# IBPS Bank Clerk Preliminary Examination Held on December 2018 Question Paper With Answer Key

IBPS Bank Clerk Preliminary Examination Held on December 2018

Section A Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are watching movies on different days of the week (starting on Monday and ending on Sunday) not necessarily in the same order. B is going to watch movie on Tuesday. F is going to watch movie on adjacent day of B. There are three days gap between the days on which F and A are going to watch movie. G is going to watch movie just after D. There are as many persons are watching movie between A and G, same as between D and C. C is watching movie before D, but not just before.

1. Who among the following is going to watch movie on Wednesday?

(a)   B

(b)   C

(c)   F

(d)  E

(e)   None of these

2. Who among the following person is going to watch movie just after A?

(a)   C

(b)   D

(c)   F

(d)  G

(e)   None of these

3. If F and G interchange their days of watching movie, then on which day G is watching movie?

(a)   Monday

(b)   Wednesday

(c)   Friday

(d)  Saturday

(e)   None of these

4. C is watching movie on which day?

(a)   Friday

(b)   Saturday

(c)   Wednesday

(d)  Thursday

(e)   Tuesday

5. How many persons are watching movie between B and A?

(a)   Two

(b)   Three

(c)   One

(d)  Four

(e)   None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-8) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are six persons who all are of different height. A is taller than C and D but shorter than E. The one who is third shortest is 102 cm in height. B is taller than A. E is not the tallest. The one who is second tallest is 119 cm in height. Neither A nor C is the third shortest person among all. C is not the shortest among all. F is taller than D.

6. Who among the following is the second tallest?

(a)   F

(b)   E

(c)   A

(d)  C

(e)   None of these

7. What will be the possible height of A?

(a)   120 cm

(b)   100 cm

(c)   112 cm

(d)  101 cm

(e)   None of these

8. Who among the following is third shortest?

(a)   A

(b)   C

(c)   B

(d)  F

(e)   None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 9-13) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Twelve persons are sitting in two parallel rows at equal distance facing each other. Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in Row 1 facing South B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in Row 2 facing North (but not necessarily in the same order). G sits third to the right of B and one of them sits at the end of the row. Q sits at the right end of the row. Three persons sit between Q and T. F sits to the immediate left of G. Two persons sit  between F and C. C who faces R sits to the immediate right of E. S faces D. U sits to the immediate left of S.

9. Which of the following pair sits at the extreme ends of the row 2?

(a)   B and E

(b)   G and E

(c)   B and C

(d)  G and C

(e)   None of these

10. Who sits second to the left of the person facing V?

(a)   B

(b)   D

(c)   F

(d)  C

(e)   G

11. What is t he position of U with respect to R?

(a)   Third to the left

(b)   Second to the left

(c)   Second to the right

(d)  Third to the right

(e)   None of the above

12. Who is facing F?

(a)   T

(b)   U

(c)   Q

(d)  S

(e)   None of these

13. If the positions of all persons sitting in Row 2 are arranged as per the English alphabetical order from left to right, then who among the following faces D?

(a)   Q

(b)   R

(c)   S

(d)  T

(e)   None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 14-16) In each of the following questions some statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

(a) if only I conclusions follows

(b) if only II conclusion follows

(c) if either I or II follows

(d) if neither I nor II follows

(e) if both I and II follows

14. Statements All DSLR are Lenses. Some Camera are DSLR.

Conclusions

(I) All camera is lenses.

(II) Some lenses are camera.

15. Statements All label are packets.

All mobiles are cables.

Some mobiles are Packets.

Conclusions

(I) Some label is mobile.

(II) Some cables are label.

16. Statements Some books are Pen.

Some pens are pencil.

Conclusions

(I) No book is pencil.

(II) All pencils are book.

Directions (Q. Nos. 17-21) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table in such a way four of them sit at four corners while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The one who sit at the corners face the centre and others facing outside.

A who faces the centre sits third to the left of F. E who faces the centre is not an immediate neighbor of F. Only one persons sits between F and G. D sits second to right of B. B faces the centre. C is not an immediate neighbor of A.

17. Which one does not belong to that group out of five?

(a)   B

(b)   C

(c)   E

(d)  D

(e)   A

18. Which will come in the place of BCE EHA AGD?

(a)   DFB

(b)   DGA

(c)   DCG

(d)  DCF

(e)   None of these

19. What is the position of G with respect to C?

(a)   Third to the right

(b)   Second to the left

(c)   Second to the right

(d)  Fourth of the right

(e)   None of the above

20. Who sits third to the left of B?

(a)   H

(b)   A

(c)   G

(d)  F

(e)   None of these

21. Which is true from the given arrangement?

(a)   G faces the centre

(b)   B faces outside

(c)   H faces inside

(d)  A face the centre

(e)   None of the above

22. How many pairs of letter are there in the word ‘DECLARING’ (both backward and forward), each of which has as many letters between them as in the word as there are in the English alphabet?

(a)   One

(b)   Three

(c)   Four

(d)  Five

(e)   None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 23-25) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Point C is 15 m in the East of point F. Point A is 10 m West of point B which is 15 m North of point H. Point D is 15 West of point E. Point B is 15 m South of point C. Point E is 5 m East of point H. Point G is 15 m North of point A.

23. In which direction and at what distance is point G from point C?

(a)   10 m, East

(b)   5 m, East

(c)   10 m, West

(d)  5 m, West

(e)   None of these

24. Point D is in which direction with respect to point A?

(a)   South

(b)   North

(c)   North-East

(d)  West

(e)   None of these

25. Point F is in which direction with respect to point E?

(a)   North-East

(b)   South-West

(c)   South-East

(d)  North-West

(e)   None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) Following questions are based on the five words given below, Study the following words and answer the following questions.

TAP NOT MAT PQR STB

(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may not necessarily be a meaningful English word.)

26. If the given words are arranged in the order as they appear in a dictionary from right to left, which of the following will be second from the left end?

(a)   MAT

(b)   NOT

(c)   STB

(d)  TAP

(e)   None of these

27. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the words which is second from the left end and the second letter of the word which is third from the right end?

(a)   20

(b)   19

(c)   18

(d)  17

(e)   None of these

28. If in each of the word given, the second alphabet is replaced by its following alphabet and third alphabet is replaced by its preceding alphabet as per the English alphabetical order, then how many words thus formed will be without any vowels?

(a)   None

(b)   One

(c)   Two

(d)  Three

(e)   Four

29. If the positions of the first and the third alphabet in each of the words given are interchanged, then how many meaningful word will be formed?

(a)   Two

(b)   One

(c)   Four

(d)  Three

(e)   None of these

30. If in each of the given words, every consonant is changed to its previous letter and every vowel is changed to its next letter according to the English alphabetical series, then in who many words, thus formed, at least one vowels will appear?

(a)   None

(b)   One

(c)   Two

(d)  Three

(e)   None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are seven persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F an G. They all belongs to the different cities i.e. Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai, Pune, Lucknow, Ahmadebad and Delhi, but not necessarily in the same order. D belongs to Pune. Neither A nor F belongs to Kolkata. B belongs to Ahmedabad. C does not belong to Kolkata and Lucknow. G belongs to Mumbai. A does not belongs to Lucknow and Chennai.

31. Who among the following belongs to Kolkata?

(a)   A

(b)   D

(c)   F

(d)  G

(e)   None of these

32. Which of the following statements is true?

(a)   A belongs to Chennai

(b)   G belongs to Delhi

(c)   E belongs to Kolkata

(d)  F belongs to Pune

(e)   None of the above

33. F belongs to which of the following City?

(a)   Chennai

(b)   Mumbai

(c)   Delhi

(d)  Lucknow

(e)   None of these

34. Which of the following combination is true?

(a)   A-Delhi

(b)   D-Pune

(c)   E-Kolkata

(d)  All are correct.

(e)   All are incorrect.

35. A belongs to which of the following city?

(a)   Delhi

(b)   Mumbai

(c)   Kolkata

(d)  Chennai

(e)   None of these

Section B Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (36-40) What will come in the place on question marks in the following number series.

36. 200, 193, 179, 158, ?, 95

(a)   135

(b)   133

(c)   132

(d)  130

(e)   128

37. 3, 43, 81, 115, 143, ?

(a)   163

(b)   172

(c)   166

(d)  160

(e)   168

38. 1, 6, 25, 76, 153, ?

(a)   152

(b)   154

(c)   153

(d)  155

(e)   156

39. 50, 54, 45, 61, 36, ?

(a)   66

(b)   72

(c)   75

(d)  80

(e)   84

40. 9, 45, 180, 540, ?, 1080

(a)   720

(b)   900

(c)   1080

(d)  1200

(e)   960

41. If the sum of upstream and downstream speed is 36 km/h and the speed of the current is 3 km/h. Then find time taken to cover 52.5 km in downward?

(a)   2 h

(b)   2.5 h

(c)   3 h

(d)  3.5 h

(e)   4 h

42. A sum becomes 1.6 times of itself in 5  years at simple rate of interest. Find rat of interest per annum?

(a)   10%

(b)   12.5%

(c)   15%

(d)  12%

(e)   8.5%

Directions (Q. Nos. 43-52) Calculate the exact value of the ‘X’ in the given questions.

43. x2 + (92 + 34) ÷ 5 = 39

(a)   5

(b)   4

(c)   8

(d)  6

(e)   9

44. 6 × 16 × 5 ÷ 3 – x2 = 96

(a)   6

(b)   7

(c)   8

(d)  9

(e)   5

45.

(a)   27

(b)   28

(c)   29

(d)  30

(e)   31

46. 282 – x3 = 73 + 225

(a)   6

(b)   8

(c)   4

(d)  7

(e)   5

47. 298 – 132 – 23 = x × 11

(a)   51

(b)   41

(c)   21

(d)  11

(e)   31

48.

(a)   1

(b)   1.4

(c)   1.2

(d)  1.6

(e)   2

49. x% of 300 + √256 = 243 ÷ 3 + 7

(a)   18

(b)   24

(c)   16

(d)  28

(e)   32

50.

(a)   256

(b)   512

(c)   64

(d)  128

(e)   320

51. 136 ÷ 22 × x = 17% of 500 ÷ 10

(a)   1

(b)   0.5

(c)   0.25

(d)  0.125

(e)   1.25

52. 1836 ÷ x ÷ 9 = 12

(a)   9

(b)   11

(c)   13

(d)  15

(e)   17

53. Ratio of present ages of two persons A and B is 3 : 2 and after four years ratio of their age (B : A) become 7 : 10. Then find the present age of B?

(a)   20 yr

(b)   18 yr

(c)   24 yr

(d)  26 yr

(e)   30 yr

54. The difference between Circumference of circle A and diameter is 90 cm. If Radius of circle B is 7 cm less than circle A then find area of circle B?

(a)   556 cm2

(b)   616 cm2

(c)   588 cm

(d)  532 cm2

(e)   630 cm2

55. There are 40 children in a class in which boys are 4 more than the girls. Average weight of all the students is 42.5 kg and the average weight of all the girls is 48 kg then find the average weight of all the boys.

(a)   39.5 kg

(b)   38 kg

(c)   40.5 kg

(d)  36.75 kg

(e)   40.25 kg

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) In each question two equations numbered I and II are given. Student should solve both the equations and mark appropriate answer.

(a) if x =  y or no relation can be established

(b) if x > y

(c) if x < y

(d) if x > = y

(e) if x < = y

56. (I) 8x2 + 6x + 1 = 0

(II) 3y2 + 7y + 2 = 0

57. (I) x2 = 196

(II) y2 – 26y + 169 = 0

58. (I) 9x2 – 12x + 4 = 0

(II) 8y2 – 9y + 1 = 0

59. (I) x2 – 15x + 56 = 0

60. (I) 3x2 + 10x + 8 = 0

(II) 2y2 + 3y + 1 = 0

61. A man invested 15% of his monthly income in LIC and remaining gave to his mother. Mother spend 10% of it in household expenses and she had left with Rs 30600 then find the salary of man?

(a)   Rs 37500

(b)   Rs 36000

(c)   Rs 38000

(d)  Rs 42000

(e)   Rs 40000

62. If 7 marks are awarded to right answer and 4 marks are penalty for wrong answer. Then Prabhat’s score was 263. If he attempted 58 questions then find number of correctly attempted questions?

(a)   45

(b)   42

(c)   48

(d)  40

(e)   50

63. In a city, 68% of population is literate in which ratio of male to female is 11 : 6. And ratio of illiterate male to female is 3 : 1. Find the ratio of literate female to illiterate female in that city.

(a)   3 : 2

(b)   2 : 1

(c)   3 : 1

(d)  4 : 1

(e)   5 : 2

64. Ratio of length of breadth of a rectangle is 4 : 3. If the area of that rectangle is 108 cm2 and breadth of this rectangle is equal to the side of a square then find the area of that square.

(a)   49 cm2

(b)   100 cm2

(c)   64 cm2

(d)  81 cm2

(e)   121 cm2

65. A is 1.5 times are efficient as that of B and C takes half time as compared to that of A. If A and B takes  to complete half of the work then find the time taken by A and C together to complete the whole work?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Given below table shows the number of cakes of five different types sold by a shopkeeper on four different days. Study the data and answer the questions that follows:

66. What is the ratio of number of cakes of type B sold by the shopkeeper on Saturday and Monday together to the number of cakes of type E sold by him on the same days?

(a)   72 : 53

(b)   88 : 67

(c)   98 : 73

(d)  92 : 71

(e)   90 : 67

67. What is average number of cakes of type C sold by shopkeeper on Saturday, Sunday and Tuesday?

(a)   38

(b)   40

(c)   42

(d)  44

(e)   46

68. The number of cakes of type D and E sold together on Tuesday is what percent of the number of cakes of type A and B sold together on Sunday?

(a)   72%

(b)   75%

(c)   74%

(d)  78%

(e)   80%

69. What is the difference between the total number of cakes of all the given types sold by shopkeeper on Monday and the total number of cakes of all the given types sold by shopkeeper on Tuesday?

(a)   38

(b)   44

(c)   42

(d)  40

(e)   45

70. If the number of cakes of type F sold b y the shopkeeper in given four days is 25% more than the number of cakes sold of type D in all the given days, then find the number of cakes sold of type F in all the given days.

(a)   164

(b)   160

(c)   180

(d)  200

(e)   240

Section C English Language

Conversations about the role of flexible working have shifted. It’s no longer enough for companies to offer employees the option to either work from home or the office. Employees want to work from anywhere. Companies that want to attract and retain top talent and ensure teams are highly productive, need to adapt their culture and technology to accommodate this shift in attitudes. And this is where the IT department can solidify its role as a valued contributor to the success of a company, by implementing technologies that enable secure and remote collaboration.

According to a recently commissioned Polycom survey, 24000 respondents across 12 countries indicate that nearly two-thirds of today’s global workforce take advantage of the anywhere working model. This is a significant shift since May of 2012 when only 14% of employees benefited from remote working. The survey results also provide insights into some of the concerns among companies in moving forward with the anywhere working model. Two significant concerns are a lack of trust and the perception that employees are not working as hard when they are not in the office. Also, among the 45-60-year-old age group, 59% worry that working anywhere will cause them to work longer hours. The fear of being always connected to work an overworking is a significant deterrent for this age group.

A good first step for companies to overcome the trust and perception concern is to ensure workers are measured by output and not by the hours they have worked, commonly referred to as ‘presenteeism.’ Countries like Brazil lead the pack there with 80% of employees adopting the anywhere working model and 64% respondents use video to communicate several times a day. When respondents were asked how their companies could improve trust and perceptions with the anywhere working model, the most popular recommendations were to: Equip workers with technology that is easy to use and which connects them to their colleagues; Ensure the same policies are applied to everyone in the business, regardless of seniority or their situation; and Provide guidelines on how to manage working from anywhere. 91% of those surveyed agreed that technology is a key factor in improving relationships and fostering better teamwork. This suggests that investing in the right technologies, in particular video collaboration, to get the most out of individuals and teams can help solve the lack of trust and perception concerns. And this is where the IT department can become a difference maker as they can implement technologies, such as video conferencing, to ensure colleagues can seamlessly collaborate wherever they are.

71. What is the shift in attitude of employees as discussed in the passage?

(I) They want to work in office.

(II) They want to work from home.

(III) They want to work from anywhere.

(a)   Only I

(b)   Both II and III

(c)   Only III

(d)  Only II

(e)   None of these

72. How could companies accommodate the recent shift in attitude of employees as discussed in the passage?

(a)   By offering work from home option to employees

(b)   By enabling secure and remote collaboration

(c)   By increasing the salaries of employees

(d)  Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

(e)   None of the above

73. Which of the following mention(s) the concern of the companies to accommodate the latest preference of employees for working styles?

(a)   Lack of trust of employees

(b)   Perception that employees will not work hard anywhere apart from office

(c)   Working anywhere would make employees to work longer hours

(d)  ‘b’ and ‘c’

(e)   ‘a’ and ‘b’

74. How could companies overcome their concerns for the latest preferences of employees for style of working?

(a)   By not offering work from home model

(b)   By measuring employees for the output, they generate and not by the hours they have worked

(c)   By offering work from anywhere model

(d)  By allowing only those who are interested to work from anywhere.

(e)   None of the above

75. Which of the following opinions as expressed in the survey about solving the trust and perception concerns of the companies in accommodating the latest preference of employees for style of work has received more than 91%?

(a)   investing in technology

(b)   Providing guidelines on how to manage working from anywhere

(c)   Ensuring the same policies are applied to everyone regardless of seniority

(d)  Both ‘a’ and ‘c’

(e)   None of the above

76. Which of the following options has a meaning which is SIMILAR to the word ‘Fostering’?

(a)   Asserting

(b)   Focusing

(c)   Collaborating

(d)  Encouraging

Directions (Q. Nos. 77-81) Rearrangement the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

(A) Crucially, this loss of sheen is reflected in the account books of the sport’s controversial administrator, among the richest in the world.

(B) The total income that was distributed by BCCI among players is reduced because of lower income form media rights.

(C) Television viewership for the game has dropped 40% to a weekly 61 gross rating points (GRPs).

(D) A Board of Control for Cricket in India official said, however, that this was because India wasn’t playing enough at home.

(E) Cricket seems to be losing its crowd-pulling power.

77. Which of the following is the FOURTH sentence of the final sequence?

(a)   A

(b)   D

(c)   E

(d)  B

(e)   C

78. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence of the final sequence?

(a)   E

(b)   C

(c)   D

(d)  A

(e)   B

79. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence of the final sequence?

(a)   E

(b)   A

(c)   C

(d)  D

(e)   B

80. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence of the final sequence?

(a)   E

(b)   A

(c)   D

(d)  C

(e)   B

81. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence of the final sequence?

(a)   C

(b)   A

(c)   E

(d)  D

(e)   B

Directions (Q. Nos. 82-85) In the following questions, a sentence is given consisting four highlighted words. Choose the option reflecting the word which is either miss-spelt or grammatically incorrect. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose option i.e., ‘no error’ as your answer choice.

82. Making the request for a non-smoking room seemed reasonable for everyone since the woman was allergic to smoke.

(a)   Making

(b)   Request

(c)   Resonable

(d)  Allergic

(e)   No error

83. When we are involved in large-scale projects, we must make judgements on an individual basis about whether they are good or bad.

(a)   involved

(b)   judgements

(c)   individuals

(d)  basis

(e)   No error

84. Several experiment were tried, to determine positively whether or not she had any perception of sound.

(a)   experiments

(b)   determine

(c)   whether

(d)  perception

(e)   No errror

85. When the man gave the terrific persuasive speech at the conference, the observers applaud with gusto by putting their hands together.

(a)   terrific

(b)   conference

(c)   applaud

(d)  putting

(e)   No error

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) In the following questions two columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. It first column, sentences/phrase are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Choose the correct combination of parts that make a meaningful sentence.

86.

(a)   C-F, A-D and A-E

(b)   B-E

(c)   A-F

(d)  A-D and C-E

(e)   A-F and B-E

87.

(a)   C-E, A-D & A-F

(b)   B-D

(c)   A-F

(d)  B-E and C-D

(e)   B-D

88.

(a)   C-F

(b)   C-E and B-F

(c)   A-E

(d)  C-F and A-E

(e)   B-F, B-E and A-D

89.

(a)   C-D, A-F & B-D

(b)   B-F

(c)   A-D

(d)  C-E & B-D

(e)   B-E

90.

(a)   A-D, B-E & B-D

(b)   B-E and C-D

(c)   A-F

(d)  B-F and C-E

(e)   C-E

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Given below are sentences consisting a blank in each. Identify the most suitable alternative among the five given that fits into the blank to make the sentence logical and meaningful.

91. In …. To picking up milk from the grocery store, we also need to get some bread, because my cousin ate all of it this past week.

(a)   further

(c)   computation

(d)  aftermath

(e)   besides

92. He ……… on things being done in the most efficient way and he usually does them that way himself.

(a)   requesting

(b)   conserves

(c)   urge

(d)  insists

(e)   discourages

93. If the quality of your product meets with our customer’s approval, we will place ……. Orders.

(a)   interrupted

(b)   reduced

(c)   regular

(d)  choice

(e)   conditional

94. Tom seems to be unwilling to believe that Mary was the one who ……… his credit cards.

(a)   stole

(b)   run

(c)   accept

(d)  delivery

(e)   checking

95. The circular will guide the regional investment …. And budgeting processes for F Y 2020 Budget.

(a)   programming

(b)   scheduled

(c)   arrange

(d)  planned

(e)   records

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) The following questions consist of a sentence with a highlighted phrase which may or may not be grammatically or contextually correct. Choose the most suitable option that will replace the incorrect highlighted phrase to form a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence. If the given highlighted Phrase is correct, choose option (e) i.e. ‘no replacement required’ as your answer choice.

96. India has suffered from terrorism. So has Pakistan. And it turns out, now the first world too is not immune.

(a)   turning out to

(b)   it turns to

(c)   it turned out to be

(d)  it turning out

(e)   No replacement required

97. The advocate declared in the court that his client has prepared to

(a)   was prepared to

(b)   has been preparing for

(c)   was prepared at

(d)  has prepared for

(e)   No correction required

98. Any step that the Prime Minister takes to remove violence in the country will be appreciate.

(a)   will appreciated

(b)   will have appreciated

(c)   was appreciating

(d)  will be appreciated

(e)   were appreciating

99. If this is freedom of speech, then it must been curtailed

(a)   have being curtailing

(b)   must be curtailed

(c)   must have been curtailed

(d)  have been curtailed

(e)   No correction required

100. When the police started asking questions, the suspect clammed up.

(a)   camped down

(b)   clamped up

(c)   clam out

(d)  clamed off

(e)   No correction Required