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2013 O.U.A. T Question with Answer

Physics

1. A transverse wave is represented by the equation For what value of λ is the particle velocity equal to two times the wave velocity?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

2. A car sounding its horn at 480 Hz moves towards a high wall at a speed of 20 ms⁻¹. If the speed of sound is 340 ms⁻¹, the frequency of reflected sound heard by the man sitting in the car will be nearest to

(a) 480 Hz

(b) 540 Hz

(d) 570 Hz

Answer: (b)

3. When a wave undergoes reflection at rarer medium then it undergoes a phase difference of

(a) π

(b) π/2

(d) No change in phase

Answer: (d)

4. If the temperature of solid body increases by a small amount ∆θ, its moment of inertia I about an axis increases by (α = coefficient of thermal expansion)

(a) 2αI ∆θ

(b)

(d) αI∆θ

Answer: (a)

5. The ratio of the densities of two bodies is 2 : 3 and their specific heats are 0.13 and 0.08 respectively. The ratio of their thermal capacities per volume is

(a) 12 : 13

(b) 12² : 13²

(d) 13² : 12²

Answer: (c)

6. Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross-section have been joined as shown in the figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0℃ and 90℃ The temperature of the junction of the three rods will be

(a) 45℃

(b) 60℃

(d) 20℃

Answer: (b)

7. The emissivity and surface area of tungsten filament of an electric bulb are 0.40 and 6.74 × 10⁻⁵ m² The operating temperature of filament is 2500 K. If σ = 5.7 × 10⁻⁸ watt m⁻² k⁻⁴, then power of bulb is approximately

(a) 60 watt

(b) 150 watt

(d) 1500 watt

Answer: (a)

8. In a thermo dynamic process, a system absorbs 2 kcal of heat and the same time does 500 J of work. What is the change in internal energy o f the system?

(a) −500 J

(b) 500 J

(d) 8900 J

Answer: (c)

9. Boiling water is changing into steam; under the condition, the specific heat of water in cal g/℃ is

(a) 1

(b) zero

(d) <1

Answer: (c)

10. 22 gm of COP₂ at 27℃ is mixed with 60 gm of O₂ at 37℃. The temperature of mixture is

(a) 27℃

(b) 30.5℃

(d) 37℃

Answer: (c)

11. A capillary tube of length 16 cm is dipped in water. Water rises to a height 10 cm. If the whole apparatus is kept in a freely falling lift, the height of water column in that tube will be

(a) 10 cm

(b) 16 cm

(d) 8 cm

Answer: (b)

12. A 2 kg stone tied at the end of a string 1m long is rotated in a vertical circle at a constant speed of 4 ms⁻¹. The tension in the string will be 52 N, when the stone is

(a) at the top of the circle

(b) half way down

(d) anywhere on the circle

Answer: (c)

13. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total energy –E₀.

(a) E₀

(b) −1.5 E₀

(d) −E₀

Answer: (c)

14. The work done in carrying a charge Q once round the circle of radius r with charge Q at the centre of the circle is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

15. A hemispherical surface of radius R is placed in a uniform electric field E in such a manner that the field is directed perpendicular to the circular plane face of the hemisphere. The electric flux through the said surface is

(a) πR²E

(b) 4πR²E

(d) 2πRE

Answer: (a)

16. An electron placed in a uniform electric field, experiences an electric force equal to its weight mg. The intensity of the field is

(a) mg.e

(b) e/mg

(d) cannot be found

Answer: (c)

17. A charge ‘q’ is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal positive charges ‘Q’. The system of the three charges will be in equilibrium, if q is equal to

(a) −Q/2

(b) −Q/4

(d) +Q/2

Answer: (b)

18. In a charged capacitor, the energy resides

(a) on the positive plate

(b) on both the positive and negative charged plates

(d) around the edge of the capacitor plates

Ans: (c)

19. n cells each of e.m.f. E and internal resistance r send the same current through an external resistance R whether the cells are connected in series or in parallel. Then

(a) R = nr

(b) R = r

(d) R = √nr

Answer: (b)

20. V-I graph for parallel and series combination of two metallic resistors are shown in fig. Which graph represents the parallel combination.

(a) A

(b) B

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: (a)

21. What is the effective resistance between points A and B ?

(a) 4R/3

(b) R

(d) R/2

Answer: (b)

22. Two cells of unequal e.m.f. E₁ and E₂(E₁ < E₂) and internal resistances r₁ and r₂ are shown in figure. V_A and V_B are potentials at A and B respectively, then

(a) One cell will not continue supply energy to other

(b) Potential energy across both cells need not be equal.

(d)

Answer: (b)

23. An electric bulb is designed to draw power P₀ at voltage V₀ . If the voltage V draws a power P, then

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

24. When the temperature difference between the hot and cold junction of a thermocouple is 100 K and emf of 1 mv is generated, the thermo emf remains constant over the whole temperature range, When the temperature of the cold junction is raised by 20K, the percentage by which the emf is charged, is

(a) −20%

(b) 20%

(d) −80%

Answer: (a)

25. Cyclotron is used to

(a) measure charge of an electron

(b) measure mass of a neutron

(d) detect positrons

Answer: (c)

26. A thin and flexible wire is kept on a table in the form of a rectangle and a strong current is sent through it. The shape of the wire will become.

(a) triangular

(b) circular

(d) rectangular

Answer: (b)

27. A straight wire carrying a current of 12 A is bent into a semicircular arc of radius 2 cm as shown in the fig. The magnitude of magnetic field at the centre O of the arc due to current carrying wire AB is

(a) 1.89 × 10⁻⁴ T

(b) 1.72 × 10⁻³ T

(d) Zero

Answer: (a)

28. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed in a magnetic field of induction B. The torque exerted on it is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

29. Current I is flowing inn all a coil of area A and number of turns is n. The magnetic moment of the coil is

(a) nIA

(b) n²IA

(d) nI/√A

Answer: (a)

30. A galvanometer has a resistance of G ohm and range V volt. The value of resistance used in series to convert it into voltmeter of range nV volt is

(a) nG

(b) (n – 1)G

(d) G/n – 1

Answer: (d)

31. In the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction, the induced emf does NOT depend on

(a) number of turns of the coil

(b) time

(d) change in flux

Answer: (c)

32. A square shaped coil of side 10 cm and number of turns 500 is placed perpendicular to magnetic flux lines, which is changing at the rate of 1TS⁻¹. The emf induced in the coil is

(a) 0.1 V

(b) 0.5 V

(d) 5 V

Answer: (d)

33. In an L-R circuit, the growth curve of current with time is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

34. A short linear object of length L lies on the axis of a spherical mirror of focal length f at a distance u from the mirror. Its image has an axial length equal to (u > > L)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

35. The refractive index of a prism material is cot A/2, where A is the angle of the prism. The minimum angle of deviation is

(a) 180° − A

(b) 90° − A

(d) A/2

Answer: (c)

36. When a small lamp is held 1.5 m above the surface of water in a tank, its image formed by reflection as the surface appears to coincide with image of the bottom of the tank (μ of water = 4/3). The depth of tank is

(a) 2m

(b) 1.5m

(d) 4m

Answer: (d)

37. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm, is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of the combination is

(a) −1.5 D

(b) −6.5 D

(d) +6.67 D

Answer: (a)

38. A telescope is adjusted for parallel rays. The distance between the objective and the eyepiece is observed to be 20 cm. The magnifying power of the telescope is 9. The focal lengths of the lenses are

(a) 11 cm, 9 cm

(b) 9 cm, 11 cm

(d) 18 cm, 2 cm

Answer: (d)

39. Two points are situated at the same distance from a source of light but in opposite side. The phase difference between the light waves at the two points will be

(a) π/2

(b) 0

(d) 3π/2

Answer: (b)

40. The dual nature of light is exhibited by

(a) diffraction and reflection

(b) diffraction and photoelectric effect

(d) refraction and interference

Answer: (c)

41. A radio transmeter works at a frequency of 880 KHz and a power of 10 kW. The number of photons emitted per sec. are

(a) 1.72 × 10³¹

(b) 1.327 × 10³⁴

(d) 0.075 × 10⁻³⁴

Answer: (a)

42. If λ₁ and λ₂ denote the wavelengths of De Broglie waves for electrons in the first and 2nd Bohr orbits in hydrogen atom, then λ₁/λ₂ is equal to

(a) 2/1

(b) 1/2

(d) 4/1

Answer: (d)

43. The angular momentum of an electron in a hydrogen atom is proportional to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) r²

Answer: (c)

44. Mosley’s Law for characteristic X-ray is

Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) It is applicable to all those atoms to which Bohr’s theory is not applicable.

(b) It is applicable to all energy levels of some atoms only.

(d) it cannot be applied for higher values of z.

Answer: (b)

45. In a sample of radioactive material, what fraction of the initial number of active nulcei will remain undisintegrated after half of a half-life of the sample?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

46. Assuming that the silicon diode having resistance of 20 ohm, the current through the diode is (knee voltage 0.7 volt)

(a) 0 mA

(b) 10 mA

(d) 13.5 mA

Answer: (b)

47. The current gain of a transistor is 0.95 the change in emitter current is 10 mA. The change in base current is

(a) 9.5 mA

(b) 0.5 mA

(d) (200/19) mA

Answer: (b)

48. The depletion layer in the p-n junction is caused by

(a) drift of holes

(b) drift of electrons

(d) migration of impurity ions.

Answer: (b)

49. The co-ordination number for a simple cubic crystal is

(a) 4

(b) 6

(d) 12

Answer: (c)

50. In the relation y = r sin(ωt – kx), the dimension of is

(a) M⁰L⁰T⁰

(b) M⁰L¹T⁻¹

(d) M⁰L¹T⁰

Answer: (b)

51. The least count of a stop watch is 1/5 sec. The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is measured to be 25 sec. The minimum percentage error in the measurement of time will be

(a) 0.1%

(b) 0.8%

(d) 1.8%

Answer: (b)

52. A body initially at rest is moving with uniform acceleration ‘a’. Its velocity after n secs is v. The displacement of the body at last 2 sec is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

53. A body is projected at an angle 450 to the horizontal with kinetic energy ‘E’. The potential energy at the highest point of flight is

(a) zero

(b) E/4

(d) 3E/4

Answer: (c)

54. If and find the vector having the same magnitudes as and parallel to .

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

55. A block of mass 6 kg is suspended through light spring balances A and B. Then readings of the two are

(a) 6 kg-f, zero kg-f

(b) 3 kg-f, 3 kg-f

(d) 6 kg-f, 6 kg-f

Answer: (d)

56. A meter scale is standing vertically on the earth’s surface on one of its ends. It now falls on earth without slipping. Find the velocity with which the free end of the scale strikes the earth (9 = 9.8 ms⁻²).

(a) 9.8 ms⁻¹

(b) 5.4 ms⁻¹

(d) 1 ms⁻¹

Answer: (b)

57. A uniform flexible chain of length 4 m is held on a smooth horizontal table so that 1 m overhangs one edge. The chain being perpendicular to the edge. If the chain be released from rest, the velocity with which it leaves the table will be

(a) 6.06 ms⁻¹

(b) 6 ms⁻¹

(d) 4.9 ms⁻¹

Answer: (d)

58. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 5 ms⁻¹. In 10 sec the velocity changes to 5 ms⁻¹ north-wards. The average acceleration in this time is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

59. Angular momentum vector and The variation of log L and log p is given by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

60. The radius of the earth is reduced by 1%, the escape velocity will (if mass of earth remains same)

(a) increases by 0.5%

(b) decreases by 1%

(d) Decreases by 5%

Answer: (a)

61. A thick rope of density ρ and length L is hung from a rigid support. The increase in length of the rope due to its own weight is

(Y is Young’s modulus)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

62. A lead sphere of mass m falls in aviscous liquid with a terminal velocity v₀. Another lead sphere of mass 8 m through the same liquid will fall with terminal velocity

(a) v₀

(b) 4 v₀

(d) 64 v₀

Answer: (b)

63. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The whole system falls freely under gravity. The upward thrust on the body due to the liquid then is

(a) zero

(b) equal to the liquid displaced

(d) equal to the weight of the immersed portion in the liquid.

Answer: (a)

64. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a frequency f. The frequency with which kinetic energy oscillates is

(a) f

(b) 4f

(d) f/2

Answer: (c)

65. Two masses m₁ and m₂ are suspended together by a massless spring of constant k. When the masses are in equilibrium m₁ is removed without disturbing the system. The amplitude of vibration is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

66. 56 tuning forks are arranged in a series that each fork gives 4 beats per second with previous one. The frequency of last fork is 3 times that of first. .Then frequency of first fork is

(a) 52 Hz

(b) 56 Hz

(d) 110 Hz

Answer: (d)

Chemistry

1. Which is INCORRECT information about phosphine?

(a) PH₃ is prepared on reaction between white P and NaOH solution

(b) PH₃ reacts with CuSO₄ to form Cu₃P₂ as black ppt.

(d) PH₃ is soluble in base

Answer: (d)

2. When 20 gm of naphthoic acid (C₁₁H₈O₂) is dissolved in 50 gm of benzene (K_f = 1.72 K Kg mol⁻¹), a freezing point depression of 2K is observed. The Van’t Hoff factor (i) is

(a) 1

(b) 0.5

(d) 3

Answer: (b)

3. The reagent(s) for the following conversion is/are

(a) alcoholic KOH

(b) alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH₂

(d) Zn/CH₃OH

Answer: (b)

4. The percentage of free space in cube close packed structure in body centered packed structure are respectively

(a) 48 & 26

(b) 30 & 26

(d) 32 & 48

Answer: (c)

5. The Gibb’s energy for decomposition of Al₂O₃ at 500℃ is as follows

The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al₂O₃ at 500℃ is at least

(a) 2.5 V

(b) 5 V

(d) 4.5 V

Answer: (a)

6. The bond enthalpy of formation of NH₃ is−46 KJ/mol. If enthalpy of formation of H₂ from its atoms is – 436 KJ/mol and that of N₂ is −712 KJ/mol, the average bond enthalpy of N-H bond in NH₃ is

(a) −1102 KJ/mol

(b) −964 KJ/mol

(d) 352 KJ/mol

Answer: (c)

7. Correct acidity order is

(a) HClO₂ > HClO > HClO₃ > HClO₄

(b) HClO₃ > HClO₄ > HClO > HClO₂

(d) HClO > HClO₂ > HClO₃ > HClO₄

Answer: (c)

8. Paracetamol is

(a) antisepctic

(b) antipyretic

(d) antibiotic

Answer: (b)

9. What is the product ?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

10. Van der Waals equation for gas for n-mole is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

11. The correct bond angle order is

(a) NH₃ > CCl₄ > H₂O > H₂S

(b) CCl₄ > NH₄ > H₂O > H₂S

(d) H₂O > H₂S > CCl₄ > NH₃

Answer: (b)

12. Which can convert CH₃CHO to CH₃COOC₂H₅?

(a) NaOC₂H₅

(b) NaNH₂

(d) Al(C₂H₅)₃

Answer: (c)

13. The reagents to prepare methyl tertiary butyl ether are

(a) (CH₃)₃CONa & CH₃I

(b) CH₃ONa & (CH₃)₃C-Cl

(d)

Answer: (b)

14. Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits optical isomerism is

(a) 3-methyl-2-pentene

(b) 3-methyl-1-pentene

(d) 4-methyl-1-pentene

Answer: (a)

15. Consider the following bromides.

The correct order of SN¹ reactivity is

(a) A>B>C

(b) C>B>A

(d) B>A>C

Answer: (c)

16. Which compound is used to dry NH₃ gas?

(a) H₂SO₄

(b) P₂O₅

(d) CaO

Answer: (b)

17. Which of the following oxidation states as the most common among the lanthanides?

(a) 4

(b) 2

(d) 1

Answer: (c)

18. How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P₄O₁₀?

(a) 6

(b) 5

(d) 4

Answer: (d)

19. Which metal is extracted b y self-reduction method?

(a) Fe

(b) Cu

(d) Al

Answer: (b)

20. Gangue and flux combine to form

(a) anodising

(b) polling

(d) slag

Answer: (d)

21. Manufacture of NH₃ by Ostwald’s process involves the following successive steps.

(a) (i) Oxidation of NH₃ to NO in presence of platinum gauze catalyst

(ii) Reaction of produced NO with air gives NO₂

(iii) Absorption NO₂ gas by water

(b) (i) Oxidation of NH₃ to give N₂O

(ii) Absorption of NO₂ gas by water

(ii) Absorption of N₂O₃ to produce HNO₃

(d) (i) Reaction of NH₃ with SO₂ to form NO₂

(ii) Absorption of NO₂ gas by water

Answer: (a)

22. Reaction of CH₂O and CH₃CHO in presence of NaOH solution gives

(a) CH₃COONa + CH₂CH₂OH

(b) (CH₃)₂CH-COONa + C₂H₅OH

(d) HCOONa + C₂H₅OH

Answer: (d)

23. Correct relation between chemical (E) & electrochemical equivalent (Z) weight is

(a) F ×Z × E = 0.00045

(b) Z = E × 0.0000104

(d) 1/F = Z × E × time

Answer: (b)

24. Colour of tarnished oil paintings can be recovered by

(a) Cl₂

(b) H₂O₂

(d) N₂O

Answer: (b)

25. Which DOESNOT show tautomerism?

(a)

(b) CH₃CH₂COCH₃

(d)

Answer: (a)

26. The compound that DOESNOT exhibit metamerism is

(a)

(b) CH₃OCH₂CH₂CH₃

(d) CH₃CH₂CH₂CHO

Answer: (c)

27. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(a) 6-bromo 3-hydroxybenzonitrile

(b) 2-bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile

(d) 2-cyano 4-hydroxy bromobenzene

Answer: (c)

28. For a first order reaction A → P, the temperature (T) dependant rate constant (k) was found to follow the

The pre-exponential factor is

(a) 6 S⁻¹

(b) 2 × 10⁶ S⁻¹

(d) 1 × 10⁶ S⁻¹

Answer: (d)

29. The correct acidity order of the following

(a) I>IV>III>II

(b) IV>I>III>II

(d) III>II>I>IV

Answer: (a)

30. Correct electron affinity order is

(a) Cl₂ > F₂ > Br₂ > I

(b) F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂

(d) Br₂ > Cl₂ > I₂ > F₂

Answer: (a)

31. Base strength of I, II, III is

(a) III > II > I

(b) I > II > III

(d) I > III > II

Answer: (b)

32. Equivalent conductance of NH₄Cl, NaOH and NaCl at infinite dilution are E, F and G respectively. What is the value of NH₄OH at infinite dilution?

(a) E + G – F

(b) G + F – E

(d) E + F – G

Answer: (d)

33. Reagent for Reimer Tiemann reaction is

(a) CHCl₃ + NaOH

(b) CHCl₃ + C₆H₆

(d) CCl₄ + NaCl

Answer: (a)

34. On the basis of the following E° values, the strongest oxidizing agent is

[Fe(CN)₆]⁻⁴ → [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻+e E° = −0.3V

Fe⁺² → Fe⁺³ + e E° = −0.77V

(a) Fe⁺²

(b) [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻

(d) [Fe(CN)₆]⁻³

Answer: (d)

35. The correct order of decreasing second ionization potential of Ti(22), V(23), Cr(24) & Mn(25) is

(a) Mn > Cr > V > Ti

(b) V > Ti > Cr > Mn

(d) V > Ti > Mn > Cr

Answer: (c)

36. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of

(a) acid chloride > amide > acid anhydride > ester

(b) amide > acid chloride > acid anhydride > ester

(d) acid chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide

Answer: (c)

37. Ionic conductance in aqueous solution follows the order :

(a) Li⁺ > Na⁺ > K⁺ > Rb⁺ > Cs⁺

(b) Cs⁺ > Rb⁺ > K⁺ > Na⁺ > Li⁺

(d) Li⁺ > Cs⁺ > Rb⁺ > Na⁺ > K⁺

Answer: (b)

38. OCl₂ possesses the shape

(a) tetrahedral

(b) Linear

(d) Square planar

Answer: (c)

39. Which is TRUE for first order rate equation?

(a) Half life period is directly proportional to initial concentration of reactants.

(b) Half life period is independent of initial concentration of reactants.

(d) Half life period is proportional to the square of the initial concentration of reactants.

Answer: (b)

40. A compound is formed of two univalent atoms of elements M & A. The bond distance is 1 Å. If the observed dipole moment is 3.6 D, what is the % of ionic character ?

(a) 50

(b) 90

(d) 75

Answer: (d)

41. Which DOENOT produce haloform?

(a) C₆H₅COCH₃

(b) CH₃CHO

(d) CH₃CH(OH)CH₂CH₃

Answer: (a)

42. The product on reaction between propanamide, bromine & KOH solution are

(a) K₂CO₃, KBr, C₃H₇Br, H₂O

(b) K₂CO₃, KBr, C₂H₅NH₂, H₂O

(d) C₂H₅NH₂, KBr, ,H₂O

Answer: (b)

43. Heating gypsum (CaSO₄, 2H₂O) at 120℃ gives

(a) CaSO₄

(b) CaSO₄, H₂O

(d) CaSO₄, 1/2H₂O

Answer: (d)

44. Henderson equation for a buffer having weak base & its salt is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

45. The products by the reaction between benzyl methyl ether with HI are

(a) C₆H₅COOH & CH₃I

(b) Benzyl Iodide & CH₃OH

(d) Benzylalcohol & CH₃I

Answer: (d)

46. The raw materials for nylon 6 : 6 are

(a) (CH₂)₆(NH₂)₂ and adipic acid

(b) 1-amino hexane & adipic acid

(d) vinyl chloride

Answer: (a)

47. Which of the following DOESNOT represent the mathematical expression for the Heisenberg uncertainty principle?

(a) ∆X . ∆P ≥ h/4π

(b) ∆X . ∆P ≥ h/4πm

(d) ∆E . ∆t ≥ h/4π

Answer: (c)

48. Which of the following properties is exhibited by phenol?

(a) It is soluble in aqueous NaOH & evolve CO₂ in aqueous NaHCO₃

(b) It is not soluble in aqueous NaOH & evolve CO₂ in aqueous NaHCO₃

(d) It is soluble in aqueous NaOH solution & does not evolve CO₂ in aqueous NaHCO₃

Answer: (b)

49. When H₂O₂ is shaken with an acidified solution of K₂Cr₂O₇ in presence of ether, the ethereal layer turns blue due to the formation of

(a) Cr₂O₃

(b) CrO₄⁻²

(d) CrO₅

Answer: (c)

50. The paramagnetic behaviour of O₂ is due to the presence of

(a) two unpaired electron in π_bMO

(b) two unpaired electrons in σ_bMO

(d) two unpaired electrons in σ*MO

Answer: (c)

51. The order of rate of nitration of A, B, C, D is

(a) A > B > C> D

(b) D > C > A > B

(d) A > B > D > C

Answer: (c)

52. Choose the correct reagent to prepare DDT

(a) Phthalic anhydride & phenol

(b) Chlorobenzene, chloral & conc. H₂SO₄

(d) Bromobenzene & chloral

Answer: (c)

53. Which reaction DOESNOT given chlorine?

(a) KI & HCl

(b) KMnO₄ & HCl

(d) MnO₂ & HCl

Answer: (a)

54. In transforming 0.01 mole PbS to PbSO₄, the volume of 10 volume H₂O₂ required will be

(a) 11.2 ml

(b) 22.4 ml

(d) 44.8 ml

Answer: (d)

55. Which compound produces primary standard solution?

(a) Na₂CO₃ . 10H₂O

(b) HCl

(d) NaOH

Answer: (c)

56. The ionic conductance of B⁺² and Cl⁻ are 127 & 76 ohm⁻¹ cm² What is the equivalent conductance?

(a) 203

(b) 279

(d) 101.5

Answer: (c)

57. Gold number of protective colloids A, B, C & D are 0.50, 0.01 0.10 & 0.005 respectively. Correct order of their protective power is

(a) A > B > C > D

(b) D > B > C > A

(d) B > D > C > A

Answer: (b)

58. A plot of versue-log p for the adsorption of a gas on a solid gives a straight line with a slope equal to

(a) 1/n

(b) log K

(d) n

Answer: (a)

59. 2/7 mole of solid A, is burnt completely in 5/2 mole O₂ in a sealed tube. Cooling to room temperature,, pressure becomes 2/5th of the initial. Only gaseous compound L is formed. Formula of L is

(a) A₂O₅

(b) A₃O₄

(d) AO

Answer: (a)

60. Which reagent can produce ethylacetate from acetaldehyde in single step?

(a) Pd-BaSO₄

(b) H₂SO₄

(d) Al(OC₂O₅)₃

Answer: (d)

61. Which molecule does not show intramolecular hydrogen bonding?

(a) KHF₂

(b) CuSO₄.5H₂O

(d) 4-ethoxy- but-3-ene 4-0l-2-one

Answer: (a)

62. Which of the following two compounds have same colour?

(a) FeCl₂, VOCl₂

(b) CuCl₂, VOCl₂

(d) MnCl₂, VOCl₂

Answer: (b)

63. Number of methylene groups in urotropine is

(a) 6

(b) 4

(d) 3

Answer: (a)

64. Boric acid in presence of glycerol behaves as

(a) dibasic acid

(b) monobasic acid

(d) tetrabasic acid

Answer: (b)

65. Violet complex obtained in the detection of sulphur is

(a) Na₂[Fe(NO)(CN)₅]

(b) Na₃[Fe(ON SNa) (CN)₅]

(d) Na₄[Fe(CN)₅NOS]

Answer: (a)

66. Products during passing of SO₂ has through bromine water are

(a) S + H₂O

(b) HBr

(d) H₂O + HBr

Answer: (c)

Mathematics

1. If the function f be defined by then f¹(x) is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

2. The position vector of a point A is divides AB internally in the ratio 2 : 3, then the position vector of B is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

3. is equal to

(a) 1

(b) −1

(d) The limit does not exit

Answer: (a)

4. The range of is

(a)

(b) [−1, 1]

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

5. If f(x) = sin²x and the composite function gof(x) = |sin x|, then the function g(x) is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

6. The coordinates of the vertex A of the triangle ABC are (2, 5). If the ccentroid of the triangle is at (−2, 1), then the coordinates of the midpoint of the side BC are

(a) (4, 1)

(b) (−4, 1)

(d) (−4, −1)

Answer: (d)

7. If then the value of f⁻¹(x) is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

8. Orthocentre of the triangle formed by the lines x + y = 1, x = 0 and y = 0 is

(a) (0, 1)

(b) (0, 0)

(d) (1, 1)

Answer: (b)

9. Distance between the parallel lines y = 2x + 7 and y = 2x + 5 is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

10. If then the value of is

(a) 1

(b)

(c)

(d) 0

Answer: (d)

11. The domain of definition of the function f(x) = log_3+x(x² – 1) is

(a) (–3, –1) ∪ (1, ∞)

(b) [–3, 1) ∪ (1, ∞)

(d) [–3, –2) ∪ (–2, –1) ∪ (1, ∞)

Answer: (a)

12.

(a) e

(b) e^x

(d) 1

Answer: (b)

13. The ordinate of the circle passing through (0, 0) and (1, 0) and touching the circle x² + y² = 9

(a) ±1

(b) ±2

(d) ±√3

Answer: (c)

14. The centre of the circle is at (2, −3) and its circumference is 10π, then the equation if the circle is

(a) x² + y² – 4x + 6y – 12 = 0

(b) x² + y² – 4x – 6y + 12 = 0

(d) x² + y² – 4x – 6y − 12 = 0

Answer: (a)

15. If then the value of f(2) is

(a) 1/6

(b) 1/3

(d) −1

Answer: (d)

16. The period of the function sin⁴x + cos⁴x is

(a) π

(b) 2π

(d) 3π/2

Answer: (c)

17. Given f(0) = 0 and for x ≠ 0

Then the function f(x) is

(a) continuous at x = 0

(b) not continuous at x = 0

(d) continuous but not differentiable at x = 0

Answer: (b)

18. The angle between the vectors is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

19. Let A = {1, 2, 3} be a given set and a relation R on A be defined as follows.

R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3), (2, 1), (3, 12)}

Then the relation R on A is

(a) reflexive and transitive but not symmetric

(b) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive

(d) an equivalence relation

Answer: (d)

20. If the vectors are perpendicular to each other than λ = ?

(a) −3

(b) −6

(d) −1

Answer: (c)

21. Three vertices of a parallelogram ABCD are A(3, −1, 2), B(1, 2, −4) and C(−1, 1, 2).

The coordinates of D are

(a) (2, −3, 5)

(b) (−3, 4, 2)

(d) (2, −1, −8)

Answer: (c)

22. The angle between the lines and is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

23. If A and B are events such that P(A) = 0.4, P(B) = 0.8 and P(B/A) = 0.6, then P(A/B) = ?

(a) 0.2

(b) 0.3

(d) 0.5

Answer: (b)

24. A couple has 2 children. What is the probability that both are girls, if its known that one of them is a girl.

(a) 1/3

(b) 2/3

(d) 5/8

Answer: (a)

25. Two numbers are selected at random from integers a through 9. If the sum is even, what is the probability that both numbers are odd.

(a) 1/6

(b) 2/3

(d) 5/8

Answer: (d)

26. If A and B are square matrices of the same order, then (A + B) (A – B) = ?

(a) A² – B²

(b) A² + AB – BA – B²

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

27. The value of λ for which the matrix product is an identity matrix.

(a) 1/2

(b) 1/3

(d) 1/5

Answer: (d)

28.

(a) (a – b) (b – c) (c – a)

(b) −(a – b) (b – c) (c – a)

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

29.

(a) increasing in (0, 1)

(b) decreasing in (0, 1)

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

30.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

31.

(a) (a + b + c)

(b) (a + b+ c)²

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

32. The general solution of the Differential Equation is

(a) sin⁻¹ x + sin⁻¹ y = c

(b)

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

33. ∫e^x(cot x + log sin x) dx = ?

(a) e^x cot x + c

(b) e^x log sin x + c

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

34. If e^x+y = xy then,

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

35.

(a) 4

(b) 5

(d) 0

Answer: (a)

36. The equation of parabola whose focus is at (2, 2)) and the equation of the directrix is x + y = 0 is

(a) x² + y² – 2xy + 8x + 8y + 16 = 0

(b) x² + y² + 2xy – 8x – 8y + 16 = 0

(d) x² + y² – 2xy – 8x – 8y + 16 = 0

Answer: (d)

37.

(a) 0

(b) π/2

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

38. The principal value of is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

39.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

40. If S be the focus of the parabola y² = 2x and PSP’ be a focal chord, then is equal to

(a) 2

(b) 1/2

(d) 1/4

Answer: (a)

41. The value of is equal to

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

42. The equation of directrix of the parabola y² + 4y + 4x + 2 = 0 is

(a) x = −1

(b) x = 1

(d) x = 3/2

Answer: (d)

43. If t₁ and t₂ are parameters of the end points of a focal chord of a parabola y² = 4ax then

(a) t₁ + t₂ = 0

(b) t₁t₂ = 1

(d) t₁t₂ = −1

Answer: (c)

44. If when x ≠ 0

= 2 when x = 0

is continuous at x = 0, then the value of m is equal to

(a) 0

(b) −1/2

(d) ±2

Answer: (d)

45. If and then is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

46. For all real x, the minimum value of is

(a) 0

(b) 1/3

(d) 3

Answer: (b)

47. If ω is an imaginary cube root of unity then (1 + ω + ω²)⁷ equals

(a) 128ω

(b) −128ω

(d) −128ω²

Answer: (d)

48. The number of different factors of 2160 is

(a) 29

(b) 39

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

49. (1 + xⁿ) = C₀ + C₁x + C₂x² + C₃x³ + …… + C_nxⁿ then C₀ – 2C₁ + 3C₂ – 4C₃ + …. +(−1)ⁿ⁻¹C_n =

(a) 2^{n – 1}

(b) (n – 1)2ⁿ⁺¹

(d) n2ⁿ⁺¹

Answer: (c)

50. The sum of the series is

(a)

(b)

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

51. Imaginary part of is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

52. The value of log₈[log₁₅ 16 × log₂ 15] is

(a) 2

(b) 1

(d) 3/2

Answer: (b)

53. If i² = −1, then the value of is

(a) 100

(b) 0

(d) −50

Answer: (b)

54. If ⁴³C_{r – 6} = ⁴³C_{3r + 1}, then the value of r is

(a) 10

(b) 12

(d) 6

Answer: (b)

55. The sum of the integers from 1 to 100 that are divisible by 2 or 5 is

(a) 3000

(b) 3600

(d) 3050

Answer: (d)

56. The number of ways in which 5 boys and 3 girls can be seated in a row so that each girl is between two boys is

(a) 2800

(b) 1880

(d) 14400

Answer: (d)

57. If α and β are the roots of the equation x² + αx + β = 0 then

(a) α = 1, β = −2

(b) α = 0, β = 1

(d) α = −2, β = 1

Answer: (a)

58. If the sum of first n terms of an A.P. series is n² + 2n, then the term of the series having value 201 is

(a) 99th term

(b) 100th term

(d) 102nd term

Answer: (b)

59. The number of diagonals of a polygon of n sides is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

60. If log_p x = a and log_x q = b, then the value of log_p x is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (*)

61. If then the value of x is

(a) 0.1

(b) 1/3

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

62. The value of cos[tan⁻¹ (tan 2)] is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

63. If then

(a) 2 cos 3θ

(b) 3 cos 3θ

(d) 3 cos 2θ

Answer: (a)

64. In any triangle ABC, if a, b, c are in A.P. then are in

(a) A.P.

(b) G.P.

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

65. If A + B + C = π, then the value of is

(a) 0

(b) −1

(d) 2

Answer: (c)

66. The minimum value of 4tan²θ + 9cot²θ =

(a) 9

(b) 16

(d) 12

Answer: (d)

67. The set of values of x for which tan 3x – tan 2x = 1 + tan 3x . tan 2x is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

Biology

1. 90% of the photosynthesis in the world is carried out by

(a) Angiosperms

(b) Monocots

(d) Algae

Answer: (d)

2. One turn of Kreb’s cycle generates

(a) one molecule of NADH₂

(b) three molecule of NADH₂

(d) one molecule of O₂

Answer: (b)

3. How many ATP are produced from one molecule of FADH₂ in ETS?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

Answer: (d)

4. Which of the following have double fertilization?

(a) Algae

(b) Bryophytes

(d) Angiosperm

Answer: (d)

5. Stomatal opening is regulated by

(a) light

(b) temperature

(d) wind

Answer: (a)

6. Hydathodes are also called

(a) water stomata

(b) sunken stomata

(d) subsidiary cells

Answer: (a)

7. Is land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having

(a) mitochondria

(b) E.R.

(d) cytoskeleton

Answer: (c)

8. If water enters in a cell, the pressure exerted by its swollen protoplast is

(a) torgor pressure

(b) DPD

(d) imbibition

Answer: (a)

9. In a fully turgid cell

(a) TP = 0

(b) WP = 0

(d) OP = 0

Answer: (c)

10. What is the net ATP molecule gain, when 4 molecules of glucose undergo anaerobic respiration in plants?

(a) 8 ATP

(b) 20 ATP

(d) 16 ATP

Answer: (a)

11. The maximum growth rate occurs in

(a) stationary phase

(b) senescent phase

(d) exponential phase

Answer: (d)

12. Which pigment involves in photoperiodic change in plants

(a) Phytochrome

(b) Cytochrome

(d) Anthrocyanin

Answer: (a)

13. Which of the following induces flowering in long day plants?

(a) Gibberellins

(b) Cytokinin

(d) Ethylene

Answer: (a)

14. Which type of pollen grains are found in insect pollinated flowers?

(a) Hygroscopic

(b) Light and sticky

(d) Heavy and coloured

Answer: (b)

15. Male gametes in angiosperms formed by the division of

(a) microspore

(b) generative cell

(d) microspore mother cell

Answer: (b)

16. Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?

(a) Protein and starch

(b) Starch and fat

(d) Starch and cellulose

Answer: (c)

17. Cholesterol is synthesized from

(a) malate

(b) oxalate

(d) α-Ketoglutaric acid

Answer: (c)

18. Lipids are insoluble in water, because lipid molecules are

(a) neutral

(b) zwitterions

(d) hydrophilic

Answer: (c)

19. Which of the following is NOT an amino acid?

(a) Glycine

(b) Lysine

(d) Tryptophan

Answer: (c)

20. Ligament connects

(a) bone to bone

(b) bone to muscle

(d) Both (B) and (C)

Answer: (a)

21. Choroid plexus is a network of

(a) nerves

(b) capillaries

(d) lymph vessels

Answer: (a)

22. Oxyhaemoglobin carries how many molecules of oxygen?

(a) 1-4

(b) 5-8

(d) 13-16

Answer: (a)

23. Hamburger’s phenomenon is also called

(a) sodium shift

(b) chloride shift

(d) bicarbonate shift

Answer: (b)

24. Tachycardia is

(a) fast heart rate

(b) slow heart rate

(d) normal heart rate

Answer: (a)

25. Ultrafiltration occurs through

(a) capsular wall

(b) basement membrane

(d) glomerular membrane

Answer: (d)

26. Secretion of androgens by testis is regulated by

(a) LTH

(b) FSH

(d) Oxytocin

Answer: (a)

27. Which blood group has NO antibody?

(a) O

(b) A

(d) AB

Answer: (d)

28. During expiration the diaphragm becomes

(a) oblique

(b) normal

(d) dome-shaped

Answer: (d)

29. Which is the correct sequence of the air passage in man?

(a) Nosal cavity → Parynx → Pharynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli

(b) Nosal cavity → Pharynx → Trachea → Parynx → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli

(d) Nosal cavity → Pharynx → Parynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli

Answer: (a)

30. Our most abundant antibody is

(a) IgA

(b) IgG

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

31. Tissue fluid is produced from

(a) plasma

(b) lymph

(d) heart beat stops

Answer: (a)

32. When vagus nerve is cut,

(a) heart beat reduces

(b) heart contraction increases

(d) heart beat stops

Answer: (c)

33. Interferon is one type of

(a) glycolipid

(b) glycoside

(d) glycoprotein

Answer: (d)

34. Respiration is controlled by which part of the brain?

(a) Cerebrum

(b) Cerebellum

(d) Medulla oblongata

Answer: (d)

35. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is

(a) Z-band

(b) Myofibril

(d) Cross bridges

Answer: (c)

36. The main product of ornithin cycle is

(a) urea

(b) NH₃

(d) CO₂

Answer: (a)

37. Which hormone possesses anti-insulin effect

(a) Cortisol

(b) Calcitonin

(d) Aldosteron

Answer: (a)

38. The ketone bodies of our blood are

(a) pyruvic acid, acetone, β hydroxyl buturic acid

(b) acetone, Acetoacetic acid, β hydroxyl buturic acid

(d) acetic acid, acetone, pyruvic acid

Answer: (b)

39. Which nervous system constitute total spinal nerve ?

(a) Sympathetic

(b) Parasympathetic

(d) All of these

Answer: (c)

40. The main cause of Rigor Mortis is

(a) lack of Ca⁺⁺ in muscles

(b) change of pH in muscles

(d) lack of nerve impulses

Answer: (a)

41. The term ecological pyramid was proposed by

(a) Odum

(b) Elton

(d) Haeckel

Answer: (b)

42. In tissue culture, which of the following shows totipotency?

(a) Collenchyma

(b) Sive tube

(d) Xylem vessels

Answer: (c)

43. The natural parthenogenesis is found in

(a) Shark

(b) Cockroach

(d) Honey bee

Answer: (d)

44. Which one contains four pyrimidine bases?

(a) GATCAATGC

(b) UAGCGGUAA

(d) TGCCTAACG

Answer: (a)

45. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases; the total number of nucleotides present in the segment is

(a) 120

(b) 240

(d) 480

Answer: (d)

46. It double helix, one nucleotide is at an angle with the neighbouring nucleotide. The angle is

(a) 60°

(b) 90°

(d) 36°

Answer: (b)

47. DNA is NOT found in

(a) chloroplast

(b) mitochondria

(d) golgi complex

Answer: (d)

48. Which one is dinucleotide?

(a) ADP

(b) NAD

(d) DNA

Answer: (b)

49. A prokaryotic cell lacks

(a) cell wall

(b) ribosomes

(d) histone and nucleolus

Answer: (d)

50. The number of pairs of hydrogen bonds in DNA molecules of 150 base pairs having 60 A-T pairs would be

(a) 300

(b) 150

(d) 490

Answer: (c)

51. If two pairs of chromosomes can recombine in four possible ways, then five pairs of chromosome would combine in

(a) 32 ways

(b) 16 ways

(d) 8 ways

Answer: (a)

52. Whittaker’s five kingdom classification is based on

(a) life style

(b) Source of nutrition

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

53. Roots are absent in

(a) Wolffia

(b) Podostemon

(d) Lemna

Answer: (a)

54. A fibrous root system is excellent for

(a) food storage

(b) nitrogen fixation

(d) providing good anchorage for the plant

Answer: (d)

55. Which of the following plant parts can respire even in absence of oxygen?

(a) Seeds

(b) Roots

(d) Leaves

Answer: (a)

56. A horizontal underground stem is a

(a) corn

(b) phylloclade

(d) rhizoid

Answer: (c)

57. Stem is modified into cladode in

(a) Casuarina

(b) Asparagus

(d) Euphorbia

Answer: (b)

58. Modification of petiole into leaf-like structure is called

(a) cladode

(b) phylloclade

(d) pistillode

Answer: (c)

59. The reticulate venation is commonly found in the leaves of

(a) monocot plant

(b) dicot plant

(d) thallophytes

Answer: (a)

60. In china rose, the inflorescence is

(a) cymose

(b) capitulum

(d) solitary axillary

Answer: (c)

61. When light strikes a chlorophyll molecule in pigment system-II, how many chlorophyll electron move to a higher energy state?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) Six

Answer: (b)

62. The first step in photosynthesis is

(a) ionization of water

(b) formation of ATP

(d) excitement of an electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light

Answer: (d)

63. During photosynthesis when PGA is changed into phos-phoglyceraldehyde, which of the following reactions occurs?

(a) Oxidation

(b) Reduction

(d) Electrolysis

Answer: (c)

64. Kranz type of anatomy is found in the leaves of

(a) C₃ plants

(b) C₄ plants

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

65. Which one of the following is represented by Calvin cycle?

(a) Oxidative carboxylation

(b) Oxidative phosphorylation

(d) Photophosphorylation

Answer: (b)

66. The organelle associated with photorespiration is

(a) mesosome

(b) lysosome

(d) peroxisome

Answer: (d)

67. Algae often float on the surface of water during the day but sink during night due to

(a) release of absorbed air by warming of water

(b) warming action of the Sun during the day

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

68. Endosperm cell and angiosperm has 24 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in the gametes would be

(a) 8

(b) 16

(d) 48

Answer: (a)

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