## GATE Exam 2022 Architecture and Planning (AR) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2022

AR: Architecture and Planning

General Aptitude

1. After playing _________ hours of tennis, I am feeling _________ tired to walk back.

(A)  too / too

(B)  too / two

(C)  two / two

(D)  two / too

2. The average of the monthly salaries of M, N and S is Rs. 4000. The average of the monthly salaries of N, S and P is Rs. 5000. The monthly salary of P is Rs. 6000.

What is the monthly salary of M as a percentage of the monthly salary of P?

(A)  50%

(B)  75%

(C)  100%

(D)  125%

3. A person travelled 80 km in 6 hours. If the person travelled the first part with a uniform speed of 10 kmph and the remaining part with a uniform speed of 18 kmph.

What percentage of the total distance is travelled at a uniform speed of 10 kmph?

(A)  28.25

(B)  37.25

(C)  43.75

(D)  50.00

4. Four girls P, Q, R and S are studying languages in a University. P is learning French and Dutch. Q is learning Chinese and Japanese. R is learning Spanish and French. S is learning Dutch and Japanese.

Given that: French is easier than Dutch; Chinese is harder than Japanese; Dutchis easier than Japanese, and Spanish is easier than French.

Based on the above information, which girl is learning the most difficult pair oflanguages?

(A)  P

(B)  Q

(C)  R

(D)  S

5.

A block with a trapezoidal cross-section is placed over a block with rectangularcross section as shown above.

Which one of the following is the correct drawing of the view of the 3D object as viewed in the direction indicated by an arrow in the above figure?

6. Humans are naturally compassionate and honest. In a study using strategically placed wallets that appear “lost”, it was found that wallets with money are more likely to be returned than wallets without money. Similarly, wallets that had a key and money are more likely to be returned than wallets with the same amount of money alone. This suggests that the primary reason for this behavior is compassion and empathy.

Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on theinformation in the above passage?

(A)  Wallets with a key are more likely to be returned because people do not careabout money

(B)  Wallets with a key are more likely to be returned because people relate tosuffering of others

(C)  Wallets used in experiments are more likely to be returned than wallets that arereally lost

(D)  Money is always more important than keys

7. A rhombus is formed by joining the midpoints of the sides of a unit square.

What is the diameter of the largest circle that can be inscribed within the rhombus?

(A)  1/√2

(B)  1/2√2

(C)  √2

(D)  2√2

8. An equilateral triangle, a square and a circle have equal areas.

What is the ratio of the perimeters of the equilateral triangle to square to circle?

9. Given below are three conclusions drawn based on the following three statements.

Statement 1: All teachers are professors.

Statement 2: No professor is a male.

Statement 3: Some males are engineers.

Conclusion I: No engineer is a professor.

Conclusion II: Some engineers are professors.

Conclusion III: No male is a teacher.

Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

(A)  Only conclusion III is correct

(B)  Only conclusion I and conclusion II are correct

(C)  Only conclusion II and conclusion III are correct

(D)  Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct

10. In a 12-hour clock that runs correctly, how many times do the second, minute, and hour hands of the clock coincide, in a 12-hour duration from 3 PM in a day to 3 AM the next day?

(A)  11

(B)  12

(C)  144

(D)  2

PART A: Common FOR ALL CANDIDATES

Q.11 – Q .28 Carry ONE mark Each

11. The concentric circles in a sun-path diagram represent ___________.

(A)  Altitude angle

(B)  Azimuth angle

(C)  Day of the year

(D)  Hour of the day

12. The operational guidelines on Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), January 2017, by the erstwhile Ministry of Housing & Urban Poverty Alleviation, Government of India, defines EWS households as those having an annual income up to ___________ (in Indian Rupees).

(A)  2,00,000

(B)  2,50,000

(C)  3,00,000

(D)  3,50,000

13. Which of the following is a Vector Graphics Software?

(A)  Inkscape

(B)  Odeon

(D)  DesignBuilder

14. The main cable of a suspension bridge supports the deck with hangars. These hangars are equidistant along the length of the bridge and represent a uniformly distributed load. Assuming the cable to be weightless as compared to the applied loading, the best approximation of the shape that the cable takes for this loading is a ___________.

(A)  Catenary curve

(B)  Circular arc

(C)  Parabolic curve

(D)  Hyperbolic curve

15. Arrange the following road types in descending order of accessibility.

(Q) Expressway

(S) Local Street

(A)  Q-P-R-S

(B)  S-R-P-Q

(C)  S-P-R-Q

(D)  P-Q-S-R

16. The following two-dimensional visual composition represents _______.

(A)  Interlocking

(B)  Intersecting

(C)  Interlacing

(D)  Interpenetrating

17. The Golden Ratio refers to ___________.

(A)  1:√2

(B)  2:(1 + √5)

(C)  1:1

(D)  16:9

18. Hogarth’s Line of Beauty is a ___________.

(A)  Horizontal straight line

(B)  Zigzag line

(C)  Vertical straight line

(D)  Serpentine line

19. Which of the following sites were added to Ramsar List in the year 2020?

(A)  Ashtamudi Wetland

(B)  Asan Conservation Reserve

(C)  Chilika Lake

(D)  Lonar Lake

20. Which of the following help(s) in keeping direct solar radiation out of the building?

(A)  Mashrabiya

(C)  Malquf

(D)  Chajja

21. As per the Handbook of Professional Documents 2015, Council of Architecture, India, architects are liable ________.

(A)  If the building is used for any other purpose than the one for which it was designed

(B)  If any unauthorised changes or illegal modifications are made by theowner(s)/occupant(s)

(C)  If the client suffers damage/loss due to lack of proper professional service

(D)  If the architect fails to attain the standard of care as prescribed by law

22. As per the United Nations Transforming our world: The 2030 agenda for sustainable development, 2015, which of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) directly address water related issues?

(A)  SDG-1

(B)  SDG-4

(C)  SDG-6

(D)  SDG-14

23. For a masonry section, the line of action of force shifts to incorporate the effects of lateral forces and induced moments. Consider a masonry section of width 600 mm. Assuming a zero tensile stress capacity and a linear stress-strain response for the entire domain of loading, the minimum value of eccentricity at which the section will crack (in mm, rounded off to one decimal place) is ___________.

24. The maximum and minimum indoor dry bulb temperature of a room are 38°C and 34°C, respectively. If the corresponding outdoor maximum and minimum dry bulb

temperature are 42°C and 30°C, respectively, then the thermal damping of the room (in percentage, rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.

25. A building site measures 96 sq.cm on a scale of 1:12500. The actual area it represents (in hectare, in integer) is ________.

26. An off-street car parking lot contains a total of 75 bays. If the parking lot was used by 687 cars over a period of 12 hours, the average parking turn-over of the parking lot (in vehicles per hour per bay, rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.

27. The hydraulic radius of the following rectangular open drainage section (in mm, rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.

28. A town with 0.45 million population sends its entire organic waste to a composting site on a daily basis through a truck of 15 ton carrying capacity. Assume total waste generated per capita per day is 0.21 kg and 40% of the total waste is organic waste. The minimum number of weekly round trips required by the truck (in integer) will be ________.

Q.29 – Q .49 Carry TWO marks Each

29. The correct sequence of the following Construction Project Development stages, as per the National Building Code of India 2016 is ___________.

(P) Resource Planning

(Q) Project Inception

(R) Commissioning and Handing over

(S) Tendering

(T) Site Survey and Soil Investigation

(U)Selection of Construction Methodology

(A)  P-Q-R-T-U-S

(B)  T-Q-R-U-S-P

(C)  Q-T-U-P-S-R

(D)  Q-T-P-S-U-R

30. Match the aspects in Group I with the corresponding items in Group II.

(A)  P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(B)  P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(C)  P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(D)  P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3

31. Match the States in Group I with the corresponding Vernacular Building Typologies in Group II.

(A)  P-4, Q-5, R-3, S-2

(B)  P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(C)  P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

32. Match the examples in Group I with their corresponding typologies in Group II.

(A)  P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(B)  P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3

(C)  P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(D)  P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4

33. Match the Place(s)/Event(s) in Group I with the corresponding Heritage Significance/Characteristics in Group II.

(A)  P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

(B)  P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(C)  P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(D)  P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4

34. Match the Urban Design Concepts in Group I with their corresponding Proponents in Group II.

(A)  P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(B)  P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(C)  P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-1

(D)  P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3

35. In the following sketch, P, Q, R, and S refer to elements of an urban space. Identify P, Q, R, S.

(A)  P-Path, Q-Vista, R- Edge, S-Landmark

(B)  P-Vista, Q-Edge, R- Landmark, S-Path

(C)  P-Landmark, Q-Vista, R- Path, S-Edge

(D)  P-Landmark, Q-Edge, R- Path, S-Vista

36. As per the URDPFI Guidelines 2015, match the type of Health Care Facilities in Group I to the corresponding population served per unit in Group II.

(A)  P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(B)  P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-4

(C)  P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2

(D)  P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-3

37. Match the plan forms in Group I with their corresponding project names in Group II.

(A)  P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2

(B)  P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-5

(C)  P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(D)  P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

38. Match the Biosphere reserves in India in Group I with their corresponding locations in Group II.

(A)  P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(B)  P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(C)  P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(D)  P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3

39. In traditional Persian context, qanat system refers to

(A)  An underground water-way, tunnelled and channelled

(B)  A system where water is raised by a series of scoops fixed to a moving belt stretched between two wheels

(C)  A method of conducting water from a source-well rather than raising it

(D)  A system where water is conducted from enclosure to enclosure by straight forward gravity fall

40. Which of the following is/are classified as the Principles of Universal Design?

(A)  Perceptible Information

(B)  Tolerance for Error

(C)  Occult Balance

(D)  Simple and Intuitive Use

41. As per the URDPFI Guidelines 2015, which of the following Organoleptic and Physical parameters comply with the acceptable limit requirements of drinking water quality?

(A)  Colour: Maximum 5 Hazen units

(B)  Turbidity: Maximum 1 NTU

(C)  pH Value: Minimum 10

(D)  Total Dissolved Solids: Maximum 500 mg/l

42. In an ideal air-conditioning cycle shown below, which of the following statement(s) is/are true in the segments P, Q, R, S?

(A)  P: Vapour at low pressure

(B)  Q: Vapour at low pressure

(C)  R: Liquid at high pressure

(D)  S: Liquid-Vapour mixture at low pressure

43. Which of the following is/are the characteristic(s) of a Mughal Garden?

(A)  Symmetrical and geometrical

(B)  Fountain and channelled water

(C)  Winding road and untrimmed vegetation

(D)  Vista with terminal building

44. As per the Central Pollution Control Board’s National Air Quality Index (AQI) of India 2014, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

(A)  AQI is computed considering 8-hourly value of CO

(B)  AQI is computed considering 2-hourly value of PM2.5

(C)  AQI considers the O3 concentrations

(D)  AQI considers the CO2 concentrations

45. The decadal population data of a city are given in the following Table. The domestic water consumption of the city is estimated to be 175 litres per capita per day in the year 2041. Considering 2011 population as the base year and using arithmetic growth method of population forecasting, the daily domestic water demand of the city in the year 2041 (in million litres per day, rounded off to two decimal places) will be ___________.

46. The activity duration, early start, early finish, late start, and late finish (in weeks) for activities P, Q, R, and S are shown in the following figure. The interfering float of activity R (in weeks, in integer) is _______.

47. A 230 mm thick brick wall of 10 m length and 3 m height is built using a Flemish bond. The size of the bricks used is 230 mm ×5 mm × 70 mm. Assuming a mortar thickness of 5 mm, the number of bricks required (in integer) is ___________.

48. The reflected ceiling plan and section of a reinforced cement concrete roof are shown in the following Figure. All the beams are 300 mm wide, 600 mm deep (including 150 mm slab) equidistantly placed center to center. Assuming 1% of concrete volume is occupied by reinforcement bars, the volume of concrete (in cubic meters, rounded off to two decimal places) is ______.

49. The following graph represents the income distribution among the population of a country. The Gini Coefficient of the country (rounded off to three decimal places) is ________.

PART B1: FOR Architecture CANDIDATES ONLY

Q.50 – Q.56 Carry ONE mark Each

50. Which of the following processes is used for surface treatment of metals?

(A)  Soldering

(B)  Thermoplating

(C)  Extrusion

(D)  Riveting

51. Among the following monuments of ancient Greece, the only Octastyle Peripteral temple with eight towering Doric columns lining both east and west facades is _______.

(A)  Temple of Athena

(B)  Temple of Apollo

(C)  The Parthenon

(D)  Temple of Horus

52. An Ultrasonic Pulse Velocity (UPV) test was done on a hardened concrete element using a direct transmission method as per IS 516 (Part 5/Section 1): 2018. The distance between the transducer and receiver was 600 mm. The time taken for the induced wave to travel this distance is measured as 0.18 milliseconds. Based on the following Table, the concrete quality grading is ________.

(A)  Excellent

(B)  Good

(C)  Doubtful

(D)  Poor

53. Which of the following is/are example(s) of Tomb Architecture of Ancient Egypt?

(A)  Step Pyramid of Zoser, Sakkara

(B)  Great Temple of Abu-Simbel

(C)  Temple of Khons, Karnak

(D)  Mastabas of Gizeh

54. If Aluminium : Anodisation :: Glazing : X, which of the following choices represent X?

(A)  Hard coating

(B)  External cement plastering

(C)  Tempering

(D)  Free-standing vertical greening

55. A black body radiant heating panel of 5 m2 surface area at 35°C surface temperature is located 1 m away from a 1 m2 surface at 20° The Stefan-Boltzmann constant is 5.6703×10−8 W m−2 K−4. The rate of radiant heat emission by the radiant heating panel (in W, rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.

56. A hypothetical truss comprising of weightless members is shown in the following Figure. Assuming tension to be positive and compression to be negative, the value of force in member TU (in kN, rounded off to one decimal place) is ________.

Q.57 – Q .65 Carry TWO marks Each

57. Match the illustrations of Arch Types in Group I with their corresponding names in Group II.

(A)  P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(B)  P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(C)  P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4

(D)  P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-1

58. Match the architectural projects in Group I with their corresponding architects in Group II.

(A)  P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(B)  P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(C)  P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(D)  P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

59. Match the structural joining systems in Group I with the corresponding materials for which they are commonly used in Group II.

(A)  P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(B)  P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

(C)  P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-1

(D)  P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3

60. Match the Instruments in Group I with the corresponding climate parameters in Group II.

(A)  P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

(B)  P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

(C)  P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(D)  P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5

61. In traditional Indian temple architecture, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

(A)  Jagamohana refers to a dancing hall

(B)  Gopuram refers to an entrance tower

(C)  Char-chala refers to a roof composed of four triangular segments

(D)  Vimana refers to the structure over the Garbhagriha

62. Which of the following factors impact Daylight Autonomy of a built space?

(A)  Orientation of building

(B)  Glare caused by daylight

(C)  Latitude and longitude of building location

(D)  Fenestration size

63. For the beam shown in the following Figure, assuming a sagging moment (generating tensile stresses at the bottom fibre) as positive and a hogging moment (generating tensile stresses at the top fibre) as negative, the bending moment (in kN.m, rounded off to one decimal place) at section X-X is _________.

64. The acoustical absorption of a wall panel in each octave band is tabulated below. The Noise Reduction Coefficient of the wall panel (rounded off to two decimal places) is ______.

65. A room is maintained at a wet bulb temperature of 25°C, globe temperature of 30°C, and air velocity of 0.5 m/s. The decrease in Tropical Summer Index when the air velocity is increased to 3 m/s (in °C, rounded off to two decimal places) is _________.

Answer: (-2.20 to -1.50 OR 1.50 to 2.20)

PART B2: FOR Planning CANDIDATES ONLY

Q.66 – Q.72 Carry ONE mark Each

66. Which of the following is the National Electronic Toll Collection System implemented by the National Payment Corporation of India?

(A)  e-Pass

(B)  E-ZPass

(C)  HashTag

(D)  FASTag

67. The shaded area in the following demand-supply graph is known as ______.

(A)  Consumer Surplus

(B)  Consumer Deficit

(C)  Producer Surplus

(D)  Producer Deficit

68. Identify the following traffic interchange.

(A)  Directional

(B)  Trumpet

(C)  Clover-Leaf

(D)  Diamond

69. Which of the following is/are Value Capture Method(s)?

(A)  Building construction fees

(B)  Fees for changing agricultural to non-agricultural land use

(C)  User charge

70. Which among the following is/are model(s) of Public-Private Partnership (PPP) used for infrastructure projects?

(A)  BOLD

(B)  BOLT

(C)  BOOT

(D)  BPOT

71. The measured spot speeds (in km/h) of 10 vehicles from a traffic stream are 45, 35, 25, 51, 45, 38, 61, 42, 47, and 49. The Time Mean Speed of the traffic stream (in km/h, rounded off to one decimal place) is ________.

72. In a township, the price of each house was 25,00,000 (in Indian Rupees) last month. The number of houses sold in a month (Q in thousands) is sensitive to the price of the house (P in Indian Rupees) and establishes a relationship as Q = 6685 – 0.00158 P. If the price of each house increases by 20% in the current month, then the decrease in sale of the houses (in percentage, rounded off to two decimal places) compared to last month will be ________.

Q.73 – Q.81 Carry TWO marks Each

73. Match the models in Group I with their corresponding applications in Group II.

(A)  P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4

(B)  P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(C)  P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4

(D)  P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2

74. Match the proponents in Group I with the corresponding theories in Group II.

(A)  P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-5

(B)  P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-1

(C)  P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D)  P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4

75. Match the Artists/Scientists in Group I with their corresponding contributions in Group II.

(A)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(B)  P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(C)  P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D)  P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-1

76. In the conceptual diagram of the city given below, P, Q, R, and S refer to urban patterns. Among the choices given below, the correct association is

(A)  P-Satellite town, Q-Urban fringe, R-TOD, S-Central Business District

(B)  P-Central Business District, Q-Satellite town, R-TOD, S-Urban fringe

(C)  P-Urban fringe, Q-TOD, R-Satellite town, S-Central Business District

(D)  P-Satellite town, Q-Central Business District, R-TOD, S-Urban fringe

77. Which among the following is/are the component(s) of the assimilative carrying capacity of urban environment?

(A)  Air

(B)  Water

(C)  Economy

(D)  Soil

78. In the transportation network given below, P, Q, R, S, T, and U are the nodes and values mentioned on the links denote time in minutes. Which of the following options represent the minimum spanning tree?

(A)  PQ, QR, QT, TS, SU

(B)  PR, QR, RT, TU, SU

(C)  PQ, QR, RT, TS, SU

(D)  PQ, QR, RS, ST, TU

79. A vehicle count survey (in Passenger Car Unit) is conducted on a mid-block section of a road at regular intervals of 15 minutes from 8:00 AM to 10:00 AM. Based on the data given in Table below, the Peak Hour Factor (rounded off to two decimal places) for the given survey duration is _______.

80. A land owner has shown interest in a Town Planning Scheme. Based on the details of the scheme given in the following Table, the estimated Net Benefit to the landowner after land development (in Indian Rupees, in integer) is _______.

81. The year-wise cash flows (in Indian Rupees) of a construction project are given inthe following Table. If the annual discount rate for the project is assumed to be 12%,the Net Present Value (in Indian Rupees, rounded off to two decimal places) for the project will be _______.

## GATE Exam 2022 Agricultural Engineering (AG) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2022

AG: Agricultural Engineering

GA-General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Inhaling the smoke from a burning _________ could _________ you quickly.

(A)  tire / tier

(B)  tire / tyre

(C)  tyre / tire

(D)  tyre / tier

2. A sphere of radius r cm is packed in a box of cubical shape.

What should be the minimum volume (in cm3) of the box that can enclose the sphere?

(A)  r3/8

(B)  r3

(C)  2r3

(D)  8r3

3. Pipes P and Q can fill a storage tank in full with water in 10 and 6 minutes, respectively. Pipe R draws the water out from the storage tank at a rate of 34 litres per minute. P, Q and R operate at a constant rate.

If it takes one hour to completely empty a full storage tank with all the pipes operating simultaneously, what is the capacity of the storage tank (in litres)?

(A)  26.8

(B)  60.0

(C)  120.0

(D)  127.5

4. Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the center not necessarily in the same order. Consider the following statements:

• P sits next to S and T.

• Q sits diametrically opposite to P.

• The shortest distance between S and R is equal to the shortest distance between T and U.

Based on the above statements, Q is a neighbor of

(A)  U and S

(B)  R and T

(C)  R and U

(D)  P and S

5. A building has several rooms and doors as shown in the top view of the building given below. The doors are closed initially.

What is the minimum number of doors that need to be opened in order to go from the point P to the point Q?

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  2

(D)  1

Q.6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.

6. Rice, a versatile and inexpensive source of carbohydrate, is a critical component of diet worldwide. Climate change, causing extreme weather, poses a threat to sustained availability of rice. Scientists are working on developing Green Super Rice (GSR), which is resilient under extreme weather conditions yet gives higher yields sustainably.

Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information given in the above passage?

(A)  GSR is an alternative to regular rice, but it grows only in an extreme weather

(B)  GSR may be used in future in response to adverse effects of climate change

(C)  GSR grows in an extreme weather, but the quantity of produce is lesser than regular rice

(D)  Regular rice will continue to provide good yields even in extreme weather

7. A game consists of spinning an arrow around a stationary disk as shown below. When the arrow comes to rest, there are eight equally likely outcomes. It could come to rest in any one of the sectors numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 or 8 as shown. Two such disks are used in a game where their arrows are independently spun. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the resulting sectors upon spinning the two disks is equal to 8 after the arrows come to rest?

(A)  1/16

(B)  5/64

(C)  3/32

(D)  7/64

8. Consider the following inequalities.

(i) 3p − q< 4

(ii) 3q − p< 12

Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two inequalities?

(A)  p + q < 8

(B)  p + q = 8

(C)  8 ≤ p + q < 16

(D)  p + q ≥ 16

9. Given below are three statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements.

Statement 1: Some engineers are writers.

Statement 2: No writer is an actor.

Statement 3: All actors are engineers.

Conclusion I: Some writers are engineers.

Conclusion II: All engineers are actors.

Conclusion III: No actor is a writer.

Conclusion IV: Some actors are writers.

Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

(A)  Only conclusion I is correct

(B)  Only conclusion II and conclusion III are correct

(C)  Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct

(D)  Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct

10. Which one of the following sets of pieces can be assembled to form a square with a single round hole near the center? Pieces cannot overlap.

Agricultural Engineering

Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Determinant of a matrix remains unaltered if ______.

(A)  its columns and rows are interchanged

(B)  two parallel lines are identical

(C)  two parallel lines intersect

(D)  each element of a line is multiplied by the same factor

12. The probability of having 53 Sundays in a randomly selected leap year is ______.

(A)  1/7

(B)  1/4

(C)  2/7

(D)  4/7

13. Function f(x) by Maclaurin’s series (as an infinite series) can be expressed as

14. The lowest temperature at which the fuel ceases to flow is known as ______.

(A)  Pour point

(B)  Cloud point

(C)  Flash point

(D)  Boiling point

15. Complement of the Solar Altitude angle is ______.

(A)  Zenith angle

(B)  Azimuth angle

(C)  Hour angle

(D)  Profile angle

16. Annual cost of owning (fixed cost) a particular combine harvester is Rs. 3,00,000 whereas, operating it would cost additional Rs. 6,000 per hectare. If an entrepreneur wishes to offer the machine for custom hiring, the combination of annual use (ha) and custom rate (Rs. ha1), respectively, that would fetch him the break-even condition is ______.

(A)  200 and 7,500

(B)  210 and 6,300

(C)  180 and 9,200

(D)  250 and 6,100

17. In construction of gravel packed wells, the pack-aquifer ratio is generally defined as ______.

18. The shape of falling limb of a hydrograph is dependent on ______.

(A)  basin and storm characteristics

(B)  storm characteristics only

(C)  basin characteristics only

(D)  direction of the rainfall only

19. Energy requirement (E) to produce a change (dX) in dimension X of a particular size can be expressed as  where, c is constant and n according to Rittinger’s law is ______.

(A)  1/2

(B)  √2

(C)  3/2

(D)  2

20. The ratio of inertial forces to viscous forces is knows as ___________.

(A)  Froude number

(B)  Reynolds number

(C)  Power number

(D)  Biot number

21. The root of the equation sin x–4x + 1 = 0 after its first iteration, using Newton-Raphson method with an initial guess of x0 = 0.2, is _________.[round off to three decimal places]

22. The slope of the function f(x) = 2x4 – 3x2 + 5x at x = 2 is ________. [Answer in integer]

23. A single cylinder four-stroke diesel engine has an engine displacement volume of9 L, the engine rotates at 2400 rpm and its volumetric efficiency is 88%. The actual air inducted into the cylinder in m3 s1 is _________. [round off to three decimal places]

24. A two-wheel drive tractor is fitted with driving wheels having rolling radius of 860 mm. The effective gear ratio between the engine to the drive wheels is 98:1 and the power transmission efficiency at that gear ratio is 86%. If the engine torque is 520 N m, the ground thrust developed by the drive wheels in kN is __________.[round off to two decimal places]

25. A double acting hydraulic cylinder has bore and rod diameter of 76 mm and 25 mm,respectively. In extension as well as retraction strokes of the cylinder, the oil flow rate to the cylinder from the pump is 40 L min1. The velocity of the piston during retraction stroke in m s1 [round off to two decimal places]

(Take π = 3.14)

26. An open V-belt is wrapped around V-pulleys having effective diameters of 0.25 m and 0.65 m, and their centres are 1 m apart. Assuming ideal conditions, the wrap angle in degree for the smaller pulley is __________. [round off to two decimal places]

(Take π = 3.14)

27. Water from a confined aquifer having transmissivity of 1000 m2 day1 is pumped through a fully penetrating well of 300 mm diameter at a rate of 1200 m3 day1. If the radius of influence is 400 m, the draw down in the well under steady-state flow condition in meter is ________. [round off to two decimal places]

(Take π = 3.14)

28. A stream of 200 L s1 is diverted from a canal to irrigate a wheat field in 8 hours. If the runoff from the field is 500 m3 and the conveyance efficiency is 75%, the application efficiency in per cent is ________. [round off to two decimal places]

29. The flow rate per unit width of a wide rectangular clean-earth channel is 20 m3 s1 m1. The calculated critical flow depth in meter will be __________.[round off to two decimal places]

(Take g = 9.81 m s2)

30. The ratio of soil loss from the field plot length to that from the unit plot with a slope length of 22.13 m is 0.5. If the slope length from the watershed divide is 600 m and the slope gradient is 8%, the topographic factor in the Universal Soil Loss Equation is __________. [round off to two decimal places]

31. The area of a rectangular field was measured using a 30 m survey chain, which was later found to be 5 cm short. If the length and width of the field measured using this chain were 542 m and 554 m,respectively, the true area of the field in ha is________. [round off to two decimal places]

32. In a triple effect feed forward evaporator, pineapple juice is entering at the rate of 6.3 kg s1 and leaving the last effect as 50% concentrate. The system is using saturated steam of 2.48 kg s1 at 121.1 ºC. If vapour transferred from the first to the second effect, second to third effect and third to ambient are 5675, 6053 and 6416 kg h1, respectively, the steam economy of the evaporator is __________.[round off to two decimal places]

33. If an osmo-dehydrated fruit slice has 72% moisture content on wet basis, the moisture content of the same fruit slice on dry basis in per cent is ___________.[round off to one decimal place]

34. If the specific heat capacity (cp) of solids in potato is 837.36 J kg1 K1, then the specific heat capacity of potatoes in J kg1 K1 with 85% moisture content (wet-basis)is ________. [round off to two decimal places]

35. A milk sample contains 4×105 spores of C. botulinum (D value of 1.2 min at 121.1 °C) and 7×106 spores of L. monocytogenes (D value of 0.9 min at 121.1°C)per mL. If the milk is heated at a uniform temperature of 121.1°C to obtain aprobability of spoilage of 1 in 1000 cans, the minimum heating duration in minutes is ___________. [round off to two decimal places]

Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

36. The function (x − 2)2(x + 2)2 has

(A)  minima at +2 and maxima at −2

(B)  minima at −2 and maxima at +2

(C)  minima at −2 and +2

(D)  maxima at −2 and +2

37. The matrix  is singular for the following values of x

(A)  x =0 and x = 3

(B)  x =0 and x = −3

(C)  x =0 and x = 6

(D)  x =0 and x = −6

38. A 5 × 20 cm seed drill has a ground drive wheel of rolling diameter 0.5 m. Whiletesting under laboratory condition, 320 gof seeds were collected in 20 revolutionsof the ground drive wheel. The same seeddrill when operated in a 2 ha field, amount

of seeds dropped was found to be 185 kg.The variation in the seed dropped betweenlaboratory and field conditions due to skidof ground drive wheel is ________

(Take π = 3.14)

(A)  6.38%

(B)  9.23%

(C)  10.17%

(D)  12.26%

39. A 3.6 m combine harvester was tested over a crop strip of 20 m length and thefollowing data were obtained while testing:

Total material left over walker = 8.5 kg

Free seed over walker = 100 g

Unthreshed seed over walker = 50 g

Total material left over shoe = 5.5 kg

Free seed over shoe = 250 g

Unthreshed seed over shoe = 80 g

Total seed collected in the grain tank = 16.5 kg

The grain yield (tonne ha1) and cylinder loss (%), respectively, are

(A)  2.36 and 0.77

(B)  4.24 and 0.29

(C)  6.28 and 0.47

(D)  8.05 and 2.82

40. An ideal gas is compressed adiabatically (Adiabatic exponent γ =1.4) from 98 kPa

to 480 kPa and the specific volume of the gas at the beginning of the compression

stroke is 0.45 m3 kg1. The specific work done on the gas in kJ kg1 is _________.

(A)  12.6

(B)  18.5

(C)  25.4

(D)  63.3

41. A sample of 90% saturated clay soil has void ratio and specific gravity of 0.8 and2.7, respectively. The bulk unit weight of soil in N m3 is ____________.

(Take unit weight of water = 9.81×103 N m3)

(A)  10594.80

(B)  18639.00

(C)  18.64

(D)  10.60

42. A parabolic shaped grass-waterway is to be designed to carry a flow of 2.85 m3 s1down the slope of 3%. The permissiblevelocity of water in the waterway is1.78 m s1. If the freeboard depth is excluded, the most appropriate top width in mand depth in m, respectively are

(Take Manning’s roughness coefficient = 0.04)

(A)  4 and 0.6

(B)  6 and 0.4

(C)  7 and 0.5

(D)  5.5 and 0.6

43. The pressure drop through a well-designed constriction is to be used for measuringthe velocity of flow through a circular pipe. If the pressure drop from a 0.1 mdiameter section to a 0.05 m diameter section of the pipe is 7.5 kPa, the velocity in m s1 in the 0.1 m diameter section of the pipe is ____________.

(Take density of liquid = 1000 kg m3)

(A)  0.5

(B)  1.0

(C)  1.5

(D)  2.0

44. The water activity of potato is 0.942. As per Raoult’s law, the most efficient solutionfor osmotic dehydration of potato is ________.

(Molar mass of sucrose = 342 g mole1, and NaCl = 58.5 g mole1)

(A)  20% sucrose solution

(B)  20% NaCl solution

(C)  10% sucrose solution + 10% NaCl solution

(D)  15% sucrose solution + 5% NaCl solution

45. The mass fraction retained on the ith sieve is xi and  is the average opening size of ith and (i-1)th sieves. The volume surface mean diameter  of particles retained on n number of sieves is _________.

46. Match the following reactants in Column I with the most appropriate purpose usedin processing as mentioned in Column II.

(A)  I-P, II-S, III-Q, IV-R

(B)  I-R, II-Q, III-S, IV-P

(C)  I-P, II-Q, III-S, IV-R

(D)  I-R, II-S, III-Q, IV-P

47. Work done by a moving particle in the force field  moving along the straight line from (0,0,0) to (1,2,3) is __________. [Answer in integer]

48. The power consumption readings (in watt) by an instrument at fixed intervals oftime (in seconds) are tabulated below:

Using Simpson’s 1/3rd rule, the energy expenditure of the instrument in joule is__________. [round off to two decimal places]

49. The root mean square acceleration for mechanical vibration of a tractor is 3.15 m s2 and its frequency is 80 Hz. The root mean square amplitude of the vibration in μm is ___________. [round off to two decimal places]

(Take π = 3.14)

50. The static weight on front and rear axles of a two-wheel drive tractor are 3 kN and 9 kN, respectively. The wheel-base of the tractor is 2.1 m and the tractor pulls a load of 7.5 kN. The perpendicular distance from the front wheel ground contact point to the line of pull is 680 mm. Neglecting the wheel contact off-set on the ground, the weight transfer onto the rear axle in kN is _________. [round off to two decimal places]

51. The crank radius and connecting rod length of an IC engine are 250 mm and 1000 mm, respectively. If the crank turns 100º from the head dead centre and the net force acting on the piston along its direction of motion is 35 kN, the turning moment of the crank shaft at that instant in kN m is ___________. [round off to two decimal places]

52. An engine develops 42 kW brake power when it runs with B20 fuel (80% biodiesel and 20% diesel by volume) with a brake thermal efficiency of 24%. The heating value of the fuel is 46.15 MJ kg1 and its density is 0.845 kg L1. The fuel consumption of the engine in L h1 will be ___________. [round off to two decimal places]

53. A tractor operated 12 × 60 cm boom sprayer had an overlap of 30 cm between the successive passes during field operation at an average speed of 4.2 km h1. A total time loss of 7.5 min ha1 was observed during turnings. Assuming no overlap of spray material between adjacent nozzles, the field efficiency of the sprayer in percent is __________. [round off to two decimal places]

54. A mild steel flange-mounted single shear pin (Ultimate shear strength = 42 MPa)of 10 mm diameter is used in a flange. The perpendicular distance between the axis of driving shaft and the shear pin axis is 100 mm. If the speed of the driving shaft is 300 rpm, the maximum power the shaft could transmit in kW before the failure of the pin is ___________. [round off to two decimal places]

[Take π = 3.14]

55. In a subsurface drainage network, 12 lateral drains each of 100 m long are laid at a spacing of 50 m. These lateral drains are connected to a collector drain. When the water table dropped 50 cm below the soil surface in 4 days, the average discharge at the outlet of the collector drain was found to be 12 L s1. The average drain able porosity of soil in per cent is ________. [round off to two decimal places]

56. A watershed with various land uses (as specified in the table below) receives a rainfall of 152.4 mm. If an initial abstraction (Ia) is 0.2 times the potential maximum retention (S), and the antecedent moisture content (AMC) of averaged condition is assumed, the depth of runoff volume in mm is ____________. [round off to two decimal places]

57. A trapezoidal weir has a side slope of 1 horizontal unit to 4 vertical units. The length of the weir is less than the width of the channel. If the head over the weir is 70 cm and the discharge is 0.85 m3 s1, the length of the weir in m is _______. [round off to two decimal places]

(Take coefficient of discharge = 0.62 and g = 9.81 m s2)

58. The ordinates of an inflow hydrograph are provided in the table below. If the routing interval (Δt) is one hour, weighting factor in Muskingham equation (X) is 0.2, and the storage-time constant (time of travel of flood wave through the channel reach)(K) is 0.7 hour, using the Muskingham method of flood routing, the ordinate of the outflow (routed) hydrograph for 2nd hour in m3 s1 is _______. [round off to two decimal places]

59. A sprinkler irrigation system with an irrigation efficiency of 70% is used to irrigate 16 ha of maize crop. The crop evapotranspiration of 6 mm day1 is used for estimating the irrigation depth. If the irrigation system is operated 20 hours per day for 10 days, the system capacity in L s1 is _______. [round off to two decimal places]

60. A falling ball viscometer is used to determine the dynamic viscosity of sunflower oil. The viscometer has a tube length of 10 cm with the ball diameter of 0.68 mm.The densities of oil and the ball are 921 kg m3 and 2420 kg m3, respectively. If the ball takes 44.5 s to fall from top of the tube, the viscosity of the oil in Pa s is________. [round off to three decimal places].

(Take g = 9.81 ms2)

61. A cylindrical metallic silo of 3 m internal diameter and 10 m depth is loaded with maize grain having bulk density of 720 kg m3. The angle of internal friction between the maize grains is 24°, and that between the grain and wall is 22°. Using Airy’s theory, the calculated lateral pressure in kPa at the bottom of the silo is_________. [round off to two decimal place]

(Take g = 9.81 m s2)

62. Parboiled paddy is to be dried in a tray dryer under steady state conditions from an initial free moisture content of 0.40 kg H2O (kg dry solid)1 to final free moisture content of 0.02 kg H2O (kg dry solid)-1. The dry solid mass is 99.8 kg and the top surface area for drying is 4.654 m2. The drying is occurring in both constant and falling rate periods. If constant drying rate of 1.51 kg H2O m2 h1 is followed up to a critical moisture content of 0.195 kg H2O (kg dry solid)1, then the total drying time in hour will be __________. [round off to two decimal places]

63. Sweet sorghum with an initial average particle size of 4.0 mm was pulverized using a burr mill at two different gap settings between stones. The average feed rate of the material is 200 kg h1. The resultant flour was analyzed by IS sieves for particle size determination and was found to be 0.336 mm and 0.306 mm for the first and second gap settings, respectively. Using Kick’s law, if the power required to grind the sorghum at first setting is 7.2 kW, the power requirement in kW with the second setting is ___________. [round off to two decimal places]

64. A walk-in deep freezer wall is made of 120 mm thick brick layer on the out side followed by 75 mm thick concrete and 50 mm thick cork layers inside. The mean temperatures measured over inside and outside wall surfaces are −18°C and 24 °C,respectively. The thermal conductivity of brick, concrete and cork are 0.69, 0.76 and 0.043 W m1 K1, respectively. Considering one square meter wall surface area,the heat transfer rate in W is ____________. [round off to one decimal place]

65. In an effort to conserve energy, a grain dryer is being modified to reuse a part (10 m3 s1) of the exhaust airflow at 70 ºC and 30% relative humidity. This part of exhaust is mixed with 20 m3 s1 of ambient air at 30 ºC and 60 % relative humidity.The details of the two air-stream conditions are given below.

The absolute humidity of the mixed air will be __________. [round off to three decimal places]

## GATE Exam 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2022

AE: Aerospace Engineering

GA-General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Writing too many things on the ________ while teaching could make the students get _________.

(A)  bored / board

(B)  board / bored

(C)  board / board

(D)  bored / bored

2. Which one of the following is a representation (not to scale and in bold) of all values of x satisfying the inequality  on the real number line?

3. If f(x) = 2 ln (√ex), what is the area bounded by f(x) for the interval [0, 2]on the x-axis?

(A)  1/2

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  4

4. A person was born on the fifth Monday of February in a particular year.

Which one of the following statements is correct based on the aboveinformation?

(A)  The 2nd February of that year is a Tuesday

(B)  There will be five Sundays in the month of February in that year

(C)  The 1st February of that year is a Sunday

(D)  All Mondays of February in that year have even dates

5.

Which one of the groups given below can be assembled to get the shape that isshown above using each piece only once without overlapping with each other?(rotation and translation operations may be used).

Q.6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.

6. Fish belonging to species S in the deep sea have skins that are extremely black (ultra-black skin). This helps them not only to avoid predators but also sneakily attack their prey. However, having this extra layer of black pigment results in lower collagen on their skin, making their skin more fragile.

Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on theinformation in the above passage?

(A)  Having ultra-black skin is only advantageous to species S

(B)  Species S with lower collagen in their skin are at an advantage because it helpsthem avoid predators

(C)  Having ultra-black skin has both advantages and disadvantages to species S

(D)  Having ultra-black skin is only disadvantageous to species S but advantageousonly to their predators

7. For the past m days, the average daily production at a company was 100 units per day.

If today’s production of 180 units changes the average to 110 units per day,what is the value of m?

(A)  18

(B)  10

(C)  7

(D)  5

8. Consider the following functions for non-zero positive integers, p and q.

Which one of the following options is correct based on the above?

(A)  f(2,2) = g(2,2)

(B)  f(g(2,2), 2) < f(2, g(2,2)

(C)  g(2,1) ≠ f(2,1)

(D)  f(3,2) >g(3,2)

9. Four cities P, Q, R and S are connected through one-way routes as shown in the figure. The travel time between any two connected cities is one hour. The boxes beside each city name describe the starting time of first train of the day and their frequency of operation. For example, from city P, the first trains of the day startat 8 AM with a frequency of 90 minutes to each of R and S. A person does not spend additional time at any city other than the waiting time for the next connecting train.

If the person starts from R at 7 AM and is required to visit S and return to R,what is the minimum time required?

(A)  6 hours 30 minutes

(B)  3 hours 45 minutes

(C)  4 hours 30 minutes

(D)  5 hours 15 minutes

10. Equal sized circular regions are shaded in a square sheet of paper of 1 cm side length. Two cases, case M and case N, are considered as shown in the figures below. In the case M, four circles are shaded in the square sheet and in the case N, nine circles are shaded in the square sheet as shown.

What is the ratio of the areas of unshaded regions of case M to that of case N?

(A)  2 : 3

(B)  1 : 1

(C)  3 : 2

(D)  2 : 1

Aerospace Engineering

Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

11. The equation of the straight line representing the tangent to the curve y = x2 at the point (1,1) is

(A)  y = 2x – 2

(B)  x = 2y – 1

(C)  y – 1 = 2(x – 1)

(D)  x – 1 = 2(y – 1)

12. Let  be the unit vectors in the x, y and z directions, respectively. If the vector  is rotated about positive  by 135°, one gets

13. Let x be a real number and i = √−Then the real part of cos(ix) is

(A)  sinh x

(B)  cosh x

(C)  cos x

(D)  sin x

14. The point of maximum entropy on a Fanno-curve in a Temperature-Entropy (T-s) diagram represents the

(A)  maximum flow Mach number

(B)  minimum flow Mach number

(C)  sonic Mach number

(D)  normal shock in the flow

15. Consider a two-dimensional potential flow over a cylinder. If the freestream speed is U, the maximum speed on the cylinder surface is

(A)  U/2

(B)  3U/2

(C)  2U,

(D)  4U/3

16. Consider steady, two-dimensional, incompressible flow over a non-porous flat plate as shown in the figure. For the control volume PQRS, the speed, u, at section PQ is uniform and the speed at section RS is given by  where 𝑛 is a positive integer. The value of A0 for which the flow through section PS will vanish is:

17. Consider the velocity distribution, u(y) shown in the figure. For two adjacent fluid layers L1 and L2, the viscous force exerted by L1 on L2 is

(A)  to the right

(B)  to the left

(C)  vertically upwards

(D)  vertically downwards

18. The service ceiling of an airplane is the altitude

(A)  at which maximum rate of climb is 100 m/min

(B)  beyond which theoretically the airplane cannot sustain level flight

(C)  at which maximum power is required for flight

(D)  at which maximum rate of climb is 100 ft/min

19. Regarding the horizontal tail of a conventional airplane, which one of the following statements is true?

(A)  It contributes to

(B)  It makes

(C)  It makes

(D)  It makes

20. A beam with a symmetrical T-shaped cross-section, as shown in the figure, is subjected to pure bending. The maximum magnitude of the normal stress is realised:

(A)  only at the top fibres of the cross-section

(B)  only at the bottom fibres of the cross-section

(C)  both at the top and bottom fibres of the cross-section

(D)  only at the centroidal fibres of the cross-section

21. A three-member truss is simply supported at Q and R, and loaded at P by a horizontal force F as shown. The force in QR is

(A)  0

(B)  F(tensile)

(C)  F/√2 (compressive)

(D)  √2F (tensile)

22. The closed thin-walled rectangular channel shown in figure (i) is opened by introducing a sharp cut at the center of the bottom edge, as shown in figure (ii). Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A)  Centroids of (i) and (ii) coincide while shear centers do not

(B)  Shear centers of (i) and (ii) coincide while centroids do not

(C)  Both centroids and shear centers of (i) and (ii) coincide

(D)  Neither centroids nor shear centers of (i) and (ii) coincide

23. The region of highest static temperature in a rocket engine and the region of highest heat flux are ____________, respectively.

(A)  nozzle throat and nozzle entry

(B)  combustion chamber and nozzle throat

(C)  nozzle exit and nozzle throat

(D)  nozzle throat and combustion chamber

24. If  are three mutually perpendicular unit vectors, then  can take

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  −1

(D)  ∞

25. Across an oblique shock wave in a calorifically perfect gas,

(A)  the stagnation enthalpy changes

(B)  the stagnation entropy changes

(C)  the stagnation temperature changes

(D)  the speed of sound changes

26. NACA 2412 airfoil has

(A)  4% maximum camber with respect to chord

(B)  maximum camber at 40% chord

(C)  12% maximum thickness to chord ratio

(D)  maximum camber at 20% chord

27. For International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) up to 11 km, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

(A)  The hydrostatic/ aerostatic equation is used

(B)  The temperature lapse rate is taken as−102 K/m

(C)  The sea level conditions are taken as: pressure, ps = 1.01325 × 105 Pa; temperature, Ts = 300 K; density, ρs = 1.225 kg/m3

(D)  Air is treated as a perfect gas

28. Let σ and τ represent the normal stress and shear stress on a plane, respectively. The Mohr circle(s) that may possibly represent the state of stress at points in a beam of rectangular cross-section under pure bending is/are:

29. An isotropic linear elastic material point under plane strain condition in the x-y plane always obeys:

(A)  out-of-plane normal strain,ϵzz = 0

(B)  out-of-plane normal stress,σzz = 0

(C)  out-of-plane shear stress,τxz = 0

(D)  out-of-plane shear strain, γxz = 0

30. A high-pressure-ratio multistage axial compressor encounters an extreme loading mismatch during starting. Which of the following technique(s) can be used to alleviate this problem?

(B)  Variable angle stator vanes

(C)  Blow-off valves

(D)  Multi-spool shaft

31. The arc length of the parametric curve: x = cos θ, y = sin θ, z = θ from θ = 0 to θ = 2π is equal to ________ (round off to one decimal place).

32. An unpowered glider is flying at a glide angle of 10 degrees. Its lift-to-drag ratio is _______ (round off to two decimal places).

33. The two-dimensional plane-stress state at a point is:

σxx = 110 MPa; σyy = 30 MPa; τxy = 40 MPa.

The normal stress, σn, on a plane inclined 45° as shown in the figure is _____MPa(round off to the nearest integer).

34. In a static test, a turbofan engine with bypass ratio of 9 has core hot exhaust speed 1.5 times that of fan exhaust speed. The engine is operated at a fuel to air ratio of f = 0.03. Both the fan and the core streams have no pressure thrust. The ratio of fan thrust to thrust from the core engine is _______ (round off to one decimal place).

35. In a single stage turbine, the hot gases come out of stator/ nozzle at a speed of 500 m/s and at an angle of 70 degrees with the turbine axis as shown. The design speed of the rotor blade is 250 m/s at the mean blade radius. The rotor blade angle, β, at the leading edge is ________ degrees (round off to one decimal place).

Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

36. The height of a right circular cone of maximum volume that can be enclosed within a hollow sphere of radius R is

37. Consider the differential equation

The boundary conditions are y = 0 and  at x = 0.

Then the value of y at x = 1/2 is

(A)  0

(B)  √e

(C)  √e/2

(D)

38. Consider the partial differential equation  where x, y are real.

If f(x, y) = a(x) b(y), where a(x) and b(y) are real functions, which one of the following statements can be true?

(A)  a(x) is a periodic function and b(y) is a linear function

(B)  both a(x) and b(y) are exponential functions

(C)  a(x) is a periodic function and b(y) is an exponential function

(D)  both a(x) and b(y) are periodic functions

39. A cylindrical object of diameter 900 mm is designed to move axially in air at 60 m/s. Its drag is estimated on a geometrically half-scaled model in water, assuming flow similarity.

Coefficients of dynamic viscosity and densities for air and water are1.86 × 105 Pa-s, 1.2 kg/m3and 1.01 × 103 Pa-s, 1000 kg/m3 respectively.

Drag measured for the model is 2280 N. Drag experienced by the full-scale objectis ____ N (rounded off to the nearest integer).

(A)  322

(B)  644

(C)  1288

(D)  2576

40. Consider a conventional subsonic fixed-wing airplane. 𝑒 is the Oswald efficiency factor and AR is the aspect ratio. Corresponding to the minimum  which of the following relations is true?

41. A horizontal load F is applied at point R on a two-member truss, as shown in the figure. Both the members are prismatic with cross-sectional area, A0, and made of the same material with Young’s modulus E.

The horizontal displacement of point R is:

42. Which of the following is NOT always true for a combustion process taking place in a closed system?

(A)  Total number of atoms is conserved

(B)  Total number of molecules is conserved

(C)  Total number of atoms of each element is conserved

(D)  Total mass is conserved

43. The real function 𝑦 = sin2(|x|) is

(A)  continuous for all x

(B)  differentiable for all x

(C)  not continuous at x = 0

(D)  not differentiable at x = 0

44. A convergent nozzle fed from a constant pressure, constant temperature reservoir, is discharging air to atmosphere at 1 bar (absolute) with choked flow at the exit (marked as Q).

Flow through the nozzle can be assumed to be isentropic.

If the exit area of the nozzle is increased while all the reservoir parameters and ambient conditions remain the same, then at steady state

(A)  the nozzle will remain choked

(B)  the nozzle will be un-choked

(C)  the Mach number at section P will increase

(D)  the Mach number at section P will decrease

45. For a conventional airplane in straight, level, constant velocity flight condition, which of the following condition(s) is/are possible on Euler angles (ϕ, θ, ψ), angle of attack (α) and the sideslip angle (β)?

(A)  ϕ = 0°, θ = 2°, ψ = 0°, α = 2°, β = 0°

(B)  ϕ = 5°, θ = 0°, ψ = 0°, α = 2°, β = 0°

(C)  ϕ = 0°, θ = 3°, ψ = 0°, α = 3°, β = 5°

(D)  ϕ = 0°, θ = 5°, ψ = 0°, α = 2°, β = 5°

46. Consider a high Earth-orbiting satellite of angular momentum per unit mass  and eccentricity e.

The mass of the Earth is M and G is the universal gravitational constant.

The distance between the satellite’s center of mass and the Earth’s center of mass is r, the true anomaly is θ, and the phase angle is zero.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

(A)  The trajectory equation is

(B)  The trajectory equation is

(C)  is conserved

(D)  The sum of potential energy and kinetic energy of the satellite is conserved

47. A rocket operates at an absolute chamber pressure of 20 bar to produce thrust, F1. The hot exhaust is optimally expanded to 1 bar (absolute pressure) using a convergent-divergent nozzle with exit to throat area ratio (Ae/At) of 3.5 and thrust coefficient, CF, 1 = 1.42.

The same rocket when operated at an absolute chamber pressure of 50 barproduces thrust F2 and the thrust coefficient is CF, 2.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

48. is a vector field where  are the base vectors of a cartesian coordinate system.

Using the Gauss divergence theorem, the value of the outward flux of the vectorfield over the surface of a sphere of unit radius centered at the origin is________(rounded off to one decimal place).

49. The largest eigenvalue of the given matrix is _____.

50. A rotational velocity field in an air flow is given as  with a = 10 s1, b = 20 s1.

The air density is 1.0 kg/m3 and the pressure at (x, y) = (0 m, 0 m) is 100 kPa.

Neglecting gravity, the pressure at (x, y) = (6 m, 8 m) is _____ kPa (rounded off to nearest integer).

51. Consider a circulation distribution over a finite wing given by the equation below.

The wingspan 𝑏 is 10 m, the maximum circulationΓ0is 20 m2/s, density of air is1.2 kg/m3 and the free stream speed is 80 m/s.

The lift over the wing is ______N (rounded off to the nearest integer).

52. Consider a solid cylinder housed inside another cylinder as shown in the figure.Radius of the inner cylinder is 1 m and itsheight is 2 m. The gap between thecylinders is 5 mm and is filled with a fluid of viscosity 104 Pa-s.

The inner cylinder is rotating at a constant angular speed of 5 rad/s while the outercylinder is stationary. Friction at thebottom surfaces can be ignored. Velocityprofile in the vertical gap between thecylinders can be assumed to be linear.

The driving moment required for the rotating motion of the inner cylinder is____________ Nm (rounded off to two decimal places).

53. In a converging duct, area and velocity at section P are 1 m2 and 15 m/s,respectively. The temperature of the fluid is 300 K.

Air flow through the nozzle can be assumed to be inviscid and isothermal.

Characteristic gas constant is 287 J/(kg-K) and ratio of specific heats is 1.4 for air.

To ensure that the air flow remains incompressible (Mach number, M ≤ 0.3) in the duct, the minimum area required at section Q is _____ m2 (rounded off to two decimal places).

54. Consider a thin symmetric airfoil at 2 degree angle of attack in a uniform flow at 50 m/s. The pitching moment coefficient about its leading edge is _____ (rounded off to three decimal places).

55. A convergent-divergent nozzle with adiabatic walls is designed for an exit Mach number of 2.3. It is discharging air to atmosphere under the conditions indicated in the figure.

Flow through the nozzle is inviscid, the characteristic gas constant for air is 287 J/kg-K), and γ = 1.4.

When the reservoir pressure is 25 bar (absolute), and temperature is 300 K, Prandtl-Meyer expansion waves appear at the nozzle exit as shown.

The minimum percentage change in the reservoir pressure required to eliminate the wave system at the nozzle exit under steady state is _______%.

Answer: (49 to 51 OR -51 to -49)

56. A conventional airplane of mass 5000 kg is doing a level turn of radius 1000 m at aconstant speed of 100 m/s at sea level.

Taking the acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2, the bank angle of the airplane is ______ degrees.

57. Given: The tip deflection and tip slope for a tip loaded cantilever of length L are:  respectively, where N is the tip force and EI is the flexural rigidity.

A cantilever PQ of rectangular cross-section is subjected to transverse load, F, at its mid-point. Two cases are considered as shown in the figure. In Case I, the end Q is free and in Case II, Q is simply supported.

The ratio of the magnitude of the maximum bending stress at P in Case I to that in Case II is ________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

58. A simply supported Aluminium column of length 1 m and rectangular cross-section w × t with t ≤ w, is subjected to axial compressive loading.

Young’s modulus is 70 GPa. Yield stress under uniaxial compression is 120 MPa.

The value of 𝑡 at which the failure load for yielding and buckling coincide is ______ mm.

59. A 0.5 m long thin-walled circular shaft of radius 2 cm is to be designed for an axial load of 7.4 kN and a torque of 148 Nm applied at its tip, as shown in the figure.

The allowable stress under uniaxial tension is 100 MPa.

Using maximum principal stress criterion, the minimum thickness, t, of the shaft so that it does not fail is _____ mm (rounded off to the nearest integer).

60. A 10 kN axial load is applied eccentrically on a rod of square cross-section (1 cm× 1 cm) as shown in the figure.

The strains measured by the two strain gages attached to the top and bottom surfaces at a distance of 0.5 m from the tip areϵ1 = 0.0016 and ϵ2 = 0.0004, respectively.

61. For a thin-walled I section, the width of the two flanges as well as the web height are the same, i.e., 2𝑏 = 20 mm. Thickness is 0.6 mm. The second moment of area about a horizontal axis passing through the centroid is______ mm4.

62. A damper with damping coefficient, c, is attached to a mass of 5 kg and spring of stiffness 5 kN/m as shown in figure. The system undergoes under-damped oscillations.

If the ratio of the 3rd amplitude to the 4th amplitude of oscillations is 1.5, the value

ofc is ____ Ns/m (rounded off to the nearest integer).

63. A uniform rigid prismatic bar of total mass m is suspended from a ceiling by two identical springs as shown in figure.

Letω1 and ω2 be the natural frequencies of mode I and mode II respectively (ω12).

The value of ω21 is _________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

64. An ideal ramjet is to operate with exhaust gases optimally expanded to ambient pressure at an altitude where temperature is 220 K. The exhaust speed at the nozzle

exit is 1200 m/s at a temperature of 1100 K.

Given :γ = 1.4 at 220 K; R = 287 J/kg-K) for air

γ = 1.33 at 1100 K; R = 287 J/(kg-K) for exhaust gases.

The cruise speed of this ramjet is ________ m/s (rounded off to nearest integer).

65. A multistage axial compressor takes in air at 1 atm, 300 K and compresses it to a minimum of 5 atm.

The mean blade speed is 245 m/s and work coefficient, ∆Cθ/U is 0.55 for each stage. For air, use Cp = 1005 J/(kg-K), R = 287 J/(kg-K) and γ = 1.4.

If the compression is isentropic, the number of stages required is ___________(rounded off to the next higher integer).

Answer: (6 or greater than 6)

## GATE Exam 2021 Life Sciences (XL) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2021

XL: Life Sciences

GA-General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

1. Gauri said that she can play the keyboard __________ her sister.

(A)  as well as

(B)  as better as

(C)  as nicest as

(D)  as worse as

2. A transparent square sheet shown above is folded along the dotted line. The folded sheet will look like ________.

3. If θ is the angle, in degrees, between the longest diagonal of the cube and any one of the edges of the cube, then, cos θ =

(A)  1/2

(B)  1/√3

(C)  1/√2

(D)  √3/2

4. If  then the value of x is:

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  6

(D)  8

5. Pen : Write :: Knife : _________

Which one of the following options maintains a similar logical relation in the above?

(A)  Vegetables

(B)  Sharp

(C)  Cut

(D)  Blunt

Q.6 – Q. 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

6. Listening to music during exercise improves exercise performance and reduces discomfort. Scientists researched whether listening to music while studying can help students learn better and the results were inconclusive. Students who needed external stimulation for studying fared worse while students who did not need any external stimulation benefited from music.

Which one of the following statements is the CORRECT inference of the above passage?

(A)  Listening to music has no effect on learning and a positive effect on physical exercise.

(B)  Listening to music has a clear positive effect both on physical exercise and on learning.

(C)  Listening to music has a clear positive effect on physical exercise. Music has a positive effect on learning only in some students.

(D)  Listening to music has a clear positive effect on learning in all students. Music has a positive effect only in some students who exercise.

7. A jigsaw puzzle has 2 pieces. One of the pieces is shown above. Which one of the given options for the missing piece when assembled will form a rectangle? The piece can be moved, rotated or flipped to assemble with the above piece.

8. The number of students in three classes is in the ratio 3:13:6. If 18 students are added to each class, the ratio changes to 15:35:21.

The total number of students in all the three classes in the beginning was:

(A)  22

(B)  66

(C)  88

(D)  110

9. The number of units of a product sold in three different years and the respective net profits are presented in the figure above. The cost/unit in Year 3 was ` 1, which was half the cost/unit in Year 2. The cost/unit in Year 3 was one-third of the cost/unit in Year 1. Taxes were paid on the selling price at 10%, 13% and 15% respectively for the three years. Net profit is calculated as the difference between the selling price and the sum of cost and taxes paid in that year.

The ratio of the selling price in Year 2 to the selling price in Year 3 is ________.

(A)  4:3

(B)  1:1

(C)  3:4

(D)  1:2

10. Six students P, Q, R, S, T and U, with distinct heights, compare their heights and make the following observations.

Observation I: S is taller than R.

Observation II: Q is the shortest of all.

Observation III: U is taller than only one student.

Observation IV: T is taller than S but is not the tallest.

The number of students that are taller than R is the same as the number of students shorter than ______.

(A)  T

(B)  R

(C)  S

(D)  P

Chemistry (XL-P)

1. The geometry of Fe(CO)5 is

(Given: Atomic number of Fe = 26)

(A)  pentagonal planar

(B)  square pyramidal

(C)  trigonalbipyramidal

(D)  trigonal pyramidal

2. The structure of the major product Q of the following reaction is

Q.3 – Q.5 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

3. The time taken by a first order reaction to reach 90% completion is 20 s. The time taken for the reaction to reach 50% completion is ___________ s (rounded off to the closest integer).

4. The ground state energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is –13.60 eV. The energy of the electron in the third excited state is _________eV (rounded off to two decimal places).

5. A solution of a compound shows an absorbance of 0.42 at 275 nm in a cuvette with 0.1 dm light path. The molar absorptivity of the compound is ε275 = 8.4 × 103 M–1 cm–1. The concentration of the compound is ______× 10–5 M (rounded off to the closest integer).

Q.6 – Q.9 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wronganswer: – 2/3).

6. The CORRECT order of acidity of the following compounds is

(A)  II > I > III

(B)  II > III > I

(C)  III > II > I

(D)  III > I > II

7. The O–O bond order in O22– species is

(A)  0.5

(B)  1.0

(C)  1.5

(D)  2.0

8. For a reaction, X → Products

Group I contains three plots of reactant concentrations as functions of time, where x = concentration of reactant X at time t; x0 = concentration of reactant X at initial time, t = 0. Group II gives a list of different orders of reaction. Match the plots with the order of the reaction.

(A)  (P) – (1), (Q) – (2), (R) – (3)

(B)  (P) – (3), (Q) – (2), (R) – (1)

(C)  (P) – (2), (Q) – (3), (R) – (1)

(D)  (P) – (2), (Q) – (1), (R) – (3)

9. The structure of the major product S of the following reaction is

Q.10 – Q.11 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

10. The CORRECT combination(s) of Y and T for the following elimination reaction is(are)

11. Among the following, the diamagnetic species is(are)

(Given: Atomic numbers of Fe = 26, Co = 27, and Ni = 28)

(A)  [CoF6]3−

(B)  [Ni(H2O)6]2+

(C)  [Fe(CN)6]4

(D)  [Co(NH3)6]3+

Q.12 – Q.15 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

12. Given the following standard heats of formation, ∆fH(P, g) = 314. 6 kJ mol−1, ∆fH(PH3, g) = 5. 4 kJ mol−1, and ∆fH (H, g) = 218. 0 kJ mol−1, the average bond enthalpy of a P–H bond in PH3(g) is __________ kJ mol−1(rounded off to one decimal place).

13. The total number of possible geometrical isomer(s) for [PtBrCl(NH3)(py)]0 is _______.

(Given: py = Pyridine and atomic number of Pt = 78)

14. Given the standard reduction potentials and  the potential of the following cell

Ag+(aq. , 1 mM) + Mg(s) ⇌ Ag(s) + Mg2+(aq. , 0. 2 M)

at 25 °C is___________ V (rounded off to two decimal places).

(Given: Faraday constant = 96500 C mol−1, Gas constant R = 8.314 J K−1mol−1)

15. The freezing point of 80 g of acetic acid (freezing point constant 3.9 K kg mol−1) was lowered by 7.8 K due to the addition of 20 g of a compound. The molar mass of the compound is _____________ g mol−1 (rounded off to closest integer).

Biochemistry (XL-Q)

Q.1 – Q.10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

1. Which one of the following molecules (~ 1mg/mL) do NOT absorb at 280 nm in an aqueous solution of pH 7.00 at room temperature?

(A)  Poly deoxy-Guanylate (poly dG)

(C)  Phenylalanine

(D)  Tyrosine

2. A molecule that forms a donor-acceptor energy transfer pair with the dansyl group is ______

(A)  Aspartate

(B)  Histidine

(C)  Lysine

(D)  Tryptophan

3. The stationary phase used in gel filtration chromatography is composed of ___

(A)  Blue dextran

(B)  Carboxymethyl (CM) cellulose

(C)  Diethylaminoethyl (DEAE) cellulose

(D)  Sepharose

4. According to the “wobble hypothesis” inosine at the third position of the anticodon cannot form hydrogen bonds with ________

(B)  Cytidine

(C)  Guanine

(D)  Uracil

5. pKa value of the guanidinium group of Arginine is _____

(A)  4.30

(B)  7.40

(C)  9.20

(D)  12.50

6. The non-coenzyme vitamin is ________

(A)  Ascorbic acid

(B)  Folic acid

(C)  Nicotinic acid

(D)  Thiamine

7. Telomerase has a function similar to __________

(A)  DNA dependent DNA polymerase

(B)  RNA polymerase

(C)  DNA gyrase

(D)  Reverse transcriptase

8. Which one of the following enzymes is used in Polymerase Chain Reaction ?

(A)  Klenow fragment

(B)  Taq polymerase

(C)  T7 polymerase

(D)  Primase

9. In hepatocytes, the detoxification of drugs occurs in ______

(A)  Golgi apparatus

(B)  Nucleolus

(C)  Rough endoplasmic reticulum

(D)  Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

10. Which one of the following antibiotics can form an ion channel in the bacterial membrane?

(A)  Ampicillin

(B)  Gramicidin A

(C)  Gentamicin

(D)  Rifampicin

Q.11 – Q.12 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

11. Which one of the following cells lack hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)?

(A)  B Cell

(B)  T Cell

(C)  Macrophage

(D)  Myeloma Cell

12. Which of the following lipids is non-ionic?

(A)  Sphingomyelin

(B)  Galactocerebroside

(C)  Lecithin

(D)  Phosphatidyl inositol

Q.13 – Q.20 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

13. Anti-B antibodies are present in the serum of ________

(A)  Blood group A

(B)  Blood group B

(C)  Blood group AB

(D)  Blood group O

14. Which of the following are energy requiring processes?

(A)  Facilitated diffusion

(B)  Active transport

(C)  Nonmediated transport

(D)  Na+/K+transport

15. Which of the following are correctly paired?

(A)  Replication: DnaA

(B)  Recombination: RecA

(C)  DNA repair: Rho factor

(D)  Transcription: Sigma factor

16. The high energy compound(s) is/are:

(A)  Phosphoenol pyruvate

(C)  1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate

(D)  Vitamin K

17. Given below are four plots obtained from separate experiments on enzyme inhibition kinetics. The velocity (v) of the reaction is plotted at varying concentrations of substrate (s) and inhibitor (I). The plot(s) corresponding to competitive inhibition is/are

(A)  (i)

(B)  (ii)

(C)  (iii)

(D)  (iv)

18. With respect to sodium dodecyl sulphate – polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE), which of these statement(s) is/are true?

(A)  Ethidium bromide is used to track the progress of electrophoretic mobility

(B)  β-mercaptoethanol is used to reduce disulphide bonds

(C)  The protein migrates towards the anode

(D)  The lower molecular weight protein migrates slower than the larger molecularweight protein

19. In the plot given below, the solid line represents oxygen binding to hemoglobin under physiological conditions. The broken line represents the condition(s) of

(A)  High CO2 concentration

(B)  Increase in 2,3- Bisphosphoglycerate concentration

(C)  High pH

(D)  Loss of cooperativity

20. Considering the open chain forms, which of the following pair(s) represent/s an epimer?

(A)  D-mannose and D-fructose

(B)  D-glucose and D-mannose

(C)  D-glucose and D-fructose

(D)  D-galactose and D-glucose

Botany (XL-R)

Q.1 – Q.7 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

1. Wheat plants treated with prolonged cold temperature at the seedling stage flower earlier than the untreated control. Seeds collected from these treated individuals, however, give rise to plants that do not flower early. This phenomenon is called

(A)  vernalization.

(B)  temperature acclimation.

(C)  photoperiodism.

2. Which ONE of the following plant taxa contains vascular tissue (xylem and phloem) but not woody tissue?

(A)  Oak

(B)  Moss

(C)  Pine

(D)  Fern

3. Which ONE of the following statements regarding spores and gametes is CORRECT?

(A)  Spores can directly undergo mitosis whereas gametes cannot.

(B)  Gametes can directly undergo mitosis whereas spores cannot.

(C)  Neither spores nor gametes can directly undergo mitosis.

(D)  Both spores and gametes can directly undergo mitosis.

4. Which ONE of the following organelles controls gravitropism in the roots of higher plants?

(A)  Chromoplast

(B)  Amyloplast

(C)  Chloroplast

(D)  Etioplast

5. Phytoalexins play important role in plant defense against pathogens. Choose the INCORRECT option related to phytoalexins.

(A)  Phytoalexins belong to secondary metabolites.

(B)  Phytoalexins have antifungal activity.

(C)  Phytoalexins are abundant in plants under normal condition.

(D)  Different hosts produce phyallexins of varying chemical nature.

6. The figure shows the germination percentage of imbibed seeds treated with the given sequence of red (R) and far-red (F) light (each exposure lasting 5 min). The percentage of germination was scored after 72 hours in darkness at 25 °C. Based on this, which ONE of the following options is CORRECT?

(A)  Red light induces seed germination whereas far-red light inhibits it.

(B)  Red light inhibits seed germination whereas far-red light induces it.

(C)  Both red and far-red light inhibit seed germination.

(D)  Both red and far-red light induce seed germination.

7. The structures of four plant hormones are shown. Identify the CORRECT hormone that is responsible for bending of coleoptile of canary grass in response to unidirectional white light.

Q.8 – Q.9 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

8. Which of the following cellular component(s) is/are NOT part(s) of cytoskeleton in Angiosperms?

(A)  Microtubules

(B)  Microfilaments

(C)  Intermediate filaments

(D)  Centrioles

9. Which of the following enzyme(s), when overexpressed, would result in rice grains with increased β-carotene content?

(A)  Phytoene synthase

(B)  Carotene desaturase

(C)  β-glucoronidase

(D)  Enolpyruvalshikimate-3-phosphate synthase (EPSPS)

Q.10 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark (no negative marks).

10. In spiral phyllotaxis, leaves are initiated sequentially on the meristem with two successive primordia being separated by golden angle. If a plant follows right-handed spiral phyllotaxis when looked down the meristem, then the angle between two successive leaves would be _________degrees (with correct sign, round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (137.4 to 137.6 OR -137.6 to -137.4)

Q.11 – Q. 15 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

11. Match the cell/tissue types in GROUP I with their corresponding total DNA content in GROUP II of a typical diploid Angiosperm species and choose the CORRECT option (C denotes DNA content in haploid genome).

(A)  P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5

(B)  P-2, Q-2, R-1, S-5

(C)  P-1, Q-2, R-1, S-5

(D)  P-2, Q-1, R-2, S-4

12. Match the modified organs in GROUP I with their corresponding prototypic forms in GROUP II and choose the CORRECT option.

(A)  P-1, Q-2, R-2, S-1

(B)  P-2, Q-1, R-1, S-2

(C)  P-1, Q-2, R-1, S-2

(D)  P-1, Q-1, R-2, S-1

13. The diagram describes the ABC model of flower patterning in Arabidopsis where the A, B and C functions are operational in the whorls (1+2), (2+3) and (3+4), respectively, in the wild-type flower. Removal of A or C function results in the floral organ arrangements as (carpel; stamen; stamen; carpel) or (sepal; petal; petal; sepal), respectively. Based on these observations, which ONE of the following molecular pathways is CORRECT for floral organ pattern generation? Arrow indicates activation and bar indicates inhibition.

14. Find the CORRECT match among the plant species in GROUP I, the predominant phytochemical in GROUP II and the economic/medical use in GROUP III.

(A)  P-i-1, Q-ii-3, R-iii-4, S-v-5, T-iv-2

(B)  P-ii-1, Q-iii-2, R-i-3, S-v-5, T-iv-4

(C)  P-ii-1, Q-iii-2, R-v-4, S-i-3, T-iv-5

(D)  P-i-2, Q-ii-3, R-iv-1, S-iii-5, T-v-4

15. Match the genetically modified crop in GROUP I with the corresponding genetic element in GROUP II.

(A)  P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(B)  P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(C)  P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(D)  P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Q.16 – Q.18 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks)

16. To understand the mechanism of systemic acquired resistance (SAR), a team of researchers isolated a mutant with reduced SAR response. Sequencing of this mutant revealed homozygous mutations in two genes, X and Y. Which of the following experiment(s) would test whether the mutant phenotype is caused by mutation in either or both the genes?

(A)  Complement the mutant with X or Y and analyze the phenotype in each case.

(B)  Complement the mutant with both X and Y and analyze the phenotype.

(C)  Cross the mutant with wild-type and analyze the segregation pattern of thephenotype.

(D)  Compare the expression of X and Y in mutant and wild-type plants.

17. The observations of an experiment on seed germination in various genotypes under different light conditions are given, where √ and X indicate germination and the lack of it, respectively.

(A)  All the three light qualities– blue, red and far-red – are required for seedgermination.

(B)  Any one of the three light qualities – blue, red and far-red – is sufficient toinduce seed germination.

(C)  The CRY1, phyA and phyB proteins are required for blue, red and far-red lightperception, respectively.

(D)  The VP1 protein is unlikely to be involved in light perception.

18. Which of the following option(s) is/are CORRECT in the context of hybrid plant generation using Barnase/Barstar-based male sterile lines?

(A)  Barnase inhibits Barstar.

(B)  Barstar inhibits Barnase.

(C)  Barnase and Barstar are used to generate the male sterile line and the restorerline, respectively.

(D)  Barnase and Barstar are used to generate the restorer line and the male sterileline, respectively.

Q.19 – Q.20 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks)

19. In a diploid plant species, the T allele produces tall individuals and is completely dominant over the t allele that produces short individuals. Similarly, the W allele produces round seeds and is completely dominant over the w allele that produces wrinkled seeds (assume T and W loci not linked). If a parent with TTWW genotype is crossed to another parent with ttww genotype, the fraction of the F2 population produced by the fusion of both recombinant gametes would be ___________. (Round-off to two decimal places.)

20. In a population of a diploid plant species obeying Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, a locus regulating flower color has two alleles R and r. Individuals with RR, Rrand rr genotypes produce red, pink and white flowers, respectively. If the ratio of red, pink and white flower-producing individuals in the population is 6:3:1, then the frequency of r allele in the population would be __________%.

(Round-off to two decimal places.)

Microbiology (XL-S)

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

1. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek observed several microscopic organisms under his hand-made microscope. He described them as

(A)  Bacteria.

(B)  Fungi.

(C)  Animalcules.

(D)  Bacteriophages.

2. Which ONE of the following pathways oxidizes 1 mole of glucose to 2 moles of pyruvic acid along with one mole each of ATP, NADH and NADPH, in Pseudomonas, but not in Bacillus spp.?

(A)  Gluconeogenesis

(B)  Embden-Meyerhoff Pathway (EMP)

(C)  Entner-Doudoroff (ED) Pathway

(D)  Pentose Phosphate Pathway (PPP)

3. Water balance in extreme halophiles such as Halobacterium is maintained by cell surface glycoproteins consisting of

(A)  glycine and lysine.

(B)  lysine and histidine.

(C)  glycine.

(D)  aspartate and glutamate.

4. Nocardia spp. are not amenable to the classical method of Gram staining due to the presence of

(A)  N-acetyltalosaminuronic acid in the cell wall.

(B)  thick peptidoglycan.

(C)  mycolic acid.

(D)  keto-deoxy-octulosonic acid.

5. Protists belonging to the genus Trichonympha thrive in the gut of termites. They help the termites use wood as a food source. This relationship is an example of

(A)  parasitism.

(B)  competition.

(C)  commensalism.

(D)  mutualism.

Q.6 – Q.9 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

6. Which of the following is/are used as electron donor/s for CO2 reduction during photosynthesis in purple sulfur bacteria?

(A)  Hydrogen sulfide

(B)  Thiosulfates

(C)  Methane

(D)  Sulfates

7. Which of the following catalyze(s) substrate-level phosphorylation?

(A)  ATP synthase

(B)  Succinate thiokinase

(C)  Phosphofructokinase

(D)  Pyruvate kinase

8. Which of the following method(s) can be applied to identify a bacterial species?

(A)  Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)

(B)  Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) followed by sequencing of the amplicon

(C)  Gram staining

(D)  Acid-fast staining

9. Which of the following event(s) would contribute to the induction of lac operon in a wild-type strain of E. coli?

(A)  Accumulation of allolactose in the cell

(B)  Direct binding of cAMP to the promoter DNA

(C)  Binding of cAMP to a specific protein leading to its interaction with thepromoter

(D)  Elimination of cAMP from the cell

Q.10 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

10. One mole of a circular bacterial plasmid was digested with a high-fidelity restriction enzyme. The plasmid has five restriction sites for the enzyme used. The number of moles of fragments released upon cleavage at all sites is________.

Q.11 – Q.16 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

11. Under anaerobic fermentative growth conditions, one mole of glucose yields 22 grams of Streptococcus faecalis or 8.6 grams of Zymomonasmobilis. The molar growth yield (YATP) for (i) S. faecalis and (ii) Z. mobilis will be

(A)  (i) 11 and (ii) 4.3

(B)  (i) 22 and (ii) 4.3

(C)  (i) 22 and (ii) 8.6

(D)  (i) 11 and (ii) 8.6

12. The order of abundance of quinones (ubiquinone [UQ], menaquinone [MQ] and demethylmenaquinone [DMQ]) in E. coli growing anaerobically on fumarate is

(A)  UQ > DMQ > MQ

(B)  MQ > DMQ >UQ

(C)  MQ = DMQ > UQ

(D)  MQ > UQ > DMQ

13. What is the number of ATPs generated per molecule of NADH during oxidative phosphorylation in E. coli via (i) NDH-1 and cytochrome bo complex or (ii) the NDH-2 and cytochrome bd complex? (Assume H+/ATP =3)

(A)  (i) 2.00 and (ii) 3.67

(B)  (i) 3.00 and (ii) 2.67

(C)  (i) 2.70 and (ii) 0.67

(D)  (i) 2.50 and (ii) 0.50

14. Match the Immunoglobulin classes with their function

(A)  (i)- (s), (ii)-(p), (iii)-(q), (iv)-(r)

(B)  (i)- (p), (ii)-(t), (iii)-(q), (iv)-(r)

(C)  (i)- (q), (ii)-(p), (iii)-(t), (iv)-(r)

(D)  (i)- (r), (ii)-(p), (iii)-(t), (iv)-(s)

15. The figure shows the profiles of quantitative real-time PCR (qRT-PCR) tests for SARS-CoV-2 conducted on the throat swab samples of three individuals (X, Y and Z). Tests were carried out under identical conditions. Dotted line represents the threshold fluorescent value. Identify the correct statement on the status of the COVID-19 tests of the individuals based on their qRT-PCR profiles.

(A)  X and Y are negative; Z is positive

(B)  X and Y are positive; There is no apparent difference in their viral load

(C)  X and Y are positive; X has the highest viral load

(D)  X and Y are positive; Y has the highest viral load

16. The rate of appearance of recombinant E. coli strains containing different genes after a mating between Hfr and F− strains is shown in the graph (left). The approximate location of different genes (p, q, r, s, t, x, and y) along the Hfr chromosome is also shown (right). Based on this information, identify the recombinants X, Y and Z.

(A)  X is x+, Y is r+and Z is p

(B)  X is p+, Y is r+and Z is x

(C)  X is x+, Y is p+and Z is r

(D)  X is p+, Y is x+and Z is r

Q.17 – Q.20 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

17. The genome of a bacterium encodes for 10 different surface antigens, whose expression can be turned ‘ON’ or ‘OFF’ randomly and independently. The number of possible antigenic combinations is__________.

18. Suppose the mRNAs in a newly discovered bacteria are composed of only two distinct nucleotides (as opposed to four found in all known organisms). Considering that the organism has no nucleotide modification systems, the number of nucleotides required per codon to encode at least 20 distinct amino acids will be________.

19. The decimal reduction time (D) for reducing 1012 spores of Clostridium botulinum to 1 spore at 111°C will be_______ min (in integer). The D value is 0.2 min at 121°C. The increase in temperature required to change D to 1/10th of its initial value (Z value) is 10°C.

20. The generation time of E. coli is 30 minutes. For an exponentially growing culture, the initial number of bacteria required to reach a number of 109 in 2 hours is_________×107 (round off to two decimal places).

Zoology (XL-T)

Q.1 – Q.7 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wronganswer: – 1/3).

1. Ichthyophis belongs to which of the following Class?

(A)  Mammalia

(B)  Reptilia

(C)  Amphibia

(D)  Aves

2. The two homologous genes occurring in different species are called

(A)  paralogous

(B)  orthologous

(C)  pseudologous

(D)  prologous

3. The expression of holandric genes causes which of the following genetic trait in humans?

(A)  Haemophilia

(B)  Sickle cell anaemia

(C)  Down’s Syndrome

(D)  Hypertrichosis

4. Assume that the anticodon for an unknown amino acid is 3ʹ AUG 5ʹ. The corresponding code on DNA sequence would be

(A)  3ʹ TAC 5ʹ

(B)  5ʹ TAG 3ʹ

(C)  3ʹ ATG 5ʹ

(D)  5ʹ ATG 3ʹ

5. The Organ of Corti is found in which of the following parts of human body?

(A)  Heart

(B)  Inner ear

(C)  Kidney

(D)  Nasal cavity

6. In adult athletes, muscles grow larger when exercised and are capable of regeneration after injury. This is due to proliferation and differentiation of

(A)  satellite cells

(B)  myelin sheath

(C)  oxyntic cells

(D)  choanocytes

7. The term innate behavior is a sort of animal behavior that is

(A)  triggered by an environmental change

(B)  learnt by hit-and-trial approach

(C)  trained and taught by the parent

(D)  fixed developmentally at the genetic level

Q.8 – Q.10 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

8. A man, whose mother and father had blood groups A and O respectively, marries a woman with blood group AB. If the man has blood group A, then the number of different blood groups possible among their children will be _________ (in integer).

9. A population of snakes in an isolated island is in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium for a gene with only two alleles (A and a). If the allelic frequency of A is 0.6, then the genetic frequency of Aa is _________ round off to 2 decimal places).

10. In the structure of a polypeptide, one α-helix (3.613 helix) contains 32 intra-chain hydrogen bonds. The number of turns in the helix will be _________(in integer).

Q.11 – Q. 16 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wronganswer: – 2/3).

11. Match the terms in Column I with the specific descriptions in Column II.

(A)  P-(iii), Q-(vi), R-(i), S-(v), T-(ii), U-(iv)

(B)  P-(v), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(vi), T-(i), U-(iv)

(C)  P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(vi), S-(v), T-(i), U-(iii)

(D)  P-(iii), Q-(vi), R-(ii), S-(v), T-(iv), U-(i)

12. Match the autoimmune diseases in Column I for the self-antigens in Column II.

(A)  P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(iv)

(B)  P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i)

(C)  P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)

(D)  P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)

13. Match the types of cell movements during gastrulation in Column I with the descriptions in Column II.

(A)  P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i)

(B)  P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(ii)

(C)  P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

(D)  P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(i)

14. Match the therapeutic factors in Column I with the applications in Column II.

(A)  P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(v), S-(iii), T-(vi)

(B)  P-(ii), Q-(v), R-(i), S-(iv), T-(iii)

(C)  P-(v), Q-(vi), R-(iv), S-(iii), T-(i)

(D)  P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(v), T-(vi)

15. Match the cell organelles in Column I with the appropriate functions in Column II.

(A)  P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(v), S-(i), T-(iv)

(B)  P-(iv), Q-(v), R-(i), S-(ii), T-(iii)

(C)  P-(iv), Q-(v), R-(iii), S-(i), T-(ii)

(D)  P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(v), T-(iv)

16. Cohesin and Condensin proteins of eukaryotes belong to which one of the following groups?

(A)  Structural maintenance of chromosomes (SMC) proteins

(B)  Histones

(C)  DNA polymerases

(D)  Topoisomerases

Q.17 – Q.18 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

17. Which of the following options represent the animals as Endemic to India?

(A)  Pygmy Hog

(B)  Mountain Bongo

(C)  Hirola

(D)  Purple Frog

18. Which of the following amino acids contain more than one chiral center?

(A)  Leucine

(B)  Isoleucine

(C)  Serine

(D)  Threonine

Q.19 – Q.20 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

19. An enzyme catalyzes the conversion of 30 μM of a substrate to product at reaction velocity of 9.0 μM s1. When [Et] = 30 nM and Km = 10 μM, Kcat / Kmof enzyme will be n × 107 M1s1. The value of n is _________ (in integer).

20. A cross is made between two animals of genotypes AaBb x AaBb, where loci A and loci B assort independently. The progeny of this dihybrid cross was then allowed to self-cross. The proportion of the progeny that showed segregation for loci A (i.e., produce A- and aa progeny) in % will be_________ (in integer).

Food Technology XL (U)

Q.1 – Q.10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

1. In a typical bacterial growth curve, the first order kinetics for growth rate is observed in

(A)  Lag phase

(B)  Log phase

(C)  Stationary phase

(D)  Decline phase

2. Which of the following microorganisms is NOT a causative agent for foodborne diseases?

(A)  Campylobacter jejuni

(B)  Clostridium perfingens

(C)  Norovirus

(D)  Borreliaburgdorferi

3. Which one of the followings is NOT a fermented food product?

(A)  Tofu

(B)  Vinegar

(C)  Sauerkraut

(D)  Tempeh

4. The Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) is defined as

(A)  Percentage of absorbed nitrogen retained in the body

(B)  Weight gain in body mass (in gram) per gram protein intake

(C)  Ratio of essential and non-essential amino acids in a protein

(D)  Percent in vitro digestibility of a protein

5. Which one of the following enzymes sequentially releases maltose from starch?

(A)  α−Amylase

(B)  β− Amylase

(C)  Glucoamylase

(D)  Pullulanase

6. Highest mole % of amino acid mixture present in glutenin of wheat gluten are

(A)  Glutamine and glutamic acid

(B)  Serine and lysine

(C)  Alanine and tryptophan

(D)  Proline and glycine

7. Which one of the following compounds is present in soybean and acts asphytoesterogen?

(A)  Tangeretin

(B)  Lutin

(C)  Quercetin

(D)  Genistein

8. Which one of the followings is an oligosaccharide?

(A)  Xanthan

(B)  Alginate

(C)  Raffinose

(D)  Gellan

9. Bittering agent in grape fruit formed after juice extraction under acidic conditions is

(A)  Quinine

(B)  Theobromine

(C)  Isohumulone

(D)  Limonin

10. Difference between adsorption and desorption isotherms is known as

(A)  Hysteresis

(B)  Dryness

(C)  Evaporation

(D)  Dehydration

Q.11 – Q.13 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

11. The conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid in homolactic fermentation iscatalyzed by

(A)  Lactate dehydrogenase

(B)  Pyruvate dehydrogenase

(C)  Lactase

(D)  Pyruvate decarboxylase

12. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to Controlled Atmosphere Package (CAP) and Modified Atmosphere Package(MAP) of agro- produce?

(A)  CAP and MAP limit microbial as well as biochemical activities.

(B)  Gas composition inside a MAP during the storage is continuously monitored andregulated.

(C)  CAP implies a greater degree of precision than MAP in maintaining specific levelsof the gas composition.

(D)  Modification of the atmosphere inside a MAP is achieved by natural interplaybetween respiration of products and permeation of gases through the packagingfilm.

13. Match unit operation in Column I with its application in food processing in Column II.

(A)  P-2, Q-4, R-2, S-I

(B)  P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(C)  P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(D)  P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

Q.14 – Q.19 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

14. Which of the followings are correct pair of GRAS chemical food preservative, affected organism and given food matrix?

(A)  Sodium lactate-Bacteria-Pre-cooked meat

(B)  Caprylic acid-Insects-Cheese wraps

(C)  Dehydroacetic acid-Molds-Squash

(D)  Sodium nitrite-Clostridia-Meat curing preparations

15. Choose the correct pair of pigment and their corresponding color in plantproducts

(A)  Carotene-Yellow-orange-Peppers

(B)  Betanin-Purple/red-Cactus pear

(C)  Lycopene-Red-Red beets

(D)  Flavanols-Orange-red-Cauliflowers

16. Which of the following compounds act as anti-nutritional factors?

(A)  Phytate

(B)  Isoflavones

(C)  Trypsin Inhibitor

(D)  Resveratrol

17. Which of the followings is/are commonly used medium/media in thesupercritical fluid extraction of spices and tea?

(A)  Water

(B)  Carbon dioxide

(C)  Dichloromethane

(D)  Carbon dioxide with Ethanol

18. Which of the following expressions represent the Reynolds number of a fluid flowing through a uniform circular cross section pipe?

19. Which of the following combinations of analytical equipment, property measured and food property are correct?

(A)  Particle size analyzer – particle size distribution – span value

(B)  Texture profile analyzer – morphology – chewiness

(C)  Differential scanning calorimeter – glass transition temperature – degree of caking

(D)  Capillary viscometer – viscosity – sensory

Q.20 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark (no negative marks).

20. Dry air is fed into a tray dryer. The percentage relative humidity of the air leaving the dryer is 60% at 70°C and 101.35 kPa. If, saturated vapour pressure of water at 70°C is 31.2 kPa, the humidity of the air leaving the dryer in kg water per kg dry air (round off to 3 decimal places) will be ________.

(Given : Molecular weight of water and air are 18.02 g mol-1 and 28.97 g mol-1respectively)

## GATE Exam 2021 Humanities & Social Sciences (XH) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2021

XE: Humanities & Social Sciences

GA-General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

1. Consider the following sentences:

(i) After his surgery, Raja hardly could walk.

(ii) After his surgery, Raja could barely walk.

(iii) After his surgery, Raja barely could walk.

(iv) After his surgery, Raja could hardly walk.

Which of the above sentences are grammatically CORRECT?

(A)  (i) and (ii)

(B)  (i) and (iii)

(C)  (iii) and (iv)

(D)  (ii) and (iv)

2. X came out of a building through its front door to find her shadow due to the morning sun falling to her right side with the building to her back. From this, it can be inferred that building is facing _________

(A)  North

(B)  East

(C)  West

(D)  South

3.

In the above figure, O is the center of the circle and, M and N lie on the circle.

The area of the right triangle MON is 50 cm2.

What is the area of the circle in cm ?

(A)  2π

(B)  50π

(C)  75π

(D)  100π

4. If

then, the value of the expression ∆ 2 ⊕ 3 ∆ ((4 ⨂ 2) ∇ 4) =

(A)  −1

(B)  −0.5

(C)  6

(D)  7

5. “The increased consumption of leafy vegetables in the recent months is a clear indication that the people in the state have begun to lead a healthy lifestyle”

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the information presented in the above statement?

(A)  The people in the state did not consume leafy vegetables earlier.

(B)  Consumption of leafy vegetables may not be the only indicator of healthy lifestyle.

(C)  Leading a healthy lifestyle is related to a diet with leafy vegetables.

(D)  The people in the state have increased awareness of health hazards causing by consumption of junk foods.

Q.6 – Q. 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

6. Oxpeckers and rhinos manifest a symbiotic relationship in the wild. The oxpeckers warn the rhinos about approaching poachers, thus possibly saving the lives of the rhinos. Oxpeckers also feed on the parasitic ticks found on rhinos.

In the symbiotic relationship described above, the primary benefits for oxpeckers and rhinos respectively are,

(A)  Oxpeckers get a food source, rhinos have no benefit.

(B)  Oxpeckers save their habitat from poachers while the rhinos have no benefit.

(C)  Oxpeckers get a food source, rhinos may be saved from the poachers.

(D)  Oxpeckers save the lives of poachers, rhinos save their own lives.

7.

A jigsaw puzzle has 2 pieces. One of the pieces is shown above. Which one of the given options for the missing piece when assembled will form a rectangle? The piece can be moved, rotated or flipped to assemble with the above piece.

8. The number of hens, ducks and goats in farm P are 65, 91 and 169, respectively. The total number of hens, ducks and goats in a nearby farm Q is 416. The ratio of hens:ducks:goats in farm Q is 5:14:13. All the hens, ducks and goats are sent from farm Q to farm P.

The new ratio of hens:ducks:goats in farm P is_____

(A)  5:7:13

(B)  5:14:13

(C)  10:21:26

(D)  21:10:26

9.

The distribution of employees at the rank of executives, across different companies C1, C2, …, C6 is presented in the chart given above. The ratio of executives with a management degree to those without a management degree in each of these companies is provided in the table above. The total number of executives across all companies is 10,000.

The total number of management degree holders among the executives in companies C2 and C5 together is_____.

(A)  225

(B)  600

(C)  1900

(D)  2500

10. Five persons P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row not necessarily in the same order. Q and R are separated by one person, and S should not be seated adjacent to Q.

The number of distinct seating arrangements possible is:

(A)  4

(B)  8

(C)  10

(D)  16

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

1. According to a recent article in a medical journal, consuming curcumin (from turmeric) significantly lowers the risk of COVID-19. The researchers draw this conclusion from a study that found that people who consumed one or more teaspoons of curcumin extract everyday were half as likely to be diagnosed with the disease as people who did not consume curcumin.

Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument in the article?

(A)  In another study, people who were given a zinc supplement everyday were more than four times less likely to be diagnosed with COVID-19 as those who did not.

(B)  All the participants in this study were from the same state where no other spices or herbs are consumed.

(C)  The participants who consumed curcumin were also more likely to exercise than those who did not.

(D)  In another study, COVID-19 patients who were given curcumin were no more likely to recover than others.

2. Froot Inc. carried out an internet advertisement campaign for its new beverage CocoLoco. After the campaign, the director of the advertising company conducted a survey and found that the CocoLoco sales were higher than that of TenderJoos a competing product from Joos Inc. The agency concluded that the internet advertising campaign is more effective than advertising through other media.

Which of the following statements could strengthen the conclusion above by the agency?

(A)  A Rs. 2 discount was offered on CocoLoco during the campaign period.

(B)  CocoLoco sales were higher than those of TenderJoos before the internet campaign.

(C)  A newspaper advertisement campaign the previous year did not increase CocoLoco sales.

(D)  During the campaign for CocoLoco, Joos Inc. did not advertise TenderJoos at all.

3. An e-commerce site offered a deal last month conditional on the customer spending a minimum of Rs. 500. Any customer who buys 2 kg of fresh fruit will receive a hand mixer and any customer who buys 2 kg of fresh vegetables will receive a vegetable chopper.

Which of the following is NOT a possible outcome of the above?

(A)  A customer purchased 3 kg of fresh fruit and did not receive a vegetable chopper.

(B)  A customer purchased items for ₹500 which included 1 kg of vegetables and received a hand mixer.

(C)  A customer purchased items for Rs. 500 which included 2 kg of vegetables and 1 kg of fruit and received a hand mixer.

(D)  A customer purchased items for Rs. 300 which included 2 kg of fruit and received neither a hand mixer nor a vegetable chopper.

4. Writers of detective fiction often include an incompetent detective as a foil for the brilliant investigator-protagonist as they follow different paths in trying to solve the crime. In the individual accounts, the incompetent detective is frequently distracted by the culprit’s careful plans, while the competent investigator solves the case after a final confrontation. Analysts of such fiction believe that the authors select this story-telling technique to provide readers with more complexities in the form of misleading clues, while figuring out the crime.

Which of the following statements most logically follows from the passage above?

(A)  A detective story is considered well-written if the brilliant investigator is accompanied by an incompetent detective.

(B)  Writers of detective fiction use the contrast of an incompetent detective to mainly show how complex the investigation is.

(C)  Writers of detective fiction never write stories where the incompetent detective solves the case.

(D)  Writers of detective fiction use two investigative accounts to make it difficult for the reader to figure out the outcome.

5. The first (P1) and the last (P6) parts of a single sentence are given to you. The rest of the sentence is divided into four parts and labelled (L,M,N,O). Reorder these parts so that the sentence can be read through correctly and select one of the options given.

P1: Studies of several Sahitya Akademi award winners show that…

L: or encounter professional

M: and invariably develop a strained relationship with other literary figures

N: they often publish very little

O: after winning the prize

P6: …envy and rivalry.

The correct order is:

(A)  NOLM

(B)  MLON

(C)  ONML

(D)  MOLN

Q.6 – Q.10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

6. Gerrymandering refers to the targeted redrawing of election constituencies so as to benefit a particular party. This is especially important where the electoral system is “first past the post” in each constituency (i.e. one winner is selected in each constituency based on a majority of votes won) and where there is no other provision for proportional representation (as for example in the German system). For a simple illustration of gerrymandering, if a region consists of districts 1, 2, 3, …, 9 with districts 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 favouring party P and 7, 8, 9 favouring party Q, then grouping of districts to constituencies as {1,2,3}, {4,5,6}, {7,8,9} will give two seats to party P and one seat to party Q, whereas the grouping {1,2,7}, {3,4,8}, {5,6,9} will give all three seats to party P, as they will secure a majority in each constituency.

Which of these statements can be deduced from the above?

(A)  Gerrymandering implies that constituency boundaries can sometimes be drawn to favour one party over the other.

(B)  Gerrymandering implies that proportional representation is impossible when districts are grouped to form constituencies.

(C)  To counteract gerrymandering political parties should concentrate on districts where they are favoured.

(D)  The grouping of districts to constituencies has very little impact on proportional representation.

7. X-ray examination of a recently discovered painting that some authorities judge to be a self-portrait by Michelangelo revealed an under-image of a woman’s face. Either Michelangelo or some other artist must have repainted over the first painting that had now been seen on the canvas. Because the woman’s face also appears on other paintings by Michelangelo, this painting is determined to indeed be an authentic painting by Michelangelo.

Which of the following assumptions must be made in reaching the conclusion above?

(A)  When an already painted canvas of an artist is used, the second artist using that canvas for a new painting is usually influenced by the artistic style of the first.

(B)  Several painted canvases that art historians attribute to Michelangelo contain under-images that appear on at least one other of Michelangelo’s paintings.

(C)  Subject or subjects that appear in authenticated paintings of Michelangelo are rather unlikely to show up as under-images on painted canvases not attributed to Michelangelo.

(D)  No painted canvas can be attributed to a particular artist with certainty without an X-ray analysis.

8. This season _______ tourists visited Ladakh than last season; however, ______ to be the biggest tourist destination in India. The tourism department explains that the number of tourists to India has ______ relative to previous years, ________ have chosen to visit Ladakh.

Select the correct sequence of phrases to fill in the blanks to complete the passage above.

(A)  more / for the first time in many seasons it does not appear / increased / and it seems that most

(B)  fewer / as in the past, it appears / in fact decreased / but it seems that only a small proportion

(C)  fewer / for the first time in many seasons it appears / in fact decreased / but it seems that most

(D)  more / this season as well, it appears / in fact decreased / but it seems that a large proportion

9. Reorder the sentences in (1) – (5) such that they form a coherent paragraph.

(1) In fact, dozens of languages today have only one native speaker still living, and that person’s death will mean the extinction of the language: It will no longer be spoken, or known, by anyone on earth.

(2) Many languages are falling out of use and are being replaced by others that are more widely used in the region or nation, such as English in Australia or Portuguese in Brazil.

(3) Many other languages are no longer being learned by new generations of children or by new adult speakers.

(4) An endangered language is one that is likely to become extinct in the near future.

(5) Unless the trends are reversed, these endangered languages will

become extinct by the end of the century.

(Adapted from What is an Endangered Language by A. Woodbury.)

(A)  2 3 1 4 5

(B)  2 3 5 4 1

(C)  4 1 5 2 3

(D)  4 2 3 1 5

10. The first (P1) and the last (P6) parts of a single sentence are given to you. The rest of the sentence is divided into four parts and labelled L,M,N,O. Reorder these parts so that the sentence can be read correctly and select one of the sequences below.

P1: For a little while…

L: it was a common belief

M: right after the treaty of Versailles

N: that Germany had caused World War I not just by her actions

O: held by analysts and politicians alike

P6: … but by also encouraging Italy in her own aggressions.

(A)  LMNO

(B)  MLON

(C)  LNMO

(D)  MOLN

Q.11 – Q.15 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

11. After Florentino Ariza saw her for the first time, his mother knew before he told her because he lost his voice and his appetite and spent the entire night tossing and turning in his bed. But when he began to wait for the answer to his first letter, his anguish was complicated by diaorrhea and green vomit, he became disoriented and suffered from sudden fainting spells, and his mother was terrified because his condition did not resemble the turmoil of love so much as the devastation of cholera. Florentino Ariza’s godfather, an old homeopathic practitioner who had been Tránsito Ariza’s confidant ever since her days as a secret mistress, was also alarmed at first by the patient’s condition, because he had the weak pulse, the hoarse breathing, and the pale perspiration of a dying man. But his examination revealed that he had no fever, no pain anywhere, and that his only concrete feeling was an urgent desire to die. All that was needed was shrewd questioning, first of the patient and then of his mother, to conclude once again that the symptoms of love were the same as those of cholera. He prescribed infusions of linden blossoms to calm the nerves and suggested a change of air so he could find consolation in distance, but Florentino Ariza longed for just the opposite: to enjoy his martyrdom.

(Adapted from Love in a Time of Cholera by Gabriel García Márquez.)

The author of the passage is implying that:

(A)  Homeopathy cures love.

(B)  The doctor could not distinguish between love and cholera.

(C)  The doctor could distinguish between love and cholera.

(D)  The symptoms of love and cholera are similar.

12. Now, it is clear that the decline of a language must ultimately have political and economic causes: it is not due simply to the bad influence of this or that individual writer. But an effect can become a cause, reinforcing the original cause and producing the same effect in an intensified form, and so on indefinitely. A man may take to drink because he feels himself to be a failure, and then fail all the more completely because he drinks. It is rather the same thing that is happening to the English language. It becomes ugly and inaccurate because our thoughts are foolish, but the slovenliness of our language makes it easier for us to have foolish thoughts.

(Adapted from Politics and the English Language by George Orwell.)

The illustration of the man who takes to drink is used to underscore which of the following ideas in the passage above?

(A)  Political and economic causes control deterioration of language.

(B)  Foolish thoughts are enabled by inaccurate language.

(C)  Effect of an action becomes the cause in a cyclic pattern.

(D)  Drinking enables people to have foolish thoughts and slovenly language.

13. It is a pity that Caste even today has its defenders. The defences are many. It is defended on the grounds that the Caste System is but another name for division of labour, and if division of labour is a necessary feature of every civilised society, then it is argued that there is nothing wrong in the Caste System. Now the first thing to be urged against this view is that Caste System is not merely division of labour. It is also a division of labourers. Civilised society undoubtedly needs division of labour but nowhere is division of labour accompanied by this unnatural division of labourers into watertight compartments, grading them one above the other. This division of labour is not spontaneous or based on natural aptitudes. Social and individual efficiency requires us to develop the individual capacity and competency to choose and to make his own career. This principle is violated in so far as it involves an attempt to appoint tasks to individuals in advance, not on the basis of trained original capacities, but on that of birth. Industry undergoes rapid and abrupt changes and an individual must be free to change his occupation and adjust himself to changing circumstances, to gain his livelihood. (Adapted from Annihilation of Caste by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.)

Which of the following observations substantiate the arguments found in the passage above?

(A)  Newer generations are unable to change and move away from low-paying family professions, even with changed economic circumstances.

(B)  Sedentary desk jobs are considered to have more value and are in greater demand than those involving manual labour.

(C)  The government’s jobs guarantee programme makes low-level management jobs available across all industries to all graduates in the nation.

(D)  A bus driver becomes an app creator and, in the course of one month, reaches one million downloads on Playstore with a four-star rating.

14. Imagine that you’re in a game show and your host shows you three doors. Behind one of them is a shiny car and behind the others are goats. You pick one of the doors and get what lies within. After making your choice, your host chooses to open one of the other two doors, which inevitably reveals a goat. He then asks you if you want to stick with your original pick, or switch to the other remaining door. What do you do? Most people think that it doesn’t make a difference and they tend to stick with their first pick. With two doors left, you should have a 50% chance of selecting the one with the car. If you agree, then you have just fallen afoul of one of the most infamous mathematical problems – the Monty Hall Problem. In reality, you should switch every time which doubles your odds of getting the car. Over the years, the problem has ensnared countless people, but not, it seems, pigeons. The humble pigeon can learn with practice the best tactic for the Monty Hall Problem, switching from their initial choice almost every time. Amazingly, humans do not!

(Adapted from an article by Ed Yong in Discover Magazine.)

Which of the following conclusions follow from the passage above?

(A)  Humans calculate the probability of independent, random events such as the opening of a door by dividing the specific outcomes by the total number of possible outcomes.

(B)  Humans find it very difficult to learn to account for the host’s hand in making the event non-random and, thereby, changing the outcome of the event.

(C)  Calculating probabilities is difficult for humans but easy for pigeons; which is why the pigeons succeed where the humans fail.

(D)  Humans are governed by reason, but pigeons are irrational and only interested in the outcome and will do whatever it takes to get food.

15. The truth is that, despite the recent success of car-makers P and Q, India’s automobile industry is in a state not that different from the bad old days of the license-permit quota raj when two carmakers dominated a captive domestic market with substandard vehicles and with very little, if any, research and development, and low to negligible productivity growth.High tariff barriers have certainly induced foreign automobile makers to enter the Indian market by setting up local operations, but this so-called “tariff jumping” foreign investment has produced an industry that is inefficient, operating generally at a low scale, and whose products are not globally competitive either in terms of cost or of innovation. It is noteworthy that the automobile parts industry, which has faced low tariffs (as low as 12.5%) and has been largely deregulated, has been characterised by higher productivity and much better export performance than the completely-built units’ sector in the years since liberalisation.

(Adapted from an Op-Ed in The Mint.)

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above?

(A)  Low tariff barriers increase productivity.

(B)  Tariff jumping leads to increases in productivity.

(C)  Deregulation has worked for the automotive parts industry and therefore should be applied to completely-built units.

(D)  P and Q do not invest enough in research and development.

Economics (XH-C1)

Q.1 – Q.20 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

1. A firm finds that for the product that it produces, its (own) price elasticity of demand is 4. Currently, the firm is selling 2000 units per month at Rs. 5 per unit. If it wishes to increase its sales by 10%, it must

(A)  lower its price by 4%

(B)  lower its price by 2%

(C)  lower its price by 2.5%

(D)  increase its price by 2%

2. “Inflation increases the average level of prices”. Which of the following is(are) necessarily implied by this statement:

(i) The prices of commodities exceed income

(ii) Money supply grows at a higher rate than the real GDP

(A)  Only (i)

(B)  Only (ii)

(C)  Both (i) and (ii)

(D)  Neither (i) nor (ii)

3. For the production function Q = F(K, L) = √KL with PK = 4 and PL = 2, find the values of K and L that will minimize the cost of producing 2 units of output.

(A)  K = 2√3 ; L = 3√2

(B)  K = 2√2 ; L = √2

(C)  K = √2 ; L = 2√2

(D)  K = 2 ; L = 2

4. If the sum of price elasticities of imports and exports of a country exceeds unity, then a depreciation of domestic currency will ultimately result in

(A)  contraction in trade deficit of the country

(B)  widening of trade deficit of the country

(C)  an uncertain net effect on the trade balance

(D)  a huge outflow of foreign portfolio capital from that country

5. To determine the relationship between y and x1, Rohit estimated two different OLS models. In the first model, Rohit regressed y on x1 and x2 as given below

y = β0 + β1x1 + β2x2 + u (1)

In the second model, Rohit regressed y only on x1 as given below

y = δ0 + δ1x1 + v             (2)

The estimated coefficients of x1 in the above two models are exactly same.

From this observation we can state conclusively that

(A)  Only (i) is true

(B)  Only (ii) is true

(C)  Either (ii) or (iii) or both are true

(D)  Neither (ii) nor (iii) is true

6. XYZ Co. Ltd. is a costless monopoly from suburban Mumbai producing and selling exotic mushrooms. The demand for mushrooms is given by

Q = 700 − 100P. Do you agree that XYZ will have a maximum possible

total revenue of Rs. 1500?

(A)  Yes, the maximum possible total revenue is Rs.1500

(B)  No, the maximum possible total revenue is less than Rs.1500

(C)  No, the maximum possible total revenue is more than Rs.1500

(D)  No, the maximum possible total revenue cannot be estimated

7. In a demand function estimation of a good X, a researcher collected data on various households’ consumption of good X (Qx) for various price levels. The researcher also collected data on household income (M) and household size (S). The estimated regression result is

log Qx = −0. 345(0. 111) − 1. 543(2. 345) log Px + 1. 123(0. 012) log M + 0. 234(0. 123) log S

where Px is price per unit of X. The values in the parentheses are the standard errors of the estimated coefficients. From the estimation one can conclude that

(A)  the demand for good X is highly elastic

(B)  X is an inferior good

(C)  the estimated price elasticity of demand is not statistically significant

(D)  the estimated price elasticity of good X is 2.345

8. Consider a duopoly market in which the market demand function is as follows: P = 40 − Q. For the two firms producing with identical marginal costs of 10, the Bertrand-Nash equilibrium price will be:

(A)  40

(B)  10

(C)  20

(D)  30

9. What would be the consequences for the OLS estimator if heteroscedasticity is present in a regression model but ignored? Assume that all the other classical assumptions are valid.

(A)  It will be biased

(B)  It will be inconsistent

(C)  It will be unbiased but inefficient

(D)  It will be unbiased but inconsistent

10. Walras’ Law implies that if there are N markets in the economy, then one only needs to find equilibrium prices in

(A)  N − 2 markets

(B)  N − 1 markets

(C)  N + 1 markets

(D)  all the N markets

11. There are many reasons why a poor country may fail to catch up with a rich neighbour. Which of the following is NOT one of these reasons?

(A)  The poor country may have more rapid population growth

(B)  The rich country may have more human capital

(C)  The poor country may have a higher saving ratio

(D)  The rich country through trade may be more integrated with the world economy

12. In a two country model, an increase in foreign country’s national income generally leads to:

(A)  increased exports and increased domestic output

(B)  decreased exports but increased domestic output

(C)  decreased exports and decreased domestic output

(D)  increased exports but decreased domestic output

13. Piku faces a lottery with outcomes of Rs. 24, Rs. 12, Rs. 48 and ₹6 given by the following probability distribution

She is indifferent between the lottery and receiving Rs. 28 with certainty. Given the information we can conclude that Piku is a

(A)  risk lover

(B)  risk averse

(C)  risk neutral

(D)  hedger

14. Consider a regression model y = β0 + βx + u where the continuous variable y is regressed on a dummy variable x, which takes the value either 1 or 0.

However, the model was estimated using the instrumental variable (IV) estimation method, wherein the indicator variable z is used as an instrument of x.

Let

be the sample averages of y when z takes the value 1 and 0, respectively

be the sample averages of x when z takes the value 1 and 0, respectively

be the sample averages of y when x takes the value 1 and 0, respectively

be the sample averages of z when x takes the value 1 and 0, respectively

15. Assuming that external economies exist, when demand increases in a perfectly competitive market, in the long-run, the price of the product

(A)  rises above the initial price (before the demand increase) and quantity increases

(B)  remains the same as the initial price (before the demand increase) and quantity increases

(C)  falls below the initial price (before the demand increase) and quantity increases

(D)  equals the initial price (before the demand increase) and quantity decreases

16. Consider an individual who maximizes her expected utility having Bernoulli utility function u(w) = α − βerw; w > 0 is wealth. The individual displays _________ relative risk aversion.

(A)  constant

(B)  increasing

(C)  decreasing

(D)  uncertain

17. For an open economy, the ‘twin deficits’ can be expressed by:

[where S = Savings; I = Gross Private Investment; G = Government Expenditures; TR = Transfer Payments; TX = Taxes; X = Exports; M = Imports and NFIA = Net Factor Income from Abroad]

(A)  S − I = [G − TR − TX] + [X − M]

(B)  I − S = [G + TX − TR] + [M − X]

(C)  S − I = [G + TR − TX] + [X − M]

(D)  I − S = [TX − G + TR] + [NFIA]

18. If expectations about inflation are formed as per the rational expectations hypothesis, then the short-run Philips curve will be

(A)  negatively sloped

(B)  parallel to the vertical axis

(C)  parallel to the horizontal axis

(D)  coinciding with the NAIRU

19. As economic development proceeds, income inequality tends to follow a(n) ________ curve.

(A)  asymptotically convex

(B)  inverted U-shaped

(C)  V-shaped

(D)  S-shaped

20. India has the highest amount of foreign debt in the form of

(A)  Non Resident Indian (NRI) Deposits

(B)  Commercial Borrowings

(C)  Loans taken from the International Monetary Fund

(D)  Loans taken from the Bank of England

Q.21 – Q.25 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

21. Let A and B be two events with probabilities P(A) = 3/4 and P (B) = 1/3; then which of the following options is true?

22. If  is an unbiased and consistent estimator of the population variance, then one can conclude that  a(an) __________ estimator of the population standard deviation.

(A)  unbiased and consistent

(B)  biased and consistent

(C)  unbiased and inconsistent

(D)  biased and inconsistent

23. Consider the following demand−supply model, where

Demand function: P = Q2 − 12Q + 35

Supply function: 4P − 3Q = 0

The stable market equilibrium price-quantity combination will be

24. Trisha’s consumption preference on biryani (x) and pudding (y) is given by the utility function U(x, y) = x + 4y. The price per unit of biryani is Rs. 2 and the price per unit of pudding is Rs. 3. Trisha’s total income is ₹120. However, she faces an extra quantity constraint as she is not allowed to consume biryani more than 60 units and pudding more than 30 units. The optimum quantity of biryani and pudding consumed by Trisha is

(A)  (x∗ y∗) = (30, 20)

(B)  (x∗, y∗) = (15, 30)

(C)  (x∗, y∗) = (30,15)

(D)  (x∗, y∗) = (60, 0)

25. Consider a Cournot type n-firm natural spring oligopoly where the market demand for natural spring water is given by P(Q) = a − Q, a > 0. The n firms are symmetric. Each firm incurs a bottling cost of Ci = cqi, c > 0 and a > c. The equilibrium market price will be

Q.26 – Q.30 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

26. Goods and Services Tax (GST) is

(A)  a ‘destination based’ consumption tax

(B)  an origin based tax assigned to the State of origin where the sale takes place

(C)  an indirect tax

(D)  a modified form of value added tax

27. Consider an intersection of roads without any traffic light. Two cars A and B approach an intersection and they want to proceed as indicated by respective arrows in the following diagram. If both proceed without stopping and there is an accident, then A would have a payoff of −100 and B would have a payoff of −500 (since B is responsible for the accident). If one stops, and the other proceeds then the payoff is: −5 and 10, respectively. If both of them stop, then it takes a little longer to reach their respective destinations, they have a payoff of −5 each. Find the Pure Strategy Nash Equilibrium (PSNE) of the players (Car drivers).

(A)  (Car A, Car B) = (Stop, Stop)

(B)  (Car A, Car B) = (Stop, Proceed)

(C)  (Car A, Car B) = (Proceed, Stop)

(D)  (Car A, Car B) = (Proceed, Proceed)

28. A Government Security (G-Sec)

(A)  is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government

(B)  is a tradeable instrument issued by State Governments

(C)  can have maturity of only more than one year

(D)  cannot be considered as ‘gilt-edged’ instrument

29. If a country has flexible exchange rate regime with perfect capital mobility, then according to the Mundell-Fleming Model, an expansionary fiscal policy will lead to

(A)  no change in output

(B)  reduced net exports

(C)  appreciation of nominal exchange rate

(D)  expansion of output

30. The basic tenets of ‘Monetarism’ are

(A)  acceptance of the ‘quantity theory’ approach to macroeconomic analysis

(B)  a strict rule based monetary policy

(C)  a monetary approach to the balance-of-payments and exchange-rate theory

(D)  an active stabilization policy through expansionary monetary/fiscal policies

Q.31 – Q.40 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

31. Two farmers, Rohit and Harish, graze their animals on a common land. They can choose to use this common resource ‘lightly’ or ‘heavily’ and the resulting strategic interaction may be described as a simultaneous-move game. The payoff matrix is given below:

The minimum value of the discount rate (where the discount rate is less than one) under infinite repetition of the game where the threat strategy (“Graze lightly if the opponent also grazes lightly, whereas, if the opponent renege then always graze heavily in all the future periods”), is a Sub-game Perfect Nash Equilibrium (SPNE) and, both the farmers graze their animals lightly is _______ (round off to one decimal place).

32. Suppose Vijay has purchased a high-speed car worth Rs.1000000. During the purchase, an Insurance company has shared the latest available road safety survey, wherein it is mentioned that, due to heavy congestion on roads, there is 40% chance of an accident within the first year of car purchase resulting in loss of the car value by 60%. Vijay’s utility function for wealth (W) is given by U(W) = ln(W). If Vijay plans to buy an accident insurance having a premium of 30%, then he will purchase an insurance of Rs. ____________ (round off to the nearest integer).

33. Consider the following Table.

(All values are in Rupees Thousand Crore)

Based on the given data, the average Broad Money Multiplier for the period April – June is ________ (round off to three decimal places).

34. Consider two regression models estimated on a sample of 350 observations.

y = β0 + β1x1 + β2x2 + β3x3 + β4x4 + β5x5 + u ———(1)

y = α0 + α1x1 + α2x2 + v ———(2)

The R2 in model (1) is R12 = 0. 3521 and in model (2) is R22 = 0.2314. The value of the test statistic to test the H0: β3 = β4 = β5 = 0 is ________________(round off to three decimal places).

35. Consider a competitive market where the demand and supply functions are given by qD = 12 − 2P and qS = 4P, respectively. The tax rate per unit of output that maximizes the tax yield (revenue) is __________ (in integer).

36. Suppose the demand for a new pharmaceutical drug, on which the manufacturer has a patent monopoly, is given by: Q = (100 − P)A5 ; where Q is output, P is the price and A is advertising expenditure. Production cost of the patented drug is given by: C(Q) = 60Q. At the firm’s optimal choices, the ratio of advertising expenditure to sales revenue for the pharmaceutical product will be 1: ____ (in integer).

37. Let the rate of inflation in an economy be 4.2%, the growth rate of velocity of money be 2% and, the growth rate of real GDP be 6%. According to Milton Friedman’s ‘k’ percent rule, the rate of growth of money supply for maintaining stable prices will be __________ (round off to one decimal place).

38. The long-run cost function of all identical firms in a perfectly competitive industry is given by: C = 25q − 3q2 + 1. 5q3

The market demand function is: P = 2500 − 0. 25Q

The number of firms in the industry at equilibrium is __________(in integer).

39. Given below is an inter-industry transactions matrix. If final demand for the agriculture sector changes from 150 units to 300 units and for the manufacturing sector changes from 120 units to 200 units, then the output of the agriculture sector should be __________ units (in integer).

[/bg_collapse]

40. Consider that a sample of size 3 is randomly drawn from a population that takes only two values, equally likely: − 1 and 1. Let z = max .(x1, x2, x3) where x1, x2, x3 are the sample observations. The expected value of z, E(z) is __________ (round off to two decimal places).

English (XH-C2)

Q.1 – Q.12 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

1. Which of the following texts is a collection of stories that a group of pilgrims tell each other?

(A)  The Shepheardes Calender

(B)  The Pilgrim’s Progress

(C)  The Canterbury Tales

(D)  Parliament of Fowls

2. Which of these is NOT an autobiography?

(A)  Baby Kamble, The Prisons We Broke

(B)  Bama, Karukku

(C)  Mulk Raj Anand, Untouchable

(D)  Om Prakash Valmiki, Joothan

3. Writers Workshop and Blaft are ___________.

(A)  niche publishing houses in India that focus on particular genres

(B)  little magazines that were set up by small collectives of writers

(C)  digital archives of performance poetry

(D)  well-known reading circles in 1950s’ Lucknow

4. The following lines capture the central trope of a well-known 18th century satirical tract.

“I have been assured by a very knowing American of my acquaintance inLondon, that a young healthy child, well nursed, is, at a year old, a mostdelicious, nourishing, and wholesome food…”

Identify the tract from the options below.

(A)  John Stuart Mill, “On Liberty”

(B)  Francis Bacon, “On Death”

(C)  Jonathan Swift, “A Modest Proposal”

(D)  Robert Graves, “Warning to Children”

5. Whose poem does Cleanth Brooks close-read to arrive at his concept of “the well-wrought urn”?

(A)  William Wordsworth

(B)  John Keats

(C)  William Blake

(D)  Alfred Tennyson

6. What is common among Charles Dickens’ A Tale of Two Cities, Mahasweta Devi’s Mother of 1084, Shobha Shakti’s Gorilla, and Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie’s Half of A Yellow Sun?

(A)  These novels are set during times of political uprisings.

(B)  These novels are feminist narratives.

(C)  These novels have animals as central characters.

(D)  These novels are picaresque novels.

7. Henry James’ essay “The Art of Fiction”, one of the earliest literary critical engagements with the form of the novel, was preceded by his book-length study of __________.

(A)  William Faulkner

(B)  Nathaniel Hawthorne

(C)  Aphra Behn

(D)  Oscar Wilde

8. Which of the following is NOT true of Bram Stoker’s Dracula?

(A)  It is considered to be a gothic novel.

(B)  It is narrated mostly through letters.

(C)  Transylvania is an important setting in the novel.

(D)  It is a bildungsroman.

9. “The name is H. Hatterr, and I am continuing . . .

Biologically, I am fifty-five of the species.”

The lines above are from an early Indian English novel. Who is the authorof this novel?

(A)  G. V. Desani

(B)  Allan Sealy

(C)  Toru Dutt

(D)  Ruth Prawer Jhabvala

10. In Areopagitica, John Milton made an impassioned appeal __________.

(B)  for legal reform allowing divorce based on spousal incompatibility

(D)  against slavery in the New World

11. The first institution to teach English Literature in the world is – ___________.

(A)  The University of Oxford, Oxford

(B)  Royal Polytechnic Institution, London

(C)  The College of William and Mary, Williamsburg, Virginia

(D)  Fort William College, Calcutta

12. Which one of the following texts propounds the aesthetic theory of ‘rasa’?

(A)  Natya Shastra

(B)  Abhigyana Shakuntalam

(C)  Manu Smriti

(D)  Charaka Samhita

Q.13 – Q.20 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

13. Which of the following novels is/are predominantly set in Bombay?

(A)  Kiran Nagarkar, Ravan and Eddie

(B)  Rohinton Mistry, A Fine Balance

(C)  Salman Rushdie, Midnight’s Children

(D)  Aravind Adiga, The White Tiger

14. Which of the following critically rewrite/s canonical English novels?

(A)  J. M. Coetzee, Foe

(B)  Jean Rhys, Wide Sargasso Sea

(C)  Bapsi Sidhwa, Ice-Candy-Man

(D)  Ben Okri, The Famished Road

15. Of the following, which novelist/s combine/s feminist concerns with magic realism?

(A)  Virginia Woolf

(B)  Toni Morrison

(C)  Kamala Markandaya

(D)  Svetlana Alexievich

16. In which of these Shakespearean plays do important female characters disguise themselves as men?

(A)  A Midsummer Night’s Dream

(B)  The Merchant of Venice

(C)  As You Like It

(D)  Twelfth Night

17. The following words in English are clustered according to their origin. Choose the cluster/s that contain/s words drawn from languages of the Indian subcontinent.

(A)  Kedgeree, Punch, Mulligatawny, Candy

(B)  Shampoo, Chintz, Calico, Juggernaut

(C)  Philistine, Echo, Panic, Galaxy

(D)  Anaconda, Cheroot, Bungalow, Dungaree

18. Which of the following is/are true of Charlotte Brontë’s Jane Eyre?

(A)  It was published under the pen-name Currer Bell.

(B)  It was published originally in three volumes.

(C)  It has been read as a critique of heterosexual romance, marriage, anddomesticity.

(D)  The story is told from the point of view of a “madwoman in the attic”.

19. Which of the following is an example/are examples of noir, popular both as fiction and film?

(A)  The Big Sleep

(B)  Murder on the Orient Express

(C)  The Maltese Falcon

(D)  Fargo

20. Which of the following use/s the device of a ‘story within a story’ withmultiple narrators?

(A)  A Portrait of an Artist as a Young Man

(B)  Wuthering Heights

(C)  Emma

(D)  Heart of Darkness

Q.21 – Q.30 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

21. Match the following plays with genre or style:

(A)  i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c

(B)  i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d

(C)  i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a

(D)  i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

22. Study the three examples below:

(i) In George Orwell’s novel 1984, the interior ministry of the totalitarian state is called the ‘Ministry of Love’.

(ii) In the genre of horror fiction, the reader knows that the killer is hiding in the closet, but the protagonist does not.

iii) “But Brutus says he was ambitious; And Brutus is an honourable man.”

(William Shakespeare, Julius Caesar)

These are instances of ____________.

(A)  metaphor

(B)  irony

(C)  parody

(D)  synecdoche

23. An “implied reader” is a ________.

(A)  reader who participates in creating the meaning of a text

(B)  reader who anticipates authorial intention

“[…] a text is made of multiple writings, drawn from many cultures and entering into mutual relations of dialogue, parody, contestation, but there is one place where this multiplicity is focused and that place is the reader, not, as was hitherto said, the author. […] the birth of the reader must be at the cost of the death of the Author.”

Which theoretical school does the excerpt best represent?

(B)  Formalism

(C)  Post-structuralism

(D)  New Criticism

25. Literary criticism considers which one of the following texts as offering the strongest support for mimetic theories of art?

(A)  Plato, Republic

(B)  Longinus, On Sublimity

(C)  Horace, The Art of Poetry

(D)  Aristotle, Poetics

26. The following is a passage about O. V. Vijayan’s The Legends of Khasak:

The novel is set in a remote village, in the middle of the 20th century. Thenarrative is replete with images of the vast ecosystem of the living and thenon-living, a land potent with dreams and legends.

The analysis presented in this description is congruent with which one ofthe following concepts proposed by Mikhail Bakhtin?

(A)  Chronotope

(B)  Dialogism

(C)  Carnivalesque

(D)  Polyphony

27. Which one of the following did NOT happen in 1919, the year the First World War ended?

(A)  The Progressive Writers’ Association was formed in India.

(B)  The radical political activist and philosopher Rosa Luxemborg was murdered.

(C)  Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood.

(D)  James Joyce’s Ulysses was being serialised.

28. Assertion P: Dalit narratives tend to be read single-dimensionally

as evoking the reader’s pity at the protagonist’s caste humiliation,

or

as telling the story of heroic protest against discrimination, oras a description of the protagonist’s rise from misery to triumph.

Assertion Q: There is a tendency to keep the Other in the space of difference, as perpetually exotic.

In the context of the assertions above, which one of the following statements is true?

(A)  P and Q are contradictory assertions.

(B)  P and Q are compatible assertions.

(C)  P and Q cannot be read in relation to each other.

(D)  Q is the only explanation for P.

29. Some of the recent novels of the Brazilian writer Paulo Coelho were published in multiple languages simultaneously, or immediately after the Portuguese edition.

Which of the following is this phenomenon NOT an evidence of?

(A)  Rebecca Walkowitz’s argument that novels are often ‘born translated’

(B)  The globality of marketplace for books

(C)  Paulo Coelho’s expanding popularity

(D)  The ‘nation’ as the sole frame for understanding literature

30. Match the authors in the first column with their respective translators in the second column.

(A)  i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

(B)  i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a

(C)  i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

(D)  i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

Q.31 – Q.40 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

31. Which of the following is/are true about Gilles Deleuze and Felix Guattari’s conception of ‘minor literature’?

(A)  The discussion focuses on the writing of Franz Kafka.

(B)  Minor literature is literature that a minority produces in a major language.

(C)  Minor literature is a form of popular literature.

(D)  Minor literature is literature in a minor language.

32. Quote P:

“O wild West Wind, thou breath of Autumn’s being,

Thou, from whose unseen presence the leaves dead

Are driven, like ghosts from an enchanter fleeing,

Yellow, and black, and pale, and hectic red,

Pestilence-stricken multitudes: O thou,

Who chariotest to their dark wintry bed

[…]”

Quote Q:

“O golden-tongued Romance with serene lute!

Fair plumed Siren! Queen of far away!”

Which of the following is/are correct?

(A)  Both quotes are examples of apostrophe.

(B)  Both quotes use alliteration.

(C)  Both quotes are examples of aporia.

(D)  Both quotes are examples of personification.

33. Prolepsis is the representation or assumption in the present, of a future act or development.

(A)  “Six decades later she would describe how at the age of thirteen she had writtenher way through a whole history of literature.” Ian McEwan, Atonement.

(B)  “Horatio, I am dead.” William Shakespeare, Hamlet.

(C)  “In my younger and more vulnerable years my father gave me some advice thatI’ve been turning over in my head ever since.” F. Scott Fitzgerald, The GreatGatsby.

(D)  “Many years later, as he faced the firing squad, Colonel Aureliano Buendía was to remember that distant afternoon when his father took him to discover ice.”Gabriel García Márquez, One Hundred Years of Solitude.

34. Gayatri Chakravorty Spivak’s essay “Can the Subaltern Speak?” proposes which of the following?

(A)  The voice of the subaltern is appropriated by ‘intellectuals’ desiring to speak for the subaltern.

(B)  It is easy to confuse writing about the subaltern with the subaltern speaking for herself.

(C)  All women are subaltern and therefore cannot truly speak.

(D)  The ‘intellectuals’ speaking for the subaltern and the subaltern speaking for herself can be equivalent.

35. Which of the following is/are example/s of ‘metafiction’?

(A)  Each chapter in a novel is narrated by a different character.

(B)  The reader is a character in the novel who interrupts the story because herealises that he is reading an incomplete text.

(C)  The narrator of the novel travels into the wild and encounters a man whoembodies the horrors of colonial power. The latter then proceeds to tell hisstory.

(D)  A character in a novel encounters a shabbily dressed man. Soon, this man letsus, the readers, know that he is the author of the novel and is contemplating thefuture of this character.

36. Choose one or more options from below.

In contrast to traditional Historicism, New Historicism _____________.

(A)  rejects the idea that history is an objective narrative of events unfolding in lineartime

(B)  does not make strict distinctions between literary and non-literary texts

(C)  takes a particular interest in the textualisation of the material world

(D)  takes history only to be a background and context for understanding literarytexts

37. “The feminist insistence that ‘the personal is political’ has had profound effects on other genres. Feminist academics in several disciplines now insist that the subjective element must not be left out of the practice of research methods, such as the interview, or of theories of knowledge production (Skeggs 1995; Maynard and Purvis 1994; Reinharz 1992).”

From the passage above, which of the following can be correctlyconcluded?

(A)  The passage argues that interviews and theories of knowledge production arenot examples of research methods.

(B)  ‘The personal is political’ is a feminist argument.

(C)  Skeggs, Maynard, Purvis, and Reinharz are names of feminist scholars.

(D)  The passage argues that the subjective can legitimately be part of researchmethods.

38. “ARE YOU DARK? OR VERY LIGHT?” Revelation came.

“You mean—like plain or milk chocolate?”

Her assent was clinical, crushing in its light

I chose. “West African sepia”—and as afterthought,

“Down in my passport.” Silence for spectroscopic

Flight of fancy, till truthfulness clanged her accent

Hard on the mouthpiece. “WHAT’S THAT?” conceding

“DON’T KNOW WHAT THAT IS.” “Like brunette.”

“THAT’S DARK, ISN’T IT?” “Not altogether.

Facially, I am brunette, but, madam, you should see

The rest of me. Palm of my hand, soles of my feet

Are a peroxide blond. Friction, caused—

Foolishly, madam—by sitting down, has turned

My bottom raven black—One moment, madam!”—sensing

Her receiver rearing on the thunderclap

See for yourself?”

In Wole Soyinka’s “Telephone Conversation”, the man seeking to rent aroom responds to the white landlady’s racism by ____________.

(A)  describing black as a spectrum as opposed to a single colour

(B)  being the subservient Black man, who concedes to her definition of race

(C)  locating race squarely in her ways of seeing

(D)  fragmenting the racialised body

39. In Arthur Conan Doyle’s writings featuring Sherlock Holmes, as is the case with much of 19th century British fiction, colonialism appears as objects, events, animals, places, fears and desires. Which of the following support/s this claim?

(A)  Opium dens in London, frequented by Holmes

(B)  The war in which Watson served as a doctor

(C)  The hound in The Hound of the Baskervilles

(D)  The pet animals in “The Adventure of the Speckled Band”

40. “My Papa’s Waltz” by Theodore Roethke

Could make a small boy dizzy;

But I hung on like death:

Such waltzing was not easy.

We romped until the pans

Slid from the kitchen shelf;

My mother’s countenance

Could not unfrown itself.

The hand that held my wrist

Was battered on one knuckle;

At every step you missed

My right ear scraped a buckle.

You beat time on my head

With a palm caked hard by dirt,

Then waltzed me off to bed

(A)  The form of the poem is that of the Petrarchan sonnet.

(B)  There is a simile in the first stanza.

(C)  Images in the last two stanzas suggest that the father is a working-class man.

(D)  The poem is in rhyming couplets.

Linguistics (XH-C3)

Q.1 – Q.14 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

1. Which of the following is NOT demonstrated by studies with Great Apes like Koko and Washoe and Sarah?

(A)  The capacity to produce rule-governed, novel messages.

(B)  The capacity for symbolic communication.

(C)  The manual dexterity for signing.

(D)  The ability to teach other members of the species.

2. The meaning relax or calm down for the word ‘chill’ is an example of what kind of semantic change?

(A)  Metaphor

(B)  Metonymy

(C)  Synecdoche

(D)  Pejoration

3. Match the following communication systems (P-T) to their type (i-vi) and select the correct sequence:

(A)  P-(iii), Q-(v), R-(i), S-(ii), T-(iv)

(B)  P-(v), Q-(vi), R-(ii), S-(iv), T-(iii)

(C)  P-(iv), Q-(v), R-(iii), S-(ii), T-(vi)

(D)  P-(ii), Q-(vi), R-(v), S-(iii), T-(i)

4. Statistical learning in language development in infants refers to __________.

(A)  calculating regularities in speech to isolate words

(B)  early mathematical knowledge that infants can demonstrate

(C)  infant data that researchers use to understand language growth

(D)  learning to differentiate phonemes as they are used in spoken words

5. If ‘Aam Aadmi’ is translated as ‘Mango Man’, which type of ambiguity does the translation demonstrate?

(A)  Lexical

(B)  Syntactic

(C)  Morphological

(D)  Morphosyntactic

6. While most of the historically known writing systems in India tend to write from left to right, identify the one which writes from right to left.

(A)  Kharoṣṭhī

(B)  Brāhmī

(D)  Grantha

7. Identify the pair of words with a circumfix from the list below.

(A)  enlighten, embolden

(B)  enquiring, inquiring

(C)  transformation, transportation

(D)  reduced, repeated

8. Which of the following sets illustrates sound symbolism in English?

(A)  mash, splash, bash, crash

(B)  flash, shine, sear, glimmer

(C)  duck, suck, luck, tuck

(D)  forte, piano, allegro, crescendo

9. Voice Onset Time (VOT) is an acoustic cue used by our auditory-perceptual systems. Which of the following sounds can be identified using VOT?

(i) Voiced Stops

(ii) Unvoiced Stops

(iii) Prenasalised Stops

(iv) Aspirated Stops

(v) Ejective Stops

(A)  (i), (ii), (iv) but NOT (iii) and (v)

(B)  (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) but NOT (v)

(C)  (iv), (v) but NOT (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D)  (i), (iii), (v) but NOT (ii) and (iv)

10. In syntactic terms, which of the following is the odd one out?

(A)  Belle struck the Beast as incompetent.

(B)  Belle regarded the Beast as incompetent.

(C)  Belle identified the Beast as incompetent.

(D)  Belle viewed the Beast as incompetent.

11. Which of the following speech errors is NOT expected in natural languages? The items that are swapped are indicated in capitals. The intended phrase is tight-ly pack-ed.

(A)  tighKly paTed

(B)  Pightly Tacked

(C)  PACKly TIGHTed

(D)  tightED packLY

12. Language isolates are languages that ____________.

(A)  are not known to be related to any other languages

(B)  are spoken in isolated parts of the world

(C)  have no dialectal or sociolectal varieties

(D)  are separated geographically from other members of their family

13. On the new Rs. 2000 note, how many languages can be found in the language panel displaying the denomination of the note?

(A)  Fifteen

(B)  Sixteen

(C)  Seventeen

(D)  Eighteen

14. How many unique morphemes can be isolated in this sentence?

(A)  Twelve

(B)  Ten

(C)  Sixteen

(D)  Eleven

Q.15 – Q.20 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

15. “I look forward to visiting teachers”. What does this sentence demonstrate?

(A)  Syntactic ambiguity

(B)  Semantic role ambiguity

(C)  Lexical ambiguity

(D)  No ambiguity

16. Which of the following pairs of words do NOT stand in troponymous relationship?

(A)  lisp-talk

(B)  limp-walk

(C)  dream-sleep

(D)  wait-fidget

17. Which of the following areal/typological feature(s) may be seen in a vast majority of the languages of South Asia?

(A)  Compound Verbs

(B)  Retroflexed Sounds

(C)  Non-nominative Subject Case

(D)  Agglutinative Morphology

18. Three different ways of writing a single word in the Mayan script are given below. The glyphs (i-iii) are of a single word [ba’lam] meaning ‘jaguar’. What can we conclude about the Mayan writing system from the examples provided?

(A)  The glyphs can be logograms, mean whole words.

(B)  The glyphs can be syllabic.

(C)  The glyphs use the rebus principle, part sound part meaning.

(D)  The glyphs can be alphabetic, spelling out sounds.

19. Identify symptom(s) of phonological dyslexia.

(A)  The inability to map letters to sounds.

(B)  The inability to pronounce made-up or nonsense words.

(C)  The inability to tell homographs apart.

(D)  The inability to recognise semantic mismatches.

20. Creolisation and creoles are characterised by which of the following?

(A)  Creolisation is the process of elaborating Pidgin languages.

(B)  Creolisation happens when a Pidgin is learned by young children as a firstlanguage.

(C)  Creoles have elaborated grammars but somewhat limited vocabulary.

(D)  Creole vocabulary is expansive but the grammar is limited and variable.

Q.21 – Q.25 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

21. In the following sentence, you are required to identify the type of aphasia and select the correct sequence from the options given below.

Use of jargon and words that have no meaning are typical of ___________aphasia, while the inability to differentiate between actives and passives is seen in _________ aphasia; some patients use circumlocutions for simple words and this is known as ________ aphasia; in patients with __________aphasia, production and comprehension may be reasonably preserved, butthe ability to repeat an utterance is disrupted.

(A)  Wernicke’s, Broca’s, Anomic, Conduction

(B)  Broca’s, Wernicke’s, Conduction, Dysphonia

(C)  Anomic, Conduction, Broca’s, Wernicke’s

(D)  Dysphonia, Anomic, Wernicke’s, Broca’s

22. Match the dialogues in (P-S) to the Gricean Maxim (i-v) that has been flouted to create humour.

(A)  P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iv)

(B)  P-(i), Q-(v), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(C)  P-(i), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(v)

(D)  P-(iv), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(i)

23. Sign languages have long been used by the deaf communities to communicate amongst themselves. Which of the following is correct?

(A)  Sign language shows duality of patterning with meaningless gestures combining to create single signs.

(B)  Signs in sign languages are dominantly iconic and transparent with respect to the meaning they encode.

(C)  Children who are hearing-impaired do not converge on a language without instruction in signing and/or speaking.

(D)  Sign languages are pidgin like, rudimentary communication systems.

24. In the sentence “The gunman sprayed the building with bullets”, the preposition phrase (PP) ‘with bullets’ is attached to ______.

(A)  ‘sprayed’, because it meets the selectional restriction of ‘sprayed’

(B)  ‘sprayed’, because it serves as the adjunct of the verb ‘sprayed’

(C)  ‘the gunman’, because the gunman has the gun

(D)  ‘the building’, because of proximity

25. Consider the sentence “Little children marched past the church sang”. Assume the starting rule of the context free grammar describing the language to be S→NP VP, where S is the start symbol, NP is the noun phrase and VP is the verb phrase. For the given sentence, how many words does VP contain?

(A)  One

(B)  Two

(C)  Three

(D)  Four

Q.26 – Q.40 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

26.

The above figure shows what is called a finite state machine. The machine reads one word at a time and transitions to a new state. The states are indicated by boxes and the transitions by arrows. There are three states S0,S1 and S2 and the last is the final state (indicated by two coincident boxes).The text beside each arrow means the following: DT = determiner (a, an, the), AJ = adjective, NN = noun. The machine starts at S0 and on seeing a

determiner (DT) enters the state S1. Then if it sees an adjective (AJ), i tremains in the same state. But at state S1 if it sees a noun (NN), it enters the final state. The final state is also called the “accept” state. No other states or

state transitions are defined or permitted.

Which of the following will cause the machine to enter S2, the accept state?

(A)  The blue sky

(B)  A vast blue sky

(C)  The sky

(D)  A very blue sky

27. Which of the following has/have been observed in speech perception experiments?

(A)  Speech perception experiments with infants show that they are sensitive at birth to the rhythmic properties of their language, as well as the difference between stress-timed and syllable-timed languages.

(B)  Infants and adults show categorical perception of consonant sounds, that is, the ability to treat what is a continuous acoustic feature as discrete.

(C)  Infants are sensitive to sounds that are not part of the phonemic inventory of the language(s) to which they are exposed, but older children and adults are not.

(D)  The Phoneme Restoration effect seen in speech perception experiments (where people hear phonemes that have been replaced by noise or a cough) shows that  speech is perceived as linear.

28. Language games are a way to manipulate spoken words as the following examples from three languages show. Identify the correct statement(s) below about language games.

(A)  The intent is to disguise or conceal conversation.

(B)  Words are manipulated systematically using defined rules.

(C)  The game manipulation targets varying units of the phonological form.

(D)  Only children use language games.

29. What can be said about the intent and nature of prescriptive rules for languages?

(A)  Provide criteria for written language.

(B)  Characterise the universal grammar of languages.

(C)  Characterise inter-dialectal differences.

(D)  Encode changes to spoken language.

30. The use of singular they was voted ‘the word of the decade’ by linguists. Which of the following motivates the singular use?

(A)  The use of they in the singular replaces the sex specific he and she pronouns.

(B)  Using gendered pronouns can lead to gendered interpretations of the messages.

(C)  Sometimes the gender information is not known and it is easier to use they thanhe/she.

(D)  English is a sexist language.

31. Tok Pisin (Papua New Guinea) is an extended Pidgin/Creole language. Words borrowed from English are modified in various ways. Given the word list below, study the phonological modifications and choose the correct generalisation(s).

(A)  Only single onsets permitted.

(B)  Vowel epenthesis to create syllable nuclei.

(C)  Fortition of fricatives to stops.

(D)  Obligatory null codas.

32. Consider the following set of Phrase Structure Rules in a toy grammar:

[Note: T is tense, P is preposition, V is verb and N is noun; they project their respective phrasal units TP, PP, VP and NP]

TP → NP T VP

VP → (Adverb) V (TP) (PP)

PP → P NP

Which of the following sentences can be generated by these rules?

(A)  The golden bells are probably ringing in the church.

(B)  Bells ring to let believers know that mass will begin.

(C)  The golden bells in the church always ring for prayers.

(D)  The silent bells say that the pastor has not visited the bell tower.

33. Evaluate the following according to the three principles of the Binding Theory and choose the correct statement(s).

(Note: the subscripted <i> indicates co-reference between the arguments

that bear them.)

(A)  The sentence Everyone who meets Tagorei admires himi is permitted by the principles of the Binding Theory.

(B)  The sentence Every one of his followers says that hei likes Tagorei is ruled out by the Binding Theory.

(C)  The sentence Tagorei seems to ask himselfi about effects of education is permitted by the Binding Theory.

(D)  The sentence Everyone who meets himi admires Tagorei is ruled out by the Binding Theory.

34. Given the facts (i-iv) about the World Cup, evaluate the statements using truth conditions and the truth tables of connectors to find the ‘false’ statement(s).

(i) Argentina has won the World Cup twice: 1978, 1986

(ii) Germany has won it four times: 1954, 1974, 1990, 2014

(iii) France has won it twice: 1998, 2018

(iv) Japan has never won it

(A)  If [Argentina won the World Cup in 1986] then [Germany won it in 1998].

(B)  [Germany didn’t win the World Cup in 1986] and [France won it in 1990].

(C)  [Argentina didn’t win the World Cup in 1986] or [Japan has never won theWorld Cup].

(D)  If [Argentina didn’t win the World Cup in 1978] then [France won it in 1990].

35. For which of the following sentence(s) can the assigned presupposition (P) hold?

(A)  Who discovered the Silverback Slug in 1960?

P: Someone discovered the Silverback Slug in 1960.

(B)  If she had drunk coffee this morning, she would have been more alert.

P: She had not drunk coffee.

(C)  Ruchi’s parents returned to Alaska over the summer.

(D)  The police ordered the students to stop drinking.

P: The students were drunk.

36. Consider carefully the following data from four languages. Which deduction(s) can plausibly be made using the methods of comparative reconstruction?

(A)  Languages A and D are closely related.

(B)  Language A is distantly related to Language C.

(C)  Language D is distantly related to Language B.

(D)  Languages A,B,C and D are all unrelated languages.

37. Analyse the following Shakespearean sentences, and observe the differences between Early Modern English and Modern English – that is, how you would say these sentences today. What can we say in precise, grammatical terms about the syntactic changes that have occurred?

(A)  The agreement forms of Early Modern English included a different form for 2ndperson, singular subjects.

(B)  In wh-and yes-no questions the main verb can raise to Head, CP [Complementizer Phrase].

(C)  Pronominal forms are unchanged from Early Modern into Modern English.

(D)  Auxiliary verbs could raise to T [Tense] in Early Modern English but not mainverbs.

38. The following utterances were produced by a child aged 3 years.

(i) Put him in the bathtub.

(ii) We eated gummy bears.

(iii) Thank you for giving us these books.

(iv) I don’t know … I knowed her!

(v) He bited my finger. (After correction: He bitted my finger.)

(vi) I runned in the water.

(vii) I rided on an elephant.

Which of the following statement(s) can be deduced from the data?

(A)  The child differentiates between lexical and non-lexical categories of English.

(B)  The child has acquired the Spec-Head and Complement-Head orders of English.

(C)  The child has acquired case marking in English.

(D)  The child has not yet acquired the rule of past tense formation in English.

39. The human speech production system is characterised by which of the following?

(A)  A laryngeal source

(B)  A vocal tract that acts as a filter

(C)  A vocal tract that acts as a resonator

(D)  A laryngeal resonator

40. Which of the following kinds of evidence are offered in support of an innateness view of the human language ability?

(A)  All humans, no matter how primitive their societies, have the capacity forlanguage.

(B)  Children learn the language(s) in their environment without explicit instruction.

(C)  Speakers of all languages are capable of producing and understanding an infinitenumber of sentences.

(D)  All languages and their grammars change through time.

Philosophy (XH-C4)

Q.1 – Q.20 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

1. What is the mood of the following syllogistic argument?

Therefore, Some Activists are Professors.

(A)  A I I

(B)  I I I

(C)  I A I

(D)  A I A

2. What is the formal fallacy committed in the following syllogistic argument?

No Students are tested Covid-positive.

Some Covid-positive cases are not Professors.

Therefore, Some Professors are not Students.

(A)  Fallacy of Exclusive Premises

(B)  Fallacy of Illicit Major

(C)  Fallacy of Illicit Minor

(D)  Fallacy of Excluded Middle

3. The Philosophy of Aurobindo may aptly be identified as

(A)  Integral Non-dualism.

(B)  Non-dualism.

(C)  Integral Dualism.

(D)  Dualism.

4. Scientists in the Institute of Virology tested Influenza-affected patients in Wuhan for all known acute respiratory diseases but could not establish the cause for their influenza from the set of known causes. Hence, they inferred for the first time that a Novel Corona Virus is the

cause of their disease.

(A)  Method of Residues

(B)  Method of Difference

(C)  Method of Agreement

(D)  Joint method of Agreement and Difference

5. In his Republic, Plato makes four-fold classification of the possible objects of knowledge. Where does he place Mathematical Objects?

(A)  Dianoia [Thought]

(B)  Noesis [Understanding]

(C)  Pistis [Belief]

(D)  Eikasia [Imagination]

6. According to Plato, which among the following is NOT a cardinal virtue?

(A)  Autonomy

(B)  Courage

(C)  Justice

(D)  Wisdom

7. In Plato’s Republic, the guardians of the ideal state reserve the right to govern because

(A)  it is their duty.

(B)  it is their birth-right.

(C)  they are democratically elected.

(D)  they have exclusive command over military power.

8. What is true of Rāmānuja’s Viśiṣṭādvaita?

(A)  It accepts the conception of qualified Brahman.

(B)  It accepts the conception of formless and non-qualified Brahman.

(C)  It considers the individual soul/self (cit) as unreal.

(D)  It considers the world (acit) as unreal.

9. In the Mīmāmsā system, apūrva stands for a link/relation between

(A)  an act (action) and its fruit.

(B)  the past and the present.

(C)  Perception and Inference.

(D)  Creator and Creation.

10. The conception of jīva in Advaita stands for:

(A)  Individual self

(B)  Universal Self

(C)  Liberated self

(D)  Living beings

11. What among the following is in conformity with Leibniz’s metaphysical assertion of Pre-established Harmony?

(A)  There is a mutual coordination of mind and body.

(B)  Mind and body are different kinds of substances.

(C)  The mind can causally influence the body.

(D)  Cause of a mental state cannot be any previous state of that mind.

12. In Edmund Husserl’s phenomenology, eidetic reduction is meant to provide access to the sphere of

(A)  essential structures of pure psychic processes.

(B)  accidental structures of psychic processes.

(C)  inner experience as such.

(D)  transcendental phenomena.

13. In Jaina classification of knowledge, Mati includes

(A)  both Perception and Inference.

(B)  only Perception.

(C)  only Inference.

(D)  Inference and Authority (śruta).

14. Among the four Brahmavihāras of Buddhism, ___________ evokes happiness at the joy and success of others.

(A)  Muditā

(B)  Maitrī

(C)  Karuṇā

(D)  Upekṣā

Mā karmaphalaheturbhūrmā te sango’stvakarmaṇi.

[Your right is for action alone, never for the results. Do not become theagent of the results of action. May you not have any inclination forinaction.] (Bhagavadgītā 2: 47)

This above quoted verse is a standard reference to:

(A)  Karma-yoga

(B)  Bhakti-yoga

(C)  Jñāna-yoga

(D)  Rāja-yoga

16. Which among the following is predominantly a non-dualistic philosophical system?

(A)  Kāṣmir Śaivism

(B)  Śaiva-siddhānta

(C)  Vīra-śaivism

(D)  Vaiṣṇavism

17. Gandhi’s doctrine of Trusteeship establishes a normative relationship between labour and capital. Indicate which of the following is NOT in agreement with this doctrine?

(A)  Class struggle is the key to social development and economic equality.

(B)  The capitalists would function only as trustees for the poor and working class.

(C)  The capitalist would keep the surplus wealth in trust in order to have economicequality and solidarity.

(D)  The capitalists would be made to realise the wealth in their hands is the fruit ofthe labour of the workers.

18. Which of the following is NOT a pramāṇa in the Nyāya system?

(A)  Anupalabdhi (Non-apprehension)

(B)  Upamāna (Comparison)

(C)  Anumāna (Inference)

(D)  Pratyakṣa (Perception)

19. In the Vaiśeṣika system, which of the following is a padārtha (category)?

(A)  Guṇa (Quality)

(B)  Ᾱtman (Spirit/Soul)

(C)  Tejas (Fire)

(D)  Vāyu (Air)

20. Identify which among the following is NOT a characteristic of a simple idea according to John Locke.

(A)  Varying in its appearance or conception

(B)  Cannot be further divided into other simple ideas

(C)  Distinctly clear

(D)  Unambiguous

Q.21 – Q.40 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

21. Which of the following are in accordance to Democritus’ cosmology?

(A)  The cosmos has an underlying order.

(B)  Fundamental units of the reality are atoms.

(C)  Atoms are extended but indivisible and indestructible.

(D)  Atoms are weightless, shapeless and always in a state of rest.

22. For Immanuel Kant, which of the following statements are appropriate examples of synthetic a priori judgment?

(A)  2 + 2 = 4

(B)  The shortest distance between two points is a straight line.

(C)  For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

(D)  God is a perfect being.

23. In the Sānkhya system, which among the following are antaḥkaraṇas?

(A)  Buddhi (Intellect)

(B)  Ahamkāra (Ego)

(C)  Jñānedriyas (Sensory Organs)

(D)  Karmendriyas (Motor Organs)

24. Which of the following are meant by Kant’s notion of autonomy of will?

(A)  A recognition of the will as duty-bound.

(B)  The will is not bound by empirical laws.

(C)  The will is not bound by material objects of desire.

(D)  The will is only determined by the material principle of self-love.

25. On which of the following, Plato and Aristotle DISAGREE concerning the realm of the political?

(A)  Women, in principle, are barred from participation in the political realm.

(B)  The best form of government entails the concentration of power in a limited few.

(C)  Manual labourers, traders, and businessmen are not fit for political powers.

(D)  The ethical and the political are intricately connected.

26. Which among the following are part of yama in Patanjali’s Aṣṭānga-Yoga?

(A)  Ahimsā (Non-violence)

(B)  Satya (Truthfulness)

(C)  Aparigraha (Detachment)

(D)  Iśvara-praṇidhāna (Devotion to God)

27. Progress of the modern sciences and reflection on method have led to the development of new fields of analysis in Renaissance Philosophy. Which among the following correctly trace the influence of a particular science on a particular philosopher’s thought?

(A)  Mathematics on Rene Descartes

(B)  Mechanics on Thomas Hobbes

(C)  Historical science on G.W.F. Hegel

(D)  Biology and the evolutionary hypothesis on Francis Bacon

28. Gottlob Frege, in his Sense and Reference, discusses the identity relation between the statements “a=a” and “a=b”. Which of the following are his conclusions?

(A)  Identity relation is between names or signs of objects.

(B)  They are statements of differing cognitive value.

(C)  The two ensuing judgments of the statements are different.

(D)  Sense expressed in the two statements are the same.

29. If Descartes’ Meditations is credited for a modern version of mind-body dualism, which statements among the following hold true in accordance with it?

(A)  Descartes is a substance dualist.

(B)  Mind is essentially a thinking thing.

(C)  Essential property of matter is determined by the form.

(D)  Both, mind and body are indivisible.

30. John Stuart Mill, in his Utilitarianism, proposes the conception of Utility or Happiness as the directive rule of human conduct. Which of the following are drawn from his conception of Happiness to form the utilitarian standard?

(A)  Happiness of all concerned is overriding.

(B)  The agent acts as a disinterested spectator.

(C)  The agent’s own happiness is paramount.

(D)  Impartiality cannot be maintained in action.

31. Which among the following statements does W.V.O. Quine REJECT in his work, Two Dogmas of Empiricism?

(A)  The distinction between analytic and synthetic truths.

(B)  Every meaningful statement can be reduced to a statement about immediate experience.

(C)  Truths which are grounded in meanings are dependent on truths which are grounded in fact.

(D)  The verification theory of meaning is not a possible key to resolve the problem of meaning.

i. Greater welfare of others is to be valued more than the individual freedom.

ii. Only when the conception of justice is on hand, the ideas of respect and human dignity can be given a more definite meaning.

iii. Principles of justice are derived from the ideas of respect and human dignity.

iv. The loss of freedom for some is not made right by a greater welfare of others.

In light of the theory of justice as fairness, as proposed by John Rawls, which of following pairs of statement DO NOT agree with Rawl’s position?

(A)  i and iii

(B)  iii and iv

(C)  ii and iv

(D)  i and ii

33. George Berkeley, in his Principles of Human Knowledge, reflects on the nature of thought and attacks abstract ideas. Which among the following hold true to his view?

(A)  There cannot be an idea of anything essentially independent of mind.

(B)  One cannot conceive of the unperceived.

(C)  Any idea is essentially independent of mind.

(D)  One can conceive of the unperceived.

34. In his An Enquiry Concerning Human Understanding, Hume relies on a basic distinction between two forms of perception. Which among the following are true about it?

(A)  Perceptions are understood as the items of our mental world.

(B)  Impressions and ideas are two categories of perceptions.

(C)  Ideas are derived from impressions.

(D)  Impressions include sensations, desires, and passions.

35. In Martin Heidegger’s Being and Time, which among the following correctly describe Dasein?

(A)  Inquiring is one of the possibilities of Dasein’s Being.

(B)  Understanding of Being is a definite characteristic of Dasein’s Being.

(C)  Dasein always understands itself in terms of its existence.

(D)  Dasein is closest to us but it is not we ourselves.

“There is … a subtler domination exercised in the sphere of ideas by one culture on another, a domination all the more serious in the consequence, because it is not ordinarily felt… Slavery begins when one ceases to feel the evil and it deepens when the evil is accepted as a good. Cultural subjection is ordinarily of an unconscious character and it implies slavery from the very start. When I speak of cultural subjection, I do not mean the assimilation of an alien culture. That assimilation need not be an evil; it may be positively necessary for healthy progress and in any case it does not mean a lapse of freedom. There is cultural subjection only when one’s traditional cast of ideas and sentiments is superseded without comparison or competition by a new cast representing an alien culture which possesses one like a ghost.” (K.C.Bhattacharyya, Swaraj in Ideas, p.13)

In the light of the passage above, cultural subjection amounts to

(A)  an uncritical assimilation of foreign culture.

(B)  an inability to accurately distinguish the good from the evil.

(D)  a complete rejection of foreign ideas.

i. Rahul is not what he is and is what he is not.

ii. The book is a book and can be nothing more.

iii. Of course, a book is a book, but it can always be something more.

iv. Rahul is what he is and must always be so.

Which of the following pairs of statements given below is NOT compatible with Jean-Paul Sartre’s Existential Philosophy?

(A)  iii and iv

(B)  i and iii

(C)  ii and iv

(D)  i and ii

Answer: (A OR A; B; C)

38. Which of the following philosophical tenets are admissible in Cārvāka philosophy?

(A)  The soul is nothing but the conscious body.

(B)  Consciousness arises from matter.

(C)  Death alone is liberation.

(D)  Earth, water, fire, air, and ether are elements.

‘While I condemn a religion of rules, I must not be understood to hold theopinion that there is no necessity for a religion. On the contrary, I agree with Burke when he says that “True religion is the foundation of society, the basis on which all true Civil Government rests, and both their sanction.”Consequently, when I urge that these ancient rules of life be annulled, I amanxious that their place shall be taken by a religion of principles, which alone can lay claim to being a true religion.’ (B. R. Ambedkar, Annihilation of Caste,24.1)

From the above passage, which among the following accurately represents Ambedkar’s view on foundation of society?

(A)  Religion of principles should provide the foundation of society.

(B)  Traditional religion should provide the foundation of society.

(C)  Religion of rules should provide a foundation of society.

(D)  Religion is not necessary at all for the foundation of society.

40. Which among the following statements are justifiably held from Thomas Hobbes’ political theory on the social contract, in his book Leviathan?

(A)  It is founded on the hypothetical State of Nature.

(B)  All men are made by nature to be equals, therefore, no one has a natural right togovern others.

(C)  All are to submit to the authority of an absolute sovereign power.

(D)  People can live together only by submitting their individual, particular wills tothe collective will.

Psychology (XH-C5)

Q.1 – Q.19 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

1. According to the Path-Goal theory of leadership, a style of leadership in which the leader consults with subordinates, involving them in the decision making process is _________.

(A)  participative

(B)  directive

(C)  supportive

(D)  achievement oriented

2. A process to test reliability that involves creating a large ‘bank’ of items and then dividing it into different versions or creating two tests with items of similar difficulty is called _________.

(A)  alternate and parallel form reliability

(B)  measure of test homogeneity

(C)  test-retest

(D)  inter-rater reliability

3. Delusion of ‘reference’ is a symptom of schizophrenia in which people _______.

(A)  believe that random events or comments are directed at them

(B)  believe that their thoughts are being broadcasted

(C)  believe they have special powers

(D)  have sensory experiences in the absence of stimulus

4. A student who has prepared inadequately for an exam attributes his failing grade to an unfair test, cheating by other students or a professor whotaught badly, is expressing __________.

(A)  projection

(B)  reaction formation

(C)  repression

(D)  rationalization

5. Which of the following theories of emotion best fits with the statement that perception of an environmental situation results in emotions and both, felt emotion and bodily reactions in emotions are independent of each other, but triggered simultaneously?

(A)  Cannon-Bard Theory

(B)  Lazarus’s Cognitive Appraisal Theory

(C)  Schachter-Singer Theory

(D)  James-Lange Theory

6. The perceived fairness of the distribution of resources and rewards is described as _____.

(A)  distributive justice

(B)  procedural justice

(C)  interactional justice

(D)  informational justice

7. According to Bandura’s theory of personality, which one of the following is the most important person variables in determining personality?

(A)  Self-efficacy

(B)  Self-concept

(C)  Self-esteem

(D)  Self-determination

8. Match the events in the first column with the different categories of stress in the second column.

(A)  P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(B)  P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)

(C)  P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv)

(D)  P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iii)

9. Which of the following types of colour blindness denotes blue-yellow colourdeficiency?

(A)  Tritanopia

(B)  Protanopia

(C)  Dueteranopia

(D)  Ritalin

10. Which of the following properties of sound is similar to the hue of light?

(A)  Pitch

(B)  Timbre

(C)  Loudness

(D)  Purity

11. _______ is a reinforcement schedule, where a person or animal receives the reinforcement based on varying amount of time.

(A)  Variable-interval

(B)  Fixed-ratio

(C)  Fixed-interval

(D)  Variable-ratio

12. ________ is a loss of memory of events that occurred prior to the trauma.

(C)  Infantile amnesia

(D)  Posthypnotic amnesia

13. Phobias and Obsessive Compulsive Disorder fall in the category of _________.

(A)  anxiety disorders

(B)  mood disorders

(C)  somatoform disorders

(D)  psychotic disorders

14. The smallest unit of speech perception that has meaning is _______.

(A)  morpheme

(B)  syntax

(C)  semantics

(D)  phoneme

15. In adolescence, with the development of the stage of ‘formal operations’, weare likely to see the development of ________.

(A)  post-conventional morality

(B)  pre-conventional morality

(C)  bodily-kinesthetic intelligence

(D)  transference

16. Which technique allows researchers to conduct an integrative statistical analysis of multiple independent studies addressing the same question?

(A)  Meta-analysis

(B)  Correlational analysis

(C)  Regression analysis

(D)  Bootstrapping

17. The role of culture and ‘scaffolding’ are emphasized in _________.

(A)  Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development

(B)  Piaget’s theory of cognitive development

(C)  Atkinson-Shiffrin’s information-processing model

(D)  Kamiloff-Smith’s theory of cognitive development

18. Most people tend NOT to consider situational factors while judging others’ behaviour because _______.

(A)  people are inclined to commit the fundamental attribution error

(B)  of the frustration-aggression relationship

(C)  people are influenced by the laws of reinforcement

(D)  of the overjustification effect

19. Using archival analysis, scientists describe a culture by _______.

(A)  examining documents like magazines, diaries and newspapers

(B)  surveying a representative sample of members of the society

(C)  observing the behaviour of members of the society

(D)  comparing the direct observations of behaviour from different cultures

Q.20 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

20. Which is/are the component(s) of Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences?

(A)  Logical-Mathematical intelligence

(B)  Linguistic intelligence

(C)  Spatial intelligence

(D)  Insight

Q.21 – Q.23 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

21. Match the neurotransmitter in the first column with its effect in the second column.

(A)  P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(B)  P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(v)

(C)  P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)

(D)  P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(v), S-(iii)

22. Match the depth cues in the first column with their description in the second column.

(A)  P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

(B)  P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i)

(C)  P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(D)  P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

23. Match the concepts in the first column with the description in the second column.

(A)  P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)

(B)  P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(iv)

(C)  P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii)

(D)  P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

Q.24 – Q.40 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

24. Which of the following will hold true for a learning acquisition curve drawn for a classical conditioning experiment on eye blinking as conditioned response that plots the learning over a number of trials?

(A)  The rate of learning on earlier trials is more than that on later trials.

(B)  The learning curve is negatively accelerated.

(C)  The rate of learning in later trials will be more than that on earlier trials.

(D)  The rate of learning is proportionally increasing with increasing number of trials.

25. In the situation where ‘A teenager who hates studying science but is also not able to tell his parents fearing their reaction’, what is the conflict he is facing and which of these may be his way of dealing with this situation?

(A)  Avoidance-Avoidance conflict, he will keep vacillating between telling his parents and continuing to study science.

(B)  Avoidance-Avoidance conflict, he may contemplate running away from his home.

(C)  Approach-Avoidance conflict, he will experience some emotional turmoil.

(D)  Multiple Approach-Avoidance conflict, he will be guided by internal values.

26. Which of these is true about individuals high on n-achievement motivation?

(A)  High n-achievement individuals like to work on situations where they have control and can get feedback.

(B)  High n-achievement individuals persistently work on tasks they perceive as, either reflecting their personal characteristics like intelligence or are career-related.

(C)  High n-achievement individuals prefer working on extremely challenging tasksfor bigger gains.

(D)  High n-achievement individuals avoid changing their aspiration levels.

27. Which of the following is/are Allport’s basic assumption(s) concerning human nature?

(A)  Human growth as an active process of “becoming”.

(B)  Personality cannot be fully understood by examining each trait separately, though some system of conceptual schemata are essential for personality study and a trait must be related to the total pattern of personality.

(C)  Personality is organized in a topographical model.

(D)  All human events are determined by powerful instinctual forces.

28. Which of the following aspects are characteristics of the group structure in an organizational context?

(A)  Task-oriented role (the activities of an individual that involve helping the group reach the goal).

(B)  Socio-emotional role (the activities of an individual that involve being supportive and nurturing of other group members).

(C)  Prescriptive norms (expectations within groups regarding what has to be done).

(D)  Monitoring (observing work performance).

29. Which of the following needs/motives are proposed by Abraham Maslow?

(A)  Deficit needs.

(B)  Metaneeds.

(C)  Self-actualization needs.

(D)  Need-achievement.

30. A researcher is conducting a study involving two independent variables. Which of the following Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) is/are available to him/her?

(A)  2 × 2 ANOVA.

(B)  4 × 3 ANOVA.

(C)  3 × 2 × 2 ANOVA.

(D)  One-way ANOVA.

31. Which of the following statements is true about personal space?

(A)  It is silent and invisible.

(B)  It is a geographic component of interpersonal relations.

(C)  Invasions of personal space are a matter of degree.

(D)  There are no across culture variations.

32. If a person got a score of 75 on a test, which of the following distributions allow(s) for the most favourable interpretation of that score? (assuming higher values are more favourable)

(A)  Mean = 55, Standard Deviation = 4

(B)  Mean = 60, Standard Deviation = 3

(C)  Mean = 65, Standard Deviation = 5

(D)  Mean = 50, Standard Deviation = 10

33. A man’s wife is dying. She is in dire need of a drug. The only place to get the drug is at the store of a pharmacist who is known to overcharge people for drugs. The man can only pay Rs. 20000 but the pharmacist wants Rs. 50000, and refuses to sell it to him for less, or to let him pay later. What will the man do

if he is at the conventional stage of morality as per Kohlberg’s theory ofmoral reasoning?

(A)  He would not steal the drug, as everyone will see him as a thief, and his wife would not approve of his stealing or accept the stolen drug.

(B)  No matter what, he would obey the law because stealing is a crime.

(C)  The man would not steal the drug, as he may get caught and go to jail.

(D)  The man would steal the drug to cure his wife and then tell the authorities what he has done. He may have to pay a penalty, but at least he would have saved ahuman life.

34. According to Erik Erikson, identity versus role confusion is the fifth stage of life span development. Which of the following outcomes may emerge as a result of identity crisis?

(A)  Identity diffusion

(B)  Identity moratorium

(C)  Identity foreclosure

(D)  Identity perception

35. Life span experts argue that biological aging begins at birth. Which of the following is/are explanation/s of aging?

(A)  Cells can divide to a maximum of about 75 to 80 times and that as people age, cells become less capable of dividing.

(B)  People age because when cells metabolize energy, the by-products include unstable oxygen molecules known as free radicals.

(C)  Aging is due to the decay of mitochondria.

(D)  Cell division increases as people age.

36. Which of the following are involved in sympathetic nervous system activation?

(A)  Inhibited salivation

(B)  Increased heart rate

(C)  Inhibited digestion

(D)  Constricted pupils

37. How is/are genetic theories of psychopathology tested?

(A)  Using twin studies

(B)  Using family history studies

(D)  Using psychodynamic studies

38. An investigator approached college students who initially believed that water should be purified and asked them to compose and recite a videotaped speech against the use of water purifiers. To do this, some were offered large

incentives and others were offered small incentives. Later their attitudes towards water purifiers were tested. Which of the following will be the expected finding(s)?

(A)  The smaller the incentive, the greater will be the attitude change.

(B)  All the students will change their attitudes towards water purifiers.

(C)  All the students will continue to feel favourably about water purifiers.

(D)  The larger the incentive, the greater will be the attitude change.