## GATE Exam 2022 Life Sciences (XL) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2022

XL: Life Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. The movie was funny and I _________.

(A) could help laughing

(B) couldn’t help laughed

(C) couldn’t help laughing

(D) could helped laughed

2.

What is the value of

(A)  0.75

(B) 1.25

(C) 2.25

(D) 3.25

3. Both the numerator and the denominator of 3/4 are increased by a positive integer, x, and those of 15/17 are decreased by the same integer. This operation results in the same value for both the fractions.

What is the value of x ?

(A)  1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

4. A survey of 450 students about their subjects of interest resulted in the following outcome.

• 150 students are interested in Mathematics.

• 200 students are interested in Physics.

•175 students are interested in Chemistry.

• 50 students are interested in Mathematics and Physics.

• 60 students are interested in Physics and Chemistry.

• 40 students are interested in Mathematics and Chemistry.

• 30 students are interested in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry.

• Remaining students are interested in Humanities.

Based on the above information, the number of students interested in Humanities is

(A)  10

(B) 30

(C) 40

(D) 45

5.

For the picture shown above, which one of the following is the correct picture representing reflection with respect to the mirror shown as the dotted line?

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks each.

6. In the last few years, several new shopping malls were opened in the city. The total number of visitors in the malls is impressive. However, the total revenue generated through sales in the shops in these malls is generally low.

Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information in the above passage?

(A) Fewer people are visiting the malls but spending more

(B) More people are visiting the malls but not spending enough

(C) More people are visiting the malls and spending more

(D) Fewer people are visiting the malls and not spending enough

7. In a partnership business the monthly investment by three friends for the first six months is in the ratio 3: 4: 5. After six months, they had to increase their monthly investments by 10%, 15% and 20%, respectively, of their initial monthly investment. The new investment ratio was kept constant for the next six months.

What is the ratio of their shares in the total profit (in the same order) at the end of the year such that the share is proportional to their individual total investment over the year?

(A) 22 : 23 : 24

(B) 22 : 33 : 50

(C) 33 : 46 : 60

(D) 63 : 86 : 110

8. Consider the following equations of straight lines:

Line L1: 2x– 3y = 5

Line L2: 3x + 2y = 8

Line L3: 4x– 6y = 5

Line L4: 6x– 9y = 6

Which one among the following is the correct statement?

(A) L1 is parallel to L2 and L1 is perpendicular to L3

(B) L2 is parallel to L4 and L2 is perpendicular to L1

(C) L3 is perpendicular to L4 and L3 is parallel to L2

(D) L4 is perpendicular to L2 and L4 is parallel to L3

9. Given below are two statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements.

Statement 1: Some soaps are clean.

Statement 2: All clean objects are wet.

Conclusion I: Some clean objects are soaps.

Conclusion II: No clean object is a soap.

Conclusion III: Some wet objects are soaps.

Conclusion IV: All wet objects are soaps.

Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

(A) Only conclusion I is correct

(B) Either conclusion I or conclusion II is correct

(C) Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct

(D) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct

10. An ant walks in a straight line on a plane leaving behind a trace of its movement. The initial position of the ant is at point P facing east.

The ant first turns 72° anticlockwise at P, and then does the following two steps in sequence exactly FIVE times before halting.

(1) moves forward for 10 cm.

(2) turns 144o clockwise.

The pattern made by the trace left behind by the ant is

Chemistry (XL-P)

Q.11 – Q.19 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Consider a second order reaction, 2A ⟶ Product

The concentration of A is represented as [A].

Which of the following is the CORRECT plot for determining the rate constant for the above reaction?

12. Which among the following has the least second ionization energy?

(A)  Al

(B) Si

(C) P

(D) S

13. Which among the following metal ions has the highest enthalpy of hydration?

(Assume the given metal ions have the same counter ion.)

Given: Atomic numbers of Ti, V, Cr and Mn are 22, 23, 24 and 25, respectively.

(A)  Ti2+

(B) V2+

(C) Cr2+

(D) Mn2+

14. Among the following, the one having smallest bond angle is

(A)  PH3

(B) PF3

(C) NF3

(D) NH3

15. Which of the following is the CORRECT statement about hexoses?

(A) D-mannose is C- 4 epimer of D-glucose

(B) D-galactose is C- 2 epimer of D-glucose

(C) D-glucose and L-glucose are diastereomers

(D) D-glucose and D-galactose are diastereomers

16. The bases present in DNA are

(A) adenine, cytosine, guanine and thymine

(B) adenine, guanine, thymine and uracil

(C) adenine, cytosine, thymine and uracil

(D) cytosine, guanine, thymine and uracil

17. The CORRECT order of basicity for the following compounds is

(A) I > II > III

(B) II > III > I

(C) II > I > III

(D) III > I > II

18. Molar conductance of monobromoacetic acid at infinite dilution is calculated to be x × 104 S m2 mol1 at 25°

The value of x is (round off to the nearest integer)

Given:

(A)  164

(B) 195

(C) 389

(D) 467

19. A sample of benzene, contaminated with a non-volatile and non-ionic solute, boils at 0.31°C higher than that of pure benzene. The molality of the solute in the contaminated solution is ______ (round off to two decimal places).

Given: Gas constant = 8.314 J K1 mol1

Molecular weight of benzene is 78.11 g mol1

Normal boiling point of benzene is 80.1°C

Enthalpy of vaporization of benzene is 30.76 kJ mol1

Q.20 – Q.27 Carry TWO marks Each

20. Among the following statements about cobalt complexes, which is/are CORRECT?

Given: Atomic number of Co is 27

(A) [Co(NH3)4]2+ exhibits square planar geometry

(B) [Co(en)3]3+ does not show optical isomerism (en = ethylenediamine)

(C) [Co(H2O)6]3+ is paramagnetic in nature

(D) [Co(NH3)5Cl)]2+ shows ligand-to-metal charge transfer

21. Consider the following reaction:

The CORRECT statement(s) related to mono-chlorination at carbon-2 position is/are

(A) The reaction proceeds through alkyl radical intermediate

(B) Complete inversion of configuration at carbon-2 takes place

(C) Complete retention of configuration at carbon-2 takes place

(D) A mixture of enantiomers is formed

22. Consider the following enzyme catalyzed reaction:

where E is enzyme, S is substrate, ES is enzyme-substrate complex and P is product.

The CORRECT statement(s) for the above reaction is/are

(A) Maximum possible rate of product formation is dependent on k2 and initial concentration of enzyme.

(B) For a low substrate concentration, the rate of product formation is first order with respect to enzyme and also first order with respect to the substrate.

(C) The rate of product formation is independent of the concentration of enzyme substrate complex.

(D) For a very high substrate concentration, initial rate of product formation is zero order with respect to the substrate.

23. Consider the following reaction:

The CORRECT pathway(s) involved in the reaction is/are

(A) E2 followed by isomerization

(B) E1 followed by isomerization

(C) SN1 followed by isomerization

(D) Isomerization through carbocation

24. An aqueous solution of aspirin (HA) is prepared at pH 7.4. The ratio of concentration of A and HA at equilibrium is ______ (round off to the nearest integer).

Given: Ka of aspirin is 3.98 × 10–4

25. The total number of 3-centre-2-electron bonds in B4H10 is ______ (in integer).

26. The equilibrium constant for isomerization of 1-butene to trans-2-butene at 27°C is ______ (round off to one decimal place).

Given: Gas constant = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

∆fG° of 1-butene = +71.39 kJ mol−1

∆fG° of trans-2-butene = + 63.06 kJ mol−1

27. A 16 mW monochromatic light emits 4×1016 photons in 1 second. When this light incidents on a metal strip, photoelectrons are emitted. The wavelength of the emitted photoelectrons (in Å) is ______ (round off to one decimal place).

Given: Work function of the metal = 2.0 eV

Charge of an electron = 1.6 × 1019 C

Mass of an electron = 9.1 × 1031 kg

Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 1034J s

Biochemistry XL (Q)

Q.28 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

28. Which of the immune cells listed below are agranular?

(P) Eosinophils

(Q) Mast cells

(R) Monocytes

(S) T-cells

(A) P and Q only

(B) Q and R only

(C) R and S only

(D) S and P only

29. Which one of the following enzymes is located in the outer mitochondrial membrane?

(A) Citrate synthase

(B) Fumarase

(C) Monoamine oxidase

(D) Succinate dehydrogenase

30. Which one of the following statements about the DNA polymerase III of E. coli is NOT correct?

(A) It catalyzes nick translation.

(B) Its absence is lethal to E. coli.

(C) It synthesizes a complementary DNA strand using a single-stranded template.

(D) It possesses 3′ → 5′ exonuclease activity.

31. Which one of the following compounds is NOT a translation inhibitor?

(A) Chloramphenicol

(B) Cycloheximide

(C) Puromycin

(D) Rifampicin

32. A dye was allowed to undergo migration on a chromatographic paper using a solvent. The dye, and the solvent-front migrated 5 and 20 cm, respectively, from the point of origin. The retention factor (rounded off to two places of decimals) for the dye is _____.

33. The pKa values of the carboxylic and amino groups of an amino acid with a non-ionizable side chain are 2.17 and 9.13, respectively. The isoelectric point (rounded off to two places of decimals) of this amino acid is _____.

34. The number of ATP molecules required for the complete assimilation of one molecule of CO2 in Calvin cycle is _____.

35. The absorbance of a 5 × 104 M solution of tyrosine at 280 nm wavelength is 0.75. The path length of the cuvette is 1 cm. The molar absorption coefficient at the given wavelength in M1 cm1, correct to the nearest integer, is _____.

Q.36 – Q.46 Carry TWO marks Each

36. Filamentous photosynthetic algae were placed on a microscopic slide and illuminated with light of different colors as illustrated.

The bacteria that are known to migrate towards the region of high O2 were also added uniformly on the slide. Which one of the following options illustrates the distribution of bacteria along the length of the microscopic slide after illumination?

37. Two RNAs shown below were used separately as templates in an in vitro translation system, which can generate proteins in all possible reading frames.

RNA1 : 5′ − (AG) − 3′

RNA2: 5′ − (AAG)­n − 3′

The RNA1 translated product contained Arg and Glu.

The RNA2 translated product contained Arg, Glu, and Lys.

Which one of the following codons directs the incorporation of Arg?

(A)  AAG

(B) AGA

(C) GAA

(D) GAG

38. Which of the following statements about endogenous synthesis of insulin are correct?

(P) Insulin is synthesized as preproinsulin.

(Q) Preproinsulin is converted to proinsulin.

(R) Single-site cleavage of proinsulin eliminates C chain.

(S) Mature insulin consists of disulphide-linked A and B chains.

(A) P, Q, and R

(B) P, Q, and S

(C) P, R, and S

(D) Q, R, and S

39. Which one of the following enzymes converts testosterone to estradiol?

(A) Aromatase

(B) 3β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

(C) 5α-reductase

(D) 17β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

40. Purification of 6×His-tagged protein using Ni-NTA column is an example of ________

(A) affinity chromatography

(B) hydrophobic-interaction chromatography

(C) ion-exchange chromatography

(D) size-exclusion chromatography

41. Which of the following carbohydrates has/have a β1 → 4 glycosidic linkage?

(A) Cellulose

(B) Chitin

(C) Lactose

(D) Maltose

42. Which of the following statements about IgA is/are correct?

(A) It is secreted into colostrum.

(B) It is transported across the cell by transcytosis.

(C) Its secretion is facilitated by poly-Ig receptor.

(D) It primarily exists as a dimer in serum.

43. The standard free energy changes for conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate, and ATP synthesis are shown below.

PEP + H2O ⇌ pyruvate + Pi        ∆G′° = −61.9 kJ ∙ mol−1

ADP + Pi⇌ ATP + H2O              ∆G′° = 30.5 kJ ∙ mol−1

The starting concentrations of PEP, ADP, pyruvate, and ATP are 25, 25, 50,

and 50 mM, respectively. The value of universal gas constant (R) is 8.314 J ∙ mol−1 K−1. The actual free energy change in kJ ∙ mol−1 for the reaction

PEP + ADP ⟶ pyruvate + ATP

carried out at 37°C will be ______ (rounded off to one place of decimal).

44. The dissociation constant for a receptor-ligand pair is 0.25 × 10−7The ligand was added to a solution of the receptor such that the receptor was 50% saturated at equilibrium. Assume that the receptor has one ligand binding site. The concentration of the free ligand at equilibrium in nM, correct to the nearest integer, should be _____

45. The half-maximal velocity of an enzyme catalyzed reaction was found at a substrate concentration of 0.5 × 10−6 This enzyme follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics. In the presence of a competitive inhibitor, the half-maximal velocity was found at a substrate concentration of 1.5 × 10−6 M. Given that the enzyme-inhibitor pair has a dissociation constant of 2 × 10−7 M, the concentration of the competitive inhibitor in μM, rounded off to one place of decimal, was_____.

46. A forty-times diluted sample of ssRNA gave an A260 of 0.01. The concentration of the ssRNA before the dilution in μg/mL was _____ (correct to the nearest integer).

Botany XL (R)

Q.47 – Q.54 Carry ONE mark Each

47. In Angiosperms, normally ‘Exarch Xylem’ occurs in

(A) dicot stem

(B) monocot stem

(C) dicot root

(D) dicot leaf

48. ‘Quiescent Center’ is present in

(A) leaf meristem

(B) root apical meristem

(C) shoot apical meristem

(D) floral meristem

49. With reference to virulence (vir) region of nopaline type Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens, match Group-I (vir gene) and Group-II (coded protein) in CORRECT combination.

(A) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I

(B) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II

(C) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-III

(D) P-I, Q-III, R-II, S-IV

50. Anomalous secondary growth is observed in

(A) Triticum

(B) Oryza

(C) Zea

(D) Dracaena

51. Which of the following plant diseases is/are caused by bacteria?

(A) Angular leaf spot of cotton

(B) Citrus canker

(C) Apple scab

(D) Leaf curl of papaya

52. Phylogenetic system of classification is/are proposed by

(A) Carolus Linnaeus

(B) John Hutchinson

(C) Engler and Prantl

(D) Bentham and Hooker

53. Which of the following is/are part of marine ecosystem?

(A) Open ocean

(B) Chaparral

(C) Deep sea

(D) Estuaries

54. In NADP+-malic enzyme type C4 photosynthesis cycle, n molecule(s) of ATP is/are required for the assimilation of one molecule of CO2. The value of n is ________ (in integer).

Q.55 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

55. An Arabidopsis thaliana mutant plant developed defective flowers with altered floral organ identity and patterning. In this mutant, the four floral whorls contain Sepal-Sepal-Carpel-Carpel, from the periphery to the center of the flower.

Based on the typical ABC model of floral organ patterning, which among thefollowing are mutated in this plant?

(A) Class A gene(s)

(B) Class B gene(s)

(C) Class C gene(s)

(D) Double mutant for Class A and Class C genes

56. Match the secondary metabolites in Group-I with types of secondary metabolites in Group-II in CORRECT order.

(A) P-I, Q-V, R-II, S-IV, T-III

(B) P-V, Q-II, R-IV, S-I, T-III

(C) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-V, T-I

(D) P-V, Q-I, R-II, S-IV, T-III

57. Match Group-I (enzyme), Group-II (reaction catalyzed by the enzyme), and Group-III (subcellular localization of the enzyme and the associated metabolic process) in CORRECT combination.

(A)P-III-a, Q-IV-d, R-I-b, S-II-c

(B)P-II-a, Q-III-d, R-I-b, S-IV-c

(C) P-IV-a, Q-II-b, R-I-d, S-III-c

(D) P-IV-a, Q-II-d, R-I-b, S-III-c

58. Match Group-I (selection agent) and Group-II (gene) in CORRECT combination.

(A)P-III, Q-VI, R-II, S-I

(B) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I

(C) P-I, Q-VI, R-III, S-II

(D) P-II, Q-I, R-V, S-VI

59. Match Group I (plant natural product), Group II (class) and Group III (source plant) in CORRECT combination.

(A)  P-I-d, Q-II-c, R-IV-a, S-III-b

(B) P-III-d, Q-IV-b, R-I-c, S-II-a

(C) P-II-a, Q-III-b, R-I-d, S-IV-c

(D) P-III-d, Q-I-c, R-IV-b, S-II-a

60. Match Group I (plant disease), Group II (causal organism) and Group III (affected plant) in CORRECT combination.

(A) P-II-a, Q-V-b, R-III-d, S-I-e

(B) P-III-d, Q-V-c, R-II-e, S-IV-f

(C) P-III-d, Q-V-c, R-I-b, S-II-e

(D) P-V-c, Q-I-d, R-VI-b, S-II-e

61. Make CORRECT match between Group-I and Group-II, in relation to interaction between two species.

(A) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV

(B) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I

(C) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I

(D) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I

62. Which of the following matches is/are CORRECT?

(A)  Surface fibre – Cotton – Gossypium hirsutum

(B)  Bast fibre – Flax – Corchorus capsularis

(C)  Drying oil – Safflower oil – Helianthus annuus

(D) Non-drying oil – Castor oil – Ricinus communis

63. Which of the following is/are phanerogamic parasite(s)?

(A) Cuscuta reflexa

(B) Orobanche cernua

(C) Ocimum sanctum

(D) Santalum album

64. When a true breeding tall plant containing red flowers was crossed with the true breeding dwarf plant containing white flowers, all F1 plants were tall with red flowers. When the F1 plant was self-pollinated, considering independent assortment of plant height and flower colour traits, the calculated percentage probability of dwarf plants bearing red flowers in the F2 generation is ________ per cent (round off to 2 decimal places).

65. A hypothetical plant gene ADSH22 is encoded by the nuclear genome. The length of the mature mRNA for ADSH22 is 2150 nucleotides (nts). This mRNA has a 270 nts long 5′ UTR and 200 nts long 3′ UTR. Taking average molecular weight of an amino acid as 115 Dalton (Da), the calculated molecular weight of ADSH22 protein is ________ kDa (round off to 1 decimal place).

Microbiology XL (S)

Q.66 – Q.73 Carry ONE mark Each

66. The terminal acceptor of electron during anaerobic respiration in Methanococcus is ______________.

(A) Nitrate ion

(B) Sulfate ion

(C) Carbon dioxide

(D) Oxygen

67. Which one of the following mutagens convert DNA’s adenine to hypoxanthine?

(A) Ultraviolet light

(B) Mitomycin C

(C) Methyl methanesulfonate

(D) Nitrous acid

68. Which one of the following leukocytes are present in the largest proportion in healthy human blood?

(A) Neutrophils

(B) Eosinophils

(C) Basophiles

(D) Monocytes

69. The site of photosynthesis in cyanobacteria is ____________.

(A) Chloroplast

(B) Chromatophores

(C) Thylakoids

(D) Chlorosomes

70. The antimicrobial activity of vancomycin is due to the _________.

(A) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis

(B) damage to the cytoplasmic membrane

(C) inhibition of cell wall synthesis

(D) regulation of DNA supercoiling

71. Phenolics act as disinfectant by ____________.

(A) rupturing plasma membrane followed by leakage of cellular contents

(B) bond formation between adjacent pyrimidine bases

(C) forming adduct with amino acid and unsaturated fatty acids

(D) alkylation of proteins

72. Which of the following methods are used for the identification of microorganisms?

(A) Nucleic acid hybridization

(B) Southern blotting

(C) 16s rRNA sequencing

(D) Percentage G-C content

73. Which of the following are present in Gram-negative bacteria?

(A) Lipopolysaccharide

(B) Teichoic acid

(C) Periplasm

(D) Endotoxin

Q.74 – Q.84 Carry TWO marks Each

74. Nonsense suppressor mutation is found in _________.

(A) rRNA

(B) tRNA

(C) start codon of mRNA

(D) stop codon of mRNA

75. Choose the correct match for structural components of bacteria to their function.

(A) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iv)

(B) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(i), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv)

(C) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(i), (R)-(iv), (S)-(iii)

(D) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(iii), (S)-(ii)

76. Match the pathogen with the appropriate disease.

(A) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iv)

(B) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(i), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv)

(C) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(ii), (S)-(iii)

(D) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(iii), (S)-(ii)

77. Match the correct mode of cell division with respective bacteria.

Bacteria

(P) Streptomyces species

(Q) Rhodopseudomonas acidophila

(R) Bacillus subtilis

(S) Nocardia species

(A) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iv)

(B) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(i), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv)

(C) (P)-(iv), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iii)

(D) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(iii), (S)-(ii)

78. The correct sequence of overall biochemical reaction which expresses the process of denitrification is ____

79. Which of the following diseases are caused by family of DNA viruses?

(A) Hepatitis B

(B) Smallpox

(C) Influenza

(D) Rabies

80. Which of the following Gram-positive cocci are found in biofilm of dental plaque?

(A) Gonococcus

(B) Streptococcus mutans

(C) Streptococcus sobrinus

(D) Fusobacterium species

81. Which of the following statements are TRUE for archaea?

(A) Cell wall in archaea contains muramic acid and D-amino acid

(B) N-Formylmethionine is the first amino acid to initiate new polypeptide chainsynthesis in archaea

(C) Methionine is the first amino acid used during protein synthesis in archaea

(D) Membrane of archaea contains phytanyl rather than fatty acids

82. If the plasmid given below is digested with restriction enzymes HindIII and EcoRI, considering complete digestion, how many DNA fragments will be released?

83. Escherichia coli growing under favorable conditions doubles in every 20 minutes. If the initial number of Escherichia coli cells is 100, what will be the logarithmic number of cells at 17th generation? (Answer up to 1 decimal place)

84. What will be value of the Numerical Aperture (NA), if half aperture angle is 58° and oil immersed objective is used for the process of light microscopy? (Answer up to 1 decimal place)

Consider Sin 58° = 0.85 and refractive index of immersion oil used is = 1.50.

Zoology (XL-T)

Q.85 – Q.92 Carry ONE mark each

85. Which one of the following organic compounds is composed of only (i) a nitrogen containing base, (ii) a single five-carbon sugar, and (iii) a triphosphate?

(A) Nucleoside

(B) Nucleotide

(C) Base

(D) Nucleic acid

86. Which one of the following animals develops adaptive predator avoidance morphology because of the presence of high predator number in its habitat?

(A) Daphnia sp.

(B) Scaphiopus sp.

(C) Wolbachia sp.

(D) Rhodnius sp.

87. To which class of Drosophila developmental genes does fushi tarazu (ftz) belong?

(A) Gap genes

(B) Segment polarity genes

(C) Pair rule genes

(D) Maternal effect genes

88. The action of which class of enzyme inhibitors can be reversed by adding an excess of substrate?

(A) Uncompetitive inhibitors

(B) Competitive inhibitors

(C) Non-specific inhibitors

(D) Allosteric inhibitors

89. Mendel deduced the genetic principle of inheritance by experimenting on sweet pea plants. One of the experiments involved crossing plants with two contrasting characters, tall (dominant) and dwarf (recessive), which yielded all tall plants in the first generation. When the same genetic cross was independently repeated by a researcher, only short plants were obtained. Which one of the following can possibly explain the altered outcome?

(A) Tall plants were heterozygous

(B) An enhancer for the tall allele is present in the dwarf plant

(C) A suppressor for the tall allele is present in the dwarf plant

(D) Dwarf plants are homozygous

Q.90 – Q.92 Multiple Select Question (MSQ) carry ONE mark each (no negative marks)

90. Which of the following is/are responsible for reversible receptor-ligand interaction?

(A) Ionic interactions

(B) Hydrogen bonding

(C) Peptide bonding

(D) Hydrophobic interactions

91. In the human body, which of the following is/are involved in processing of a foreign antigen?

(A) B-cells

(B) Macrophages

(C) Red blood cells

(D) Platelets

92. Animals can be classified as ‘specialists’ or ‘generalists’ with respect to diet and habitat selection. Which of the following organism/s belong/s to the specialist category?

(A) Raccoon

(B) Panda

(C) Polar Bear

(D) Koala Bear

Q.93 – Q.103 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3)

93. Match the drug/chemicals listed in Column I with the developmental/physiological defects listed in Column II.

(A) P-(iii); Q-(iv); R-(ii); S-(i)

(B) P-(i); Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(ii)

(C) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(i)

(D) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i)

94. Match the animals listed in Column I with primary tissue or organ of residence in the host listed in Column II.

(A) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)

(B) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(ii)

(C) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i)

(D) P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)

95. Match the cell types listed in Column I with their sources in Column II and the primary functional roles listed in Column III.

(A) P-(iii)-b, Q-(iv)-c, R-(ii)-a, S-(i)-d

(B) P-(ii)-c, Q-(iv)-d, R-(i)-a, S-(iii)-b

(C) P-(i)-a, Q-(iv)-b, R-(ii)-c, S-(iii)-d

(D) P-(iii)-c, Q-(iv)-b, R-(ii)-a, S-(i)-d

96. Match the ecological concepts listed in Column I with their definitions listed in Column II.

(A) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

(B) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)

(C) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

(D) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(ii)

97. Match the hormones listed in Column I with their primary source tissues in Column II and the primary target tissues listed in Column III.

(A) P-(iii)-b, Q-(iv)-c, R-(ii)-a, S-(i)-d

(B) P-(iv)-c, Q-(iii)-b, R-(ii)-a, S-(i)-d

(C) P-(iv)-b, Q-(iii)-d, R-(ii)-c, S-(i)-a

(D) P-(iii)-b, Q-(iv)-c, R-(ii)-d, S-(i)-a

Q.98 – Q.100 Multiple Select Questions (MSQ) carry TWO marks each (no negative marks)

98. 2-Deoxyglucose (2-DG) inhibits the proliferation of cells and hence finds use as an anti-cancer agent. It is also used in COVID therapy, where it blocks hyperproliferation of virus-infected cells. Mechanistically, 2-DG blocks glycolysis by inhibiting the activities of which of the following enzyme/s?

(A) Hexokinase

(B) Glucose 6-phosphate isomerase

(C) Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase

(D) Phosphofructokinase

99. According to Abbe’s equation on microscopy, the ability to resolve two entities inside a cell by light microscopy depends on which of the following factor/s?

(A) Magnification of the objective lens

(B) Intensity of incident light

(C) Wavelength

(D) Numerical aperture of the objective lens

100. Match the animal inactivity behaviors listed in Column I with representative animals in Column II and their definitions listed in Column III.

(A) P-(ii)-c, Q-(iv)-b, R-(i)-a, S-(iii)-d

(B) P-(iv)-c, Q-(iii)-d, R-(ii)-a, S-(i)-b

(C) P-(iv)-c, Q-(ii)-b, R-(i)-a, S-(iii)-d

(D) P-(iv)-b, Q-(i)-c, R-(ii)-d, S-(iii)-a

Q.101 – Q.103 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO marks each (no negative marks).

101. If the vital capacity (VC) of an individual is 4900 ml, the tidal volume (TV) is 500 ml, and the inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is 3300 ml, the expiratory reserve volume (ERV) of the individual is ________ml. (in integer).

102. A typical food chain involves producers, herbivores, primary carnivores and secondary carnivores. Based on Lindeman’s law of trophic efficiency, if producers have 40 kJ of energy, the energy that will be stored in secondary carnivores is _____ kJ. (round off to two decimal places)

103. The average body length of Drosophila nasuta collected from Andaman and Nicobar Islands is 2 mm. From this population, a few males and females having a body length of 3 mm were selected and interbred. The average body length of the resultant progeny was 2.5 mm. The heritability (h2) of the body length in this population is ______. (round off to one decimal place)

Food Technology XL (U)

Q.104 – Q.111 Carry ONE mark Each

104. Which among the given options truly depict the lines 1 and 2 in the figure below with respect to the effect of heat processing on food?

(A) 1-Safety, 2-Quality

(B) 1-Yield, 2-Safety

(C) 1-Yield, 2-Quality

(D) 1-Quality, 2-Safety

105. Homogenization of milk leads to disintegration of fat globules by

(A) Turbulence and pasteurization

(B) Pasteurization and cavitation

(C) Pasteurization and pressurization

(D) Turbulence and cavitation

106. The lowest water activity (aw) supporting the growth of Staphylococcusaureus in food under aerobic condition is

(A)  0.98

(B)  0.91

(C)  0.89

(D)  0.86

107. Cultures used in industrial production of yogurt are

(A) Lactococcus lactis subsp. lactis

(B) Streptococcus thermophilus

(C) Leuconostoc mesenteroides subsp. cremoris

(D) Lactobacillus delbrueckii subsp. bulgaricus

108. In a dairy plant, spray drying technology is used to produce whey powder. The rate of spray drying depends on

(A) Temperature of the incoming air

(B) Shape of the cyclone separator

(C) Diameter of the whey droplet

(D) Heat transfer coefficient of hot air

109. The parboiling of paddy results into

(A) Increase in the milling losses

(B) Increase in the nutritional value of rice

(C) Increase in the head rice recovery

(D) Increase in the broken rice percentage

110. One hundred kg paddy is dried from 18% wet basis to 13% wet basis moisture content. The amount of water removed (in kg) from the paddy is _______ (round off to one decimal place).

111. In a canning industry, the total process time (F0) was calculated as 3 min. If each can contains 20 spores having decimal reduction time of 1.6 min, the probability of spoilage would be ______ in 100 cans (round off to the nearest integer).

Q.112 – Q.122 Carry TWO marks Each

112. Match the edible oil refining stages given in Column I with their respective functions in Column II.

(A) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

113. Make the correct pair of food packaging technology given in Column I with operating principle or description in Column II.

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(C) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

114. Which of the following is not a caramel flavour producing compound?

(A) 3-Hydroxy-2-methylpyran-4-one

(B) 2H-4-Hydroxy-5-methylfuran-3-one

(C) 3-Hydroxy-2-acetylfuran

(D) p-Amino benzoicacid

115. Match the size reduction equipment in Column I with the method of operation in Column II.

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

116. Most commonly used refrigerant in direct immersion freezing of food is

(A) Monochlorodifluoromethane

(B) Dichlorodifluoromethane

(C) Liquid nitrogen

(D) Freon

117. Which among the following are -6 poly unsaturated essential fatty acids?

(A) 18:2 Linoleic acid

(B) 18:3 α-Linolenic acid

(C) 18:3 γ-Linolenic acid

(D) 20:4 Arachidonic acid

118. Which among the following statements are true with respect to protein denaturation?

(A) There may be an increase in α-helix and β-sheet structure

(B) It is an irreversible process

(C) When fully denatured, globular proteins resemble a random coil

(D) The peptide bonds are broken

119. Identify the correct pair(s) of milling equipment and the grain for which it is used.

(A) Mist polisher–Rice

(B) Break roll–Wheat

(C) Rubber roll–Pigeon pea

(D) Beall degermer–Maize

120. Which among the following expression(s) is/are correct?

121. In a dairy processing plant, milk enters a 30 m long and 2 cm diameter tube at 60°C and leaves at 57° The total heat loss over the tube length is 381.15 W. The specific heat capacity, density, and viscosity of milk are 3.85 kJ kg1 K1 1020 kg m3, and 1.20 cP, respectively. The Reynolds number for the flow is ______ (round off to the nearest integer).

Given: π = 3.14

122. The dry bulb temperature and relative humidity of air inside a storage chamber are 37°C and 50%, respectively. The saturation pressure of water vapour at 37°C andbarometric pressure are 6.28 kPa and 101.32 kPa, respectively. The humidity ratioof air inside the chamber is ______ kg water (kg dry air)1 (round off to threedecimal places).

Given: Molecular weight of water vapour and dry air are 18.02 g mol1 and28.97 g mol1, respectively.

## GATE Exam 2022 Humanities & Social Sciences (XH) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2022

XH : Humanities & Social Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Inhaling the smoke from a burning _________ could _________ you quickly.

(A)  tire / tier

(B)  tire / tyre

(C)  tyre / tire

(D)  tyre / tier

2. A sphere of radius r cm is packed in a box of cubical shape.

What should be the minimum volume (in cm3) of the box that can enclose the sphere?

(A)  r3/8

(B)  r3

(C)  2r3

(D)  8r3

3. Pipes P and Q can fill a storage tank in full with water in 10 and 6 minutes, respectively. Pipe R draws the water out from the storage tank at a rate of 34 litres per minute. P, Q and R operate at a constant rate.

If it takes one hour to completely empty a full storage tank with all the pipes operating simultaneously, what is the capacity of the storage tank (in litres)?

(A)  26.8

(B)  60.0

(C)  120.0

(D)  127.5

4. Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the center not necessarily in the same order. Consider the following statements:

• P sits next to S and T.

• Q sits diametrically opposite to P.

• The shortest distance between S and R is equal to the shortest distance between T and U.

Based on the above statements, Q is a neighbor of

(A)  U and S

(B)  R and T

(C)  R and U

(D)  P and S

5. A building has several rooms and doors as shown in the top view of the building given below. The doors are closed initially.

What is the minimum number of doors that need to be opened in order to go from the point P to the point Q?

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  2

(D)  1

Q.6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.

6. Rice, a versatile and inexpensive source of carbohydrate, is a critical component of diet worldwide. Climate change, causing extreme weather, poses a threat to sustained availability of rice. Scientists are working on developing Green Super Rice (GSR), which is resilient under extreme weather conditions yet gives higher yields sustainably.

Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information given in the above passage?

(A)  GSR is an alternative to regular rice, but it grows only in an extreme weather

(B)  GSR may be used in future in response to adverse effects of climate change

(C)  GSR grows in an extreme weather, but the quantity of produce is lesser than regular rice

(D)  Regular rice will continue to provide good yields even in extreme weather

7. A game consists of spinning an arrow around a stationary disk as shown below. When the arrow comes to rest, there are eight equally likely outcomes. It could come to rest in any one of the sectors numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 or 8 as shown. Two such disks are used in a game where their arrows are independently spun. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the resulting sectors upon spinning the two disks is equal to 8 after the arrows come to rest?

(A)  1/16

(B)  5/64

(C)  3/32

(D)  7/64

8. Consider the following inequalities.

(i) 3p − q< 4

(ii) 3q − p< 12

Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two inequalities?

(A)  p + q < 8

(B)  p + q = 8

(C)  8 ≤ p + q < 16

(D)  p + q ≥ 16

9. Given below are three statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements.

Statement 1: Some engineers are writers.

Statement 2: No writer is an actor.

Statement 3: All actors are engineers.

Conclusion I: Some writers are engineers.

Conclusion II: All engineers are actors.

Conclusion III: No actor is a writer.

Conclusion IV: Some actors are writers.

Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

(A)  Only conclusion I is correct

(B)  Only conclusion II and conclusion III are correct

(C)  Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct

(D)  Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct

10. Which one of the following sets of pieces can be assembled to form a square with a single round hole near the center? Pieces cannot overlap.

XH-B1

Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. A relationship is expressed as Iodine : Goitre.

The pair(s) of words showing SIMILAR relationship is/are

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) Mango : Anaemia

(B) Insulin : Diabetes

(C) Fat : Obesity

(D) Hormones : Heredity

12. Three individuals are named P, Q, and R. Together they have a total of fifteen children of which nine are boys. P has three girls and Q has same number of boys. Q has one more child than P, who has four children. R has four more boys than the number of girls. The number of girls of R is equal to the number of boys of P. How many boys do R and P have?

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) R = 3, P = 3

(B) R = 4, P = 2

(C) R = 5, P = 1

(D) R = 2, P = 4

13. A sentence has been given below.

The train will leave at 8:30 PM, we have been ready by 7:30 PM, so that we can reach the station on time.

To make the above sentence grammatically correct, the phrase marked in bold is tobe replaced by

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) were

(B) are

(C) must be

(D) should have

14. Complete the sentence correctly using the options given below.

Hastings____(p)_____ developed as a holiday resort after ___(q)____ .

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) (p) = a seaside town, (q) = the first world war

(B) (p) = , a seaside town, (q) = the First World War

(C) (p) = , a Seaside Town, (q) = World War I

(D) (p) = A seaside town (q) = World War I

15. The Arecibo telescope does not resemble what most of us think of when we hear the word telescope. Its reflective surface covers an area of 20 acres, which is quite remarkable. Dangling above it are towers and cables, sub-reflectors and antennas, all of which can be positioned using 26 motors to transmit radio waves and receive echoes with astonishing precision.

From the passage, it can be inferred that most telescopes

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) are not as large as Arecibo

(B) do not have reflective surface

(C) cannot be re-positioned

(D) strictly have 26 motors

16. Tailgating another vehicle is unsafe and illegal. Many rear-end collisions are caused by drivers following too close to the vehicle in front of them. The rules state that a driver must keep significant distance from the vehicle in front in order to stop safely and avoid a collision. Drivers should allow a minimum two seconds gap between their vehicle and the one ahead. At 60 km per hour, this equates to a gap of 33 meters; at 100 km per hour, it equates to a gap of 55 meters. More distance is needed to safely stop in rain or poor visibility, as during rain slippery roads reduce the effectiveness of braking.

Which of the following statement(s) can be inferred from the above passage?

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) People drive faster in rain and under poor visibility.

(B) Braking may not be as effective during rain as in the dry conditions.

(C) Tailgating is against the road rules.

(D) Collision has no relationship with tailgating.

17. There are three separate, but equal-sized boxes. Inside each box, there are two separate small boxes. Inside each of the small boxes, there are four even smaller boxes. The total number of boxes will be _______ .

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

Q.18 – Q.26 Carry TWO marks Each

18. In a specific language, xer dan means “big horse”, liro cas means “red tomato” and dum cas dan means “big red barn”.

The equivalent word for barn in this language is

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) dum

(B) liro

(C) dan

(D) cas

19. Park street is parallel to Rock street. Garden street is perpendicular (90o) to Lake

street. Lake street is parallel to Rock street.

For the situation described above, the TRUE statement is

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) Park street is perpendicular to Lake street

(B) Rock street is parallel to Garden street

(C) Park street is parallel to Garden street

(D) Garden street is perpendicular to Park street

20. Six examinations are required to be conducted in a week starting from Sunday to Saturday. Hindi is not scheduled on the first day and English is not scheduled before Hindi. Mathematics is scheduled one day after Physics. Biology is scheduled two days after Hindi. One day prior to Chemistry, there is no examination. Only one examination can be scheduled on a single day and Sunday is not an off day. What are the subjects scheduled on first and the last days?

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) First day Physics, Last day Biology

(B) First day Physics, Last day Chemistry

(C) First day Physics, Last day English

(D) First day English, Last day Biology

21. A passage consists of 6 sentences. The first and sixth sentences of the passage are at their correct positions, while the middle four sentences (represented by P, Q, R, and S) are jumbled up.

First sentence: Smoke oozed up between the planks.

P: Passengers were told to be ready to quit the ship.

Q: The rising gale fanned the smouldering fire.

R: Everyone now knew there was fire onboard.

S: Flames broke out here and there.

Sixth sentence: Most people bore the shock bravely.

The most logically CORRECT order for the given jumbled up sentences is

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) QSRP

(B) QPSR

(C) RSPQ

(D) PQRS

22. For a painting to succeed, it is essential that the painter and his public agree about what is significant. The subject of the painting may have a personal meaning for the painter or a common person; but there can also be the possibility of their agreement on its general meaning. It is at this point that the culture of the society and the period in question precedes the artists and her/his art. Renaissance art would have meant nothing to the Aztecs, and vice versa. If, to some extent, a few intellectuals can appreciate them both today, it is because their culture is a historical one. Its inspiration is history and all known developments to date.

According to the passage, which of the following is/are NOT necessarily among the attributes needed for a painter to succeed?

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) The subject must have a personal meaning for the painter.

(B) The painter is able to communicate and justify the significance of its subject selection.

(C) The painter and the public agree on what is significant.

(D) The painting of the subjects is driven by public demand.

23. Vinod has a pre-determined route. Each morning he delivers 37 newspapers to customers in his neighbourhood. It takes Vinod 50 minutes to deliver all the papers. When Vinod was sick or had other engagements, his friend Tarun, who lives on the

same street delivered the papers on his behalf.

Find the statement(s) that must be TRUE according to the given information.

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) Vinod and Tarun lived in the same locality.

(B) It was dark outside when Vinod began his delivery.

(C) It took Tarun more than 50 minutes to deliver the papers.

(D) Tarun delivered 37 newspapers to customers.

24. Cholera, typhoid, diphtheria and tuberculosis cause huge number of deaths. Poor quality drinking water has always been the world’s greatest single carrier of sickness. Disease is transmitted when sewage and drinking water come into contact. Children are particularly vulnerable. In some of the poorest countries the infant mortality rate is high. The separation of sewage and the supply of clean drinking water are the domain of civil engineers, and their work makes a significant contribution to public health. That contribution was recognized when public sanitation was voted the greatest medical breakthrough, beating the discoveries including antibiotics and vaccines in a poll organized by the British Medical Journal.

Identify the statement(s), which is/are NOT TRUE according to the passage.

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) Children are less prone to water borne diseases.

(B) The infant mortality rate was high in economically weaker countries.

(C) The provision of sewage and drinking water should be adequately separated from each other.

(D) The literature states that the public health and sanitation was never given its due importance.

Answer: (A, D OR A, B, D)

25. Shark’s teeth have evolved to correspond to the diet of each particular species of shark. Consequently, the teeth of the great white shark bear little resemblance to those of the bull shark or nurse shark. There were essentially four different shark diets and thus four varieties of shark teeth. Sharks that feed on fish have needle like teeth, perfect for spearing and ripping. Sharks that eat mammals such as seals and sea lions have heavy, serrated teeth, typically triangular on the upper jaw and pointed on the lower jaw. Shark that feed in the benthic zone of the ocean have flattened teeth for crushing the shell of the creatures they find scuttling in the sand or clinging to rocks. Sharks that bask have teeth that are largely non-functional; these sharks filter food from the water by passing it through their gills.

Which of the following is/are the CORRECT inference(s) as per the passage?

Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

(A) Shark’s teeth are not specially designed for slaughter.

(B) The shape of the shark’s teeth relates to its prey.

(C) Some species of sharks filter food through their gills.

(D) Shark’s teeth relate to its diet.

26. A particular school management wants to contact all parents, all businessmen and all engineers. The following statistics are available with the school.

Engineers = 25

Parents = 2500

Businessmen who are engineers = 0

Businessmen who are parents = 25

Engineers who are parents = 15

The number of people needs to be contacted are _______ .Space for Figure/Equation, if any:

Economics (C1)

XH-C1: Q.27 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

27. Suppose that a firm has a technology represented by the following production function:

Y(K, L) = KxLy

where K denotes capital, L denotes labour, Y denotes the maximum output that is possible to produce using capital K and labour L. x and y are two positive real numbers. It is also known that the production function satisfies constant returns to scale. Then which of the following is true?

(A) x + y = 0.5

(B) x + y = 1

(C) x + y = 1.5

(D) x + y = 2

28. The Human Development Index (HDI), as reported by the United Nations Development Program, is based on three components. Two of these components are per-capita income and a measure of educational attainment of society. The third component is

(A) Gini coefficient

(C) percentage of population who work in non-agricultural sector

(D) life expectancy at birth

29. Suppose we estimate the following regression equation:

ln(xt) = α0 + α1ln (yt) + εt, α0α1> 0

where xt and yt are some variables. α0 and α1 are the intercept and the slope, respectively. εt is the residual term. What is the interpretation of the coefficient α1?

(A) A 1% increase in yt causes a α1% increase in xt

(B) A 1% increase in yt causes a α1 × 0.01 unit increase in xt

(C) A one unit increase in yt causes a 100 × α1% increase in xt

(D) A one unit increase in yt causes a α1 unit increase in xt

30. Consider the following system of equations in three variables x, y, z:

−x − y − z = 3

x + y + z = 10

2x– 3y = 6

This system of equations has

(A) no combination of values of (x, y, z) that satisfy this system simultaneously

(B) only one combination of values of (x, y, z) that satisfy this system simultaneously

(C) only two combinations of values of (x, y, z) that satisfy this system simultaneously

(D) infinitely many combinations of values of (x, y, z) that satisfy this system simultaneously

31. Which of the following models appropriately explains the fluctuations in potential output and long-run aggregate supply by understanding the shocks to productivity or the willingness of the worker?

(A) Solow growth model

(C) IS-LM model

(D) Harrod-Domar Model

32. The change in equilibrium output for an equal amount of change in government expenditure and tax revenue is linked to which one of the following multipliers?

(A) Expenditure multiplier

(B) Balanced Budget multiplier

(C) Lum-sum tax multiplier

33. Solaris is a firm that can install solar panels at an airport to generate electricity for the airport’s usage. The company claims that in 70 percent of all airports where its solar panels are installed, an airport’s electricity bill is reduced by at least 40 percent. The probability that an airport’s electricity bill is reduced by at least 40 percent, in seven out of ten airports where the company’s solar panels are installed, equals approximately:

(A) 0.082

(B) 0.002

(C) 0.490

(D) 0.267

34. IndiaSMart is a retail shop that accepts either a Rupay credit card, or a Visa credit card. 31 percent of IndiaSMart’s customers carry a Rupay credit card, 44 percent of its customers carry a Visa credit card, while 18 percent of its customers carry a Rupay credit card as well as a Visa credit card. What is the probability that a customer carries at least one of the two, i.e. either a Rupay or a Visa credit card?

(A) 0.75

(B) 0.93

(C) 0.57

(D) 0.49

35. What is the user cost of capital for a firm when the rate of depreciation of machine is 20% and the cost of financial capital is 15%?

(A) 37%

(B) 50%

(C) 35%

(D) 31%

36. Which among the following Gini coefficients exhibits the highest equality?

(A) 0.1

(B) 0.2

(C) 0.5

(D) 0.6

37. Let f(x, y) be a continuously differentiable homogenous function of degree 4. Which of the following is necessarily true?

38. Which of the following committees was set-up to address issues related to capital account convertibility in India?

(A) Tandon Committee

(B) AbidHussain Committee

(C) Tarapore Committee

(D) Percy Mistry Committee

39. The demand curve for tea in Borduria is given by

D(P) = 40 – 2P

and the domestic supply curve of tea in Borduria is given by

Here D(P) denotes quantity demanded when price is P and S(P) is quantity supplied by domestic producers at price P. Tea is traded in a competitive world market and imported into Borduria at a price of 9 per unit. Initially there was no restriction on trade. However, as a result of lobbying by the domestic suppliers, the Bordurian government imposes a tariff of 3 per unit on each unit imported. As a result of the tariff, import of tea decreased by how many units?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 8

(D) 9

40. Bretton Woods agreement gave birth to the following organization:

(A) GATT

(B) RBI

(C) NAFTA

(D) ASEAN

41. Which one of the following is a test of heteroscedastity?

(A) White test

(B) Jarque-Bera test

(C) Breusch-Godfrey test

(D) Ljung-box test

42. The law that explains the relationship between income growth and the size of government expenditure is appropriately linked to:

(A) Wagner’s law

(B) Okun’s law

(C) Walras law

(D) Ricardian equivalence

43. As per recent Economic Survey, how many states and Union Territories (UTs) are driven by services sector in India?

(A) 15

(B) 19

(C) 25

(D) 21

44. An economy is characterized by the following production function:

Y = AK0.25L0.75

where K denotes capital, L denotes labour, A denotes the total factor productivity

and Y denotes output produced. All capital and labour are fully employed.

Suppose that the growth rate of labour is 1%, the growth rate of capital is 4%, andthe growth rate of output is 4%. The growth rate of total factor productivity A is

(A) 1.5 %

(B) 1.75%

(C) 2.25%

(D) 2.5%

Q.45 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

45. Suppose a firm has the following production function:

f(x1, x2, x3, x4) = min{x1, x2} + min{x3, x4}

The per unit cost of input xi is given by wi, where i = 1, 2, 3, 4. Suppose that w1 = 1, w2 = 5, w3 = 3, and w4 = 6.If the firm is minimizing cost, which of the following input choices by the firm can be observed?

(A) x1> 0, x2 = 0, x3> 0, x4 = 0

(B) x1> 0, x2> 0, x3 = 0, x4 = 0

(C) x1> 0, x2 = 0, x3 = 0, x4> 0

(D) x1 = 0, x2 = 0, x3> 0, x4> 0

46. Suppose an econometrician had specified the following regression:

yt = β1 + β2z2t + β3z3t + β4z4t + εt

but a researcher estimated the following regression:

yt = β1 + β2z2t + β3z3t + β4z4t5z5tt

What will be the consequence of including the irrelevant variable on the estimated coefficients?

(A) Coefficient estimates will be unbiased, consistent but inefficient

(B) Coefficient estimates will be consistent, asymptotically efficient but biased

(C) Coefficient estimates will be inconsistent and efficient

(D) Coefficient estimates will be biased, consistent and efficient

47. Okun’s law says that a 1% increase in unemployment for one year is associated with a 2% decrease in GDP growth. Suppose an economy has the following expectations augmented Phillips curve:

π = πe – β(U – UN), β > 0

where π and πe are the inflation and expected inflation rates, respectively. U and UN are the unemployment and natural rate of unemployment, respectively. β measures sensitivity of inflation to unemployment gap. When β = 2, by what percentage does output fall short of full-employment given that the inflation rate, expected inflation rate and natural rate of unemployment are 8%, 10% and 6%,respectively?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 6

(D) 8

48. Let f(x) be the probability distribution function of a random variable X, where

f(x) = (5x4/64) if −2 < x < 2

= 0 otherwise

Let │∙│ denote the modulus function. Then, P (│X│ < 1) and P (X2< 3) are given

by (respectively):

(A) (1/32) and 9(√3/32)

(B) (5/64) and 5(√3/32)

(C) (1/64) and (√3/32)

(D) 2(√3/32) and (1/32)

49. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) uses the following instruments:

(A) Call Money Rate and Mumbai Inter-bank Offered Rate

(B) Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate

(C) Bank Rate and Statutory Liquidity Ratio

(D) Cash Reserve Ratio and Prime Lending Rate

50. What is the weight age of manufacturing sector in the Index of Industrial

Production (IIP) during 2020-2021?

Note: numbers are in approximate values

(A) 78%

(B) 81%

(C) 65%

(D) 71%

51. The curve that explains the relationship between tax rate and tax revenue is known as:

(A) Laffer curve

(B) Engle curve

(C) Beveridge curve

(D) Phillips curve

52. Suppose the estimated consumption equation of an economy is:

C = 40 + βYd

where Yd is the personal disposable income, β is the marginal propensity to consume (MPC). Government expenditure (G) is given as 90. Total tax (Tx) received is δY, where Y is aggregate output or real income and δ is tax to real income proportionality factor. Autonomous investment (IA) is given as 80. What are the tax revenue and budget surplus of the government when β = 0.75 and δ =0.20? All units are measured in constant rupees.

(A) Tax revenue = Rs. 105 and surplus = Rs. 15

(B) Tax revenue = Rs. 118 and surplus = Rs. 28

(C) Tax revenue = Rs. 110 and surplus = Rs. 20

(D) Tax revenue = Rs. 125 and surplus = Rs. 35

53. Consider a two-period consumption model in which a representative house hold lives for two periods only. In period 1, he earns income y1 and consumes c1. In period 2, he earns y2 and consumes c2. He can borrow and lend at the same rate of interest (r). His lifetime utility function is as follows:

U(c1, c2) = ln(c1) + βln(c2)

where β > 0 measures the sensitivity of future period’s consumption. What will be the marginal propensity to consume of current consumption, i.e.∂c1/∂y1?

54. Suppose an investigator has specified the following simultaneous equation model:

y1,t = α1,0 + α1,2y2,t + α2Mt + α3Kt + ut                   (1)

y2,t = α2,0 + α2,1y1,t + α3It + vt                                (2)

where y1,t and y2,tare endogenous variables. Mt, K­t and It are predetermined

variables. ut and vt are residual terms. Based on the order condition of identification, which one of the following statements are correct?

(A) Equations (1) and (2) are exactly identified

(B) Equation (1) is exactly identified and equation (2) is over-identified

(C) Equation (1) is over-identified and equation (2) is exactly identified

(D) Both the equations are under-identified

55. There are two regions in a country. The demand for chocolates in region 1 is given by

Q1(P) = 100 − P

and the demand for chocolates in region 2 is given by

Q2(P) = 200 –P

where Q1(P) and Q2(P) denote the demand for chocolates in region 1 and 2respectively at a price P. There is only one seller who is licensed to sell chocolates in the country. Suppose the seller sets a price of P = 125. The total demand for chocolates in the country at this price is

(A) 50

(B) 75

(C) 100

(D) 125

56. A producer manufactures batteries by using techniques I and II. The capacities (in ampere hours) of 12 randomly selected batteries manufactured by using technique I are: 140, 132, 136, 142, 138, 150, 154, 150, 152, 136, 144 and 142. Moreover, the capacities (in ampere hours) of 14 randomly selected batteries manufactured by using technique II are: 144, 134, 132, 130, 136, 146, 140, 128, 131, 128, 150,137, 130 and 135.

Suppose that battery capacities manufactured by using techniques I and II are normally distributed, with unknown means, μI and μII respectively, and an unknown common varianceσ2.Consider the null hypothesis H0 : (μI – μII) = γ ampere hours.

For which of the following values of γ should the null hypothesis H0 be accepted, against the alternative hypothesis H1 :(μI – μII) ≠ γ ampere hours, at 10% level of

significance?

Note that if Z is a standard normal variate, then: P(Z ≤ 1.282) = 0.900,

P(Z ≤ 1.645) = 0.950, P(Z ≤ 1.960) = 0.975 and P(Z ≤ 2.326) = 0.990

Further, if a random variable T follows the Student’s t-distribution, with degrees of freedom r, then the α-percentile values tα,r for various values of α and r are given by (where P(T ≤ tα,r) = α):

t0.90,24 = 1.318, t0.90,25 = 1.316, t0.90,26 = 1.315, t0.95,24 = 1.711, t0.95,25 = 1.708, t0.95,26= 1.706, t0.975,24 = 2.064, t0.975,25 = 2.060, t0.975,26 = 2.056.

(A) γ =4

(B)γ = 7

(C) γ = 10

(D) γ = 13

57. Tom and Jerry both arrive at a petrol pump. Without worrying about price, Tom says, “I want 10 liters of petrol.” Also, without worrying about price, Jerry says, “Iwant petrol worth 1000 rupees.” The own price elasticities of demand for Tom (denoted by εT) and Jerry (denoted by εJ) are:

(A) εT = 0, εJ = −∞

(B) εT = 0, εJ = −1

(C) εT = −∞, εJ = 0

(D) εT = −1, εJ = 0

58. Which of the following variables are pushed upwards by ‘Seigniorage’?

(A) Money supply

(B) Inflation

(C) Tax rate

(D) Interest rate

59. Suppose Raju enters the job market at age 25 and earns annual income of Rs.6000. He retires at age 65 and his life expectancy is 75 years. He does not own any assets. Assume that Raju consumes annual income uniformly over his lifetime. What will be his average propensity to consume during employment years?

(A) 0.90

(B) 0.80

(C) 0.50

(D) 0.40

60. A monopolist faces the following inverse demand function:

P = 40 – Q

where P denotes price and Q denotes quantity. The monopolist has zero fixed cost and a marginal cost of 5 per unit of output produced. The monopolist aims to maximize profit. Suppose the government imposes a tax of 5 per unit of output on the monopolist. As a result, the price charged by the profit-maximizing monopolist to the consumer increases by:

(A) 0

(B) 2.5

(C) 5

(D) 10

61. In the flexible exchange rate environment with perfect capital mobility, a fiscal stimulus will be linked to which of the following statements?

(A) Fiscal policy increases the domestic outcome

(B) Fiscal policy does not increase the domestic output

(C) Fiscal policy leads domestic exports to fall

(D) Fiscal policy appreciates the domestic currency

62. Consider a lottery with two possible outcomes:

• Rupees 100 with probability 0.6

• Rupees 50 with probability 0.4

The maximum amount that a risk-neutral person would be willing to pay to play the above lottery equals Rupees (in integer).

63. Sharma’s consumption preference for tea (denoted by x) and sugar (denoted by y) is given by the utility function

U(x, y) = min{x, 2y)

The price per unit of tea is 10 and the price per unit of sugar is 10. Mr. Sharma’s total income is 900.

The optimum quantity of tea purchased by Mr. Sharma equals (in ________ integer).

64. Suppose α is a real number between 0 and 1. Rohit is choosing x and y to maximize the following utility function:

U(x, y) x2 + 2xy + y2 + 4α2 + 8α + 10

subject to the following constraints:

2x + y = 10,

x, y ≥ 0

Then the optimal value of 𝑦 chosen by Rohit is (in ______ integer).

65. In a competitive market for dry-cleaning, the inverse market demand function is given by

P = 100 – Q

where P denotes price and Q denotes quantity. The (private) marginal cost (MC)of production for all the dry-cleaning firms together is given by

MC = 20 + 2Q

The market pollution generated by the dry-cleaning processes of all firms creates external damages given by the marginal external cost (MEC):

MEC = 2Q

The socially efficient output of dry-cleaning is (in ______ integer).

English (C2)

XH-C2: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark each

27. “He who is unable to live in society, or who has no need because he is sufficient for himself, must be either a beast or a god.”

Who has given the above statement?

(A) Aristotle

(B) Plato

(C) Socrates

(D) Rousseau

28. “History is not made only in statecraft; its lasting results are produced in the ranks of learned men.”

Name the play from which the above excerpt has been taken.

(A) Mahesh Dattani’s Thirty Days in September

(B) Vijay Tendulkar’s Silence! The Court is in Session

(D) Rabindranath Tagore’s Mukta-Dhara

29. Who amongst the following popularised the term ‘objective correlative’, which is often used in formalist criticism?

(A) Virginia Woolf

(B) C. S. Lewis

(C) Matthew Arnold

(D) T. S. Eliot

30. Which of the following critics preferred Shakespeare’s comedies to his tragedies?

(A) Samuel Johnson

(B) Alexander Pope

(C) John Dryden

(D) Thomas De Quincey

31. Who among the following has been credited with laying the foundation of comparative literature by Russian Formalists?

(A) Viktor Shklovsky

(B) Alexander Veselovsky

(D) Roman Jakobson

32. Lyrical Ballads, considered to be the manifesto of Romantic Poetry, was first published in the year ________.

(A) 1795

(B) 1797

(C) 1789

(D) 1798

33. Identify the work from which the following excerpt has been taken:

“In a universe that is suddenly deprived of illusions and of light, man feels a stranger. He is an irremediable exile …. This divorce between man and his life, the actor and his setting, truly constitutes the feeling of Absurdity.”

(A) Frantz Kafka’s The Trial

(B) Samuel Beckett’s Waiting for Godot

(C) Albert Camus’ The Myth of Sisyphus

(D) Harold Pinter’s The Homecoming

34. What does gynocriticism recommend as an approach to literature?

(A) Considering women’s literature from men’s point of view

(B) Examining women’s literature confirming gender stereotypes only

(C) Becoming more familiar with the history of women and women’s writing

(D) Becoming more familiar with gerontology

35. Identify the novel which opens with the following lines:

“It was the best of times, it was the worst of times, it was the age of wisdom, it was the age of foolishness, it was the epoch of belief, it was the epoch of incredulity, it was the season of light, it was the season of darkness, it was the spring of hope, it was the winter of despair.”

(A) Jane Austen’s Emma

(B) Emily Brontë’s Wuthering Heights

(C) Charles Dickens’ A Tale of Two Cities

(D) H. G. Wells’ The Time Machine

36. Which of the following terms does not form a part of seven types of ambiguities propounded by William Empson?

(A) Simulacra

(B) Metaphor

(C) Pun

(D) Simile

37. Which of the following poem(s) has/have been influenced by Hindu philosophy?

(A) The Solitary Reaper

(B) Brahma

(C) The Curse of Kehama

(D) Kubla Khan

38. Which of the following human behaviour(s) is/are important to a Freudian psychoanalytical study of William Shakespeare’s Hamlet?

(A) Art of speaking

(B) Changes in emotional states

(C) Neurotic behaviour

(D) Merry-making

39. Which of the following novel-author combination(s) is/are correct?

(A) Where Shall We Go This Summer-Jane Austen

(B) A Passage to England- Nirad C Chaudhuri

(C) The Mayor of Casterbridge-Thomas Hardy

(D) Pride and Prejudice- Anita Desai

40. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Phenomenology?

(A) It is a form of methodological idealism, seeking to explore an abstraction called ‘human consciousness’.

(B) It is a philosophical method associated with Edmund Husserl.

(C) It believes that the act of thinking and the object of thought are internally related, mutually dependent.

(D) Heidegger’s Being and Time is an important phenomenological treatise supporting the stand of Husserl.

41. Chitra Divakaruni’s The Mistress of Spices is ________.

(A) an experiment in magic realism

(C) a science fiction

(D) an epistolary novel

42. Which of the following is/are correct about postmodernist critics?

(A) They foreground fiction and exemplify ‘disappearance of the real’.

(B) They foreground irony.

(C) They tend towards reflexivity.

(D) They challenge the distinction between high and low cultures.

43. The literary theory of Deconstruction argues that ________.

(A) texts are always heterogeneous

(B) the meaning of a text never relies on context

(C) any system for the production of meaning may be bound by context, yet also limitless

(D) texts are always rigid in meaning

44. In the context of the Reader-Response Theory, Louise M Rosenblatt in her essay “The Poem as Event”, considers that the reader should ________.

(A) participate in a transaction with the text

(B) act against a text

(C) be acted upon by the text

(D) reject the text

Q.45 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks each.

45. Roland Barthes in his famous essay, “The Death of the Author” ________.

(A) believes that the text is to be interpreted in the biographical context of the author

(B) challenges the author’s claim as “cogito”, or origin of all knowledge

(C) believes that the author has sole claim to his work

(D) concludes that an author is an atypical product of his social milieu

46. What is common among the following novels?

George Orwell’s Nineteen Eighty Four

Margaret Atwood’s The Handmaid’s Tale

(A) These are examples of Utopian fiction.

(B) These are examples of Dystopian fiction.

(C) They present an idealistic picture of the world.

(D) They abound in pleasant descriptions of landscapes, peoples and places.

47. Match the following authors with their pseudonyms:

(A) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c

(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d

(C) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c

(D) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

48. “This literary mode parallels the flouting of authority and inversion of social hierarchies that, in many cultures, are permitted in a season of …. It does so by introducing a mingling of voices from diverse social levels that are free to mock and subvert authority, to flout social norms by ribaldry, and to exhibit various ways of profaning what is ordinarily regarded as sacrosanct.”

The above description explains the concept of ________.

(A) Magic Realism

(B) Intertextuality

(C) Carnivalesque

(D) Heteroglossia

49. “Postcolonial perspectives emerge from the colonial testimony of Third World countries and the discourses of ‘minorities’ within the geopolitical divisions of East and West, North and South. They intervene in those ideological discourses of modernity that attempt to give a hegemonic ‘normality’ to the uneven development and the differential, often disadvantaged, histories of nations, races, communities, people.”

The above commentary on the postcolonial perspective has been extracted from which of the following?

(A) Edward Said’s Orientalism

(B) Homi K Bhabha’s The Location of Culture

(C) Leela Gandhi’s Postcolonial Theory

(D) Bill Ashcroft et al., eds. The Post-colonial Studies Reader

50. Match the following excerpts with their authors:

(A) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d

(B) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c

(C) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

(D) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

51. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in the context of Francoise d’ Eaubonne’s concept of Eco-feminism?

(A) It is a revolution by women against men to protect Nature.

(B) It is a philosophical idea to counter the oppression of women by men, as similar to the oppression and destruction of Nature by men.

(C) It is a term used to describe how the human race could be saved by men initiating an ecological revolution.

(D) It is a term used to describe the interface between women and technology.

52. Which of the following books is considered as one of the sources behind T. S. Eliot’s poem, The Waste Land?

(A) William James’ Principles of Psychology

(B) Jessie Weston’s From Ritual to Romance

(C) Franz Kafka’s The Metamorphosis

(D) Sigmund Freud’s Interpretation of Dreams

53. “The people who believe most that our greatness and welfare are proved by our being very rich, and who most give their lives and thoughts to becoming rich, are just the very people whom we call Philistines.”

What can be inferred from the above statement of Matthew Arnold?

(A) Greatness of people lies in their being rich and prosperous.

(B) Material prosperity is not the true criterion of a nation’s achievement.

(C) Philistines are great people.

(D) Arnold thinks very highly of himself.

54. ‘Anagnorisis’, as used by Aristotle in his theory of Tragedy, stands for ________.

(A) the hero’s recognition of his tragic flaw

(B) the hero’s ignorance about his tragic flaw

(C) the hero’s recognition of his adversary

(D) the hero’s rejection of his tragic end

55. Which of the following thinkers does not belong to the school of Existentialism?

(A) Jean Paul Sartre

(B) Albert Camus

(C) Roland Barthes

(D) Søren Kierkegaard

56. Which of the following statement(s) is/are closely associated with the term Fetishism?

(A) It is generally defined as an act of paying excessive attention or attributing mystical ability, to an inanimate thing.

(B) It is related to Western theories of aesthetics, economics and psychology.

(C)  It is used in reference to religious objects believed to have magical or spiritual powers.

(D) It is generally used to describe Gothic expressionism.

57. Why does the thin grey strand

Floating up from the forgotten

Cigarette between my fingers,

Why does it trouble me?

Ah, you will understand;

When I carried my mother downstairs,

A few times only, at the beginning

I should find, for a reprimand

To my gaiety, a few long grey hairs

On the breast of my coat; and one by one

I watched them float up the dark chimney.

Which of the following can be considered as correct about the above poem?

(A) It is written in the process of grieving for the poet’s mother.

(B) It is an autobiographical poem.

(C) It is a symbolic poem.

(D) It is a poem of youthful celebration.

58. Which of the given examples of rhetorical/figurative devices is/are correctly paired?

(A) ‘What is man, that thou art mindful of him?’ : Paradox

(B) ‘Truth makes the greatest libel.’ : Personification

(C)  ‘Reading furnishes the mind only with material of knowledge; it is thinking makes what we read ours.’ : Antithesis

(D)  ‘It is a truth universally acknowledged that a single man in possession of a good fortune must be in want of a wife.’ : Irony

59. As per the distinctions made by Toril Moi, regarding the terms ‘feminist’, ‘female’ and ‘feminine’, which of the following is/are correct?

(A) The first is ‘a matter of economic manumission’.

(B) The second is a ‘matter of psychology’.

(C) The first is ‘a political position’.

(D) The third is a set of ‘culturally defined characteristics’.

60. Which of the following author(s) has/have won the Booker Prize twice?

(B) J. G. Farrell

(C) William Golding

(D) Peter Carey

61. “Nothing feels normal to Ashima, it’s not so much the pain which she will survive. Its consequence: motherhood in a foreign land … unmonitored by those she loves … she is terrified to raise a child in a country where she knows so little, where life seems so tentative and spare.”

In the above passage of The Namesake, the writer tries to say that Ashima ________.

(A) feels isolated in the new world

(B) should have been surrounded by her own people

(C) is facing a cultural shock

(D) is able to adapt herself to an alien culture

62. Jean Baudrillard, a post-modern thinker, has suggested that a sign refers to other signs. He has given four stages/phases to support his proposition. Which of the following do(es) not constitute a part of these stages/phases?

(A) The sign disguises the fact that there is no corresponding reality underneath.

(B) The sign is always peripheral.

(C) The sign bears no relation to any reality at all.

(D) The sign misrepresents or distorts the reality behind it.

63. Which of the following apply/applies to the term ‘parapraxis’?

(A) It is used in connection with Marxist interpretation of literature.

(B)  It refers to an error in speech, memory, or physical action that occurs because of the interference of an unconscious subdued wish.

(C) The term is generally associated with Jung.

(D) The original German word referring to the term is ‘Fehlleistung’.

64. The epilogue to William Congreve’s The Way of the World, given below, signals some warning(s). What is/are it/they?

“Other there are whose malice we’d prevent,

Such, who watch plays, with scurrilous intent

To mark out who by characters are meant.

These, with false glosses feed their own ill nature,

And turn to libel, what was meant a satire.”

(A) Critics should always be supportive of the author.

(B)  Critics should not look for portrait of real people in the play’s characters and remember that the play is a social satire.

(C) Critics should avoid writing malicious reviews, lest they are accused of libel.

(D) Critics should try to identify the real life equivalent for each character.

Take my shirt off

and go in there to do the puja

No thanks.

Not me.

if that’s what you want to do.

Give me the match box

before you go,

will you?

I will be out in the courtyard

where no one will mind it

if I smoke.

(A) The poem is written in the form of an ode.

(B) The poem is skeptic in nature.

(C) The poet uses surreal and astonishing images.

(D) The poem expresses a rebellious attitude.

Linguistics (C3)

XH-C3: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark each

27. Linguistic determinism is best captured in __________.

(A) Generative grammar

(B) Sound symbolism

(C) Critical-age hypothesis

(D) Sapir-Whorf hypothesis

28. Match the phonological processes in column Y to their names in column X.

(A) P – ii, Q – iv, R – iii, S – i

(B) P – iv, Q – ii, R – iii, S – i

(C) P – ii, Q – iv, R – i, S – iii

(D) P – iv, Q – ii, R – i, S – iii

29. ‘Bilingual language acquisition’ refers to the __________.

(A) Simultaneous acquisition of two languages at a very early age

(B) Learning of a second language after 18 years of age

(C) Ability to acquire a second language during the first 12 months

(D) Sequential acquisition of two languages in adulthood

30. Which of the following is the sequence of derivation as per Minimalist Program?

(A) Numeration → Spell-Out → Merge → Move

(B) Numeration → Merge → Move → Spell-Out

(C) Numeration → Move → Merge → Spell-Out

(D) Merge → Move → Numeration → Spell-Out

31. Linguistic determinism is the strongest form of the __________.

(A) P – (ii), Q – (iv), R – (i), S – (iii)

(B) P – (iv), Q – (ii), R – (i), S – (iii)

(C) P – (ii), Q – (iv), R – (iii), S – (i)

(D) P – (iv), Q – (ii), R – (iii), S – (i)

32. Which of the given statements is TRUE?

Statement (I): Every spoken language includes discrete sound segments that can all be defined by a finite set of sound properties or features.

Statement (II): Speakers of all languages are capable of producing and comprehending an infinite set of sentences.

(A) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are correct

(B) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are incorrect

(C) Statement (I) is correct but statement (II) is incorrect

(D) Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II) is correct

33. The sound change of Proto-Indo-Aryan /p/ to Germanic /f/, deduced by comparing cognates like Latin pater, Sanskrit pita and English father, is an example of _____.

(A) Grassman’s Law

(B) Lyman’s Law

(C) Grimm’s Law

(D) Verner’s Law

34. Which of the following diagrams depict(s) the violation of a principle of autosegmental phonology?

(A) Representation (i)

(B) Representation (ii)

(C) Both (i) and (ii)

(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)

35. In the given sentences, the semantic relationship of hyponymy can be found in between _______.

(i) The thing in the grass is a small snake.

(ii) The thing in the grass is a small reptile.

(A) reptile : grass

(B) grass : snake

(C) snake : reptile

(D) small : snake

36. Bill walked into a store in New York, looking for a restroom. He asked a storekeeper which floor the men’s restroom is and he replied, /ðə fɔθ flɔ/ for the fourth floor. What kind of store Bill must have walked into?

(A) A high class store

(B) A middle class store

(C) A lower class store

(D) A Latino owned store

37. Which of the followings occurred due to the Great Vowel Shift of the English language?

(A) [a:] became [u:]

(B) All the front vowels shifted to back

(C) [ɡe:s] became [ɡi:s]

(D) The high, long vowels became diphthongized

38. Which of the following statements are true for the pulmonic consonant table in an IPA chart?

(A) Voiceless consonants aligned to the left of the cell

(B) Places of articulation are arranged in rows

(C) Manners of articulation are arranged in columns

(D) The most constricted consonants to the least are arranged from the top to bottom

39. Identify the compounds in the given data.

repeat       blackboard     toy factory      underestimate

deform     backward        bystander        sky-high

(A) repeat and backward

(B) blackboard and toy factory

(C) sky-high and underestimate

(D) bystander and deform

40. In the production of the /z/ sound which of the following will take place?

(A) Vocal cords will vibrate

(B) Velum will be raised

(C) The two lips will be in contact

(D) Air will pass without any turbulence

41. The phrase “the first person in space” refers to Yuri Gagarin. Which of the following could be used to determine reference?

(A) Russell’s Theory of Description

(B) Prototype Theory

(C) Speech Act Theory

(D) Gricean Maxims

42. Which of the following statement(s) apply to pidgins?

(A) Pidgins have complex grammatical rules

(B) Pidgins do NOT have grammatical rules

(C) Pidgin phonology is rule based

(D) Pidgins are passed on from one generation to the other

43. In the given tree-structure NP1 C-commands NP2 but not vice versa because:

(A) C-command cannot be a reciprocal relationship

(B) No node dominates both NP2 and NP1

(C) VP1 dominates NP2 and C-commands NP1

(D) VP1 dominates NP2 but not NP1

44. Which of the given pronunciations DO NOT conform to the phonological rule?

(A) [dud]

(B) [kut]

(C) [mutab]

(D) [pum]

Q.45 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

45. Determine the correct nature of the following two utterances from the choices given below.

P: Hasnain said ki woh kal aayegaa

(COMP he tomorrow come.will)

“Hasnain said that he will come tomorrow”

Q: Rohan will get some desi vegetables.

(local)

“Rohan will get some local vegetables”

(A) Code switching in P and Q

(B) Borrowing in P and Q

(C) Code switching in P and borrowing in Q

(D) Borrowing in P and code switching in Q

46. Consider the given script showing a sequence of 11 graphemes. It represents the sentence: /apa pal talip tani mil/. Each grapheme in the script contains a _________.

(A) Rhyme

(B) Syllable

(C) Consonant

(D) Mora

47. In the given examples, column Y are examples of __________ sentences.

(A) Topicalization

(B) Cleft

(C) Pseudo-cleft

(D) Gapping

48. A second language speaker uses the word [phonetic] as a singular noun because she interprets the word [phonetics] as a plural noun. In doing so, she is deducing a new word by the process of ___________.

(A) Blocking

(B) Back formation

(C) Bracketing

(D) Back tracking

49. Given the rules P and Q, what is the name of the rule ordering in dialect X and Y?

(A) X has counter-feeding and Y has counter bleeding order

(B) X has bleeding and Y has counter-bleeding order

(C) X has counter-bleeding and Y has counter-feeding order

(D) X has counter bleeding and Y has bleeding order

50. Which of the given statements is/are TRUE?

Statement (I): Diglossia and dialect continuum are synonymous.

Statement (II): Bilingual speakers are also bidialectal.

(A) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are correct

(B) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are incorrect

(C) Statement (I) is correct but statement (II) is incorrect

(D) Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II) is correct

51. Look into the data from Micaocan Aztec and match the words (P-S) to their meaning (i-iv) and select the correct sequence.

(A) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

(B) P-(iv), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iii)

(C) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(i)

(D) P-(iv), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(i)

52. Match the languages (P – U) to the language families (i – iv) and select the correct sequence.

(A) P – (ii), Q – (i), R – (iv), S – (i), T – (iii), U – (iv)

(B) P – (i), Q – (i), R – (iii), S – (iii), T – (iv), U – (i)

(C) P – (ii), Q – (i), R – (iii), S – (i), T – (iii), U – (iv)

(D) P – (i), Q – (i), R – (iv), S – (iii), T – (iii), U – (ii)

53. Which of the given statements is/are TRUE?

Statement (I): The International Phonetic Alphabet (IPA) is a transcription system for describing human speech sounds from all languages.

Statement (II): The voiceless pharyngeal plosive sound is missing in the IPA chart because it is physiologically impossible to articulate.

(A) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are correct

(B) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are incorrect

(C) Statement (I) is correct but statement (II) is incorrect

(D) Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II) is correct

54. Match the terms in column X (P – S) to their descriptions in column Y (i – iv) and select the correct sequence.

(A) P – ii, Q – iv, R – iii, S – i

(B) P – iv, Q – ii, R – iii, S – i

(C) P – ii, Q – iv, R – i, S – iii

(D) P – iv, Q – ii, R – i, S – iii

55. Match the following morphological changes (P-S) to their type (i-iv) and select the correct sequence.

(A) P – (ii), Q – (iv), R – (i), S – (iii)

(B) P – (iv), Q – (ii), R – (i), S – (iii)

(C) P – (ii), Q – (iv), R – (iii), S – (i)

(D) P – (iv), Q – (ii), R – (iii), S – (i)

56. Which of the given statements is/are TRUE?

(A) Bangla is similar to Hindi and Sambalpuri but not Telugu.

(B) Bangla is similar to Hindi but not Sambalpuri.

(C) Sambalpuri is similar to Telugu but not Bangla.

(D) Sambalpuri is similar to Hindi but not Bangla.

57. Lesions in different areas of the left hemisphere lead to qualitatively distinct aphasia syndromes. Which of the given statements is/are TRUE?

(A) The brain lesions associated with classical anomia involves the dominant angular gyrus.

(B) Conduction aphasia follows from a lesion in the posterior part of the inferior frontal gyrus.

(C) Wernicke’s aphasia is the consequence of a lesion in the auditory association cortex of the temporal lobe.

(D) Broca’s aphasia follows from localized lesions in the temporoparietal regions.

58. Consider the following data from English. Which linguistic change(s) is/are associated with the addition of the suffix ‘-able’?

(A) sociolinguistic change

(B) grammatical category change

(C) semantic change

(D) typological change

59. Children are biologically equipped to acquire all aspects of grammar. Which of the given statements is/are TRUE?

(A) ‘Telegraphic speech’ occurs during the holophrastic stage.

(B) Children generally go through three phases in the acquisition of an irregular form (overgeneralization).

(C) Children learn approximately 100 words a day up to 12 months.

(D) Mean length of utterances is used to measure a child’s language development.

60. Wolof speakers use a secret language called Kall. Words in Wolof are changed to Kall in a systematic manner, as shown in the data. In the change from Wolof to Kall, which of the given constraints cannot be violated?

(A) MAX-IO

(B) DEP-IO

(C) FOOT-BINARITY

(D) LINEARITY-IO

61. The given sentence is ungrammatical because:

*Tailan believes that himself is smarter than Po

(A) Principle A of Binding Theory is not satisfied.

(B) Principle B of Binding Theory is not satisfied.

(C) Principle C of Binding Theory is not satisfied.

(D) Both Po and Tailan are possible antecedents for himself.

62. Which of the given statements support the Design Features proposed by Hockett?

(A) Humans produce as many sentences as they have acquired.

(B) Sentences cannot be broken into smaller units as they have specific meaning.

(C) Humans can talk about things that are not in their immediate vicinity.

(D) Linguistic units do not bear any direct resemblance to the things they represent.

63. Which of the given logical forms correspond to the following sentence where x ϵ student, y ϵ teacher and A=admires?

(A) ∀x∃y A(x,y)

(B) ∀y∃x A(y,x)

(C) ∃x∀y A(y,x)

(D) ∃y∀x A(x,y)

64. Identify the possible set(s) of stops that correlate with the corresponding VOT values.

(A) /p/ = 10, /ph/ = 78, /b/ =−110

(B) /t/ = 120, /th/ = −110, /b/ =67

(C) /k/ = −121, /kh/ = 121, /g/ =−108

(D) /ph/ = 89, /th/ = 92, /kh/ =98

65. The estimated fundamental frequency of the given sine wave is (in integer) _________Hz.

PHILOSOPHY (C4)

XH-C4: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. Let us consider the cases of Shweta and Rani. While Shweta has access to, and can afford to buy good quality dairy products, she and her spouse decide to pursue a vegan lifestyle. Therefore, she no longer buys milk or dairy-based products for her family. Rani’s family on the other hand, has a meagre income. Although Rani’s children like milk and kheer, Rani refrains from buying milk and instead spends on rice.

In light of the concepts of functioning and capability as defined by Martha Nussbaum, which one of the following options holds for the above cases?

(A) They differ on the basis of capability

(B) They differ on the basis of functioning

(C) They differ on the basis of both functioning and capability

(D) They do not differ since the end-result is the same in both

28. In the opposition of propositions, which one among the following is the contradictory of A proposition?

(A) Only O

(B) Only E

(C) Only I

(D) E and O

29. A study in Europe concluded that whenever there is an increase in the circulation of fake news in social media, the ruling party gains political mileage. Conversely, a proportionate decrease in the circulation of fake news, corresponds to the decline in its popularity.

Which one of Mill’s methods is entailed in the above reasoning?

(A) Method of Concomitant Variation

(B) Joint Method of Agreement and Difference

(C) Method of Residues

(D) Method of Difference

30. Which one among the following Greek philosophers upholds the ontology of things by stating that ‘all things are flowing’ and ‘nothing ever is, everything is becoming?’

(A) Heraclitus

(B) Pythagoras

(C) Thales

(D) Anaxagoras

31. Which one among the following will be in agreement with Rene Descartes’ confirmation of the cogito, in his Discourse on Method?

(A) Self exists as an imperfect thing

(B) Self exists as a perfect thing

(C) Only the world exists

(D) Only the self exists

32. According to Immanuel Kant, duty as rationally conceived is determined by:

(A) The will as an a priori principle

(B) The self-interest of the will

(C) The divine will

(D) The desire as the will

33. Which one among the following is NOT a pramāṇa in Sānkhya epistemology?

(A) Comparison (upamāna)

(B) Perception (dṛṣta/pratyakṣa)

(C) Inference (anumāna)

(D) Valid testimony (āptavacana)

34. ‘Hare’s horn (śaśa-viṣāṇa)’, according to the Philosophy of Yoga, is a valid example of which kind of citta-vṛtti?

(A) Constructive Imagination (vikalpa)

(B) Wrong cognition or false knowledge (viparyaya)

(C) Absence of cognition or sleep (nidra)

(D) Memory (smṛti)

35. According to Jaimini, in Mīmāmsā, which one among the following is a command or injunction that impels humans to perform action?

(A)  Dharma

(B) Apūrva

(D)  Niṣkāmakarma

36. According to Vaiśeṣika theory of atomism, which one of the following is NOT atomic?

(A) Ether (ākāśa)

(B) Earth (pṛthvi)

(C) Fire (tejas)

(D) Air (vāyu)

37. The Cārvāka system rejects inference (anumāna) as a pramāṇa because it does not accept:

(A)  Invariable concomitance (vyāpti)

(B)  Comparison (upamāna) as a pramāṇa

(C)  The theory of pramāṇa altogether

(D)  Śabda as a pramāṇa

38. The Muṇḍakopaniṣad distinguishes between ‘higher knowledge’ (parā vidyā) and ‘lower knowledge’ (aparā vidyā). What does the higher knowledge (parā vidyā) imply?

(A) Knowledge of the Ātman

(B) Knowledge of the World

(C) Knowledge of Karma

(D) Knowledge of God

39. In the Bhagavadgītā, the conception of ‘lokasamgraha’ denotes that the perfect person:

(A) Purely acts for the wellbeing and welfare of humanity.

(B) Purely concentrates on the Absolute by negating the world.

(C) Fully detaches herself/himself from worldly affairs.

40. Radhakrishnan, in his An Idealistic View of Life, delineates the nature of ultimate reality as “pure consciousness, pure freedom and infinite possibility.” Which school of Indian Philosophy influenced him most?

(B) Sānkhya

(C) Cārvāka

(D) Mīmāmsā

41. Karl Marx in his Economic and Philosophic Manuscripts discusses various forms of alienation within capitalist society. Which of the following appear(s) in Marx’s list of alienation?

(A) From the product of one’s labour

(B) From one’s species-being

(C) From one another

(D) From one’s natural rights

42. Which among the following option(s) define(s) the nature of Forms according to Plato?

(A) Non-mental

(B) Independent of particulars

(C) Temporal

(D) Residing in God

43. Jīva and Ajīva are the Categories (padārtha) in Jainism. Which of the following are included in Ajīva?

(A) Matter (pudgala)

(B) Space (ākāśa)

(C) Motion (dharma)

(D) Cause (hetu)

44. In the Śaivasiddhānta, the Supreme Reality is called Pati, the individual self/soul is called Paśu, and the fetters which bind the souls are called Pāśa. Which of the following are included in Pāśa?

(A) Karma

(B) Māyā

(C) Kāma

(D) Moha

Q.45 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

“Only, unlike Kant, we do not see man as being essentially a positive will. On the contrary, he is first defined as a negativity. He is first at a distance from himself. He can coincide with himself only by agreeing never to rejoin himself. There is within him a perpetual playing with the negative, and he thereby escapes himself, he escapes his freedom. And it is precisely because an evil will is here possible that the words “to will oneself free” have a meaning. Therefore, not only do we assert that the existentialist doctrine permits the elaboration of an ethics, but it even appears to us as the only philosophy in which an ethics has its place. For, in a metaphysics of  transcendence, in the classical sense of the term, evil is reduced to error; and in humanistic philosophies it is impossible to account for it, man being defined as complete in a complete world. Existentialism alone gives – like religions – a real role to evil, and it is this, perhaps, which make its judgments so gloomy. Men do not like to feel themselves in danger.”

– Simone de Beauvoir, The Ethics of Ambiguity

Which one of the following claim is made in the passage regarding Existentialism?

(A) Its emphasis on negativity means that it can account for evil.

(B) It cannot give rise to an ethic since it rejects the idea of evil.

(C) It believes that evil is a kind of error.

(D) It must withhold judgments about evil.

46. Keeping in mind the central commitments of John Dewey’s Pragmatism, which one of the following applies to his concept of experience?

(A) It involves transaction between the individual and her environment.

(B) It is an inferior source of knowledge.

(C) It is shaped by the environment but cannot modify the environment.

(D) It is overridden by reason in validating knowledge.

47. All Covid-19 patients are fighters

No Covid-19 patients are children

Therefore, no children are fighters

Which one among the following options determines the mood, figure, and fallacy of the above argument?

(A) AEE, III Figure, Illicit Major

(B) AEE, II Figure, Undistributed Middle

(C) AEE, III Figure, Illicit Minor

(D) AEE, II Figure, Existential Fallacy

48. In the theory of causation, the effect (kārya) is non-existent (asat) before its creation; it is a new beginning (ārambha). Which one of the following schools of thought in Indian philosophy upholds this theory?

(A) Nyāya

(B) Vedānta

(C) Yoga

(D) Sānkhya

“Passive resistance is a method of securing rights by personal suffering; it is the reverse of resistance by arms. When I refuse to do a thing that is repugnant to my conscience, I use soul-force. For instance, the Government of the day has passed a law which is applicable to me. I do not like it. If by using violence I force the Government to repeal the law, I am employing what may be termed body-force. If I do not obey the law and accept the penalty for its breach, I use soul-force. It involves sacrifice of self.”

– M. K. Gandhi, Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule

Which one among the following is NOT in conformity with the above passage?

(A) Soul-force is brute force

(B) Passive resistance involves sacrifice

(C) Conscience is the soul-force

(D) Active resistance is body-force

50. In light of Merleau-Ponty’s concepts of the body and perception in his Phenomenology of Perception, which of the following claim(s) is/are true about my body?

(A) It is the vantage-point of my perception.

(B) It is the subject of perception.

(C) It can appear in my perception just like other objects.

(D) It is not embedded in my field of perception.

51. Plato’s theory of recollection sheds light on the origins of knowledge. Which among the following option(s) does it intend to explain?

(A) Philosophical and mathematical discoveries

(B) Our linguistic capacities

(C) Innateness of knowledge

(D) Only higher learning but not the ordinary learning

52. Which among the following is/are correct statement(s) about Aristotle’s approach to the study of logic and its contribution to science (episteme)?

(A) Logic is a mere tool and not an end in itself.

(B) Logic makes an important but incomplete contribution to science.

(C) The mind-independent nature of things is not accessible only through Logic.

(D) Science employs only Deductive Logic.

53. Which among the following statement(s) is/are in accordance with John Locke’s epistemological concern in his An essay concerning human understanding?

(A) All our knowledge ultimately derives from experience.

(B) Experience immediately provides us with ideas, not knowledge as such.

(C) Reason has no role to play in our acquisition of knowledge.

(D) Our knowledge has no limits.

54. Which among the following fundamental rationalist beliefs concerning the cause and effect relation does David Hume reject?

(A) Causes contain their effects.

(B) Causes entail their effects.

(C) There is necessary connection between cause and effect.

(D) Causal reasoning is not like demonstrative reasoning.

55. If Immanuel Kant is said to have brought about a Copernican revolution in philosophy, it is because of the following reasons:

(A) For bringing foundational change in metaphysics.

(B) For showing that objects conform to perception and not perception to objects.

(C) For placing mind at the center of epistemology.

(D) For bringing foundational change in the theory of morality.

56. What differentiates Logical Positivism of the Vienna Circle from the earlier forms of Empiricism and Positivism of Hume, Mach, Comte and Mill?

(A) In holding that the ultimate basis of knowledge rests upon public experimental verification rather than personal experience.

(B) In holding that metaphysical doctrines are not false but meaningless.

(C) In holding that all genuine knowledge about nature can be expressed in a single language common to all the sciences.

(D) In confirming the possibility of synthetic a priori.

57. Bertrand Russell’s philosophy of Logical Atomism intends to establish his methodological and metaphysical standpoints. Which among the following is/are in accordance with his doctrine?

(A) Everything we experience can be analyzed into logical atoms.

(B) Logical atoms are particulars, qualities, and relations.

(C) Logical atoms are universals, and not about qualities and relations.

(D) We can apprehend the reality as it is in itself, unaffected by the medium of thought.

58. Using the theories of punishment to argue for or against capital punishment, which among the following is/are true?

(A) A combination of Utilitarian and Deterrent theories will argue for capital punishment.

(B) A combination of Utilitarian and Retributive theories will argue for capital punishment.

(C) A combination of Utilitarian and Reformative theories will argue against capital punishment.

(D) A combination of Reformative and Retributive theories will argue against capital punishment.

Answer: (A, B OR A, B, C)

59. Gilbert Ryle believed that Descartes’ mind-body dualism commits a category mistake. Which of the following motive(s) of Descartes lead(s) to this category mistake?

(A) Endorsement of the claims of mechanics but not the Hobbesian kind

(B) Belief in religion and morality

(C) The mental cannot be a variety of the mechanical

(D) Complete endorsement of Hobbesian mechanics

60. Ludwig Wittgenstein, in his Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus, writes, “A picture can depict any reality whose form it has.” Which of the following proposition(s) will be in line with this?

(A) A picture can always display a pictorial form.

(B) A picture has logical form.

(C) A logical picture can depict the world.

(D) A picture can depict its pictorial form.

61. Select the CORRECT combinations of the Vedanta schools (Group-I) and their propounders (Group-II) from the table.

(A) (a) and (iii)

(B) (d) and (ii)

(C) (b) and (i)

(D) (c) and (iv)

62. Which of the following is/are part of the six pāramitās (ṣaḍpāramitā) in Buddhism?

(A) Charity or giving (dāna)

(B) Virtuous conduct (śīla)

(C) Forbearance or patience (kṣānti)

(D) Non-violence (ahimsā)

“Habits of the constitutional morality may be essential for the maintenance of a constitutional form of government. But the maintenance of a constitutional form of Government is not the same thing as a self-government by the people. Similarly, it may be granted that adult suffrage can produce government of the people in the logical sense of the phrase, i.e., in contrast to the government of a king. But it cannot by itself be said to bring about a democratic government, in the sense of the government by the people and for the people.”

– B. R. Ambedkar, “Democracy”, The Essential Writings of B. R. Ambedkar

Which of the following statements is/are NOT in conformity with the above passage?

(A) The maintenance of self-governance is always maintenance of constitutional government.

(B) Constitutional morality may not be essential for preservation of constitutional form of government.

(C) Adult suffrage itself is sufficient to bring about a democratic government.

(D) Elected government is logically in contrast to the government of a king.

“What do I mean by the ideal of universal religion? I do not mean any one universal philosophy, or any one universal mythology, or any one universal ritual held by all; for I know that this world must go on working, wheel within wheel, this intricate mass of machinery, most complex, most wonderful. What can we do then? We can make it run smoothly, we can lessen the friction; we can grease the wheels, as it were. How? By recognizing natural necessity of variation. Just as we have recognized unity by our very nature, so we must also recognize variation. We must learn that truth may be expressed in a hundred thousand ways, and that each of these ways is true as far as it goes. We must learn that same thing can be viewed from a hundred different standpoints, and yet be the same thing.”

– Swami Vivekananda, “The Ideal of a Universal Religion”, The Complete Works of Swami Vivekananda, Vol.II

Which of the following is/are characteristics of Vivekananda’s ideal of universal religion?

(A) No adherence to any particular religion

(B) Celebration of differences

(C) Recognition of multiple truths

(D) Reduction of all religions into a single religion

Deliverance is not for me in renunciation. I feel the embrace of freedom in a thousand bonds of delight.

Thou ever pourest for me the fresh draught of thy wine of various colours and fragrance, filling this earthern vessel to the brim.

My world will light its hundred different lamps with thy flame and place them before the altar of thy temple.

No, I will never shut the doors of my senses. The delights of sight and hearing and touch will bear thy delight.

Yes, all my illusions will burn into illumination of joy, and all my desires ripen into fruits of love.

– Rabindranath Tagore, Gitanjali, Song 73

The above song voices Tagore’s philosophy of life. Which among the following is/are in conformity with the message of the song?

(A) Denial of asceticism.

(B) Worldliness and divinity are not at odds with each other.

(C) Appreciation and enjoyment of the world.

(D) Denial of sensuous indulgence in the world.

PSYCHOLOGY (C5)

XH-C5: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. The construct validity of a test is assessed through ________.

(A)   Convergent and Discriminant validity

(B)   Concurrent and Predictive validity

(C)   Convergent and Predictive validity

(D)   Discriminant and Predictive validity

28. Memory involves three stages. Find out the correct sequence from the following:

(A) Storage, Encoding, Retrieval

(B) Retrieval, Encoding, Storage

(C) Encoding, Storage, Retrieval

(D) Decoding, Encoding, Storage

29. Erickson’s fifth stage of psychosocial development is

(A) Identity vs role confusion

(B) Intimacy vs isolation

(C) Generative vs stagnation

(D) Integrity vs despair

30. Test developers use reverse coding of certain items in a scale to offset the effects of

(A) Social desirability

(B) Acquiescence

(C) Faking

(D) Random responding

31. According to Kohlberg’s theory of Moral development, at which level individuals judge morality in terms of abstract principles?

(A) Pre-conventional

(B) Post-conventional

(C) Conventional

(D) Transcendental

32. You had been driving a car with manual-gear for 5 years. Recently, you started driving a new car with an auto- gear. If you are having any trouble, it is most likely due to _________.

(A) Proactive interference

(B) Retroactive interference

(D) Learning Difficulties

33. Which of the following is not a behaviour therapy technique?

(A) Flooding

(B) Countertransference

(C) Counterconditioning

(D) Systematic desensitization

34. According to Robert Sternberg, “Street Smarts” refers to –

(A) Analytical intelligence

(B) Creative intelligence

(C) Emotional intelligence

(D) Practical intelligence

35. Research design in which several age groups of participants are studied at one particular point of time is called:

(A) Cross-sequential design

(B) Functional design

(C) Cross-sectional design

(D) Longitudinal design

36. Proximo-distal direction of development explains the nature of the development from _____.

(A) Top to bottom

(B) Internal organs to external organs

(C) Centre to periphery

(D) Sensory organ to motor organs

37. A cricket player who could not play an easy ball and gets out without scoring any run and blames the pitch, is an expression of _______.

(A) Sublimation

(B) Regression

(C) Projection

(D) Rationalization

38. The process through which we seek to identify the causes of other’s behaviour and gain knowledge of their stable traits and dispositions is known as _______.

(A) Distribution

(B) Dissemination

(C) Retribution

39. Which of the following techniques is used to measure the variations in the activity of Ascending Reticular Activating System (ARAS)?

(A) ECG

(B) PET

(C) fMRI

(D) EEG

40. The statement “I can do no wrong, but, you can do no right”, refers to ______.

(A) The self-serving bias

(B) The self-other bias

(C) The other-self bias

(D) The other- serving bias

41. Which of the following is a qualitative research design where learned experiences of individuals are examined in their life world?

(A) Phenomenology

(B) Ethnography

(C) Focused-group discussion

(D) Grounded-theory

42. Which part of the brain is responsible for transferring information from STM to LTM?

(A) Amygdala

(B) Hypothalamus

(C) Hippocampus

(D) Cerebellum

43. The mean of a distribution is 14 and standard deviation is 5. What would be the value of coefficient of variation? (round off to two decimal places)

44. Swami gets a test score of 190, the mean is 150 and SD is 25. Assuming normal distribution, the Z score would be _________.

(round off to one decimal place)

Q.45 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

45. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Multiple Analysis of Variance (MANOVA)?

(A)   Tests the mean difference of more than two groups on one dependent variable.

(B)   Tests the mean difference of more than two groups across several dependent variables.

(C)   The independent variable is measured on a nominal scale and dependent variable on an interval or ratio scale.

(D)   The dependent variable is measured on nominal scale and independent variable on an interval or ratio scale.

46. Which of the following statements is/are related to observational learning?

(A) Remembering the steps to perform a task

(B) A person in a dinner wants to know how to use the utensils by watching others

(C) A person uses chocolate to motivate his son to perform the task

(D) A person is capable of reproducing the action after viewing it

47. Find out the statements which are related to different types of reliability?

(A)   The same test is administered to the same people at two points in time

(B)   Give the test once and have it scored by two scorers or by two methods

(C)   Give the test in one administration and then split the test into two halves for scoring

(D) The extent to which people score on a measure are correlated with other variables

48. Which of the following statement(s) regarding test scores and their interpretations is/are correct?

(A)   Frequency distribution are graphs to help us understand the distribution of test scores

(B)   Normal probability distribution is a theoretical distribution to help us understand the distribution of test scores

(C)   Central tendency measures are numerical tools to help us locate the middle of a distribution of a test score

(D)   Measurement of variability are numerical tools to help us understand the spread of a distribution of a test score

49. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

(A)   Auditory hallucination, persecution, and disorganized thinking

(B)   Lack of effect in situation, poor motivation, and social withdrawal

(C)   Loss of interest in day-to-day activities, lack of will, and difficulty in expressing emotions

(D)   Visual hallucination, delusions of grandeur, and delusion of control

50. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about children with ADHD (Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder)?

(A)   They have deficit in brain related executive function

(B)   They have difficulty to control voluntary movements, verbal expression and problem solving due to frontal lobes

(C)   Cerebellum (an area of the brain) does not work properly, which coordinates muscular activity

(D) It is also known as hypokinetic disorder

51. Which of the following assumptions are correct about equity theory?

(A) Focusses on procedural justice

(B) Motivation is influenced by relative and absolute rewards

(C) Referent is the other-inside

(D) Achieving balance between input-output

52. Which of the following statement(s) are related to Bem’s theory of self-perception?

(A) It starts with development of one’s basic self-concept

(B) Behaviour is a source of knowledge

(C) It is related to attitude formation

(D) It suggests that people change their attitude because of their behaviour

53. Which of the following statements are related to social cognition?

(A)   How individuals interpret, analyze, remember and use information about the social world

(B) How people create mental structure to organise knowledge about the social world

(C) How people think about themselves and the social world

(D) It does not allow interaction between people and the environment

54. Which of the following theory(ies) is/are related to work motivation?

(A) Motivation-Hygiene Theory

(B) Expectancy Theory

(C) Trait Theory

(D) ERG Theory

55. Which of the following are not part of Thurstone’s theory of primary mental abilities?

(A) Numerical Ability

(B) Word Fluency

(C) Analytical Ability

(D) Short-Term Memory

56. Which of the following are the competencies of a Bystander?

(A) Deciding how to help a person in need

(B) Deciding how to avoid a person at the time of his/her distress

(C) Deciding to standby with a person at the time of his/her emergency

(D) Too busy to help

57. Which of the following functions are related to pancreas?

(A) Release of hormones

(B) Converts food we eat into fuel for the body cells

(C) It regulates the level of glucose in the blood

(D) It damages digestive system

58. Which of the following psychologists do not belong to behaviourism?

(A) Sigmund Freud

(B) B. F. Skinner

(C) William James

(D) J. B. Watson

59. Which of the following theories of emotion explains that arousal must occur before experience of emotion?

(A) Schachter & Singer’s Theory

(B) Hertzberg’s Theory

(C) Cannon-Bard’s Theory

(D) Maslow’s Theory

60. Who among the following psychologists do not belong to the domain of emotional intelligence?

(A) David Mayer

(B) Sigmund Freud

(C) William James

(D) Robert R. Baron

61. Which of the followings are the projective tests of personality?

(A) Rorschach Inkblot Test

(B) 16 PF

(C) TAT

(D) WAT

62. Which of the followings are not learning disorders?

(A) Dyslexia

(B) Dystopia

(C) Dysgraphia

(D) Dystonia

63. Which of the following concepts are not related to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?

(A) Imprinting

(B) Attachment

(C) Schemas

(D) Zone of Proximal Development

64. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding exploratory factor analysis (EFA) technique?

(A)   It helps to reduce large number of variables into few numbers of factors.

(B)   It helps researchers to investigate concepts that cannot easily be measured directly.

(C)   It extracts maximum common variance from all variables and put them into a common score.

(D) A technique used to verify the factor structure of a set of observed variables.

65. If you want to examine the difference between the work values of employees in public and private sector and the relationship of work values with employee engagement, what would be the appropriate statistics to test the hypotheses?

(A) F-test

(B) t-test

(C) Pearson Product moment correlation

(D) Chi-square

SOCIOLOGY (C6)

XH-C6: Q. 27 – Q. 44 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ), carry ONE mark each

27. In a questionnaire based survey, the following item was asked to a respondent:

“I found the course interesting and structured.”

 Yes  No

Which one of the given options clearly describes the item?

(A) This is a double barreled item.

(B) This is a leading item.

(C) This is negatively worded item.

(D) This item is correctly constructed.

28. Which one of the following is used in causal analysis?

(A) Pearson correlation

(B) Linear regression

(C) Frequency distribution

(D) Standard deviation

29. Which one of the given options reflects Karl Popper’s falsification principle?

(A) Any theory is scientific only if it allows empirical facts to disprove it

(B) Manipulation of observational data will help the researchers to give new results

(C) Scientists should not report false data

(D) Lab based scientific experiments cannot be falsified

30. Resource mobilization theory of social movements analyses social movements as _______.

(A)   the rational undertakings by activists in a movement as they build a collective project

(B)   the emotional dynamics of the activists in a movement

(C)   the pre-existing solidarities of movement entrepreneurs that bring people together

(D)   the revolutionary potential of ordinary people

31. Which one of the following methods uses a control group while validating the impact of intervention programmes?

(A) Qualitative interviews

(B) Quantitative survey

(C) Experimental designs

(D) National sample survey

32. Which is not a trait of a sociological theory?

(A) It is logically interconnected propositions.

(B) It has no relationship with the data.

(C) It can be speculative.

(D) It may predict facts.

33. According to Pierre Bourdieu, the way one speaks or having an accent is ______ form of cultural capital.

(A) an objectified

(B) an embodied

(C) an institutionalized

(D) an unusual

34. Which one of the given options is not a latent function of attending a university?

(A) To receive a certificate or a degree

(B) To find a suitable spouse

(C) To establish startups

(D) To improve physical fitness

35. Who among the following highlighted the concept of ‘Swaraj’ in the reconstruction of traditional village life?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) B.R. Ambedkar

(D) Ram Mohan Roy

36. In the 1960s, India adopted a heavy usage of high yielding varieties of seed, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and new machines to raise the productivity of agricultural land. This process was described as ___________.

(A) White Revolution

(B) Land Revolution

(C) Green Revolution

(D) Technology Revolution

37. Among the Toda of South India, property is inherited patrilineally and ritualistic privileges are inherited matrilineally. This is an example of _______.

(A)   unilateral descent

(B)   matrilineal descent

(C)   pragmatic descent

(D)   bilateral descent

38. Which of the following scholars described India’s villages as a ‘den of ignorance, narrow-mindedness and communalism’?

(A) B.R. Ambedkar

(B) M.K. Gandhi

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) S.S. Jodhka

39. Who among the following gave the concept of ‘global village’?

(A) Marshall McLuhan

(B) Anthony Giddens

(C) Roland Robertson

(D) T.H. Marshall

40. Commodity chain is defined as __________.

(A)   a series of production stages, or network of labour inputs, distributed globally among production sites

(B) importing commodities to meet the domestic needs

(C) outsourcing the marketing of commodities to private agencies

(D) import substituted industrialization

41. Which of the following is a process wherein socialist states guide economic growth through the planned allocation of public and human resources, as an alternative to allocation through the market?

(A) Social capitalism

(B) Centralized planning

(C) Corporatism

(D) Developmentalism

42. An approach that reformulates development emphasizing essential human needs over and above rising incomes is referred to as _________.

(A)   integrated development approach

(B)   endogenous development approach

(C)   basic needs approach

(D)   community development approach

43. Which of the following scholars emphasized the subaltern perspective in social movements involving peasants?

(A) Veena Das

(B) Geeta Chakraborty-Spivak

(C) Jan Breman

(D) Ranajit Guha

44. Which of the following institutions provides the structural link between caste and gender in kinship in India?

(A) Panchayat

(B) Class

(C) Household

(D) Marriage

Q.45 – Q. 65 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each

45. A researcher is conducting a survey about internet use among the students. She was asked to follow a probability sampling technique. Which one of the given options is most suitable?

(A)   Stand in front of the library located in her college and hand over the survey questionnaires.

(B) Collect the email ids of the students and send the questionnaire.

(C)   Collect the roster of students from the college administration and give the questionnaire to those selected through a lottery.

(D) Give the questionnaires to a data collection agency.

46. According to Talcott Parsons, the dichotomies of pattern variables or alternatives an actor can choose in society are: ascription vs _________; affectivity vs _________; and diffuseness vs _________.

(A) achievement, neutrality, specificity

(C) achievement, hatred, specificity

47. According to Peter Blau, there is ________ price in social exchange but only _____ exchange ratio between two social benefits, because personal considerations and social norms influence the process of _______.

(A) an exact equilibrium, an approximate, social exchange

(B) no exact equilibrium, an equal, social exchange

(C) no exact equilibrium, an approximate, social exchange

(D) no exact equilibrium, an approximate, social relationships

48. ANOVA means ______.

(A) analysis of variance

(B) analysis of variable average

(C) another variable average

(D) a non-parametric variable

49. A researcher got excited on seeing a celebrity tweeting about COVID19. She downloaded one million tweets using a software application. Then she analyzed the data to find out whether celebrities have a social conscience. What is this research approach called?

(A) Abductive approach

(B) Inductive approach

(C) Deductive approach

(D) Operations approach

50. According to Robert Merton, innovation is a mode of adaptation when cultural goals are ______ and institutionalized means are _________.

(A) accepted, rejected

(B) rejected, accepted

(C) accepted, accepted

(D) rejected, rejected

51. According to Erving Goffman, __________ refers to an institution where all aspects of a person’s life are regulated by a single authority. Through a process of __________ceremony, the person shall become secondary and invisible in the overbearing social environment.

52. Match the following:

(A) A-III, B-II, C-V, D-I

(B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(C) A-V, B-III, C-II, D-I

(D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-V

53. According to Walt W. Rostow, all nations pass through ________ stages of economic development and _________ stage marks the interval when the old blocks and resistances to steady growth are finally overcome.

(A) five, the take-off

(B) four, the drive to maturity

(C) five, the preconditions for take-off

(D) four, the age of high consumption

54. Which of the following statements are correct?

[i] Gustavo Esteva argues that the 1949 address of the US President Harry S. Truman marks the opening of the era of development.

[ii] According to Escobar, ‘development can best be described as an apparatus that links forms of knowledge about the Third World with the deployment of forms of power and intervention, resulting in the mapping and production of Third World societies’.

(A) [i] only

(B) [ii] only

(C) Both [i] and [ii]

(D) Neither [i] nor [ii]

Q. 55 – Q. 65 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO marks each

55. Which among the listed options most closely replicate(s) Jurgen Habermas’ idea of the public sphere?

(A) PayTM App

(C) IRCTC Portal

56. In the light of given information, which pairs are correct?

M1: Anthony Giddens M2: Robert Merton M3: George Ritzer

X1: Macdonaldization of society X2: Mathew Effect X3: The Third Way

(A) M1X3

(B) M2X2

(C) M1X1

(D) M2X3

57. What concepts were studied in the famous Milgram social experiment where teachers did not hesitate to give electric shocks to learners?

(A) Conformity

(B) Obedience

(C) Deviance

(D) Consciousness

58. According to Max Weber, in addition to power what are the other TWO distinct components of stratification?

(A) Status

(B) Class

(C) Counter Culture

(D) Social Control

59. While writing on the diversity of rural settlements, Bernard Cohn has identified which of the following village patterns?

(A) Nucleated Village

(B) Hamleted Village

(C) Dispersed Village

(D) Joint Village

60. According to Andre Gunder Frank, which of the following factors are responsible for the development of underdevelopment in Latin America?

(A) The survival of archaic institutions

(B) The relationship between the satellite and the metropolis

(C) The existence of capital shortage in developed regions

(D) Participation in the process of world capitalist development

61. Which of the following statements describe the concept of sustainable development?

(A) Shrinking role of the government in favour of the market forces

(B)   Meeting the needs of the present without compromising the needs of the future generations

(C) Conserving natural resources and adopting appropriate technologies

(D) Privileging of the urban classes and manufacturing sector over rural society

62. The categories of caste and tribe have been understood as colonial constructions. Which statements instantiate the above?

(A)   British anthropologists used the categories of caste and tribe to further knowledge and understanding of Indian society.

(B)   The character of these categories were solidified through processes of enumeration and classification undertaken during British rule.

(C)   These categories had no existence prior to British rule.

(D)   Census operations and administrative practices of the colonial regime made these categories what they are today.

63. Which statements express the ideas of A. M. Shah with regard to family and household in India?

(A)   Households are task-oriented residence units while families are kinship groupings that need not be localized.

(B)   Households imply the entire biradari (kin network) while families are neo-local units.

(C)   Households are operational units that function with a family and kinship ideology.

(D)   The family provides the larger ideological set-up within which the household operates.

64. According to Celestin Bougle, the spirit of the caste system is determined by the mutual repulsion that exists between castes. Identify TWO different aspects in which such mutual repulsion is manifested:

(A) Upward mobility

(B) Endogamy

(C) Westernization

(D) Commensal restrictions

65. Which of the following statements explain and illustrate the term ‘tragedy of commons’?

(A) Wasteland development and the ensuing privatization of commons

(B) Transference of rights and control from the community to development agencies

(C) Regeneration of ecologically appropriate tree cover

(D) Socially appropriate community control over a regenerated resource base

## GATE Exam 2022 Engineering Sciences (XE) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2022

XE: Engineering Science

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. The movie was funny and I _________.

(A) could help laughing

(B) couldn’t help laughed

(C) couldn’t help laughing

(D) could helped laughed

2.

What is the value of

(A) 0.75

(B) 1.25

(C) 2.25

(D) 3.25

3. Both the numerator and the denominator of 3/4 are increased by a positive integer, x, and those of 15/17 are decreased by the same integer. This operation

results in the same value for both the fractions.

What is the value of x?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

4. A survey of 450 students about their subjects of interest resulted in the following outcome.

• 150 students are interested in Mathematics.

• 200 students are interested in Physics.

• 175 students are interested in Chemistry.

• 50 students are interested in Mathematics and Physics.

• 60 students are interested in Physics and Chemistry.

• 40 students are interested in Mathematics and Chemistry.

• 30 students are interested in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry.

• Remaining students are interested in Humanities.

Based on the above information, the number of students interested in Humanities is

(A) 10

(B) 30

(C) 40

(D) 45

5.

For the picture shown above, which one of the following is the correct picturerepresenting reflection with respect to the mirror shown as the dotted line?

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks each.

6. In the last few years, several new shopping malls were opened in the city. The total number of visitors in the malls is impressive. However, the total revenue generated through sales in the shops in these malls is generally low.

Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information in the above passage?

(A) Fewer people are visiting the malls but spending more

(B) More people are visiting the malls but not spending enough

(C) More people are visiting the malls and spending more

(D) Fewer people are visiting the malls and not spending enough

7. In a partnership business the monthly investment by three friends for the first six months is in the ratio 3: 4: 5. After six months, they had to increase their monthly investments by 10%, 15% and 20%, respectively, of their initial monthly investment. The new investment ratio was kept constant for the next six months.

What is the ratio of their shares in the total profit (in the same order) at the end of the year such that the share is proportional to their individual total investment over the year?

(A) 22 : 23 : 24

(B) 22 : 33 : 50

(C) 33 : 46 : 60

(D) 63 : 86 : 110

8. Consider the following equations of straight lines:

Line L1: 2x− 3y= 5

Line L2: 3x+ 2y= 8

Line L3: 4x− 6y= 5

Line L4: 6x− 9y= 6

Which one among the following is the correct statement?

(A) L1 is parallel to L2 and L1 is perpendicular to L3

(B) L2 is parallel to L4 and L2 is perpendicular to L1

(C) L3 is perpendicular to L4 and L3 is parallel to L2

(D) L4 is perpendicular to L2 and L4 is parallel to L3

9. Given below are two statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements.

Statement 1: Some soaps are clean.

Statement 2: All clean objects are wet.

Conclusion I: Some clean objects are soaps.

Conclusion II: No clean object is a soap.

Conclusion III: Some wet objects are soaps.

Conclusion IV: All wet objects are soaps.

Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

(A) Only conclusion I is correct

(B) Either conclusion I or conclusion II is correct

(C) Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct

(D) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct

10. An ant walks in a straight line on a plane leaving behind a trace of its movement. The initial position of the ant is at point P facing east.

The ant first turns 72° anticlockwise at P, and then does the following twosteps in sequence exactly FIVE times before halting.

(1)moves forward for 10 cm.

(2) turns 144° clockwise.

The pattern made by the trace left behind by the ant is

Engineering Sciences

XE-A

Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. The value of  is

(A) 0

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

12. Let ℂ = {z = x + iy : x and y are real numbers, i = √−1} be the set of complex numbers. Let the function f(z) = u(x, y) + iv(x, y) for z = x + iy ∈ℂ be analytic in ℂ, where

u(x, y) = xy3 – yx3 and

If f′(z) denotes the derivative of f(z), then

(A) |f′ (−1 + i)|2 = 1

(B) |f′(−1 + i)|2 = 7

(C) |f′(−1 + i)|2 = 8

(D) |f′(−1 + i)|2 = 10

13. If the partial differential equation

is parabolic on the circle (x – a)2 + (y – b)2 = r2, then the values of a, b and r are given by

(A) a = 1, b = 2, r = 1

(B) a = −1, b = 2, r = 1

(C) a = 1, b = −2, r = 1

(D) a = −1, b = −2, r = 1

14. Let Γ be the positively oriented circle x2 + y2 = 9 in the xy-plane. If

whereα is a real constant, then α is equal to ________.

15. Let y1 (x) and y2(x) be two linearly independent solutions of

Let W(y1,  y2) (x) denote the Wronskian of y1(x) and y2(x) at x.

If W(y1, y­2) (1) = 1 then W(y1, y2) (2) is equal to______.

16. Let  Then the sum of the geometric multiplicities of the distinct eigenvalues of A is equal to ________.

17. In a cosmopolitan city, the population comprises of 30% female and 70% male. Suppose that 5% of female and 30% of male in the population are foreigners. A person is selected at random from this population. Given that the selected person is a foreigner, the probability that the person is a female is ________ (round off to three decimal places).

Q.18 – Q.21 Carry TWO marks Each

18. Let f: (0, ∞) →ℝ be the continuous function such that  x > 0, where  for all x > 0. Then f(2) is equal to

(A) 2 + loge 2

(B) 2 – loge 2

(C) 2 + loge 4

(D) 2 – loge 4

19. Let A and B be n × n matrices with real entries.

Consider the following statements:

P: If A is symmetric then rank(A) = Number of nonzero eigenvalues (counting multiplicity) of A.

Q: If AB = 0 then rank(A) +rank (B)≤ n.

Then

(A) both P and Q are TRUE

(B) P is TRUE and Q is FALSE

(C) P is FALSE and Q is TRUE

(D) both P and Q are FALSE

20. Let f :ℝ2→ℝ be given by f(x, y) = 4xy – 2x2 – y4 + 1. The number of critical points where f has local maximum is equal to ________.

21. If the quadrature rule  where α, β, γ are real constants, is exact for all polynomials of degree ≤ 3, then γ + 3(α2 + β2) + (α3 + β3) is equal to _______.

Fluid Mechanics: XE-B

(Q.22 – Q.30 Carry ONE mark Each)

22. A heavy horizontal cylinder of diameter D supports a mass of liquid having density ρ as shown in the figure. Find out the vertical component of force exerted by the liquid per unit length of the cylinder if g is the acceleration due to gravity.

23. The figure shows the developing zone and the fully developed region in a pipe flow where the steady flow takes place from left to right. The wall shear stress in the sections A, B, C, and D are given byτA, τB, τC,  and τD, respectively. Select the correct statement.

(A) τAB

(B) τBA

(C) τCB

(D) τCD

24. The left hand column lists some non-dimensional numbers and the right hand column lists some physical phenomena. Indicate the correct combination

(A) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv

(B) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-iii

(C) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-iii

(D) 2-iv, 1-iii, 3-ii, 4-i

25. As temperature increases

(A) the dynamic viscosity of a gas increases.

(B) the dynamic viscosity of a liquid decreases.

(C) the dynamic viscosity of a liquid does not change.

(D) the dynamic viscosity of a gas decreases.

26. Which of the following statement(s) regarding a venturimeter is/are correct?

(A) In the direction of flow, it consists of a converging section, a throat, and adiverging section.

(B) In the direction of flow, it consists of a diverging section, a throat, and aconverging section.

(C) It is used for flow measurement at a very low Reynolds number.

(D) Pressure tappings are provided just upstream of the venturimeter and at the throat.

27. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for streamlines in a steady incompressible flow?

(A) Two streamlines cannot intersect each other.

(B) Flow rate increases between two diverging streamlines.

(C) Flow rate decreases between two diverging streamlines.

(D) Stream function has a constant value along a streamline.

28. A flow has a velocity potential given by ϕ = Ax3 where ‘A’ is a non-zero constant. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the flow?

(A) The flow is incompressible.

(B) The flow is irrotational.

(C) The flow has local acceleration.

(D) The flow has convective acceleration.

29. A boundary layer develops due to a two-dimensional steady flow over a horizontal flat plate. Consider a vertical line away from the leading edge which extends from the wall to the edge of the boundary layer. Which of the following quantity/quantities is/are not constant along the vertical line? u and v represent the components of velocity in the direction along the plate and normal to it, respectively and x is taken along the length of the plate while p is the pressure. Neglect body forces.

(A) u

(B) ∂u/∂x

(C) v

(D) p

30. A 10 kg mass placed on an infinitely long horizontal massless flat platform is to be supported by a steady vertical water jet as shown in the figure. The diameter of the jet is 5 cm. What minimum average velocity is required to hold the mass in place?

Assume ρwater = 1000 kg/m3 and π = 3.14. Neglect friction. (Round off to two decimal places)

Q.31 – Q.43 Carry TWO marks Each

31. Consider an inviscid flow through a smooth pipe which has a pitot-static tube arrangement as shown. Find the centre-line velocity in the pipe. Consider that the density of the fluid is 1000 kg/m3, acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2, and the specific gravity of the manometric fluid is 11.

(A) 2 m/s

(B) 3m/s

(C) 5m/s

(D) 7m/s

32. The speed of propagation, c, of a capillary wave depends on the density of the fluid, ρ, the wavelength of the wave, λ, and the surface tension, σ. If the density and wavelength remain constant, halving the surface tension would lead to a new velocity, c’, given by

(A) c’ = 2c

(B) c’ = √2c

(C) c’ = c/√2

(D) c’ = c

33. A two-dimensional flow field is described by a combination of a source of strength m at the origin and a uniform flow, U, in the positive x-direction such that the velocity potential is given by

The stagnation streamline is shown in the figure. Find the distance aa’.

(A) m/U

(B) 2m/U

(C) 8m/U

(D) m/2U

34. A typical boundary layer over a flat plate has a linear velocity profile with zero velocity at the wall and free stream velocity, U, at the outer edge of the boundary layer. What is the ratio of the momentum thickness to the thickness of the boundary layer?

(A) 1/2

(B) 1/4

(C) 1/6

(D) 1/3

35. Identify the configuration(s) in which steady two-dimensional internal flow may show boundary layer separation if the flow direction is left to right.

36. Consider steady fully developed flow of a liquid through two large horizontal flat parallel plates separated by a distance of 2 mm. One of the plate is fixed and the other plate moves at a speed of 0.5 m/s. What is the magnitude of the pressure gradient (in Pa/m) in the direction of the flow required to ensure that the net flow through the plates is zero?

Dynamic viscosity of the liquid is 5× 104 Ns/m2

(Round off to the nearest integer)

37. Consider two-dimensional turbulent flow of air over a horizontal flat plate of length 1 m. Skin friction coefficient at a length x from the leading edge of the plate is obtained as:

where, Rex is the local Reynolds number.

Find out the drag force per unit width (in N/m2) on the plate if the free stream air velocity is 10 m/s.

Density and dynamic viscosity of air are given as 1.2 kg/m3 and 1.83 × 105 N-s/m2,respectively.

(Round off to three decimal places)

38. For an inviscid fluid with density 1 kg/m3, the Cartesian velocity field is given as:

u = (−2x + y)ti + (2x + y) tj m/s

Neglecting the body forces, find the magnitude of pressure gradient in (Pa/m) at (x, y) = (1 m, 1 m) at t = 1s.

(Round off to two decimal places)

39. Consider a lawn sprinkler with horizontal arms of radius, a = 10 cm which has water introduced vertically through the centre, as shown in the figure. The exit area of the jet is 25 cm2 and the jet velocity is 1 m/s. The water is ejected orthogonal to the sprinkler arm and the jet makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal plane. Find the torque (in N-m) required to hold the sprinkler stationary.

Consider water density 1000 kg/m3. Neglect the effects of friction and gravity.

(Round off to two decimal places)

40. A wooden cylinder (specific gravity = 0.6) of length L and diameter D floats in water (density 1000 kg/m3). Find out the minimum value of D/L for which the cylinder floats with its axis vertical.

(Round off to three decimal places)

41. Consider a cart of mass 10 kg placed on an inclined plane (angle of inclination 60° with horizontal) as shown in the figure. A turning vane of negligible weight is mounted on the cart. A horizontal steady water jet is issued from a stationary nozzle of area 0.1 m2 and strikes the turning vane as shown in the figure. The vane turns the jet downward parallel to the inclined plane. Find out the minimum jet velocity (in m/s) which will not allow the cart to come down. Neglect friction, consider density of water = 1000 kg/m3 and acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s2. (Round off to two decimal places)

42. A siphon is used to drain out water (density 1000 kg/m3) from a tank as shown in the figure. What can be the maximum height z (in meter) of the point C?

Consider acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s2, pressure at point A = 101 kPa, vapour pressure of water = 29.5 kPa and neglect friction.

(Round off to two decimal places)

43. The horizontal belt of negligible weight shown in the figure moves with a steady velocity (V) of 2.5 m/s and skims over the top surface of an oil-film of depth h = 3 cm. The length (L) and width (b) of the belt are, respectively, 2 m and 60 cm. Find the viscosity of the oil (in Pa-s), given that the minimum power required to move the belt is 100 W. Neglect the end effects. (Round off to two decimal places)

Materials Science XE-C

Q.44 – Q.52 Carry ONE mark Each

44. Number of atoms per unit area of the (110) plane of a body centered cubic crystal, with lattice parameter ‘a’, is

(A) 1/a2

(B) √2/a2

(C) 1/√3a2

(D) 1/√2a2

45. Match the following materials with their corresponding bonding types.

(A) P – 4; Q – 2; R – 3; S – 1

(B) P – 3; Q – 4; R – 2; S – 1

(C) P – 3; Q – 2; R – 1; S – 4

(D) P – 3; Q – 1; R – 4; S – 2

46. In an ideal rubber, the primary factor responsible for elasticity up to small strains is

(A) Change in both enthalpy and entropy

(B) Change in enthalpy, but no change in the entropy

(C) No change in enthalpy, but change in the entropy

(D) Neither a change in enthalpy, nor a change in the entropy

47. Which one of the following statements is true for an intrinsic semiconductor?

(A) Electrical conductivity increases with increasing temperature and pressure

(B)  Electrical conductivity increases with increasing temperature and decreasing pressure

(C)  Electrical conductivity increases with decreasing temperature and increasing pressure

(D) Electrical conductivity increases with decreasing temperature and pressure

48. A differential scanning calorimetry (DSC) experiment tracks the heat flow into or out of a system as a function of temperature. If the experiments given in the options below are performed at 1 atmospheric pressure, then in which case will the DSC thermogram exhibit a spike, either upward or downward?

(A) Heating 10 mg of pure Cu from 323 K to 673 K

(B) Cooling pure water from 323 K to 278 K

(C) Heating pure ice from 263 K to 284 K

(D) Cooling a Pb-Sn alloy at the eutectic composition from 323 K to 273 K

49. Which one of the following solvent environments will likely result in swelling of solid polystyrene?

(A) 0.1 M NaOH in H2O

(B) HCl (aq.) of pH = 6

(C) Distilled water

(D) Benzene

50. Vickers microhardness (HV) of a ductile material A is higher than another ductile material B. Which of the following is/are true?

(A) Young’s modulus of A is greater than B

(B) Yield strength of A is greater than B

(C) Scratch resistance of A is greater than B

(D) Ductility of A is greater than B

51. The enthalpy required to create an oxygen vacancy in CeO2 is 4 eV. The number

of oxygen vacancies present per mole of CeO2 at 1000 K is _________.

(Round off to the nearest integer)

Given:

NA :Avogadro’s number = 6.02 × 1023 mole1

kB : Boltzmann’s constant = 8.62 × 105 eV/K

52. An electrochemical reaction is known to occur at +4.50 V against a Li+/Li reference electrode. The potential of the same reaction against a Zn2+/Zn reference electrode is __________ V. (Round off to two decimal places).

Given:

E0 (Li+/Li) = −3.04 V versus Standard Hydrogen Electrode

E0 (Zn2+/Zn) = −0.77 V versus Standard Hydrogen Electrode

Q.53 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

53. For a binary system at constant pressure, there are two types of invariant reactions:

(i) α ↔ β + γ

(ii) α + β ↔ γ

Analogously, how many different types of invariant reactions may exist under

variable temperature and pressure, for a binary system?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

54. For a glass marginally below its glass transition temperature, which one of the following statements is true?

(A) Glass has higher enthalpy than both the corresponding crystalline and liquid phases

(B) Glass has lower enthalpy than both the corresponding crystalline and liquid phases

(C) Glass has higher entropy than the corresponding crystalline phase and lower entropy than the corresponding liquid phase

(D) Glass has lower entropy than the corresponding crystalline phase and higher entropy than the corresponding liquid phase

55. Which one of the following samples of high-purity aluminium (Al) single crystal will plastically yield at the lowest applied load under ambient conditions? Loading axis is along the direction shown in the schematic.

(A) (i)

(B) (ii)

(C) (iii)

(D) (iv)

56. Refer to the schematic shown. Two dog-bone samples, labelled 1 and 2, of a Cualloy are tested under tension at room temperature to points “E” and “P”, respectively. Subsequently, they are unloaded completely and metallographically polished. Brinell hardness testing was performed in the gauge section of the samples. Which one of the following can be inferred about the measured Brinell hardness number (BHN)?

(A) BHN of 1 > BHN of 2

(B) BHN of 1 = BHN of 2

(C) BHN of 1 < BHN of 2

(D) A conclusion about BHN of samples 1 and 2 cannot be made, with the provided information

57. During the ageing of a homogenized Al-Cu alloy (1 to 4 wt.% Cu) below the GP zone solvus, hardness of the alloy:

(A) increases monotonically

(B) decreases monotonically

(C) first increases and then decreases

(D) first decreases and then increases

58. A student aims to deposit a thin metallic film on SiO2 substrate, with an adhesion layer between the metal film and substrate, in a contiguous planar fashion. Island type of growth must be avoided. The student performs an extensive optimization exercise. Which one of the following steps is in the right direction?

(A) Choose a metallic adhesion layer with very low interfacial energy with the deposited thin film

(B) Choose a metallic adhesion layer with very low interfacial energy with SiO2,irrespective of its interaction with metal film to be deposited

(C) Increase the substrate temperature and decrease the deposition rate

(D) Use intermittent stages of deposition followed by annealing

59. For a diffusional transformation (i.e., growth of β precipitates in an α matrix), which of the following is/are true with increasing degree of undercooling?

(A) Rate of transformation first increases and then decreases

(B) Rate of transformation first decreases and then increases

(C) Thermodynamic driving force increases monotonically

(D) Mobility of atoms in α matrix remains unchanged

60. A two-phase (α + β) mixture of an A-B binary system has the following properties:

(i) Phase α has equal weight percentages of A and B.

(ii) Phase β has twice the mole fraction of A compared to B.

(iii) The two-phase mixture has equal amounts of α and β.

(iv) Atomic mass of A is twice that of B.

The mole fraction of A in the resultant two-phase mixture is _________.(Round off to one decimal)

61. It is known that component A diffuses into a solid to a depth of 10 μm in 1 hour at 300 K. Treat diffusion in one dimension. The time taken for A to diffuse to the same depth at 600 K is ________ seconds. (Round off to 1 decimal).

Diffusivity of A in the solid is given by

DA0 : Diffusivity coefficient

Ea : Activation energy = 0.3 eV

kB : Boltzmann’s constant = 8.62 × 10−5 eV/K

T : Absolute temperature

62. A spherical β particle nucleates from the α matrix on a non-deformable substrate δ, forming a contact angle of θ as shown in the schematic.

The value of  is _________. (Round off to three decimal places)

∆G*hom = Gibbs free energy change at the critical radius for homogeneous nucleation

∆G*het = Gibbs free energy change at the critical radius for heterogeneous nucleation

α-β interfacial energy = 0.4 J/m2

α-δ interfacial energy = 0.3 J/m2

β-δ interfacial energy = 0.02 J/m2

63. The resistivity of a pure semiconductor at 298 K is 3000 Ωm. Assume that the number of electrons excited (ne) across the band gap is given by the relation

NA :Avogadro’s number = 6.02×1023 mole1

kB :Boltzmann’s constant = 8.62× 105 eV/K

T: Absolute temperature

Mobility of electrons in the semiconductor = 0.14 m2/(V s)

Mobility of holes in the semiconductor = 0.06 m2/(V s)

Absolute charge of an electron = 1.60×1019 C

The band gap (Eg) of the semiconductor is ________ eV.(Round off to two decimals)

64. A new glass material is developed to minimize the transmission of the light through the window with glass panel of thickness 5 mm. The refractive index of the glass material is 1.5 and the absorption coefficient can be changed from 0.3 cm-1 to 1 cm-1. In the given range of absorption coefficients, the ratio of the maximum to the minimum fraction of the light coming out of the other side of the glass panel is ________. (Round off to two decimal places)

65. The third peak in the X-ray diffraction pattern of a face-centered cubic crystal is at 2θ value of 45°, where 2θ is the angle between the incident and reflected rays. The wavelength of the monochromatic X-ray beam is 1.54 Å. Considering first-order reflection, the lattice parameter of the crystal is _________ Å. (Round off to two decimal places)

Solid Mechanics XE-D

Q.66 – Q.74 Carry ONE mark Each

66. A force F is applied at an angle θ = 30° on an elastic column as shown in the figure. E and I are respectively the Young’s modulus and area moment of inertia. The smallest magnitude of 𝐹 needed to cause buckling is

67. The shear stress due to a transverse shear force in a linear elastic isotropic beam of rectangular cross-section

(A) varies linearly along the depth in the transverse direction of the beam

(B) is zero at the neutral axis

(C) is maximum at the neutral axis

(D) remains constant along the depth in the transverse direction of the beam

68. A massless semicircular rod held fixed at end A is in the xy-plane, as shown in the figure. A force P along the negative z direction is acting at point B on the rod. The unit vectors along x, y and z directions are denoted respectively as i, j and k. Due to the applied force P, the cross-section of the rod at point D will be subjected to

(A) a twisting moment PR(1 – cos θ), a bending moment PR sin θ j, and a shear force –P k

(B) a twisting moment PR(1 – sin θ) i, a bending moment PR cos θ j, and a shear force P k

(C) a twisting moment PR(cos θ – 1) i, a bending moment –PR sin θ j, and a shear force –P k

(D) a twisting moment PR sin θ i, a bending moment PR(1 – cos) θ j, and a shear force P k

69. In the truss shown in the figure, all the members are pin jointed to each other. The members AB, BD, DE and DC have the same length. For the given loading, which of the following is the correct statement?

(A) BD is a zero-force member, and AB and ED are in compression

(B) AB is in tension, ED is in compression, and BD is a zero-force member

(C) AB and DC are in tension, and BC is in compression

(D) ED is in tension, and DC and BC are in compression

70. End B of the 2 m long rigid rod AB is constrained to move horizontally in the slot as shown in the figure and has a velocity of 1.0 i m/s. The angular velocity of the rod at the instant shown is 2 rad/s. The unit vectors along x and y directions are denoted respectively as i and j. The velocity of point A in m/s is then given by

(A) (1 – 2√3)i + 2j

(B) (1 + 2√3)i − 2j

(C) −2√3i + 2j

(D) 2√3i − 2j

71. The assembly of four masses connected by rigid mass-less rods is kept on a smooth horizontal floor as shown in the figure. Under the applied force 2F, the magnitude of angular acceleration of the assembly at the instant shown is

(A) F/mc

(B) F/2mc

(C) 2F/3mc

(D) F/3mc

72. A particle is constrained to move at a constant speed on an inclined plane (ABCD) along the curved path shown in the figure. Edges AD and BC are parallel to the y axis. The inclined plane makes an angle θ with the xy-plane. The velocity vector of the particle makes an angle ϕ with the dotted line which is parallel to edge AB. If the speed of the particle is 2 m/s, ϕ = 30°, and θ = 40°, then the z-component of the velocity of the particle in m/s is _________

(A) −132

(B)  −1.00

(C) −1.11

(D) −1.50

73. A uniform elastic rod of constant cross-section is fixed at its left end as shown in the figure. An axial force P is acting as shown. Assume that plane sections remain plane during deformation. The ratio of axial displacements at point A(x = 4L) to that at point B (x = L) is ______ (rounded off to one decimal place)

74. A thin-walled spherical pressure vessel has a mean radius of 500 mm and wall thickness of 10 mm. The yield strength of the material is 500 MPa. The internal pressure in MPa at which the spherical pressure vessel will yield according to the Tresca criterion is ____________ (rounded off to one decimal place)

Q.75 – Q.87 Carry TWO marks Each

75. The beam in the figure is subjected to a moment M0 at mid span as shown. Which of the following is the vertical reaction at B?

76. A spring-mass system having a mass m and spring constant k, placed horizontally on a foundation, is connected to a vertically hanging mass m with the help of an inextensible string. Ignore the friction in the pulleys and also the inertia of pulleys, string and spring. Gravity is acting vertically downward as shown. The natural frequency of the system in rad/s is

77. One end of a uniform rigid rod OA of length L and mass m is attached to a frictionless hinge at O. The other end of the rod is connected to the roof at B with a mass-less inextensible thread AB. Initially the rod is horizontal and at rest. The gravity is acting vertically downward as shown. Immediately after the thread AB is cut, the reaction on the rod at O is

(A) mg/4 in the positive y-direction

(B) mg/2 in the negative y-direction

(C) 3mg/4 in the negative y-direction

(D) mgin the positive y-direction

78. A circular shaft is rigidly connected to a wall at one end. The shaft has a solid portion and a hollow portion as shown in the figure. The length of each portion is L and the shear modulus of the material is G. The polar moment of inertia of the hollow portion is J and that of the solid portion is 50 J. A torque T is applied at the right most end as shown. The rotation of the section PQ is

(A) 27TL/100JG

(B)  TL/40JG

(C) 5TL/4JG

(D) 3TL/4JG

79. A rectangular plate of uniform thickness having initial length a and width b is placed between two rigid immovable walls. The temperature of the plate is increased by ∆ The plate is free to expand along the y and z directions. The mid-surface of the plate remains in the xy-plane. The Poisson’s ratio is v and the coefficient of thermal expansion is α. Assuming that the plate is initially free of stresses, the change in length of the plate after the increase in temperature is given by

(A) a(1 – v)α∆T

(B) a(1 + v)α∆T

(C) aα∆T

(D) 2aα∆T

80. A mass m = 10 kg is attached to a spring as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between the mass and the inclined plane is 0.25. Assume that the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2 and that static and kinematic friction coefficients are the same. Equilibrium of the mass is impossible if the spring force is

(A) 30 N

(B) 45 N

(C) 60 N

(D) 75 N

81. The frame shown in the figure is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 1000 N/m over a distance of 0.6 m. Neglecting the weight of the frame, the maximum shear force (in N) in the region between the supports A and B of the frame is ________.

82. A slider moving in a frictionless slot is connected with a linear spring OA as shown in the figure. The following is known: stiffness of the spring = 2 kN/m, mass of the slider = 10 kg, and the unstretched length of the spring = 1 m. If the slider is released from rest at A the magnitude of its velocity (in m/s) when it passes through point B is ________ (rounded off to the nearest integer)

83. A sphere A of mass 𝑚 is thrown into the air at 50 m/s along a direction tan1 (3/4) up from the horizontal. At the topmost point of its trajectory, it has a central (nonoblique) collision with another sphere B which is at rest on top of a vertical pole. Sphere B has a mass of 3m. Acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2. Neglect contact friction and air-resistance. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.3, then the speed (in m/s) of sphere A immediately after the collision is _______ (rounded off to one decimal place)

84. The truck shown in the figure is moving on a horizontal road at a speed of 20 m/s. It is carrying a box of mass 1000 kg, which is simply placed on the truck platform. The coefficient of friction between the truck platform and the box is 0.25. Take acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2. Assume uniform deceleration during braking, and the coefficients of static and kinetic friction to be the same. The shortest distance in meters in which the truck can be brought to rest without the box slipping is _______(round off to the nearest integer)

85. The stepped rod of length 2 m, shown in the figure, is fixed at both ends (A and C). The area of cross-section of portion AB is 200 mm2 and that of portion BC is 100 mm2. Force F is applied at section B such that the section is displaced by 0.1 mm in the direction of the force. Young’s modulus of the rod is 200 GPa. The applied force F in N is _______ (round off to the nearest integer)

86. A cantilever beam has a span of 1 m and carries a uniformly distributed load of q = 1250 N/m over a portion as shown. A force F =1000 N acts at a distance L from the fixed end. The distance L is such that the bending moment at the fixed end is zero. The beam has a rectangular cross-section of depth 20 mm and width 24 mm. For this loading, the magnitude of the maximum bending stress in the beam in MPa is _________(round off to the nearest integer)

87. The figure shows two identical mass-less beams AB and CD, each clamped at one of their ends. The left end of beam CD rests on the right end of beam AB such that the ends of the beams are just in contact. The beams are unstressed before the application of load. Assume no friction at the contact. Now, if a uniformly distributed load of 800 N/m is applied on beam CD, the bending moment at the end B of beam AB in N.m is ________ (rounded off to the nearest integer)

Thermodynamics XE (E)

Q.88 – Q.96 Carry ONE mark each

88. The energy equation for a reversible non-flow process can be expressed as δq = du + pdv, where q is the heat transfer per unit mass, u is the internal energy per unit mass, p is the pressure, and v is the mass specific volume. This energy equation is not in exact differential form. It can be made exact differential by multiplying with the following integrating factor:

(T is the absolute temperature)

(A) 1/p

(B) 1/v

(C) 1/T

(D) 1/uT

89. An air standard Diesel cycle consists of four processes: 1-2 (isentropic compression), 2-3 (constant pressure heat addition), 3-4 (isentropic expansion) and4-1 (constant volume heat rejection). T4 is the temperature (in K) attained at the end of isentropic expansion (3-4) before constant volume heat rejection. The constant volume heat rejection process (4-1) is replaced by a constant pressure heat rejection process (4a-1) such that T4a is the temperature (in K) reached at the end of isentropic expansion (3-4a), and the state point 1 remains the same. Then

(A) T4a< T4

(B) T4a> T4

(C) T4a = T4

(D) T4a = 2T4

90. Gas in a cylinder-piston device expands from state 1 ( p1,V1,T1) to state (p2,V2, T2). The expansion process is polytropic, i.e., pVn = constant, n ≠ Assuming the ideal gas behaviour, the expression for the work done, W by the system is given by

91. The temperature of the working fluid in a real heat engine cycle changes during heat addition and heat rejection processes. The maximum and minimum temperatures of the cycle are Tmax and Tmin, respectively. If ηC is the thermal efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between these temperature limits, then the thermal efficiency, η of the real heat engine satisfies the relation

(A) η > ηC

(B) η < ηC

(C) η = ηC

(D) η = 1 + ηC

92. A 1.2 m3 rigid vessel contains 8 kg of saturated liquid-vapor mixture at 150 kPa. The specific enthalpy of this mixture is ______ kJ/kg (round off to 2 decimal places).

At 150 kPa: vf = 0.001053 m3/kg, vg = 1.1594 m3/kg

hf = 467.13 kJ/kg, hg = 2693.1 kJ/kg

93. Air in a closed system undergoes a thermodynamic process from an initial temperature of 300 K to the final temperature of 400 K. The specific heat of air at constant volume, cv varies linearly with the temperature, T (in K) as

cv = (0.7 + 0.27 × 103T) kJ/(kg K).

Change in the specific internal energy of the air in the system is _______ kJ/kg

(round off to 2 decimal places).

94. A vertical cylinder-piston device contains a fixed mass of gas in equilibrium. The cross-sectional area of the piston is 0.05 m2. For 150 kPa pressure of the gas in the cylinder, the mass of the piston is _______ kg (round off to 2 decimal places). Assume that the atmospheric pressure is 100 kPa and the acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2.

95. A steam power plant operates on Rankine cycle. At certain operating condition of the plant, there is a reduction of 20% net work output (kJ/kg) as compared to 100% capacity. This reduction will cause the specific steam consumption (kg/kJ) to increase by _______% (in integer).

96. A Carnot heat pump extracts heat from the environment at 250 K, and supplies 6 kW of heat to a room which is maintained at a constant temperature TH. The heat pump requires a power input of 1 kW for its operation. Then, the temperature of the room TH is _______ K (round off to nearest integer).

Q.97 – Q.109 Carry TWO marks each

97. One of the Maxwell equations is expressed as  where s is the entropy per unit mass, v is the mass specific volume, p is the pressure, and T is the temperature. In this expression, s is a continuous function of T and v. The derivatives of s are also continuous. Let cv be specific heat capacity at constant volume for a gas. Then,  can be written as

98. The general relation among the properties x , y and z at any state point can be expressed as  If p, T and h are continuous functions and  μ is the Joule-Thomson coefficient, then  is

(A) −μcp

(B) cpT

(C) –cp/T

(D) μcp

99. An air-conditioning system consists of an insulated rigid mixing chamber designed to supply air at 24°C to a building. The mixing chamber mixes two air streams: (i) a cold air stream at 10°C and mass flow rate and (ii) a stream of fresh ambient air at 30°C and mass flow rate Assume air to be an ideal gas with constant specific heat (cp = 1.005 kJ/(kg K), γ = cp/cv = 1.4). Neglect change in kinetic and potential energies as compared to change in enthalpy. Under the steady state condition, the ratio of the mass flow rates of the two streams  is

(A) 7/3

(B) 3/7

(C) 2/7

(D) 4/7

100. An ideal gas mixture consists of 80% N2 and 20% O2 on mass basis. If the total pressure is 300 kPa, then the partial pressure of N2 (in kPa) is

(Molecular weights of N2 = 28 kg/kmol and O2 = 32 kg/kmol)

(A) 246.15

(B) 230.34

(C) 254.78

(D) 213.54

101. On the basis of the ideal gas equation and van der Waals equation, the temperatures of a gas at pressure 10 MPa and specific volume 0.005 m3/kg would be, respectively

(Assume gas constant R = 0.3 kJ/(kg K), a = 0.18 m6 kPa/kg2 and b = 0.0014 m3/kg)

(A) 166.67 K and 235.89 K

(B) 166.67 K and 206.40 K

(C) 166.67 K and 267.21 K

(D) 166.67 K and 240.90 K

102. An ideal Brayton cycle operates between maximum and minimum temperatures of T3 and T1, respectively. For constant values of T3 and T1, the pressure ratio (rp) for maximum work output is (γ is the specific heat ratio of air)

103. An insulated rigid tank of volume 10 m3 contains air initially at 1 MPa and 600 K. A valve connected to the tank is opened, and air is allowed to escape until the temperature inside the tank drops to 400 K. The temperature of the discharged air can be approximated as the average of the initial and final temperatures of the air in the tank. Neglect kinetic and potential energies of the discharged air. Assume that air behaves as an ideal gas with constant specific heat so that internal energy u = cvT and enthalpy h = cp Then, the final pressure of the air in the tank is _______ MPa (round off to 2 decimal places).

Assume cp = 1.005 kJ/(kg K), γ = cp/cv = 1.4

104. Steam enters a steam turbine at 5 MPa and 600°C, and exits as saturated vapor at 50 kPa. Under steady state condition, the turbine loses heat to the surroundings at the rate of 50 kJ per kilogram of steam flowing through the turbine. The ambient temperature is 300 K, and the heat transfer to the surroundings takes place at the outer surface of the turbine at a temperature of 450 K. The irreversibility per unit mass of steam flowing through the turbine is _______ kJ/kg (round off to 2 decimal places).

Neglect the change in kinetic and potential energies of the steam, and use the

following property values:

Super heated steam at 5 MPa, 600°C

v = 0.07870 m3/kg, u = 3273.3 kJ/kg, h = 3666.9 kJ/kg, s = 7.2605 kJ/(kg K)

Saturated vapour at 50 kPa

vg = 3.2403 m3/kg, ug = 2483.2 kJ/kg, hg = 2645.2 kJ/kg, sg = 7.5931 kJ/(kg K)

105. A heat engine receives heat at 1000 K and rejects heat to the environment at 300 K. The efficiency of the heat engine is half of the efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between the above mentioned temperature limits. The work output from the heat engine is completely used to drive a refrigerator that steadily removes heat from a cold space at 260 K at a rate of 5.2 kW, and rejects the heat to the same environment at 300 K. The COP (coefficient of performance) of the refrigerator is half of the COP of the Carnot refrigerator operating between the same temperature limits as that of the refrigerator. Then, rate of heat supplied to the heat engine is _______ kW (round off to 2 decimal places).

106. A room contains air at 25°C, 100 kPa and 80% relative humidity. If the saturation pressure of water vapor at 25°C is 3.1698 kPa, then the specific humidity of air is _______ kg of water vapor/kg of dry air (round off to 4 decimal places).

107. An insulated rigid container is divided into two parts by a thin partition. One part of the container contains 6 kg of saturated liquid-vapor mixture with a dryness fraction of 0.7 at 0.3 MPa. The other part contains 12 kg of saturated liquid at 0.6 MPa of the same substance. When the partition is removed and the system attains equilibrium, the final specific volume of the mixture is _______ m3/kg (round off to 2 decimal places).

Use the following property values:

At 0.3 MPa : vf = 0.001073 m3/kg, vg = 0.60582 m3/kg

At 0.6 MPa :vf = 0.001101 m3/kg, vg = 0.31560 m3/kg

108. During a steady state air-conditioning process, air enters a heating section at 15°C with 40% relative humidity and leaves at 30° Assuming the heating process takes place at 100 kPa, the relative humidity of the air at exit is ______ % (round off to nearest integer).

Saturation pressures of water vapor at 15°C and 30°C are 1.7057 kPa and 4.2469kPa respectively.

109. Steam enters a steam turbine at 10 MPa and 600°C with a mass flow rate of 16 kg/s. The steam exits the turbine as saturated vapor at 10 kPa. Under steady state condition, the turbine generates 16.2 MW power. If the ambient temperature is 25°C, the rate of entropy generation in the turbine is _______ kW/K (round off to 2 decimal places).

Neglect the change in kinetic and potential energies of the steam, and use the

following property values:

Super heated steam at 10 MPa, 600°C

v = 0.03837 m3/kg, u = 3241.68 kJ/kg, h = 3625.34 kJ/kg, s = 6.9028 kJ/kg(kg K)

Saturated vapour at 10 kPa

vg = 14.67355 m3/kg, ug =2437.89 kJ/kg, hg =2584.63 kJ/kg, sg =8.1501 kJ/(kg K)

Polymer Science and Engineering XE-F

Q.110 – Q.118 Carry ONE mark Each

110. Interfacial polymerization can be used to prepare

(A) Nylon 6

(B) Nylon 66

(C) Polyacrylonitrile

(D) Poly(butyl acrylate)

111. In a rubber sample with a Mooney viscosity of 60 ML(1 + 4) 100°C, the number 4 signifies

(A) Applied shear rate in s1

(B) Number of samples tested

(C) Time in minutes after starting the motor when the measurement is taken

(D) Preheating time in minutes

(A) FeSO4 + t-butyl hydroperoxide

(B) Azobisisobutyronitrile

(C) Potassium persulfate

(D) Benzoyl peroxide

113. Weather resistance of high impact polystyrene can be improved by blending polystyrene with

(B) Natural rubber

(C) Ethylene propylene rubber

(D) Nitrile rubber

114. Which of the following is a discontinuous polymer processing operation?

(A) Calendering

(B) Extrusion

(C) Film blowing

(D) Thermoforming

115. The blend of polyethylene and polypropylene is

(A) Immiscible due to enthalpic constraints

(B) Immiscible due to entropic constraints

(C) Miscible as they are polyolefins

(D) Miscible due to comparable solubility parameters

116. Toughness in a polymer can be inferred from

(A) Izod impact strength

(B) Depth of indentation

(C) Area under the stress-strain curve

(D) Charpy impact strength

117. Which of the following polymers are polyesters?

(A) Poly(acrylic acid)

(B) Poly(lactic acid)

(C) Polyhydroxybutyrate

(D) Poly(ε-caprolactone)

118. The functionality of adipic acid for condensation reaction with glycerol is ________ (in integer).

Q.119 – Q.131 Carry TWO marks Each

119. From the dynamic mechanical analysis of a polymer sample with a phase angle of 30°, the relationship between storage modulus (E’) and loss modulus (E”) can be expressed as

(A) E’ = √3 E”

(B) 2E’ = √3 E”

(C) E” = √3 E′

(D) 2E” = √3 E′

120. Match the properties in Column A with their respective unit in Column B

(A) P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2

(B) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

(C) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(D) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4

121. Match the following polymer product with its most appropriate processing technique

(A) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2

(B) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1

(C) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1

(D) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1

122. Match the following additives to their respective functions

(A) P-4; Q-2; R-1; S-3

(B) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4

(C) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

(D) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3

123. Match the polymers with their characteristic infrared (IR) stretching frequency

(A) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1

(B) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1

(C) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2

(D) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1

124. Match the following polymers to the most appropriate product

(A) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(B) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3

(C) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4

(D) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

125. Match the polymers to the polymerization method used for their synthesis

(A) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(B) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4

(C) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

(D) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3

126. If 5 g of a monodisperse polystyrene sample of molecular weight 10,000 g mol1 is mixed with 15 g of another monodisperse polystyrene sample of molecular weight 20,000 g mol1, then the polydispersity of the resulting mixture is ________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

127. For a polymer sample with a viscosity of 6 × 1011 poise, if the apparent plateau modulus of 3 × 106 dyne cm2 drops to zero above a certain temperature, the relaxation time of the polymer is _________ days (rounded off to one decimal place).

128. The thermal conductivity values of glass fiber and epoxy resin are 1.05 W m1 K1 and 0.25 W m1 K1, respectively. The thermal conductivity of a glass fiber reinforced epoxy composite with a fiber content of 60% by volume along the fiber direction is ________ W m1 K1 (rounded off to two decimal places).

129. The tensile modulus of a thermosetting polyester resin and glass fiber are 3 GPa and 80 GPa, respectively. If a tensile stress of 110 MPa is applied along the fiber direction on a continuous uniaxially aligned glass fiber reinforced thermosetting polyester composite with a fiber content of 60% by volume, the resulting strain will be ________ × 103 (rounded off to one decimal place).

130. The amount of low molecular weight plasticizer with a Tg of −60°C that must be added to nylon 6 to reduce its Tg from 50°C to 30°C is __________ % (rounded off to nearest integer).

131. The enthalpy of fusion for a polymer is found to decrease from 135.6 J g1 to 120 J g1 after five years of use. If the enthalpy of fusion of the same polymer with 100% crystallinity is 290 J g1, then the loss in crystallinity after five years is _______ % (rounded off to one decimal place).

Food Technology XE-G

Q.132 – Q.140 Carry ONE mark Each

132. Which among the given options truly depict the lines 1 and 2 in the figure below with respect to the effect of heat processing on food?

(A) 1-Safety, 2-Quality

(B) 1-Yield, 2-Safety

(C) 1-Yield, 2-Quality

(D) 1-Quality, 2-Safety

133. Homogenization of milk leads to disintegration of fat globules by

(A) Turbulence and pasteurization

(B) Pasteurization and cavitation

(C) Pasteurization and pressurization

(D) Turbulence and cavitation

134. The lowest water activity (aw) supporting the growth of Staphylococcus aureus in food under aerobic condition is

(A) 0.98

(B) 0.91

(C) 0.89

(D) 0.86

135. Cultures used in industrial production of yogurt are

(A) Lactococcus lactis subsp. lactis

(B) Streptococcus thermophilus

(C) Leuconostoc mesenteroides subsp. cremoris

(D) Lactobacillus delbrueckii subsp. bulgaricus

136. In a dairy plant, spray drying technology is used to produce whey powder. The rate of spray drying depends on

(A) Temperature of the incoming air

(B) Shape of the cyclone separator

(C) Diameter of the whey droplet

(D) Heat transfer coefficient of hot air

137. The parboiling of paddy results into

(A) Increase in the milling losses

(B) Increase in the nutritional value of rice

(C) Increase in the head rice recovery

(D) Increase in the broken rice percentage

138. One hundred kg paddy is dried from 18% wet basis to 13% wet basis moisture

content. The amount of water removed (in kg) from the paddy is _______ (round off to one decimal place).

139. The radius of a centrifuge bowl is 0.1 m and is rotating at 850 revolutions per minute. The centrifugal force developed in terms of gravity force (g-force) is ________(round off to two decimal places).

Given: Acceleration of gravity (g) = 9.81 m s2 and π = 3.14

140. In a canning industry, the total process time (F0) was calculated as 3 min. If each can contains 20 spores having decimal reduction time of 1.6 min, the probability of spoilage would be ______ in 100 cans (round off to the nearest integer).

Q.141 – Q.153 Carry TWO marks Each

141. Match the edible oil refining stages given in Column I with their respective functions in Column II

(A) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

142. Make the correct pair of food packaging technology given in Column I with operating principle or description in Column II.

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(C) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

143. Which of the following is not a caramel flavour producing compound?

(A) 3-Hydroxy-2-methylpyran-4-one

(B) 2H-4-Hydroxy-5-methylfuran-3-one

(C) 3-Hydroxy-2-acetylfuran

(D) p-Amino benzoicacid

144. Match the size reduction equipment in Column I with the method of operation in Column II.

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

145. Most commonly used refrigerant in direct immersion freezing of food is

(A) Monochlorodifluoromethane

(B) Dichlorodifluoromethane

(C) Liquid nitrogen

(D) Freon

146. Which among the following are ω-6 poly unsaturated essential fatty acids?

(A) 18:2 Linoleic acid

(B) 18:3 α-Linolenic acid

(C) 18:3 γ-Linolenic acid

(D) 20:4 Arachidonic acid

147. Which among the following statements are true with respect to protein denaturation?

(A) There may be an increase in α-helix and β-sheet structure

(B) It is an irreversible process

(C) When fully denatured, globular proteins resemble a random coil

(D) The peptide bonds are broken

148. Identify the correct pair(s) of milling equipment and the grain for which it is used.

(A) Mist polisher–Rice

(B) Break roll–Wheat

(C) Rubber roll–Pigeon pea

(D) Beall degermer–Maize

149. Which among the following expression(s) is/are correct?

150. In sieve analysis of coffee powder, the particle size distribution is given below

The Sauter mean diameter (in μm) of the coffee powder is ______(round off to one decimal place).

151. In a dairy processing plant, milk enters a 30 m long and 2 cm diameter tube at

60°C and leaves at 57°C. The total heat loss over the tube length is 381.15 W. The specific heat capacity, density, and viscosity of milk are 3.85 kJ kg1 K1, 1020 kg m3, and 1.20 cP, respectively. The Reynolds number for the flow is ______(round off to the nearest integer).

Given :π = 3.14

152. Apple juice flows through a steel pipe having thermal conductivity of 50 W m1 K1. The outer surface of pipe is exposed to ambient environment. The inside diameter and thickness of the pipe are 3 cm and 1.5 cm, respectively. The overall heat transfer coefficient based on inside area is 25 W m2 K1. If the internal convective heat transfer coefficient is 30 W m2 K1, the external convective heat transfer coefficient (in W m2 K1) will be __________ (round off to two decimal places).

153. The dry bulb temperature and relative humidity of air inside a storage chamber are 37°C and 50%, respectively. The saturation pressure of water vapour at 37°C and barometric pressure are 6.28 kPa and 101.32 kPa, respectively. The humidity ratio of air inside the chamber is ______ kg water (kg dry air)1 (round off to three decimal places).

Given: Molecular weight of water vapour and dry air are 18.02 g mol1 and 28.97 g mol1, respectively.

Atmospheric and Oceanic Sciences XE-H

Q.154 – Q.162 Carry ONE mark Each

154. The figure shows a schematic of vertical profiles of concentrations of two gases P and Q in the atmosphere near a coastal station. The correct pair representing P and Q, respectively, is

(A) water vapor and CO2

(B) O3 and water vapor

(C) CO2 and O3

(D) N2 and O2

155. A form of momentum equation for an incompressible fluid is

where ρ is density, V is velocity, t is time, p is pressure, μ is viscosity and

B represents body force per unit volume. The dimension of term (iii) is

(M, L and T stand for mass, length and time, respectively).

(A) [L]1 [T]2

(B) [M]1 [L]2 [T]2

(C) [M]1 [L]1 [T]2

(D) [M]1 [L]1 [T]1

156. Tropical cyclones usually do not form close to the Equator primarily because

(A) sea surface temperature at the Equator is too cold.

(B) beta effect dissipates clouds.

(C) Coriolis force is too weak.

(D) vertical shear of the zonal wind is weak.

157. Which one of the following statements regarding equatorial under current (EUC) in the Pacific Ocean is correct?

(A) EUC flows from west to east.

(B) EUC flows from east to west.

(C) EUC flows from north to south.

(D) EUC flows from south to north.

158. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the dominant energy balance in the troposphere in a tropical convergence zone?

(A) Shortwave heating balances longwave radiative cooling.

(B) Compressional heating balances radiative cooling.

(C) Radiative cooling balances heating due to viscous dissipation of kineticenergy.

(D) Condensational heating balances adiabatic cooling.

159. Which one of the following processes is primarily responsible for the poleward transport of energy in the midlatitude troposphere?

(A) atmospheric tides

(B) baroclinic waves

(C) gravity waves

(D) turbulence in the boundary layer

160. Which of the following feature(s) characterize the seasonal mean flow in the upper troposphere near 200 hPa level over the Tibetan Plateau during the boreal summer?

(A) cyclonic

(B) anticyclonic

(C) irrotational

(D) divergent

161. The Rossby number of a synoptic system with a length scale of 1000 km, characteristic velocity scale of 10 m s-1 at a latitude where the Coriolis parameter equals 104 s1, is _______. (Round off to two decimal places)

162. The ratio of scattering efficiency of red light of wavelength 0.65 μm to blue light of wavelength 0.45 μm by air molecules in the atmosphere is _____. (Round off to two decimal places)

Q.163 – Q.175 Carry TWO marks Each

163. An unsaturated moist air parcel undergoes adiabatic ascent in atmosphere without mixing with surrounding air. Air is so clean that there is no possibility for heterogeneous nucleation. Which one of the following plots depicts the vertical variation of water vapor pressure (shown as continuous line) and saturation water vapor pressure (shown as dotted/dashed line) of the parcel?

(A) P

(B) Q

(C) R

(D) S

164. A fluid is in solid body rotation in a cylindrical container of radius R rotating with an angular velocity Ω = (0, 0, Ω). The circulation per unit area around a circular loop in the horizontal plane of radius r(r < R), whose center coincides with the axis of rotation is

(A) 2Ω

(B) Ω2

(C) Ω/2

(D) Ω/4

165. Consider a layer of atmosphere where temperature increases with height. If the concentration of a vertically well-mixed greenhouse gas suddenly increases in this layer, then an immediate consequence is that

(A) infrared radiation leaving the top of the layer decreases.

(B) infrared radiation leaving the top of the layer increases.

(C) infrared radiation leaving the top of the layer remains unchanged.

(D) the layer becomes optically thinner to infrared radiation.

166. Consider an atmosphere where the mole fractions of N2, Ar and CO2 are 7.81 × 101, 9.34 × 103 and 4.05 × 104, respectively. This atmosphere exchanges gases with sea water below having temperature and salinity of 20 °C and 35 psu, respectively. In the absence of biological and chemical activity, relative concentrations of dissolved gases in the surface sea water at equilibrium are ordered as

(A) [N2] > [Ar] > [CO2]

(B) [CO2] > [N2] > [Ar]

(C) [N2] > [CO2] > [Ar]

(D) [Ar] > [CO2] > [N2]

167. Gravitational forces exerted by the Sun and the Moon are mainly responsible for ocean tides. Which of the following statement(s) regarding ocean tides is/are correct?

(A) Tidal amplitude corresponding to diurnal period is larger than that of the semi-diurnal period.

(B) Diurnal time period of lunar forced tides is longer than that of the solar forced tides.

(C) Tidal amplitudes are larger during a solar eclipse compared to that during a lunar eclipse.

(D) Tides are absent during equinoxes.

168. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about northern hemisphere tropical cyclones?

(A) They have a warm core.

(B) Their low-level flow is cyclonic.

(C) Strong wind shear in the vertical is required for their intensification.

(D) They are characterized by upper-level divergence.

169. In gradient wind balance, which of the following statement(s) is/are true for flow around a region of low pressure in the northern hemisphere?

(A) The flow is clockwise.

(B) The flow is anti-clockwise.

(C) The wind speed is faster than the geostrophic wind.

(D) The wind speed is slower than the geostrophic wind.

170. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding biogeochemical cycle

in the ocean?

(A) Shutdown of the biological pump in the ocean would have resulted in higher CO2 concentration in the atmosphere compared to present-day.

(B) If atmospheric CO2 concentration increases, solubility pump would lead to a decrease in dissolved inorganic carbon in the ocean.

(C) All carbon sequestered by marine photosynthesis settles down on the ocean floor as organic matter.

(D) Calcification (the process of making shells and skeletons) by marine organisms in the surface ocean layer would lead to an increase in the surface ocean CO2.

171. Consider the atmosphere to be a heat engine, which converts absorbed radiation to kinetic energy of winds. Let the global mean radiation absorbed be 200 Wm2. In steady-state, if the global mean kinetic energy dissipation is 10 Wm2, then the efficiency of the atmospheric heat engine is ________%. (Round off to one decimal place)

172. A drifter on the surface of the ocean performs inertial oscillation. The speed of the drifter is 2 m s1 and the Coriolis parameter at the latitude is 2×104 s1. The radius of the inertial oscillation is _______ km. (Round off to the nearest integer)

173. Consider a tornado in cyclostrophic balance. The tangential wind speed at a radial distance of 500 m from the center of the tornado is _______ m s1, if the pressure gradient at that location in the radial direction is 5 N m3. Assume the density of air to be 1 kg m3. (Round off to the nearest integer)

174. Consider two weather stations A and B having the same altitude. Station B is 5 km north of Station A and is always 2 K warmer than Station A. A steady northerly wind blows at 1 m s1. The change in temperature at Station A in 2 hours is ________ K. (Round off to one decimal place)

175. Assume the Earth is in radiative equilibrium with effective radiative temperature of 255 K. If the planetary albedo increases by 0.05, then the effective radiative temperature of the planet will be _______ K. (Round off to the nearest integer)

Given:

Solar constant = 1370 Wm2

Stefan Boltzmann constant = 5.67× 108 Wm2 K4

## GATE Exam 2022 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science (TF) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2022

TF: Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Inhaling the smoke from a burning _________ could _________ you quickly.

(A)  tire / tier

(B)  tire / tyre

(C)  tyre / tire

(D)  tyre / tier

2. A sphere of radius r cm is packed in a box of cubical shape.

What should be the minimum volume (in cm3) of the box that can enclose the sphere?

(A)  r3/8

(B)  r3

(C)  2r3

(D)  8r3

3. Pipes P and Q can fill a storage tank in full with water in 10 and 6 minutes, respectively. Pipe R draws the water out from the storage tank at a rate of 34 litres per minute. P, Q and R operate at a constant rate.

If it takes one hour to completely empty a full storage tank with all the pipes operating simultaneously, what is the capacity of the storage tank (in litres)?

(A)  26.8

(B)  60.0

(C)  120.0

(D)  127.5

4. Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the center not necessarily in the same order. Consider the following statements:

• P sits next to S and T.
• Q sits diametrically opposite to P.
• The shortest distance between S and R is equal to the shortest distance between T and U.

Based on the above statements, Q is a neighbor of

(A)  U and S

(B)  R and T

(C)  R and U

(D)  P and S

5. A building has several rooms and doors as shown in the top view of the building given below. The doors are closed initially.

What is the minimum number of doors that need to be opened in order to go from the point P to the point Q?

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  2

(D)  1

Q.6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.

6. Rice, a versatile and inexpensive source of carbohydrate, is a critical component of diet worldwide. Climate change, causing extreme weather, poses a threat to sustained availability of rice. Scientists are working on developing Green Super Rice (GSR), which is resilient under extreme weather conditions yet gives higher yields sustainably.

Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information given in the above passage?

(A)  GSR is an alternative to regular rice, but it grows only in an extreme weather

(B)  GSR may be used in future in response to adverse effects of climate change

(C)  GSR grows in an extreme weather, but the quantity of produce is lesser than regular rice

(D)  Regular rice will continue to provide good yields even in extreme weather

7. A game consists of spinning an arrow around a stationary disk as shown below. When the arrow comes to rest, there are eight equally likely outcomes. It could come to rest in any one of the sectors numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 or 8 as shown. Two such disks are used in a game where their arrows are independently spun. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the resulting sectors upon spinning the two disks is equal to 8 after the arrows come to rest?

(A)  1/16

(B)  5/64

(C)  3/32

(D)  7/64

8. Consider the following inequalities.

(i) 3p − q< 4

(ii) 3q − p< 12

Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two inequalities?

(A)  p + q < 8

(B)  p + q = 8

(C)  8 ≤ p + q < 16

(D)  p + q ≥ 16

9. Given below are three statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements.

Statement 1: Some engineers are writers.

Statement 2: No writer is an actor.

Statement 3: All actors are engineers.

Conclusion I: Some writers are engineers.

Conclusion II: All engineers are actors.

Conclusion III: No actor is a writer.

Conclusion IV: Some actors are writers.

Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

(A)  Only conclusion I is correct

(B)  Only conclusion II and conclusion III are correct

(C)  Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct

(D)  Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct

10. Which one of the following sets of pieces can be assembled to form a square with a single round hole near the center? Pieces cannot overlap.

Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

11. The number of solution(s) of the system of linear equations

x + y + z = 0

x – y + z = 0

x + 2y – z = 0

is

(A) 1

(B) 0

(C) Infinite

(D) More than one but finite

12.

(A) 1

(B) 0

(C) 1/2

(D) 2

13. An integrating factor of the differential equation xdy + (1 – y)dx = 0 is

(A) 1/x

(B) x

(C) ex

(D) 1/x2

14. Cotton fibre has maximum amount of cellulose in

(A) Cuticle

(B) Primary cell wall

(C) Secondary cell wall

(D) Lumen

15. High extensibility of wool fibre is due to

(A) Presence of scales

(B) α-helix structure of proteins

(D) β-sheet structure of proteins

16. In a comber, the component that rotates both in the forward and backward directions is

(A) Nipper

(B) Top comb

(C) Cylinder comb

(D) Detaching roller

17. Yarn that has helically twisted fibres at the core and belts/wrappers on the surface is

(A) Ring yarn

(B) Rotor yarn

(C) Compact yarn

(D) Air-vortex yarn

18. The ingredient that is NOT used in sizing formulations is

(A) Starch

(B) Polyvinyl acetate

(C) Polyvinyl alcohol

(D) Polycarbonate

19. The machine that uses ‘Horn gears’ is

(A) Warp knitting

(B) Circular braiding

(C) Sectional warping

(D) Shuttle loom