Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017
Question Paper Name: Architecture and Planning 4th Feb 2017
Subject Name: Architecture and Planning
Duration : 180
Total Marks: 100
1. The Pritzker Architecture prize for the year 2016 has been awarded to
(A) Alejandro Aravena
(B) Frei Otto
(C) Stephen Breyer
(D) Yung Ho Chang
Ans: (A)
2. As per the CPWD Handbook on Barrier Free and Accessibility, 2014, Government of India,, the minimum length of a straight ramp in metre to raise a wheelchair to the plinth level to 600 mm, is _____
Ans: (7.2)
3. Tuscan and Composite orders are associated with
(A) Greek Architecture
(B) Islamic Architecture
(C) Byzantine Architecture
(D) Roman Architecture
Ans: (D)
4. A pointed arch having two centres and radii greater than the span is known as
(A) Lancet arch
(B) Gothic arch
(C) Roman arch
(D) Drop arch
Ans: (A)
5. The concepts of ‘serial vision’, ‘punctuation’ and ‘closure’ were proposed by
(A) Le Crobusier
(B) Louis Kahn
(C) Gordon Cullen
(D) Kevin Lynch
Ans: (C)
6. In one litre of paint, volume of solid pigment and volume of non-volatile binder are 400 cc and 600 cc respectively. The Pigment Volume Concentration number of the paint is ______
Ans: (0.4)
7. ‘Cold joint’ refers to the
(A) expansion joint in large span concrete members
(B) interface between an already setting concrete and a fresh batch of concrete
(C) structural crack arrested by embedding metal rods
(D) joining of two similar metals in vacuum
Ans: (B)
8. Slenderness ratio of a column is represented as :
(A) Effective length/Cross-sectional area
(B) Effective length/Radius of gyration
(C) Actual length/Cross-sectional area
(D) Actual length/Radius of gyration
Ans: (B)
9. Liquidated damage refers to the
(A) cost borne by the contractor to rectify defects within defect-liability period
(B) compensation paid on breach of contract to the affected p arty by the other party
(C) money paid by the insurance company to the owner of insured property if it is damaged
(D) money earned by the owner from selling damaged property through auction
Ans: (B)
10. Which of the following processes is NOT used for corrosion resistance of cast iron?
(A) Painting
(B) Epoxy coating
(C) Quenching
(D) Galvanizing
Ans: (C)
11. Data on ‘households with one or more married couples sharing room with a person aged 12 years or more’, is used for computing
(A) housing density
(B) housing shortage
(C) housing price
(D) housing affordability
Ans: (B)
12. Excellence in Design for Greater Efficiency (EDGE) programme DOES NOT focus on
(A) lower carbon emission
(B) greater resource efficiency
(C) cost effectiveness
(D) labour safety
Ans: (D)
13. Select the right option representing strategic components arranged in ascending order of specified minimum area under Smart City Mission of Government of India.
(A) Greenfield development – Redevelopment – Retrofitting
(B) Redevelopment – Greenfield development – Retrofitting
(C) Retrofitting – Redevelopment – Greenfield development
(D) Redevelopment – Retrofitting – Greenfield development
Ans: (B)
14. The grade-separated interchange suitable for 3-legged road intersection is
(A) Trumpet
(B) Full Clover leaf
(C) Diamond
(D) Partial Clover leaf
Ans: (A)
15. The design element provided to ensure safety of a vehicle travelling at prescribed design speed along the curved segment of a highway is
(A) shoulder
(B) super-elevation
(C) median
(D) footpath
Ans: (B)
16. Which of the following process is NOT adopted in solid waste management?
(A) Incineration
(B) Pyrolysis
(C) Flocculation
(D) Sanitary landfill
Ans: (C)
17. The principle of Eminent Domain is the power to
(A) restrict exercise of rights in land through zoning and environmental laws
(B) control land use
(C) retain land use
(D) acquire and take possession of property in order to promote public interest
Ans: (D)
18. In which of the following models does the private partner own the revenue as well as the risk associated with the project for a limited period of time?
(A) Build, Own, Operate (BOO)
(B) Build, Own, Operate, Transfer (BOOT)
(C) Design, Build, Finance, Operate (DBFO)
(D) Design, Bid, Build (DBB)
Ans: (B)
19. In a multi-storied building, the type of plumbing system suitable for reusing the sullage for non-potable use is
(A) single stack system
(B) partially ventilated single stack system
(C) one pipe system
(D) two pipe system
Ans: (D)
20. The unit for measuring sound absorption in a room is
(A) Sabin
(B) Phon
(C) Decibel
(D) Hertz
Ans: (A)
21. In Geographic Information System, DEM represents information on
(A) vegetation cover
(B) soil type
(C) water table
(D) topography
Ans: (D)
22. Minimum points required for GRIHA certification is
(A) 35
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 60
Ans: (C)
23. ArchiCAD, Auto Desk Revit, Digital Project Designer (CATIA) and Vector Works Architect are examples of
(A) Statistical Analysis software
(B) GIS software
(C) BIM software
(D) Image processing software
Ans: (C)
24. The CARTOSAT 2C satellite recently launched by ISRO
(A) is a geo-synchronous satellite
(B) is a part of IRNSS GPS satellite system
(C) was launched using a GSLV rocket
(D) has high spatial resolution
Ans: (D)
25. Which of the following trees has a columnar form?
(A) Delonix regia
(B) Tamarindus indica
(C) Polyalthia longifolia
(D) Callistemon lanceolatus
Ans: (C)
26. Match the architectural movements in Group-I with their proponents in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
P. Deconstruction 1. Joseph Paxton
Q. Historicism 2. Kenzo Tange
R. Metabolism 3. Walter Gropius
S. Art Nouveau 4. Victor Horta
5. Frank O. Gehry
(A) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(B) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(C) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-3
(D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5
Ans: (A)
27. Associate the historic buildings in Group-I with their predominant materials in Group-II.
Group-I
P. Lingaraj Temple, Bhubaneshwar, India
Q. Victoria Memorial, Kolkata, India
R. Padmanabhapuram Palace, Thuckalay, India
S. Humayun’s Tomb, Delhi, India
Group-II
1. Red sandstone
2. Timber
3. Terracotta tiles
4. Sandstone and laterite
5. Marble
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5
(B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-5
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(D) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1
Ans: (D)
28. Match the terminologies in Group-I with their description in Group-II.
Group-I
P. Pruning
Q. Felling
R. Hoeing
S. Mulchin
Group-II
1. Cutting of trees
2. Removing broken branches from trees for better growth
3. Maintaining moisture content in soil by a protective layer
4. Indiscriminate cutting of branches to reduce the size of a tree
5. Loosening the ground to remove weeds
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3
(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-1
Ans: (A)
29. A proposed housing will have HIG, MIG and LIG units on a site measuring 60,750 sq.m. The buildable area of each category of units with respect to the total buildable area will be 30%, 50% and 20% respectively. The maximum allowable FAR is 2.5, ground coverage 45% and height 15 m. The maximum buildable area in sq.m of HIG units, considering a floor height of 3 m for all categories will be _____
Ans: (41000 to 41010)
30. In 2011, the population of a town was 5,00,000 and the number of housing units were 1,00,000. Calculate the additional number of dwelling units (DU) required by 2031 so that there is no housing shortage. The assumptions are
i. 5% decadal increase in population
ii. New DU to be complete by 2021 is 10,000
iii. Number of DU which become non habitable by 2031 is 5,000
iv. Average household size is 4.5
Ans: (17495 to 17505)
31. Match the classical urban planning theories in Group-I with their proponents in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
P. Concentric Zone Model 1. Berry and Horton
Q. Sector Model 2. Horner Hoyt
R. Multiple Nuclei Model 3. Ernest Burgess
S. Factorial Ecology 4. Shevky and Bell
5. Harris and Ullman
32. Match the distinguished housing projects in Group with their architects in Group-II.
Group-I
P. Nagakin Capsule Tower, Tokyo, Japan
Q. Tara Apartment, New Delhi, India
R. Habitat 67, Montreal, Canada
S. Byker Wall, New Castle, England
Group-II
1. Walter Gropius
2. Moshe Safdie
3. Ralph Erskine
4. Charles Correa
5. Kisho Kurokawa
(A) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5
(C) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1
Ans: (A)
33. Match the development scheme by Government of India in Group-I with their objectives in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
P. PMAY 1. Housing for All
Q. AMRUT 2. Rural cluster development
R. NRuM 3. Heritage city development
S. HRIDAY 4. Urban mobility improvement
5. Urban rejuvenation
(A) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-3
(B) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2
(D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-5
Ans: (B)
34. Match the international events in Group-I with their directives in Group-II.
Group-I
P. Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro, 1992
Q. UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, New York, 1992
R. UN Sustainable Development Summit, New York, 2015
S. Habitat II, Istanbul, 1996
Group-II
1. Kyoto Protocol
2. Agenda 21
3. Heritage conservation
4. Agenda 2030
5. Housing for All
(A) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-3
(B) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5
(D) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4
Ans: (C)
35. Match the planning techniques in Group-I with their salient features in Group-II.
Group-I
P. Land pooling
Q. Action Plan
R. Land sharing
S. Transfer of Development Rights
Group-II
1. Assigning specific task on a short time horizon
2. Assembling privately owned land parcels for development
3. Agreement for reallocation of land between occupiers and owners
4. Assigning specific task on a long time horizon
5. Incentive based voluntary shifting of FAR of a plot to another plot
(A) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-3
(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-5
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-5
Ans: (B)
36. 
For a symmetrical two dimensional truss as shown in the above figure, vertical force in kN acting on the member PQ is _______
Ans: (0)
37. 
Value of bending moment in kN-m at point C for a beam as shown in the above figure is ______
Ans: (28)
38. Fee of contractor for a project has the following provisions
• Basic fee = 15% of actual cost of work incurred
• Bonus = 20% of savings from estimated cost of work
• Penalty = 20% of cost overrun
If the estimated cost of project is Rs. 60,000, and the actual cost is Rs. 70,000, then the total fee of contractor in Rupees is _____
Ans: (8500)
39. A site has a unidirectional slope of 30° with horizontal along its longer side. The projected dimensions of the site on the horizontal plane measures 30 m × 40 m. Using cut and fill method the site has to be leveled parallel to the horizontal plane. The minimum amount of earth to be excavated in cubic metre is _______
Ans: (3463 to 3465)
40. The optimistic, most-likely and pessimistic time for developing a new product are 12 months, 15 months and 17 months, respectively. Calculate the expected time in months.
Ans: (14.00 to 15.00)
41. A circular plate inclined at an angle θ with horizontal plane generates an ellipse as top view with major axis and minor axis of 5 cm and 2.5 cm respectively. The value of θ in degrees is ______
Ans: (60)
42. Calculate the volume of cement in cubic metre required for making 10 cubic metre of M20 grade Plain Cement Concrete work, assuming the ratio of dry concrete mix to wet concrete mix as 1.52.
Ans: (2.7 to 2.9)
43. One acre of agricultural land has been given on a lease till perpetuity at an annual rent of Rs. 10,000 to be paid at the end of each year. Net Present Value of the land parcel in Rupees assuming a discount rate of 5% per annum is ________
Ans: (200000)
44. In year 2001, a district with 4,000 manufacturing jobs had a 10% share of total manufacturing jobs within the state. In year 2011, the state recorded 15% drop in manufacturing jobs whereas, share of the district in total manufacturing jobs within the state increased to 15%. Additional manufacturing jobs created in the district between year 2001 and 2011 is ______
Ans: (1100)
45. Match the parameters in Group I with their units in Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Traffic flow 1. Metre
(Q) Traffic density 2. Cycles/second
(R) Right of Way 3. Seconds
(S) Traffic signal cycle length 4. Vehicle/km
5. PCU/hr
(A) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(C) P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(D) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3
Ans: (B)
46. Match the planning tasks in Group I with the tools of analysis in Group II
Group I
(P) Population projections
(Q) Regional resource allocation
(R) Trip distribution
(S) Design of water distribution network
Group-II
1. Input-Output Analysis
2. Hardy Cross Method
3. Cohort Analysis
4. Gravity Model
5. Moving observer method
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(B) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1
(C) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(D) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-2
Ans: (A)
47. Match the land use classes in Group I with the use zones in Group II
Group-I
(P) Transportation
(Q) Commercial
(R) Public and Semi-public
(S) Recreational
Group II
1. Sports complex
2. Heritage and conservation areas
3. Burial ground
4. BRT corridor
5. Service sector
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-5
(B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2
(D) P-4, Q-5, R-3, S-1
Ans: (D)
48. Associate the structural systems in Group I with the building in Group II.
Group-I
(P) Folded plates
(Q) Shell
(R) Tensegrity
(S) Pneumatic
Group-II
1. Kurilpa Bridge, Brisbane
2. Eden Project, Cornwall
3. Riverside Museum, Glasgow
4. MIT Auditorium, Boston
5. 30, St. Mary Axe, London
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(B) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-5
(D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
Ans: (A)
49. As per National Building Code of India, 2005, the maximum number of occupants per unit exit width of a doorway is 60, where unit exit width is 500 mm. The maximum permissible occupants in a theatre having four number of 2.2 m wide doors will be _____
Ans: (960)
50. Match the instruments in Group I with the corresponding tests in Group II.
Group I
(P) Pycnometer
(Q) Brinell’s Apparatus
(R) Los Angeles Apparatus
(S) Vicat’s Apparatus
Group II
1. Initial and final setting time
2. Abrasion test
3. Surface hardness test
4. Slump test
5. Apparent Specific gravity
(A) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(B) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-2, R-1, S-5
(D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
Ans: (A)
51. Water flows through a constricted circular pipe whose diameter at the constricted end is half of the non-constricted end. Velocity of water at the non-constricted end is 2 m/s. Velocity of water in m/s at the constricted end using the principle continuity of flow is ______
Ans: (8)
52. A drainage basin of 180 hectares comprises 40% wooded area, 45% grassed area and 15% paved area. Runoff coefficients for wooded, grassed and paved areas are 0.01, 0.02 and 0.95 respectively. The composite runoff coefficient for the drainage basin is ______
Ans: (0.2 to 0.25)
53. A fluorescent light source consumes 40 W electric power and has a luminous efficacy of 40 lm/W. Illumination in lux at a distance of 3 m from this light source is _______
Ans: (175 to 180)
54. A room measures 3 m (width) × 4 m(length) × 3 m(height). The outdoor temperature is 36℃. The volumetric specific heat of air is 1300 J/cu.m.℃. The ventilation heat flow rate in Watts required to attain an internal room temperature of 26℃ with 3 air changes per hour is _______
Ans: (390)
55. Match the equipment in Group-I with their applications in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
P. PIR 1. Air conditioning
Q. FCU 2. Lighting
R. OLED 3. Power generation
S. BIPV 4. Motion detection
5. Daylight sensing
(A) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1
(B) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(D) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-1
Ans: (C)
56. He was one of my best __________ and I felt his loss _________.
(A) friend, keenly
(B) friends, keen
(C) friend, keener
(D) friends, keenly
Ans: (D)
57. As the two speakers became increasingly agitated, the debate became __________.
(A) lukewarm
(B) poetic
(C) forgiving
(D) heated
Ans: (D)
58. A right – angled cone (with base radius 5cm and height 12cm), as shown in the figure below, is rolled on the ground keeping the point P fixed until the point Q (at the base of the cone, as shown) touches the ground again.
By what angle (in radians) about P does the cone travel?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
Ans: (D)
59. In a company with 100 employees, 45 earn Rs. 20,000 per month, 25 earn Rs. 30,000, 20 earn Rs. 40,000 8 earn Rs. 60,000, and 2 earn Rs. 150,000. The median of the salaries is
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 30,000
(C) Rs. 32,300
(D) Rs. 40,000
Ans: (B)
60. P,Q, and R talk about S’s car collection. P states that S has at least 3 cars. Q believes that S has less than 3 cars. R indicates that to his knowledge, S has at least one Car. Only one of P, Q and R is right the number cars owned by S is.
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) Cannot be determined
Ans: (A)
61. “Here, throughout the early 1820s, Stuart continued to fight his losing battle to allow his sepoys to wear their caste-marks and their own choice of facial hair on parade, being again reprimanded by the commander-in-chief. His retort that ‘A stronger instance than this of European prejudice with relation to this country has never come under my observations’ had no effect on his superiors.”
According to this paragraph, which of the statements below is most accurate?
(A) Stuart’s commander – in chief was moved by this demonstration of his prejudice.
(B) The Europeans were accommodating of the sepoys’ desire to weak their caste – marks.
(C) Stuart’s losing battle’ refers to his inability to succeed in enabling sepoys to wear caste-marks.
(D) The commander– in – Chief was exempt from the European preiudice that dictated how the sepoys were to dress.
Ans: (C)
62. What is the sum of the missing digits in the subtraction problem below?
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) Cannot be determined
Ans: (D)
63. Let S1 be the plane figure consisting of the points (x,y) given by the inequalities |x – 1| ≤ 2 and |y + 2| ≤ Let S2 be the plane figure given by the inequalities x – y ≥ −2, y ≥ 1, and x ≤ 3 Let S be the union of S1 and S2. The area of S is
(A) 26
(B) 28
(C) 32
(D) 34
Ans: (C)
64. Two very famous sportsmen Mark and Steve happened to be brothers, and played for country K. Mark teased James, an opponent from country E, “There is no way you are good enough to play for your country.’’ James replied, “Maybe not, but at least I am the best player in my own family.”
Which one of the following can be inferred from this conversation?
(A) Mark was known to play better than James
(B) Steve was known to play better than Mark
(C) James and Steve were good friends
(D) James played better than Steve
Ans: (B)
65. The growth of bacteria (lactobacillus) in milk leads to curd formation. A minimum bacterial population density of 0.8(in suitable units) is needed to form curd. In the graph below, the population density of lactobacillus in 1 litre of milk is plotted as a function of time, at two different temperatures, 25°C and 37°C.
Consider the following statements based on the data shown above:
(i) The growth in bacterial population stops earlier at 37°C as compared to 25°C
(ii) The time taken for curd formation at 25°C is twice the time taken at 37°C
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) Only i
(B) only ii
(C) Both i and ii
(D) Neither i nor ii
Ans: (A)
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