Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Geology and Geophysics 4th Feb 2017

Subject Name: Geology and Geophysics

Duration : 180

Total Marks: 100

1. Which one of the following is a continental hotspot?

(A) Reunion

(B) Macdonald

(D) Afar

Ans: (D)

2. The diagram given below shows a Mohr circle for two-dimensional stress with points numbered as shown. The mean stress and the maximum shear stress are given by which one of the following number pairs?

(A) 1, 2

(B) 1, 3

(D) 2, 3

Ans: (B)

3. Which type of fault is developed in the setting shown in the figure below? Velocity vectors on either side of the fault are given in the figure.

(A) Normal

(B) Dextral strike-slip

(D) Thrust

Ans: (A)

4. The age of most of the bituminous coal seams of India is

(A) Silurian.

(B) Miocene.

(D) Permian.

Ans: (D)

5. The time equivalent of the time-stratigraphic team ‘Series’ is

(A) Epoch.

(B) Period.

(D) Stage.

Ans: (A)

6. Match the following stratigraphic units of India (Group-I) with their age (Group-II)

Group-I Group-II

(P) Barakar Formation (1) Miocene

(Q) Warakali (Varkala) Formation (2) Cretaceous

(R) Bagh Beds (3) Proterozoic

(S) Bhander Limestone (4) Eocene

(5) Permian

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(B) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-5

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

Ans: (A)

7. Universal Transverse Mercator (UTM) is a type of

(A) conical projection

(B) gnomonic projection

(D) cylindrical projection

Ans: (D)

8. The groundwater flow equation where h refers to the hydraulic head and x, y, z are coordinates, is valid when the flow condition is

(A) steady state in isotropic media.

(B) unsteady state in isotropic media.

(D) unsteady state in anisotropic media.

Ans: (A)

9. Los Angeles abrasion test was conducted for a granite aggregate with an initial weight of 4800 grams. After the test, the aggregate weighed 3504 grams. The Los Angeles abrasion value is _______%

Ans: (27)

10. Brightness temperature is a function of surface temperature and

(A) transmittance.

(B) reflectance.

(D) emissivity.

Ans: (D)

11. Which one of the following minerals has poor cleavage in all directions?

(A) Fluorite

(B) Orthoclase

(D) Muscovite

Ans: (C)

12. The figure below shows the intercepts of the plane HKL with the crystallographic axes a, b, c. The Miller index of the plane HKL is

(A) (243)

(B) (342)

(D) (634)

Ans: (B)

13. Match the rocks listed in Group-I with the corresponding general rock classification listed in Group-II.

Group-I Group-II

P. Granite 1. Extrusive igneous rock

Q. Basalt 2. Biochemical sedimentary rock

R. Gneiss 3. Intrusive igneous rock

S. Sandstone 4. Metamorphic rock

5. Clastic sedimentary rock

(A) P-1; Q-3; R-5; S-2

(B) P-4; Q-5; R-1; S-2

(D) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-5

Ans: (C)

14. Which one of the following oceanic ridges is known to be aseismic?

(A) Carlsberg

(B) Mid Atlantic

(D) Southwest Indian

Ans: (C)

15. Isogonic lines are contours of equal magnetic

(A) inclination.

(B) declination.

(D) horizontal field intensity.

Ans: (B)

16. Match the geophysical terms in Group-I with their corresponding units of measurements in Group-II

Group-I Group-II

P. Transit time 1. mGal

Q. Conductivity 2. Nano Tesla

R. Gravity anomaly 3. Siemens

S. Magnetic field intensity 4. millivolt

5. microsecond per feet

(A) P-5; Q-4; R-2; S-1

(B) P-5; Q-4; R-3; S-2

(D) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1

Ans: (C)

17. The Maxwell’s equation based on Ampere’s law is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (B)

18. The normal gravity formula (for e.g. GRS80) is a function of

(A) geocentric latitude.

(B) geodetic latitude.

(D) altitude.

Ans: (B)

19. A seismic reflection survey was carried out over a subsurface consisting of a stack of horizontal isotropic layers. In the common midpoint (CMP) domain, the moveout (traveltime v/s offset) curve for any primary reflection event is best approximated by

(A) an ellipse.

(B) a parabola.

(D) a hyperbola.

Ans: (D)

20. Assertion(a) : Magnetic stripes are observed around mid-oceanic ridge regions.

Reason (R): The earth’s magnetic field undergoes reversals of polarity.

(A) (a) is true but (r) is false.

(B) (a) is false but (r) is true.

(D) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a).

Ans: (C)

21. A seismic gap refers to a

(A) time gap between two great earthquakes.

(B) distance gap between the epicenters of two great earthquakes.

(D) wide gap in the earth created by a great earthquake.

Ans: (C)

22. The travel time difference between the arrival times of a shear wave (S) and primary wave (P) observed on a seismogram recorded at an epicentral distance of 100 km from a near surface earthquake is ______s.

(Assume the average P and S wave velocities to be 6.0 km/s and 3.5 km/s, respectively).

Ans: (11.8 to 12.0)

23. The percentage increase in P-wave velocity (km/s) across the Mohorovicic discontinuity from the lower crust to the upper mantle beneath a carton is approximately________(%)

Ans: (12 to 22)

24. Which one amongst the following logging tools has the largest depth of investigation?

(A) Density

(B) Laterolog 3

(D) Neutron

Ans: (B)

25. The most abundant radioactive isotope in the continental crust is

(A) ⁴⁰K

(B) ²³²Th

(D) ²³⁸U

Ans: (A)

Geology (Part B) (Section-1)

26. Stylolitic foliation developed during diagenetic processes is typically

(A) parallel to bedding.

(B) perpendicular to bedding.

(D) vertical.

Ans: (A)

27. A coal seam with an attitude 090°, 50°S outcrops at an elevation of 1400 m in an area that has flat topography. A vertical exploratory drill hole will intersect the seam

(A) north of the outcrop at elevations greater than 1400 m.

(B) north of outcrop at elevations less than 1400 m.

(D) south of the outcrop at elevations greater than 1400 m.

Ans: (C)

28. Earthquakes result in the formation of which one of the following features?

(A) Porphyroblast

(B) Porphyroclast

(D) Pressure shadow

Ans: (C)

29. In a bilaterally symmetrical brachiopod fossil, the angle between the hinge line and the median line changes to 45° after deformation. The shear strain observed in the deformed fossil is _______.

Ans: (1)

30. The empirical probability distribution of gold (Au) grades shows a unimodal distribution with mode = 2 g/t, median = 3 g/t, and mean = 5 g/t. This probability distribution is

(A) positively skewed.

(B) negatively skewed.

(D) platykurtic.

Ans: (A)

31. A limb of a non-plunging fold with an attitude 070°, 40°S is rotated about is fold axis 30° clockwise (looking towards ENE). The plunge amount of the pole to the fold limb after rotation is ______ degrees.

Ans: (20)

32. The Bulk Silicate Earth (BSE) is best approximated by the average

(A) enriched upper mantle composition.

(B) mantle and continental crust composition.

(D) primitive upper mantle composition

Ans: (B)

33. Which one of the following is the stable mineral assemblage in metamorphism of a rock with politic bulk composition under granulite facies?

(A) staurolite + muscovite + sillimanite + K-feldspar

(B) phengite + garnet + chloritoid + biotite

(D) gamet + cordierite + K-fledspar + sillimanite

Ans: (D)

34. The given P-T diagram shows four distinct metamorphic paths designated as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Which one of these P-T paths represents crustal thickening in a collisional tectonic setting?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

Ans: (B)

35. The pressure on a rock overlain by a 7 km thick basaltic crust (ρ = 3100 kg m⁻³) is _____ kilobar.

(Use g = 9.8 ms⁻²; 10⁵ Pa = 1 bar)

Ans: (2.0 to 2.2)

36. The given T-X diagram shows the phase relations in olivine solid solution at 1 bar pressure. If ‘P’ is the initial position of melt, the proportion of melt at 1500℃ is ______%.

Ans: (32 to 34)

37. Fluorite crystal (CaF₂) adopts face-centered cubic structure with lattice parameter a = 5.463Å. If the ionic radius of anion (F⁻) is 1.71 Å, the ionic radius of cation (Ca²⁺) is _______Å.

Ans: (2.1 to 2.2)

38. The diagram below shows the interference figure of a mineral. The mineral is

(A) uniaxial positive.

(B) biaxial negative.

(D) biaxial positive.

Ans: (C)

39. The standard thermodynamic data for enstatite (Mg₂Si₂O₆) and forsterite (Mg₂SiO₄) is given in the table below. The Gibb’s free energy of the reaction Mg₂SiO₄ + SiO₂ = Mg₂Si₂O₆ at 600 K and 1 bar is _____ J.

(Assuming C_p = 0 for all minerals in the reaction)

Ans: (−5300 to −4700)

40. The modal abundance in an ultramafic rock and the partition coefficients of lutetium (Lu) in clinopyroxene, orthopyroxene, olivine and plagioclase are tabulated below. The bulk distribution coefficient of lutetium (D_Lu) in the ultramafic rock is _____

Ans: (0.39 to 0.41)

41. Match the following classical ore deposits (Group-I) with their associated ore minerals (Group-II)

Group-I Group-II

P. Sudbury type deposit 1. Molybdenite

Q. Mississippi valley type deposit 2. Uraninite and chalcopyrite

R. Climax type deposit 3. Pentlandite

S. IOCG type deposit 4. Psilomelane

5. Sphalerite and Galena

(A) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1

(B) P-3; Q-5; R-1; S-2

(D) P-3; Q-5; R-2; S-4

Ans: (B)

42. Which one of the following microfossils is commonly used in biostratigraphic correlation of Palaeozoic marine strata?

(A) Angiosperm pollen

(B) Diatoms

(D) Chitinozoans

Ans: (D)

43. Given below are pairs of “living fossils”. Which one of the following is a brachiopod-molusc pair?

(A) Lingula, Nautihus

(B) Ginkgo, Metasequia

(D) Coelacanths, Sikhotealinia

Ans: (A)

44. Match the sedimentary rocks and their features listed in Group I with depositional environments listed in Group II.

Group I

(P) Sandstone with herring-bone cross bedding

(Q) Chalk with coccolith

(R) Well sorted arenite with large cross bedding (5-10 m thick)

(S) Poorly sorted sediments with faceted and striated pebbles

Group II

(1) Eolian

(2) Glacial

(3) Sabhka

(4) Tidal

(5) Pelagic

(A) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-5

(B) P-4; Q-5; R-1; S-2

(D) P-5; Q-1; R-2; S-3

Ans: (B)

45. Arrange the following stratigraphic formations sequentially from older to younger.

(P) Jodhpur Sandstone

(Q) Cambay Shale

(R) Kajrahat Limestone

(S) Tipam Sandstone

(A) P, R, Q, S

(B) R, Q, P, S

(D) R, P, Q, S

Ans: (D)

46. 2 g air dried coal contains 0.2 g moisture, 0.3 g ash and 0.5 g volatile matter. The volatile matter content in the coal in dry mineral matter free (d.m.f.) basis is _______%.

(mineral matter content = 1.1 × ash content)

Ans: (33.5 to 34.5)

47. The approximate temperature for ‘oil window’ ranges from

(A) 30℃ to 50℃

(B) 60℃ to 160℃

(D) 260℃ to 350℃

Ans: (B)

48. Which one of the following biopolymers is the major source of liquid hydrocarbons?

(A) Lignin

(B) Proteins

(D) Carbohydrates

Ans: (C)

49. The hydraulic conductivity (K) of an isotropic aquifer is 10 m/day. If the hydraulic head within the aquifer drops 4 m over a distance of 750 m, the groundwater flow velocity within the aquifer is ______ m/day.

(Up to third decimal place)

Ans: (0.05 to 0.055)

50. Drainage network of a watershed ordered as per the Strahler method is given below. Maximum observed bifurcation ratio for the given network is _____.

Ans: (2.55 to 2.65)

51. In a vertical aerial photo, the top and bottom of a tower built on a flat terrain is displaced by 2 mm. In the photograph, the distance between top of the tower and nadir point is 100 mm. The flying height of the aircraft was 3000 m above the ground. The estimated height of the tower is _____m.

Ans: (60)

52. Brazilian test was conducted on a rock sample having radius of 27 mm and thickness of 22 mm. The failure load was 5 kN. The tensile strength of the rock is ______ N/mm².

Ans: (2.50 to 3.00)

53. The average assay (a) and area of influence (A) of a placer gold deposit of uniform thickness sampled at four locations W, X, Y and Z are given below. The weighted average assay of the ore body is ______ g/t.

Ans: (21.00 to 22.00)

54. The minimum and maximum values of the digital number (DN) of a remote sensing image are 8 and 32 respectively. The digital data was linearly stretched between 0 and 255 by using min-max linear stretching method. The post stretched integer DN value of a pixel with an original DNA value of 27 will be _______.

Ans: (201 to 204)

55. The length and width of concave and convex sides of a landslide is shown in the figure below. The Dilation Index of the landslide is ______.

Ans: (2)

Geophysics (Part B) (Section-2)

56. Which one of the following seismic phases is observable in the P-wave shadow zone?

(A) P

(B) PmP

(D) PKiKP

Ans: (D)

57. Consider a geological body buried at the equator at a certain depth. If the same body were to be buried at the North pole at the same depth, how would the gravity and magnetic field responses measured overt the body differ? Assume the same magnetic susceptibility and density contrasts. (Consider only geomagnetic induction).

(A) Both gravity and magnetic field responses do not change.

(B) Both gravity and magnetic field responses change significantly.

(D) Gravity field response does not change but magnetic field response changes significantly.

Ans: (D)

58. Given the Bouguer density of 2.8 g/cc, the Bouguer correction for a gravity station at an elevation of 30 m above the datum is ____ mGals.

(Use π = 3.14).

Ans: (3.3 to 3.7)

59. Given the following data for a resistivity sounding experiment over a two-layered half-space, the resistivity transform for the top layer is ______Ωm

(Data : resistivity of top layer ρ₁ = 10 Ωm, resistivity of half space ρ₂ = 100 Ωm, thickness of top layer h₁ = 10 m and current electrode spacing AB/2 = 5 m).

Ans: (9.7 to 10.8)

60. The ratio of eccentricity to the polar flattening of an ellipsoidal Earth with equatorial radius ‘e’ and polar radius ‘p’ can be expressed as

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (C)

61. The vertical field intensity anomaly ∆z due to a vertically polarized vertical dyke is given by

where M is the magnitude of intensity of magnetization. All relevant parameters are provided in the figure below. The dyke has 1% magnetite (magnetic susceptibility of magnetite = 0.5 SI unit) distributed homogeneously. Then, the magnitude of peak vertical field intensity over the dyke is _______nT.

Ans: (76 to 84)

62. In magneto-telluric (MT) experiment over a homogeneous and isotropic half-space, the apparent resistivity is 50 Ωm for an electric field intensity of 12 mV/km and time period of 10 s. Then the magnetic field strength is _____ nT.

Ans: (2.3 to 2.5)

63. The apparent resistivity for Wenner and Schlumberger configurations in an electrical sounding experiment is the same for a certain electrode spacing ‘a’ (Wenner configuration). Given the current electrode spacing of 18 m and the potential electrode spacing of 2 m for a Schlumberger configuration, the value of ‘a’ is ______m.

Ans: (19 to 21)

64. In a time-domain (T-D) induced polarization experiment with a steady voltage of 10 mV during the current flow interval, the voltage decay after the current cut-off is given by v(t) = 4.0e⁻^3t mV. The chargegability after current cut-off between t₁ = 1 s and t₂ = 4 s is _____ms.

Ans: (0.56 to 0.62)

65. Which one of the following statements is TRUE for a near surface earthquake occurring in a homogeneous, isotropic Earth?

(A) Rayleigh waves are generated.

(B) Love waves are generated.

(D) P waves undergo refraction.

Ans: (A)

66. A dynamic range of 60 dB in power corresponds to an increase in amplitude by a factor of ______.

Ans: (100)

67. The slope of the Wadati plot obtained using the P and S arrival times of local earthquake is 1.0. The corresponding Vp/Vs ratio of the subsurface medium is ______.

Ans: (2)

68. The beach ball figure given below depicts the focal mechanism of an earthquake. The shaded and unshaded portions indicate compressional and dilatational quadrants, respectively. FP1 is the fault plane solution. The focal mechanism and FP1 represent

(A) a thrust fault with strike 45° and dip 30° with the tension axis in the compression quadrant.

(B) a normal fault with strike 45° and dip 30° with the tension axis in the compression quadrant.

(D) a normal fault with strike 225° and dip 60° with the pressure axis in the compression quadrant.

Ans: (A)

69. The characteristic log responses of a thick coal seam are

(A) low transit time, low resistivity and high gamma ray count.

(B) low transit time, high resistivity and low gamma ray count.

(D) high transit time, low resistivity and high gamma ray count.

Ans: (C)

70. The SP response of a thick, clean sandstone bed is −54 mV. Given the mud filtrate resistivity to be 0.45 Ωm at a formation temperature (T_f) of 130℉ and the coefficient, K = 77.29, the formation water resistivity is _____Ω

Ans: (0.08 to 0.10)

71. Which one of the following log responses is TRUE for a porous and permeable sandstone bed, when the resistivity of the mud filtrate used is equal to the resistivity of the formation water?

(A) A large negative SP is observed.

(B) A large positive SP is observed.

(D) LLm and LLd logs overlap with each other.

Ans: (D)

72. The number of half-lives (T_1/2) required for a certain amount of radioactive isotope in a rock to reduce to 3% of its original amount is ________.

Ans: (5.05 to 5.07)

73. VLF fields can be measured over continental distances (r) because

(A) the magnetic field decreases at the rate 1/r and the output power at the transmitting station is 1 to 10 kW

(B) the magnetic field decreases at the rate 1/r³ and the output power at the transmitting station is 1 to 10 kW.

(D) the magnetic field decreases at the rate 1/r² and the output power at the transmitting station is 100 to 1000 kW.

Ans: (C)

74. Convolution of two box car functions of different widths yields a

(A) step function.

(B) trapezoidal function.

(D) sinc function.

Ans: (B)

75. Assuming the Z-transform to be defined with Z as the unit delay operator, the pole of the infinite sequence is at Z= ______.

Ans: (2)

76. Normal moveout (NMO) correction was applied to seismic data in the common midpoint (CMP) domain. The frequency distortion due to “NMO stretch” is highest for

(A) larger offsets of deeper reflections.

(B) smaller offsets of shallower reflections.

(D) smaller offsets of deeper reflections.

Ans: (C)

77. Consider a hypothetical zero-offset seismic reflection survey acquired over a reflector whose dip is 30°. The velocity of the medium above the reflector is 2 km/s and the trace spacing is 25 m. The maximum unaliased frequency in the data is _____ Hz.

(Hint : The difference in traveltime between adjacent traces should be less than or equal to half a cycle.)

Ans: (40)

78. In statistical wavelet deconvolution, the reflectivity series is assumed to be a random sequence. Then, the autocorrelation of the wavelet is

(A) a scaled version of the autocorrelation of the seismic trace.

(B) a random sequence.

(D) dirac-delta function.

Ans: (A)

79. A vector field u is expressed by its Helmoholtz decomposition as u = ∇ϕ + ∇ × ψ, with and ψ = zy²I + xzj + x² The magnitude of the divergence of the vector field u at (1, 1, 1) is _______.

Ans: (1)

80. In the figure shown below, a ray corresponding to a P-wave is incident on the interface between layer 1 and layer 2 at an angle of 30°. The P-wave velocity is 1 km/s, 1.2 km/s and 1.5 km/s in layer 1, layer 2 and the half space, respectively. The emergence angle of the ray into the half space is _____ degrees.

Ans: (48 to 49)

81. How do the P-wave velocity (V_P), S-wave velocity (V_S), and Poisson’s ratio (σ) change from a water saturated sandstone to a gas saturated sandstone?

(A) V_P increases, V_S decreases and σ increases.

(B) V_P decreases, V_S remains the same and σ decreases.

(D) V_P, V_S and σ all remain constant.

Ans: (B)

82. Consider a vertical Seismic Profiling (VSP) data acquisition experiment as shown in the figure below. The subsurface consists of a horizontal layer of 2 km thickness underlain by a semi-infinite half-space. The P-wave velocities (V_P) in the first layer and the half-space are 2.0 km/s and 2.5 km/s, respectively. The vertical well has a string of receivers (denoted by inverted triangles) spaced 10 m apart, with the shallowest receiver at a depth of 0.5 km and the deepest receiver at a depth of 1.5 km. The source (denoted by star) is placed 0.5 km from the well head. The traveltime of the primary reflections event at the deepest receiver is ______s.

Ans: (1.20 to 1.35)

83. Which one of the following sets of vectors {v₁, v₂, v₃} is linearly dependent?

(A) v₁ = (0, −1, 3) v₂ = (2, 0, 1), v₃ = (−2, −1, 3)

(B) v₁ =(2, −2, 0), v₂ = (0, 1, −1), v₃ = (0, 4, 2)

(D) v₁ = (1, 4, 7), v₂ = (2, 5, 8), v₃ = (3, 6, 9)

Ans: (D)

84. The condition number for the matrix is ___.

Ans: (1.5)

85. Match the items listed in Group I with their respective analytical expressions in Group II.

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

Ans: (B)

General Aptitude

86. The ways in which this game can be played ______ potentially infinite.

(A) is

(B) is being

(D) are being

Ans: (C)

87. If you choose plan P, you will have to _____ plan Q, as these two are mutually______.

(A) forgo, exclusive

(B) forget, inclusive

(D) adopt, intrusive

Ans: (A)

88. If a and b are integers and a – b is even, which of the following must always be even?

(A) ab

(B) a² + b² + 1

(D) ab – b

Ans: (D)

89. A couple has 2 children. The probability that both children are boys if the older one is a boy is

(A) 1/4

(B) 1/3

(D) 1

Ans: (C)

90. P looks at Q while Q looks at R. P is married, R is not. The number of pairs of people in which a married person is looking at an unmarried person is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) Cannot be determined

Ans: (B)

91. “If you are looking for a history of India, or for an account of the rise and fall of the British Raj, or for the reason of the cleaving of the subcontinent into two mutually antagonistic parts and the effects this mutilation will have in the respective sections, and ultimately on Asia, you will not find it in these pages; for though I have spent a lifetime in the country, I lives too near the seat of events, and was too intimately associated with the actors, to get the perspective needed for the impartial recording of these matters.”

Which of the following is closest in meaning to ‘cleaving’?

(A) deteriorating

(B) arguing

(D) splitting

Ans: (D)

92. X bullocks and Y tractors take 8 days to plough a field. If we halve the number bullocks and double the number of tractors, it takes 5 days to plough the same field. How many days will it take X bullocks alone to plough the field?

(A) 30

(B) 35

(D) 45

Ans: (A)

93. There are 4 women P, Q, R, S and 5 men V, W, X, Y, Z in a group. We are required to form pairs each consisting of one woman and one man. P is not to be paired with Z, and Y must necessarily be paired with someone. In how many ways can 4 such pairs be formed?

(A) 74

(B) 76

(D) 80

Ans: (C)

94. All people in a certain island are either ‘Knights’ or ‘Knaves’ and each person knows every other person’s identify. Knights NEVER lie, and knaves ALWAYS lie.

P says “Both of us are knights”. Q says “None of us are knaves”.

Which one of the following can be logically inferred from the above?

(A) Both P and Q are knights

(B) P is a knight; Q is a knave

(D) The identities of P, Q cannot be determined

Ans: (D)

95. In the graph below, the concentration of a particular pollutant in a lake is plotted over (alternate) days of a month in winter (average temperature 10℃) and a month is summer (average temperature 30℃)

Consider the following statements based on the data shown above :

i. Over the given months, the difference between the maximum and the minimum pollutants concentrations is the same in both winter and summer.

ii. There are at least four days in the summer month such that the pollutant concentrations on those days are within 1 ppm of the pollutant concentrations on the corresponding days in the winter month.

Which one of the following options is correct?

(A) Only i

(B) Only ii

(D) Neither i nor ii

Ans: (B)

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