TOURISM ADMINISTRATION AND MANAGEMENT
PAPER – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Who is the Director General of United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization ?
(1) Gloria Guevara Manzo
(2) Taleb Rifai
(3) Sarah Mathews
(4) Irina Bokova
2. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and select the correct answer using the code below :
3. In which year PATA India Chapter was established ?
(1) 1976
(2) 1971
(3) 1974
(4) 1972
4. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and select the correct answer using the code below :
5. Consider the following statements for Space Tourism :
(a) Tourism Activity that takes place beyond 100 km (62 miles) from the earth’s surface is known as Astro tourism.
(b) Space Adventures and Virgin Galactic are companies dealing with space tourism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) Neither (a) Nor (b)
6. Match items from List – I with items in List – II. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
7. Puree, Velouté, Cream, Bisque and Chowder are examples of :
(1) Thick Soups
(2) Cold Soups
(3) International Soups
(4) Clear Soups
8. Which of the following can not be considered as condiments, herb or spice used in Indian Cuisine ?
(1) Cumin
(2) Wild Mangosteen
(3) Marjoram
(4) Colocasia
9. HACCP Certification in Hotels Stands for :
(1) Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points
(2) Hazard Analysis and Crucial Control Points
(3) Health Analysis and Critical Control Points
(4) Health Analysis and Crucial Control Points
10. Which would be considered as “Mobile Lodging” ?
(a) Rotels
(b) Caravans
(c) Cruise lines
(d) Hospices
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(3) (a) and (b) are correct
(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
11. Which of the following is the IATA code for Chiang Mai International Airport ?
(1) CMA
(2) CNX
(3) CNY
(4) CMI
12. Which of the following is the IATA code for Spice Jet ?
(1) SJ
(2) SE
(3) ST
(4) SG
13. Global Distribution Systems (GDS), were created by Airlines to facilitate travel agents and others to make online Bookings. In the following two lists the names of the Airlines and code are given. The Lists follow the code. Choose the correct code for the Airlines :
14. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and select the correct answer using the code below :
15. A United Nations specialized agency established by the 1944 Chicago Convention with the objective “to develop the principles and techniques of international air navigation and to foster the planning and development of international air transport” is the following organization :
(1) International Civil Aviation Organization
(2) International Air Transport Association
(3) International Flight Service Association
(4) Airlines International Representation in Europe
16. Which of the following temples have been inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List ?
(a) Natraja Temple at Chidambaram
(b) Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur
(c) Brihadisvara Temple at Gangaikondacholisvaram
(d) Airateshvara Temple at Darasuram
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only
17. Which of the following is correct itinerary for Mahaparinirvana Express ?
(1) Delhi – Bodhgaya – Sanchi – Varanasi – Kushinagar – Lumbini – Sravasti – Agra – Delhi
(2) Delhi – Bodhgaya – Nalanda / Rajgir – Varanasi / Sarnath – Kushinagar – Lumbini -Sravasti – Agra – Delhi
(3) Delhi – Sanchi – Bodhgaya – Varanasi – Kushinagar – Sravasti – Agra – Delhi
(4) Delhi – Bodhgaya – Nalanda / Rajgir – Varanasi / Sarnath – Ajanta – Sravasti – Agra -Delhi
18. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and select the correct answer using the code below the lists :
19. Arrange the following online travel companies in the order in which they were launched use the code given below :
(a) e Bookers.com
(b) Amadeus.net
(c) Travelocity.com
(d) Lastminute.com
Code :
(1) (c), (d), (a), (b)
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (d), (c), (b)
(4) (c), (b), (d), (a)
20. In 1996 it was the first e-intermediary to enter the online travel market by a non – travel organisation ?
(1) Travelocity
(2) Make My Trip
(3) Expedia.com
(4) Cleartrip.com
21. Accordingly to behavioural segmentation, buyers are divided into groups based on :
(1) Knowledge, attitude, use or response to a product
(2) Occupation, Education, Religion of the Consumers
(3) Age, gender, family size
(4) Region, density of population, climate
22. Which one of the following is not a segmentation variable as per psychographic segmentation ?
(1) Social Class
(2) Life style
(3) Family Life Cycle
(4) Personality
23. Which one of the following is/are the objective(s) of pricing strategy ?
(a) Current Profit Maximization
(b) Survival
(c) Market share maximization
(d) Differentiating the product offering
Code :
(1) Only (c)
(2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) (a), (b), (d)
(4) (b), (c), (d)
24. Match List – I (Product Level) with List – II (Description) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
25. Antarctic tourism is ostensibly managed by the provisions of the Antarctic treaty, signed in :
(1) 1949
(2) 1959
(3) 1969
(4) 1979
26. “Caring for the earth : A strategy for sustainability” that lists one of its nine principles for sustainable development as to “enable communities to care for their own environments” was adopted in 1991 by :
(1) UNDP
(2) PATA
(3) IUCN
(4) Tourism concern
27. Neopopulism refers to an emphasis on ‘community’ and on ‘participation’ in taking into a account on the following :
(1) Income and employment
(2) Development and conservation
(3) Displacement and rehabilitation
(4) Tokenism and empowerment
28. Arrange the following International landmark events in order that were held. Use the code given below :
(a) UN Conference on Human Environment in Stockholm
(b) The Johannesburg World Summit on Sustainable Development
(c) The publication of World Conservation Strategy
(d) The Brundtland Commission’s Report naming “Our Common Future”
Code :
(1) (a), (c), (d), (b)
(2) (b), (c), (a), (d)
(3) (d), (c), (a), (b)
(4) (c), (a), (d), (b)
29. Name the city where the first Ecotourism Summit and Declaration on Ecotourism was held :
(1) Tokyo
(2) Cape Town
(3) The Hague
(4) Quebec
30. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
(1) A comprehensive examination of a marketing problem to understand its origin and nature – Problem Accounting
(2) Interviews with people very knowledgeable about the general topic to be investigated. – Experience Survey
(3) Interviews with lead users of the technology – User Survey
(4) Data originated by the researcher specifically to address the research problem. – Secondary Data
31. A distribution with positive kurtosis has many scores in the tails is known as :
(1) Leptokurtic
(2) Bimodal
(3) Randomization
(4) Platykurtic
32. This consists of two lists of terms, the candidate has to match on item in one list with an item in the other. Choose your answer using the code given below :
33. The “Stem – and – leaf display” is a technique that is closely related to the :
(1) Pareto diagram
(2) Boxplots
(3) Histogram
(4) Mapping
34. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) Sample space is an attempt to produce a particular outcome which is neither certain nor impossible.
(b) Standard deviation of the two values is equal to half of their difference.
(c) If f(x)=x2+2, then the given function is an odd function.
(d) Spurious correlation is the correlation between variables having no causal relation
Code :
(1) Both (a) and (b)
(2) Both (b) and (d)
(3) Both (a) and (c)
(4) Only (b)
35. Read the following statements and choose your answer from the code given below the lists :
Assertion (A) : Employee training often focuses on areas where current service falls short of guest expectations.
Reason (R) : The employee training must be geared towards guest expectations.
Code :
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
36. Which is the proper progression in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs ?
(1) Belonging, physical needs, safety, esteem and self – actualization
(2) Safety, physical needs, belonging, esteem and self – actualization
(3) Physical needs, safety, belonging, self – actualization and esteem
(4) Physical needs, safety, belonging, esteem and self – actualization
37. Match the items in List – I (Decision making styles) with List – II (Description) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
38. Arrange the following steps involved in the ‘Information System Development Cycle’ in the logical sequence. Use code given below the steps :
(a) Instalation of the System
(b) Operation of the System
(c) Conceptualisation of the System
(d) Development of the System
Code :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(2) (a), (c), (d), (b)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(4) (c), (d), (a), (b)
39. Planning involves __________ .
(1) Establishing objectives and specifying how they are accomplished.
(2) Evaluating whether outcomes match objectives.
(3) Managing action that focus resources on achieving sustained competitive advantage.
(4) Determining fit between organizational competencies and opportunities and threats.
40. In the recruitment and selection process which one of the following is not the source from which the applications are received ?
(a) Employee referrals
(b) Advertising
(c) Colleges and Universities
(d) Competitors
Code :
(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) Only (d)
(3) (a), (c), (d)
(4) Only (c)
41. Cash flow statement classifies cash flow according to :
(1) Inflow and Outflow
(2) Operating, investing and financing activities
(3) Operating and non – operating flows
(4) Sources and application of funds
42. Valuing the inventory in ‘trade at net realisable value or cost price whichever is lower’ is an example of the convention :
(1) Conservatism
(2) Consistency
(3) Matching
(4) Dual Aspect
43. Arrange the following measures of computation of cost of equity in the ascending order of accuracy use code given below :
(a) Dividend – Price Ratio
(b) Earning – Price Ratio
(c) Dividend – Price Plus Growth Ratio
(d) Capital Asset Pricing Model
Code :
(1) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(2) (b), (a), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(4) (c), (d), (a), (b)
44. In the following information pertains to Tourism Company :
Amount of dividend for the year would be :
(1) Rs. 1,20,000
(2) Rs. 1,06,800
(3) Rs. 96,000
(4) Rs. 1,17,600
45. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your understanding of the passage. Answer the questions (46 – 50) :
The Mehman – Khanah of the Taj Mahal was similarly converted into a closed quarter and was regularly let to the British honey – mooners, it is astounding to note that the Taj Mahal itself was put up for sale by duction for the value of its marble, at the instance of William Bentinck, and a News item to this effect was published in the English daily Jhon Bull of Calcutta, on July 26, 1831, but for the timely intervention of a conscientions military officer, this most beautiful, wonderful and representative monument of the Medieval period would have been dismantled and destroyed only for the sake of its marble, and lost to us for ever. This would have certainly left the medieval period barren and barbarous, as the British rulers actually wanted to represent it to the posterity.
This happens in all ages and in all countries and this is the universal truth. Whenever the people are ignorant of their history, and have no understanding and awareness of their architectural heritage, and owing to this ignorance, they do not feel proud of it and are not emotionally attached to it, they almost carry it an their shoulders like a dead weight which they drop as easily as one drops nails and hair. This is what precisely happened under the East India Co. The people disowned their own architectural heritage and the British could play havoc upon them, freely, in pursuance of their policy to tarnish the glorious legacy of the Mughals when they had supplanted in the paramountcy of Hindustan.
46. The World renowned monument known as Taj Mahal was built by a Mughal emperor in memory of :
(1) Qandhari Begum
(2) Nur Jahan
(3) Arjumand Bano nee Mumtaz Mahal
(4) Dilras Bano
47. William Bentick, an employee of the East India company was the :
(1) Chief Commander of the British Army
(2) Governor – General
(3) Director – General of Archaeology
(4) Director – General of the Indo – British Army
48. Point out from the following which monument was blown up in 1832 by the Britishers for building barracks ?
(1) Rauza – i Diwanji Begum
(2) Buland Bagh
(3) Tomb of Jodha Bai
(4) Tomb of Mariam Zamani
49. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(1) The spacious Qandhari Bagh containing several monuments evincing a magnificent architectural heritage of India were sold to the princes of Bharatpur and Bhadawar.
(2) Marble used for building was brought from Makrana, Rajasthan.
(3) Marble used for construction of Taj Mahal was so fine and of high quality that the colnrial government wanted to sell it.
(4) Indian people were so conscious about their rich and unique heritage that they protested against William Bentinck and the monument was saved.
50. The above paragraph is called from the following book :
(1) Architecture of Mughal India, by Catherine B. Asher.
(2) Agra and Its Monuments, by R. Nath.
(3) The Taj Mahal at Agra, by Syed Athar Abbas Rizvi.
(4) The Wonder that Was India, vol – II, by S.A.A. Rizvi.
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