

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 46-50) Are based on the following information. Read the information carefully and choose the correct alternative out of four alternative and write its letter against the proper equations number on your answer sheet.,

Information :  Six boys N T V P K and B are standing in a line. The boy ‘T’ is standing in between P and ‘B’. The boy ‘N’ is neither next to ‘B’ nor ‘P’. The boy ‘V’ is not standing next to ‘P’. The boy ‘K’ is standing in between ‘N’ and ‘V’.

46. Between whom the boy ‘B’ is standing ?

(A)  K − T

(B)  K − P

(C)  P − V

(D)  T − V

Answer: (D)

47. Between whom the boy ‘V’ is standing?

(A)  B − N

(B)  K − B

(C)  T − K

(D)  N − T

Answer: (B)

48. Who is standing at the fourth position from right end?

(A)  T

(B)  K

(C)  B

(D)  N

Answer: (C)

49. Who is standing at the right hand of ‘K’?

(A)  B

(B)  N

(C)  P

(D)  T

Answer: (B)

50. Who is standing at the fifth position from left end?

(A)  B

(B)  V

(C)  K

(D)  N

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q51-58) The question have become wrong because of the wrong order of signs. Choose the correct order of signs from the four options given below each question so as to make the questions right. Write the alternative of the correct option on your answer sheet against the corresponding question number.

51. 56 – 8 = 49 ÷ 16 × 327

(A)  = × ÷ −

(B)  ÷ − × =

(C)  − × = ÷

(D)  ÷ × − =

Answer: (D)

52. 96 + 30 × 3 = 62 ÷ 24

(A)  ÷ + = −

(B)  − ÷ = +

(C)  − = + ÷

(D)  + ÷ − =

Answer: (B)

53. 25 × 5 ÷ 30 = 60 – 90

(A)  − ÷ = +

(B)  × = ÷ −

(C)  = × ÷ −

(D)  ÷ × − =

Answer: (D)

54. 5 + 9 × 6 = 26 – 13

(A)  − × + =

(B)  + − × =

(C)  × − = +

(D)  × + = −

Answer: (C)

55. 9 ÷ 117 – 13 × 5 = 36

(A)  − ÷ = ×

(B)  = ÷ × −

(C)  ÷ × = −

(D)  × = − ×

Answer: (B)

56. 15 – 5 = 5 × 10 × 7

(A)  = × − ×

(B)  × − = ×

(C)  − × × =

(D)  × = − ×

Answer: (B)

57. 17 + 25 = 5 + 10 ÷ 2

(A)  + = ÷ +

(B)  = + ÷ +

(C)  = ÷ + +

(D)  + = + ÷

Answer: (C)

58. 45 × 9 = 10 ÷ 5 + 55

(A)  + × ÷ =

(B)  = × + ÷

(C)  ÷ × = +

(D)  ÷ + × =

Answer: (D)

59. Shyam moves towards east from the point P and walks for 20 km, turning to right he walks for 10 km, again he turns to right and walks for 20 km and reaches to point Q. Now in which direction is Shyam’s face?

(A)  North

(B)  South

(C)  East

(D)  West

Answer: (B)

60. Two friends are sitting joining their back. If the face of a friend is towards north, in which direction will be the right hand of the second friend?

(A)  East

(B)  West

(C)  North

(D)  South

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 61-70) Numbers are placed in figure on the basis of some rules. One place is vacant which is indicated as (?). Find out the correct alternative for the vacant place and write its letter against the proper question number on your answer sheet.

61. 

(A)  7

(B)  9

(C)  6

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

62. 

(A)  210

(B)  220

(C)  230

(D)  240

Answer: (D)

63. 

(A)  47

(B)  37

(C)  28

(D)  45

Answer: (B)

64. 

(A)  36

(B)  54

(C)  55

(D)  56

Answer: (B)

65. 

(A)  31

(B)  25

(C)  23

(D)  19

Answer: (A)

66. 

(A)  50.5

(B)  51.5

(C)  52.5

(D)  53.5

Answer: (C)

67. 

(A)  15

(B)  30

(C)  45

(D)  90

Answer: (C)

68. 

(A)  17

(B)  34

(C)  289

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

69. 

(A)  6

(B)  12

(C)  18

(D)  26

Answer: (D)

70. 

(A)  14

(B)  25

(C)  49

(D)  343

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 71-75) Are based on the following information. Read the information carefully and choose the correct alternative out of four alternative and write its letter against the proper question number on your answer sheet.

Information-A father had five sons named Raman, Aman, Naman, Gagan and Chaman. Aman was born in 1968. Naman is 9 years older than Raman while 7 year younger than Aman. Gagan is three year older than Raman and 8 year younger than Chaman.

71. How many year Aman is older than Chaman?

(A)  5 year

(B)  8 year

(C)  7 year

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

72. How many different of year between Raman and Chaman?

(A)  5 year

(B)  7 year

(C)  9 year

(D)  11 year

Answer: (D)

73. Who was born in leap year in addition to Aman?

(A)  Raman

(B)  Gagan

(C)  Chaman

(D)  Naman

Answer: (A)

74. In which year Gagan was born ?

(A)  1975

(B)  1983

(C)  1981

(D)  1972

Answer: (C)

75. Who is the middle order among five brothers?

(A)  Chaman

(B)  Naman

(C)  Gagan

(D)  Raman

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 76-80) Are based on the information given below. Read the information carefully and find out the correct answer out of the four alternative and write its alternative letter on your answer sheet against the proper question number.

Information- In a family there are six members A, B, C, D, E and F. ‘C’ is sister of ‘F’. ‘A’ is brother of the husband of E. ‘D’ is father of ‘A’ and grandfather of F. There are two fathers, three brothers and one mother in this family.

76. How many male members are there in this family?

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  2

(D)  1

Answer: (A)

77. What is the relation between F and E?

(A)  Husband-Wife

(B)  Father-in-law-daughter in law

(C)  Son-mother

(D)  Brother-sister

Answer: (C)

78. Which group belongs to brother?

(A)  A B C

(B)  A B F

(C)  A B D

(D)  B D F

Answer: (B)

79. Who is the husband of ‘E’?

(A)  B

(B)  D

(C)  C

(D)  A

Answer: (A)

80. Who is the mother in this family?

(A)  A

(B)  C

(C)  B

(D)  E

Answer: (D)

81. A clock bells one time at on O’ clock, two times at 2 O’ clock, 3 times at three O’ clock and so on. How many times will it bell in total at twelve O’ clock.

(A)  12 times

(B)  24 times

(C)  156 times

(D)  78 times

Answer: (D)

82. In a mirror a clock’s minute hand is seen at 12 and the hour hand is seen at 0, then what will had the actual time?

(A)  9 O’ Clock

(B)  6 O’ Clock

(C)  3 O’ Clock

(D)  4 O’ Clock

Answer: (C)

83. To see the time in a watch, a man misunderstood the minute hand as hour hand and hour hand as minute hand. In this way he saw 12 minute past 5 by the watch. What was the correct time?

(A)  7 : 50

(B)  2 : 25

(C)  2 : 22

(D)  3 : 20

Answer: (B)

84. For street light all the pole was fixed in a straight line putting the interval of 50 metre. What will be distance between first pole and the ninth pole ?

(A)  350 metre

(B)  400 metre

(C)  410 metre

(D)  50 metre

Answer: (B)

85. A man, for some work, gets one rupee on the first day, it double money i.e. 2 rupees on second day and its double i.e. 4 rupees on third day and so on it continued till 15 days. What amount will be get at 15th day?

(A)  Rs 309

(B)  Rs 5124

(C)  Rs 8192

(D)  Rs 16384

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 86-90) Are based on following letter series. Study the letter series carefully and find out the correct alternative out of the four alternative letter on your answer sheet against the proper question number.

n o I j o n p t a k t l n o p u j e t b n a p u b

86. In this series which letter is been repeated the most?

(A)  o

(B)  n

(C)  p

(D)  t

Answer: (B)

87. In this series how many times the vowel occurs before and after consonant?

(A)  One time

(B)  Two time

(C)  Three time

(D)  Four time

Answer: (D)

88. In this series how many times vowel occurs before consonant but not after consonant?

(A)  One time

(B)  Two time

(C)  Three time

(D)  Four time

Answer: (D)

89. In this series how many times the vowel occurs after consonant but not before consonant?

(A)  One time

(B)  Two time

(C)  Three time

(D)  Four time

Answer: (D)

90. Which letters are been repeated for three times?

(A)  j p o

(B)  o n t

(C)  t o p

(D)  b o n

Answer: (C)

Part-II
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

Science

91. Non-renewable source of energy amongst the following is-

(A)  Air

(B)  Water

(C)  Biogas

(D)  Coal

Answer: (D)

92. What is the time period of minute needle of a clock?

(A)  1 minute

(B)  1 hour

(C)  12 hour

(D)  24 hours

Answer: (B)

93. Distilled water is-

(A)  Good conductor of Electricity

(B)  Non-conductor of Electricity

(C)  Weak conductor of Electricity

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

94. The Non-magnetic material is-

(A)  Nickel

(B)  Iron

(C)  Cobalt

(D)  Gold

Answer: (D)

95. An object placing 2F in front of convex lens, the image will be-

(A)  Virtual, Erect, Bigger

(B)  Real, Inverted, Bigger

(C)  Real, Inverted, Same size

(D)  Real, Inverted, Smaller

Answer: (C)

96. The upthrust force on an object depends on its-

(A)  Shape and size

(B)  Weight (lightness/heaviness)

(C)  Length and width

(D)  Volume and density

Answer: (D)

97. When a light ray enters from lighter medium into denser medium, then it-

(A)  bends away from normal

(B)  bends towards normal

(C)  travels in the direction of normal

(D)  does not deviate at all

Answer: (B)

98. All of the following are unit of time, except-

(A)  Second

(B)  Month

(C)  Year

(D)  Light year

Answer: (D)

99. I.S.P. (Internet Service Provider) is-

(A)  A device which provide Internet service

(B)  Provides password

(C)  Connect computer to internet through telephone

(D)  Provide facility to use internet

Answer: (D)

100. The speed of light in vacuum is-

(A)  2 × 108 km/sec

(B)  3 × 105 km/sec

(C)  5 × 103 km/sec

(D)  9× 104 km/sec

Answer: (B)

101. Resistance of ideal Ammeter is-

(A)  Zero

(B)  Infinite

(C)  Very less

(D)  Very much

Answer: (A)

102. The figure given below represents-

(A)  Switch in the ‘ON’ position

(B)  Switch in the ‘OFF’ position

(C)  Circuit breaker

(D)  Battery

Answer: (A)

103. Triple bond between carbon-carbon is present in-

(A)  CH4

(B)  C2H6

(C)  C2H4

(D)  C2H2

Answer: (D)

104. The drinking water can be purified by-

(A)  Chlorine

(B)  Ozonisation

(C)  Both processes

(D)  D.D.T.

Answer: (C)

105. The density of water is maximum on-

(A)  0°C

(B)  100°C

(C)  4°C

(D)  −4°C

Answer: (C)

106. Purification of metal is done by-

(A)  Roasting

(B)  Electrolysis

(C)  Smelting

(D)  Calcination

Answer: (B)

107. The Producer gas is-

(A)  CO + N2

(B)  CO + H2

(C)  CO2 + N2

(D)  CH2 + H2

Answer: (A)

108. Which of the following compound different?

(A)  Benzene

(B)  Coke

(C)  Phenol

(D)  Toluene

Answer: (B)

109. Teflon is a polymer of-

(A)  Flouro ethylene

(B)  Tetraflouroethylene

(C)  Polythene

(D)  Polyvinyl-chloride

Answer: (B)

110. Gas released by Gobar gas plant is-

(A)  Benzene

(B)  Ethane

(C)  Butane

(D)  Methane

Answer: (D)

111. Phosphorus used in making Matchbox is-

(A)  White Phosphorus

(B)  Black Phosphorus

(C)  Brown Phosphorus

(D)  Red Phosphorus

Answer: (A)

112. Equal number of electrons are in which group?

(A)  6C12 and 6C13

(B)  7N14 and 8O16

(C)  6C12 and 8O16

(D)  2He4 and 1H1

Answer: (A)

113. Compound which can exist in all the three states of matter-

(A)  Methane

(B)  Water

(C)  Nitrogen gas

(D)  Producer gas

Answer: (B)

114. Plant Hormone in the following is-

(A)  Adrenaline

(B)  Thyroxine

(C)  Gibberellin

(D)  Insulin

Answer: (C)

115. Photosynthesis is done by which organelles-

(A)  Mitochondria

(B)  Endoplasmic Reticulum

(C)  Ribosome

(D)  Chloroplast

Answer: (D)

116. ‘Plumule’ develops into-

(A)  Shoot

(B)  Root

(C)  Leaf

(D)  Flower

Answer: (A)

117. By which process plants gives us Oxygen?

(A)  Respiration

(B)  Circulation

(C)  Excretion

(D)  Photosynthesis

Answer: (D)

118. Desert plant in the following is-

(A)  Mango

(B)  Jamun

(C)  Cactus

(D)  Banana

Answer: (C)

119. In living beings, unit of Heredity is-

(A)  Chromosome

(B)  Gene

(C)  DNA

(D)  RNA

Answer: (B)

120. Sudden change in genetic material is-

(A)  Adaptation

(B)  Natural selection

(C)  Mutation

(D)  Reproduction

Answer: (C)

121. Organism which is not cellular in the following-

(A)  Bacteria

(B)  Amoeba

(C)  Paramecium

(D)  Virus

Answer: (D)

122. Power house of the cell is-

(A)  Chloroplast

(B)  Mitochondria

(C)  Ribosome

(D)  Lysosome

Answer: (B)

123. To diagnose AIDS, which test us used-

(A)  ELISA

(B)  Widal

(C)  E.C.G.

(D)  X-Ray

Answer: (A)

124. Which is not found in milk?

(A)  Carbohydrate

(B)  Vitamin-B

(C)  Fat

(D)  Vitamin-C

Answer: (D)

125. By which element deficiency causes anaemia?

(A)  Iron

(B)  Nitrogen

(C)  Potassium

(D)  Oxygen

Answer: (A)

Social Science

126. Which Planet is called as ‘Sister Planet of Earth’ of ‘Twin Planet of Earth’?

(A)  Mercury

(B)  Venus

(C)  Jupiter

(D)  Uranus

Answer: (B)

127. ‘Manna Loa’ an active volcano is situated at-

(A)  Hawaiian Island

(B)  Chile

(C)  Ecuador

(D)  California

Answer: (A)

128. ‘Death Valley’ is known for-

(A)  Excess hotness

(B)  Excess coldness

(C)  Excess depth

(D)  Excess length

Answer: (A)

129. ‘Tsunami’ word is related with the language-

(A)  French

(B)  Latin

(C)  Japanese

(D)  Chinese

Answer: (C)

130. Which country is largest producer and exporter of softwood and wood pulp?

(A)  Norway

(B)  Sweden

(C)  U.S.A.

(D)  Canada

Answer: (D)

131. Kalgoorlie mines located in Australia is famous for-

(A)  Gold Production

(B)  Iron Production

(C)  Silver Production

(D)  Tin Production

Answer: (A)

132. The farming of citrus fruit is mainly done in-

(A)  Hot Desert Region

(B)  Polar Region

(C)  Mediterranean Region

(D)  Tropical Grassland Region

Answer: (C)

133. Igloo, Harpoon, Slaze cart is used by-

(A)  Eskimo

(B)  Pygmy

(C)  Masai

(D)  Bushman

Answer: (A)

134. The Southern most point of India is-

(A)  Kivithu, Arunachal Pradesh

(B)  Gaur Mota, Gujarat

(C)  Indira Point, Great Nicobar

(D)  Siachin Glacier, Jammu-Kashmir

Answer: (C)

135. According to the Census 2011 the Sex-ratio of India is-

(A)  940

(B)  933

(C)  989

(D)  904

Answer: (A)

136. Brahamputra River in Tibet is known as-

(A)  Tsang Po

(B)  Yamuna

(C)  Old Ganga

(D)  Meghna

Answer: (A)

137. Which state of the country has largest production of coffee?

(A)  Karnataka

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Uttar Pradesh

(D)  Jammu-Kashmir

Answer: (A)

138. By which name Chanakya was known in his Childhood?

(A)  Chandragupta

(B)  Vishnugupta

(C)  Skandgupta

(D)  Kumargupta

Answer: (B)

139. The first invader of Muslim Ruler in India was-

(A)  Qutubuddin Ebak

(B)  Mahmood Gaznavi

(C)  Muhammad Bin Kasim

(D)  Muhammad Gauri

Answer: (C)

140. ‘Deen-E-Elahi’ was founded by which Emperor?

(A)  Jahangir

(B)  Akbar

(C)  Humaun

(D)  Shershah

Answer: (B)

141. “Aadigranth or Guru Granth Sahib” is compiled by-

(A)  Guru Arjun Dev

(B)  Guru Tegbahadur

(C)  Guru Nanak

(D)  Guru Govind Singh

Answer: (A)

142. “Satyameve Jayte” word is taken from-

(A)  Mundkopnishada

(B)  Kathopnishad

(C)  Tatriya opnishad

(D)  Chhandogyaopnishad

Answer: (A)

143. The Birth Place of Gautam Buddha is-

(A)  Lumbini

(B)  Bodhgaya

(C)  Sarnath

(D)  Kushinagar

Answer: (A)

144. The founder of Jaipur City was-

(A)  Jai Singh

(B)  Maan Singh

(C)  Chhatrasal

(D)  Akbar

Answer: (A)

145. The first European Company came in India for trade was-

(A)  Portuguese

(B)  Dutch

(C)  English

(D)  French

Answer: (A)

146. ‘Aanand Math’ Novel was written by-

(A)  Ravindra Nath Tagoe

(B)  Dada Bhai Naurozi

(C)  Bankim Chandra Chaterji

(D)  Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer: (C)

147. The first Viceroy of India was-

(A)  Lord Canning

(B)  Lord Elgin

(C)  Lord Duffrin

(D)  Lord Rippen

Answer: (A)

148. ‘Chauri-chaura’ tragedy was related with which city-

(A)  Gorakhpur

(B)  Allahabad

(C)  Panipat

(D)  Azamgarh

Answer: (A)

149. The Autobiography of Mahatma Gandhi is-

(A)  Hindi Swaraj

(B)  Navjeevan

(C)  Young India

(D)  My Experience with Truth

Answer: (D)

150. The first Education Minister of free India was-

(A)  Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

(B)  Abdul Kalam Azad

(C)  Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(D)  Jagjeevan Ram

Answer: (B)

151. Total numbers of fundamental rights at present is-

(A)  6

(B)  7

(C)  4

(D)  5

Answer: (A)

152. National Song ‘VandeMataram’ was written by-

(A)  Ravindra Nath Tagore

(B)  Bankim Chandra Chatarjee

(C)  Bhagat Singh

(D)  Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Answer: (B)

153. Which language is not included in 8th schedule of the Constitution?

(A)  Urdu

(B)  Nepali

(C)  Konkani

(D)  Bhojpuri

Answer: (D)

154. In which state of India, the first time women was appointed as Chief Minister-

(A)  Uttar Pradesh

(B)  Bihar

(C)  Gujarat

(D)  Assam

Answer: (A)

155. In which state of India Panchayati Raj System was started first time?

(A)  Gujarat

(B)  Rajasthan

(C)  Jammu-Kashmir

(D)  Bihar

Answer: (B)

156. The first deputy Prime Minister of India was-

(A)  Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

(B)  Morarji Desai

(C)  Chaudhary Devi Lal

(D)  Lal Krishna Advani

Answer: (A)

157. United Nations Organization was established in-

(A)  24 October, 1945

(B)  15 August, 1947

(C)  26 January, 1950

(D)  30 January, 1948

Answer: (A)

158. Which type of system is formed in a city, where population is more than five lakh?

(A)  Nagar Panchayat

(B)  Nagar Palika Parishad

(C)  Nagar Nigam

(D)  Gram Panchayat

Answer: (C)

159. Among the following, who is the elected representative?

(A)  Gram Panchayat Adhikari

(B)  Gram Vikas Adhikari

(C)  Lekhpal

(D)  Gram Pradhan

Answer: (D)

160. ‘Bharat-Natyam’ is a dance of which state?

(A)  Tamil Nadu

(B)  Odisha

(C)  Kerla

(D)  Karnataka

Answer: (A)

Mathematics

161. The value of 

(A)  1

(B)  x

(C)  y

(D)  x/y

Answer: (D)

162. will be-

(A)  x2

(B)  x – y

(C)  x + y

(D)  1

Answer: (B)

163. A boy is 25 years younger than his father. Three years ago the boy’s age was one sixth the age of his father, then the present age of the boy will be-

(A)  10 years

(B)  6 years

(C)  8 years

(D)  4 years

Answer: (C)

164. If 2x = 8, then the value of x will be-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

165. If  then the value of  will be-

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (C)

166. 30% of 5000 will be-

(A)  300

(B)  500

(C)  1500

(D)  3000

Answer: (C)

167. The value of expression:  will be-

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

168. A wire is in the form of a circle of radius 28 cm. Area of the square into which the wire is bent will be-

(A)  1936 cm2

(B)  1866 cm2

(C)  19.36 cm2

(D)  193.6 cm2

Answer: (A)

169. If  then the value of z will be-

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (B)

170. The value of expression  will be-

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (B)

171. In a rhombus ABCD, the diagonals intersects at O, if AB = 10 cm, diagonal BD = 16 cm. Then the length of the diagonal AC will be-

(A)  12 cm

(B)  16 cm

(C)  8 cm

(D)  6 cm

Answer: (A)

172. The Arithmetic mean of 2, 3 and 4 will be-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  9

Answer: (B)

173. The Highest common factor (HCF) of two numbers is 9 and their least common multiple (LCM) is 270. If the sum of the numbers is 99, their difference will be-

(A)  18

(B)  9

(C)  12

(D)  15

Answer: (B)

174. If A = {1, 3, 5} and B = {3, 5, 7, 9), then A ⋂ B will be-

(A)  {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}

(B)  {3, 5}

(C)  {7, 9}

(D)  {1}

Answer: (B)

175. In a right angle triangle ABC, ∠A = 90°, ∠B = ∠30°, then the ∠C will be-

(A)  30°

(B)  45°

(C)  60°

(D)  90°

Answer: (C)

176. If a labour completes a work in 3 days, then 3 labours will complete the same work together in-

(A)  1 day

(B)  3 days

(C)  2 days

(D)  4 days

Answer: (A)

177. The value of a machine depreciates every year by 15%. If its present value is Rs 50,000, then after one year the value of machine will be-

(A)  Rs 40,000

(B)  Rs 42,000

(C)  Rs 42,500

(D)  Rs 43,000

Answer: (C)

178. The value of –

will be-

(A)  4

(B)  6

(C)  8

(D)  10

Answer: (A)

179. The value of  will be-

(A)  x2

(B)  y2

(C)  1

(D)  x/y

Answer: (C)

180. The value of x° will be-

(A)  x

(B)  1

(C)  0

(D)  2

Answer: (B)

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2014 Class-VIII Question Paper With Answer Key

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2014 Class-VIII

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test

Direction- In questions 1 to 10 each question has four terms. Three terms are alike in some way. One term is different from others. Write the number of the different term against the proper question number on year answer sheet-

1.

(A)  Lucknow

(B)  Bhopal

(C)  Jaipur

(D)  Agra

Answer: (D)

2.

(A)  Pen

(B)  Pencil

(C)  Book

(D)  Copy

Answer: (C)

3.

(A)  Cow

(B)  Horse

(C)  Elephant

(D)  Lion

Answer: (D)

4.

(A)  K 121

(B)  E 23

(C)  Q 289

(D)  O 225

Answer: (B)

5.

(A)  12 4 48

(B)  12 5 60

(C)  12 6 75

(D)  12 7 84

Answer: (C)

6. 

Answer: (C)

7. 

Answer: (B)

8. 

Answer: (D)

9. 

Answer: (D)

10. 

Answer: (C)

Direction- In Question 11 to 20 there are four terms in each question. Right to the symbol : : the terms have same relationship as the two terms of the left of the symbol : : out of four terms one terms is missing, which is one of the four alternative given below. Find out the correct alternative and writes its number against the proper question on your answer sheet-

11. Stadium : Player : : School : ?

(A)  Library

(B)  Play ground

(C)  Laboratory

(D)  Student

Answer: (D)

12. Examination : Degree : : Interview : ?

(A)  Selection

(B)  Board

(C)  Testing

(D)  Process

Answer: (A)

13. Monday : Friday : : Thursday : ?

(A)  Monday

(B)  Sunday

(C)  Tuesday

(D)  Saturday

Answer: (A)

14. Justice : Judge : : ? : Doctor

(A)  Hospital

(B)  Treatment

(C)  Medicine

(D)  Nurse

Answer: (B)

15. 15 : 225 : : 12 : ?

(A)  144

(B)  24

(C)  120

(D)  56

Answer: (A)

16. 

Answer: (C)

17. 

Answer: (C)

18. 

Answer: (B)

19. 

Answer: (C)

20. 

Answer: (D)

Direction-Questions 21 to 25 are based on number/letter series. One or two term is missing in each series and indicated by question-mark (?) find out the missing term out of the four alternatives given below and write its alternative number against the correct question number on your answer sheet-

21. AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?

(A)  EU

(B)  EV

(C)  FU

(D)  FV

Answer: (B)

22. E, H, K, N, ?

(A)  Q

(B)  P

(C)  O

(D)  M

Answer: (A)

23. BD, CF, DH, EJ……….GN, HP

(A)  FL

(B)  FH

(C)  FI

(D)  FJ

Answer: (A)

24. 6, 10, 12, 16, 18, 22, ?

(A)  20

(B)  22

(C)  24

(D)  26

Answer: (C)

25. 2, 4, 8, ?, 32, 64, 128

(A)  14

(B)  16

(C)  28

(D)  30

Answer: (B)

Direction- In Question 26 to 30 problem figures are given at the left hand side consisting four figures in a definite series and the place for fifth figure is vacant which has been shown by question-mark (?). Four answer figure are given against each problem figure. Find out the correct answer figure and write its alternatives number against the proper question number on your answer sheet-

26. 

Answer: (D)

27. 

Answer: (B)

28. 

Answer: (D)

29. 

Answer: (D)

30. 

Answer: (C)

Direction- In Question 31 to 40 equations have become wrong due to incorrect order of signs. Choose the correct order of signs from the four alternatives given below, so that the equations become correct. Write its correct alternative number on your answer sheet against the proper question number-

31. 15 = 3 × 4 – 9

(A)  + − =

(B)  = × −

(C)  × − =

(D)  ÷ + =

Answer: (D)

32. 9 + 3 × 7 = 20

(A)  − + =

(B)  × − =

(C)  ÷ + =

(D)  + − =

Answer: (B)

33. 5 – 4 × 3 = 6

(A)  × − =

(B)  = × −

(C)  + − =

(D)  ÷ = ×

Answer: (C)

34. 24 × 4 + 5 = 1

(A)  ÷ − =

(B)  × − =

(C)  + − =

(D)  − + =

Answer: (A)

35. 15 × 4 ÷ 6 = 13

(A)  − + =

(B)  ÷ − =

(C)  + − =

(D)  − × =

Answer: (C)

36. 49 – 7 + 5 = 2

(A)  ÷ + =

(B)  × − =

(C)  ÷ − =

(D)  + − =

Answer: (C)

37. 35 – 3 × 4 = 5

(A)  × + =

(B)  = + ×

(C)  ÷ − +

(D)  ÷ + =

Answer: (B)

38. 6 – 4 + 19 = 5

(A)  ÷ − =

(B)  − × =

(C)  × + =

(D)  ÷ + =

Answer: (D)

39. 9 = 3 × 4 – 31

(A)  − + =

(B)  − × =

(C)  × + =

(D)  ÷ + =

Answer: (C)

40. 15 – 3 × 4 = 20

(A)  × − =

(B)  ÷ × =

(C)  − + =

(D)  = × −

Answer: (B)

Direction-Question 41 to 50 are based on definite series. In given questions some symbols are missing shown by (―). The missing symbols are given in proper sequence as one of the four alternative given under each question. Find out the correct alternative and write its number on the answer sheet against the corresponding question number―

41. ―BO―C―O―CB―H

(A)  H C B H O

(B)  C I C H O

(C)  C H B H O

(D)  O C H B I

Answer: (C)

42. ― ―H―D―HL―QH―

(A)  D Q L Q D L

(B)  C P L P D M

(C)  D P L R C L

(D)  L Q D C L H

Answer: (A)

43. ―DQ ― E ― Q ― ED ― J

(A)  F J C K R

(B)  E J D J Q

(C)  G J E J R

(D)  E J E K S

Answer: (B)

44. ― ―H―B―HU―N―U

(A)  C N U M C H

(B)  B M V N A I

(C)  B N U N B H

(D)  C N V M C H

Answer: (C)

45. ―U―DO―Q―OU―D

(A)  P R U D R

(B)  R O Q U D

(C)  Q O D Q U

(D)  O Q U D Q

Answer: (D)

46. ―ZM―A―M―AZ―F

(A)  A F Z F M

(B)  B G Z F N

(C)  C F M Z A

(D)  Z F Z N M

Answer: (A)

47. ― ― F―B―FJ―OF―

(A)  C O K P B J

(B)  C O J P C J

(C)  B O J O B J

(D)  B P J P G J

Answer: (C)

48. ― ― F―Z―FS―L―S

(A)  Y L R L Z E

(B)  Z L S L Z F

(C)  Z M R L Z G

(D)  X M R R Y F

Answer: (B)

49. ―S―BM―O―MS―B

(A)  N O R B O

(B)  M R O B P

(C)  M O S B O

(D)  N O R A O

Answer: (C)

50. ―BO―C―O―CB―H

(A)  C I C H O

(B)  B H B O H

(C)  B H O B H

(D)  C H B H O

Answer: (D)

Direction-In Questions 51 to 60 given below, four words/ numbers are written in every question. Four answer alternative are given below against each question. The words/numbers in the question are related to each other in same way. One word/number from among the four answer alternatives goes best with the words/numbers in the question find out the correct alternative and write its number against the proper question number-

51. 3, 5, 7, 11

(A)  18

(B)  9

(C)