NEET (UG)-2021 Examination Held on 12-09-2021 Code M2 Question Paper With Answer Key

NEET (UG) 2021 Code M2 Paper Held on 12-09-2021



1. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance ‘R’ are connected in series to an ac source of potential difference ‘V’ volts as shown in figure.

Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current flowing through LCR series circuit is 10√2 A. The impedance of the circuit is



(3)   4 Ω

(4)   5 Ω

Answer: (4)

2. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is √3.

(1)   60°

(2)   30°

(3)   45°

(4)   90°

Answer: (1)

3. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move?

(1)   Towards the left as its potential energy will increase.

(2)   Towards the right as its potential energy will decrease.

(3)   Towards the left as it potential energy will decrease.

(4)   Towards the right as its potential energy will increase.

Answer: (2)

4. A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’, is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by

V = V0sinωt

The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by

(1)   Id = V0ωCcosωt



(4)   Id = V0ωCsinωt

Answer: (1)

5. A thick current carrying cable of radius ‘R’ carries current ‘I’ uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the distance ‘r’ from the axis of the cable is represented by

Answer: (3)

6. A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance ‘a’ between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a parallel beam, then the distance ‘a’ in cm will be

(1)   25

(2)   15

(3)   50

(4)   30

Answer: (2)

7. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength ‘λ’ is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function. If ‘m’ mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength λd, then





Answer: (3)

8. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor.

Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations.

(1)   (A) – (R), (B) – (S), (C) – (P), (D) – (Q)

(2)   (A) – (R), (B) – (S), (C) – (Q), (D) – (P)

(3)   (A) – (R), (B) – (P), (C) – (S), (D) – (Q)

(4)   (A) – (R), (B) – (Q), (C) – (S), (D) – (P)

Answer: (1)

9. A radioactive nucleus  undergoes spontaneous decay in the sequence

where Z is the atomic number of element X. The possible decay particles in the sequence are

(1)   α, β, β+

(2)   α, β+, β

(3)   β+, α, β

(4)   β, α, β+

Answer: (3)

10. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω. What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series?

(1)   0.25 Ω

(2)   0.5 Ω

(3)   1 Ω

(4)   4 Ω

Answer: (4)

11. A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively





Answer: (4)

12. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 hours would be

(1)   1/2

(2)   1/2√2

(3)   2/3

(4)   2/3√2

Answer: (2)

13. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes, when the room temperature is 20° The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C at a room temperature same at 20°C is





Answer: (2)

14. The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of 3.3 × 103 watt will be (h = 6.6 × 1034 J s)

(1)   1018

(2)   1017

(3)   1016

(4)   1015

Answer: (3)

15. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency ‘n’, the frequency of its potential energy is

(1)   n

(2)   2n

(3)   3n

(4)   4n

Answer: (2)

16. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant.

(1)   4 × 1020 N

(2)   8π × 1020 N

(3)   4π × 1020 N

(4)   8 × 1020 N

Answer: (4)

17. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.

(1)   [F][A][T]

(2)   [F][A][T2]

(3)   [F][A][T1]

(4)   [F][A1][T]

Answer: (2)

18. Match column-I and column-II and choose the correct match from the given choices.

(1)   (A) – (R), (B) – (P), (C) – (S), (D) – (Q)

(2)   (A) – (Q), (B) – (R), (C) – (S), (D) – (P)

(3)   (A) – (Q), (B) – (P), (C) – (S), (D) – (R)

(4)   (A) – (R), (B) – (Q), (C) – (P), (D) – (S)

Answer: (3)

19. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be the distance travelled by the block in the interval t = n – 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio  is




Answer: (2)

20. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the Binding energy in the process is

(1)   0.9 MeV

(2)   9.4 MeV

(3)   804 MeV

(4)   216 MeV

Answer: (4)

21. A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire

Main scale reading : 0 mm

Circular scale reading : 52 divisions

Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is

(1)   0.52 cm

(2)   0.026 cm

(3)   0.26 cm

(4)   0.052 cm

Answer: (4)

22. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is

(1)   3C

(2)   2C

(3)   C/2

(4)   3C/2

Answer: (2)

23. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since

(1)   A large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.

(2)   A large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power.

(3)   A large aperture provides a better resolution.

(4)   All of the above

Answer: (4)

24. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres (σ12) is





Answer: (2)

25. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is

(1)   0.0628 s

(2)   6.28 s

(3)   3.14 s

(4)   0.628 s

Answer: (4)

26. For a place electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?





Answer: (2)

27. The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is

(1)   v

(2)   2v

(3)   3v

(4)   4v

Answer: (4)

28. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?

(1)   60 cm

(2)   21.6 cm

(3)   64 cm

(4)   62 cm

Answer: (1)

29. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is d/2, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be

(1)   Mg/2

(2)   Mg


(4)   2Mg

Answer: (1)

30. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric filed  in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is ‘σ’ and the area of each plate is ‘A’, the energy stored in the capacitor is

0 = permittivity of free space)


(2)   ε0EAd



Answer: (3)

31. The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.

(1)   Current in n-type = current in p-type

(2)   Current in p-type > current in n-type

(3)   Current in n-type > current in p-type

(4)   No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow in n-type

Answer: (3)

32. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer.

(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator.

(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.

(1)   (A) and (B) both are correct.

(2)   (A) and (B) both the incorrect

(3)   (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.

(4)   (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.

Answer: (3)

33. Polar molecules are the molecules

(1)   Having zero dipole moment

(2)   Acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric filed due to displacement of charges

(3)   Acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent

(4)   Having a permanent electric dipole moment

Answer: (4)

34. If E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then E/G has the dimensions of

(1)   [M2] [L−1 [T0]

(2)   [M] [L−1] [T−1]

(3)   [M] [L0] [T0]

(4)   [M2] [L−2] [T−1]

Answer: (1)

35. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine?

(g = 10 m/s2)

(1)   10.2 kW

(2)   8.1 kW

(3)   12.3 kW

(4)   7.0 kW

Answer: (2)


36. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s?

(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1)   20 m/s, 5 m/s2

(2)   20 m/s, 0

(3)   20√2 m/s, 0

(4)   20√2 m/s, 10 m/s2

Answer: (4)

37. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the output at the terminal y?

Answer: (3)

38. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g = 10 m/s2) nearly

(1)   0 kg m/s

(2)   4.2  kg m/s

(3)   2.1 kg m/s

(4)   1.4 kg m/s

Answer: (2)

39. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)   1/2 kg

(2)   1/3 kg

(3)   1/6 kg

(4)   1/12 kg

Answer: (4)

40. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of

(1)   20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image

(2)   30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image

(3)   30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image

(4)   20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image

Answer: (4)

41. A step down transformer connected to an ac main supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit?

(1)   0.2 A

(2)   0.4 A

(3)   2 A

(4)   4 A

Answer: (1)

42. Three resistors having resistances r1. r2 and r3 are connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio i3/i1 of current in terms of resistances used in the circuit is





Answer: (2)

43. In the product

What will be the complete expression for 





Answer: (2)

44. A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity v = kVe (K > 1) from the surface of the earth.

(Ve = escape velocity)

The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is





Answer: (4)

45. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.

(1)   660 V

(2)   1320 V

(3)   1520 V

(4)   1980 V

Answer: (4)

46. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 μF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to 230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be

(1)   25 rad/s and 75 rad/s

(2)   50 rad/s and 25 rad/s

(3)   46 rad/s and 54 rad/s

(4)   42 rad/s and 58 rad/s

Answer: (3)

47. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resistance ‘R’ is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of,

(i) an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’.

(ii) a square of side ‘a’.

The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are

(1)   √3 la2 and 3 la2

(2)   3 la2 and la2

(3)   3 la2 and 4 la2

(4)   4 la2 and 3 la2

Answer: (1)

48. From a circular ring of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ an arc corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the right and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is ‘K’ times ‘MR2’. Then the value of ‘K’ is

(1)   3/4

(2)   7/8

(3)   1/4

(4)   1/8

Answer: (1)

49. Two conducting circular loops of the radii R1 and R2 are paced in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If R1 > > R2, the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to

(1)   R1/R2

(2)   R2/R1



Answer: (4)

50. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed takes a time T to complete one revolution. If this particle were projected with the same speed at an angle ‘θ’ to the horizontal, the maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, θ, is then given by:





Answer: (4)



51. Given below are two statements:

Statement I :

Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics.

Statement II:

Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2)   Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)   Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

(4)   Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

Answer: (2)

52. The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is

Answer: (1)

53. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are :

(1)   sp3 and 4

(2)   sp3 and 6

(3)   sp2 and 6

(4)   sp2 and 8

Answer: (3)

54. Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.

(1)   Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water

(2)   Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points

(3)   Noble gases have weak dispersion forces

(4)   Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy

Answer: (2)

55. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm2 mol1 The molar conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is. Choose the right option for your answer.

(1)   201.28 S cm2 mol1

(2)   390.71 S cm2 mol1

(3)   698.28 S cm2 mol1

(4)   540.48 S cm2 mol1

Answer: (2)

56. The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect is exhibited by”, is:

(1)   NaCl solution

(2)   Glucose solution

(3)   Starch solution

(4)   Urea solution

Answer: (3)

57. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of:

(1)   Vitamin B12

(2)   Vitamin B6

(3)   Vitamin B1

(4)   Vitamin B2

Answer: (1)

58. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is:

(1)   120°

(2)   180°

(3)   60°

(4)   0v

Answer: (4)

59. The incorrect statement among the following is:

(1)   Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than lanthanoid contraction

(2)   Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in the solid state

(3)   Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity

(4)   Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.

Answer: (2)

60. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on?

(1)   Saytzeff’s Rule

(2)   Hund’s Rule

(3)   Hofmann Rule

(4)   Huckel’s Rule

Answer: (1)

61. Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole of ideal gas?

(1)   CP + CV = R

(2)   CP – CV = R

(3)   CP = RCV

(4)   CV = RCP

Answer: (2)

62. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerization?

(1)   Teflon

(2)   Nylon-66

(3)   Novolac

(4)   Dacron

Answer: (1)

63. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction?

(1)   2-methylpropan-20-ol

(2)   pentan-2-ol

(3)   pentan-3-ol

(4)   2-methylbutan-2-ol

Answer: (4)

64. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (1)

65. Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature?

(1)   Electrolysis

(2)   Chromatography

(3)   Distillation

(4)   Zone refining

Answer: (3)

66. The major product of the following chemical reaction is :

Answer: (1)

67. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the following particles?

(1)   Beta (β)

(2)   Alpha (α)

(3)   Gamma (γ)

(4)   Neutron (n)

Answer: (1)

68. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy ‘C−X’ bond is :

(1)   CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl < CH3 – Br < CH3 – I

(2)   CH3–F > CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I

(3)   CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I

(4)   CH3 – Cl > CH3 – F > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I

Answer: (2)

69. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are:

(1)   8, 4

(2)   6, 12

(3)   2, 1

(4)   12, 6

Answer: (4)

70. Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction ? Choose right option.

Answer: (2)

71. Choose the correct option for graphical representation of Boyle’s law, which shows a graph of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different temperatures:

Answer: (4)

72. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate solution is :

(1)   8.50

(2)   5.50

(3)   7.75

(4)   6.25

Answer: (3)

73. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is:

(1)   Calcium chloride

(2)   Strontium chloride

(3)   Magnesium chloride

(4)   Beryllium chloride

Answer: (4)

74. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is:

(1)   Upto 1200 K

(2)   Upto 2200 K

(3)   Upto 1900 K

(4)   Upto 5000 K

Answer: (2)

75. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is:

(1)   Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two “N” donor atoms

(2)   Unidentate lignd

(3)   Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms

(4)   Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor atoms

Answer: (1)

76. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P­1), 10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is:

(1)   P2 > P1 > P3

(2)   P1 > P2 > P3

(3)   P2 > P3 > P1

(4)   P3 > P1 > P2

Answer: (1)

77. Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   Both statement I and statement II are true

(2)   Both statement I and Statement II are false

(3)   Statement I is correct but statement II is false

(4)   Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

Answer: (1)

78. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are:

(1)   Chain and dimer, respectively

(2)   Linear in both

(3)   Dimer and Linear, respectively

(4)   Chain in both

Answer: (1)

79. For a reaction A → B, enthalpy of reaction is −2 kJ mol1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol1. The correct potential energy profile for the reaction is shown in option.

Answer: (2)

80. Zr(Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :

(1)   Belonging to same group

(2)   Diagonal relationship

(3)   Lanthanoid contraction

(4)   Having similar chemical properties

Answer: (3)

81. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light c = 3.0 × 108 ms1]

(1)   219.3 m

(2)   219.2 m

(3)   2192 m

(4)   21.92 cm

Answer: (1)

82. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]

(1)   CH

(2)   CH2

(3)   CH3

(4)   CH4

Answer: (3)

83. The compound which shows metamerism is:

(1)   C5H12

(2)   C3H8O

(3)   C3H6O

(4)   C4H10O

Answer: (4)

84. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg’s reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.

Answer: (3)

85. The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is:

(1)   7

(2)   5

(3)   2

(4)   3

Answer: (4)


86. Match List-I with List-II:

(1)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (4)

87. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in a total volume of one litre at 0°C is:

[Given R = 0.082 L atm mol1K1, T = 273 K]

(1)   2.518

(2)   2.602

(3)   25.18

(4)   26.02

Answer: (3)


Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.

(1)   B2H6

(2)   Red Phosphorus

(3)   CaO

(4)   DIBAL-H

Answer: (3)

89. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is:

(1)   ∆U = 0, ∆Stotal = 0

(2)   ∆U ≠ 0, ∆Stotal ≠ 0

(3)   ∆U = 0, ∆Stotal ≠ 0

(4)   ∆U ≠ 0, ∆Stotal = 0

Answer: (3)

90. In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicated against it?

(1)   HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength

(2)   H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : Increasing pKa values

(3)   NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : Increasing acidic character

(4)   CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : Increasing oxidizing power

Answer: (2)

91. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm2 mol1. What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid? Choose the correct option.

(1)   1.75 × 104 mol L1

(2)   2.50 × 104 mol L1

(3)   1.75 × 105 mol L1

(4)   2.50 × 105 mol L1

Answer: (3)

92. The slope of Arrhenius plot  of first order reaction is −5 × 103 The value of Ea of the reaction is. Choose the correct option for your answer.

[Given R = 8.314 JK1 mol1]

(1)   41.5 kJ mol1

(2)   83.0 kJ mol1

(3)   166 kJ mol1

(4)   −83 kJ mol1

Answer: (1)

93. The product formed in the following chemical reaction is:

Answer: (4)

94. Match List-I with List-II

(1)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Answer: (4)

95. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?

(1)   POCl3

(2)   CH2O

(3)   SbCl5

(4)   NO2

Answer: (3)

96. From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?

(1)   O2, F

(2)   Na+, Mg2+

(3)   Mn2+, Fe3+

(4)   Fe2+, Mn2+

Answer: (4)

97. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3 : 2 is:

[At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]

(1)   160 mm of Hg

(2)   168 mm of Hg

(3)   336 mm of Hg

(4)   350 mm of Hg

Answer: (3)

98. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(2)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Answer: (3)

99. The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of chemical reaction is:

(1)   H2O

(2)   CH3CH2OH

(3)   HI

(4)   CuCN/KCN

Answer: (2)

100. The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the following chemical reaction is:

Answer: (1)




101. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?

(1)   Resource partitioning

(2)   Competitive release

(3)   Mutualism

(4)   Predation

Answer: (1)

102. Match List-I with List-II.


(a) Cells with active cell division capacity

(b) Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function

(c) Tissue having different types of cells

(d) Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen


(i) Vascular tissues

(ii) Meristematic tissue

(iii) Sclereids

(iv) Simple tissue

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Answer: (1)

103. During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:

(1)   RNA

(2)   DNA

(3)   Histones

(4)   Polysaccharides

Answer: (2)

104. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                           List-II

(a) Cohesion                    (i) More attraction in liquid phase

(b) Adhesion                    (ii) Mutual attraction among water molecules

(c) Surface tension           (iii) Water loss in liquid phase

(d) Guttation                   (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (1)

105. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is:

(1)   Xenogamy

(2)   Geitonogamy

(3)   Chasmogamy

(4)   Cleistogamy

Answer: (1)

106. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centrometer?

(1)   Metaphase I

(2)   Metaphase II

(3)   Anaphase II

(4)   Telophase II

Answer: (3)

107. Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

(1)   Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

(2)   Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

(3)   Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

(4)   Annealing, Denaturation, Extension

Answer: (1)

108. Gemmae are present in

(1)   Mosses

(2)   Pteridophytes

(3)   Some Gymnosperms

(4)   Some Liverworts

Answer: (4)

109. The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called:

(1)   Bullet square

(2)   Punch square

(3)   Punnet square

(4)   Net square

Answer: (3)

110. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :

(1)   Natural selection

(2)   Genetic recombination

(3)   Mutation

(4)   Genetic drift

Answer: (4)

111. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds to spores. Such plants are known as:

(1)   Homosorus

(2)   Heterosorus

(3)   Homosporous

(4)   Heterosporous

Answer: (4)

112. Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called

(1)   Elasticity

(2)   Felxibility

(3)   Plasticity

(4)   Maturity

Answer: (3)

113. Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?

(1)   Morphine, codeine

(2)   Amino acids, glucose

(3)   Vinblastin, curcumin

(4)   Rubber, gums

Answer: (2)

114. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.

(1)   (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein

(2)   (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction

(3)   (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein

(4)   (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein

Answer: (3)

115. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as:

(1)   Metacentric

(2)   Telocentric

(3)   Sub-metacentric

(4)   Acrocentric

Answer: (1)

116. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as

(1)   Yellow bands

(2)   Bright orange bands

(3)   Dark red bands

(4)   Bright blue bands

Answer: (2)

117. The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is

(1)   Shoot apex

(2)   Stem

(3)   Axillary bud

(4)   Leaf

Answer: (4)

118. When gene targeting involving gene amplication is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as:

(1)   Biopiracy

(2)   Gene therapy

(3)   Molecular diagnosis

(4)   Safety testing

Answer: (2)

119. Which of the following plants is monoecious?

(1)   Carica papaya

(2)   Chara

(3)   Marchantia polymorpha

(4)   Cycas circinalis

Answer: (2)

120. Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

(1)   Molecular diagnosis

(2)   Gene amplification

(3)   Purification of isolated protein

(4)   Detection of gene mutation

Answer: (3)

121. Math List-I with List-II.


(a) Cristate

(b) Thylakoids

(c) Centromere

(d) Cisternae


(i) Primary constriction in chromosome

(ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus

(iii) Infoldings in mitochondria

(iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Answer: (3)

122. Diadelphous stamens are found in

(1)   China rose

(2)   Citrus

(3)   Pea

(4)   China rose and citrus

Answer: (3)

123. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                               List-II

(a) Protoplast fusion        (i) Totipotency

(b) Plant tissue culture     (ii) Pomato

(c) Meristem culture        (iii) Somaclones

(d) Micropropagation      (iv) Virus free plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (2)

124. Amensalism can be represented as:

(1)   Species A (−); Species B (0)

(2)   Species A (+); Species B (+)

(3)   Species A (−); Species B (−)

(4)   Species A (+); Species B (0)

Answer: (1)

125. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(1)   Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles

(2)   Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells

(3)   The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm

(4)   Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm

Answer: (1)

126. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:

(1)   8-nucleate and 7-celled

(2)   7-ncleate and 8-celled

(3)   7-nucleate and 7-celled

(4)   8-nucleate and 8-celled

Answer: (1)

127. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material?

(1)   Ectocarpus

(2)   Gracilaria

(3)   Volvox

(4)   Ulothrix

Answer: (1)

128. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field

(1)   IAA

(2)   NAA

(3)   2, 4-D

(4)   IBA

Answer: (3)

129. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as:

(1)   Climax

(2)   Climax community

(3)   Standing state

(4)   Standing crop

Answer: (3)

130. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:

(1)   Kinetin

(2)   Infrared rays

(3)   Gamma rays

(4)   Zeatin

Answer: (3)

131. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1)   Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.

(2)   Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.

(3)   Pyramid of energy is always upright.

(4)   Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.

Answer: (2)

132. In the equation GPP – R = NPP

R represents:

(1)   Radiant energy

(2)   Retardation factor

(3)   Environmental factor

(4)   Respiration losses

Answer: (4)

133. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?

(1)   Green algae

(2)   Brown algae

(3)   Red algae

(4)   Blue-green algae

Answer: (3)

134. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is

(1)   Pyruvic aicd

(2)   Oxaloacetic acid

(3)   Succinic acid

(4)   Phosphoglyceric acid

Answer: (2)

135. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                           List-II

(a) Lenticels                                 (i) Phellogen

(b) Cork cambium                        (ii) Suberin deposition

(c) Secondary cortex                   (iii) Exchange of gases

(d) Cork                                       (iv) Phelloderm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (2)


136. Which of the following statements of incorrect?

(1)   During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage

(2)   In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules

(3)   ATP is synthesized through complex V

(4)   Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration

Answer: (2)

137. Match Column-I with Column-II

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (1)

138. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                           List-II

(a) S phase                       (i) Proteins are synthesized

(b) G2 phase                     (ii) Inactive phase

(c) Quiescent stage          (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication

(d) G1 phase                     (iv) DNA replication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (3)

139. Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain

(1)   It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell

(2)   The transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce β-galactoside

(3)   It will lead to lysis of host cell

(4)   It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability

Answer: (1)

140. Identify the correct statement.

(1)   In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3’ end of hnRNA

(2)   RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria

(3)   The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA

(4)   Spilt gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes

Answer: (2)

141. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because:

(1)   Mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film

(2)   Mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film

(3)   Mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complementarity with it

(4)   Mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complementarity with it

Answer: (3)

142. In the exponential growth equation

Nt = N0ert, e represents

(1)   The base of number logarithms

(2)   The base of exponential logarithms

(3)   The base of natural logarithms

(4)   The base of geometric logarithms

Answer: (3)

143. Select the correct pair.

(1)   Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves – Subsidiary cells

(2)   In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick-walled cells – Conjunctive tissue

(3)   Cells of medullary rays that form part of cambial ring – Interfascicular cambium

(4)   Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming a lens shaped opening in bark – Spongy parenchyma

Answer: (3)

144. In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?

(1)   Poaceae ; Rosaceae

(2)   Poaceae ; Leguminosae

(3)   Poaceae ; Solanaceae

(4)   Rosaceae ; Leguminosae

Answer: (4)

145. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?

(1)   Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)

(2)   Transcribes tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNA

(3)   Transcribes precursor of mRNA

(4)   Transcribes only snRNAs

Answer: (2)

146. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1)   Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation

(2)   Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase

(3)   Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II

(4)   Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II

Answer: (4)

147. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1)   Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy

(2)   Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy

(3)   Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes

(4)   Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheat cells

Answer: (2)

148. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                           List-II

(a) Protein                                    (i) C = C double bonds

(b) Unsaturated fatty acid           (ii) Phosphodiester bonds

(c) Nucleic acid                           (iii) Glycosidic bonds

(d) Polysaccharide                       (iv) Peptide bonds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (1)

149. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as

(1)   Satellite DNA

(2)   Repetitive DNA

(3)   Single nucleotides

(4)   Polymorphic DNA

Answer: (2)

150. Match Column-II with Column-II.

Column-I                                    Column-II

(a) Nitrococcus                            (i) Denitrification

(b) Rhizobium                              (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite

(c) Thiobacillus                            (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate

(d) Nitrobacter                             (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (1)



151. A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:

(1)   Degenerate primer sequence

(2)   Okazaki sequences

(3)   Palindromic Nucleotide sequences

(4)   Poly(A) tail sequences

Answer: (3)

152. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?

(1)   8

(2)   16

(3)   4

(4)   32

Answer: (1)

153. Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?

(1)   Fire fly

(2)   Grasshopper

(3)   Cockroach

(4)   House fly

Answer: (4)

154. Succus entericus is referred to as:

(1)   Pancreatic juice

(2)   Intestinal juice

(3)   Gastric juice

(4)   Chyme

Answer: (2)

155. With regard to insulin choose correct options.

(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.

(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.

(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide

(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)   (b) and (d) only

(2)   (b) and (c) only

(3)   (a), (c) and (d) only

(4)   (a) and (d) only

Answer: (3)

156. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to :

(1)   Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs

(2)   Absence of antigens A and B in plasma

(3)   Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs

(4)   Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma

Answer: (4)

157. In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?

(1)   50%

(2)   75%

(3)   25%

(4)   100%

Answer: (3)

158. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?

(1)   Thrombin

(2)   Renin

(3)   Epinephrine

(4)   Thrombokinase

Answer: (1)

159. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are:

(1)   pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40

(2)   pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45

(3)   pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40

(4)   pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3

Answer: (1)

160. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles is called as:

(1)   Arthritis

(2)   Muscular dystrophy

(3)   Myasthenia gravis

(4)   Gout

Answer: (3)

161. Which is the “Onty enzyme” that has “Capability” to catalyse initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?

(1)   DNA dependent DNA polymerase

(2)   DNA dependent RNA polymerase

(3)   DNA ligase

(4)   DNase

Answer: (2)

162. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?

(1)   mRNA

(2)   tRNA

(3)   rRNA

(4)   siRNA

Answer: (4)

163. Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?

(1)   CuT

(2)   LNG 20

(3)   Cu 7

(4)   Multiload 375

Answer: (2)

164. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?

(1)   T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20

(2)   T : 20 ; G : 20 : C : 30

(3)   T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20

(4)   T :  20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25

Answer: (3)

165. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                           List-II

(a) Aspergillus niger                    (i) Acetic Acid

(b) Acetobacter aceti                    (ii) Lactic Acid

(c) Clostridium butylicum            (iii) Citric Acid

(d) Lactobacillus                          (iv) Butyric Acid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below         

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (1)

166. Read the following statements

(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.

(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.

(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.

(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.

(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (c), (d) and (e) are correct

(2)   (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(3)   (a), (d) and(e) are correct

(4)   (b), (c) and (e) are correct

Answer: (4)

167. Receptors for sperm binding mammals are present on :

(1)   Corona radiata

(2)   Vitelline membrane

(3)   Perivitelline space

(4)   Zona pellucida

Answer: (4)

168. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                           List-II

(a) Metamerism                (i) Coelenterata

(b) Canal system              (ii) Ctenophora

(c) Comb plates               (iii) Annelida

(d) Cnidoblasts                (iv) Porifera

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (3)

169. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:

(1)   Alpha cells of pancreas

(2)   The cells rostral adenohypophysis

(3)   The cells of bone marrow

(4)   Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

Answer: (4)

170. Veneral diseases can spread through:

(a) Using sterile needles

(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person

(c) Infected mother to foetus

(d) Kissing

(e) Inheritance

Choose the correct answer from the option given below

(1)   (a), (b) and (c) only

(2)   (b), (c) and (d) only

(3)   (b) and (c) only

(4)   (a) and (c) only

Answer: (3)

171. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?

(1)   A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut

(2)   Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts

(3)   In females, 7th 9th sterna together form a genital pouch

(4)   10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci

Answer: (1)

172. Match the following:

List-I                               List-II

(a) Physalia                      (i) Pearl oyster

(b) Limulus                      (ii) Portuguese Man of War

(c) Ancylostoma               (iii) Living fossil

(d) Pinctada                     (iv) Hookworm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (3)

173. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?

(1)   Neophron

(2)   Hemidactylus

(3)   Macropus

(4)   Ornithorhynchus

Answer: (1)

174. The centriole undergoes duplication during:

(1)   S-phase

(2)   Prophase

(3)   Metaphase

(4)   G2 phase

Answer: (1)

175. During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?

(1)   Annealing

(2)   Extension

(3)   Denaturation

(4)   Ligation

Answer: (3)

176. Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?

(1)   Improve protein content

(2)   Improve resistance to diseases

(3)   Improve vitamin content

(4)   Improve micronutrient and mineral content

Answer: (2)

177. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:

(1)   CFCs

(2)   Stratosphere

(3)   Ozone

(4)   Troposphere

Answer: (3)

178. Sphincter of oddi is present at:

(1)   Ileo-caecal junction

(2)   Junction of heapto-pancreatic duct and duodenum

(3)   Gastro-oesophageal junction

(4)   Junction of jejnum and duodenum

Answer: (2)

179. Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.

(1)   High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature

(2)   Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher temperature

(3)   High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature

(4)   Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature

Answer: (1)

180. Identify the incorrect pair

(1)   Alkaloids – Codeine

(2)   Toxin – Abrin

(3)   Lectins – Concanavalin A

(4)   Drugs – Ricin

Answer: (4)

181. Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?

(1)   These muscle have no striations

(2)   They are involuntary muscles

(3)   Communication among the cells is performed by intercalacted discs

(4)   These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels.

Answer: (3)

182. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?

(1)   Western Blotting Technique

(2)   Southern Blotting Technique

(3)   ELISA Technique

(4)   Hybridization Technique

Answer: (2/3)

183. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                               List-II

(a) Vaults                         (i) Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked

(b) IUDs                          (ii) Removal of Vas deferens

(c) Vasectomy                 (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus

(d) Tubectomy                 (iv) Removal of fallopian tube

Choose the correct answer from the option given below

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (2)

184. The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are

(1)   Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes

(2)   Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles

(3)   Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes

(4)   Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochonrdria and Lysosomes

Answer: (2)

185. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?

(1)   Leptotene

(2)   Zygotene

(3)   Diakinesis

(4)   Pachytene

Answer: (3)


186. Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?

(1)   Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio

(2)   Synthesis of prostaglandins

(3)   Release of Oxytocin

(4)   Release of Prolactin

Answer: (4)

187. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?

(1)   Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity for super ovulation

(2)   Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time

(3)   Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination

(4)   Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage

Answer: (1)

188. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                                       List-II

(a) Allen’s Rule                                       (i) Kangaroo rat

(b) Physiological adaptation                    (ii) Desert lizard

(c) Behavioural adaptation                      (iii) Marine fish at depth

(d) Biochemical adaptation                     (iv) Polar seal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (3)

189. Assertion (A) : A person goes to high altitude and experiences ‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.

Reason (R) : Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)   Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2)   Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3)   (A) is true but (R) is false

(4)   (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer: (1)

190. Following are the statements with reference to ‘lipids’.

(a) Lipids having only single bonds re called unsaturated fatty acids

(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.

(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.

(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.

(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a) and (b) only

(2)   (c) and (d) only

(3)   (b) and (c) only

(4)   (b) and (e) only

Answer: (3)

191. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                               List-II

(a) Scapula                       (i) Cartilaginous joints

(b) Cranium                     (ii) Flat bone

(c) Sternum                      (iii) Fibrous joints

(d) Vertebral column       (iv) Triangular flat bone

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (4)

192. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.

(1)   Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively.

(2)   Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively

(3)   Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively

(4)   Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.

Answer: (2)

193. Statement I: The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and phenylalanine.

Statement II: ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the amino acid lysine.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2)   Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)   Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

(4)   Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Answer: (4)

194. Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?

(1)   Graafian follicle

(2)   Corpus luteum

(3)   Foetus

(4)   Uterus

Answer: (2)

195. Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm.

(a) It serves as a covering for mouth.

(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl.

(c) It is one of the sensory structures.

(d) It is the first body segment.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(2)   (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(3)   (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

(4)   (b) and (c) are correct

Answer: (1)

196. Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong?

(1)   Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.

(2)   The pH of histones is slightly acidic

(3)   Histones are rich in amino acids-Lysine and Arginine

(4)   Histones carry positive charge in the side chain

Answer: (2)

197. During muscular contraction which of the following events occur?

(a) ‘H’ zone disappears

(b) ‘A’ band widens

(c) ‘I’ band reduces in width

(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi.

(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a), (c), (d), (e) only

(2)   (a), (b), (c), (d) only

(3)   (b), (c), (d), (e) only

(4)   (b), (d), (e), (a) only

Answer: (1)

198. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into

(1)   Dysfunction of Immune system

(2)   Parkinson’s disease

(3)   Digestive disorder

(4)   Addison’s disease

Answer: (1)

199. Match List-I with List-II


(a) Adaptive radiation

(b) Convergent evolution

(c) Divergent evolution

(d) Evolution by anthropogenic action


(i) Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides

(ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man and Whale

(iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird

(iv) Darwin Finches

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (1)

200. Match List with List-II

List-I                               List-II

(a) Filariasis                     (i) Haemophilus influenza

(b) Amoebiasis                 (ii) Trichophyton

(c) Penumonia                  (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti

(d) Ringworm                  (iv) Entamoeba histolytica

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (2)

NEET (UG)-2020 Examination Held on 13-09-2020 Code F1 Question Paper With Answer Key

NEET (UG) 2020 Code F1 Paper Held on 13-09-2020

1. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from

(1)   PS-I to NADP+

(2)   PS-I to ATP synthase

(3)   PS-II to Cytb6f complex

(4)   Cytb6f complex to PS-I

Answer: (3)

2. The sequence t he controls copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed

(1)   Palindromic sequence

(2)   Recognition site

(3)   Selectable marker

(4)   Ori site

Answer: (4)

3. The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is

(1)   5′ – CTTAAG – 3′

3′ – GAATTC – 5′

(2)   5′- GGATCC – 3′

3′ – CCTAGG – 5′

(3)   5′ – GAATTC – 3′

3′ – CTTAAG – 5′

(4)   5′ – GGAACC – 3′

3′ – CCTTGG – 5′

Answer: (3)

4. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

(1)   Active immunity is quick and gives full response.

(2)   Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.

(3)   When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.

(4)   When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”.

Answer: (1)

5. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by

(1)   Boveri

(2)   Morgan

(3)   Mendel

(4)   Sutton

Answer: (2)

6. Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions is plants

(a) Iron     (i) Photolysis of water

(b) Zinc    (ii) Pollen germination

(c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis

(d) Manganese     (iv) IAA biosynthesis

Select the correct option

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

Answer: (1)

7. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments cane be visualized with the help of

(1)   Acetocarmine in UV radiation

(2)   Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation

(3)   Acetocarmine in bright blue light

(4)   Ethidium bromide in UV radiation

Answer: (4)

8. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.

(1)   DNA polymerase

(2)   RNA polymerase

(3)   DNA ligase

(4)   DNA helicase

Answer: (2)

9. In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

(1)   ICSI and ZIFT

(2)   GIFT and ICSI

(3)   ZIFT and IUT

(4)   GIFT and ZIFT

Answer: (3)

10. Identify the basic amino acid from the following.

(1)   Lysine

(2)   Valine

(3)   Tyrosine

(4)   Glutamic Acid

Answer: (1)

11. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen

(1)   Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin

(2)   Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglogbin

(3)   Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2

(4)   Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin

Answer: (1)

12. Floridean starch has structure similar to

(1)   Mannitol and algin

(2)   Laminarin and cellulose

(3)   Starch and cellulose

(4)   Amylopectin and glycogen

Answer: (4)

13. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?

(1)   Cross breeding

(2)   Inbreeding

(3)   Out crossing

(4)   Mutational breeding

Answer: (1)

14. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I                                    Column-II

(a) Pituitary gland            (i) Grave’s disease

(b) Thyroid gland                        (ii) Diabetes mellitus

(c) Adrenal gland                        (iii) Diabetes insipidus

(d) Pancreas                     (iv) Addison’s disease

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

(3)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)

Answer: (1)

15. Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

(1)   AIDS, Malaria, Filaria

(2)   Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis

(3)   Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

(4)   Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes

Answer: (3)

16. Chose the correct pair from the following

(1)   Nucleases – Separate the two strands of DNA

(2)   Exonucleases – Make cuts at specific positions within DNA

(3)   Ligases – Join the two DNA molecules

(4)   Polymerases – Break the DNA into fragments

Answer: (3)

17. Ray florets have

(1)   Hypogynous ovary

(2)   Half inferior ovary

(3)   Inferior ovary

(4)   Superior ovary

Answer: (3)

18. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.

(a) Bacillus thuringiensis             (i) Cloning vector

(b) Thermus aquaticus                 (ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule

(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens    (iii) DNA polymerase

(d) Salmonella typhimurium        (iv) Cry proteins

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii); (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

Answer: (4)

19. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are

(1)   Ammonia and oxygen

(2)   Ammonia and hydrogen

(3)   Ammonia alone

(4)   Nitrate alone

Answer: (2)

20. Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.

(1)   Ethylene

(2)   Abscisic acid

(3)   Cytokinin

(4)   Gibberellin

Answer: (4)

21. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at

(1)   Nucellus

(2)   Chalaza

(3)   Hilum

(4)   Micropyle

Answer: (3)

22. The process of growth is maximum during

(1)   Senescence

(2)   Dormancy

(3)   Log phase

(4)   Lag phase

Answer: (3)

23. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by

(1)   Aschelminthes

(2)   Annelinda

(3)   Ctenophora

(4)   Platyhelminthes

Answer: (4)

24. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?

(1)   Effluents of primary treatment

(2)   Activated sludge

(3)   Primary sludge

(4)   Floating debris

Answer: (2)

25. Match the following columns and select the correct option.


(a) Floating Ribs

(b) Acromion
(c) Scapula

(d) Glenoid cavity


(i) Located between second and seventh ribs

(ii) Head of the Humerus

(iii) Clavicle

(iv) Do not connect with the sternum

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iv)

Answer: (2)

26. Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.

(1)   They are useful in genetic engineering.

(2)   Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligase.

(3)   Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.

(4)   They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.

Answer: (2)

27. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I                                                                        Column-II

(a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest                                    (i) Asterias

(b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva symmetry   (ii) Scorpion

(c) Book lungs                                                                     (iii) Ctenoplana

(d) Bioluminescence                                                         (iv) Locusta

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)

Answer: (4)

28. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because

(1)   the head holds a small proportion of  a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.

(2)   the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.

(3)   the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.

(4)   the cockroach does not have nervous system.

Answer: (1)

29. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?

(1)   Himalayas

(2)   Amazon forests

(3)   Western Ghats of India

(4)   Madagascar

Answer: (2)

30. Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?

(1)   Golgi bodies

(2)   Polysomes

(3)   Endoplasmic reticulum

(4)   Peroxisomes

Answer: (1)

31. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

(1)   Anabaena and Volvox

(2)   Chlorella and Spirulina

(3)   Laminaria and  Sargassum

(4)   Gelidium and Gracilaria

Answer: (2)

32. Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals?

(1)   Lectin

(2)   Insulin

(3)   Haemoglobin

(4)   Collagen

Answer: (4)

33. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during

(1)   Diplotene

(2)   Leptotene

(3)   Pachytene

(4)   Zygotene

Answer: (1)

34. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?

(1)   14

(2)   8

(3)   4

(4)   2

Answer: (1)

35. Cuboidal epithelium with burst border of microvilli is found in

(1)   Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron

(2)   Eustachian tube

(3)   Lining of intestine

(4)   Ducts of salivary gland

Answer: (1)

36. Match the following with respect to meiosis

(a) Zygotene                    (i) Terminalization

(b) Pachytene                   (ii) Chiasmata

(c) Diplotene                    (iii) Crossing over

(d) Diakinesis                  (iv) Synapsis

Select the correct option from the following

(1)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii); (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

Answer: (4)

37. Which of the following statement about inclusion bodies is incorrect?

(1)   They lie free in the cytoplasm

(2)   These represent reserve material in cytoplasm

(3)   They are not bound by any membrane

(4)   These are involved in ingestion of food particles

Answer: (4)

38. Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?

(1)   Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction

(2)   Decrease in secretion of rennin by JG cells

(3)   More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH

(4)   Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone

Answer: (4)

39. The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features:

(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath

(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue

(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed

(d) Phloem parenchyma absent

Identify the category of plant and its part:

(1)   Dicotyledonous stem

(2)   Dicotyledonous root

(3)   Monocotyledonous stem

(4)   Monocotyledonous root

Answer: (3)

40. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1)   Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds

(2)   Adenine does not pair with thymine

(3)   Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds

(4)   Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond

Answer: (3)

41. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I                                            Column-II                                                                                                                                                      

(a) Bt cotton                                         (i) Gene  therapy

(b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ii) Cellular defence

(c) RNAi                                                  (iii) Detection of HIV infection

(d) PCR                                                   (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis

(1)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)

Answer: (3)

42. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of

(1)   Industrial melanism

(2)   Natural selection

(3)   Adaptive radiation

(4)   Convergent evolution

Answer: (4)

43. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of

(1)   1 molecule of 6-C compound

(2)   1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound

(3)   2 molecules of 3-C compound

(4)   1 molecules of 3-C compound

Answer: (4)

44. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is

(1)   Female gametocytes

(2)   Male gametocytes

(3)   Trophozoites

(4)   Sporozoites

Answer: (4)

45. Identify the incorrect statement.

(1)   Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour

(2)   Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour

(3)   Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support

(4)   Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root of leaf

Answer: (1)

46. Which of the following is correct about viroids?

(1)   They have DNA with protein coat

(2)   They have free DNA without protein coat

(3)   They have RNA with protein coat

(4)   They have free RNA without protein coat

Answer: (4)

47. Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.

Column-I                                    Column-II

(a) Typhoid                                  (i) Wuchereria

(b) Penumonia                             (ii) Plasmodium

(c) Filariasis                                 (iii) Salmonella

(d) Malaria                                   (iv) Haemophilus

(1)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)

(3)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

Answer: (4)

48. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.

(1)   When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.

(2)   Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.

(3)   The gene (I) has three alleles.

(4)   A person will have only two of the three alleles.

Answer: (1)

49. According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about

(1)   50 million

(2)   7 million

(3)   1.5 million

(4)   20 million

Answer: (2)

50. Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?

(1)   Mortality

(2)   Species interaction

(3)   Sex ratio

(4)   Natality

Answer: (2)

51. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:

(1)   Wind and water

(2)   Insects and water

(3)   Insects or wind

(4)   Water currents only

Answer: (3)

52. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents

(1)   Depolarisation of ventricles

(2)   Repolarisation of ventricles

(3)   Repolarisation of auricles

(4)   Depolarisation of auricles

Answer: (1)

53. Select the correct match

(1)   Sickle cell anaemia-Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11

(2)   Thalassemia – X linked

(3)   Haemophilia – Y linked

(4)   Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant trait

Answer: (1)

54. The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is

(1)   Two

(2)   Three

(3)   Zero

(4)   One

Answer: (4)

55. Match the following

(a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (i) Ricin

(b) Possess peptide bonds           (ii) Malonate

(c) Cell wall material                   (iii) Chitin

(d) Secondary metabolite                        (iv) Collagen

Choose the correct option from the following

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii); (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii)

Answer: (3)

56. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?

(a)   Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.

(b)   Herbicide resistant weeds.

(c)   Drug resistant eukaryotes.

(d)   Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.

(1)   (b), (c) and (d)

(2)   only (d)

(3)   only (a)

(4)   (a) and (c)

Answer: (1)

57. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of

(1)   S phase

(2)   G2 phase

(3)   M phase

(4)   G1 phase

Answer: (3)

58. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their

(1)   Defence action

(2)   Effect on reproduction

(3)   Nutritive value

(4)   Growth response

Answer: (1)

59. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed.

(1)   After zygote formation

(2)   At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum

(3)   Prior to ovulation

(4)   At the time of copulation

Answer: (2)

60. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1)   The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.

(2)   Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E. Coli.

(3)   In man insulin is synthesized as a proinsulin

(4)   The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.

Answer: (1)

61. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to

(1)   High reflection of light from snow

(2)   Damage of retina caused by infra-red rays

(3)   Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature

(4)   Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation

Answer: (4)

62. Strobili or cones are found in

(1)   Marchantia

(2)   Equisetum

(3)   Salvinia

(4)   Pteris

Answer: (2)

63. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask

(1)   CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C

(2)   CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C

(3)   CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C

(4)   CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C

Answer: (3)

64. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?

(1)   Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same

(2)   There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity

(3)   Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity

(4)   Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity

Answer: (4)

65. Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem.

(a) Fourth trophic level    (i) Crow

(b) Second trophic level  (ii) Vulture

(c) First trophic level       (iii) Rabbit

(d) Third trophic level     (iv) Grass

Select the correct option

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)

Answer: (3)

66. Select the correct statement.

(1)   Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.

(2)   Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia

(3)   Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.

(4)   Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.

Answer: (3)

67. Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.

(a) Contraction of diaphragm

(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles

(c) Pulmonary volume decreases

(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases

(1)   (a), (b) and (d)

(2)   only (d)

(3)   (a) and (b)

(4)   (c) and (d)

Answer: (3)

68. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are

(1)   Prop roots

(2)   Lateral roots

(3)   Fibrous roots

(4)   Primary roots

Answer: (3)

69. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from

(1)   Chondrocytes

(2)   Compound epithelial cells

(3)   Squamous epithelial cells

(4)   Columnar epithelial cells

Answer: (4)

70. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of

(1)   Release of Green House gases

(2)   Disposal of e-wastes

(3)   Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another

(4)   Emission of ozone depleting substances

Answer: (4)

71. Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata?

(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.

(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only.

(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.

(d) Chordata is divided into 3 sybphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.

(1)   (a) and (b)

(2)   (b) and (c)

(3)   (d) and (c)

(4)   (c) and (a)

Answer: (2)

72. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure

(1)   Cellulose, lecithin

(2)   Inulin, insulin

(3)   Chitin, cholesterol

(4)   Glycerol, trypsin

Answer: (2)

73. Match the following columns and select the correct option.


(a) Placenta

(b) Zona pellucid

(c) Bulbo-urethral glands

(d) Leydig cells


(i) Androgens

(ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

(iii) Layer of the ovum

(iv) Lubrication of the Penis

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

(4)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)

Answer: (2)

74. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately.

(1)   2.2 meters

(2)   2.7 meters

(3)   2.0 meters

(4)   2.5 meters

Answer: (1)

75. The ovary is half inferior in:

(1)   Sunflower

(2)   Plum

(3)   Brinjal

(4)   Mustard

Answer: (2)

76. Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.

(1)   Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.

(2)   Nuclear Division takes place.

(3)   DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

(4)   Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.

Answer: (1)

77. Which of the following hormone levels will cause released of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle?

(1)   Low concentration of LH

(2)   Low concentration of FSH

(3)   High concentration of Estrogen

(4)   High concentration of Progesterone

Answer: (3)

78. Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.

(1)   Ileum is highly coiled part

(2)   Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum

(3)   Ileum opens into small intestine

(4)   Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal

Answer: (1)

79. Match the following columns and select the correct option.


(a) Eosinophils

(b) Basophils

(c) Neutrophils

(d) Lymphocytes


(i) Immune response

(ii) Phagocytosis

(iii) Release histaminases, destructive enzymes

(iv) Release granules containing histamine

(1)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)

Answer: (3)

80. The plant parts which consist of two generations – one within the other

(a) Pollen grains inside the anther

(b) Geminated pollen grain with two male gametes

(c) Seed inside the fruit

(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule

(1)   (c) and (d)

(2)   (a) and (d)

(3)   (a) only

(4)   (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (2)

81. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to

(1)   Plant nematodes

(2)   Insect predators

(3)   Insect pests

(4)   Fungal diseases

Answer: (3)

82. The first phase of translation is

(1)   Aminoacylation of tRNA

(2)   Recognition of an anti-codon

(3)   Binding of mRNA to ribosome

(4)   Recognition of DNA molecule

Answer: (1)

83. Embyological support for evolution was disapproved by

(1)   Charles Darwin

(2)   Oparin

(3)   Karl Ernst von Baer

(4)   Alfred Wallace

Answer: (3)

84. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I                                    Column-II

(a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits              (i) Trygon

(b) Heterocercal caudal fin          (ii) Cyclostomes

(c) Air Bladder                            (iii) Chondrichthyes

(d) Poison sting                           (iv) Osteichthyes

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii); (d)-(ii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

Answer: (3)

85. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I                                    Column-II

(a) Clostridium butylicum            (i) Cyclosporin-A

(b) Trichoderma polysporun        (ii) Butyric acid

(c) Monascus purpureus              (iii) Citric acid

(d) Aspergillus niger                    (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent

(1)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

(4)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

Answer: (4)

86. Which of the following is not a inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?

(1)   Phenolic acid

(2)   Para-ascorbic acid

(3)   Gibberellic acid

(4)   Abscisic acid

Answer: (3)

87. Match the following columns and select the correct option.


(a) Organ of Corti

(b) Cochlea

(c) Eustachian tube

(d) Stapes


(i) Connects middle ear and pharynx

(ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth

(iii) Attached to the oval window

(iv) Located on the basilar membrane

(1)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

(3)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii)

Answer: (1)

88. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of

(1)   caseinogens into casein

(2)   pepsinogen into pepsin

(3)   protein into polypeptides

(4)   trypsinogen into trypsin

Answer: (4)

89. Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?

(1)   Ketonuria and Glycosuria

(2)   Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia

(3)   Uremia and Ketonuria

(4)   Uremia and Renal Calculi

Answer: (1)

90. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in nearly morning is

(1)   Imbibition

(2)   Plasmolysis

(3)   Transpiration

(4)   Root pressure

Answer: (4)

91. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 16 × 109 C m. The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an angle of 60° with the dipole axis is:

(1)   400 V

(2)   zero

(3)   50 V

(4)   200 V

Answer: (4)

92. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is π/3. If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again π/3 between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is:

(1)   1.0

(2)   −1.0

(3)   zero

(4)   0.5

Answer: (1)

93. Lit of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled?

(1)   one-fourth

(2)   zero

(3)   doubled

(4)   four times

Answer: (2)

94. Dimensions of stress are:

(1)   [ML0T2]

(2)   [ML1T2]

(3)   [MLT2]

(4)   [ML2T2]

Answer: (2)

95. An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is 1.227 × 102 nm, the potential difference is:

(1)   103V

(2)   104V

(3)   10 V

(4)   102V

Answer: (2)

96. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium is 6 μ With the introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 μF. The permittivity of the medium is:

(∈0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2 N−1 m−2)

(1)   0.44 × 10−10 C2 N−1 m−2

(2)   5.00 C2 N−1 m−2

(3)   0.44 × 10−13 C2 N−1 m−2

(4)   1.77 × 10−12 C2 N−1 m−2

Answer: (1)

97. The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are:

(1)   semiconductors only

(2)   insulators and semiconductors

(3)   metals

(4)   insulators only

Answer: (2)

98. For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct?

(1)   Both emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.

(2)   The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.

(3)   Base, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations.

(4)   Base, emitter and collector regions should have same size.

Answer: (2)

99. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.

The pitch of the screw gauge is:

(1)   0.5 mm

(2)   1.0 mm

(3)   0.01 mm

(4)   0.25 mm

Answer: (1)

100. The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is:

(1)   π/2 rad

(2)   zero

(3)   π rad

(4)   3π/2 rad

Answer: (3)

101. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is:

0 = 4π × 107 T m A1)

(1)   6.28 × 105 T

(2)   3.14 × 105 T

(3)   6.28 × 104 T

(4)   3.14 × 104 T

Answer: (3)

102. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)   320 m

(2)   300 m

(3)   360 m

(4)   340 m

Answer: (2)

103. The colour code of a resistance is given below

The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, are

(1)   4.7 kΩ, 5%

(2)   470 Ω, 5%

(3)   470 kΩ, 5%

(4)   47 kΩ, 10%

Answer: (2)

104. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be

(1)   45° < ib < 90°

(2)   ib = 90°

(3)   0° < ib < 30°

(4)   30° < ib < 45°

Answer: (1)

105. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is μ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to:

(1)   μA

(2)   μA/2

(3)   A/2μ

(4)   2A/μ

Answer: (1)

106. Two cylinder A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature an pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is:

(1)   isochoric

(2)   isobaric

(3)   isothermal

(4)   adiabatic

Answer: (4)

107. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid?

(1)   Deuteron atom

(2)   Singly ionized neon atom (Ne+)

(3)   Hydrogen atom

(4)   Singly ionized helium atom (He+)

Answer: (2)

108. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is:

(1)   g/5

(2)   g/10

(3)   g

(4)   g/2

Answer: (1)

109. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. The magnitude of electric field in this region is:

(1)   1 N/C

(2)   5 N/C

(3)   zero

(4)   0.5 N/C

Answer: (3)

110. When a uranium isotope  is bombarded with a neutron, it generates  three neutrons and :





Answer: (3)

111. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :

(1)   1.5 × 1013 J

(2)   0.5 × 1013 J

(3)   4.5 × 1016 J

(4)   4.5 × 1013 J

Answer: (4)

112. The mean free path of a gas, with molecular diameter d and number density n can be expressed as:





Answer: (4)

113. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is:





Answer: (2)

114. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge of 3.2 × 107 C distributed uniformly. What is the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?

(1)   1.28 × 106 N/C

(2)   1.28 × 107 N/C

(3)   1.28 × 104 N/C

(4)   1.28 × 105 N/C

Answer: (4)

115. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 1020 This value in eV is nearly:

(1)   0.06

(2)   0.006

(3)   6

(4)   0.6

Answer: (1)

116. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?

(1)   30 N

(2)   24 N

(3)   48 N

(4)   32 N

Answer: (4)

117. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is:





Answer: (3)

118. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes:

(1)   four times

(2)   one-fourth

(3)   double

(4)   half

Answer: (1)

119. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is:

(1)   10.0 g

(2)   20.0 g

(3)   2.5 g

(4)   5.0 g

Answer: (1)

120. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27°

Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol1 K1)

(1)   0.1 kg/m3

(2)   0.02 kg/m3

(3)   0.5 kg/m3

(4)   0.2 kg/m3

Answer: (4)

121. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetizing field of 1200 A m1. The permeability of the material of the rod is:

0 = 4π × 107 T m A1)

(1)   2.4π × 105 T m A1

(2)   2.4π × 107 T m A1

(3)   2.4π × 104 T m A1

(4)   8.0 × 105 T m A1

Answer: (3)

122. Find the torque about the origin when a force of  acts on a particle whose position vector is .





Answer: (1)

123. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas is : (k­B is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute temperature)





Answer: (4)

124. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is:

(1)   7.32 × 107 rad

(2)   6.00 × 107 rad

(3)   3.66 × 107 rad

(4)   1.83 × 107 rad

Answer: (3)

125. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is:

(1)   24 × 103 J

(2)   48 × 103 J

(3)   10 × 103 J

(4)   12 × 103 J

Answer: (1)

126. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electronmagnetic wave is :

(c = speed of electronmagnetic waves)

(1)   1 : c

(2)   1 : c2

(3)   c : 1

(4)   1 : 1

Answer: (4)

127. Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for copper?

Answer: (1)

128. The quantities of heat required to raise the temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the ratio :

(1)   3/2

(2)   5/3

(3)   27/8

(4)   9/4

Answer: (3)

129. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the resistance wire is:

(1)   1.5 × 101 m

(2)   1.5 × 102 m

(3)   1.0 × 102 m

(4)   1.0 × 101 m

Answer: (4)

130. The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n junction diode is due to:

(1)   both forward bias and reverse bias

(2)   increase in forward current

(3)   forward bias only

(4)   reverse bias only

Answer: (4)

131. A 40 μF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, nearly:

(1)   2.5 A

(2)   25.1 A

(3)   1.7 A

(4)   2.05 A

Answer: (1)

132. Taking into account of the significant, figures, what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m ?

(1)   9.980 m

(2)   9.9 m

(3)   9.9801 m

(4)   9.98 m

Answer: (4)

133. A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 × 104 m s1 in an electric field of 3 × 1010 Vm1, has a mobility in m2V1s1 of:

(1)   2.5 × 106

(2)   2.25 × 1015

(3)   2.25 × 1015

(4)   2.5 × 106

Answer: (4)

134. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:

(1)   536 Hz

(2)   537 Hz

(3)   523 Hz

(4)   524 Hz

Answer: (4)

135. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.

The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of :

(1)   67 cm

(2)   80 cm

(3)   33 cm

(4)   50 cm

Answer: (1)

136. Reaction between benezaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as

(1)   Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction

(2)   Cross Aldol condensation

(3)   Aldol condensation

(4)   Cannizzaro’s reaction

Answer: (2)

137. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?

(1)   Stability of the colloidal particles

(2)   Size of the colloidal particles

(3)   Viscosity

(4)   Solubility

Answer: (1)

138. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following?

(1)   − R effect of – CH3 groups

(2)   Hyperconjugation

(3)   −I effect of – CH3 groups

(4)   +R effect of – CH3 groups

Answer: (2)

139. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is

(1)   q < 0, ∆T = 0 and w = 0

(2)   q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0

(3)   q = 0, ∆T = 0 and w = 0

(4)   q = 0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0

Answer: (3)

140. Match the following :

Oxide                               Nature

(a) CO                              (i) Basic

(b) BaO                            (ii) Neutral

(c) Al2O3                          (iii) Acidic

(d) Cl2O7                          (iv) Amphoteric

Which of the following is correct option?

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2)   (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(3)   (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (4)

141. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:

(1)   Tert. butyl alcohol

(2)   Isobutyl alcohol

(3)   Isopropyl alcohol

(4)   Sec. butyl alcohol

Answer: (1)

142. The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.

(1)   Calcium

(2)   Potassium

(3)   Iron

(4)   Copper

Answer: (2)

143. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?

(1)   Tyrosine

(2)   Lysine

(3)   Serine

(4)   Alanine

Answer: (2)

144. Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions

Answer: (1)

145. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination compounds?





Answer: (3)

146. Which of the following is a cationic detergent?

(1)   Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide

(2)   Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate

(3)   Sodium lauryl sulphate

(4)   Sodium stearate

Answer: (1)

147. Which one of the following has maximum number of atoms?

(1)   1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]

(2)   1g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]

(3)   1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]

(4)   1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]

Answer: (2)

148. Identify the incorrect match.

Name                   IUPAC Official Name

(a) Unnilunium    (i) Mendelevium

(b) Unnitrium       (ii) Lawrencium

(c) Unnilhexium   (iii) Seaborgium

(d) Unununnium  (iv) Darmstadtium

(1)   (c), (iii)

(2)   (d), (iv)

(3)   (a), (i)

(4)   (b), (ii)

Answer: (2)

149. Which of the following amine will give the carbylamines test?

Answer: (3)

150. Paper chromatography is an example of

(1)   Thin layer chromatography

(2)   Column chromatography

(3)   Adsorption chromatography

(4)   Partition chromatography

Answer: (4)

151. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 is:

[Use atomic masses (in g mol1) : N = 14, Ar = 40]

(1)   15 bar

(2)   18 bar

(3)   9 bar

(4)   12 bar

Answer: (1)

152. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in respectively, are

(1)   71, 71 and 104

(2)   175, 104 and 71

(3)   71, 104 and 71

(4)   104, 71 and 71

Answer: (3)

153. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606 × 103 s1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is:

(1)   500 s

(2)   1000 s

(3)   100 s

(4)   200 s

Answer: (1)

154. Identify a molecule which does not exist.

(1)   C2

(2)   O2

(3)   He2

(4)   Li2

Answer: (3)

155. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction.

Sucrose + H2O ⇌ Glucose + Fructose

If the equilibrium constant (KC) is 2 × 1013 at 300 K, the value of ∆rG at the same temperature will be:

(1)   8.314 J mol1K1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 1013)

(2)   −8.314 J mol1K1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 1013)

(3)   −8.314 J mol1K1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)

(4)   8.314 J mol1K1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)

Answer: (3)

156. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct option is:

(1)   ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0

(2)   ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0

(3)   ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0

(4)   ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0

Answer: (2)

157. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 × 1015

(1)   1 × 1013 M

(2)   1 × 108 M

(3)   2 × 1013 M

(4)   2 × 108 M

Answer: (3)

158. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be

(1)   H2S gas

(2)   SO2 gas

(3)   Hydrogen gas

(4)   Oxygen gas

Answer: (4)

159. Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?

(1)   The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.

(2)   It is produced due to incomplete combustion.

(3)   It forms carboxyhaemoglobin

(4)   It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.

Answer: (1)

160. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol1) is

(1)   3

(2)   4

(3)   1

(4)   2

Answer: (3)

161. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is

(a) β-Elimination reaction

(b) Follows Zaitsev rule

(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction

(d) Dehydraion reaction

(1)   (b), (c), (d)

(2)   (a), (b), (d)

(3)   (a), (b), (c)

(4)   (a), (c), (d)

Answer: (3)

162. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction?

CH4(g) + 4Cl­2(g) → CCl4(l) + 4HCl(g)

(1)   −4 to +4

(2)   0 to −4

(3)   +4  to +4

(4)   0 to +4

Answer: (1)

163. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?

(1)   n-Heptane

(2)   n-Butane

(3)   n-Hexane

(4)   2, 3-Dimethylbutane

Answer: (1)

164. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives

(1)   α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose

(2)   α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose

(3)   β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose

(4)   α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose

Answer: (1)

165. Identify the incorrect statement.

(1)   Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.

(2)   The oxidation states of chromium in  are not be same.

(3)   Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent that Fe2+ (d6) in water.

(4)   The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.

Answer: (2)

166. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl. Which of the following compound (s) crystallize(s) ?

(1)   Only MgCl2

(2)   NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl=2

(3)   Both MgCl2 and CaCl2

(4)   Only NaCl

Answer: (4)

167. Identify the correct statements from the following:

(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food.

(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.

(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline.

(d) CO is colourless and odourless gas.

(1)   (b) and (c) only

(2)   (c) and (d) only

(3)   (a), (b) and (c) only

(4)   (a) and (c) only

Answer: (2)

168. An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in

(1)   threshold energy

(2)   collision frequency

(3)   activation energy

(4)   heat of reaction

Answer: (4)

169. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ ion is

(1)   5.92 BM

(2)   2.84 BM

(3)   3.87 BM

(4)   4.90 BM

Answer: (4)

  1. Match the following and identify the correct option.

(a) CO(g) + H2(g)                                            (i) Mg(HCO3)2 + Ca(HCO3)2

(b) Temporary hardness of water              (ii) An electron deficient hydride

(c) B2H6                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                           (iii) Synthesis gas

(d) H2O2                          (iv) Non-planar structure

(1)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2)   (a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(3)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(4)   (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (3)

171. The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is

(1)   Acetone + Chloroform

(2)   Chloroethane + Bromoethane

(3)   Ethanol + Acetone

(4)   Benzene + Toluene

Answer: (3)

172. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives

Answer: (3)

173. Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following?

(1)   Cu(OH)2

(2)   CuCO3∙Cu(OH)2

(3)   CuSO4

(4)   [Cu(NH3)4]2+

Answer: (4)

174. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol1. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places):

(1)   0.40 K

(2)   0.60 K

(3)   0.20 K

(4)   0.80 K

Answer: (1)

175. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has – O – O – linkage?

(1)   H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid

(2)   H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid

(3)   H2SO3, sulphurous acid

(4)   H2SO4, sulphuric acid

Answer: (1)

176. Identify the correct statement from the following :

(1)   Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van Arkel method.

(2)   Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.

(3)   Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.

(4)   Blister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of CO2.

Answer: (2)

177. Which of the following is a natural polymer?

(1)   polybutadiene

(2)   poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)

(3)   cis-1, 4-polyisoprene

(4)   poly (Butadiene-styrene)

Answer: (3)

178.  An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic radius is





Answer: (3)

179.  An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanol as one of the product. Its structure is

Answer: (1)

180. Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?

(1)   Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1, 3-dichlorobenzene

(2)   Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1, 4-dichlorobenzene

(3)   Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1, 4-dichlorobenzene

(4)   Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1, 3-dichlorobenzene

Answer: (2)