SBI PO Preliminary Examination Held on July 8, 2018 Question Paper With Answer Key

SBI PO Preliminary Examination Held on July 8, 2018

Part 1 English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-8) In the questions given below, there is a sentence in which one part is given in bold. The part given in bold may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the best alternative among the four given which can replace the part in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the part given in bold is already correct and does not require any replacement, choose option (e), i.e., ‘No replacement required’ as  your answer.

1. Nobody can deny the fact that Indian economy is very different than American economy.

(a)   are very different than

(b)   is so much different than

(c)   are very different from

(d)   is very different from

(e)   No replacement required

Answer: (d)

2. Accurate statistics with regards to the area occupied in different forms of cultivation are difficult to obtain.

(a)   statistic with regards to

(b)   statistics with regard to

(c)   statistic with regard to

(d)   statistics in regard to

(e)   No replacement required

Answer: (b)

3. Seldom if ever was there any training or instructions in such tactics for either the bank crews or the infantry formations.

(a)   Seldom or never

(b)   Seldom if never

(c)   Seldom or ever

(d)   Seldom has ever

(e)   No replacement required

Answer: (e)

4. As soon as I opened the front door of my house, than I smelled the distinctive aroma of fresh coffee.

(a)   then I smelled

(b)   that I smelled

(c)   I smelled

(d)   I smell

(e)   No replacement required

Answer: (c)

5. Although he had fewer supporters among the governing class, but he was able to get the popular vote.

(a)   he was able

(b)   and he was able

(c)   else he was able

(d)   or he was able

(e)   No replacement required

Answer: (a)

6. The party explicitly denies that they are not involved in mainstream politics.

(a)   denied that they are not

(b)   denies that they were

(c)   denied that they are

(d)   deny that they are not

(e)   No replacement required

Answer: (c)

7. I would rather be a poor man in a garret with plenty of good books to read than a king who did not loved

(a)   who do not loved

(b)   who did not love

(c)   whom did not loved

(d)   whom did not love

(e)   No replacement required

Answer: (b)

8. The relatively static lattice in a diamond ensures that the scattering is at a minimum and the thermal conductivity is exceptional

(a)   are exceptional

(b)   was exceptional

(c)   are exceptionally

(d)   is exceptionally

(e)   No replacement required

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 9-13) Select the phrase/connector (it must be at the start) from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.

9. We see ourselves repeating our ordinary routine. We realize how much wealth surrounds our life.

(i) When we see ourselves……

(ii) Our ordinary routine …….

(iii) Realizing how much wealth……..

(a)   Only (i)

(b)   Both (ii) and (iii)

(c)   Only (iii)

(d)   Only (ii)

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

10. There is a growing influence of the Indian Diaspora on Capitol Hill. Trump will certainly see the advantages of doing business with India.

(i) As there is a growing influence of…….. .

(ii) The growing influence of the Indian …. .

(iii) With the growing influence of the Indian…… .

(a)   Only (i) is correct.

(b)   Only (iii) is correct.

(c)   (i) and (ii) are correct.

(d)   (i) and (iii) are correct.

(e)   All are correct.

Answer: (e)

11. There was no democracy in British India. The rulers could take bold decisions fearlessly without bothering about repercussions.

(i) As there was no democracy in British India ……. .

(ii) Since there was no democracy in British …….. .

(iii) With the rulers taking bold decisions ……… .

(a)   Only (i) is correct.

(b)   Only (ii) is correct.

(c)   (i) and (ii) are correct.

(d)   (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(e)   All are correct.

Answer: (c)

12. Twelve million youth enter the Indian work force every year. Eighty percent of these youth are unskilled.

(A) While eighty percent ….

(B) Since twelve million …….

(C) Of the twelve million ……….

(a)   Only (A)

(b)   Only (C)

(c)   (A) and (C)

(d)   All of these

(e)   None of these

Answer: (b)

13. Scientists build climate models – computer simulations of the climate system. They are doing this to further explore the causes and effects of global warming

(i) To further explore …… .

(ii) Scientists are building …… .

(iii) Predicting effects of global warming ….. .

(a)   Only (i) is correct

(b)   Only (ii) is correct.

(c)   Only (iii) is correct.

(d)   Both (i) and (ii) are correct.

(e)   All are correct.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 14-19) Given below the sentences each of which has been divided into five parts out of which the first part has been marked bold. Each of the questions is then followed by the five options which given the sequence of the rearranged parts. You much choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged or the correct sequence doesn’t match any of the given sequence, mark (e). i.e. “None of these” as your answer.

14. The apex court had ordered that the/of the biometric scheme and the enabling law (A)/ deadline be extended till the five-judge Constitution (B)/ on petitions challenging the validity (C)/ bench delivers its judgement (D)

(a)   ACDB

(b)   BCAD

(c)   BDCA

(d)   CADB

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

15. Repealing the law that safeguards/the floodgates of poaching (A)/ and it would lead to (B)/ marginalization of the indigenous people (C)/ the indigenous people could open (D)

(a)   DCBA

(b)   DABC

(c)   ACBD

(d)   BACD

(e)   None of these

Answer: (b)

16. My thoughts are with the families/ in this unfortunate accident (A)/ recovery of the injured (B)/ of those who have lost their loved ones (C)/ I pray for the speedy (D)

(a)   BCAD

(b)   DACB

(c)   ACBD

(d)   CADB

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

17. Several people became leaders/remained where they were (A)/ and Ministers after that (B)/ rally but the people (C)/ belonging to the community (D)

(a)   ABCD

(b)   BCDA

(c)   CABD

(d)   DACB

(e)   None of these

Answer: (b)

18. He also directed the department/to develop the new schools model (A)/ completion of construction work (B)/ construction technology for early (C)/ institutions and engage modern (D)

(a)   ADCB

(b)   ABCD

(c)   DACB

(d)   CADB

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

19. The us is a /to its being an open society (A)/ nation of immigrants (B)/ in the present global order (C)/ and owes its predominant position (D).

(a)   ADCB

(b)   ABCD

(c)   BDCA

(d)   CADB

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 20-25) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Have you heard that the economy is like a car? it’s the most popular analogy in financial reporting and political discourse. The American people are repeatedly told by financial pundits and politicians that consumption is an ‘engine’ that ‘drives’ economic growth because it makes up 70% of GDP. One notable Nobel-winning economics pandit with a penchant for bizarre growth theories even recently noted that an economy can be ‘based on purchases of yachts, luxury cars and the services of personal trainers and celebrity chefs.’ Conversely, other economists including Nobel-winner Joseph Stiglitz claim that our economy is stuck in ‘first gear’ due to inequality: too much income is concentrated among too few rich people who tend to save larger share of their income and thus have a lower ‘marginal propensity to consume’. The Keynesian message is clear: if you want to put the economic pedal to the metal, get out there and consume! Not so fast, Speed Racer. The systematic failure by Keynesian economists and pundits to distinguish between consuming and producing value is the single most damaging fallacy in popular economic thinking. If the economy were a car, consumer preferences would surely be the steering wheel, but real savings and investment would be the engine that drivers it forward.

Economic growth (booms) and declines (bust) have always been led by changes in business and durable goods investment, while final consumer goods spending has been relatively stable through the business cycle. Booms and busts in financial markets, heavy industry and housing have always been leading indicators of recession and recovery.

As John Stuart Mill put it two centuries ago, ‘the demand for commodities is not the demand for labor, labor’. Consumer demand does not necessarily translate into increased employment. That’s because ‘consumers’ don’t employ people. Businesses do. Since new hires are a risky and costly investment with unknown future returns, employers must rely on their expectations about the future and weigh those decision very carefully. As economic historian Robert Higgs’ pioneering work on the Great Depression suggests, increased uncertainty can depress job growth even in the face of booming consumption. As recent years have demonstrated, consumer demand that appears to be driven by temporary or unsustainable polices is  unlikely to induce businesses to hire.

20. Choose the word with is Most Similar to the word given in passage.

Unknown

(a)   Recognise

(b)   Perceived

(c)   Unpredictable

(d)   Unruly

(e)   Uncanny

Answer: (c)

21. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the passage above?

(a)   Recession and Recovery

(b)   Consumer: The Driving Force for Economy

(c)   Economy: Distant Dream?

(d)   Is Consumption Necessary for Economic Growth?

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (d)

22. In the statement” consumer preferences would surely be the steering wheel, but real savings and investment would be the engine that drive it forward”, what can we infer from the line “consumer preferences would surely be the steering wheel”?

(a)   Consumer likings regulate the economy individually.

(b)   If you want to regulate the economy, consumption is the only force.

(c)   The Penchant of the consumers controls the economy.

(d)   The consumer preferences are not at per with savings and economy in driving the economy.

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (c)

23. Which of the following statements is/are correct in context with the passage?

(a)   Economists fail to distinguish between consuming and producing value and form a mistaken belief.

(b)   Economic growth and declines have always been led by changes in business and durable goods investment.

(c)   Income distribution is evenly distributed among the rich and is compatible with the tendency to consume.

(d)   Only (a)

(e)   Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (e)

24. Which of the following is/are likely to induce businesses to hire?

(a)   Consumer Demand

(b)   Consumer Spending

(c)   Increased certainly in future returns

(d)   Makeshift policies

(e)   Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (c)

25. Choose the word which is Most Opposite to the word given in passage.

Analogy

(a)   Similarity

(b)   Narrative

(c)   Contrast

(d)   Reciprocate

(e)   Variance

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) In the following questions two columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrase are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e. ‘None of these’ as  your answer.

26. 

(a)   C-E and B – F

(b)   A – F

(c)   B – E

(d)   A – D

(e)   None of these

Answer: (b)

27. 

(a)   C – F

(b)   A – D

(c)   B – E

(d)   B – D

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

28. 

(a)   C – E

(b)   B – F

(c)   A – D

(d)   C – F

(e)   None of these

Answer: (e)

29.

(a)   A – D

(b)   B – E

(c)   C – E

(d)   A – F

(e)   None of these

Answer: (e)

30. 

(a)   A – F and B – D

(b)   A – E and C – F

(c)   B – F and C – D

(d)   A – D and C – E

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (c)

Part II Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G are kept one above the other containing different number of chocolates ranging from 10-90. Not more than Four boxes are kept above A. Two boxes are kept between A and the box containing 41 chocolates, which is kept below box A. D contains thrice number of chocolates, than box B. Box C contains 50 number of chocolates and is not kept at the top. The number of chocolates in box G is a cube of a number. Only one box is kept between box containing 41 chocolates and 39 chocolates. Box D has less number of chocolates, than box A. One of the boxes contain 78 chocolates. Five boxes are kept between box containing 64 chocolates and Box C. Box G is immediately above box E. Box D is not kept immediately above or below box B. Three boxes are kept between box D and box F. Box D is above box F.

31. Which among the following box/boxes is kept exactly between Box D and Box B?

(a)   G, E

(b)   B, C

(c)   B, A

(d)   F, C

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

32. How many chocolates are kept in box E?

(a)   50

(b)   13

(c)   78

(d)   41

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

33. Which among the following boxes contains the maximum and minimum number of chocolates respectively?

(a)   G, E

(b)   B, D

(c)   C, A

(d)   F, B

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

34. Which of the following combination is not true?

(a)   50-D

(b)   13-B

(c)   41-E

(d)   64-A

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

35. Which among the following boxes is kept immediately below box B?

(a)   G

(b)   C

(c)   A

(d)   F

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input 91 53 72 14 39 24 85 76 61 67

Step I 15 91 53 72 39 85 76 61 67 25

Step II 40 15 91 72 85 76 61 67 25 54

Step III 62 40 15 91 72 85 76 25 54 68

Step IV 73 62 40 15 91 85 25 54 68 77

Step V 86 73 62 40 15 25 54 68 77 92

Step VI is the last step

Input 58 40 99 28 63 84 16 34 71 87

36. How many numbers are there between 59 and the one which 3rd to left of 85 in step V?

(a)   One

(b)   More than three

(c)   Three

(d)   None

(e)   Two

Answer: (e)

37. How many numbers are there between the one which is 2nd from the left end and 99 in step II?

(a)   One

(b)   More than three

(c)   Three

(d)   None

(e)   Two

Answer: (a)

38. What is the position of 35 from the left end in second last step?

(a)   First

(b)   Fifth

(c)   Second

(d)   Third

(e)   Sixth

Answer: (d)

39. Which of the following number is 6th to the left of 29 in the III step?

(a)   35

(b)   59

(c)   17

(d)   99

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

40. Which of the following number is 5th from the right end in step V?

(a)   35

(b)   59

(c)   17

(d)   29

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-42) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Point Q is 15m South of point P.

Point R is 10m East of point Q.

Point S is 5m North of point R.

Point T is 5m West of point S.

41. If Point U is 10m East of Point P, then Point S is how far and in which direction from point U?

(a)   10m, North

(b)   5m, South

(c)   15m, North

(d)   10m, South

(e)   5m, North

Answer: (d)

42. Point P is in which direction from point T?

(a)   North-West

(b)   South-East

(c)   North

(d)   South-West

(e)   North-East

Answer: (a)

43. V is married to W. R is the only sister of W. A is the mother of R. A has three children. G is the niece of R and P. V has no sibling. R is unmarried. Then, how is P related to V?

(a)   Mother-in-law

(b)   Sister

(c)   Brother-in-law

(d)   Brother

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 44-46) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

(b) if the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

(c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are Sufficient to answer the question

(d) if the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

(e) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

44. Statement Six boys J, K, L, M, N, O are there in a classroom each of them is of different heights. Who among the following is the tallest?

(I) M is taller than N and K. J is taller than M but not as tall as O. L is taller than K.

(II) M is taller than only three boys. J is taller than K.

Answer: (e)

45. Statements Six persons R, S, T, U, V, W lives on a six storey building such as ground floor is numbered as 1 and above it 2 floor and so on …. upto top floor numbered as 6. How many persons live between R and T?

(I) T lives on an even numbered floor, but not on top floor. Only two persons live between W and T. R lives below W.

(II) Four persons live between S and U. No one lives between S and T. V lives immediately above R.

Answer: (d)

46. Statement Six persons A, B, C, D, E F are sitting in row. All of them are facing North direction. Who among the following sits second from the right end?

(I) B sits at end extreme end of the row. A sits second to the right of B. Only one person sits between A and C. E sits immediate right of C.

(II)  E sits third to the right of D. Only one person sits between E and A. F sits to the right to E. C is an immediate neighbor of E.

Answer: (a)

47. In the given coding system ‘now they live for’ is coded as ‘gn mu sy fd’ and ‘go now run for’ is coded as ‘gn sy mo lt’. Which of the following statements among the given is required to code ‘go there now’?

(I) ‘give it for’ is coded as ‘la sa sy’

(II) ‘go there get ready’ is coded as ‘ht mo ga sx’

(III) ‘now there fall’ is coded as’ za ga gn’

(a)   Only I

(b)   Both II and III

(c)   Only II

(d)   Both I and II

(e)   Either I or II

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 48-52) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions.

Give Answer

(a) if only conclusion I is true

(b) if only conclusion II is true

(c) if either conclusion I or II is true

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true

(e) if both conclusions I and II are true

48. Statements X ≥ G = H;

G > J ≥ L; J ≥K < Y

Conclusions I. X > L    II. K < G

Answer: (e)

49. Statements A > B = R ≥ S ≥ T;

X < J ≤ K < T

Conclusions I.  A > X   II. R ≥ T

Answer: (e)

50. Statements M > L ≥ K ≤ J;

N ≥ R ≥ S = M

Conclusions I. R > J      II. J ≥ R

Answer: (c)

51. Statements C ≥ D = E;

A = B ≤ S ≥ C

Conclusions I. C < A II. D ≤ B

Answer: (d)

52. Statements X ≥ G > H ≥ I;

M > H ≥ L

Conclusions  I. X > M II. X  > L

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-57) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons B, C, D, E, M, N, O, J were born in different months i.e. January, April, June, October on two different dates 16th or 24th. Only One person was born on one date. They all like different flowers i.e. lily, jasmine, hibiscus, marigold, rose, sunflower, lotus, daffodil, but not necessarily in the same order.

B was born in April. Only one person was born between B and the one who like lotus, who was not born in January. One person was born between the ones who like lotus and sunflower. Five persons were born between C and N, who was born after C. N was not the youngest. E was born before O and both of them were born in the same month. No one was born before the one who likes hibiscus. The number of persons born before M is same as the number of persons born after the one who like lotus. No one is born between B and the one who likes jasmine. D does not like jasmine. D was born before J, but not immediately before. Four persons were born between the J, who likes rose and the one who lies marigold. J was born after the one who likes marigold. One of the persons born in June likes Lily.

53. Who among the following likes marigold?

(a)   D

(b)   J

(c)   N

(d)   B

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

54. Who was born exactly between the one who likes Rose and M?

(a)   D

(b)   J

(c)   B

(d)   O

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

55. Which of the following flower is liked by D?

(a)   Lily

(b)   Rose

(c)   Daffodil

(d)   Marigold

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

56. Which among the following combination is not true?

(a)   D- April

(b)   J- rose

(c)   N- sunflower

(d)   O- June

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

57. How many persons were born before O?

(a)   Two

(b)   Six

(c)   Five

(d)   Seven

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 58-61) Study the information and answer the following questions.

In a certain code language

“Entire Money Board Perfect” is written as

“Q7 N5 F6 C5,”

“Sleeve Washing World Stories” is written as

“X7 T6 T7 X5”.

“Moving Partly Falls Objects” is written as

“N6 P7 G5 Q6”,

58. What is the code of ‘Radio’ in the given code language?

(a)   S5

(b)   R5

(c)   S4

(d)   R6

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

59. What is the code for the word ‘Rising Normal’ in the given code language?

(a)   S5 O6

(b)   O5 S6

(c)   O6 S6

(d)   O5 S5

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

60. If the code for the words ‘they forward……….’ is coded as ‘U4 G7 T5’ in the coded language, then what will be the missing word?

(a)   South

(b)   Mount

(c)   Stone

(d)   Climb

(e)   Both (a) and (c)

Answer: (e)

61. What is the code for ‘Elegant’ in the given code language?

(a)   G7

(b)   D7

(c)   F6

(d)   F7

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 62-65) Read the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.

Fourteen persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, M, N, O, P, Q R and S are sitting in two parallel rows such that A, B, C, D, E, F, G and F sits in row I faces towards South direction and M, N, O, P, Q, R and S sits in the row 2 such that all are facing North direction. Person sitting in the row 1 faces the person sitting in row 2.

A sit third to the right of B. Either B or A sits at the end of the row. N sits third to the right of O. Neither N nor O Faces A and B. The one who faces C sits third to the right of M. None of the immediate neighbor B faces O. C sits third to the left of F. O does not face F. One of the immediate neighbor of F Faces Q, who does not sit at the end of the row. D is not the immediate neighbor of C. G sits on the left of E, but not on the immediate left. P does not face G and C. S does not face C. R and S are immediate neighbours. E does not sits at the end of the row. D does not face P.

62. Who among the following faces P?

(a)   D

(b)   A

(c)   F

(d)   G

(e)   None of these

Answer: (b)

63. Who among the following sits at the end of the row?

(a)   P, C

(b)   P, D

(c)   O, G

(d)   A, S

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

64. How many persons sits to the right of B?

(a)   Two

(b)   More than Three

(c)   Three

(d)   One

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (c)

65. Who among the following faces N?

(a)   D

(b)   B

(c)   F

(d)   G

(e)   None of these

Answer: (e)

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Bar graph given below shows pens sold by a retailor on five different days. Study the data carefully and answer the following questions

66. Find the difference between total number of pens sold on Monday and Tuesday together to total number of pens sold on Thursday and Friday together

(a)   15

(b)   10

(c)   5

(d)   20

(e)   0

Answer: (c)

67. Total number of pens sold on Saturday is 40% more than total number of pens sold on Wednesday. Find total number of pens sold on Friday and Saturday together?

(a)   92

(b)   110

(c)   72

(d)   108

(e)   85

Answer: (a)

68. Total number of pens sold on Tuesday are 25% more than total number of pens sold on Sunday. Find total number of pens sold on Sunday?

(a)   64

(b)   50

(c)   94

(d)   60

(e)   55

Answer: (d)

69. Out of total pens sold on Thursday, 20% are blue ink pen. Out of remaining 25% are red ink pen and remaining are black ink pen. Find total number of blue and black ink pen sold on Thursday.

(a)   27

(b)   36

(c)   45

(d)   39

(e)   30

Answer: (b)

70. Out of total pens sold on Tuesday ratio between total defective pens sold to total pens sold is 7 : 15. Find total number of non-defective pens sold on Tuesday by retailer.

(a)   20

(b)   25

(c)   30

(d)   35

(e)   40

Answer: (e)

71. Quantity I. ‘x’ : x2 + x – 6 = 0

Quantity II. ‘y’ : y2 + 7y + 12 = 0

(a)   Quantity I > Quantity II

(b)   Quantity I < Quantity II

(c)   Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(d)   Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(e)   Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

Answer: (c)

72. A’s efficiency is 25% more than B

Quantity I- ‘x’ : A can do 5/6th of  total work in ‘x’ days.

Quantity II- ‘y’ : B can do 4/5th of total work in ‘y’ days.

(a)   Quantity I > Quantity II

(b)   Quantity I < Quantity II

(c)   Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(d)   Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(e)   Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

Answer: (b)

73. Sum of 8 consecutive even number is S1.

Quantity I- Sum of second number and eight number in S1

Quantity II- Sum of third number and sixth number in S1

(a)   Quantity I > Quantity II

(b)   Quantity I < Quantity II

(c)   Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(d)   Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(e)   Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

Answer: (a)

74. An article is sold at Rs 1500 after allowing discount of 12.5% on marked price.

Quantity I- Rs 550

Quantity II- Mar price of article.

(a)   Quantity I > Quantity II

(b)   Quantity I < Quantity II

(c)   Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(d)   Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(e)   Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

Answer: (b)

75. If speed of a boat is 500% more than the speed of a current.

Quantity I- ‘x’ : If boat can travel a distance of 63 km in 3 hours, in downstream than ‘x’ is the speed of the boat in upstream (km/h)

Quantity II- 15 km/h

(a)   Quantity I > Quantity II

(b)   Quantity I < Quantity II

(c)   Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(d)   Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(e)   Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) What number is wrong according to given number series pattern.

76. 1, 3, 9, 31, 128, 651, 3913

(a)   9

(b)   1

(c)   128

(d)   31

(e)   3913

Answer: (c)

77. 291, 147, 75, 39, 22, 12, 7.5

(a)   22

(b)   291

(c)   147

(d)   75

(e)   7.5

Answer: (a)

78. 26, 27, 34, 58, 106, 1086, 306

(a)   26

(b)   34

(c)   58

(d)   106

(e)   27

Answer: (e)

79. 5.9, 6, 6.1, 6.4, 7.9, 18.5, 112.9

(a)   6

(b)   5.9

(c)   6.1

(d)   18.5

(e)   112.9

Answer: (d)

80. 330, 80, 280, 120, 250, 130, 240

(a)   330

(b)   130

(c)   280

(d)   240

(e)   80

Answer: (b)

81. Sum of volume of cylinder (S) and volume of cone (C) is 2190 π cm2 and height of both cylinder and cone is same i.e., 10 cm. If radius of cone is 15 cm, then find the ratio of radius of S to radius of C

(a)   1 : 2

(b)   3 : 4

(c)   2 : 5

(d)   4 : 5

(e)   3 : 5

Answer: (d)

82. In a box there are 6 blue ball, X red balls and 10 green balls. Probability of choosing one red ball from the given box is 1/3. Then find the sum of red and blue balls in the box.

(a)   20

(b)   12

(c)   14

(d)   18

(e)   16

Answer: (c)

83. Sum of A’s and B’s age 6 y ears ago is 88, A’s age 18 years ago is equal to B’s age 6 years ago. Find the age of A two year hence

(a)   58 yr

(b)   64 yr

(c)   42 yr

(d)   52 yr

(e)   48  yr

Answer: (a)

84. Train A of length 120 m can cross a platform of length 240 m in 18 seconds the ratio of speed of train A and train B is 4 : 5. Then, find the length of train B is train B can cross a pole in 12 seconds.

(a)   280 m

(b)   300 m

(c)   320 m

(d)   350 m

(e)   240 m

Answer: (b)

85. What is the probability of forming word from the letters of word “IMPEACH” such that all vowels come together?

(a)   8/35

(b)   1/7

(c)   3/35

(d)   17/35

(e)   2/7

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) Find the value of (?) in following approximation questions.

86. 2? = 32.01 ÷01 × 1023.99 ÷ 7.99

(a)   7

(b)   3

(c)   4

(d)   5

(e)   8

Answer: (d)

87. 

(a)   17

(b)   20

(c)   10

(d)   34

(e)   40

Answer: (a)

88. 

(a)   14

(b)   21

(c)   8

(d)   27

(e)   17

Answer: (e)

89. (? ÷97) × 12.08 = 20.12% of 1319.97

(a)   220

(b)   240

(c)   260

(d)   280

(e)   200

Answer: (a)

90. 

(a)   80

(b)   60

(c)   40

(d)   20

(e)   10

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Pie chart given below shows total number of workers in three different companies. Table given below shows ratio between officers and workers working in these companies. Study the data carefully and answer the following questions.

91. Find the ratio between total number of workers in company A and C together to total number of officers in company A and C together

(a)   16 : 1

(b)   12 : 1

(c)   14 : 1

(d)   18 : 1

(e)   20 : 1

Answer: (c)

92. Total number of employees in Company ‘B’ is how much more than total number of employees in Company ‘C’?

(a)   174

(b)   194

(c)   204

(d)   214

(e)   184

Answer: (e)

93. Total number of officers in Company ‘A’ is how much less than total number of officers in company ‘B’?

(a)   4

(b)   2

(c)   0

(d)   6

(e)   8

Answer: (a)

94. Total number of officers and workers in Company D is 50% and 25% more than total number of officers and workers in Company ‘C’ respectively. Find total number of employees in Company D.

(a)   279

(b)   297

(c)   342

(d)   324

(e)   306

Answer: (b)

95. Find the difference between total number of workers in Company ‘A’ and total number of workers in Company ‘B’ and ‘C’ together

(a)   432

(b)   396

(c)   360

(d)   324

(e)   288

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) There are three persons A, B and C who each invested in two different schemes S1 and S2. A in invested Rs 800000 for 2 y ears in scheme S­1 and Rs 30000 for 4 years in scheme S2. B invested Rs 30000 for 3 years in S1 and he did not invest in scheme S2. B also obtained a profit of Rs 10000 by selling his car. C invested Rs 50000 for 5 years in scheme S1 and 10000 for 3 years in scheme S2. Total profit obtained from scheme S is 2 lakh and scheme S2 is Rs 90000.

96. What is the ratio of total profit obtained by B and profit obtained by C from scheme S1?

(a)   23 : 47

(b)   54 : 47

(c)   36 : 43

(d)   23 : 50

(e)   27 : 50

Answer: (d)

97. Profit obtained by A fro scheme S1 is what percent of profit obtained by C from scheme S2?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (e)

98. If sum of investment of A in both schemes and total profit obtained by A from both scheme is invested at compound Interest at the rate of 20% p.a., then find the total compound interest obtained in 2 years.

(a)   108240

(b)   104206

(c)   105208

(d)   109280

(e)   106220

Answer: (a)

99. What is the average of profit attained by A from scheme S1 and profit of C obtained from scheme S2.

(a)   41000

(b)   42000

(c)   44000

(d)   55000

(e)   40000

Answer: (a)

100. If A had invested his sum at Simple Interest for 3 y ears at the rat of R% p.a. instead in scheme S1 and B has invested his sum at compound interest at (R + 5%) p.a. for 1 year and difference in interest obtained is 30000 then, find value of R%.

(a)   10%

(b)   9%

(c)   15%

(d)   18%

(e)   12%

Answer: (c)

IBPS Bank Clerk Preliminary Examination Held on December 2018 Question Paper With Answer Key

IBPS Bank Clerk Preliminary Examination Held on December 2018

Section A Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are watching movies on different days of the week (starting on Monday and ending on Sunday) not necessarily in the same order. B is going to watch movie on Tuesday. F is going to watch movie on adjacent day of B. There are three days gap between the days on which F and A are going to watch movie. G is going to watch movie just after D. There are as many persons are watching movie between A and G, same as between D and C. C is watching movie before D, but not just before.

1. Who among the following is going to watch movie on Wednesday?

(a)   B

(b)   C

(c)   F

(d)  E

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

2. Who among the following person is going to watch movie just after A?

(a)   C

(b)   D

(c)   F

(d)  G

(e)   None of these

Answer: (b)

3. If F and G interchange their days of watching movie, then on which day G is watching movie?

(a)   Monday

(b)   Wednesday

(c)   Friday

(d)  Saturday

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

4. C is watching movie on which day?

(a)   Friday

(b)   Saturday

(c)   Wednesday

(d)  Thursday

(e)   Tuesday

Answer: (d)

5. How many persons are watching movie between B and A?

(a)   Two

(b)   Three

(c)   One

(d)  Four

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-8) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are six persons who all are of different height. A is taller than C and D but shorter than E. The one who is third shortest is 102 cm in height. B is taller than A. E is not the tallest. The one who is second tallest is 119 cm in height. Neither A nor C is the third shortest person among all. C is not the shortest among all. F is taller than D.

6. Who among the following is the second tallest?

(a)   F

(b)   E

(c)   A

(d)  C

(e)   None of these

Answer: (b)

7. What will be the possible height of A?

(a)   120 cm

(b)   100 cm

(c)   112 cm

(d)  101 cm

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

8. Who among the following is third shortest?

(a)   A

(b)   C

(c)   B

(d)  F

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 9-13) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Twelve persons are sitting in two parallel rows at equal distance facing each other. Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in Row 1 facing South B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in Row 2 facing North (but not necessarily in the same order). G sits third to the right of B and one of them sits at the end of the row. Q sits at the right end of the row. Three persons sit between Q and T. F sits to the immediate left of G. Two persons sit  between F and C. C who faces R sits to the immediate right of E. S faces D. U sits to the immediate left of S.

9. Which of the following pair sits at the extreme ends of the row 2?

(a)   B and E

(b)   G and E

(c)   B and C

(d)  G and C

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

10. Who sits second to the left of the person facing V?

(a)   B

(b)   D

(c)   F

(d)  C

(e)   G

Answer: (b)

11. What is t he position of U with respect to R?

(a)   Third to the left

(b)   Second to the left

(c)   Second to the right

(d)  Third to the right

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (d)

12. Who is facing F?

(a)   T

(b)   U

(c)   Q

(d)  S

(e)   None of these

Answer: (b)

13. If the positions of all persons sitting in Row 2 are arranged as per the English alphabetical order from left to right, then who among the following faces D?

(a)   Q

(b)   R

(c)   S

(d)  T

(e)   None of these

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 14-16) In each of the following questions some statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

(a) if only I conclusions follows

(b) if only II conclusion follows

(c) if either I or II follows

(d) if neither I nor II follows

(e) if both I and II follows

14. Statements All DSLR are Lenses. Some Camera are DSLR.

Conclusions

(I) All camera is lenses.

(II) Some lenses are camera.

Answer: (b)

15. Statements All label are packets.

All mobiles are cables.

Some mobiles are Packets.

Conclusions

(I) Some label is mobile.

(II) Some cables are label.

Answer: (d)

16. Statements Some books are Pen.

Some pens are pencil.

Conclusions

(I) No book is pencil.

(II) All pencils are book.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 17-21) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table in such a way four of them sit at four corners while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The one who sit at the corners face the centre and others facing outside.

A who faces the centre sits third to the left of F. E who faces the centre is not an immediate neighbor of F. Only one persons sits between F and G. D sits second to right of B. B faces the centre. C is not an immediate neighbor of A.

17. Which one does not belong to that group out of five?

(a)   B

(b)   C

(c)   E

(d)  D

(e)   A

Answer: (b)

18. Which will come in the place of BCE EHA AGD?

(a)   DFB

(b)   DGA

(c)   DCG

(d)  DCF

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

19. What is the position of G with respect to C?

(a)   Third to the right

(b)   Second to the left

(c)   Second to the right

(d)  Fourth of the right

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (d)

20. Who sits third to the left of B?

(a)   H

(b)   A

(c)   G

(d)  F

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

21. Which is true from the given arrangement?

(a)   G faces the centre

(b)   B faces outside

(c)   H faces inside

(d)  A face the centre

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (d)

22. How many pairs of letter are there in the word ‘DECLARING’ (both backward and forward), each of which has as many letters between them as in the word as there are in the English alphabet?

(a)   One

(b)   Three

(c)   Four

(d)  Five

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 23-25) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Point C is 15 m in the East of point F. Point A is 10 m West of point B which is 15 m North of point H. Point D is 15 West of point E. Point B is 15 m South of point C. Point E is 5 m East of point H. Point G is 15 m North of point A.

23. In which direction and at what distance is point G from point C?

(a)   10 m, East

(b)   5 m, East

(c)   10 m, West

(d)  5 m, West

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

24. Point D is in which direction with respect to point A?

(a)   South

(b)   North

(c)   North-East

(d)  West

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

25. Point F is in which direction with respect to point E?

(a)   North-East

(b)   South-West

(c)   South-East

(d)  North-West

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) Following questions are based on the five words given below, Study the following words and answer the following questions.

TAP NOT MAT PQR STB

(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may not necessarily be a meaningful English word.)

26. If the given words are arranged in the order as they appear in a dictionary from right to left, which of the following will be second from the left end?

(a)   MAT

(b)   NOT

(c)   STB

(d)  TAP

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

27. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the words which is second from the left end and the second letter of the word which is third from the right end?

(a)   20

(b)   19

(c)   18

(d)  17

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

28. If in each of the word given, the second alphabet is replaced by its following alphabet and third alphabet is replaced by its preceding alphabet as per the English alphabetical order, then how many words thus formed will be without any vowels?

(a)   None

(b)   One

(c)   Two

(d)  Three

(e)   Four

Answer: (d)

29. If the positions of the first and the third alphabet in each of the words given are interchanged, then how many meaningful word will be formed?

(a)   Two

(b)   One

(c)   Four

(d)  Three

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

30. If in each of the given words, every consonant is changed to its previous letter and every vowel is changed to its next letter according to the English alphabetical series, then in who many words, thus formed, at least one vowels will appear?

(a)   None

(b)   One

(c)   Two

(d)  Three

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are seven persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F an G. They all belongs to the different cities i.e. Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai, Pune, Lucknow, Ahmadebad and Delhi, but not necessarily in the same order. D belongs to Pune. Neither A nor F belongs to Kolkata. B belongs to Ahmedabad. C does not belong to Kolkata and Lucknow. G belongs to Mumbai. A does not belongs to Lucknow and Chennai.

31. Who among the following belongs to Kolkata?

(a)   A

(b)   D

(c)   F

(d)  G

(e)   None of these

Answer: (e)

32. Which of the following statements is true?

(a)   A belongs to Chennai

(b)   G belongs to Delhi

(c)   E belongs to Kolkata

(d)  F belongs to Pune

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (c)

33. F belongs to which of the following City?

(a)   Chennai

(b)   Mumbai

(c)   Delhi

(d)  Lucknow

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

34. Which of the following combination is true?

(a)   A-Delhi

(b)   D-Pune

(c)   E-Kolkata

(d)  All are correct.

(e)   All are incorrect.

Answer: (d)

35. A belongs to which of the following city?

(a)   Delhi

(b)   Mumbai

(c)   Kolkata

(d)  Chennai

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

Section B Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (36-40) What will come in the place on question marks in the following number series.

36. 200, 193, 179, 158, ?, 95

(a)   135

(b)   133

(c)   132

(d)  130

(e)   128

Answer: (d)

37. 3, 43, 81, 115, 143, ?

(a)   163

(b)   172

(c)   166

(d)  160

(e)   168

Answer: (a)

38. 1, 6, 25, 76, 153, ?

(a)   152

(b)   154

(c)   153

(d)  155

(e)   156

Answer: (b)

39. 50, 54, 45, 61, 36, ?

(a)   66

(b)   72

(c)   75

(d)  80

(e)   84

Answer: (b)

40. 9, 45, 180, 540, ?, 1080

(a)   720

(b)   900

(c)   1080

(d)  1200

(e)   960

Answer: (c)

41. If the sum of upstream and downstream speed is 36 km/h and the speed of the current is 3 km/h. Then find time taken to cover 52.5 km in downward?

(a)   2 h

(b)   2.5 h

(c)   3 h

(d)  3.5 h

(e)   4 h

Answer: (b)

42. A sum becomes 1.6 times of itself in 5  years at simple rate of interest. Find rat of interest per annum?

(a)   10%

(b)   12.5%

(c)   15%

(d)  12%

(e)   8.5%

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 43-52) Calculate the exact value of the ‘X’ in the given questions.

43. x2 + (92 + 34) ÷ 5 = 39

(a)   5

(b)   4

(c)   8

(d)  6

(e)   9

Answer: (b)

44. 6 × 16 × 5 ÷ 3 – x2 = 96

(a)   6

(b)   7

(c)   8

(d)  9

(e)   5

Answer: (c)

45. 

(a)   27

(b)   28

(c)   29

(d)  30

(e)   31

Answer: (e)

46. 282 – x3 = 73 + 225

(a)   6

(b)   8

(c)   4

(d)  7

(e)   5

Answer: (a)

47. 298 – 132 – 23 = x × 11

(a)   51

(b)   41

(c)   21

(d)  11

(e)   31

Answer: (d)

48. 

(a)   1

(b)   1.4

(c)   1.2

(d)  1.6

(e)   2

Answer: (c)

49. x% of 300 + √256 = 243 ÷ 3 + 7

(a)   18

(b)   24

(c)   16

(d)  28

(e)   32

Answer: (b)

50. 

(a)   256

(b)   512

(c)   64

(d)  128

(e)   320

Answer: (a)

51. 136 ÷ 22 × x = 17% of 500 ÷ 10

(a)   1

(b)   0.5

(c)   0.25

(d)  0.125

(e)   1.25

Answer: (c)

52. 1836 ÷ x ÷ 9 = 12

(a)   9

(b)   11

(c)   13

(d)  15

(e)   17

Answer: (e)

53. Ratio of present ages of two persons A and B is 3 : 2 and after four years ratio of their age (B : A) become 7 : 10. Then find the present age of B?

(a)   20 yr

(b)   18 yr

(c)   24 yr

(d)  26 yr

(e)   30 yr

Answer: (c)

54. The difference between Circumference of circle A and diameter is 90 cm. If Radius of circle B is 7 cm less than circle A then find area of circle B?

(a)   556 cm2

(b)   616 cm2

(c)   588 cm

(d)  532 cm2

(e)   630 cm2

Answer: (b)

55. There are 40 children in a class in which boys are 4 more than the girls. Average weight of all the students is 42.5 kg and the average weight of all the girls is 48 kg then find the average weight of all the boys.

(a)   39.5 kg

(b)   38 kg

(c)   40.5 kg

(d)  36.75 kg

(e)   40.25 kg

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) In each question two equations numbered I and II are given. Student should solve both the equations and mark appropriate answer.

(a) if x =  y or no relation can be established

(b) if x > y

(c) if x < y

(d) if x > = y

(e) if x < = y

56. (I) 8x2 + 6x + 1 = 0

(II) 3y2 + 7y + 2 = 0

Answer: (a)

57. (I) x2 = 196

(II) y2 – 26y + 169 = 0

Answer: (a)

58. (I) 9x2 – 12x + 4 = 0

(II) 8y2 – 9y + 1 = 0

Answer: (a)

59. (I) x2 – 15x + 56 = 0

Answer: (e)

60. (I) 3x2 + 10x + 8 = 0

(II) 2y2 + 3y + 1 = 0

Answer: (c)

61. A man invested 15% of his monthly income in LIC and remaining gave to his mother. Mother spend 10% of it in household expenses and she had left with Rs 30600 then find the salary of man?

(a)   Rs 37500

(b)   Rs 36000

(c)   Rs 38000

(d)  Rs 42000

(e)   Rs 40000

Answer: (e)

62. If 7 marks are awarded to right answer and 4 marks are penalty for wrong answer. Then Prabhat’s score was 263. If he attempted 58 questions then find number of correctly attempted questions?

(a)   45

(b)   42

(c)   48

(d)  40

(e)   50

Answer: (a)

63. In a city, 68% of population is literate in which ratio of male to female is 11 : 6. And ratio of illiterate male to female is 3 : 1. Find the ratio of literate female to illiterate female in that city.

(a)   3 : 2

(b)   2 : 1

(c)   3 : 1

(d)  4 : 1

(e)   5 : 2

Answer: (c)

64. Ratio of length of breadth of a rectangle is 4 : 3. If the area of that rectangle is 108 cm2 and breadth of this rectangle is equal to the side of a square then find the area of that square.

(a)   49 cm2

(b)   100 cm2

(c)   64 cm2

(d)  81 cm2

(e)   121 cm2

Answer: (d)

65. A is 1.5 times are efficient as that of B and C takes half time as compared to that of A. If A and B takes  to complete half of the work then find the time taken by A and C together to complete the whole work?

(a) 

(b)  

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Given below table shows the number of cakes of five different types sold by a shopkeeper on four different days. Study the data and answer the questions that follows:

66. What is the ratio of number of cakes of type B sold by the shopkeeper on Saturday and Monday together to the number of cakes of type E sold by him on the same days?

(a)   72 : 53

(b)   88 : 67

(c)   98 : 73

(d)  92 : 71

(e)   90 : 67

Answer: (b)

67. What is average number of cakes of type C sold by shopkeeper on Saturday, Sunday and Tuesday?

(a)   38

(b)   40

(c)   42

(d)  44

(e)   46

Answer: (e)

68. The number of cakes of type D and E sold together on Tuesday is what percent of the number of cakes of type A and B sold together on Sunday?

(a)   72%

(b)   75%

(c)   74%

(d)  78%

(e)   80%

Answer: (c)

69. What is the difference between the total number of cakes of all the given types sold by shopkeeper on Monday and the total number of cakes of all the given types sold by shopkeeper on Tuesday?

(a)   38

(b)   44

(c)   42

(d)  40

(e)   45

Answer: (a)

70. If the number of cakes of type F sold b y the shopkeeper in given four days is 25% more than the number of cakes sold of type D in all the given days, then find the number of cakes sold of type F in all the given days.

(a)   164

(b)   160

(c)   180

(d)  200

(e)   240

Answer: (d)

Section C English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 71-76) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions.

Conversations about the role of flexible working have shifted. It’s no longer enough for companies to offer employees the option to either work from home or the office. Employees want to work from anywhere. Companies that want to attract and retain top talent and ensure teams are highly productive, need to adapt their culture and technology to accommodate this shift in attitudes. And this is where the IT department can solidify its role as a valued contributor to the success of a company, by implementing technologies that enable secure and remote collaboration.

According to a recently commissioned Polycom survey, 24000 respondents across 12 countries indicate that nearly two-thirds of today’s global workforce take advantage of the anywhere working model. This is a significant shift since May of 2012 when only 14% of employees benefited from remote working. The survey results also provide insights into some of the concerns among companies in moving forward with the anywhere working model. Two significant concerns are a lack of trust and the perception that employees are not working as hard when they are not in the office. Also, among the 45-60-year-old age group, 59% worry that working anywhere will cause them to work longer hours. The fear of being always connected to work an overworking is a significant deterrent for this age group.

A good first step for companies to overcome the trust and perception concern is to ensure workers are measured by output and not by the hours they have worked, commonly referred to as ‘presenteeism.’ Countries like Brazil lead the pack there with 80% of employees adopting the anywhere working model and 64% respondents use video to communicate several times a day. When respondents were asked how their companies could improve trust and perceptions with the anywhere working model, the most popular recommendations were to: Equip workers with technology that is easy to use and which connects them to their colleagues; Ensure the same policies are applied to everyone in the business, regardless of seniority or their situation; and Provide guidelines on how to manage working from anywhere. 91% of those surveyed agreed that technology is a key factor in improving relationships and fostering better teamwork. This suggests that investing in the right technologies, in particular video collaboration, to get the most out of individuals and teams can help solve the lack of trust and perception concerns. And this is where the IT department can become a difference maker as they can implement technologies, such as video conferencing, to ensure colleagues can seamlessly collaborate wherever they are.

71. What is the shift in attitude of employees as discussed in the passage?

(I) They want to work in office.

(II) They want to work from home.

(III) They want to work from anywhere.

(a)   Only I

(b)   Both II and III

(c)   Only III

(d)  Only II

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

72. How could companies accommodate the recent shift in attitude of employees as discussed in the passage?

(a)   By offering work from home option to employees

(b)   By enabling secure and remote collaboration

(c)   By increasing the salaries of employees

(d)  Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (b)

73. Which of the following mention(s) the concern of the companies to accommodate the latest preference of employees for working styles?

(a)   Lack of trust of employees

(b)   Perception that employees will not work hard anywhere apart from office

(c)   Working anywhere would make employees to work longer hours

(d)  ‘b’ and ‘c’

(e)   ‘a’ and ‘b’

Answer: (e)

74. How could companies overcome their concerns for the latest preferences of employees for style of working?

(a)   By not offering work from home model

(b)   By measuring employees for the output, they generate and not by the hours they have worked

(c)   By offering work from anywhere model

(d)  By allowing only those who are interested to work from anywhere.

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (b)

75. Which of the following opinions as expressed in the survey about solving the trust and perception concerns of the companies in accommodating the latest preference of employees for style of work has received more than 91%?

(a)   investing in technology

(b)   Providing guidelines on how to manage working from anywhere

(c)   Ensuring the same policies are applied to everyone regardless of seniority

(d)  Both ‘a’ and ‘c’

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (a)

76. Which of the following options has a meaning which is SIMILAR to the word ‘Fostering’?

(a)   Asserting

(b)   Focusing

(c)   Collaborating

(d)  Encouraging

(e)   Admitting

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 77-81) Rearrangement the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

(A) Crucially, this loss of sheen is reflected in the account books of the sport’s controversial administrator, among the richest in the world.

(B) The total income that was distributed by BCCI among players is reduced because of lower income form media rights.

(C) Television viewership for the game has dropped 40% to a weekly 61 gross rating points (GRPs).

(D) A Board of Control for Cricket in India official said, however, that this was because India wasn’t playing enough at home.

(E) Cricket seems to be losing its crowd-pulling power.

77. Which of the following is the FOURTH sentence of the final sequence?

(a)   A

(b)   D

(c)   E

(d)  B

(e)   C

Answer: (d)

78. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence of the final sequence?

(a)   E

(b)   C

(c)   D

(d)  A

(e)   B

Answer: (a)

79. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence of the final sequence?

(a)   E

(b)   A

(c)   C

(d)  D

(e)   B

Answer: (c)

80. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence of the final sequence?

(a)   E

(b)   A

(c)   D

(d)  C

(e)   B

Answer: (b)

81. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence of the final sequence?

(a)   C

(b)   A

(c)   E

(d)  D

(e)   B

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 82-85) In the following questions, a sentence is given consisting four highlighted words. Choose the option reflecting the word which is either miss-spelt or grammatically incorrect. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose option i.e., ‘no error’ as your answer choice.

82. Making the request for a non-smoking room seemed reasonable for everyone since the woman was allergic to smoke.

(a)   Making

(b)   Request

(c)   Resonable

(d)  Allergic

(e)   No error

Answer: (c)

83. When we are involved in large-scale projects, we must make judgements on an individual basis about whether they are good or bad.

(a)   involved

(b)   judgements

(c)   individuals

(d)  basis

(e)   No error

Answer: (b)

84. Several experiment were tried, to determine positively whether or not she had any perception of sound.

(a)   experiments

(b)   determine

(c)   whether

(d)  perception

(e)   No errror

Answer: (a)

85. When the man gave the terrific persuasive speech at the conference, the observers applaud with gusto by putting their hands together.

(a)   terrific

(b)   conference

(c)   applaud

(d)  putting

(e)   No error

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) In the following questions two columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. It first column, sentences/phrase are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Choose the correct combination of parts that make a meaningful sentence.

86. 

(a)   C-F, A-D and A-E

(b)   B-E

(c)   A-F

(d)  A-D and C-E

(e)   A-F and B-E

Answer: (c)

87. 

(a)   C-E, A-D & A-F

(b)   B-D

(c)   A-F

(d)  B-E and C-D

(e)   B-D

Answer: (c)

88. 

(a)   C-F

(b)   C-E and B-F

(c)   A-E

(d)  C-F and A-E

(e)   B-F, B-E and A-D

Answer: (d)

89. 

(a)   C-D, A-F & B-D

(b)   B-F

(c)   A-D

(d)  C-E & B-D

(e)   B-E

Answer: (c)

90. 

(a)   A-D, B-E & B-D

(b)   B-E and C-D

(c)   A-F

(d)  B-F and C-E

(e)   C-E

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Given below are sentences consisting a blank in each. Identify the most suitable alternative among the five given that fits into the blank to make the sentence logical and meaningful.

91. In …. To picking up milk from the grocery store, we also need to get some bread, because my cousin ate all of it this past week.

(a)   further

(b)   addition

(c)   computation

(d)  aftermath

(e)   besides

Answer: (b)

92. He ……… on things being done in the most efficient way and he usually does them that way himself.

(a)   requesting

(b)   conserves

(c)   urge

(d)  insists

(e)   discourages

Answer: (d)

93. If the quality of your product meets with our customer’s approval, we will place ……. Orders.

(a)   interrupted

(b)   reduced

(c)   regular

(d)  choice

(e)   conditional

Answer: (c)

94. Tom seems to be unwilling to believe that Mary was the one who ……… his credit cards.

(a)   stole

(b)   run

(c)   accept

(d)  delivery

(e)   checking

Answer: (a)

95. The circular will guide the regional investment …. And budgeting processes for F Y 2020 Budget.

(a)   programming

(b)   scheduled

(c)   arrange

(d)  planned

(e)   records

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) The following questions consist of a sentence with a highlighted phrase which may or may not be grammatically or contextually correct. Choose the most suitable option that will replace the incorrect highlighted phrase to form a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence. If the given highlighted Phrase is correct, choose option (e) i.e. ‘no replacement required’ as your answer choice.

96. India has suffered from terrorism. So has Pakistan. And it turns out, now the first world too is not immune.

(a)   turning out to

(b)   it turns to

(c)   it turned out to be

(d)  it turning out

(e)   No replacement required

Answer: (e)

97. The advocate declared in the court that his client has prepared to

(a)   was prepared to

(b)   has been preparing for

(c)   was prepared at

(d)  has prepared for

(e)   No correction required

Answer: (a)

98. Any step that the Prime Minister takes to remove violence in the country will be appreciate.

(a)   will appreciated

(b)   will have appreciated

(c)   was appreciating

(d)  will be appreciated

(e)   were appreciating

Answer: (d)

99. If this is freedom of speech, then it must been curtailed

(a)   have being curtailing

(b)   must be curtailed

(c)   must have been curtailed

(d)  have been curtailed

(e)   No correction required

Answer: (b)

100. When the police started asking questions, the suspect clammed up.

(a)   camped down

(b)   clamped up

(c)   clam out

(d)  clamed off

(e)   No correction Required

Answer: (e)

IBPS PO-MT (Pre.) Examination Held on October 13, 2018 Question Paper With Answer Key

IBPS PO-MT (Pre.) Examination Held on October 13, 2018

Part 1 General English

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-6) Read the passage carefully then answer the questions given below.

People have long circulated news via word-of-mouth and as language evolved into writing and literacy-and governments played larger roles in people’s lives-sharing information became a necessity. However, disseminating news and information on paper presented significant challenges. When each copy had to be handwritten, mass distribution was impossible. They were first chiseled in stone or metal; later, they were handwritten and distributed in public forums or read from scrolls by town criers. Though both ancient Romans and Chinese-as well as other ancient civilizations-had early forms of news media, they do not qualify as newspapers because they could not be mass-distributed.

The first true newspapers arrived after Johannes Gutenberg introduced his movable type printing press to the European word around 1440. Though printing presses with movable type had existed in eastern Asia for around two centuries, they never made it to Europe; furthermore, Gutenberg’s version made it significantly faster to mass produce documents. By 1500, the printing press had made its way throughout Europe and news sheets (or news books) were mass-distributed.

The first weekly newspaper was published in Germany by Johann Carolus in 1604. Called Relation aller Furnemmen and gedenckwurdigen Historien, the publication satisfied the four tenets of a ‘true newspaper : Accessibility by the public, Published at a regular interval (daily, weekly, monthly etc.) Information is current, Covers a variety of topics (politics, events, entertainment, sports, etc.) Despite meeting the requirements for a newspaper, there is some debate as to whether the relation qualifies as the world’s first newspapers since it was printed in quarto, not folio, size. It’s worth noting the World Association of Newspapers consider the relation the first true newspaper’.

Other German newspapers followed and in 1618 the world’s first broadsheet newspaper printed in folio size was published in Amsterdam, called Courante uyt Italien, Duytslandt, &c. The newspaper format soon spread throughout Europe, with newspapers published in Spain, France and Sweden. The first English newspaper was published in 1665 in Oxford, England. Known as the Oxford Gazette, the newspaper moved to London in 1666 and was renamed the London Gazette. It’s still being published Gazette. It’s still being published today. Soon after, the newspaper became a staple in all major European countries. It then made its way to the New World.

1. Which of the following options is satisfying the condition for being a tenant of a ‘true newspaper’?

(a)   A newspaper which is accessible to only Asian readers.

(b)   A newspaper which was published once in a month

(c)   A newspaper which was printed in quarto, not folio, size.

(d)  A newspaper which covers historic developments leading to various events.

(e)   A newspaper which is printed in press and is not handwritten.

Answer: (b)

2. Which of the following options is false according to the passage?

(a)   The relation was not the first newspaper as it did not meet all the required conditions.

(b)   Information on paper was only possible after the introduction of press.

(c)   The concept of newspaper was rejected in Europe earlier.

(d)  London Gazette in the first newspaper to be published in the multiple languages.

(e)   All are incorrect.

Answer: (e)

3. What paved the way for the ‘true newspapers’

(a)   The world’s first broadsheet newspaper printed in folio size

(b)   The invention of the printing press paved the way for ‘true’ newspapers.

(c)   The technology which allowed it to be printed in multiple languages.

(d)  As the governments started playing a larger role in people’s lives.

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (b)

4. Which of the following statements is true regarding newspapers?

(a)   The first weekly newspapers was published in Germany by Johann Carolus in 1904.

(b)   The Relation qualifies as the world’s first newspaper since it was printed in folio, not quarto.

(c)   The first English newspaper was published in 1695 in Oxford, England known as the Oxford Gazette.

(d)  The world’s first broadsheet newspaper printed in quarto size was published in Amsterdam, called Courante uyt Italien, Duytslandt, &c.

(e)   The first English newspaper known as the Oxford Gazette, was renamed the London Gazette later.

Answer: (e)

5. Choose the word which is most nearly the SIMILAR in meaning to the word ‘Disseminating’ printed in bold as used in the passage.

(a)   Agree

(b)   Taunt

(c)   Barb

(d)  Sneer

(e)   Spread

Answer: (e)

6. In ancient time what was the biggest challenge that the people had to face while circulating the news?

(a)   The biggest challenge was of printing the news on a paper.

(b)   Earlier each copy had to be handwritten; mass distribution was next to impossible.

(c)   It was a herculean task for the editors to get an affirmation by government for printing the news.

(d)  Both ‘a’ and ‘c’

(e)   All are incorrect.

Answer: (b)

7. Economist Deena Khatkhate, who will pass away at the age of 92 on September 15 in Bethesda, Maryland, in the US, was an unusual man.

(i) who passed away

(ii) who shall passed away

(iii) who was passed away

(a)   Only (ii)

(b)   (i) and (iii)

(c)   (ii) and (iii)

(d)  Only (iii)

(e)   No correction is required

Answer: (b)

8. A misogynist is a person who is hating women

(i) Who are hating

(ii) Who have hate

(iii) Who hates

(a)   (i) and (iii)

(b)   Only (i)

(c)   (ii) and (iii)

(d)  Only (iii)

(e)   No correction is required.

Answer: (d)

9. Samira is the better of the two girls when it comes to solving hard mathematics problems.

(i) is the better of two girls

(ii) is better of the two girls

(iii) is better of two girls

(a)   Only (i)

(b)   Only (ii)

(c)   (ii) and (iii)

(d)  (i) and (iii)

(e)   No correction is required.

Answer: (e)

10. There are two novels on the table which needs to be read before the exams, but neither one are interesting.

(i) neither one has interested

(ii) neither one is interesting

(iii) neither one were interesting

(a)   Only (i)

(b)   (i) and (ii)

(c)   Only (ii)

(d)  (i) and (iii)

(e)   No correction is required

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-16) Each question below has one blank, which is indicating that something has been omitted. Find out which option can be  used to fill up the blank in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.

11. Homemade gifts can be completely ………. To what the recipient likes?

(a)   alters

(b)   firmed

(c)   tailored

(d)  polite

(e)   liability

Answer: (c)

12. After much thought, Ted …………. not to travel abroad this summer.

(a)   resolved

(b)   concludes

(c)   resolves

(d)  commence

(e)   passed

Answer: (a)

13. Bryan is ……. in this belief that the Earth is flat.

(a)   tentative

(b)   hasten

(c)   unlikely

(d)  provided

(e)   confident

Answer: (e)

14. The noodle maker was ………….. in making his noodles and would never let another person take over the task.

(a)   Careless

(b)   Negligent

(c)   Cautious

(d)  Exciting

(e)   Inattentive

Answer: (c)

15. If it weren’t for the ………… circumstances, he would have certainly lost his job.

(a)   sharp

(b)   intensify

(c)   mitigating

(d)  increase

(e)   aggravate

Answer: (c)

16. When asked about her father, she lost her outward enthusiasm and became rather ………. .

(a)   reserved

(b)   expansive

(c)   talkative

(d)  extrovert

(e)   outgoing

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 17-20) In each of the questions given below four words are given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. It the sentence is correct as it then select option (e) as your choice.

17. Some American officials lead (A) to hope that resumed (B) sanctions on Iron will appear (C) to a popular uprising (D).

(a)   A-B

(b)   A-C

(c)   B-D and A-C

(d)  A-D

(e)   The sentence is correct.

Answer: (b)

18. Tariffs (A) has imported (B) higher China (C) on 603 items imposed (D) from the US.

(a)   Only A-B

(b)   Only B-C

(c)   A-B and B-D

(d)  A-C and B-D

(e)   The sentence is correct

Answer: (d)

19. NATO ally world (A) leads the Turkey (B) in the journalists (C) of number (D) jailed.

(a)   A-B and C-D

(b)   Only B-C

(c)   A-C and B-D

(d)  Only A-D

(e)   The sentence is correct.

Answer: (a)

20. In 2016, rising (A) violence in Pathankot (B) by Islamic militants culminated (C) in attacks on Indian forces at Uri and Kashmir (D).

(a)   A-C and B-D

(b)   A-D and B-C

(c)   Only B-D

(d)  Only C-D

(e)   The sentence is correct

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-24) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

21. She held something (a)/ at her side which (b)/ was totally hiding (c)/ by the folds of her Sari. (d)/ No error (e)

Answer: ()

22. The father forbade his son (a)/ to walk in the Sun (b)/ and play with (c)/ hiss friends on the road. (d)/ No error (e)

Answer: (e)

23. The movement, which aims to (a)/ raise awareness about climate change, hopes  (b)/ to bring people together to think about (c)/ what they can do for reduce harmful pollution? (d)/ No error (e)

Answer: (d)

24. I declined the invitation (a)/ not because I did not (b)/ want to go but (c)/ because I have no time. (d)/ No error (e)

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 25-30) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Stanford economist Nicholas Bloom is a true believer and like many true believers, he lets his message (25) his evidence. Based on a single study of a Chinese travel agency, he (26) declares working from home a ‘future-looking technology’ with ‘enormous potential.’ Not so fast.

Bloom’s study comes with serious limitations and is contradicted by a later Gallup report. However, while it is far too soon to draw broad (27) from his findings, savvy business leaders can read between the lines and extract some valuable lessons for working (28) with all employees. Bloom (29) on China’s biggest travel agency, Ctrip, which wanted to expand while controlling office space costs. They (30) a remote work trail, expecting that production would slip a title, but not enough to cancel out the savings. Instead, productivity shot up 13% and attrition dropped 50%. When the work from home option was rolled out to the entire company and employees were given a choice, the productivity gains were 22%.

25.

(a)   cut

(b)   outrun

(c)   exceeded

(d)  begin

(e)   choose

Answer: (b)

26.

(a)   fast

(b)   enthusiastically

(c)   slowly

(d)  eager

(e)   appropriately

Answer: (b)

27.

(a)   resulting

(b)   disappointments

(c)   conclusions

(d)  exercises

(e)   guarantees

Answer: (c)

28.

(a)   optimally

(b)   extremely

(c)   competitively

(d)  abroad

(e)   everywhere

Answer: (a)

29.

(a)   emphasising

(b)   concentrates

(c)   learned

(d)  matched

(e)   focused

Answer: (e)

30.

(a)   establishes

(b)   appointed

(c)   brought

(d)  instituted

(e)   sold

Answer: (d)

Part 2 Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Nine boxes named P, Q, R, S, T, U, V W and X are placed one above other, but not necessarily in the same order. Only five boxes are placed between P and R. T is placed immediate above R. Only three boxes are placed between T and S. As many boxes placed between P and S as between Q and T. U is placed below Q, but not at bottom. More than four boxes are placed between T and U. One box is placed between U and V. Box X is placed above box W.

31. Which box is placed at bottom?

(a)   P

(b)   S

(c)   T

(d)  X

(e)   V

Answer: (e)

32. How many boxes are placed between X and P?

(a)   One

(b)   Two

(c)   Three

(d)  Four

(e)   More than four

Answer: (d)

33. If in a certain way S is related to X and P is related to W then by which among the following Q is related?

(a)   P

(b)   V

(c)   R

(d)  T

(e)   S

Answer: (c)

34. Which box is placed immediate below Q?

(a)   R and W

(b)   X and U

(c)   U and S

(d)  S and X

(e)   T and R

Answer: (d)

35. What is the position of W?

(a)   Fourth from the top

(b)   Fifth from the top

(c)   Third from the bottom

(d)  Sixth from the bottom

(e)   Forth from the bottom

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) Study the information and answer the following questions.

In a certain code language

Get details for venue ……….. fe wi mo rs

Venue book required details … rs gt rd wi

Details required book guest … wig t rd ra

Guest get  more venue … ra fe gk rs

36. What is the code for ‘details’ in the given code language?

(a)   fe

(b)   mo

(c)   wi

(d)  ra

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

37. What is the code for the word ‘guest venue’ in the give code language?

(a)   gt gk

(b)   fe mo

(c)   rs ra

(d)  gt ra

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

38. What is the code for the word ‘get’ in the given code language?

(a)   gt

(b)   fe

(c)   rs

(d)  rd

(e)   None of these

Answer: (b)

39. If the code for the words ‘for …’ is coded as ‘mo gk’ in the coded language then what will be the missing word?

(a)   book

(b)   required

(c)   guest

(d)  more

(e)   Either ‘a’ of or ‘d’

Answer: (d)

40. What is the code for ‘book’ in the given code language?

(a)   rs

(b)   gt

(c)   rd

(d)  kl

(e)   Either ‘b’ or ‘c’

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-45) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends A, B, C, D W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while the other four sit in the middle of each sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face outside while those who sit in the middle of the sides face inside.

C is an immediate neighbor of A, who faces centre. W sits second to the left of C. Y sits fourth to the left of W. Two persons sit between Y and D (either from left or right). C is not an immediate neighbor of D. B sits second to the right of D. X sits second to the right of B.

41. How many persons sits between Z and C when counted from left of Z?

(a)   None

(b)   One

(c)   Two

(d)  Three

(e)   More than three

Answer: (d)

42. What is the position of Y with respect to D?

(a)   Third to the right

(b)   Second to the right

(c)   Fourth to the left

(d)  Third to the left

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (a)

43. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?

(a)   Z

(b)   W

(c)   D

(d)  C

(e)   Y

Answer: (c)

44. Who sits second to the right of A?

(a)   B

(b)   X

(c)   Y

(d)  D

(e)   None of these

Answer: (d)

45. Who among the following sits between B and C, when counted from the right of B?

(a)   Y and Z

(b)   W and D

(c)   X and Y

(d)  A and W

(e)   A and D

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Given answer.

46. Statements

L ≤ T ≤ I ≥ M < X,

W < P ≤ L ≥ B ≥ K

Conclusions I. K < X II. W > M

(a)   if only conclusion II is true

(b)   if only conclusion I is true

(c)   if neither conclusion I nor II is true

(d)  if either conclusion I or II is true

(e)   if both conclusions I and Ii are true

Answer: (c)

47. Statements Z < U ≤ D ≤ A ≤ M < S, Q > A ≤ Y < G

Conclusions I. Z < Y    II. S > Q

(a)   if both conclusion I and II are true

(b)   if only conclusion I is true

(c)   if neither conclusion I nor II is true

(d)  if either conclusion I or II is true

(e)   if only conclusion II is true

Answer: (b)

48. Statements L ≤ T ≤ I ≥ M < X, W < P ≤ I ≥ B ≥ K

Conclusions I. K ≥ M II. P > M

(a)   if only conclusion II is true

(b)   if either conclusion I or II is true

(c)   if neither conclusion I nor II is true

(d)  if only conclusion I is true

(e)   if both conclusions I and II are true

Answer: (c)

49. Statements Z < U ≤ D ≤ A ≤ M < S, Q > A ≤ Y < G

Conclusions I. M ≥ U II. G > Z

(a)   if only conclusion II is true

(b)   if only conclusion I is true

(c)   if neither conclusion I nor II is true

(d)  if either conclusion I or II is true

(e)   if both conclusions I and II are true

Answer: (e)

50. Statements

J > K ≥ H = U ≥ B ≤ T < F ≤ R

Conclusions I. J > B     II. H < R

(a)   if only conclusion II is true

(b)   if either conclusion I or II is true

(c)   if neither conclusion I nor II is true

(d)  if only conclusion I is true

(e)   if both conclusions I and II are true

Answer: (d)

51. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘Streaming’ having same number of letters between them as they have between them according to the alphabetical order.

(a)   Two

(b)   More than Three

(c)   Three

(d)  One

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

52. Find the old one out?

(a)   JQK

(b)   BYC

(c)   LRM

(d)  CXD

(e)   OPX

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-55) Study the information and answer the following questions.

D is 20m in South of A. C is 5m East off D. E is 10m North of C. F is 10 m East of E. G is 15 m South of F. X is 15 m West of G. B is 10 m to the East of A. Z is 10 m to the South of B. L is 10 m to East of C.

53. In which direction is point A with respect to point G?

(a)   North-West

(b)   South-East

(c)   North

(d)  South-West

(e)   North-East

Answer: (a)

54. Four of the following are alike in a certain way so form a group, which of the following does not belong to that group?

(a)   EF

(b)   EC

(c)   LG

(d)  BZ

(e)   CL

Answer: (c)

55. What is the distance between point F and L?

(a)   10 m

(b)   5 m

(c)   15 m

(d)  20 m

(e)   25 m

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) Study the information and answer the following questions.

Eight persons K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R sitting in a row. Some of them are facing North while some are facing South. N sits fifth to the right of M, but none of them sits at an extreme end. Q sits third of N. L sits second to the right of Q. Only one person sit between L and P. R sits third to the left of P. K sits second to the left of O. Both the person sitting at extreme ends faces opposite direction to each other. Both the immediate neighbors of M faces same direction. R sits to the left of l and both of them are facing opposite direction to each other. R does not face North direction.

56. Who among the following sits third to the right of R?

(a)   Q

(b)   K

(c)   M

(d)  N

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

57. Which among the following pair sits at the end of the row?

(a)   Q, L

(b)   R, K

(c)   O, P

(d)  L , R

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

58. How many persons sits to the right of K?

(a)   Two

(b)   More than three

(c)   Three

(d)  One

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

59. Who among the following sits second to the right of Q?

(a)   L

(b)   N

(c)   M

(d)  O

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

60. Four of the following are alike in a certain way so form a group, which of the following does not belong to that group?

(a)   K

(b)   N

(c)   R

(d)  O

(e)   P

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Seven persons E, F, G, H, S, T and U buys seven different items viz. Tie, Coat, Ring, Nail paint, Shirt, Diary and Goggles on different days. One person buys one item in a day.

Four person buys items between E and the one who buys Tie. The one who buys coat buys immediately after the one who buys Tie. Two persons buys items between H and the one who buys Tie. T buys between the one who buys coat and the one who buys Shirt. S buys. Goggles was bought immediately after E. Two person buys item between the one who buys Ring and the one who buys Diary. U buys his item before G.

61. Who among the following buys Nail paint?

(a)   U

(b)   G

(c)   H

(d)  T

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

62. Which item was bought Immediately after shirt?

(a)   Diary

(b)   Goggles

(c)   Tie

(d)  Coat

(e)   None of these

Answer: (a)

63. How many persons buys items between S and F?

(a)   One

(b)   Two

(c)   Three

(d)  Four

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

64. Which of the following combination is true?

(a)   G-Tie

(b)   H-Dairy

(c)   T-Goggles

(d)  E-Dairy

(e)   None is true

Answer: (d)

65. Who among the following buys item immediately before Ring?

(a)   U

(b)   G

(c)   H

(d)  T

(e)   None of these

Answer: (b)

Part 3 Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Line chart given below shows number of labors (men and women) working in six different years. Study the data carefully and answer the following questions.

66. Total number of Men working in 2012 and 2013 together is what percent of the total number of labors (Men + Women) working in 2014?

(a)   60%

(b)   70%

(c)   80%

(d)  90%

(e)   40%

Answer: (d)

67. Average number of Women working in 2014, 2015 and 2016 together is how much more/less than average number of Men working in 2011, 2014 and 2016 together?

(a)   100

(b)   80

(c)   90

(d)  70

(e)   None of the given options

Answer: (a)

68. Number of Men working in 2017 is 15% more than that of 2015 while number of women working in 2017 is 40% less than that of 2014. Find total number of labors (Men + Women) working in 2017?

(a)   561

(b)   456

(c)   489

(d)  594

(e)   630

Answer: (c)

69. Find the ratio between total number of Labors working in 2012 and 2013 together to total number of labors working in 2015 and 2016 together?

(a)   2 : 1

(b)   1 : 2

(c)   35 : 66

(d)  11 : 10

(e)   None of the given options.

Answer: (b)

70. Total number of Men working in all six years is how much more/less than total number of women working in all six  ears together?

(a)   None of the given options

(b)   140

(c)   160

(d)  180

(e)   200

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 71-76) Find the wrong number in the following number series.

71. 4, 5.1, 7.3, 10.6, 15, 20, 27.1

(a)   5.1

(b)   4

(c)   7.3

(d)  20

(e)   27.1

Answer: (d)

72. 2, 3, 8, 31, 154, 924, 6460

(a)   924

(b)   6460

(c)   154

(d)  8

(e)   31

Answer: (a)

73. 251, 252, 254, 227, 243, 118, 154

(a)   251

(b)   252

(c)   227

(d)  243

(e)   154

Answer: (b)

74. 141, 156, 147, 162, 153, 165, 159

(a)   156

(b)   153

(c)   147

(d)  165

(e)   159

Answer: (d)

75. 2, 6, 10, 19, 36, 69, 134

(a)   134

(b)   69

(c)   6

(d)  2

(e)   10

Answer: (c)

76. 0.5, 5, 2, 1, 4, 32, 512, 16384

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   4

(d)  32

(e)   512

Answer: (b)

77. Ratio of present ages of A and B is 16 : 7. After 12 years, A’s age is twice of B’s age then find present ages of A and B?

(a)   64 yr; 28 yr

(b)   80 yr; 35 yr

(c)   102 yr; 49 yr

(d)  96  yr; 42  yr

(e)   None of the above

Answer: (d)

78. A man invested a certain sum in scheme A at 15% p.a. for 2 years and earned Rs 1950 as simple interest. He increased his sum by Rs ‘x’ and invested in another scheme B at 10% p.a. CI for 2 years and received Rs 1680 as compound interest. Find the value of ‘x’?

(a)   Rs 1750

(b)   Rs 1500

(c)   Rs 1250

(d)  None of these

(e)   Rs 1850

Answer: (b)

79. In a class there are 30 girls and 15 boys and total average weight of class is  Total average weight of boys is 58 kg. Find the approximate average weight of girls?

(a)   32 kg

(b)   42 kg

(c)   52 kg

(d)  35 kg

(e)   50 kg

Answer: (b)

80. Ram bought a bike at 20% discount on MRP. After 1 year Ram sell the bike to Ramesh at 10% loss. After 1 year more Ramesh sell the bike at 20% profit to Ranjan. If Ranjan paid Rs 129600 then find the MRP of the bike?

(a)   Rs 150000

(b)   Rs 225000

(c)   Rs 140000

(d)  Rs 200000

(e)   Rs 180000

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-85) There are 450 coupons which can be used in Pedicure and Hair cutting. Ratio between Males to Females who use their coupons in Hair cutting in 13 : 7 Number of males who use their coupons in Pedicure is 72 more than number of females who use their coupon in Hair cutting. Total number of males who use their coupon in pedicure and Hair cutting together is 174 more than total number of females who use their coupon in pedicure and Hair cutting together.

81. Males who use their coupon in pedicure is what present off the Males who use their coupons in Hair cutting?

(a)   200%

(b)   100%

(c)   None of the given options

(d)  0%

(e)   150%

Answer: (b)

82. Find the ratio between Total number persons who use their coupons in Pedicure to total number of persons who use their coupons in Hair cutting?

(a)   52 : 23

(b)   None of the given options

(c)   8 : 9

(d)  8 : 7

(e)   7 : 8

Answer: (e)

83. Female who use their coupon in Hair cutting is how much more than Females who use their coupon in Pedicure?

(a)   15

(b)   45

(c)   30

(d)  None of the given options

(e)   60

Answer: (c)

84. Out of males who use their coupons in Hair cutting, 25% belongs to city A, Then find number of males who use their coupons in Hair cutting, which doesn’t belongs to city A?

(a)    None of the given options

(b)   108

(c)   126

(d)  117

(e)   135

Answer: (d)

85. Ratio between Males who use their coupon in Pedicure to that of in Spa is 4 : 5, while ratio between Females who use their coupon in Hair cutting to that of in Spa is 6 : 11. Find total number of people who use their coupons in Spa?

(a)   349

(b)   481

(c)   300

(d)  400

(e)   None of the given options

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-91) In each of these questions, two equations (i) and (ii) are given, you have to solve both the equations and give answer accordingly.

86. (I) 2x2 + 9x + 9 = 0

(II) 15y2 + 16y + 4 = 0

(a)   x > y

(b)   x < y

(c)   x ≥ y

(d)  x ≤ y

(e)   x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

Answer: (b)

87. (I) 2x3 = √256

(II) 2y2 – 9y +10 = 0

(a)   x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

(b)   x < y

(c)   x ≤ y

(d)  x ≥ y

(e)   x > y

Answer: (c)

88. (I) 6x2 – 11x + 4 = 0

(II) 3y2 – 5y + 2 = 0

(a)   x ≤ y

(b)   x < y

(c)   x ≥ y

(d)  x > y

(e)   x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

Answer: (e)

89. (I) 3x2 + 11x = 10 = 0

(II) 2y2 + 11y + 14 = 0

(a)   x ≥ y

(b)   x ≤ y

(c)   x > y

(d)  x < y

(e)   x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

Answer: (a)

90. (I) 12x2 + 11x + 2 = 0

(II) 12y2 + 7y + 1 = 0

(a)   x ≥ y

(b)   x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

(c)   x <  y

(d)  x ≤ y

(e)   x > y

Answer: (b)

91. (I) 21x2 + 10x + 1 = 0

(II) 24y2 + 26y + 5 = 0

(a)   x ≤ y

(b)   x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

(c)   x ≥ y

(d)  x > y

(e)   x < y

Answer: (b)

92. ‘A’ can complete a work in 20 days while ‘B’ is 25% more efficient than ‘A’. ‘B’ worked for 6 days and left, remaining work is completed by ‘C’ in 15 days. Find in how many days ‘C’ can complete the whole work alone?

(a)   27 days

(b)   21 days

(c)   18 days

(d)  24 days

(e)   30 days

Answer: (d)

93. A man travels from Point P to Q with 90 km/h and from Q to R with km/h. Total distance between P to R is 200 km. If his average speed is 75 km/h then find the distance between P and Q?

(a)   80 km

(b)   120 km

(c)   100 km

(d)  150 km

(e)   None of the given options.

Answer: (b)

94. A mixture contains wine and water in the ratio 5 : 1. On adding 5 L of water, the ratio of wine to water becomes 5 : 2. The quantity of wine in the mixture is

(a)   20 L

(b)   22 L

(c)   24 L

(d)  26 L

(e)   None of these

Answer: (e)

95. The average salary of the entire staff in an office is Rs 3200 per month. The average salary of officers is Rs 6800 and that of non-officers is Rs 2000. If the number of officers is 5, then find the number of non-officers in the office?

(a)   8

(b)   12

(c)   15

(d)  5

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Given bar graph shows the number of plain books and lined books (in hundreds) available at three different stores and the table shows the percentage of total books (Plain + lined) that was sold by different stores.

96. The number of plain books sold by store A and store B was 30% and 40% respectively then find number of line books sold by store A and store B together is what percent of total books available at store A?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  25%

(e)   None of these

Answer: (c)

97. Average of total books sold by stores B and C together is how much more than total unsold books of store A.

(a)   1125

(b)   1075

(c)   1055

(d)  1175

(e)   1225

Answer: (c)

98. Ratio of sold plain and lined books for store C is 5 : 4 and for store B is 3 : 2. Then find the total plain books sold by these two stores together?

(a)   1750

(b)   1825

(c)   1850

(d)  1950

(e)   1975

Answer: (d)

99. Unsold books of store A is approximately is what percent more or less than total unsold books of store B and C together.

(a)   48%

(b)   54%

(c)   59%

(d)  52%

(e)   57%

Answer: (b)

100. Selling price of each plain books and lined books sold by store B is Rs 250 and Rs 175 respectively. Then, find the total amount earned by store B on selling these books if 60% of lined books are sold by the store?

(a)   Rs 2.5 lakh

(b)   Rs 3.6 lakh

(c)   Rs 3.5 lakh

(d)  Rs 3.8 lakh

(e)   Rs 4.1 lakh

Answer: (e)

State Bank of India Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination-2019 Held on 19-06-2019 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key

State Bank of India Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination-2019 Held on 19-06-2019

Reasoning

   Directions-(Q. 1-4) In these questions, relationships between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

1. Statements : A ≥ B > C = D ≤ E; S ≥ U = D ≤ M

Conclusions: (I) M ≤ A

(II) S > E

(A)  Both the Conclusions I and II are true

(B)  Neither Conclusion I nor II is true

(C)  Only Conclusion I is true

(D)  Only Conclusion II is true

(E)   Either Conclusion I or II is true

Answer: (B)

2. Statements : S < M ≤ N = T ≥ P; K ≥ N = R > Q

Conclusions: (I) P < Q

(II) K > S

(A)  Both the Conclusions I and II are true

(B)  Neither Conclusion I nor II is true

(C)  Only Conclusion I is true

(D)  Only Conclusion II is true

(E)   Either Conclusion I or II is true

Answer: (D)

3. Statements : R = A ≥ N = K; O ≥ N = M ≥ U = Y

Conclusions: (I) R = Y

(II) Y < R

(A)  Both the Conclusions I and II are true

(B)  Neither Conclusion I nor II is true

(C)  Only Conclusion I is true

(D)  Only Conclusion II is true

(E)   Either conclusion I or II is true

Answer: (E)

4. Statements : J < K > L ≥ M > N; X > L ≥ Z = T

Conclusions: (I) N < T.

(II) X > J

(A)  Both the Conclusions I and II are true

(B)  Neither Conclusion I nor II is true

(C)  Only Conclusion I is true

(D)  Only Conclusion II is true 

(E)   Either Conclusion I or II is true

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 5-9) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions-

   Eight people were born in eight different months of the same year- January, February, April, June, August, September, October and December. It is assumed that no one other than the given people was born in given year.

   M was born in a month having only 30 days. Only two people were born between M and P . P was born in one of the months before M. K was born immediately after P. Only three people were born between K and L. As many people were born after L as before O. Only one person was born between O and J. More than only three people were born between J and N.

5. In which month was J born?

(A)  June

(B)  April

(C)  October

(D)  December

(E)   September

Answer: (E)

6. As per the given arrangement, as many people were born before K as after…….. .

(A)  K

(B)  O

(C)  N

(D)  M

(E)   P

Answer: (E)

7. Who amongst the following was born in June?

(A)  L

(B)  O

(C)  K

(D)  P

(E)   M

Answer: (D)

8. Which of the following is not true with respect to the given arrangement?

(i) Q was born in April.

(ii) J was born immediately before L.

(iii) Only one person was born between O and P.

(A)  All the given statements are true

(B)  Both (ii) and (iii)

(C)  Only (ii)

(D)  Both (i) and (iii)

(E)   Only (i)

Answer: (B)

9. How many people were born after O?

(A)  Two

(B)  One

(C)  Three

(D)  More than three

(E)   None

Answer: (E)

10. What will come in place of question-mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order and numbers?

YC-12, VF-16, SI-21, PL-27, (?), JR-42.

(A)  MN-34

(B)  OR-33

(C)  MO-32

(D)  NP-32

(E)   MO-34

Answer: (E)

11. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 74925816 each of which has as many digits between them in the number (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in arithmetic numerals?

(A)  One

(B)  Two

(C)  Four

(D)  Three

(E)   More than three

Answer: (E)

   Directions-(Q. 12-16) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions-

   Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, B, C, D, E F and G are seated and all of them are facing north. In row-2, P, Q, R, S, T and U are seated and all of them are facing south. Therefore in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

   R sits fourth to the right of T. Only one person sits between F and the person facing R. Only two people sit between F and G. As many people sit to the right of G as to the left of P. Only one person sits between P and U. U faces an immediate neighbor of B. E sits second to the left of C. As many people sit between E and F as between T and Q.

12. Who amongst the following faces D?

(A)  The one who sits to the immediate left of Q

(B)  P

(C)  U

(D)  S

(E)   The one who sits second to the right of R

Answer: (A)

13. How many people sit between S and the one who faces B?

(A)  Three

(B)  More than three

(C)  One

(D)  Two

(E)   None

Answer: (C)

14. Which of the following Statements is true as per the given arrangement?

(A)  Non one sits between R and S

(B)  Only three people sit between D and B

(C)  G faces an immediate neighbor of U

(D)  C is an immediate neighbor of B

(E)   None of the given statements is true

Answer: (B)

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the give arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(A)  D

(B)  F

(C)  G

(D)  P

(E)   T

Answer: (B)

16. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of G?

(A)  The one who faces Q

(B)  B

(C)  D

(D)  The one who faces R

(E)   E

Answer: (E)

   Directions-(Q. 17-21) Read the given information to answer the given questions-

   Six people are sitting around a circular table facing the centre with equal distance between adjacent persons. Each of them is pursuing a different course.

   A suits second to the left of the one who is pursuing B. Tech. Only two people sit between the one who is pursuing B.Sc. and the one who is pursuing M. Arch. B sits second to the left of the one who is pursuing M. Arch. Only one person sits between B and D (either from left or right). Only two people sit between D and F. The one who is pursuing B. Pharma sits second to the right of F. E sits second to the left of C. E is not an immediate neighbor of A. The one who is pursuing MBA sits to the immediate right of the one who is pursuing M. Com.

17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?

(A)  B. Tech-D

(B)  A-D

(C)  C-B.Sc.

(D)  B.Tech.-M.Com.

(E)   E-F

Answer: (D)

18. What is the position of C with respect to the one who is pursuing MBA?

(A)  Second to the right

(B)  Immediate right

(C)  Second to the left

(D)  Immediate left

(E)   Third to the right

Answer: (D)

19. Which of the following is true as per the given information?

(A)  None of the given statements is true

(B)  Only one persons sits between E and A

(C)  The one who is pursuing B.Sc. is an immediate neighbor of D

(D)  The one who is pursuing B. Tech. sits second to the left of E

(E)   A is pursuing MBA

Answer: (E)

20. Who amongst the following is pursuing M. Com.?

(A)  The one who sits second to the right of the one who is pursuing M. Arch.

(B)  the one who sits to the immediate left of A

(C)  An immediate neighbor of B

(D)  B

(E)   E

Answer: (B)

21. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbors of the one who is pursing B. Pharma?

(A)  B and the one who is pursuing M. Arch.

(B)  D and C

(C)  The one who is pursuing B. Tech. and C

(D)  D and the one who is pursuing MBA

(E)   B and C

Answer: (A)

22. In a certain code language, FORTUNE is coded as SPGVFOV and JOURNAL is coded as VPKTMBO. How is PROFILE coded in the same code language?

(A)  PQQGDKH

(B)  PSQHFMJ

(C)  PSQDEMJ

(D)  NQOHFMJ

(E)   NQOHDKH

Answer: (B)

23. Statements : All marks are signs. All potatoes are signs. All readers are signs.

Conclusions:

(I) All marks being potatoes is possibility.

(II) Atleast some readers are marks.

(A)  Either the Conclusion I or II follows

(B)  Both the Conclusions I and II follow

(C)  Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

(D)  Only Conclusion I follows

(E)   Only Conclusion II follows

Answer: (D)

24. Statement : No potato is a radish. Only a few coconuts are potatoes. Only a few basils are radishes.

Conclusions:

(I) All basils can never be potatoes.

(II) Some radishes are definitely not coconuts.

(A)  Either Conclusion I or II follows

(B)  Both the Conclusions I and II follow

(C)  Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

(D)  Only Conclusion I follows

(E)   Only Conclusion II follows

Answer: (D)

25. Statements : No fruit is a cottage. Only a few fruits are toasts. All plums are cottages.

Conclusions:

(I) All toasts being cottages is possibility.

(II) Some plums are fruits.

(A)  Either Conclusion I or II follows

(B)  Both the Conclusions I and II follow

(C)  Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

(D)  Only Conclusion I follows

(E)   Only Conclusion II follows

Answer: (C)

26. Statement : Only a few meeting are luxuries. All posters are meetings. No test is a luxury.

Conclusions:

(I) All luxuries can never be posters.

(II) All tests being meetings is a possibility.

(A)  Either Conclusion I or II follows

(B)  Both the Conclusions I and II follow

(C)  Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

(D)  Only Conclusion I follows

(E)   Only Conclusion II follows

Answer: (E)

   Directions-(Q. 27-29) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions-

   U is the daughter-in-law of J. J is the father of only L and P. R is the niece of P. P’s spouse has no sibling. M is the grandfather of R. T is the only child of M.

27. How is U related to R?

(A)  Mother

(B)  Sister-in-law

(C)  Sister

(D)  Mother-in-law

(E)   Aunt

Answer: (E)

28. If J has only one son, then how is T related to L?

(A)  Husband

(B)  Wife

(C)  Brother-in-law

(D)  Brother

(E)   Sister-in-law          

Answer: (A)

29. How is J related to T?

(A)  Brother

(B)  Father-in-law

(C)  Uncle

(D)  Grandfather

(E)   Grandson

Answer: (B)

30. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word using the first, the fifth, the sixth and the eighth letters (when counted from left to right) of the word FLOATING (using each letter only once), which of the following will be the second letter of the word so formed from the right end? If no such word can be formed give X as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed give Z as your answers.

(A)  X

(B)  T

(C)  I

(D)  Z

(E)   F

Answer: (E)

   Directions-(Q. 31-35) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions-

   Ten boxes-A, B, C, D, E, P, Q, R, S and T are kept one above the other in a stack. Only four boxes are kept between box A and box P. Box B is kept immediately below box P. Only three boxes are kept between box B and box R. Only five boxes are kept between box R and box D. Only four boxes are kept between box D and box S. Only three boxes are kept between box S and box T. Box T is kept at one of the positions below box S. Only one box is kept between box T and box E. Box Q is kept at one of the positions above box C but below box A.

31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and thus form a group. Identify the one which does not belong to the group-

(A)  R-B

(B)  A-C

(C)  D-Q

(D)  C-D

(E)   P-E

Answer: (C)

32. As per the given arrangement, how many boxes are kept between box A and box Q?

(A)  One

(B)  More than three

(C)  None

(D)  Two

(E)   Three

Answer: (C)

33. Which of the following statements is True based on the given information?

(A)  As many boxes are kept below box T as above box B

(B)  Box A is kept at the bottom of the stack

(C)  No box is kept between box Q and box R

(D)  Only two boxes are kept above box S

(E)   None of the given statements is true

Answer: (C)

34. As per the given arrangement, which box is kept immediately below box S?

(A)  R

(B)  C

(C)  D

(D)  P

(E)   A

Answer: (B)

35. As per the above arrangement, as many boxes are kept above box E as below box ………. .

(A)  R

(B)  P

(C)  S

(D)  Q

(E)   A

Answer: (E)

State Bank of India Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination-2019 Held on 19-06-2019 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

State Bank of India Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination-2019 Held on 19-06-2019

Quantitative Aptitude

1. A started a business with an investment of Rs 4,000. Four months from the start of the business, B joined with Rs 4,800 and two months after B’s joining, C joined with Rs X. If out of total annual profit of Rs 10,400, C’s share was Rs 3,200, what was the value of X?

(A)  Rs 7,200

(B)  Rs 8,000

(C)  Rs  4,800

(D)  Rs 6,400

(E)   Rs 5,600

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 2-6) Study the following data to answer the given questions-

   An amusement park offers different discounts on various entry passes. The discount offered (on the actual price for the number of days) for 2 days, 3 days, 5 days and 10 days entry pass is 5%, 10% Y% and 20% respectively. The total amount paid for one 1 day pass and 2 days pass was Rs 3,480.

   Note: The price is inclusive of taxes. No discount was offered on 1 day entry pass.

2. If the difference between the total amount paid for five 1 day passes and that paid for one 5 day pas was Rs 720, what was the value of Y?

(A)  14

(B)  15

(C)  12

(D)  18

(E)   16

Answer: (C)

3. Sucheta bought one 2 days pass and two 3 days passes. What was the total amount paid by Ms. Sucheta?

(A)  Rs 8,640

(B)  Rs 8,760

(C)  Rs 8,860

(D)  Rs 8,520

(E)   Rs 8,940

Answer: (B)

4. Bhulelal purchased two 10 days passes and got an additional discount of 5% on the total bill amount. What was the amount paid by Mr. Bhulelal?

(A)  Rs 18,620

(B)  Rs 18,430

(C)  Rs 18,810

(D)  Rs 18,050

(E)   Rs 18,240

Answer: (E)

5. What is the difference between the discount offered (in Rs) on one 2 days entry pass and that offered on one 3 days entry pass?

(A)  Rs 160

(B)  Rs 240

(C)  Rs 200

(D)  Rs 250

(E)   Rs 300

Answer: (B)

6. What is the price of one 1 day pass?

(A)  Rs 800

(B)  Rs 1,000

(C)  Rs 600

(D)  Rs 1,500

(E)   Rs 1,200

Answer: (E)

   Directions-(Q. 7-11) In this question, a number series is given. Only one number is wrong which doesn’t fit in the series. Find out the wrong number?

7. 50 59  41  68   33  77 23

(A)  77

(B)  68

(C)  41

(D)  33

(E)   59

Answer: (D)

8. 2 3  4  12  48  240  1440

(A)  12

(B)  4

(C)  48

(D)  3

(E)   240

Answer: (D)

9. 200 197  186  168  144  118  82

(A)  186

(B)  168

(C)  197

(D)  144

(E)   118

Answer: (E)

10. 9 5  6  5  23  90  183

(A)  23

(B)  5

(C)  90

(D)  6

(E)   10.5

Answer: (C)

11. 318 168  78 38  18  8  3

(A)  168

(B)  18

(C)  78

(D)  38

(E)   8

Answer: (A)

12. Four years hence A’s age will be twice of B’s age eight years hence. Six years ago. A’s age was thrice of B’s age two years ago. What is A’s present age? (in years)

(A)  48

(B)  27

(C)  36

(D)  24

(E)   30

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 13-18) Refer to the pie chart and answer the given questions-

13. The number of tickets booked for all five trains together on Tuesday increased by 24% as compared to the previous day. What was the number of tickets booked for all five trains together on Tuesday?

(A)  682

(B)  744

(C)  640

(D)  620

(E)   806

Answer: (D)

14. The number of tickets booked by male customers for Train A was 24 less than that booked for Train C. If the total number of tickets booked by female customer for Trains A and C together was 57, what was the number of ticket booked by male customers for Train C?

(A)  88

(B)  92

(C)  96

(D)  76

(E)   84

Answer: (C)

15. Out of the total number of tickets booked for Train D, 40% were booked by female customers. What is the number of tickets booked for Train D by male customers?

(A)  36

(B)  42

(C)  48

(D)  45

(E)   30

Answer: (D)

16. What is the average number of tickets booked for Trains A, B and D?

(A)  89

(B)  95

(C)  85

(D)  84

(E)   83

Answer: (C)

17. What is the central angle corresponding to the total number of tickets booked for train B? (in degrees)

(A)  43.2

(B)  50.4

(C)  58.4

(D)  64.8

(E)   57.6

Answer: (E)

18. What is the difference between the number of tickets booked for train D and that booked for train E?

(A)  50

(B)  45

(C)  40

(D)  55

(E)   35

Answer: (B)

19. Vessel A contains 180 litres mixture in which the respective ratio between quantities of milk and water was 11 : 4. 40% mixture is taken out from the vessel and poured into vessel B. If after adding X litre water in Vessel B, quantity of water became 34%, what was the value of X?

(A)  8

(B)  18

(C)  12

(D)  10

(E)   6

Answer: (A)

   Directions-(Q. 20-25) Refer to the graph and table to answer the given questions-

20. Out of the number of burgers (vegetarian + non-vegetarian sold on Sunday, approximately what per cent burgers were vegetarian?

(A)  46

(B)  36

(C)  41

(D)  52

(E)   32

Answer: (A)

21. Out of the number of vegetarian burgers sold on Saturday, three-seventh were sold as a part of a meal combo. What was the number of vegetarian burgers sold on Saturday as a part of a meal combo?

(A)  21

(B)  18

(C)  24

(D)  12

(E)   15

Answer: (C)

22. The number of burgers (vegetarian + non-vegetarian) sold decreased by what per cent from Saturday to Monday?

(A)  25

(B)  30

(C)  35

(D)  20

(E)   40

Answer: (B)

23. What is the total number of non-vegetarian burgers sold on Saturday and Sunday together?

(A)  120

(B)  110

(C)  130

(D)  126

(E)   118

Answer: (A)

24. What is the respective ratio between the total number of vegetarian burgers sold on Monday and Tuesday together and that of non-vegetarian burgers sold on the same days together?

(A)  17 : 23

(B)  17 : 26

(C)  19 : 23

(D)  19 : 26

(E)   16 : 23

Answer: (D)

25. Out of the number of burgers (vegetarian + non-vegetarian) sold on Tuesday, the respective ratio between the number of burgers sold to female customers and that to male customers was 7 : 5. What was the number of burgers sold to female customers?

(A)  42

(B)  35

(C)  56

(D)  49

(E)   21

Answer: (C)

26. 30 men can complete a work in 42 days and 56 women complete it in 35 days. 18 men started working and after 7 days left. If the remaining work was completed by 56 women, in how many days was the entire work completed?

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

(E)   None of these

Answer: (E)

   Directions-(Q. 27-31) In this question two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option.

27. (I) x2 – 9x + 18 = 0

(II) 2y2 – 5y + 2 = 0

(A)  x > y

(B)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established

(C)  x < y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)   x ≥ y

Answer: (A)

28. (I) 2x2 – 5x + 3 = 0

(II) y2 – 7y + 10 = 0

(A)  x > y

(B)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established

(C)  x < y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)   x ≥ y

Answer: (C)

29. (I) x2 + 3x – 40 = 0

(II) y2 – y – 72 = 0

(A)  x > y

(B)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established

(C)  x < y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)   x ≥ y

Answer: (B)

30. (I) x2 – 3x + 2 = 0

(II) y2 – 6y + 8 = 0

(A)  x > y

(B)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established

(C)  x < y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)   x ≥ y

Answer: (D)

31. (I) x2 – 6x + 9 = 0

(II) y2 – 10y + 25 = 0

(A)  x > y

(B)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established

(C)  x < y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)   x ≥ y

Answer: (C)

32. Rs X was invested in scheme A (offering simple interest @ R% p.a.) and Rs ‘2x’ was invested in scheme B (offering simple interest @ R + 10% p.a.). If the respective ratio between the interest received from scheme A after 3 years and that received from scheme B after 4 years was 9 : 40, what was the value of R?

(A)  10

(B)  15

(C)  20

(D)  18

(E)   12

Answer: (B)

33. The total cost of gravelling (@ Rs. X per m2) a circular field is 25% more than the cost of fencing (@ Rs X per m) same circular field. What is the circumference of the circular field? (in m)

(A)  110

(B)  132

(C)  88

(D)  44

(E)   66

Answer: (D)

34. A boat takes 3 hours more to travel upstream from X to Y than the time it takes to travel downstream from Y to Z. The speed of the boat downstream is 27 km/hr and that upstream is 21 km/hr. If the distance between X and Y is 51 km more than that between Y and Z, what is the distance between X and Y? (in km)

(A)  64

(B)  105

(C)  54

(D)  68

(E)   72

Answer: (B)

35. Train A while travelling at a speed of 48 km/h crosses a vertical pole in 18 seconds. Train B crosses the vertical pole in 30 seconds. If the length of Train B is 60 m more than that of Train A, what is the speed of train B? (in km/hr)

(A)  36

(B)  45

(C)  54

(D)  63

(E)   27

Answer: (A)

NABARD Grade ‘B’ Officers Examination-2020 Held on 07-03-2020 Economic and Social Issues Question Paper With Answer Key

NABARD Grade ‘B’ Officers Examination-2020 Held on 07-03-2020

Economic and Social Issues

1. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development?

(1) Low birth rate with low death rate

(2) High birth rate with high death rate

(3) High birth rate with low death rate

Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below-

(A)  1, 2, 3

(B)  2, 1, 3

(C)  2, 3, 1

(D)  3, 2, 1

(E)   None of the above

Answer: (C)

2. In an economy, if the share of its primary sector is 50% or more in the total output of the economy it is called as-

(A)  Industrial economy

(B)  Service economy

(C)  Agrarian economy 

(D)  Command economy

(E)   Mixed economy

Answer: (C)

3. Who headed the committee set up by the RBI to suggest the measures to tackle the cyber security challenges?

(A)  Meena Hemchandra

(B)  SS Mundra

(C)  Kewal Kumar Sharma

(D)  Nandita Chatterjee

(E)   Amar Sinha

Answer: (A)

4. As per NITI Aayog’s estimates what per cent of India’s total employment is engaged in agriculture sector.

(A)  44%

(B)  47%

(C)  55%

(D)  65%

(E)   75%

Answer: (A)

5. Which of the following committees has been constituted for doubling farmer’s income by 2022?

(A)  Ashok Mehta Committee

(B)  Sachar Committee

(C)  Ashok Dalwai Committee

(D)  Naresh Chandra Committee

(E)   Shah Nawaz Committee

Answer: (C)

6. What culture should be given priority in groundnut cultivation?

(A)  Mycorrhiza

(B)  Rhizobium

(C)  Phosphobacteria    

(D)  Azospirillum

(E)   None of the above

Answer: (B)

7. Jute cultivation in India is concentrated in delta area of which of the following rivers?

(A)  Ganga

(B)  Mahanadi

(C)  Brahmaputra

(D)  Godavari

(E)   Kaveri

Answer: (A)

8. Which of the following fruits has maximum area under cultivation?

(A)  Mango

(B)  Jackfruit

(C)  Berries

(D)  Apple

(E)   Grapes

Answer: (A)

9. What is the total number of rural population as per Census 2011?

(A)  850 million

(B)  800 million

(C)  833.5 million

(D)  900 million

(E)   755 million

Answer: (C)

10. Which of the following states of India is known as ‘Molasses Basin’?

(A)  Kerala

(B)  Gujarat

(C)  Maharashtra           

(D)  Mizoram

(E)   Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (D)

11. The method of harvesting a crop which leaves the roots and the lower parts of the plant uncut to give the subtle crops is known as-

(A)  Mulching

(B)  Intensive farming

(C)  Ratooning

(D)  Zero tillage farming

(E)   Mixed farming

Answer: (C)

12. Agriculture education day is celebrated to commemorate the anniversary of which of the following?

(A)  Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(B)  Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C)  Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan

(D)  R. Venkatraman

(E)   None of the above

Answer: (B)

13. What kind of cropping pattern is used in rainfed farming areas

(A)  Single cropping

(B)  Relay cropping

(C)  Ratoon cropping

(D)  Intercropping

(E)   Mixed farming

Answer: (D)

14. Which of the following states do not cultivate wheat?

(A)  Karnataka

(B)  Maharashtra

(C)  West Bengal

(D)  Tamil Nadu

(E)   Jharkhand

Answer: (D)

15. Golden revolution is related to which of the following?

(A)  Oilseed production

(B)  Honey and Horticulture

(C)  Jute production

(D)  Egg production

(E)   Agricultural production

Answer: (B)

16. Which of the following sectors has been added by the RBI in priority sector lending in mid of 2020?

(A)  Start-ups

(B)  Inland waterways

(C)  Border Roads

(D)  Greenfield Airports in N.E. Region

(E)   None of the above

Answer: (A)

17. The positive discrimination used to help the historically discriminated and marginalized groups is known as-

(A)  Preventive Action

(B)  Curative Action

(C)  Affirmative Action

(D)  Aided Action

(E)   Democratisation

Answer: (C)

18. The farming in which farmers focus on growing enough food to feed themselves and other family members is called-

(A)  Organic farming

(B)  Industrial farming

(C)  Ley farming

(D)  Individual farming

(E)   Subsistence agriculture

Answer: (E)

19. Which one of the following factors of the economy is related with stagflation?

(a) Low unemployment rate

(b) High unemployment rate

(c) High inflation rate

(d) Low inflation rate

(A)  (a) and (c)

(B)  (a) and (d)

(C)  (b) and (c)

(D)  (b) and (d)

(E)   None of the above

Answer: (A)

20. The total sum of the goods and services produced in a country in a year minus depreciation is called-

(A)  Gross Domestic Product

(B)  Gross National Product

(C)  Gross National Income

(D)  Net Domestic Product

(E)   Net National Product

Answer: (D)

21. The period after parturition in which animal produces milk is called-

(A)  Dry period

(B)  Calving period

(C)  Lactation period

(D)  None of the above

(E)  

Answer: (D)

22. Agricultural census is conducted after every-

(A)  2 years

(B)  3 years

(C)  4 years

(D)  5 years

(E)   6 years

Answer: (D)

23. Where is the National Institute of Research on Jute and Fiber Technology located?

(A)  Haryana

(B)  Telangana

(C)  Andhra Pradesh

(D)  West Bengal

(E)   Jharkhand

Answer: (D)

24. Which of the following is a branch of agricultural science which deals with principles and practices of soil, water and crop management. What is the name of that branch?

(A)  Crop production

(B)  Agricultural engineering

(C)  Home Science

(D)  Agronomy

(E)   Horticulture

Answer: (D)

25. The cultivation of crops with an annual rainfall is less than 750 mm is called as-

(A)  Rain fed farming

(B)  Dry farming

(C)  Dryland farming

(D)  Intensive farming

(E)   None of the above

Answer: (B)

26. The rank of India in UNDP 2019 Human Development Index is 129. Which was not the indicators for developing this index?

(A)  Life expectancy at birth

(B)  Expected years of schooling         

(C)  Mean years of schooling

(D)  Gross national income per capita

(E)   All of the above are indicators

Answer: (E)

27. Pradhan Mangri Awas Yojana aims at providing affordable housing to the urban poor. Which among the following is the target year?

(A)  2022

(B)  2025

(C)  2027

(D)  2029

(E)   2030

Answer: (A)

28. Which among the following years is the base year of Consumer Price Index?

(A)  2000

(B)  2002

(C)  2018

(D)  2005

(E)   2012

Answer: (E)

29. Which among the following is the overall industrial growth as per the First Revised estimates of national income for 2018-19?

(A)  1.2%

(B)  2.2%

(C)  6.9%

(D)  7.9%

(E)   4.9%

Answer: (E)

30. As per the WHO/UNICEF Joint Monitoring Programme report, what per cent of Indian population has gained access to basic sanitation?

(A)  29%

(B)  38%

(C)  43%

(D)  16%

(E)   52%

Answer: (C)

31. In 2019, the Central government said that it would give support of Rs ……. crore to Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (ECGC) in the next five years.

(A)  2500

(B)  4500

(C)  6500

(D)  8500

(E)   1050

Answer: (D)

32. How many crores are allocated for Swachh Bharat Mission in 2020-21 as per Budget 2020?

(A)  14000

(B)  12500

(C)  11300

(D)  14500

(E)   12300

Answer: (E)

33. In which of these states have Atal Kisan Mazdoor canteens been launched?

(A)  Bihar

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Haryana

(D)  Uttar Pradesh

(E)   Rajasthan

Answer: (C)

34. Where was the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) 43rd governing council meeting held recently?

(A)  France

(B)  Germany

(C)  Poland

(D)  Italy

(E)   Sweden

Answer: (D)

35. Government of India has approved the formation of International Coalition for disaster resilient Infrastructure to create a platform for generating different aspects of disaster and climate resilience infrastructure. How much amount has been allocated for the project?

(A)  Rs 500 crore

(B)  Rs 250 crore

(C)  Rs 480 crore

(D)  Rs 550 crore

(E)   Rs 430 crore

Answer: (C)

36. The Central government has recently notified the ambitious e-assessment scheme also called the ……….. assessment for income tax payers.

(A)  Effortless

(B)  Enforced

(C)  Faceless

(D)  Effective

(E)   Feasible

Answer: (C)

37. Which state has launched housing loan subsidy scheme where subsidy upto two lakh fifty thousand rupees will be provided for loan amounts from five lakh to forty lakh rupees?

(A)  Bihar

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Uttar Pradesh

(D)  Assam

(E)   Haryana

Answer: (D)

38. Which of these banks has launched a fixed deposit scheme called FD Health?

(A)  ICICI Bank

(B)  IDBI Bank

(C)  Syndicate Bank

(D)  HSBC Bank

(E)   PNB

Answer: (A)

39. Which of the following states has become on of the fully electrified states in the country in the country in October 2019 after providing electricity to over five lakh fifteen thousand households under the Soubhagya Yojana?

(A)  Telangana

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Uttar Pradesh

(D)  Bihar

(E)   West Bengal

Answer: (A)

40. In February 2020, which of the following has replaced SBI to become India’s tenth most-valued firm by market capitalization on the BSF?

(A)  HDFC Bank

(B)  Bajaj Finance Ltd.

(C)  Indiabulls

(D)  Blue Dart

(E)   Bank of India

Answer: (B)

IBPS RRBs P.O (Scale-1) (Pre.) Examination-2019 Held on 03-08-2019 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

IBPS RRBs P.O (Scale-1) (Pre.) Examination-2019 Held on 03-08-2019 Quantitative Aptitude

   Directions-(Q. 1 to 5) Read the bar graph and answer the given questions.

1. What is the difference between the total numbers of male and female employees in the company?

(A)  34

(B)  24

(C)  14

(D)  4

(E)   0

Answer: (D)

2. What is the ratio of male to female employees working in department B?

(A)  4 : 5

(B)  5 : 4

(C)  3 : 5

(D)  5 : 3

(E)   3 : 2

Answer: (B)

3. What is the average number of male employees working together in the five departments?

(A)  60   

(B)  70

(C)  80

(D)  50

(E)   90

Answer: (B)

4. The number of male employees working in department A is what percentage more than that working in department B?

(A)  20%

(B)  25%

(C)  30%

(D)  40%

(E)   50%

Answer: (E)

5. What is the ratio of the difference between the number of female and male employees in department D to that in department E?

(A)  2 : 3

(B)  3 : 1

(C)  3 : 2

(D)  1 : 3

(E)   Other than those given as options

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 6 to 10) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

6. 855 288  99  36  15  ?

(A)  12

(B)  3

(C)  6

(D)  8

(E)   18

Answer: (D)

7. 8 5  7  5  ?  82.5  253.5  894.25

(A)  31

(B)  35

(C)  40

(D)  42

(E)   30.5

Answer: (A)

8. 3 6  21  ?  1179  11730  128953

(A)  146

(B)  140

(C)  136

(D)  152

(E)   240

Answer: (C)

9. 9 10  22  69  ?  1405  8436

(A)  280

(B)  320

(C)  340

(D)  360

(E)   270

Answer: (A)

10. 540 ?  90  5  4.5  0.75

(A)  320

(B)  360

(C)  290

(D)  270

(E)   240

Answer: (D)

11. If a boat travels 18 km more in downstream than in upstream in 3 hr. and if the speed of the Boat in still water is 20 km/hr. Find the distance travelled by boat in downstream in 4 hr.

(A)  86 km

(B)  92 km

(C)  68 km

(D)  96 km

(E)   None of these

Answer: (B)

12. If A invested Rs 12000 at some rate of interest of S.I. and B joined him after 3 months investing 16000 at same rate of interest if A leaves before 2 month of completion, then what will be the share of B’s profit after 1 year if total profit is Rs 22000?

(A)  Rs 10000

(B)  Rs 14000

(C)  Rs 12000

(D)  Rs 8000

(E)   Rs 11000

Answer: (C)

13. If ratio of ages of P and Q 4 years ago is 5 : 4 respectively and after 12 years the sum of their ages will be 68  years, then what was P’s age 2 years ago?

(A)  24 years

(B)  22 years

(C)  18 years

(D)  26 years

(E)   20 years

Answer: (B)

14. If Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 min and 20 mins respectively and pipe C empties the tank in 12 mins, what will be the time taken by A, B and C together to fill the tank completely?

(A)  25 min

(B)  30 min

(C)  40 min

(D)  20 min

(E)   35 min

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 15 to 19) In this question, two quadratic equations numbered I and II have been given. Solve these equations to answer the given questions.

(A) If x > y

(B) If x ≥ y

(C) If x < y

(D) If x ≤ y

(E) If x = y or relation cannot be established

15. (I) x2 = 81

(II) y2 – 18y + 81 = 0

Answer: (D)

16. (I) 4x2 – 24x + 32 = 0

(II) y2 – 8y + 15 = 0

Answer: (E)

17. (I) 8x2 + 31x + 21 = 0

(II) 5y2 + 11y – 36 = 0

Answer: (E)

18. (I) 5x2 – 87x + 378 = 0

(II) 3y2 – 49y + 200 = 0

Answer: (A)

19. (I) 14x2 – 37x + 24 = 0

(II) 28y2 – 53y + 24 = 0

Answer: (B)

20. If a shopkeeper marks an item 50% above its CP and if 12% discount is given on the marked price and the shopkeeper makes profit of Rs 256, then what will be the actual cost price of the item (in Rs)?

(A)  1000

(B)  800

(C)  750

(D)  1200

(E)   900

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 21 to 25) Read the graph and answer the given questions.

21. If the expenditures of Company A and B are equal in the year 2008, and they are 75 lakh each, what is the difference between the income of Company A and the income of Company B in that year?

(A)  24 lakh

(B)  30 lakh

(C)  36 lakh

(D)  40 lakh

(E)   44 lakh

Answer: (B)

22. If the incomes of Company A in the year 2007 and 2011 are equal and they are Rs 84 lakh each, what is the difference between its expenditures in the year 2011 and 2007?

(A)  10 lakh

(B)  12 lakh

(C)  14 lakh

(D)  16 lakh

(E)   18 lakh

Answer: (A)

23. If the expenditure of Company A in the year 2012 and Company B in the year 2010 are equal, what is the ratio of the income of Company B in year 2010 to the income of Company A in year 2012?

(A)  1 : 1

(B)  2 : 5

(C)  3 : 5

(D)  4 : 5

(E)   None of these

Answer: (C)

24. What is the percentage increase in the percentage profit of Company A from year 2008 to 2009?

(A)  6%

(B)  20%

(C)  24%

(D)  25%

(E)   33.33%

Answer: (E)

25. If the expenditure of Company A in the year 2008 and 2010 are Rs 55 lakh and Rs 35 lakh respectively, then what is the profit of Company A in the year 2008 and 2010 together (in Rs)?

(A)  24 lakh

(B)  28 lakh

(C)  30 lakh

(D)  32 lakh

(E)   36 lakh

Answer: (C)

26. If A start from P with speed 60 km/hr. at 8 : 00 am and B starts with speed 70 km/hr. at 8 : 30 a.m. from Q and total distance between P and Q is 680 km, find at what time they will cross each other?

(A)  2 : 30 p.m.

(B)  1 : 30 p.m.

(C)  12 : 30 p.m.

(D)  3 : 00 p.m.

(E)   4 : 00 p.m.

Answer: (B)

27. If a person invested Rs 6000 at T% S.I. for 3 years and same amount at (T + 5)% C.I. for 2 years and difference between both interests is Rs 60, then find T (in %).

(A)  15

(B)  20

(C)  18

(D)  24

(E)   25

Answer: (*)

   Directions-(Q. 28 to 32) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

   Amy has decided to start a new company named ‘Amy Travels’. She wants to buy some furniture-table, chair, air conditioners. She also wants to buy a few desktops which will include monitor, CPU, keyboard and mouse and the cost of each table is 13.5 times the cost of a mouse and the cost of chair is 3/5 of the coast of a table. The cost of an air conditioner is 5 times the cost of a chair. The cost of a monitor is 20% more than the cost of a chair, A CPU costs Rs 1500 more than a table and the keyboard costs 4 times a mouse. The cost of a mouse is Rs 1000.

28. What will be the total cost of 1 table and 2 chairs together?

(A)  Rs 23,200

(B)  Rs 28,800

(C)  Rs 29,700

(D)  Rs 24,700

(E)   Rs 25,000

Answer: (C)

29. What is the ratio of the cost of a CPU to the total cost of a mouse and keyboard together?

(A)  3 : 2

(B)  4 : 1

(C)  3 : 1

(D)  5 : 1

(E)   5 : 3

Answer: (C)

30. If the cost of a keyboard and a mouse increases by 20% and 15% respectively, what will be the total cost of a desktop (given that the cost of a CPU and a monitor is the same)?

(A)  Rs 36,930

(B)  Rs 32,640

(C)  Rs 34,753

(D)  Rs 30,670

(E)   Rs 35,425

Answer: (D)

31. Amy bought 1 table, 1 chair and 1 desktop for herself. What was the total cost incurred to her?

(A)  Rs 53,400

(B)  Rs 51,460

(C)  Rs 50,640

(D)  Rs 55,440

(E)   Rs 51,320

Answer: (E)

32. It was initially decided that 4 air conditioners will be installed but later only 3 air conditioners and a fan were installed. If the cost of fan is 1/10 of the cost of an air conditioner, what was the total cost incurred?

(A)  Rs 1,29,400

(B)  Rs 1,24,500

(C)  Rs 1,25,550

(D)  Rs 1,24,350           

(E)   Rs 1,25,600

Answer: (C)

33. P invested 60% more than Q and R invested 20% more than Q. If ratio of investment time-period (P : Q : R) is 2 : 4 : 3 and the sum of profit shares of Q and R is Rs 8550, then find the profit share of P-

(A)  Rs 3200

(B)  Rs 4000     

(C)  Rs 2400

(D)  Rs 3600

(E)   Rs 3000

Answer: (D)

34. When a person sold an article, his profit per cent is 60% of the selling price. If the cost price is increased by 75% and the selling price remains the same, then find decrement in the profit is what per cent of the selling price of the article?

(A)  25%

(B)  30%

(C)  40%

(D)  27.5%

(E)   None of these

Answer: (B)

35. Area of Ist circle and circumference of IInd circle is 1386 cm2 and 176 cm respectively. There is a square whose side is  of twice of sum of the radius of both the circles. Find the perimeter of the square (in cm)

(A)  132

(B)  136

(C)  140

(D)  116

(E)   124

Answer: (C)

36. There are 5 red, 6 black and 5 blue balls in a bag. Out of these balls, four balls are picked at random from the bag. Then, what is the probability that one is red, two are black and one is blue ball?

(A)  75/362

(B)  75/364

(C)  71/362

(D)  70/363

(E)   5/26

Answer: (B)

37. A train travelling at 72 km/hr crosses a platform of 160 m in 18 second and another train travelling at 90 km/hr crosses the same platform in 15 second. Find the length of another train-

(A)  160 m

(B)  180 m

(C)  140 m

(D)  200 m

(E)   215 m

Answer: (E)

38. An article is marked  above the cost price and loss incurred on selling that article is 25% of the discount given on it. Then, find the discount % given-

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

(E)   60%

Answer: (*)

39. A solid sphere of radius ‘a’ is cut by a plane at a distance of ‘b’ form its centre, thus obtaining two different pieces. The total surface area of these two pieces is 40% of the surface area of the sphere. Find ‘b’-

(A)  a/√2

(B)  a/√3

(C)  a/√5

(D)  a/√6

(E)   None of these

Answer: (C)

40. A wholesaler purchased two type of pulses. One was costing Rs 200 per quintal and other was costing Rs 260 per quintal. In 52 quintals of the costlier pulse, how much of Rs 200 pulses should be added such that he gains 25% by selling them at Rs 300 per quintal?

(A)  26

(B)  32

(C)  36

(D)  45

(E)   None of these

Answer: (A)

NABARD Grade ‘B’ Officers Examination-2020 Held on 07-03-2020 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key

NABARD Grade ‘B’ Officers Examination-2020 Held on 07-03-2020

Reasoning

Directions-(Q. 1 to 4) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

   Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table, four of them sit at the corner of the table and four of them sit at the sides of the table. Among eight persons some of them are facing away from the centre. Each of them is born in different months of same year viz., January, February, March, April, May, July, August and October.

   B sits third to the right of A. There are three persons sitting between A and the one who was born in February. One who was born in August is second to the right of D. A was born in one of the months before the months in which C was born. B and the one who was born in August are immediate neighbours. One who was born in October and the one who was born in April are immediate neighbors of A. H was born in May and sits second to the right of B. C sits fourth to the right of E. C and E are not facing each other. One who was born in July sits third to the left of C. F sits second to the left of H.

   Immediate neighbors of A are facing direction opposite to E.  is facing centre. B sits at corner of the table.

1. Who among the following persons sits third to the left of G?

(A)  B

(B)  E

(C)  D

(D)  H

(E)  None of these

Answer: (C)

2. Which of the following combinations is definitely true as per the given information?

(A)  E-February

(B)  A-July

(C)  C-March

(D)  F-April

(E)  G-October

Answer: (C)

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

(A)  A

(B)  B

(C)  E

(D)  D

(E)  H

Answer: (D)

4. What is the position of D with respect to the one who was born on October?

(A)  Third to the right

(B)  Third to the left

(C)  Fourth to the left

(D)  Immediate right

(E)  Cannot be determined

Answer: (E)

   Directions-(Q. 5 to 8) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

   Six persons are sitting in a row facing North. The row having seven seats, one of the seats is vacant. T sits third to the right of M who sits left of the vacant seat. L sits second to the right of T. Neither O nor M sits at the extreme end of the row. Only one person sits between K and O. Two persons are sits between vacant seat and J. O sits right of the vacant seat but not immediate right.

5. Who sits to the immediate left of vacant seat?

(A)  The one who sits to the immediate right of L

(B)  J

(C)  The one who sits third from the extreme left end of the row

(D)  T

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

6. Who among the following persons sits right of the vacant seat?

(I), O (II) M, (III) L

(A)  Only II and III

(B)  Only I

(C)  Only I and III

(D)  Only II

(E)  All I, II and III

Answer: (C)

7. Who sits third to the right of K?

(A)  J

(B)  O

(C)  L

(D)  T

(E)  None of these

Answer: (B)

8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(A)  K, T

(B)  O, L

(C)  J, T

(D)  T, O

(E)  M, K

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 9 and 10) This question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the date given in the statements are sufficient to answer any questions. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option and answered as:

(A) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(B) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(C) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(D) if the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(E) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

9. Five People– A, B, C, D and E were born on 20th January but in five different years-1990, 1993, 1999, 2004 and 2011. Only one person was born in each year. How many people were born between D and B?

(I) B was born in an even numbered year. Only one person was born between B and C. E was born immediately after C. A was born in one of the years after D.

(II) D was born immediately before C in one of the years before 1999. Only two people were born between C and A. E was born in one of the years before B.

Answer: (B)

10. How far and in which direction is Point L with respect to Point Q?

(I) Point P is 15 m to the north of Point Q. Point M is 28 m to the east of Point P. Point O is 13m to the north of point M. Point N is 35 m to the west of Point O. Point L is 28 m to the south of point N.

(II) Point L is 7m to the east of Point G. Point T is 18m to the south of Point G. Point Y is 14m to the east of Point T. Point Q is 18 m to the north of Point Y.

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 11 to 14) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

   There are eight members in the family- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

   A is the mother of B. C is the wife of B. C has one son and one daughter. B is the grandfather of H. F is the husband of D and G is the wife of E. C is the mother of D and E. E has no child but one nephew.

11. How is F related to B?

(A)  Son-in-law

(B)  Son

(C)  Brother

(D)  Nephew

(E)  Grandson

Answer: (A)

12. How is G related to C?

(A)  Son-in-law

(B)  Daughter-in-law

(C)  Son

(D)  Daughter

(E)  Grand-daughter

Answer: (B)

13. How is A related to E?

(A)  Mother

(B)  Daughter

(C)  Sister

(D)  Grandmother

(E)  Mother-in-law

Answer: (D)

14. How is C related to H?

(A)  Mother

(B)  Grandmother

(C)  Sister

(D)  Daughter

(E)  Mother-in-law

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 15 to 18) Study the given information carefully and answer the given question:

   There are seven boxes stacked upon each other. These boxes have a bunch of newspapers viz. Loksatta, Mumbai Mirror, Dainik Jagran, The Time of India, Maharashtra, Times, Amar Ujala, Lokmat. Each box has a bunch of one particular newspaper.

   Box of Lokmat is kept 2 boxes above the box of Loksatta. There are two boxes between the boxes of Maharashtra, Times and Amar Ujala either of them is at the top of the stack. Box of Mumbai Mirror is not at the bottom of the stack. Box of Loksatta is kept immediately below the box of Amar Ujala. Box of Dainik Jagran is not kept below the box of Loksatta.

15. Which of the following box of newspaper is kept at the bottom of the stack?

(A)  Maharashtra Times

(B)  Loksatta

(C)  Amar Ujala

(D)  Lokmat

(E)  The Times of India

Answer: (E)

16. How many boxes are there between the box of Mumbai Mirror and the box of Lokmat?

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  3

(D)  2

(E)  5

Answer: (D)

17. The box of Maharashtra Times is immediately above the box of which newspaper?

(A)  Dainik Jagran

(B)  Lokmat

(C)  Mumbai Mirror

(D)  The Times of India

(E)  Amar Ujala

Answer: (A)

18. How many boxes are there below the box of newspaper Loksatta?

(A)  Three

(B)  One

(C)  Five

(D)  Two

(E)  Four

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 19 and 20) In these questions, one statement and two conclusion are given :

   You have to decide which of the conclusion follows the statement and answered as:

(A) Only Conclusion I follows

(B) Only Conclusion II follows

(C) Either Conclusion I or II follows

(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

(E) Both Conclusion I and II follow

19. Statements:

R = S ≥ Y ≥  M < W > O

Conclusion I : Y < M

Conclusion II : O > S

Answer: (D)

20. Statements :

F ≤ C ≤ V = Z < X = U

Conclusion I : V < U

Conclusion II : Z < F

Answer: (A)

IBPS Specialist Officer I.T. (Pre.) Examination-2019 Held on 29-12-2019 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

IBPS Specialist Officer I.T. (Pre.) Examination-2019 Held on 29-12-2019

Quantitative Aptitude

   Directions-(Q. 1-5) Study the pie chart and answer the given question.

   Given pie chart shows the percentage distribution of five different types (A, B, C, D and E) of employees in an organizations in two different years-2015 and 2016.

1. If a total of 240 E type workers left the company at the end of 2015, how many E type of worker joined the company in 2016?

(A)  920

(B)  960

(C)  980

(D)  880

(E)  860

Answer: (B)

2. If a total number of 1200 A type of workers joined the company in 2016, then find how many A type of workers left the company in 2015?

(A)  100

(B)  300

(C)  160

(D)  240

(E)  360

Answer: (D)

3. In terms of the difference in number of workers for which of the following types of employee was minimum between 2015 and 2016?

(A)  A

(B)  B

(C)  D

(D)  C

(E)  E

Answer: (D)

4. What was the difference between D type workers in 2015 and B type workers in 2016?

(A)  800

(B)  700

(C)  600

(D)  1000

(E)  900

Answer: (C)

5. Find the respective ratio of total number of workers of Type B and type C together in 2015 to the total number of workers of Type B and Type E together in 2016?

(A)  34 : 45

(B)  37 : 34

(C)  45 : 37

(D)  45 : 34

(E)  38 : 43

Answer: (A)

6. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 5 : 3. If 20 litres of water added to the mixture, the ratio of milk and water becomes 3 : 2. Find the quantity of milk in the original mixture.

(A)  320 litres

(B)  280 litres

(C)  250 litres

(D)  300 litres

(E)  200 litres

Answer: (D)

7. A, B and C centred into a partnership with investment in the ratio 5 : 4 : 6. After one year A doubled his investment and C withdrew half of his investment amount. At the end of two years, they earned a profit of Rs 96000, find the sum of the shares of B and C in the profit.

(A)  Rs 47000

(B)  Rs 49000

(C)  Rs 51000

(D)  Rs 53000

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 8-12) Study the following information carefully and answer the question given.

   There are total 24000 workers working in a company, each one is from one among the five states viz., Kerala, Karnataka, Jharkhand, Bihar and Punjab.

   Respective ratio of males and females among them is 7 : 5. 25% of the total number of males are from Bihar. Respective ratio of number of females from Jharkhand and number of males from Bihar is 4 : 7. Number of males from Jharkhand is 10% more than the number of females from that state. 18% of the females are from Kerala. 25% of the total number of workers are from Kerala. Number of males from Punjab is 80% of the number of males from Kerala. Number of females from Karnataka is 20% more than the number of males from that state. 30% of the total number of females are from Bihar.

8. Total number of males from Bihar is approximately what per cent of the total number of workers from Jharkhand?

(A)  69%

(B)  63%

(C)  83%

(D)  67%

(E)  49%

Answer: (C)

9. What is the respective ratio of total number of workers from Kerala and total number of workers from Bihar?

(A)  13 : 14

(B)  12 : 13

(C)  11 : 12

(D)  10 : 11

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

10. What is the average number of males of Kerala, Karnataka, Jharkhand and Punjab?

(A)  4025

(B)  3125

(C)  2875

(D)  2625

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (D)

11. Number of female workers are maximum from which of the following state?

(A)  Kerala

(B)  Karnataka

(C)  Jharkhand

(D)  Bihar

(E)  Punjab

Answer: (D)

12. Find the difference between number of female workers from Jharkhand and Bihar together and number of female workers from Karnataka and Punjab together?

(A)  2000

(B)  2400

(C)  1600

(D)  1800

(E)  1500

Answer: (D)

13. In a town males and females are in the ratio 3 : 2. Out of males 25% are children and rest are adults. If the adults male population of the town is 8100, find the total population of the town.

(A)  22000

(B)  24000

(C)  20000

(D)  18000

(E)  16000

Answer: (D)

14. Compound interest on a certain sum at the rate of 12% per annum after 2 years is Rs 142464. Find the simple interest on that sum at the rate of 15% per annum for 7 years.

(A)  Rs 588000

(B)  Rs 568000

(C)  Rs 586000

(D)  Rs 566000

(E)  Rs 576000

Answer: (A)

15. Four years ago, average of the ages of Pinki, Rinki and Tinki was 26 Average of the present ages of Rinki and Tinki is 28 years. Present age of Pinki is what per cent of the present average age of all of them.

(A)  123.33%

(B)  113.33%

(C)  103.33%

(D)  93.33

(E)  86.33%

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 16-20) Study the table carefully to answer the given question.

   Number of people (in thousands) staying in 6 different cities and the percentage of men, women and children in those cities.

16. What is the ratio of number of woman from city R to that fro city T?

(A)  8401 : 9135

(B)  7325 : 8462

(C)  9124 : 10131

(D)  6487 : 7758

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

17. Which city has the lowest number of children?

(A)  R

(B)  S

(C)  T

(D)  Q

(E)  U

Answer: (D)

18. Total number of people from city U is approximately what per cent of the total number of people from all cities together?

(A)  28

(B)  11

(C)  6

(D)  24

(E)  19

Answer: (E)

19. Total number of women from city S forms what per cent of that from city P? (round off to two digits after decimal)

(A)  87.08

(B)  124.68

(C)  114.84

(D)  92.16

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

20. What is the average number of men from all the cities together?

(A)  21450

(B)  23200

(C)  19445

(D)  18620

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

21. There are 3 points P, Q and R in a straight line, such that point Q is equidistant form points P and R. A man can swim from point P to R downstream in 24 hours and from Q to P  upstream in 16  Find the ratio of speed of man in still water to speed of stream?

(A)  5 : 1

(B)  6 : 1

(C)  5 : 3

(D)  7 : 1

(E)  1 : 7

Answer: (D)

22. 20 men, 12 women and 18 boys were given a project of doing 3960 designs of a building in 5 days. The ratio of the number of designs made by them respectively in 1 day is 3 : 2 : 1. If on the 1st day all of them worked, on the 2nd day 4 women and 6 boys went absent and on the 3rd day, 6 men and 10 boys went absent but still the work got finished on the 3rd Then find the number of designs designed by them on the 3rd day?

(A)  1021

(B)  1110

(C)  1621

(D)  1210

(E)  1560

Answer: (B)

23. There are 5 consecutive odd and 3 consecutive even numbers. The sum of the five consecutive odd number is 125 and the lowest even number is 6 more than the twice of average of 5 consecutive odd number. Find the ratio between the lowest odd number and highest even number?

(A)  11 : 27

(B)  15 : 34

(C)  9 : 23

(D)  7 : 20

(E)  15 : 22

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 24-28) In this question two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option and answered as:

(A) x > y            (B) x ≥ y

(C) x < y            (D) x ≤ y

(E) x = y or relationship cannot be established

24. (I) 15x2 – x – 28 = 0

(II) y2 – 5y + 6 = 0

Answer: (C)

25. 

Answer: (A)

26. (I) x2 – 117x – 1000 = 0

Answer: (B)

27. (I) x2 – 8x – 65 = 0

(II) y2 + 8y – 48 = 0

Answer: (E)

28. (I) x2 + 32x + 255 = 0

(II) y2 – 3y – 270 = 0

Answer: (D)

29. Speed of a man in still water is 16 km/hr and the river is running at 6 km/hr. The total time taken to go to a place and come back is 8 hours. Find the total distance travelled by the man?

(A)  46 km

(B)  55 km

(C)  42 km

(D)  33 km

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (E)

30. A man sold an article at 24% discount on the marked price, yet he got 15% profit on the cost price. If the cost price of the article is Rs 152, then selling price is what per cent of marked price?

(A)  84%

(B)  70%

(C)  76%

(D)  80%

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

31. A man invests 28% of his salary on lodging and fooding and 25% of remaining on children’s education and saves the remaining amount. If he spends Rs 5400 each month on children’s education then find his yearly salary.

(A)  Rs 4,00,000

(B)  Rs 3,60,000

(C)  Rs 2,40,000

(D)  Rs 2,50,000

(E)  Rs 4,20,000

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 32-36) In the following number series a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

32. 2 11 38  197  1172  8227  65806

(A)  11

(B)  38

(C)  197

(D)  1172

(E)  8227

Answer: (D)

33. 7.5 47.5  87.5  157.5  247.5  357.5

(A)  357.5

(B)  87.5

(C)  157.5

(D)  7.5

(E)  47.5

Answer: (E)

34. 13 16  21  27  39  52  69

(A)  21

(B)  39

(C)  27

(D)  52

(E)  16

Answer: (C)

35. 1500 1581  1664  1749  1833  1925  2016

(A)  1581

(B)  1664

(C)  1833

(D)  1925

(E)  1749

Answer: (C)

36. 16 19  21  30  46  71  107

(A)  19

(B)  21

(C)  30

(D)  46

(E)  71

Answer: (A)

37. 2 dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the faces is divisible by either 3 or 5?

(A)  7/36

(B)  19/36

(C)  9/36

(D)  2/7

(E) 

Answer: (B)

38. In an examination, Mani scored 45% marks and failed by 18 marks. In the same examination, Radhika scored 54% marks and get 27 marks more than the passing marks. What is the score of Mohan in the same examination, who secured 75% marks?

(A)  420

(B)  440

(C)  375

(D)  360

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

39. Two trains are running at 60 kmph and 42 kmph respectively in same direction. Fast train completely passes a man sitting in the slower train in 30 sec. What is the length of the faster train?

(A)  100 m

(B)  125 m

(C)  150 m

(D)  175 m

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 40-44) Study the bar graph and answer the given question.

40. If number of students in ME Branch in college B is 120 and ECE students in college A is 50% more than ECE students in college B, then find the ratio of ME branch students in college A to that in college B?

(A)  14 : 5

(B)  12 : 5

(C)  2 : 1

(D)  5 : 3

(E)  12 : 7

Answer: (A)

41. If total number of students in college D is 480 and CS branch students in college D and E together is 282, then find the difference between the total students in college D and E?

(A)  20

(B)  50

(C)  25

(D)  30

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (D)

42. If average number of ECE branch students in college B and C is 140 and ECE branch students in College B is  more than ECE branch students in college C, then the total students in college B is what per cent of total student in college C?

(A)  50%

(B)  150%

(C)  100%

(D)  200%

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

43. If difference between ME and CS student in college A is 40 then find average of ECE and CS student in this college?

(A)  240

(B)  320

(C)  360

(D)  130

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (E)

44. Number of ECE and CS branch students together in College D is what per cent more/less than the number of ME branch students in that college?

(A)  300%

(B)  200%

(C)  100%

(D)  150%

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 45-47) Two quantities that is I and II are given in the following questions. You have to find out the values of the quantities and answer them according to given options by comparing their numerical values.

(A) Quantity I > Quantity II

(B) Quantity I < Quantity II

(C) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(D) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(E) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

45. Quantity I : A bag contains five red balls, six green balls, ‘a’ yellow balls and ‘b’ blue balls. Probability of drawing one yellow ball is 1/6 while, probability of drawing one blue ball is 2/9. If two balls are drawn from bag without replacing, then find probability that one of them is red and other is yellow.

Quantity II : A bag contains dices only in three colours, eight green colour dice, ‘x’ blue colour dice and ‘y’ yellow colour dice. Probability of drawing one blue dice is 7/20, while probability of drawing one yellow dice is ¼. If two dices are drawn at random without replacement, then find the probability that one of them is blue and the other is green.

Answer: (B)

46. Quantity I : A cylindrical vessel with radius and height of 17.5 cm and 18 cm respectively is filled 80% of its capacity with milk. If total milk from cylindrical vessel transferred into 30 cuboidal vessels whose length and breadth is 7 cm and 3 cm respectively. Find height of each cuboidal vessel?

Quantity II : Breadth of a rectangle is 18 cm and ratio between length of rectangle an side of square is 12 : 11. If perimeter of square is 4 cm more than the perimeter of rectangle, find side of the square.

Answer: (E)

47. Quantity I : A boat takes double time in covering the same distance in upstream as compared to downstream. If boat covers 96 km in downstream and 72 km upstream in total 20 hours. Find the time taken by boat to cover 240 km in downstream.

Quantity II : Distance between Point A and Point B is 720 km. A car covered 1/3rd of its distance with usual speed and remaining with 20% increase speed. If car takes total 10 hours 40 minutes to cover the total distance, then find in what time car will cover a distance of 1200 km with its usual speed.

Answer: (E)

48. If the S.I on a sum of money for 3 years at 10% per annum is Rs 15000, what is the C. I. on the same sum of money at the same rate and for the same time?

(A)  17250

(B)  16550

(C)  16750

(D)  17450

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

49. The average weight of 3 female P, Q and R is 42 kgs. Another female S joins the group and the average now becomes 40 kg. If another female T, whose weight is 2 kg more than that of S, replaces P, then the average weight of Q, R, S and T become 39 kg. The weight of P is-

(A)  20 kg

(B)  30 kg

(C)  40 kg

(D)  50 kg

(E)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

50. The average of a 2-digit number and another 2-digit number with same digits as first number but interchanged places, is 55. If the difference of the squares of the individual digits of 2-digt number is 20, what is the difference between the individual digits of 2-digit number?

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  5

(D)  4

(E)  3

Answer: (B)