SBI Guntupalli Branch IFSC Code SBIN0021825 SWIFT Code Phone email address

IFSC Code for SBI Guntupalli Branch
SBI Guntupalli Branch IFSC, E-Mail, Phone no, Toll Free no, Address and other details

The IFSC Code for SBI Guntupalli Branch is SBIN0021825

State Bank of India Guntupalli Branch Full Details

Particulars Details

SBI Branch Name / Office Name


SBI Guntupalli Branch IFSC Code


SBI Guntupalli Branch Code


SBI Guntupalli Branch MICR Code


SBI Guntupalli Branch Address

D.No.1-184,Main Road,Guntupalli, Ibrahimpatnam Mandal, Dist-Krishna,Ap

SBI Guntupalli Branch STD Code


SBI Guntupalli Branch Contact Number


SBI Guntupalli Branch Circle


SBI Guntupalli Branch Module


SBI Guntupalli Branch District

East Godavari

SBI Guntupalli Branch Pincode


SBI Guntupalli Branch State

Andhra Pradesh

SBI Guntupalli Branch Fax Number


SBI Guntupalli Branch E-Mail Id

[email protected]

SBI Guntupalli Branch Business Hours

10.00 – 16.00

SBI Guntupalli Branch Weekly Holiday


SBI Guntupalli Branch Forex Type


State Bank of India Guntupalli Branch East Godavari Location Map:

About State Bank of India., Guntupalli Branch

SBI Guntupalli branch is situated in East Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh. The address for SBI Guntupalli branch is D.No.1-184,Main Road,Guntupalli, Ibrahimpatnam Mandal, Dist-Krishna,Ap. The contact telephone number is 2832270.

The IFSC Code of this Guntupalli Branch is SBIN0021825. Branch code of SBI Guntupalli branch is 21825, the last five characters of the IFSC Code SBIN0021825.

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State bank of india Guntupalli Branch District Links

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3 Vijayawada MP Constiuency Page

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AIIMS MBBS Entrance Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2008 With Answer Key

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008


1. A string is stretched between fixed points separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no other resonant frequencies between these two. Then, the lowest resonant frequency for this string is

(a)  105 Hz

(b)  1.05 Hz

(c)  1050 Hz

(d)  10.5 Hz

Answer: (a)

2. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density = 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in viscous liquid (density = 1.5 kg/m3), find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver (density = 10.5 kg/m3) of the same size in the same liquid.

(a)  0.4 m/s

(b)  0.133 m/s

(c)  0.1 m/s

(d)  0.2 m/s

Answer: (c)

3. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform which undergoes vertical simple harmonic motion of angular frequency ω. The amplitude of oscillation is gradually increased. The coin will leave contact with the platform for the first time

(a)  at the mean position of the platform

(b)  for an amplitude of g/ω2

(c)  for an amplitude of g22

(d)  at the highest position of the platform

Answer: (b)

4. Four point masses, each of value m, are placed at the corners of square ABCD is side l. The moment of inertia of this system about an axis passing through A and parallel to BD is

(a)  2 ml2

(b)  √3 ml2

(c)  3 ml2

(d)  ml2

Answer: (c)

5. Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are placed on table. Box A contains one m ole of nitrogen at temperature T0, while box B contains one mole of helium at temperature (7/3)T0. The boxes are then put into thermal contact with each other, and heat flows between them until the gases reach a common final temperature (Ignore the heat capacity of boxes). Then, the final temperature of the gases Tf, in terms of T0 is





Answer: (c)

6. Three point charges +q, −2q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0), respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are

(a)  √2qa along +y direction

(b)  √2 aq along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

(c)  qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

(d)  √2 qa along +x direction

Answer: (b)

7. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic field at a/2 and 2a is

(a)  1/4

(b)  4

(c)  1

(d)  1/2

Answer: (a)

8. For the given uniform square lamina ABCD, whose centre is O

(a)  √2IAC = IEF

(b)  IAD = 3IEF

(c)  IAC = IEF

(d)  IAC = √2IEF

Answer: (c)

9. If in a p-n junction diode, a square input signal of 10 V is applied as shown

Then the output signal across RL will be





Answer: (d)

10. A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/s2 and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/s. In a time of 2 s it has rotated through an angle (in radian) of

(a)  6

(b)  10

(c)  12

(d)  4

Answer: (b)

11. A hollow cylinder h as a charge q C within it. If ϕ is the electric flux in unit of voltmeter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in unit of voltmeter will be





Answer: (a)

12. A particle of mass 10 g is kept on the surface of a uniform sphere of mass 100 kg and radius 10 cm. Find the work to be done against the gravitational force between them, to take the particle far away from the sphere (you may take G = 6.67 × 1011 Nm2/kg2)

(a)  13.34 × 1010 J

(b)  3.33 × 1010 J

(c)  6.67 × 109 J

(d)  6.67 × 1010 J

Answer: (d)

13. Starting with a sample of pure 66 Cu, 7/8 of it decays into Zn in 15 min. The corresponding half-life is

(a)  10 min

(b)  15 min

(c)  5 min


Answer: (c)

14. A smooth block is released at rest on a 45° incline and then slides a distance d. .The time taken to slide is n times as much to slide on rough incline than on a smooth incline. The coefficient of friction is





Answer: (a)

15. A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If t1­ and t2 be the times of flights in the two cases, then the product of the two times of flights is proportional to

(a)  R2

(b)  1/R2

(c)  1/R

(d)  R

Answer: (d)

16. A parachutist after bailing out falls 50 m without friction. When parachute opens, it decelerates at 2 m/s2. He reaches the ground with a speed of 3 m/s. At what height, did he bail out?

(a)  91 m

(b)  182 m

(c)  293 m

(d)  111 m

Answer: (c)

17. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f through a distance S, then continues at constant speed for time t and then decelerates as the rate f/2 to come to rest. If the total distance travelled is 15 S, then

(a)  S = ft




Answer: (c)

18. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular paths of radius R using a magnetic field B. if V and B are kept constant, the ratio  will be proportional to

(a)  1/R

(b)  1/R2

(c)  R2

(d)  R

Answer: (b)

19. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an external resistance R. The internal resistances of the two sources are R1 and R2 (R2 > R1). If the potential difference across the source having internal resistance R2, is zero, then


(b)  R = R2 – R1



Answer: (b)

20. Two point white dots are 1 mm apart on a black paper. They are viewed by eye of pupil diameter 3 mm. Approximately, what is the maximum distance at which these dots can be resolved by the eye? [Take wavelength of light = 550 mm]

(a)  5 m

(b)  1 m

(c)  6 m

(d)  3 m

Answer: (a)

21. The function sin2 (ωt) represents

(a)  a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion with a period 2π/ω

(b)  a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion with a period π/ω

(c)  a simple harmonic motion with a period 2π/ω

(d)  a simple harmonic motion with a period π/ω

Answer: (b)

22. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical power of −5 D in air. Its optical power in a liquid medium with refractive index 1.6 will be

(a)  1 D

(b)  −1 D

(c)  25 D

(d)  −25 D

Answer: (a)

23. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world, contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12 cm below the water surface, the radius of this circle in cm is

(a)  36√7

(b)  36/√7

(c)  36√5

(d)  4√5

Answer: (b)

24. The temperature-entropy diagram of a reversible engine cycle is given in the figure. Its efficiency is

(a)  1/2

(b)  1/4

(c)  1/3

(d)  2/3

Answer: (c)

25. A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring, so that the spring is compressed by a distance d. The net work done in the process is





Answer: (b)

26. Two concentric coils each of radius equal to 2π cm are placed at right angle to each other. 3 A and 4 A are the currents flowing in each coil respectively. The magnetic induction in Wb/m2 at the centre of the coils will be

0 = 4π × 107 Wb/m)

(a)  12 × 105

(b)  105

(c)  5 × 105

(d)  7 × 105

Answer: (c)

27. The input resistance of a common emitter transistor amplifier, if the output resistance is 500 kΩ, the current gain α = 0.98 and power gain is 6.0625 × 106, is

(a)  198 Ω

(b)  300 Ω

(c)  100 Ω

(d)  400 Ω

Answer: (a)

28. A car travels 6 km toward north at an angle of 45° to the east and then travels distance of 4 km towards north at an angle 135° to east. How far is the point from the starting point? What angle does the straight line joining its initial and final position makes with the east?

(a)  √50 km and tan1 (5)

(b)  10 km and tan1 (√5)

(c)  √52 km and tan1 (5)

(d)  √52 km and tan1 (√5)

Answer: (c)

29. The speed of light (c), gravitational constant (G) and Planck’s constant (h) are taken as fundamental units in a system. The dimensions of time in this new system should be

(a)  G1/2 h1/2 c5/2

(b)  G1/2 h1/2 c1/2

(c)  G1/2 h1/2 c3/2

(d)  G1/2 h1/2 c1/2

Answer: (a)

30. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are initially at rest at infinite distance apart. They are then allowed to move towards each other under mutual gravitational attraction. Their relative velocity of approach at a separation distance r between them is





Answer: (b)

31. The adjacent graph shows the extension (∆l) of a wire of length 1 m suspended from the top of a root at one end with a load W connected to the other end. If the cross-sectional area of the wire is 106 m2, calculate the Young’s modulus of the material of the wire.

(a)  2 × 1011 N/m2

(b)  2 × 1011 N/m2

(c)  3 × 1012 N/m2

(d)  2 × 1013 N/m2

Answer: (a)

32. Water is filled in a cylindrical container to a height of 3 m. The ratio of the cross-sectional area of the orifice and the beaker is 0.1. The square of the speed of the liquid coming out from t he orifice is (g = 10 m/s2)

(a)  50 m2/s2

(b)  50.5 m2/s2

(c)  51 m2/s2

(d)  52 m2/s2

Answer: (a)

33. A particle of mass m is executing oscillations about the origin on the x-axis. Its potential energy is U(x) = k[x]3, where k is a positive constant. If the amplitude of oscillation is a, then its time period T is

(a)  proportional to 1/√a

(b)  independent of a

(c)  proportional to √a

(d)  proportional to a3/2

Answer: (a)

34. A person speaking normally produces a sound intensity of 40 dB at a distance of 1 m. If the threshold intensity for reasonable audibility is 20 dB, the maximum distance at which he can be heard clearly is

(a)  4 m

(b)  5 m

(c)  10 m

(d)  20 m

Answer: (c)

35. Charge q is uniformly distributed over a thin half ring of radius R. The electric field at the centre of the ring of





Answer: (a)

36. In the figure shown, the capacity of t he condenser C is 2μ The current in 2 Ω resistor is

(a)  9 A

(b)  0.9 A



Answer: (b)

37. When the key K is pressed at t = 0, which of the following statements about the current I in the resistor AB of the given circuit is true?

(a)  I = 2 mA at all t

(b)  I oscillates between 1 mA and 2 mA

(c)  I = 1 mA at all t

(d)  At t = 0, I = 2 mA and with time it goes to 1 mA

Answer: (c)

38. An AC source of angular frequency ω is fed across a resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The current registered is I. If now the frequency of source is changed to ω/3 (but maintaining the same voltage), the current in then circuit is found to be halved. Calculated the ratio of reactance to resistance at the original frequency ω





Answer: (a)

39. A radioactive material decays by simultaneous emission of two particles with respective half lives 1620 yr and 810 yr. The time (in years) after which one-fourth of the material remains is

(a)  1080

(b)  2430

(c)  3240

(d)  4860

Answer: (a)

40. In a photoemissive cell with executing wavelength λ, the fastest electron has speed v. If the exciting wavelength is changed to 3λ/4, the speed of the fastest emitted electron will be

(a)  v(3/4)1/2

(b)  v(4/3)1/2

(c)  less than v(4/3)1/2

(d)  greater than v(4/3)1/2

Answer: (d)

Directions for Q. 41 to Q. 60 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below  it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

41. Assertion : The error in the measurement of radius of the sphere is 0.3%. The permissible error in its surface area is 0.6%.

Reason : The permissible error is calculated by the formula 

Answer: (c)

42. Assertion : The isothermal curves intersect each other at a certain point.

Reason : The isothermal changes takes place rapidly, so the isothermal curves have very little slope.

Answer: (d)

43. Assertion : An electric motor will have maximum efficiency when back emf becomes equal to half of applied emf.

Reason : Efficiency of electric motor depends only on magnitude of back emf.

Answer: (c)

44. Assertion : In electric circuits, wires carrying currents in opposite directions are often twisted together.

Reason : If the wires are not twisted together, the combination of the wires forms a current loop, The magnetic field generated by the loop might affect adjacent circuits or components.

Answer: (a)

45. Assertion : Balmer series lies in the visible region of electromagnetic spectrum.

Reason :  where = n = 3, 4, 5.

Answer: (b)

46. Assertion : The velocity of a body at the bottom of an inclined plane of given height is more when it slides down the plane, compared to, when it rolling down the same plane.

Reason : In rolling down a body acquires both, kinetic energy of transiation and rotation.

Answer: (b)

47. Assertion : A body of mass 1 kg is making 1 rps in a circle of radius 1 m. Centrifugal force acting on it is 4π2

Reason : Centrifugal force is given by 

Answer: (a)

48. Assertion : The change in air pressure effects the speed of sound.

Reason : The speed of sound in gases is proportional to the square of pressure.

Answer: (d)

49. Assertion : A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates. The energy which is stored becomes K times.

Reason : The surface density o f charge on the plate remains constant or unchanged.

Answer: (c)

50. Assertion : If a compass needle be kept a magnetic north pole of the earth, the compass needle may stay in any direction.

Reason : Dip needle will stay vertical at the north pole of earth.

Answer: (b)

51. Assertion : Displacement current goes through the gap between the plates of a capacitor when the charge of the capacitor does not change.

Reason : The displacement current arises in the region in which the electric field and hence the electric flux does not change with time.

Answer: (d)

52. Assertion : An electric bulb becomes dim, when an electric heater in parallel circuit is switched on.

Reason : Dimness decreases after sometime.

Answer: (b)

53. Assertion : The magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid is independent of its length and cross-sectional area.

Reason : The magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform.

Answer: (b)

54. Assertion : Angle o f repose is equal to the angle of limiting friction.

Reason : When the body is just at the point of motion, the force of friction in this stage is called limiting friction.

Answer: (b)

55. Assertion : A quick collision between two bodies is more violent than a slow collision; even when the initial and final velocities are identical.

Reason : The momentum is greater in first case.

Answer: (a)

56. Assertion : The value of current through p-n junction in the given figure will be 10 mA.

Reason : In the above figure, p-side is at higher potential than n-side.

Answer: (b)

57. Assertion : A concave mirror and convex lens both have the same focal length in air. When they are submerged in water, they will have same focal length.

Reason : The refractive index of water is smaller than the refractive index of air.

Answer: (d)

58. Assertion : A bubble comes from the bottom of a lake to the top.

Reason : Its radius increases.

Answer: (b)

59. Assertion : In Young’s double slit experiment the two slits are at distance d apart. Interference pattern is observed on a screen at distance D from the slits. At a point on the screen when it is directly opposite to one of the slits, a dark fringe is observed. Then, the wavelength of wave is proportional to square of distance of two slits.

Reason : For a dark fringe intensity is zero.

Answer: (b)

60. Assertion : Mean free path of a gas molecules varies inversely ad density of the gas.

Reason : Mean free path varies inversely as pressure of the gas.

Answer: (b)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008


1. C8H6 that can from cis-trans geometrical isomers and also has a chiral centre, is



(c)  Both of these

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

2. Select correct statement (s).

(a)  Cyanamide ion (CN22) is isoelectronic with CO2 and has the same linear structure

(b)  Mg2C3 reacts with water to form propyne

(c)  CaC2 has NaCl type lattice

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

3. Perdisulphuric acid has the following bond

(a)  O ← O = O

(b)  ← O = O →

(c)  > O → O <

(d)  −O−O−

Answer: (d)

4. The energy equivalent of 2.0 mg mass defect is

(a)  1.8 × e4 erg

(b)  9 × 1019 erg

(c)  1.5 × 1020 erg

(d)  1.8 × 1018 erg

Answer: (d)

5. Which of the following compounds is coloured?

(a)  TiCl3

(b)  FeCl3

(c)  CoCl2

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)


The compound X is

(a)  SnCl2/HCl/H2O, boil

(b)  H2/Pd – BasO4

(c)  LiAlH4/ether

(d)  NaBH4/ether/H3O+

Answer: (a)

7. The compound which gives an oily nitrosoamine on reaction with nitrous acid at low temperature, is

(a)  CH3NH2

(b)  (CH3)2CHNH2

(c)  CH3 – NH – CH3

(d)  (CH3)3N

Answer: (c)

8. In which of the following reactions the product obtained is t-butyl methyl ether?





Answer: (c)

9. Non-oxide ceramics can be

(a)  B4C

(b)  SiC

(c)  Si3N4

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

10. What is the pH value of M H2SO4?

(a)  0

(b)  −0.213

(c)  −2

(d)  −0.03010

Answer: (d)

11. For a first order reaction, to obtain a positive slope, we need to plot {where [A] is the concentration of reactant A}

(a)  −log10[A] vs t

(b)  −loge[A] vs t

(c)  log10­[A] vs log t

(d)  [A] vs t

Answer: (b)

12. 01 M solution of KCl and BaCl2 are prepared in water. The freezing points of KCl is found to be −2°C. What is the freezing point of BaCl2 to be completely ionized?

(a)  −3°C

(b)  +3°C

(c)  −2°C

(d)  −4°C

Answer: (a)

13. Sulphur reacts with chlorine in 1 : 2 ratio and forms X. Hydrolysis of X gives a sulphur compound Y. What is the structure and hybridization of anion of Y?

(a)  tetrahedral, sp3

(b)  linear, sp

(c)  pyramidal, sp3

(d)  trigonal planar, sp2

Answer: (c)

14. Which of the following is a primary halide?

(a)  Iso-propyl iodide

(b)  Secondary butyl iodide

(c)  Tertiary butyl bromide

(d)  Neo-hexyl chloride

Answer: (d)

15. 6C12 and 1T3 are formed in nature due to the nuclear reaction of neutron with

(a)  7N14

(b)  6C13

(c)  2He4

(d)  3Li6

Answer: (a)

16. The correct structure of 4-bromo-3-methyl but-1-ene is

(a)  Br – CH = C(CH3)2

(b)  CH2 = CH – CH(CH3) – CH2Br

(c)  CH2 = C(CH3)CH2CH2Br

(d)  CH3 – C(CH3) = CHCH2 – Br

Answer: (b)

17. The chemical formula of ‘tear gas’ is

(a)  COCl2

(b)  CO2

(c)  Cl2

(d)  CCl3NO2

Answer: (d)

18. During electrolysis of water the volume of O2 liberated is 2.24 dm3. The volume of hydrogen liberated, under same conditions will be

(a)  2.24 dm3

(b)  1.12 dm3

(c)  4.48 dm3

(d)  0.56 dm3

Answer: (c)

19. 3-hyroxy butanal is formed when X reacts with Y in dilute Z solution. What are X, Y and Z ?

(a)  X – CH3CHO ; Y – (CH32CO ; Z – NaOH

(b)  X – CH3CHO ; Y – CH3CHO ; Z – NaCl

(c)  X – (CH3)2CO ; Y – (CH3)2CO ; Z – HCl

(d)  X – CH3CHO ; Y – CH3CHO ; Z – NaOH

Answer: (d)

20. In which of the following reactions, the concentration of the product is higher than the concentration of reactant at equilibrium?

(K = equilibrium constant)

(a)  A ⇌ B; K = 0.001

(b)  M ⇌ N; K = 10

(c)  X ⇌ Y; K = 0.005

(d)  R ⇌ P; K = 0.01

Answer: (b)

21. The statement which is not correct, is

(a)  chlorophyll is responsible for the synthesis of carbohydrates in plants

(b)  the compound formed by the addition of oxygen to haemoglobin is called oxyhaemoglobin

(c)  acetyl salicyclic acid is known as aspirin

(d)  the metal ion present in vitamin B12 is Mg2+

Answer: (d)

22. Acid hydrolysis of which of the following compounds yields two different organic compounds?

(a)  CH3COOH

(b)  CH3CONH2

(c)  CH3COOC2H5

(d)  (CH3CO)2O

Answer: (c)

23. The emf of Daniell cell at 298 K is E1 Zn | ZnSO4 (0.01 m)| | CuSO4 (1.0 M)| Cu

When the concentration of ZnSO4 is 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 is 0.01 M, the emf changed to E2. What is the relation between E1 and E2?

(a)  E1 = E2

(b)  E2 = 0 ≠ E2

(c)  E1 > E2

(d)  E1 < E2

Answer: (c)

24. Which of the following is a lyophobic colloidal solution?

(a)  Aqueous starch solution

(b)  Aqueous protein solution

(c)  Gold sol

(d)  Polymer solvent in some organic solvents

Answer: (c)

25. The uncertainties in the velocities of two particles, A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 ms1, respectively. The mass of B is five times to that of the mass of A. What is the ratio of uncertainties  in their positions?

(a)  2

(b)  0.25

(c)  4

(d)  1

Answer: (a)

26. The volume-temperature graphs of a given mass of an ideal gas at constant pressure are shown below.

What is the correct order of pressures?

(a)  p1 > p3 > p2

(b)  p­1 > p2 >  p3

(c)  p2 > p3 > p1

(d)  p2 > p1 > p3

Answer: (a)

27. For a reaction to be spontaneous at all temperatures

(a)  ∆G –ve, ∆H +ve and ∆S +ve

(b)  ∆G +ve, ∆H –ve and ∆S +ve

(c)  ∆G –ve, ∆H –ve, and ∆S –ve,

(d)  ∆G –ve, ∆H –ve, and ∆G +ve

Answer: (d)

28. The oxidation states of iodine in HIO4, H3IO5 and H5IO6 are, respectively

(a)  +1, +3, +7

(b)  +7, +7, +3

(c)  +7, +7, +7

(d)  +7, +5, +3

Answer: (c)

29. What will be the heat of formation of methane, if the heat of combustion of carbon is ‘−x’ kJ, heat of formation of water is ‘−y’ kJ and heat of combustion of methane is ‘z’ kJ?

(a)  (−x – y + z) kJ

(b)  (−z – x + 2y) kJ

(c)  (−x – 2y – z) kJ

(d)  (−x – 2y + z) kJ

Answer: (d)

30. Which of the following is a polymer containing nitrogen?

(a)  Polyvinyl chloride

(b)  Bakelite

(c)  Nylon

(d)  Terylene

Answer: (c)

31. The beta and alpha glucose have different specific rotations. When either is dissolved in water, their rotation changes until the same fixed value results. This is called

(a)  epimerisation

(b)  racemisation

(c)  anomerisation

(d)  mutarotation

Answer: (d)

32. An organic compound X on treatment with pyridinium chloro chromate in dichloromethane gives compound Y. Compound Y reacts with I2 and alkali to form triiodomethane. The compound ‘X’ is

(a)  C2H5OH

(b)  CH3CHO

(c)  CH3COCH3

(d)  CH3COOH

Answer: (a)

33. [Fe(NO2)3Cl3] and [Fe(O – NO)3Cl3] shows

(a)  linkage isomerism

(b)  geometrical isomerism

(c)  optical isomerism

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

34. Maximum enol content is in





Answer: (b)

35. T50 of first-order reaction is 10 min. Starting with 10 mol L1, rate after 20 min is

(a)  0.0693 mol L1 min1

(b)  0.693 × 2.5 mol L1 min1

(c)  0.0693 × 5 mol L2 min1

(d)  0.0693 mol L1 min1

Answer: (b)

36. On adding 0.1 M solution each of [Ag+], [Ba2+], [Ca2+] in a Na2SO4 solution, species first precipitated is

[Ksp BaSO4 = 1011, Ksp CaSO4 = 10−6, Ksp Ag2SO4 = 10−5]

(a)  Ag2SO4

(b)  BaSO4

(c)  CaSO4

(d)  All of these

Answer: (b)

37. Spin isomerism is shown by

(a)  dichloro benzene

(b)  hydrogen

(c)  dibasic acid

(d)  n-butane

Answer: (b)


Select correct statement based on above scheme.

(a)  Layer X contains Zn and Ag

(b)  Layer Y contains Pb and Ag but amount of silver in this layer is smaller than in layer X

(c)  X and Y are immiscible layer

(d)  All are correct statements

Answer: (d)

39. S2 and SO32 can be distinguished by using

(a)  (CH3COO)2Pb

(b)  Na2­[Fe(CN)5NO]

(c)  both (a) and (b)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

40. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent?

(a)  H2S

(b)  SO3

(c)  H2O2

(d)  F2

Answer: (c)

Directions for Q. 41 to Q. 60 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below  it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

41. Assertion : A spectral line will be observed for a 2px-2py

Reason : The energy is released in the form of wave of light when electron drops from 2px to 2py orbital

Answer: (d)

42. Assertion : Colloidal solutions are stable but colloidal particles do not settle down.

Reason : Brownian movement counters the force o f gravity actively on colloidal particles.

Answer: (a)

43. Assertion : The S–S–S bond angle in S8 molecule is 105°.

Reason : S8 has V-shape.

Answer: (c)

44. Assertion : [Al(H2O)6]3+ is a stronger acid than [Mg(H2O)6]2+.

Reason : Size of [Al(H2O)6]3+ is smaller than [Mg(H2O)6]2+ and possesses more effective nuclear charge.

Answer: (a)

45. Assertion : Oils are purified by steam distillation.

Reason : The compounds which decompose at their boiling points can purified by steam distillation.

Answer: (c)

46. Assertion : Friedel-Craft’s reaction is used to introduce an alkyl or acyl group in benzene nucleus.

Reason : Benzene is a solvent for the Friedel-Craft’s alkylation of bromobenzene.

Answer: (c)

47. Assertion : Disruption of the natural structure of a protein is called denaturation.

Reason : The change in colour and appearance of egg during cooking is due to denaturation.

Answer: (b)

48. Assertion : Equivalent weight of a base


Reason : Acidity is the number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in one molecule of the base.

Answer: (c)

49. Assertion : Fluorine molecule has bond order one.

Reason : The number of electrons in the antibonding molecular orbitals is two less than that in bonding molecular orbitals.

Answer: (a)

50. Assertion : For a reaction

2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g); ∆H > ∆E

Reason : Enthalpy change in always greater than internal energy change.

Answer: (c)

51. Assertion : One molal aqueous solution of glucose contains 180 g of glucose in 1 kg water.

Reason : Solution containing one mole of solute in 100 g of solvent is called one molar solution.

Answer: (a)

52. Assertion : PbCl2 is more stable than PbCl4.

Reason : PbCl4 is powerful oxidizing agent.

Answer: (b)

53. Assertion : The ease of dehydration of the following alcohols is

Reason : Alcohols leading to conjugated alkenes are dehydrated to a greater extent.

Answer: (a)

54. Assertion : No compound has both Schottky and Frenkel defects.

Reason : Both defects change the density of the solid.

Answer: (d)

55. Assertion : The order of a reaction can have fractional value.

Reason : The order of a reaction cannot be written from balanced equation o f a reaction.

Answer: (b)

56. Assertion : For the reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

Unit of Kc = L2 mol2

Reason : For the reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

Equilibrium constant, 

Answer: (a)

57. Assertion : Tropylium cation is aromatic in nature.

Reason : The only property that determines its aromatic behaviour is its planar structure.

Answer: (c)

58. Assertion : Nitrobenzene is used as a solvent in Friedel-Craft’s reaction.

Reason : Fusion of nitrobenzene with solid KOH gives a low yield of a mixture of o- and p-nitrop phenols.

Answer: (b)

59. Assertion : Boiling points of cis-isomers are higher than trans-isomers.

Reason : Dipole moments of cis-isomers are higher than trans-isomers.

Answer: (a)

60. Assertion : The cell potential of mercury cell is 1.35 V, which remains constant.

Reason : In mercury cell, the electrolyte is a paste of KOH and ZnO.

Answer: (b)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008


1. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a certain body feature and its value/count in a normal human adult ?

(a)  Urea – 5-10 mg/100 mL of blood

(b)  Blood sugar (fasting) – 70-100 mg/100 mL

(c)  Total blood volume – 5.6

(d)  ESR in Wintrobe method – 9-15 mm in males and 20-34 mm in females

Answer: (b)

2. Which one of the following is a matching pair ?

(a)  Lubb – Sharp closure of AV values at the beginning of ventricular systole

(b)  Dup – Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole

(c)  Pulsation of the radial artery values in the blood vessels

(d)  Initiation of the heart beat – Purkinje fibres

Answer: (a)

3. July 11 is observed as

(a)  World population day

(b)  No tobacco day

(c)  World environment day

(d)  World health day

Answer: (a)

4. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of

(a)  industrial wastes poured into water bodies

(b)  extent to which water is polluted with organic compound

(c)  amount of carbon mono-oxide inseparably combined with haemoglobin

(d)  amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night

Answer: (b)

5. In almost all Indian metropolitan cities like Delhi, the major atmospheric pollutant (s) is/are

(a)  Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM)

(b)  oxides of sulphur

(c)  carbon dioxide and carbon mono-oxide

(d)  oxides of nitrogen

Answer: (c)

6. People recovering from long illness are often advised to include the alga Sprulina in their diet because it

(a)  makes the food easy to digest

(b)  is rich in proteins

(c)  has antibiotic properties

(d)  restores the intestinal microflora

Answer: (b)

7. Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are

(a)  found in human ovaries

(b)  a source of hormones

(c)  characterized by a yellow colour

(d)  contributory in maintaining pregnancy

Answer: (c)

8. Photochemical smog formed in congested metropolitan cities mainly consists of

(a)  ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate and NOx

(b)  smoke, peroxyacetyl nitrate and SO2

(c)  hydrocarbons, SO2 and CO2

(d)  hydrocarbons, ozone and SOx

Answer: (a)

9. The plant part which consists of two generations one within the other, is

(a)  germinated pollen grain

(b)  embryo

(c)  unfertilized ovule

(d)  seed

Answer: (b)

10. Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the news. The prefix Bt means :

(a)  Barium-treated cotton seeds

(b)  Bigger thread variety of cotton with better tensile strength

(c)  produced by biotechnology using restriction enzymes and ligases

(d)  carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus thuringiensis

Answer: (d)

11. Which one feature is common to leech, cockroach and scorpion ?

(a)  Nephridia

(b)  Ventral nerve cord

(c)  Cephalization

(d)  Antennae

Answer: (b)

12. The total number of nitrogenous bases in human genome is estimated to be about

(a)  3.5 million

(b)  35 thousand

(c)  35 million

(d)  3.1 billion

Answer: (d)

13. The great barrier reef along the east coast of Australia can be categorized as

(a)  population

(b)  community

(c)  ecosystem

(d)  biome

Answer: (c)

14. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a drug and its category?

(a)  Amphetamines – stimulant

(b)  Lysergic acid dimethyl amide – narcotic

(c)  Heroin – psychotropic

(d)  Benzodiazepam – pain killer

Answer: (a)

15. A baby has been born with a small tail. It is the case exhibiting

(a)  retrogressive evolution

(b)  mutation

(c)  atavism

(d)  metamorphosis

Answer: (c)

16. Which one of the following is correctly matched regarding an institute and its location?

(a)  National Institute of Virology – Pune

(b)  National Institute of Communicable disease – Lucknow

(c)  Central Drug Research Institute – Kasauli

(d)  National Institute of Nutrition – Mumbai

Answer: (a)

17. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)

(a)  is caused by a variant of Pneumococcus pneumoniae

(b)  is caused by a variant of the common cold virus (corona virus)

(c)  is an acute form of asthma

(d)  affects non-vegetarians much faster than the vegetarians

Answer: (b)

18. What is the first step in the Southern blot technique?

(a)  Denaturation of DNA on the gel for hybridization with specific probe

(b)  Production of a group of genetically identical cells

(c)  Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme

(d)  Denaturation of DNA from a nucleated cell such as the one from the scene of crime

Answer: (c)

19. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the codon and the amino acid coded by it?

(a)  UUA-valine

(b)  AAA-lysine

(c)  AUG-cysteine

(d)  CCC-alanine

Answer: (b)

20. Based on cellular mechanisms there are two major types of regeneration found in the animals. Which one of the following is the correct example of the type mentioned?

(a)  Morphollaxis – Regeneration of two transversely cut equal pieces of a Hydra into two small hydras

(b)  Epimorphosis – Replacement of old and dead erythrocytes by the new ones

(c)  Morphollaxis – Healing up of a wound in the skin

(d)  Epimorphosis – Regeneration of crushed and filtered out pieces of a Planaria into as many new Planarians

Answer: (a)

21. Which one of the following four glands is correctly matched with the accompanying description?

(a)  Thyroid – Hyperactivity in young children causes cretinism

(b)  Thymus – Starts undergoing atrophy after puberty

(c)  Parathyroid – Secretes parathormone, which promotes movement of calcium ions from blood into bones during classification

(d)  Pancreas – Delta cells of the islets of Langerhans secrete a hormone, which stimulates glycolysis in liver

Answer: (b)

22. An insect bite may result in inflammation of that spot. This is triggered by the alarm chemicals such as

(a)  histamine and dopamine

(b)  histamine and kinins

(c)  interferons and opsonin

(d)  interferons and histones

Answer: (b)

23. Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas show maximum biodiversity in our country?

(a)  Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch

(b)  Eastern Ghats and West Bengal

(c)  Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats

(d)  Kerala and Punjab

Answer: (c)

24. One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered species is

(a)  wild-life sanctuaries

(b)  biosphere reserves

(c)  cryopreservation

(d)  national parks

Answer: (c)

25. Formation of non-functional methaemoglobin causes blue-baby syndrome. This is due to

(a)  excess of arsenic concentration in drinking water

(b)  excess of nitrates in drinking water

(c)  deficiency of iron in food

(d)  increased methane content in the atmosphere

Answer: (c)

26. Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between

(a)  two light chains

(b)  two heavy chains

(c)  one heavy and one light chain

(d)  either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon the nature of antigen

Answer: (b)

27. Grain colour in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygene. Following the cross AABBCC (dark colour) × aabbcc (light colour), in F2 generation what proportion of the progeny is likely to resemble either parent?

(a)  Half

(b)  Less than 5 percent

(c)  One third

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

28. The given graph shows the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of reaction of the enzyme green gram-phosphatase. What does the graph indicate?

(a)  The rate of enzyme reaction is directly proportional to the substrate concentration

(b)  Presence of an enzyme inhibitor in the reaction mixture

(c)  Formation of an enzyme-substrate complex

(d)  At higher substrate concentration of pH increases

Answer: (b)

29. In an experiment, freshly hatched larvae of an insect (khapra beetle) were reared on a basal diet (complete diet without cholesterol) with increasing amounts of cholesterol. Results obtained are shown in the graph given in the table

The graph indicates :

(a)  cholesterol is an essential dietary requirement of khapra beetle

(b)  growth of khapra beetle is directly proportional to cholesterol concentration

(c)  cholesterol concentration of 2 μg/g diet is the optimum level

(d)  growth of khapra beetle in inhibited when cholesterol concentration exceeds 2μg/g diet

Answer: (a)

30. Given below is a trable comparing the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system for four features (a-d). Which one feature is correctly described?

(a)  Feature – Salivary gland ; Sympathetic Nervous System – Stimulates secretion ; Parasympathetic Nervous System – Inhibits secretion

(b)  Feature – Pupil of the eye ; Sympathetic Nervous System – Dilate ; Parasympathetic Nervous System – Constricts

(c)  Feature – Heart rate ; Sympathetic Nervous System – Decreases ; Parasympathetic Nervous System – Increases

(d)  Feature – Intestinal peristalsis ; Sympathetic Nervous System – Stimulates ; Parasympathetic Nervous System – Inhibits

Answer: (b)

31. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic and the taxon?

(a)  Animals – Millipede ; Characteristic – Ventral nerve cord ; Taxon – Arachnida

(b)  Animals – Duckbilled platypus ; Characteristic – Oviparous ; Taxon – Mammalian

(c)  Animals – Silver fish ; Characteristic – Pectoral and pelvic fins ; Taxon – Chordate

(d)  Animals – Sea anemone ; Characteristic – Triploblastic ; Taxon – Cnidaria

Answer: (b)

32. Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cells and their secretion of correctly matched?

(a)  Oxyntic cells – A secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0

(b)  Alpha cells of islets of – Secretion that decreases blood sugar level

(c)  Kupffer cells – A digestive enzyme that hydrolyses nucleic acids

(d)  Sebaceous glands – A secretion that evaporates for cooling

Answer: (a)

33. Which of the following pair of feature is a good example of polygenic inheritance?

(a)  Human height and skin colour

(b)  ABO blood group in humans and flower colour of Mirabilis jalapa

(c)  Hair pigment of mouse and tongue rolling in humans

(d)  Human eye colour and sickle cell anaemia

Answer: (a)

34. Mating of an organism to a double recessive in order to determine whether it is homozygous or heterozygous for a character under consideration is called

(a)  reciprocal cross

(b)  test cross

(c)  dihybrid cross

(d)  back cross

Answer: (b)

35. In the following table identify the correct matching of the crop, its disease and the corresponding pathogen

(a)  Crop – Citrus ; Disease – Canker ; Pathogen – Pseudomonas rubrilineans

(b)  Crop – Potato ; Disease – Late blight ; Pathogen – Fusarium udum

(c)  Crop – Brinjal ; Disease – Root-knot ; Pathogen – Meloidogyne incognita

(d)  Crop – Pigeon pea ; Disease – Seed gall ; Pathogen – Phytophthora infestans

Answer: (c)

36. Genes present in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, are found in

(a)  mitochondria and inherited via egg cytoplasm

(b)  lysosomes and peroxisomes

(c)  Golgi bodies and smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(d)  plastids and inherited via male gamete

Answer: (a)

37. A normal woman whose father was colourblind, is married to a normal man. The sons would be

(a)  75% colourblind

(b)  50% colourblind

(c)  all normal

(d)  all colourblind

Answer: (b)

38. Which one of the following precedes re-formation of the nuclear envelope during M-phase of the cell cycle?

(a)  Decondensation from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina

(b)  Transcription from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina

(c)  Formation of the contractile ring and formation of the phragmoplast

(d)  Formation of the contractile ring and transcription from chromosomes

Answer: (a)

39. What is common between chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts?

(a)  Presence of pigments

(b)  Possession of thylakoids and grana

(c)  Storage of starch, proteins and lipids

(d)  Ability to multiply by a fission-like process

Answer: (d)

40. In India, we find mangoes with different flavours, colours, fibre content, sugar content and even shelf life. The large variation is ion account of

(a)  species diversity

(b)  induced mutations

(c)  genetic diversity

(d)  hybridization

Answer: (c)

In the following questions (41-60), a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R)

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

41. Assertion : A network of food chains existing together in an ecosystem is known as a food web.

Reason : An animals like kite cannot be a part of a food web.

Answer: (c)

42. Assertion : In plant tissue culture, somatic embryos can be induced from any plant cell.

Reason : Any animals like kite cannot be a part of a food web.

Answer: (a)

43. Assertion : The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.

Reason : The first autotrophic organisms were the chemo-autotrophs that never released oxygen.

Answer: (b)

44. Assertion : Escherichia coli, Shigella and Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrhoeal diseases.

Reason : Dehydration is common to all types of diarrhoeal diseases and adequate supply of fluids and electrolytes should be ensured.

Answer: (b)

45. Assertion : In collateral vascular bundles, phloem is situated towards inner side.

Reason : In monocot stem, cambium is present.

Answer: (d)

46. Assertion : In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).

Reason : Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population, which express the desired gene.

Answer: (a)

47. Assertion : Interferons are a type of antibodies produced by body cells infected by bacteria.

Reason : Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury.

Answer: (d)

48. Assertion : Persons suffering from haemophilia fail to produce blood clotting factor VIII.

Reason : Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons are found in very low concentration.

Answer: (c)

49. Assertion : Replication and transcription occur in the nucleus but translation occurs in the cytoplasm.

Reason : mRNA is transferred from the nucleus into the cytoplasm where ribosomes and amino acids are available for protein synthesis.

Answer: (a)

50. Assertion : Human ancestors never used their tails and so the tail expressing gene has disappeared in them.

Reason : Lamarck’s theory of evolution is popularly called theory of continuity of germ plasm.

Answer: (d)

51. Assertion : Diabetes insipidus is marked by excessive urination and too much thirst of water.

Reason : Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted by the posterior lobe of pituitary

Answer: (b)

52. Assertion : Coavervates are believed to be the precursors of life.

Reason : Coacervates were self-duplicating aggregates of proteins surrounded by lipid molecules.

Answer: (c)

53. Assertion : Tapeworm roundworm and pinworm and endoparasites of human intestine.

Reason : Improperly cooked food is the source of intestinal infections.

Answer: (b)

54. Assertion : Fish metal is a rich source of protein for cattle and poultry.

Reason : Fish meal is produced from non-edible parts of fishes like fins, tail.

Answer: (c)

55. Assertion : Dope test is used to estimate the level of blood alcohol by analyzing the breath of persons drinking alcohol.

Reason : A drunken person usually feels tens and less talkative.

Answer: (d)

56. Assertion : Mast cells in the human body release excessive amounts of inflammatory chemicals, which cause allergic reactions.

Reason : Allergens in the environment on reaching human body stimulate mast cells in certain individuals.

Answer: (a)

57. Assertion : Smaller the organism higher is the rate of metabolism per gram weight.

Reason : The heart rate of a six month old baby is much higher than that of an old person.

Answer: (a)

58. Assertion : Bats and whales are classified as mammals.

Reason : Bats and whales have four-chambered heart.

Answer: (b)

59. Assertion : Inhabitants close to very busy airports are likely to experience health hazards.

Reason : Sound level of jet aeroplanes usually exceeds 160 dB.

Answer: (a)

60. Assertion : A cell membrane shows fluid behaviour.

Reason : A membrane is a mosaic or composite of diverse lipids and proteins.

Answer: (a)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

General Knowledge

1. The first of the GAEL (Global Alliance for the elimination of Leprosy) was held in

(a)  New Delhi

(b)  Bombay

(c)  Culcutta

(d)  Paris.

Answer: (a)

2. Megger is an instrument to measure

(a)  very low resistance

(b)  insulation resistance

(c)  inductance of a coil

(d)  all of the above

Answer: (b)

3. Terminator technology promotes sale of which of the following that is/are generated by it?

(a)  gransgenic fertile seed.

(b)  gene modified plants.

(c)  genetically engineered seeds fertilized in next generation.

(d)  all of these.

Answer: (c)

4. Which among the following has become the third tiger reserve of Assam?

(a)  Manas Wildlife Sanctury

(b)  Kaziranga National Park

(c)  Nameri National Park

(d)  none of these.

Answer: (b)

5. To make the acidic soil suitable for agricultural, one of the following material is used.

(a)  lime

(b)  gypsum

(c)  calcium superphosphate

(d)  vegetable compost.

Answer: (c)

6. The landform which is not associated with wind erosion is

(a)  sand dune

(b)  inselberg

(c)  drumlin

(d)  mushroom rock.

Answer: (c)

7. BCG vaccination is to be given to a new born child

(a)  immediately after child birth

(b)  within 48 hours

(c)  within seven days

(d)  within six months.

Answer: (d)

8. For reproducing sound, CD (compact disc) audioplayer uses a

(a)  quartz crystal

(b)  titanium needle

(c)  laser beam

(d)  barium titanate ceramic

Answer: (c)

9. In a three pin electrical plug, longest pin should be connected to

(a)  ground terminal.

(b)  live terminal.

(c)  neutral terminal.

(d)  any terminal.

Answer: (a)

10. The new addition to the commonwealth games 2010 is

(a)  shooting

(b)  hockey

(c)  wrestling

(d)  football.

Answer: (c)

11. The name of the player who established record in World Cup Cricket 2007 of making six sixes is

(a)  Sanath Jaisurya

(b)  Virendra Sehwag

(c)  Adam Gilchrist

(d)  Hershelle Gibbs.

Answer: (d)

12. The lateral meaning of the word Arya is

(a)  superior

(b)  learned

(c)  priest

(d)  warrior.

Answer: (a)

13. When T. V. is switched on

(a)  audio and video both start simultaneously

(b)  audio is heard immediately but video starts later because video needs some warm up time

(c)  video starts immediately but audio is heard later because sound travels at a lesser speed than light

(d)  it depends on the T.V. stand.

Answer: (b)

14. The instrument of music in which Ustad Amjad Ali Khan has distinguished himself is

(a)  sarod

(b)  violin

(c)  sitar

(d)  shehnai

Answer: (a)

15. A deep and narrow river valley with steep bank is called

(a)  geyser

(b)  bluff

(c)  delta

(d)  canyon.

Answer: (d)

16. A ‘breath test’ used by traffic police to check drunken drivers uses –

(a)  potassium dichromate-sulphuric acid

(b)  potassium permanganate sulphuric acid

(c)  turmeric on filter paper

(d)  silica gel coated with silver nitrate

Answer: (a)

17. In which of the following books is ‘Knowledge is Power’ written?

(a)  Essay on Man

(b)  Paradise Lost

(c)  Leviathan

(d)  Das Capital.

Answer: (a)

18. Who said “where weather accumulates, men decay”?

(a)  Abraham Lincoln

(b)  Mao Tsetung

(c)  Karl Marx

(d)  Goldsmith

Answer: (d)

19. Which of the following computer viruses is named after cherry and caffeine soft drink popular with programmers?

(a)  sircam

(b)  code pink

(c)  code red

(d)  malisa

Answer: (c)

20. The fourth Buddist council was held during the reign of

(a)  Ashoka

(b)  Chandragupta

(c)  Kanishka

(d)  Chandragupta Vikramaditya

Answer: (c)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2010 With Answer Key

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010


1. The dimensions of universal gas constant is

(a)  [ML2T2θ1]

(b)  [M2LT2θ]

(c)  [ML3T2θ1]

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

2. A metal plate 4 mm thick has a temperature difference of 32°C between its faces. It transmits 200 kcal/h through an area of 5 cm2.

Thermal conductivity of the material is

(a)  58.33 W/m-°C

(b)  33.58 W/m-°C

(c)  5 × 104 W/m-°C

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

3. A balloon rises from rest with a constant acceleration g/8. A stone is released from it when it has risen to height h. The time taken by the stone to reach the ground is





Answer: (b)

4. A uniform cylinder has a radius R and length L. If the moment of inertia of this cylinder about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its circular face is equal to the moment of inertia of the same cylinder about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its length, then

(a)  L = R




Answer: (b)

5. If the value of g at the surface of the earth is 9.8 m/s2 then the value of g at a place 480 km above the surface of the earth will be (radius of the earth is 6400 km)

(a)  8.4 m/s2

(b)  9.8 m/s2

(c)  7.2 m/s2

(d)  4.2 m/s2

Answer: (a)

6. If pressure of CO2 (real gas) in a container is given by  then mass of the gas in container is

(a)  11 g

(b)  22 g

(c)  33 g

(d)  44 g

Answer: (b)

7. Two simple pendulums first of bob mass M1 and length L1, second of bob mass M2 and length L2. M1 = M2 and L1 = 2L2. If the vibrational energies of both are same. Then which is correct?

(a)  Amplitude of B greater than A

(b)  Amplitude of B smaller than A

(c)  Amplitude will be same

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

8. The mass and diameter of a planet are twice those of earth. The period of oscillation of pendulum on this planet will be (if it is a second’s pendulum on earth)


(b)  2√2 s

(c)  2 s


Answer: (b)

9. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M by a distance d with constant downward acceleration g/4. Work done by the cord on the block is




(d)  Mgd

Answer: (c)

10. A force F is applied on the wire of radius r and length L and change in the length of wire is l. If the same force F is applied on the wire of the same material and radius 2r and length 2L, then the change in length of the other wire is

(a)  l

(b)  2l

(c)  l/2

(d)  4l

Answer: (c)

11. When a copper voltmeter is connected with a battery of emf 12 V. 2 of copper is deposited in 30 min. If the same voltmeter is connected across a 6 V battery then the mass of copper deposited in 45 min would be

(a)  1 g

(b)  1.5 g

(c)  2 g

(d)  2.5 g

Answer: (b)

12. A network of four capacitors of capacities equal to C1 = C, C2= 2C, C3 = 3C and C­4 = 4C are connected to a battery as shown in the figure.

The ratio of the charges on C2 and C­4 is

(a)  22/3

(b)  3/22

(c)  7/4

(d)  4/7

Answer: (b)

13. The work functions for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5 eV. According to Einstien’s equation, the metal(s) which will emit photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are

(a)  A only

(b)  A and B

(c)  All of these

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

14. The ratio of the dimensions of Planck’s constant and that of the moment of inertia is the dimensions of

(a)  frequency

(b)  velocity

(c)  angular momentum

(d)  time

Answer: (a)

15. Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction

(a)  increases the number of donors on the n-side

(b)  increases the electric field in the depletion zone

(c)  increases the potential difference across the depletion zone

(d)  widens the depletion zone

Answer: (a)

16. If a vector  is perpendicular to the vector  , then the value of α is

(a)  −1

(b)  1/2

(c)  −1/2

(d)  1

Answer: (c)

17. When an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, fraction o f heat energy supplied which increases the internal energy o f gas, is

(a)  2/5

(b)  3/5

(c)  3/7

(d)  3/4

Answer: (b)

18. A body of mass m rises to a height h = R/5 from the earth’s surface where R is earth’s radius. If g is acceleration due to gravity at the earth’s surface, the increase in potential energy will be

(a)  mgh




Answer: (c)

19. A clock with a metal pendulum beating seconds keeps correct time at 0° If it loses 12.5 s a day at 25°C, the coefficient of linear expansion of metal pendulum is





Answer: (a)

20. A fork A has frequency 2% more than the standard fork and B has a frequency 3% less than the frequency of same standard fork. The forks A and B when sounded together produced 6 beats/s. The frequency of fork A is

(a)  116.4 Hz

(b)  120 Hz

(c)  122.4 Hz

(d)  238.8 Hz

Answer: (c)

21. A source of sound S is moving with a velocity of 50 m/s towards a stationary observer. The observer measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. What will be the apparent frequency of the source when it is moving away from the observer after crossing him? The velocity of the sound in the medium is 350 m/s.

(a)  750 Hz

(b)  857 Hz

(c)  1143 Hz

(d)  1333 Hz

Answer: (a)

22. A ball of mass 1 g and charge 108 C moves from a point A. Where potential is 600 V to the point B where potential is zero. Velocity of the ball at the point B is 20 cm/s. The velocity of the ball at the point A will be

(a)  22.8 cm/s

(b)  228 cm/s

(c)  16.8 m/s

(d)  168 m/s

Answer: (a)

23. A charged oil drop of mass 2.5 × 10−7 kg is in space between the two plates, each of area 2 × 10−2 m2 of a parallel plate capacitor. When the upper plate has a charge of 5 × 10−7 C and the lower plate has an equal negative charge, the oil remains stationary. The charge of the oil drop is (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(a)  9 × 10−1 C

(b)  9 × 10−6 C

(c)  8.85 × 10−13 C

(d)  1.8 × 10−14 C

Answer: (c)

24. In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential difference across the 4.5 μF capacitor is


(b)  4 V

(c)  6 V

(d)  8 V

Answer: (d)

25. If two bulbs of wattages 25 and 100 W respectively each rated by 220 V are connected in series with the supply of 440 V, which bulb will fuse?

(a)  100 W bulb

(b)  25 W bulb

(c)  None of them

(d)  Both of them

Answer: (b)

26. A square conducting loop of side length L carries a current I. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is

(a)  independent of L

(b)  proportional to L2

(c)  inversely proportional to L

(d)  linearly proportional to L

Answer: (c)

27. A thin magnetic needle vibrates in the horizontal plane with a period of 4 s. The needle is cut into two halves by a plane normal to magnetic axis of the needle. Then the period of vibration of each half needle is approximately

(a)  4 s

(b)  2 s

(c)  8 s

(d)  1 s

Answer: (b)

28. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side 0.02 m is suspended from it vertex such that it is hanging in a vertical plane between the pole pieces of permanent magnet producing a uniform field of 5 × 102 If a current of 0.1 A is passed through the coil, what is the couple acting?

(a)  5√3 × 107 N-m

(b)  5√3 × 1010 N-m


(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

29. A rectangular coil of 20 turns and area of cross-section 25 cm2 has a resistance of 100 Ω. If a magnetic field which is perpendicular to the plane of the coil changes at a rate of 1000 T/s, the current in the coil is

(a)  1.0 A

(b)  50 A

(c)  0.5 A

(d)  5.0 A

Answer: (c)

30. An AC ammeter is used to measure current in a circuit. When a given direct current passes through the circuit, the AC ammeter reads 3A. When another alternating current passes through the circuit, the AC ammeter reads 4A.Then the reading of this ammeter, if DC and AC flow through the circuit simultaneously, is

(a)  3 A

(b)  4 A

(c)  7 A

(d)  5 A

Answer: (d)

31. A transmitter transmits at a wavelength of 300 m. A condenser of capacitance 2.4 μF is being used. The value of the inductance for the resonant circuit is approximately

(a)  104 H

(b)  106 H

(c)  108 H

(d)  1010 H

Answer: (c)

32. A capacitor of capacitance 1 μF is charged to a potential of 1 V. It is connected in parallel to an inductor of inductance 103 The maximum current that will flow in the circuit has the value


(b)  1 A

(c)  1 mA

(d)  1000 mA

Answer: (a)

33. The wave of wavelength 5900 Å emitted by any atom or molecule must have some finite total length which is known as coherence length. For sodium light, this length is 2.4 cm. The number of oscillations in this length will be

(a)  4.068 × 108

(b)  4.068 × 104

(c)  4.068 × 106

(d)  4.068 × 105

Answer: (b)

34. If a ray of light in a denser medium strikes a rarer medium at an angle of incidence i, the angles of reflection and refraction are respectively r and r’. If the reflected and refracted rays are at right angles to each other, the critical angle for the given pair of media is

(a)  sin1 (tan r’)

(b)  sin1(tan r)

(c)  tan1 (sin i)

(d)  cot1 (tan i)

Answer: (b)

35. In a photocell, with exciting wavelength λ, the faster electron has speed v. If the exciting wavelength is changed to 3λ/4, the speed of the fastest electron will be

(a)  v(3/4)1/2

(b)  v(4/3)1/2

(c)  less than v(4/3)1/2

(d)  greater than v(4/3)1/2

Answer: (b)

36. Work function of nickel is 5.01 eV. When ultraviolet radiation of wavelength 2000 Å is incident on electrons are emitted. What will be the maximum velocity of emitted electrons?

(a)  3 × 108 m/s

(b)  6.46 × 105 m/s

(c)  10.36 × 105 m/s

(d)  8.54 × 106 m/s

Answer: (b)

37. If 5% of the energy supplied to a bulb is irradiated as visible light, how many quanta are emitted per second by a 100 W lamp? (Assume wavelength of visible light as 5.6 × 105 cm)

(a)  1.4 × 1019

(b)  3 × 103

(c)  1.4 × 1019

(d)  3 × 104

Answer: (a)

38. A 1 kg stone at the end of 1 m long string is whirled in a vertical circle at constant speed of 4 m/s. The tension in the string is 6 N, when the stone at (g = 10 m/s2)

(a)  top of the circle

(b)  bottom of the circle

(c)  half way down

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

39. A 12 HP motor has to be operated 8 h/day. How much will it cost at the rate of 50 paise/kWh in 10 days?

(a)  Rs 350

(b)  Rs 358

(c)  Rs 375

(d)  Rs 397

Answer: (b)

40. In steel, the Young’s modulus and the strain at the breaking point are 2 × 1011 N/m2 and 0.15 respectively. The stress at the breaking point for steel is therefore

(a)  1.33 × 1011 N/m2

(b)  1.33 × 1012 N/m2

(c)  7.5 × 1013 N/m2

(d)  3 × 1010 N/m2

Answer: (d)

Directions for Q. No. 41 to 60 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) if both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) if both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) if Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) if Assertion and Reason are false.

41. Assertion Torque on the coil is the maximum, when coil is suspended in a radial magnetic field.

Reason The torque tends to rotate the coil on its own axis.

Answer: (b)

42. Assertion A transformer cannot work on DC supply.

Reason DC changes neither in magnitude nor in direction.

Answer: (a)

43. Assertion For an electric lamp connected in series with a variable capacitor and AC source; its brightness increases with increase in capacitance.

Reason Capacitive reactance decrease with increase in capacitance of capacitor.

Answer: (a)

44. Assertion The specific charge for positive rays is a characteristic constant.

Reason The specific charge depends on charge and mass of positive ions present in positive rays.

Answer: (b)

45. Assertion The mass of β-particles when they are emitted is higher than the mass of electrons obtained by other means.

Reason β-particle and electron, both are similar particles.

Answer: (b)

46. Assertion NAND or NOR gates are called digital building blocks.

Reason The repeated use of NAND (or NOR) gates can produce all the basic or complicated gates.

Answer: (a)

47. Assertion There is a no dispersion of light refracted through a rectangular glass slab.

Reason Dispersion of light is the phenomenon of splitting of a beam of white light into its constituent colours.

Answer: (b)

48. Assertion There is no effect of rotation of earth on acceleration due to gravity at poles.

Reason Rotation of earth is about polar axis.

Answer: (a)

49. Assertion The change in kinetic energy of a particle is equal to the work done on it by the net force.

Reason Change in kinetic energy of particle is equal to the work done only in case of a system of one particle.

Answer: (c)

50. Assertion A safe turn by a cyclist should neither be fast nor sharp.

Reason The bending angle from the vertical would decrease with increases in velocity.

Answer: (c)

51. Assertion A table cloth can be pulled from a table without dislodging the dishes.

Reason  To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Answer: (b)

52. Assertion If a gas container in motion is suddenly stopped, the temperature of the gas rises.

Reason The kinetic energy of ordered mechanical motion is converted into the kinetic energy of random motion of gas molecules.

Answer: (a)

53. Assertion Like light radiation, thermal radiations are also electromagnetic radiation.

Reason The thermal radiations require no medium for propagation.

Answer: (b)

54. Assertion The percentage change in time period is 1.5% if the length of simple pendulum increases by 3%.

Reason Time period is directly proportional to length of pendulum.

Answer: (c)

55. Assertion The fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe increases as the temperature is increased.

Reason As the temperature increases, the velocity of sound increases more rapidly than length of the pipe.

Answer: (a)

56. Assertion A paramagnetic sample displays greater magnetization (for the same magnetizing field) when cooled.

Reason The magnetization does not depend on temperature.

Answer: (c)

57. Assertion The quantity L/R possesses dimensions of time.

Reason To reduce the rate of increase of current through a solenoid should increase the time constant (L/R).

Answer: (b)

58. Assertion The threshold frequency of photoelectric effect supports the particle nature of sunlight.

Reason If frequency of incident light is less than the threshold frequency, electrons are not emitted from metal surface.

Answer: (b)

59. Assertion The average velocity of the object over an interval of time is either smaller than or equal to the average speed of the object over the same interval.

Reason Velocity is a vector quantity and speed is a scalar quantity.

Answer: (a)

60. Assertion Microwave propagation is better than the skywave propagation.

Reason Microwaves have frequencies 100 to 300 GHz, which have very good directional properties.

Answer: (a)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010


61. The pH of the mixture obtained when equal volumes of N/10 NaOH and N/20 HCl are mixed, is

(a)  1.6

(b)  12.4

(c)  13.4

(d)  10.8

Answer: (b)

62. Which of the following buffer solution turns invalid on addition of 10 mL of 1.0 M HCl?

(a)  100 mL having 0.15 M NH3 and NH4Cl each

(b)  100 mL having 0.2 M NH3 and NH4Cl each

(c)  100 mL having 0.2 M NH3 and 0.1 M NH4Cl each

(d)  100 mL having 0.05 M NH3 and NH4Cl each

Answer: (d)

63. Which element belongs to 4n series?

(a)  Pb207

(b)  Bi209

(c)  Pb208

(d)  Pb206

Answer: (c)

64. 037 g f an alcohol, R–OH was added to C2H5MgI and the gas evolved measured 11.2 cc at STP. The molecular mass of R–OH will be

(a)  47

(b)  79

(c)  77

(d)  74

Answer: (d)

65. If the photon of the wavelength 150 pm strikes an atom and one of its inner bound electrons is ejected out with a velocity of 1.5 × 107 ms1, what is the energy with which it is bound to the nucleus?

(a)  1.2 × 102 eV

(b)  2.15 × 103 eV

(c)  7.6 × 103 eV

(d)  8.12 × 103 eV

Answer: (c)

66. Consider the sequence of oxides : Na2O, SiO2, P4O Which factor decreases from Na2O to SiO2 and also from SiO2 to P4O10?

(a)  Covalent character

(b)  Melting point

(c)  pH when mixed with water

(d)  Solubility in aqueous alkali

Answer: (c)

67. The type of hybrid orbitals used by iodine atom in hypoiodous acid molecule are

(a)  sp3

(b)  sp2

(c)  sp

(d)  sp3d

Answer: (a)

68.  is of intense pink colour though Mn is in +7 oxidation state. It is due to

(a)  oxygen gives colour to it

(b)  charge transfer when Mn gives its electron to oxygen

(c)  charge transfer when oxygen gives its electron to Mn making it Mn(+VI)

(d)  presence of unpaired electrons

Answer: (c)

69. [CoCl2(NH3)4]+ + Cl → [CoCl3(NH3)3] + NH3

In the reaction only one isomer of complex product is obtained. The initial complex is

(a)  cis isomer

(b)  trans isomer

(c)  not having stereoisomers

(d)  either cis or trans

Answer: (b)

70. The Brownian motion is due to

(a)  temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase

(b)  attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles

(c)  impact of the molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

(d)  convectional currents

Answer: (c)

71. For a first-order reaction A → B the plot of log {[A]t/1M} versus t is linear with a

(a)  positive slope and zero intercept

(b)  positive slope and non zero intercept

(c)  negative slope and zero intercept

(d)  negative slope and non zero intercept

Answer: (d)

72. At a certain temperature, the first order rate constant, k1 is found to be smaller than the second order rate constant, k2. If the energy of activation, E1 of the first order reaction is greater than energy of activation, E2 of the second order reaction then with increase in temperature

(a)  k1 will increase faster than k2, but always will remain less than k2

(b)  k2 will increase faster than k1

(c)  k1 will increase faster than k2 and becomes equal to k2

(d)  k1 will increase faster than k2 and becomes greater than k2

Answer: (a)

73. Highest electron affinity is shown by

(a)  O

(b)  F

(c)  Cl2

(d)  F2

Answer: (a)

74. An alkyl chloride (A) on reaction with magnesium in dry ether followed by treatment with ethanol gave 2-methylbutane. Give the possible structure of ‘A’

(a)  (CH3)2C(Cl)CH2CH3

(b)  (CH3)2CHCH2CH2Cl


(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

75. Which of the following reaction has zero activation energy?





Answer: (c)

76. Structural formula of Lewisite is





Answer: (c)

77. Which is optically inactive?




(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

78. The monomers of buna-S rubber are

(a)  vinyl chloride and sulphur

(b)  butadiene

(c)  styrene and butadiene

(d)  isoprene and butadiene

Answer: (c)

79. Passing H2S gas through nitric acid produces

(a)  rhombic sulphur

(b)  colloidal sulphur

(c)  amorphous sulphur

(d)  plastic sulphur

Answer: (b)

80. Which of the following aldehyde contains α-C atom but does not have any α-H atom?

(a)  Propionaldehyde

(b)  Benzaldehyde

(c)  Isobutyraldehyde

(d)  Formaldehyde

Answer: (b)


The final predominant product is





Answer: (a)

82. Which of the following reaction is an example of calcination process?

(a)  2Ag + 2HCl + [O] → 2AgCl + H2O

(b)  2Zn + O12 → 2ZnO

(c)  2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2

(d)  MgCO3 → MgO + CO2

Answer: (d)

83. The following equilibria are given

The equilibrium constant for the reaction,

in terms of K1, K2 and K3 will be

(a)  K1K2K3




Answer: (d)

84. The root mean square velocity of one mole of a monatomic gas having molar mass M is Urms. The reaction between the average kinetic energy (E) of the gas and U­rms is





Answer: (c)

85. C is

(a)  Ph–N+ ≡ NBF­4



(d)  Ph–F

Answer: (d)

86. Carbohydrates which differ in configuration at the glycoidic carbon (ie, C1 in aldose and C2 in ketoses) are called

(a)  anomers

(b)  epimers

(c)  diastereomers

(d)  enantiomers

Answer: (a)

87. The correct order of increasing covalent character is

(a)  LiCl, NaCl, BeCl2

(b)  BeCl2, NaCl, LiCl

(c)  NaCl, LiCl, BeCl2

(d)  BeCl2, LiCl, NaCl

Answer: (c)

88. The equivalent weight of H3PO2, when it disproportionate into PH3 and H3PO3 is

(a)  82

(b)  61.5

(c)  41

(d)  20.5

Answer: (b)

89. Catalyst used in dimerisation of acetylene to prepare chloropropene is

(a)  HgSO4 + H2SO4

(b)  Cu2Cl2

(c)  Cu2Cl2 + NH4OH

(d)  Cu2Cl2 + NH4Cl

Answer: (d)

90. The limiting radius ratio of the complex [Ni(CN)4]2 is

(a)  0.225 – 0.414

(b)  0.414 – 0.732

(c)  0.155 – 0.225

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

91. In a homonuclear molecule, which of the following sets of orbitals is degenerate?

(a)  σ1s and σ2s

(b)  π2px and π2py

(c)  π2px and σ2pz

(d)  σ2px and σ*2pz

Answer: (b)

92. If the concentration of CrO421 ions in a saturated solution of silver chromate is 2 × 104 M, the solubility product of silver chromate would be

(a)  32 × 1012

(b)  8 × 1012

(c)  16 × 1012

(d)  8 × 108

Answer: (a)

93. If ethanol dissolves in water then which of the following would happen?

(a)  Absorption of heat and contraction of volume

(b)  Liberation of heat and contraction of volume

(c)  Absorption of heat and increase in volume

(d)  Liberation of heat and increase in volume

Answer: (c)

94. The pH of 0.5 L of 1.0 M NaCl after the electrolysis for 965 s using 5.0 A current, is

(a)  1.0

(b)  12.7

(c)  13.0

(d)  1.30

Answer: (c)

95. The potential of hydrogen electrode having a solution of pH = 4 at 25°C is

(a)  −0.177 V

(b)  −0.236 V

(c)  +0.177 V

(d)  +0.236 V

Answer: (b)

96. The electronic configuration of actinides cannot be assigned with degree of certainty because of

(a)  small energy difference between 5f and 6d levels

(b)  overlapping of inner orbitals

(c)  free movement of electrons over all the orbitals

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (a)

97. The IUPAC name for tertiary butyl iodide is

(a)  4-iodobutane

(b)  2-iodobutane

(c)  1-iodo-3-methyl propane

(d)  2-iodo-2-methyl propane

Answer: (d)

98. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A) trifluoroacetic acid (B), benzoic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is

(a)  A > B > C > D

(b)  A > C > B > D

(c)  B > A > D > C

(d)  B > A > C > D

Answer: (c)

99. The correct order of basic strength of CH3NH2(I), (CH3)2NH(II), (CH3)3N(III), C6H5CH2NH2(IV) in gaseous phase is

(a)  IV < III < II < I

(b)  IV < III < I < II

(c)  I < II < III < IV

(d)  IV <  I < II < III

Answer: (d)

100. Secondary structure of proteins refers to

(a)  mainly denatured proteins and structure of prosthetic group

(b)  three dimensional structure, especially the bond between amino acid residue that are distant from each other in the polypeptide chain

(c)  linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain

(d)  regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain

Answer: (d)

Directions for Q. No. 101 to 120 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

101. Assertion One molar aqueous solution has always higher concentration than one molal.

Reason The molality of a solution depends upon the density of the solution whereas molarity does not.

Answer: (b)

102. Assertion The heat adsorbed during isothermal expansion of an ideal gas against vacuum is zero.

Reason The volume occupied by the molecule is zero.

Answer: (c)

103. Assertion If edge length of unit cell of LiCl, having NaCl type structure, is 5.14Å, the ionic radius of Cl ion is 1.82 Å.

Reason Anion-anion contact is retained in LiCl structure because anions constitute the lattice.

Answer: (a)

104. Assertion HOF bond angle is higher than HOCl bond angle in HOX.

Reason Oxygen is more electronegative than halogens.

Answer: (d)

105. Assertion Calcium carbide on hydrolysis gives ethylene.

Reason Calcium carbide contains C4anions.

Answer: (c)

106. Assertion Bithional is added to soap for its beautification and solidification.

Reason Bithional is a sulpha drug.

Answer: (d)

107. Assertion Only principal quantum number determines the energy of an electron in an orbital in Na atom.

Reason For one electron system, the expression of energy is quite different as that obtained in Bohr’s theory.

Answer: (d)

108. Assertion The HF2 ions exists in the solid state and also in liquid state but not in aqueous solution.

Reason The magnitude of hydrogen bonds in between HF–HF molecule is weaker than that in between HF and H2O molecules.

Answer: (a)

109. Assertion Chlorine when solidifies does not have zero entropy even at absolute zero.

Reason Chlorine is a pungent smelling gas and it is difficult to solidify it.

Answer: (b)

110. Assertion Noble gases have positive electron affinity.

Reason Noble gases have stable closed shell electronic configuration.

Answer: (a)

111. Assertion Al and Ga have nearly same atomic radii.

Reason Al and Ga show diagonal relationship.

Answer: (c)

112. Assertion Oxidation stat of Fe in Fe(CO)5 is zero.

Reason EAN of Fe in this complex is 36.

Answer: (b)

113. Assertion CO and NO both combine with haemoglobin.

Reason NO has more affinity than CO towards haemoglobin.

Answer: (b)

114. Assertion Vulcanisation increases the hardness of natural rubber.

Reason Vulcanisation introduces the polysulphide bridges at reactive sites.

Answer: (a)

115. Assertion The oxidation of ketone by perbenzoic acid gives esters.

Reason Perbenzoic acid oxidizes  because of the release of nascent oxygen on dissociation.

Answer: (c)

116. Assertion N3 is a weaker base than NH2.

Reason The lone pair of electrons on N atom in N3 is in a sp2-orbital while in NH2 it is in an sp3-orbital.

Answer: (a)

117. Assertion SN1 reaction is basically a solvolysis reaction.

Reason Polar protic solvents help the substrate to ionize and by the way get involved in SN1 reaction.

Answer: (a)

118. Assertion In the E2 elimination, β-H and leaving group should be antiperiplanar.

Reason In the E2 elimination, base always abstracts unhindered β-H.

Answer: (c)

119. Assertion 2-2-dimethyl propanal give Cannizaro reaction with concentrated NaOH.

Reason Cannizaro is a disproportionation reaction.

Answer: (b)

120. Assertion A primary amine has higher boiling point than any tertiary amine.

Reason  A tertiary amine has greater number of N–H bonds for H-bonding.

Answer: (c)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010


121. Appearance of dark-coloured pepper moths among the light-coloured ones as a result of increased industrial pollution is an example of

(a)  disruptive selection

(b)  stabilizing selection

(c)  directional selection

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

122. A fruit developed from a condensed inflorescence is

(a)  simple fruit

(b)  aggregate fruit

(c)  composite fruit

(d)  etaerio

Answer: (c)

123. The ratio of osmotic pressure exerted by 1 M sucrose and 1 M NaCl solution will be

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  0.1

(d)  0.5

Answer: (d)

124. The main function of the white blood cell in the human intestine system is to

(a)  combat and destroy antigenic particles

(b)  produce antigens to combat antibodies

(c)  carry oxygen around the body

(d)  transport antigens to B memory cells in the lymph nodes

Answer: (a)

125. Which one of the following is the best stage to observe the shape, size and number of chromosomes in a cell?

(a)  Interphase

(b)  Prophase

(c)  Metaphase

(d)  Telophase

Answer: (c)

126. In the blood of an adult man the total content of haemoglobin is roughly

(a)  several hundred grams

(b)  tens to gram (10-100 g)

(c)  several grams

(d)  several hundred milligram

Answer: (a)

127. Sinking of zooplankton during the day and rising to the surface at night is an example o f

(a)  circinal rhythm

(b)  circadian rhythm

(c)  tidal rhythm

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

128. Centre of DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD) is located at

(a)  Delhi

(b)  Chennai

(c)  Kolkata

(d)  Hyderabad

Answer: (d)

129. The function of nitrogen fixation in Anabaena (Cyanobacterium) is performed by

(a)  thylakoid

(b)  heterocyst

(c)  phycocyanin

(d)  phycoerythrin

Answer: (b)

130. In a bacterium, the amount of adenine was found to be 18 per cent. Suggest the cytosine base composition from the following

(a)  64%

(b)  36%

(c)  32%

(d)  18%

Answer: (c)

131. pBR322, which is frequently used as a vector for cloning gene in coli is a/an

(a)  original bacterial plasmid

(b)  modified bacterial plasmid

(c)  viral genome

(d)  transposon

Answer: (b)

132. Holandric genes are located

(a)  both in X and Y-chromosome

(b)  only in Y-chromosome

(c)  only in X-chromosome

(d)  only in autosomes

Answer: (b)

133. Match the columns.

(a)  A – 1; B – 2; C – 3

(b)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 1

(c)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 2

(d)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 1

Answer: (d)

134. In which of the following combinations, the compounds in ascending order based on their molecular weights are arranged?





Answer: (c)

135. The floral formula  represents

(a)  Solanum nigrum

(b)  Hibiscus rosa-sinensis

(c)  Citrus aurantum

(d)  Brassica campestris

Answer: (d)

136. Match the columns.

(a)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1

(b)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4

(c)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4

(d)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 4; D – 1

Answer: (d)

137. Elaters are absent in

(a)  Funaria

(b)  Marchantia

(c)  Pellia

(d)  Porella

Answer: (a)

138. The pollination of two flowers on different plants is known as

(a)  xenogamy

(b)  geitonogamy

(c)  cleistogamy

(d)  dichogamy

Answer: (a)

139. The callus is defined as

(a)  decaying cells

(b)  differentiated cells

(c)  sterile mass cells

(d)  undifferentiated mass of cells

Answer: (d)

140. Calcium dependent kinases can control

(a)  cell cycle activities

(b)  DNA replication

(c)  cell surface receptors

(d)  membrane structure

Answer: (a)

141. Which of the following serve as the anchoring junctions between the cells?

(a)  Tight junctions

(b)  Gap junctions

(c)  Desmosomes

(d)  Nexuses

Answer: (c)

142. Blood cells that increase in number during allergic conditions like asthma are

(a)  neutrophils

(b)  basophils

(c)  eosinophils

(d)  lymphocytes

Answer: (c)

143. The cornea is a very important component of the human eye. The main function of the cornea is to

(a)  bend the light before it reaches the lens

(b)  provide structural support to the eye

(c)  contain a concentrated amount of cone cells in the correct orientation

(d)  change the shape of the lens to enable the image to be focused on the retina

Answer: (a)

144. Acoelomate, triploblastic, body with bilateral symmetry is characteristic of

(a)  flatworm

(b)  roundworm

(c)  segmented worm

(d)  mollusc

Answer: (a)

145. Match the columns.

(a)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

(b)  A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

(c)  A – 1; B – 3; C – 4; D – 2

(d)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4

Answer: (c)

146. In a stable ecosystem, which of the following limits the number of trophic levels?

(a)  Biomass

(b)  The number of nutrients

(c)  Availability of nutrients

(d)  Presence of contaminants that increase in concentration along the food chain

Answer: (c)

147. Oxygen content reduction makes the glycolyse (glycogenesis) intensity increased due to

(a)  increase of ADP concentration in cell

(b)  increase of NAD+ concentration in cell

(c)  increase of ATP concentration in cell

(d)  increase of concentration of peroxides and free radicals

Answer: (a)

148. If a segment of an mRNA molecule has the sequence 5′ GUACCGAUCG 3′, which of the following could have been the template DNA molecule?

(a)  5′ GCUAGCCAUG 3′

(b)  5′ GUACCGAUCG 3′

(c)  5′ CATGGCTAGC 3′

(d)  5′ CGATCGGTAC 3′

Answer: (c)

149. Hardy-Weinberg’s principle of ‘zero evolution’ is based on

(a)  genetic equilibrium

(b)  random mating

(c)  no migrations

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

150. What does the term ‘reproductive isolation’ refers to?

(a)  An individual is unable to fertilize itself

(b)  Genes are not exchanged between two populations

(c)  Individuals from two populations never mate

(d)  Individuals from two populations never produce offsprings

Answer: (b)

151. Below are listed some pairs of character. The homologous pair is

(a)  forelimbs of dog and camel

(b)  insect wing and bat wing

(c)  feathers of birds and fins of fish

(d)  lens of vertebrate and arthropod

Answer: (a)

152. Glycolate induces opening of stomata in

(a)  presence of oxygen

(b)  low CO2 concentration

(c)  high CO2 concentration

(d)  absence of CO2

Answer: (b)

153. If Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired characters then what shall be correct according to it?

(a)  Useful organs become strong and developed while useless organs become extinct. These organs help in struggle for survival

(b)  Size of organs increase with ageing

(c)  Development of organs is due to will power

(d)  There should be some physical basis of inheritance

Answer: (c)

154. LSD is

(a)  hallucinogenic

(b)  sedative

(c)  stimulant

(d)  tranquilizer

Answer: (a)

155. Monoclonal antibodies are

(a)  obtained from a cell and act on one antigen

(b)  obtained from a group of cells and act on more than one antigens

(c)  obtained from a group of same type of cells and act on single antigen

(d)  obtained from a group of same type of cells and act on more than one antigens

Answer: (c)

156. Which of these is most infectious disease?

(a)  Hepatitis-B

(b)  AIDS

(c)  Cough and cold

(d)  Malaria

Answer: (a)

157. Microtubules are absent in

(a)  mitochondria

(b)  flagella

(c)  spindle fibres

(d)  centriole

Answer: (a)

158. Plant decomposers are

(a)  Monera and Fungi

(b)  Fungi and Plantae

(c)  Protista and Animalia

(d)  Animalia and Monera

Answer: (a)

159. Triticale is obtained by crossing wheat with

(a)  oat

(b)  barley

(c)  maize

(d)  rye

Answer: (d)

160. Occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to

(a)  extinction of these species from other regions

(b)  continental separation

(c)  absence of terrestrial route to these places

(d)  retrogressive evolution

Answer: (b)

Directions for Q. No. 161 to 180 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

161. Assertion Glycine, and amino acid, comes under the category of non-essential amino acids.

Reason The fact behind it is that glycine cannot be synthesized in the body.

Answer: (c)

162. Assertion The rate of decomposition o f detritus is reduced in the regions of high altitude.

Reason It happens due to immobilization of nutrients.

Answer: (c)

163. Assertion Green-house effect is due to thick layer of carbon dioxide.

Reason The glass panels of a green-house allowing the sunlight to filter through but preventing the h eat from being re-radiated in outer space.

Answer: (b)

164. Assertion Mammals, living in deserts contain more concentrated urine.

Reason  They contain very long loop of Henle in their nephrons.

Answer: (a)

165. Assertion The functional unit of excretory organs of lobsters is nephron.

Reason The filtration of blood occur in the Malpighian body (the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule).

Answer: (d)

166. Assertion Open circulatory system is found in most arthropods.

Reason Arthropods contain haemolymph which directly bathes internal tissues and organs.

Answer: (a)

167. Assertion Granulocytes are white blood cells.

Reason They contain lobed nuclei and tiny granules.

Answer: (b)

168. Assertion Bacteria, Protista do not have circulatory system.

Reason These organisms live in moist and watery environment.

Answer: (b)

169. Assertion Glycolysis begins in cytoplasm and yields two molecule of pyruvate.

Reason During glycolysis, four ATP molecules are produced and net yield is only two ATP molecules.

Answer: (b)

170. Assertion Mechanical tissues are absent or less developed in the floating and submerged parts of hydrophytic plants.

Reason Generally, elongated and loosely arranged spongy cells are found in the  body of submerged hydrophytic plants.

Answer: (a)

171. Assertion Inhibition of death of one organism by another through the production of some b-products is known as antibiosis.

Reason Antibiosis is a type of negative interaction.

Answer: (b)

172. Assertion Holoblastic cleavage with almost equal-sized blastomeres is a characteristic of placental animals.

Reason Eggs of most mammals, including humans are of centrolecithal type.

Answer: (c)

173. Assertion Only a single functional female gamete is formed from each primary oocyte cell.

Reason Meiosis in each primary oocyte gives rise to only one cell which functions as ovum.

Answer: (c)

174. Assertion Cytochrome oxidase enzyme contains copper.

Reason  Cyanide combines with the copper of cytochrome oxidase and prevents oxygen combining with it.

Answer: (b)

175. Assertion Urea is a less toxic excretory substance comparatively to uric acid.

Reason  Birds and insect are uricotelic animals.

Answer: (d)

176. Assertion Conducting tissues, especially xylem show greatest reduction in submerged hydrophytes.

Reason Hydrophytes live in water so no need of tissues.

Answer: (c)

177. Assertion Fructose-1, 6 diphosphate is converted into glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone-3-phosphate.

Reason Conversion of fructose-1, 6 diphosphate into 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone-3-phosphate is facilitated by the enzyme aldolase.

Answer: (b)

178. Assertion Process of maintain a constant internal environment is known as homeostasis.

Reason Kidneys are excretory and homeostatic organs.

Answer: (b)

179. Assertion Organochlorine pesticides are organic compounds that have been chlorinated.

Reason Fenitrothion is one of the organochlorine pesticides.

Answer: (c)

180. Assertion Thick layers of muscles are present in the wall alimentary canal.

Reason These muscles help in the mixing of food materials with the enzymes coming from different glands in the alimentary canal.

Answer: (a)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010


181. Which of the following professor received the Physics Noble Prize for 2009 for his ‘ground breaking achievements concerning the transmission of light in fibres optical communication?

(a)  Danierl Colladon

(b)  Charles Kuen Kao

(c)  Walter Gerlach

(d)  John Tyndall

Answer: (b)

182. The Indian music composer, who got double Gramy Awards in Los Angeles on Feb 1, 2010, is

(a)  Ravi Shankar

(b)  Anu Malik

(c)  AR Rahman

(d)  Shankar Mahadevan

Answer: (c)

183. India on Jan 11, successfully test fired the missile ‘ Astra’ from its Integrated Test Range at Balasore. This missile works from

(a)  air to earth

(b)  earth to air

(c)  sea to air

(d)  air to air

Answer: (d)

184. On which day is annual ‘Pravasi Bharatiya Divas’ celebrated to commemorate the day when Mahatma Gandhi returned from South Africa in 1915?

(a)  Jan 7

(b)  Jan 8

(c)  Jan 9

(d)  Jan 10

Answer: (c)

185. ‘Aavatar’ has become the highest grossing movie of all time, surpassing the record made by ‘Titanic’. Who has directed both ‘Avatar’ and ‘Titanic’?

(a)  Steven Spielberg

(b)  Danny Boyle

(c)  Roger Avary

(d)  James Cameron

Answer: (d)

186. The United Nations (UN) has declared 2010 as the

(a)  International Year of Youth

(b)  International Year of Renewable Energy

(c)  International Year of Eco-Tourism

(d)  International Year of Bio-degradable Material

Answer: (a)

187. Which of these cricketers hold the record to play international cricket for the longest time?

(a)  Sachin Tendulkar

(b)  Garry Sobers

(c)  Colin Cowdrey

(d)  Wilfred Rhodes

Answer: (a)

188. Who has been conferred the 2009 GD Birl Award for Scientific Research?

(a)  Anil Kakodkar

(b)  Mahindra Agrawal

(c)  Rajeev Motwani

(d)  Vainu Bappu

Answer: (b)

189. Asia’s biggest Solar Power Plant has been recently unveiled at

(a)  Japan

(b)  Indonesia

(c)  Malaysia

(d)  Taiwan

Answer: (d)

190. Kaiane Aldorino has been named winner of the 2009 Miss World Pageant, recently held in Johannesburg. She belongs to

(a)  South Africa

(b)  Venezuela

(c)  Gibraltar

(d)  Columbia

Answer: (c)

191. Recently, which country suffered an earthquake which decimated its capital, killing millions of people?

(a)  Sumatra

(b)  Haiti

(c)  Japan

(d)  Sri Lanka

Answer: (b)

192. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) has been named after which famous national leader?

(a)  Mahatma Gandhi

(b)  Rajeev Gandhi

(c)  Indira Gandhi

(d)  Jawahar Lal Nehru

Answer: (a)

193. Who has won the National Snooker Championship, 2009?

(a)  Geet Sethi

(b)  Sourav Kothari

(c)  Pankaj Advani

(d)  Ashok Shandilya

Answer: (c)

194. Who has recently written the book ‘Idea of Justice’?

(a)  Montek Singh Ahluwalia

(b)  Amartya Sen

(c)  Omkar Goswami

(d)  C Rangarajan

Answer: (b)

195. On which date, is Hindi Day Celebrated?

(a)  Sep 5

(b)  Sep 10

(c)  Sep 14

(d)  Sep 20

Answer: (c)

196. ‘Mukhya Mantri Kanyadan Yojana’ is a scheme of which state given below?

(a)  Haryana

(b)  Gujarat

(c)  Uttar Pradesh

(d)  Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (d)

197. The first woman battalion to the deployed along the international border belongs to

(a)  ITBP

(b)  BSF

(c)  Coast Guards

(d)  Assam Rifles

Answer: (b)

198. Who among the following is the most powerful woman of the world as per a recent list of Forbes?

(a)  Angela Markel

(b)  Cristina Fernandez

(c)  Christine Lagarde

(d)  Sonia Gandhi

Answer: (a)

199. ‘KONKAN’ is an annual exercise between the India and which of the following Navies?

(a)  France

(b)  UK

(c)  US

(d)  Israel

Answer: (b)

200. What is the proposed venue of the 16th NAM Summit in 2012?

(a)  Cuba

(b)  Iran

(c)  Indonesia

(d)  India

Answer: (b)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2009 With Answer Key

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2009


1. The equation y = 4 + 2 sin(6t – 3x) represents a wave motion. Then wave speed and amplitude, respectively are

(a)  wave speed 1 unit, amplitude 6 unit

(b)  wave speed 2 unit, amplitude 2 unit

(c)  wave speed 4 unit, amplitude 1/2 unit

(d)  wave speed 1/2 unit, amplitude 5 unit

Answer: (b)

2. A closed organ pipe of length 1.2 m vibrates in its first overtone mode. The pressure variation is maximum at

(a)  0.4 m from the open end

(b)  0.4 m from the closed end

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  0.8 m from the open end

Answer: (a)

3. The ratio of intensities between two coherent sound sources is 4 : 1. The difference of loudness in decibels between maximum and minimum intensities, when they interfere in space, is

(a)  10 log 2

(b)  20 log 3

(c)  10 log 3

(d)  20 log 2

Answer: (b)

4. A conducting rod of length l and mass m is moving down a smooth inclined plane of inclination θ with constant velocity v. A current i is flowing in the conductor in a direction perpendicular to paper inwards. A vertically upwards magnetic field  exists in space. Then magnitude of magnetic field  is





Answer: (b)

5. A bar of magnetic substance is placed in a magnetic field with its length making an angle of 30° with direction of the magnetic field. How will the bar behave?

(a)  It will align itself perpendicular to t he magnetic field

(b)  It will remain as before

(c)  It will align itself parallel to the magnetic field

(d)  Its behaviour cannot be predicted

Answer: (a)

6. A neutron breaks into a proton, an electron (β-particle) and antineutrino  The energy released in the process in MeV is

(a)  731 MeV

(b)  7.31 MeV

(c)  0.731 MeV

(d)  1.17 MeV

Answer: (c)

7. Let K1 be the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted by light of wavelength λ1 and K2 corresponding to wavelength λ2. If λ1 = 2λ2, then

(a)  2K1 = K2

(b)  K1 = 2K2

(c)  K1 < K2/2

(d)  K1 > 2K2

Answer: (c)

8. In the Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, the centripetal force is furnished by the Coulomb attraction between the proton and the electron. If a0 is the radius of the ground state orbit, m is the mass, e is the charge on electron and ε0 is the perimittivity of free space, the speed of the electron is


(b)  zero



Answer: (c)

9. In an experiment of Wheatstone bridge, a null point is obtained at the centre of the bridge wire. When a resistance of 10 Ω is connected in one gap, the value of resistance in other gap is

(a)  10 Ω

(b)  5 Ω


(d)  500 Ω

Answer: (a)

10. Seven resistances are connected as shown in the given figure. The equivalent resistance between A and B is

(a)  3 Ω

(b)  4 Ω

(c)  4.5 Ω

(d)  15 Ω

Answer: (b)

11. The curve drawn between velocity and frequency of photon in vacuum will be a

(a)  straight line parallel to frequency axis

(b)  straight line parallel to velocity axis

(c)  straight line passing through origin and making an angle of 45° with frequency axis

(d)  hyperbola

Answer: (a)

12. A monkey of mass m kg slides down a light rope attached to a fixed spring balance, with an acceleration a. The reading of the balance is w kg [g = acceleration due to gravity]



(c)  the force of friction exerted by the rope on the monkey is m(g – a)N

(d)  the tension in the rope is wg N

Answer: (c)

13. The displacement of a particle, starting from rest (at t = 0) is given by s = 6t2 – t3

The time in seconds at which the particle will attain zero velocity again is

(a)  2

(b)  4

(c)  6

(d)  8

Answer: (b)

14. An alternating current i in an inductance coil varies with time according to the graph given below. Which one of the following graphs gives the variation of voltage with time ?





Answer: (c)

15. Two bar magnets having same geometry with magnetic moments M and 2M, are placed in such a way that their similar poles are on the same side, then its time period of oscillation is T1. Now, if the polarity of one of the magnets is reversed, then time period of oscillation is T2, then

(a)  T1 < T2

(b)  T1 > T2

(c)  T1 = T2

(d)  T2 = ∞, T1 = 0

Answer: (a)

16. A galvanometer has a resistance of 100 Ω. A potential difference of 100 mV between its terminals gives a full scale deflection. The shunt resistance required to convert it into an ammeter reading upto 5 A is

(a)  0.01 Ω

(b)  0.02 Ω

(c)  0.03 Ω

(d)  0.04 Ω

Answer: (b)

17. A steady current is set up in a metallic wire of non-uniform cross-section. How is the rate of flow K of electrons related to the area of cross-section A?

(a)  K is independent of A

(b)  K ∝ A1

(c)  K ∝ A

(d)  K ∝ A2

Answer: (c)

18. A hydrogen atom is in excited state of principal quantum number n. It emits a photon of wavelength λ when returns to ground state. The value of n is





Answer: (c)

19. By what percentage should the pressure of a given mass of a gas be increased, so as to decrease its volume by 10% at a constant temperature?

(a)  5%

(b)  7.2%

(c)  12.5%

(d)  11.1%

Answer: (d)

20. Two inductors L1 and L2 are connected in parallel and a time varying current flows as shown in figure. Then the ratio of currents i1/i23 at any time is

(a)  L1/L2

(b)  L2/L1



Answer: (b)

21. Two equal and opposite forces at on a body at a certain distance. Then the body

(a)  is in equilibrium

(b)  will rotate about its centre of mass

(c)  may rotate about any point other than its centre of mass

(d)  cannot rotate about its centre of mass

Answer: (b)

22. The curve between charge density (ρ) and distances near p –n junction, will be





Answer: (a)

23. Equal masses of two liquids A and B contained in vessels of negligible heat capacity are supplied heat at the same rate. The temperature-time graphs for the two liquids are shown.

If S represents specific heat and L represents latent heat of liquid, then

(a)  SA > SB, LA < LB

(b)  SA > SB, LA < L­B

(c)  SA < SB, LA < LB

(d)  SA < SB, LA > LB

Answer: (d)

24. Two electric bulbs rated 50 W and 100 V are glowing at full power, when used in parallel with a battery of emf 120 V and internal resistance 10 Ω. The maximum number of bulbs that can be connected in the circuit when glowing at full power, is

(a)  6

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d)  8

Answer: (b)

25. If nearly 105 C charge liberates 1 g equivalent of aluminium then the amount of aluminium (equivalent weight = 9) deposited through electrolysis in 20 min by a current of 50 A will be

(a)  0.6 g

(b)  0.09 g

(c)  5.4 g

(d)  10.8 g

Answer: (c)

26. At what height above the surface of earth the value of acceleration due to gravity would be half of its value on the surface of earth?

(a)  2561 km

(b)  2650 km

(c)  3200 km

(d)  9800 km

Answer: (b)

27. The period of revolution of an earth’s satellite close to surface of earth is 90 min. The time period of another satellite in an orbit at a distance of four times the radius of earth from its surface will be

(a)  90√9 min

(b)  270 min

(c)  720 min

(d)  360 min

Answer: (c)

28. The graph shows the variation of velocity of a rocket with time. The time of burning of fuel from the graph is

(a)  10 s

(b)  110 s

(c)  120 s

(d)  Data insufficient

Answer: (a)

29. There are N coplanar vectors each of magnitude V. Each vector is inclined to the preceding vector at angle 2π/n. What is the magnitude of their resultant?

(a)  V/N

(b)  V

(c)  Zero

(d)  N/V

Answer: (c)

30. A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right angled prism as shown in figure. The refractive indices of the material of prism for red, green and blue colours, respectively are 1.33, 1.44, 1.47. The prism will be

(a)  separate part of blue colour from red and green colour

(b)  separate all the three colours from one another

(c)  separate part of the red colour from green and blue colours

(d)  not separate even partially any colour from the other two colours

Answer: (c)

31. Two particles of equal mass go round a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed v of each particle is





Answer: (c)

32. Percentage error in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. The error in the estimation of kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass and speed will be

(a)  12%

(b)  10%

(c)  2%

(d)  8%

Answer: (d)

33. A nucleus at rest breaks into two nuclear parts which have their velocities ratio equal to 2 : 1. What will be the ratio of their radii of the nuclei?

(a)  21/3 : 1

(b)  1 : 21/3

(c)  23/2 : 1

(d)  1 : 23/2

Answer: (b)

34. The energy of hydrogen atom in ground state is 13.6 eV. The ionization energy of singly ionized helium He2+ will be

(a)  13.6 eV

(b)  3.4 eV

(c)  27.2 eV

(d)  54.4 eV

Answer: (d)

35. The oscillating electric and magnetic vectors of an electromagnetic wave are oriented along

(a)  the same direction but have a phase difference of 90°

(b)  the same direction and are in same phase

(c)  mutually perpendicular directions and are in same phase

(d)  mutually perpendicular directions but has a phase difference of 90°

Answer: (c)

36. If a player catches a ball of mass 200 g moving with the velocity 40 ms1, then he experiences a force of (time taken to catch the ball is 0.1s)

(a)  20 N

(b)  40 N

(c)  80 N

(d)  100 N

Answer: (c)

37. A perfect gas goes from state A to state B by absorbing 8 × 105 J of heat and doing 6.5 105 J of external work. It is now transferred between the same two states in another process in which it absorbs 105 J of heat. In the second process

(a)  work done on gas is 105 J

(b)  work done on gas is 0.5 × 105 J

(c)  work done by gas is 105 J

(d)  work done by gas is 0.5 × 105 J

Answer: (b)

38. A resonance in an air column of length 40 cm resonates with a tuning fork of frequency 450 Hz. Ignoring end correction, the velocity of sound in air is

(a)  1020 ms1

(b)  720 ms1

(c)  620 ms1

(d)  820 ms1

Answer: (b)

39. Let Ea be the electric field due to dipole in its axial plane at distance l and let Eeq be the field in the equatorial plane at a distance l, then the relation between Ea and Eeq will be

(a)  Ea = 4Eeq

(b)  Eeq = 2Ea

(c)  Ea = 2Eeq

(d)  Ea = Eeq/3

Answer: (c)

40. A vehicle with a horn of frequency n, is moving with a velocity of 30 ms1 in a direction perpendicular to the straight line joining the observer and the vehicle. The observer receives the sound to have a frequency n + n1. Then (if the sound velocity in air is 30 ms1)

(a)  n1 = 10 n

(b)  n1 = 0

(c)  n1 = 0.1 n

(d)  n1 = −0.1 n

Answer: (b)

Directions for Q. No. 41 to 60 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

41. Assertion The formula connecting u, v an f for a spherical mirror is valid only for mirrors whose sizes are very small compared to their radii of curvature.

Reason  Laws of reflection are s trictly valid for plane surfaces, but n ot for large spherical surface.

Answer: (c)

42. Assertion Endoscopy involves use of optical fibres to study internal organs.

Reason Optical fibres are based on phenomenon of total internal reflection.

Answer: (a)

43. Assertion A ship floats higher in the water on a high pressure day than on a low pressure day.

Reason Floating of ship in the water is not possible because of buoyancy force which is present due to pressure difference.

Answer: (d)

44. Assertion A proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular paths in a uniform magnetic field. The radii of their circular paths will be equal.

Reason Any two charged particles having equal kinetic energies and entering a region of uniform magnetic field  in a direction perpendicular to  , will describe circular trajectories of equal radii.

Answer: (c)

45. Assertion The power delivered to a light bulb is more just after it is switched ON and the glow of the filament is increasing, as compared to when the bulb is glowing steadily, ie, after sometime of switching ON.

Reason As temperature decreases, resistance of conductor increases.

Answer: (d)

46. Assertion The thick film shows no interference pattern. Take thickness of the order of few cms.

Reason For interference pattern to observe, path difference between two waves is of the order of few wavelengths.

Answer: (a)

47. Assertion The clouds in sky generally appear to be whitish.

Reason Diffraction due to clouds is efficient in equal measure at all wavelengths.

Answer: (c)

48. Assertion Electron capture occurs more than positron emission in a heavy nucleus.

Reason In a heavy nucleus, electrons are relatively close to nucleus.

Answer: (a)

49. Assertion Transducer in communication system converts electrical signal in to a physical quantity.

Reason For information signal to be transmitted directly to long distances, modulation is not a necessary process.

Answer: (d)

50. Assertion It is impossible for a ship to use the internal energy of sea water to operate its engine.

Reason A heat engine is different from a refrigerator.

Answer: (b)

51. Assertion A tennis ball bounces higher on hills than in plains.

Reason Acceleration due to gravity on the hill is greater than that on the surface of earth.

Answer: (c)

52. Assertion A cloth covers a table. Some dishes are kept on it. The cloth can be pulled out without dislodging the dishes from the table.

Reason For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Answer: (b)

53. Assertion A and B are two conducting spheres of same radius. A being solid and B hollow. Both are charged to the same potential. Then, charge on A = charge on B.

Reason Potentials on both are same.

Answer: (a)

54. Assertion Water at the foot of the water fall is always at different temperature from that at the top.

Reason The potential energy of water at t he top is converted into heat energy during falling.

Answer: (a)

55. Assertion Generally the path of a projectile from the earth is parabolic but it is elliptical for projectiles going to a very large height.

Reason The path of a projectile is independent of the gravitational force of earth.

Answer: (c)

56. Assertion Railway tracks are laid on small sized wooden sleepers.

Reason Small sized wooden sleepers are used so that rails exert more pressure on the railway track. Due to which rail does not leave the track.

Answer: (d)

57. Assertion The periodic time on a hard spring is less as compared to that of a soft spring.

Reason The periodic time depends upon the spring constant, and psring constant is large for hard spring.

Answer: (a)

58. Assertion To heart distinct beats, difference in frequencies of two sources should be less than 10.

Reason More the number of beats per second more difficult to hear them.

Answer: (b)

59. Assertion Circuit containing capacitors should be handled cautiously even when there is no current.

Reason The capacitors are very delicate and so quickly break down.

Answer: (c)

60. Assertion It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be available in the absorption spectrum.

Reason The spectrum of hydrogen atom is only absorption spectrum.

Answer: (d)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2009


61. Two moles of each reactant A and B are taken in a reaction flask. The react in the following manner,

A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(g) + D(g)

At equilibrium, it was found that the concentration of C is triple to that of B. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is

(a)  4.5

(b)  6

(c)  9

(d)  1/6

Answer: (c)

62. If the dissociation constant of 5 × 104 M aqueous solution of diethylamine is 2.5 × 105, its pH value i s

(a)  8

(b)  3.95

(c)  10.05

(d)  2

Answer: (c)

63. The lead of the lead pencils melts at

(a)  2000°C

(b)  350°C

(c)  3170°C

(d)  75°C

Answer: (c)

64. The compound which is obtained by treating chloropropane with alcoholic KOH, when reacts with BH3/ THF followed by acetic acid gives

(a)  CH3CH2CH2OH

(b)  CH3CH2CH3

(c)  CH3CH(OH)CH3


Answer: (b)

65. The increasing order of hydrolysis of the following compounds is

(a)  (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)

(b)  (i) < (iv) < (iii) < (ii)

(c)  (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)

(d)  (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (ii)

Answer: (d)

66. The rubber, used for manufacturing tyres, is vulcanized with

(a)  3% S

(b)  7% S

(c)  1% S

(d)  All of the above can be used

Answer: (b)

67. Which of the following coordination entities should be expected to absorb light of lowest frequency?

(a)  [Cr(en)3­]3+

(b)  [CrCl6]3

(c)  [Cr(NH­3)6]3+

(d)  [Cr(CN)6]3

Answer: (b)

68. A sample of 0.42 mg 233UF6 shows an activity of 9.88 × 104 count per second. Its t1/2 is

(a)  5.13 × 1012 yr

(b)  1.628 × 105 yr

(c)  2.94 × 109 yr

(d)  2.35 × 108 yr

Answer: (b)

69. The correct set of reagents for the following conversion is

(a)  P4/I2, Na, Conc. H2SO4

(b)  P2O5, LiAlH4

(c)  P2O5/∆, H2O, P4/I2, Na

(d)  P4/I­2, Na, P2O5/∆

Answer: (d)

70. Sodium crystallizes in bcc arrangement with the interfacial separation between the atoms at the edge 53 pm. The density of the solid s

(a)  1.23 g/cc

(b)  485 g/cc

(c)  4.85 g/cc

(d)  123 g/cc

Answer: (a)

71. When nitric acid reacts with nitric oxide,, a gas is released, which converts H2S ­into


(b)  S2

(c)  S


Answer: (c)

72. For which of the following pairs, magnetic moment is same ?

(a)  MnCl2, CuSO4

(b)  CuCl2, TiCl3

(c)  TiO2, CuSO4

(d)  TiCl3, NiCl2

Answer: (b)

73. Select the incorrect statement, among the following.

(a)  Haemogolobin is soluble in water

(b)  α-keratin is soluble in water

(c)  Cellulose is a polymer of glucose

(d)  Chlorophyll is responsible for the synthesis of carbohydrates in plants

Answer: (b)

74. Which of the following azeotropic solutions has the boiling point less than boiling point of the constituents A and B?

(a)  CHCl3 and CH3COCH3

(b)  CS2 and CH3COCH3

(c)  CH3CH2OH and CH3COCH3

(d)  CH3CHO and CS2

Answer: (c)


the correct relation between k1, k2 and k3 is

(a)  3k1 = k2 = 2k3

(b)  k1 = 3k2 = 1.5k3

(c)  k1 = k2 = k3

(d)  2k1 = 3k2 = k3

Answer: (b)

76. Which will not show geometrical isomerism?

(a)  CH3CH = NOH


(c)  HO – N = N – OH

(d)  (CH3)2C = NOH

Answer: (d)

77. A compound with molecular formula, C6H14 has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is

(a)  n-hexane

(b)  2-methyl pentane

(c)  2, 3-dimethyl butane

(d)  2, 3-dimethyl pentane

Answer: (c)

78. The hybridization scheme for the central atom includes as d-orbital contribution in


(b)  PCl3


(d)  H2Se

Answer: (a)

79. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a)  Zeolites have a more closed structure than feldspar.

(b)  H4As2O­7 is an ‘ortho’acid.

(c)  Pseudo-alum does not  have Na+ and K+.

(d)  Superphosphate of lime is 4Ca(H2PO4)2.

Answer: (c)

80. The number of hydroxyl ions in 100 mL of a solution having pH 10 is

(a)  1 × 104

(b)  3.012 × 104

(c)  6.02 × 1018

(d)  6.023 × 1019

Answer: (c)

81. Enthalpy of combustion of methane and ethane are −210 kcal/mol and −368 kcal/mol respectively. The enthalpy of combustion of decane is

(a)  −158 kcal

(b)  −1632 kcal

(c)  −1700 kcal

(d)  Data is incomplete

Answer: (b)

82. The de-Broglie wavelength of helium atom at room temperature is

(a)  6. 6 × 1034 m

(b)  4.39 × 1010 m

(c)  7.34 × 1011 m

(d)  2.335 × 1020 m

Answer: (c)

83. The solubility product of a salt having formula M2X3 is 2.2 × 1020. If the solubility of an another salt having formula M2X is twice the molar solubility of M2X2, the solubility product of M2X is

(a)  3 × 1012

(b)  9.16 × 105

(c)  4.58 × 105

(d)  2.76 × 1018

Answer: (a)

84. The product of which of the following reactions has the highest east to undergo electrophilic substitution?





Answer: (c)

85. Formation of alcohol by oxymercuration-demercuration of alkenes

(a)  involves carbocations and rearrangement

(b)  involves carbanions and rearrangement

(c)  is stereospecific

(d)  does not involve rearrangement and carbocation.

Answer: (d)

86. The hormone that controls the processes like burning of fats, proteins and carbohydrates to liberate energy in the body, i s

(a)  cortisone

(b)  thyroxine

(c)  adrenalin

(d)  insulin

Answer: (d)

87. The reproduction potential at pH = 14 for the Cu2+/Cu couples is

(a)  0.34 V

(b)  −0.34 V

(c)  0.22 V

(d)  −0.22 V

Answer: (d)

88. x moles of potassium dichromate oxidizes 1 mole of ferrous oxalate, in acidic medium. Here x is

(a)  3

(b)  1.5

(c)  0.5

(d)  1.0

Answer: (c)

89. In the following redox equation,

the values of coefficients x, y and z are, respectively

(a)  3, 8, 2

(b)  3, 8, 7

(c)  3, 2, 4

(d)  3, 1, 8

Answer: (a)

90. If heavy water is taken as solvent instead of normal water while performing Cannizaro reaction, the products of the reaction are

(a)  RCOO + RCH2OH

(b)  RCOO + RCH2OD


(d)  RCOO + RCD2OD

Answer: (b)

91. The most unlikely representation of resonance structure of p –nitrophenoxide is





Answer: (c)

92. The correct order of electron affinities of N, O, S and Cl is

(a)  N < O < S < Cl

(b)  O < N < Cl < S

(c)  O ≈ Cl < N ≈ S

(d)  O < S < Cl < N

Answer: (a)

93. Which of the following pairs has almost same atomic radii?

(a)  Al, Ga

(b)  Be, Mg

(c)  Mg, Al

(d)  B, Be

Answer: (a)

94. The product ‘Y’ in the following reaction sequence is





Answer: (c)

95. n and l for some electrons are given. Which of the following is expected to have least energy?

(a)  n = 3, l = 2

(b)  n = 3, l = 0

(c)  n = 2, l = 1

(d)  n = 4, l = 0

Answer: (c)

96. The order of boiling points of four equimolar aqueous solutions is C < B < A < D. The correct order of their freezing points is

(a)  D < C < B < A

(b)  D > C < B < A

(c)  D < B > A < C

(d)  D > A > B > C

Answer: (c)

97. In zone refining method, the molten zone

(a)  contains impurities

(b)  contains purified metal only

(c)  contains more impurity than the original metal

(d)  moves to either side

Answer: (c)

98. The minimum voltage required to electrolyze alumina in the Hall-Heroult process is :

(Given, ∆Gf° (Al2O3) = −1520 kJ mol1 ;

(a)  1.575 V

(b)  1.60 V

(c)  1.312 V

(d)  −2.62 V

Answer: (b)

99. The sweetest artificial sugar among the following is

(a)  aspartame

(b)  sucralose

(c)  alitame

(d)  sucrose

Answer: (c)

100. Select the incorrect statement.

(a)  Physical adsorption is reversible while chemical is irreversible.

(b)  High pressure favours physical adsorption while low pressure favours chemical adsorption

(c)  Physical adsorption is not specific while chemical is highly specific.

(d)  High activation energy is involved in chemical adsorption.

Answer: (b)

Directions for Q. No. 101 to 120 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

101. Assertion Sodium-2-dodecyl benzenesulphon ate is a biodegradable detergent.

Reason Detergents having highly branched chains are biodegradable.

Answer: (d)

102. Assertion On dilution, the equivalent as well as molar conductivity of solution increases.

Reason With dilution, the number of current carrying particles per cm3 increases.

Answer: (c)

103. Assertion 2-butenal lacks enolisable H-atom, α to carbonyl group, still it has sufficient acidic character.

Reason The conjugate base of 2-butenal is stabilized by resonance.

Answer: (a)

104. Assertion When NO reacts with FeSO4, a brown coloured complex is formed.

Reason In the complex, the coordination number of Fe is +6.

Answer: (b)

105. Assertion In Lyman series of H-spectra, the maximum wavelength of lines is 121.65 nm.

Reason Wavelength is maximum if there is transition from the very next level.

Answer: (a)

106. Assertion  gives red colour in Lassaigne’s test.

Reason Compounds having N along with C gives red colour with Lassaigne’s test.

Answer: (c)

107. Assertion Coloured cations can be identified by borax bead test.

Reason Transparent bead (NaBO2 + B2O3) forms coloured bead with coloured cation.

Answer: (a)

108. Assertion 575 g H2C2O4­ ∙ 2H2O in 250 mL solution makes it 0.1 N.

Reason H2C2O4 ∙ 2H2 is a dehydrate organic acid.

Answer: (b)

109. Assertion If β4 for [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is 2.1 × 1013, its instability constant is 4.76 × 1014.

Reason Overall dissociation equilibrium constant varies inversely with formation constant.

Answer: (a)

110. Assertion For the reaction,

2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)

increase in pressure favours the formation of NO2.

Reason The reaction is exothermic.

Answer: (b)

111. Assertion CO and CN are referred as π acid ligands.

Reason In CO and CN vacant π type orbitals are present.

Answer: (a)

112. Assertion In benzinidazole,

both the nitrogens (N and N) are basic.

Reason Long pair of electrons present on  are involved in delocalization.

Answer: (d)

113. Assertion Among the alkali metals, lithium salts exhibits the least electrical conductance in aqueous solutions.

Reason Smaller the radius of the hydrated cation, lower is the electrical conductance in aqueous solutions.

Answer: (c)

114. Assertion The value of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ for ammonia is larger than that of nitrogen gas.

Reason Molecular weight of ammonia is smaller than nitrogen gas.

Answer: (a)

115. Assertion A compound with delocalized electrons is more stable than that compound would be if all its electrons were localized.

Reason The extra stability, a compound gains as a result of having delocalized electrons, is called delocalization energy.

Answer: (b)

116. Assertion The enthalpy of formation of gaseous oxygen molecules at 298 K and under a pressure of one atmosphere is zero.

Reason The entropy of formation of gaseous oxygen molecule under the same conditions is zero.

Answer: (c)

117. Assertion Bleaching powder is a mixed salt.

Reason In the presence of COCl2, bleaching powder decomposes to give CaCl2 and O2.

Answer: (b)

118. Assertion K4­[Fe(CN)6] is diamagnetic and [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 is paramagnetic.

Reason Hybridization of central metal in K4[Fe(CN)6] is sp3d2, while in [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 is d2sp3.

Answer: (c)

119. Assertion London smog is oxidizing in nature.

Reason London smog contains O3, NO2 and hydrocarbons.

Answer: (d)

120. Assertion Alkynes are more reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction as compared to alkenes.

Reason Alkynes contain two pi bonds, while alkenes have only one bond.

Answer: (b)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2009


121. These organisms are fungus like in one phase of their life cycle and Amoeba like in another phase of their life cycle

(a)  diatoms

(b)  slime molds

(c)  dinoflagellates

(d)  water molds

Answer: (b)

122. Among the following stem cells, which are found in the umbilical cord?

(a)  Embryonic stem cells

(b)  Adult stem cells

(c)  Cord blood stem cells

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (c)

123. Which of the following rain forest is home to more than 40,000 species of plants, 3,000 of fishes, 1,300 of birds, 427 of mammals, 427 of amphibians, 378 of reptiles and more than 1,25,000 invertebrates?

(a)  Amazonian

(b)  Tropical

(c)  Arctic tundra

(d)  Temperate

Answer: (a)

124. During an allergic reaction, the binding of antigens to IgE antibodies initiates a response, in which chemicals cause the dilation of blood vessels and a host of other physiological changes. Such chemicals are

(a)  interferons

(b)  hormones

(c)  histamines

(d)  acetylamine

Answer: (c)

125. Which of the following four cell structures is correctly matched with the accompanying description?

(a)  Plasma membrane – Outer layer of cellulose or chitin, or absent

(b)  Mitochondria – Bacteria like elements with inner membrane forming sacs containing chlorophyll, found in plant cells and algae

(c)  Chloroplasts – Bacteria like elements with inner membrane highly folded.

(d)  Golgi apparatus – Stacks of flattened vesicles

Answer: (d)

126. Lipids, which can be found in oil based salad dressings and ice cream, during digestion are splitted into

(a)  fatty acid and glycerol

(b)  glycerol and amino acids

(c)  glucose and fatty acids

(d)  glucose and amino acids

Answer: (a)

127. The process by which ATP is produced in the inner membrane of a mitochondrion. The electron transport system transfers protons from the inner compartment of the outer; as the protons flow back to the inner compartment, the energy of their movement is used to add phosphate to ADP, forming ATP.

(a)  Chemiosmosis

(b)  Phosporylation

(c)  Glycolysis

(d)  Fermentation

Answer: (a)

128. Enzyme often have additional parts in their structures that are made up of molecules other than proteins. When this additional chemical part is an organic molecule, it is called

(a)  cofactor

(b)  coenzyme

(c)  substrates

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (b)

129. Animals posses nerve networks or nervous systems to respond to their environment. But the single called Amoeba does not possesses any nerve cell, so, how it come to known whether a particle it encounters is a grain of sand and not its dinner?

(a)  By chemotaxis

(b)  By skin

(c)  By hormones

(d)  All of these

Answer: (a)

130. Genetically engineered bovine (bST), sometimes called rbST (recombinant bovine somatotropin) or rbGH (recombinant bovine growth hormone)are used in the

(a)  therapeutic drugs

(b)  agriculture

(c)  dairy industry

(d)  DNA fingerprinting

Answer: (c)

131. This method of finding a gene is used when researchers known very little about the gene they are trying to find. This process results in a complete gene library : a collection of copies of DNA fragments that represent the entire genome of an organism.

(a)  Cloning

(b)  Shotgun cloning

(c)  Gene synthesis cloning

(d)  PCR

Answer: (b)

132. Which one of the following disorders and characteristic is correctly matched?

(a)  Cystic fibrosis – Production of thick mucous that clogs airways

(b)  Sickle cell anemia – Brain deterioration beginning at months of age

(c)  Achondroplasia – Extra fingers or toes

(d)  Huntington’s disease – Skeletal, eye and cardiovascular defects

Answer: (a)

133. Which of the following hormones is secreted by implanted blastocyst, that acts on the corpus luteum in the ovary, stimulating the body to produce estrogens and progesterone to maintain the uterine lining?

(a)  Estrogen

(b)  HCG

(c)  Progesterone

(d)  Oxytocin

Answer: (c)

134. Phythons possess tiny leg bones that serve no purpose in locomotion. Such organs are

(a)  homologous organs

(b)  analogous organs

(c)  vestigial organs

(d)  Both (a) and (c)

Answer: (c)

135. The two critical steps in the evolution of humans were the

(a)  evolution of bipedalism and the enlargement of the brain

(b)  making and using tools

(c)  using fire and making shelters

(d)  exhibiting culture and  having sophisticated tools

Answer: (a)

136. In which of the following patterns of viral replication, viruses enter a cell, replicate and then cause the cell to burst, releasing new viruses?

(a)  Lytic

(b)  Lysogenic

(c)  Repreogenic

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (a)

137. Cell A has osmotic potential of – 18 bars and pressure potential of 8 bars, whereas, cell B has osmotic potential of – 14 bars and pressure potential 2 bars. The direction of flow of water will be

(a)  from cell B to cell A

(b)  from cell A to cell B

(c)  no flow of water

(d)  in both the directions

Answer: (b)

138. The posterior part of the retina, which is just opposite to the lens is

(a)  cornea

(b)  yellow spot

(c)  are centralis

(d)  Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (d)

139. Tay-Sachs disease results due to lack of enzyme

(a)  glucokinase

(b)  hexosaminidase A

(c)  pyruvate kinase

(d)  Na – K+ ATPase

Answer: (b)

140. A woman is married for the second time. Her first husband was ABO blood type A, and her child by that marriage was type O. Her new husband is type B and their child is type AB.

What is the woman’s ABO genotype and blood type ?

(a)  IAIO; Blood type A

(b)  IA­IB; Blood type AB

(c)  IBIO; Blood type B

(d)  IOIO; blood type O

Answer: (a)

141. This pedigree is of a rare trait, in which children have extra fingers and toes. Which one of the following patterns of inheritance is consistent with this pedigree?

(a)  Autosomal recessive

(b)  Autosomal dominant

(c)  Y-linkage

(d)  Sex linked recessive

Answer: (c)

142. What is t he correct sequence of the steps given here ? Also work out the process depicted in the steps.

(i) Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of the cell; chromatids do  not separate

(ii) Chromosomes gather together at the two poles of the cell and the nuclear membranes reform

(iii) Homologous chromosomes pair and exchange segments

(iv) Homologous chromosomes align on a central plate

(v) The haploid cells separate completely

(a)  The correct sequence is III → IV → I → II → V and the process is meiosis-I

(b)  The correct sequence is II → I → V → IV → III and the process is mitosis

(c)  The correct sequence is IV → I → III → II → V and the process is meiosis-I

(d)  the correct sequence is II → V → IV → I → II and the process is mitosis

Answer: (a)

143. Which of the following matches correctly?

(a)  Factor II – Thromboplastin

(b)  Factor III – Prothrombin

(c)  Factor VIII – Antihaemophilic globulin

(d)  Factor XII – Haemophilic

Answer: (c)

144. Pick out the correct match

(a)  Sternum – 14

(b)  Pelvis – 3

(c)  Ribs – 20

(d)  Face – 5

Answer: (b)

145. The pH of the digestive juices within the human small intestine is between 7.5 and 8.5. This environment is slightly

(a)  basic

(b)  acidic

(c)  neutral

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

146. Who is known as father of physiological genetics or father of biochemical genetics?

(a)  Slatyer

(b)  Charles Elton

(c)  Taylor

(d)  Archibald Garrod

Answer: (d)

147. Which of the following matches correctly?

(a)  Inferior vena cava – Receives deoxygenated blood from the head and body

(b)  Superior vena cava – Receives deoxygenated blood from the lower body and organs

(c)  Pulmonary artery – Carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs

(d)  Hepatic artery – Carries deoxygenated blood to the gut

Answer: (c)

148. The thread like tendons of papillary muscles inserted upon the flaps of tricuspid and bicuspid valves are

(a)  chordate tendinae

(b)  yellow elastin fibres

(c)  reticulate fibres

(d)  collagen fibres

Answer: (a)

149. In the central nervous system myelinated fibres form the …………., while the non-myelinated fibre cells form the …………

(a)  grey matter’ white matter

(b)  white matter; grey matter

(c)  ependymal cells; neurosecretory cells

(d)  neurosecretory cells; ependymal cells

Answer: (b)

150. In prokaryotes, the process of replication is catalyzed by the following enzymes. Identify which of the enzymes is best coordinate with the role.

(a)  Helicase – Joins the ends of DNA segments

(b)  DNA polymerase-I – Synthesises DNA

(c)  DNA polymerase-II – Erases primer and fills gaps

(d)  Primase – Synthesises RNA primers

Answer: (d)

151. Which of the following is correct matched ?

(a)  Central Rice Research Institute – Shimla

(b)  National Botanical Research Institute – Delhi

(c)  Central Drug Research Institute – Cuttack

(d)  Central Food Technology Research Institute – Mysore

Answer: (d)

152. Wonder wheat is new wheat variety developed by

(a)  Mexico’s international Wheat and Maize Improvement Centre

(b)  Indian National Botanical Research Institute

(c)  Australian Crop Improvement Centre

(d)  African Crop Improvement Centre

Answer: (a)

153. Thiamine (B1) deficiency results in

(a)  Wernickes’ syndromes

(b)  Korsakoffs’ syndromes

(c)  osteonecrosis

(d)  tunnel vission

Answer: (a)

154. The government of India in 1980s has introduced a concept to work closely with the local communities for protecting and managing forests. The concept is

(a)  Forest Research Institutes

(b)  Panel of focal communities for forest management

(c)  Join Forest Management

(d)  Jhum Cultivation

Answer: (c)

155. The thickness of the ozone is measured in terms of

(a)  P

(b)  DU

(c)  μ

(d)  RA

Answer: (b)

156. hn-RNA undergoes two additional processing. Out of which, in one of t hem an unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5′-end of hn This is known as

(a)  capping

(b)  tailing

(c)  splicing

(d)  termination

Answer: (a)

157. In some seeds, reminants of nucellus are also persistent. This residual, persistent nucellus i s the

(a)  pericarp

(b)  perisperm

(c)  chalazosperm

(d)  mesosperm

Answer: (b)

158. The potential difference across the membrane of nerve fibre when it does not shown any physiological activity is called resting potential. It is about

(a)  −60 mv

(b)  −80 mv

(c)  +60 mv

(d)  +90 mv

Answer: (b)

159. FAD is a coenzyme derived from

(a)  riboflavin

(b)  vitamin-B12

(c)  thiamine

(d)  niacin

Answer: (a)

160. Echidna and Ornithorhynchus are the connecting links between

(a)  amphibians and aves

(b)  mammals and amphibians

(c)  reptiles and mammals

(d)  reptiles and amphibians

Answer: (c)

Directions for Q. No. 161 to 180 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

161. Assertion With few exceptions tropics harbou more species than temperate or polar areas.

Reason Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.

Answer: (a)

162. Assertion Reduction division occurs in anaphase-I. So there is no need of meiosis.

Reason Meiosis-II occurs to separate homologous chromosomes.

Answer: (d)

163. Assertion Allelopathy is a form of ammensalism that occurs in plants.

Reason Association of rooting plants with fungal hyphae, is an important example of ammensalism.

Answer: (c)

164. Assertion Generally, a woman do not conceive during lactation period.

Reason The hormone prolactin initiates and maintain lactation in a woman.

Answer: (b)

165. Assertion The imbalance in concentration of sodium and potassium ions and proteins generates the resting potential.

Reason To maintain unequal distribution of sodium and potassium, neurons use electrical energy.

Answer: (c)

166. Assertion The regulation of RBC production is accompanied by the kidneys.

Reason Erythropoietin hormone circulates to the red bone marrow, where it increases stem cell mitosis and speeds up the development of RBCs.

Answer: (a)

167. Assertion There is no chance of transmission of malaria to a man on the bite of a male Anopheles

Reason It carries a non virulent strain of Plasmodium.

Answer: (b)

168. Assertion Minerals are not biologically active substances.

Reason Some individuals suffer anaemia due to deficiency of copper.

Answer: (d)

169. Assertion Chimpanzee is the closest relative of present day humans.

Reason The banding pattern in the autosome number 3 and 6 are remarkably similar.

Answer: (a)

170. Assertion The honey bee queen copulates only once in life.

Reason It can lay both fertilized and unfertilized eggs.

Answer: (b)

171. Assertion King cobra is adaptive to oriental realm.

Reason Wallace line prevents interaction of king cobra and kangaroo.

Answer: (b)

172. Assertion Leaf butterfly and stick insect show mimicry to dodge their enemies.

Reason Mimicry is a method of acquire body colour blending with the surroundings.

Answer: (a)

173. Assertion Charcoal has equal heating power than wood.

Reason Charcoal burns without producing flame or smoke.

Answer: (d)

174. Assertion Recoginition site should be preferably sing and responsive to commonly used restriction enzyme.

Reason In pBR 322 alien DNA is ligated generally in the area of Bam-HI site of tetracycline resistance gene.

Answer: (b)

175. Assertion Recently, the government of India instituted the Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.

Reason We can speed up the reforestation by planting trees.

Answer: (b)

176. Assertion DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence.

Reason In repetitive DNA sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times.

Answer: (a)

177. Assertion Chlorella could serve as a potential source of food and energy.

Reason When dried, Chlorella has 15% protein, 45% fat, 10% carbohydrate, 20% fibre, and 10% minerals and vitamins.

Answer: (c)

178. Assertion Oil will form a film on the top of the water, affecting the amount of light entering the water.

Reason Oil is a polar molecule,, and forms hydrogen bonds.

Answer: (c)

179. Assertion Bacteria and other particles pass down the wind pipe and enter the lungs, causing damage to the tissue.

Reason Smoking reduces ciliary effectiveness.

Answer: (a)

180. Assertion Most evolutionary trees place unformation about the pattern of relationships among organisms on the vertical axis and information about time on the horizontal axis.

Reason An evolutionary tree depicts the pattern of relationships among  parents and their offsprings.

Answer: (d)

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2009


181. Santosh Trophy is related to

(a)  Cricket

(b)  Badminton

(c)  Golf

(d)  Football

Answer: (d)

182. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorists of the Freedom Movement in

(a)  The Madras Presidency

(b)  Punjab

(c)  Bombay-Karnataka

(d)  East Bengal

Answer: (d)

183. Michael Ferreira is associated with which of the following games ?

(a)  Chess

(b)  Snooker

(c)  Golf

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

184. Moorish traveler, Ibn Batutah, came to India during the time of

(a)  Ala-ud-din Khalji

(b)  Firuz Shah Tughlaq

(c)  Balban

(d)  Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq

Answer: (d)

185. Red Cross was founded by

(a)  J.H. Durant

(b)  Baden Powell

(c)  Trygve Lie

(d)  Fredrick Passey

Answer: (a)

186. Where is the H.Q. of the Amnesty International?

(a)  Geneva

(b)  London

(c)  Paris

(d)  New York

Answer: (b)

187. Who were the three statements who formulated NAM?

(a)  Tito, Nasser and Bhutto

(b)  Nehru, Nasser and Gandhi

(c)  Nasser, Tito and Nehru

(d)  Nehru, Chouen-Lai and Bhutto

Answer: (b)

188. Who is known as ‘Little Corporal’?

(a)  Adolf Hitler

(b)  Napolean Bonaparte

(c)  William E. Cladstone

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

189. Who wrote As You Like It ?

(a)  Bernard Shaw

(b)  William Shakespeare

(c)  Leo. Tolstoy

(d)  Mulk Raj Anand

Answer: (b)

190. Ain-i-Akbari is written by

(a)  Firdausi

(b)  Ghalib

(c)  Abul Fazal

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

191. When was the Border Security Force (BSF) raised?

(a)  1947

(b)  1950

(c)  1960

(d)  1965

Answer: (d)

192. MODVAT relates to

(a)  sales tax

(b)  wealth tax

(c)  income tax

(d)  excise duty

Answer: (d)

193. The one rupee note bears the signature of

(a)  Secretary, Ministry of Finance

(b)  Governor, Reserve Bank of India

(c)  Finance Minister

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

194. Which among the following is the feature film produced in India by Dada Saheb Phalke?

(a)  Alam Ara

(b)  Raja Harishchandra

(c)  Shakuntala

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

195. In Indian Plan holiday was after

(a)  China-India war of 1962

(b)  Draught of 1966

(c)  Pakistan war of 1971

(d)  Pakistan war of 1965

Answer: (d)

AIIMS Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2017 With Answer Key

AIIMS 2017 Question Paper

AIIMS 2017 Question Paper got four sections Physics, Chemistry, Biology and General Knowledge. All the questions asked in AIIMS 2017 entrance exam are given here for ready reference of students appearing AIIMS Medical Entrance in India.

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam Paper-2017


1. What will be the a vs x graph for the following graph ?





Answer: (c)

2. The driver of a car travelling with speed 30 ms1 towards a hill sounds a horn of frequency 600 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 ms1, the frequency of reflected sound as heard by driver is

(a)  550 Hz

(b)  555.5 Hz

(c)  720 Hz

(d)  500 Hz

Answer: (c)

3. An interference pattern is observed by Young’s double slit experiment. If now the separation between coherent source is halved and the distance of screen from coherent source s is doubled, then now fringe width

(a)  becomes double

(b)  becomes one-fourth

(c)  remains same

(d)  becomes four times

Answer: (d)

4. Two capacitor C and C/2n are connected to a battery of V volts, as shown below

The work done in charging both the capacitors fully is

(a)  2CV2




Answer: (b)

5. A series R-C circuit is connected to AC voltage source. Consider two cases; (A)When C is without a dielectric medium and (B) when C is filled with dielectric of constant 4. The current IR through the resistor and voltage VC across the capacitor are compared in two cases. Which of the following is true ?




(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

6. A space ship is launched into a circular orbit close to earth’s surface. What additional velocity has now to be imparted to the spaceship in the orbit to overcome the gravitational pull?

(Radius of earth = 6400 km, g = 9.8 m/s2)

(a)  3.28 km/s

(b)  12 km/s

(c)  10 km/s

(d)  40 km/s

Answer: (a)

7. A force  where k is a  positive constant, acts on a particle moving in the x y plane. Starting from the origin, the particle is taken along the positive x-axis to the point (a, 0) and then parallel to the y-axis to the point (a, a). The total work done by the force on the particle is

(a)  −2ka2

(b)  2ka2

(c)  −ka2

(d)  ka2

Answer: (c)

8. With what minimum acceleration can a fireman slide down a rope while breaking strength of the rope is 2/3 of the weight?

(a)  2/3 g

(b)  g

(c)  1/3 g

(d)  zero

Answer: (c)

9. Four blocks of same mass connected by strings are pulled by a force F on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in figure. The tension T1, T2 and T­3 will be





Answer: (c)

10. What is the maximum height attained by a body projected with a velocity equal to one-third of the escape velocity from t he surface of the earth? (Radius of the earth = R)

(a)  R/2

(b)  R/3

(c)  R/5

(d)  R/8

Answer: (d)

11. A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the help of a rope which moves with a velocity v as shown in the figure. The horizontal velocity of the block is

(a)  v/sin θ

(b)  v sin θ

(c)  v/cos θ

(d)  v cos θ

Answer: (a)

12. A tube of sugar solution 20 cm long is placed between crossed nicols and illuminated with light of wavelength 6 × 105 If the optical rotation produced is 13° and the specific rotation is 65°, determine the strength of the solution.

(a)  0.1 g/cc

(b)  0.2 g/cc

(c)  0.9 g/cc

(d)  1.0 g/cc

Answer: (a)

13. A long wire having a semicircular loop of radius r carries a current i as shown in figure. The magnetic induction at the centre O due to entire wire is




(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

14. Two satellites S1 and S2 are revolving round a planet in coplanar circular orbits of radii r1 and r2 in the same direction, respectively. Their respective periods of revolution are 1h and 8h. The radius of orbit of satellite S1 is equal to 104 What will be their relative speed (in km/h) when they are closest?

(a)  π/2 × 104

(b)  π × 104

(c)  2π × 104

(d)  4π × 104

Answer: (b)

15. A body of mass 4 kg moving with velocity 12 m/s collides with another body of mass 6 kg at rest. If two bodies stick together after collision, then the loss of kinetic energy of system is

(a)  zero

(b)  288 J

(c)  172.8 J

(d)  144 J

Answer: (c)

16. The coefficient of cubical expansion of mercury is 0.00018/°C and that of brass 0.00006/° If a barometer having a brass scale were to read 74.5 cm at 30°C, find the true barometric height at 0°C. The scale is supposed to be correct at 15°C.

(a)  74.122 cm

(b)  79.152 cm

(c)  42.161 cm

(d)  142.39 cm

Answer: (a)

17. The particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its centripetal acceleration ac is varying with time t as ac = k2rt2, where k is a constant. The power delivered to particle by the forces acting on it is

(a)  2πmk2r2t

(b)  mk2r2t

(c)  1/3mk4r2t5

(d)  zero

Answer: (b)

18. A body of mass 5 × 103 kg is launched upon a rough inclined plane making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Obtain the coefficient of friction between the body and the plane if the time of ascent is half of the time of descent.

(a)  0.346

(b)  0.921

(c)  1.926

(d)  2.912

Answer: (a)

19. A boy is pushing a ring of mass 3 kg and radius 0.6 m with a stick as shown in figure. The stick applies a force of 3N on the ring and rolls it without slipping with an acceleration of 0.4 m/s2.

The coefficient of friction between the ground and the ring is large enough that rolling always occurs and the coefficient of friction between the stick and ring is F/10. The value of F is