CAPFs & Delhi Police Sub-Inspectors and Assistant Sub-Inspector in CISF Examination Held on 09-12-2019 Paper I Question With Answer Key

CAPFs & Delhi Police Sub-Inspectors and Assistant Sub-Inspector in CISF Examination Held on 09-12-2019

General Knowledge and General Awareness (Paper I)

1. Which commission was appointed by the central government to examine issues related to Centre-State relations?

(A)  Mandal Commission

(B)  Sarkari Commission

(C)  Nanavati Commission

(D)  Kothari Commission

Answer: (B)

2. Which muscles in the skin contract to make the hairs on our skin stand up straight (goose bumps) when we are cold or frightened?

(A)  Elastin

(B)  Epidermis

(C)  Collagen

(D)  Arrector pilli

Answer: (D)

3. In which year was the first-ever motion to remove a Supreme Court Justice signed, by 108 members of the Parliament?

(A)  1984

(B)  1991

(C)  1978

(D)  1996

Answer: (B)

4. Which of the following is the outer layer of the Earth that is made of plates which fit together like a jigsaw puzzle?

(A)  Lithosphere

(B)  Biosphere

(C)  Mesosphere

(D)  Asthenosphere

Answer: (A)

5. As of October 2019, what is the maximum amount of loan granted by a scheduled commercial bank that is covered under the Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Micro and Small Enterprises?

(A)  Rs 50 lakh

(B)  Rs 200 lakh

(C)  Rs 100 lakh

(D)  Rs 150 lakh

Answer: (B)

6. How many sites were chosen from India for the 2019 UNESCO Asia-Pacific Awards for Cultural Heritage Conservation?

(A)  Two

(B)  Five

(C)  Three

(D)  Four

Answer: (D)

7. ‘A Century is Not Enough’ is an autobiography of-

(A)  Sachin Tendulkar

(B)  Rahul Dravid

(C)  Sourabh Gangully

(D)  Anik Kumble

Answer: (C)

8. Which of the following Indian cities is included in the list of ‘UNESCO World Heritage Sites’?

(A)  Ahmedabad

(B)  Hyedrabad

(C)  Murshidabad

(D)  Srinagar

Answer: (A)

9. Which mineral is popularly known as ‘buried sunshine’?

(A)  Iron

(B)  Bauxite

(C)  Mica

(D)  Coal

Answer: (D)

10. What is the primary function of the eccrine glands?

(A)  To produce sweat

(B)  To produce colour of the skin

(C)  To produce body hair

(D)  To produce growth hormones

Answer: (A)

11. Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker are two architects credited to have designed the city of-

(A)  Allahabad (Prayagraj)

(B)  Chandigarh

(C)  Raipur

(D)  New Delhi

Answer: (D)

12. The ‘Hemis Tsechu’ festival commemorates the birth anniversary of-

(A)  Dalai Lama

(B)  Gautama Buddha

(C)  Guru Padmasambhava

(D)  Adi Shankaracharya

Answer: (C)

13. Which one of the following can be categorized as a solution?

(A)  Diamond

(B)  Sea Water

(C)  Salt

(D)  Coal

Answer: (B)

14. ‘All-Aye-Ligang’, a spring festival, is associated with which state?

(A)  Sikkim

(B)  Odisha

(C)  Assam

(D)  Bihar

Answer: (C)

15. Which substance covers the root of the both?

(A)  Cementum

(B)  Pulp

(C)  Dentin

(D)  Enamel

Answer: (A)

16. What kind of relationship exists between income and demand in case of normal goods?

(A)  There is no impact of income on demand

(B)  Sometimes there is a direct and sometimes an inverse relationship

(C)  There is a direct relationship

(D)  There is an inverse relationship

Answer: (C)

17. Which article of the Constitution of India states that ‘all authorities, civil and judicial, ion the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court’?

(A)  Article 137

(B)  Article 121

(C)  Article 144

(D)  Article 157

Answer: (C)

18. In which year did King George V assume the crown of India?

(A)  1917

(B)  1906

(C)  1923

(D)  1911

Answer: (D)

19. How many polities does the institutional mechanism of federalism accommodate?

(A)  Two

(B)  One

(C)  Four

(D)  Three

Answer: (A)

20. Which of the following is an international agreement between government that aims to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival?

(A)  CITES

(B)  BRICS

(C)  OPEC

(D)  GATS

Answer: (A)

21. The pouch connected to the junction of the small intestine and the large intestine is called-

(A)  condyle

(B)  caacum

(C)  coccyx

(D)  axilia

Answer: (B)

22. The narrow zone of contact between the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere where natural vegetation and wildlife exist is called the-

(A)  exosphere

(B)  geosphere

(C)  biosphere

(D)  troposphere

Answer: (C)

23. How many tiers are there in the Panchayat Raj structure?

(A)  Three

(B)  Four

(C)  Five

(D)  Two

Answer: (A)

24. Which chemical law proposes that ‘soft drinks and soda bottles are sealed under high pressure to increase the solubility of CO2’ ?

(A)  Raoult’s law

(B)  Henry’s law

(C)  Ohm’s law

(D)  Dalton’s law

Answer: (B)

25. The breaking up and decay of exposed rocks by temperature changes, frost action, plants, animals and human activity is called-

(A)  weathering

(B)  smelting

(C)  deforestation

(D)  erosion

Answer: (A)

26. Who became the first female to be appointed to the ICC International Panel of Match Referees in 2019?

(A)  GS Lakshmi

(B)  Diana Edulji

(C)  Jhulan Goswami

(D)  Sudha Shah

Answer: (A)

27. Which river has tributaries by the name of Dri, Mathun, Talon, Eme, Ahi, Emra and Awa?

(A)  Dibang

(B)  Godavari

(C)  Kaveri

(D)  Lohit

Answer: (A)

28. Which of the following metals in pure form has the highest melting point?

(A)  Tungsten

(B)  Copper

(C)  Platinum

(D)  Gold

Answer: (A)

29. Who ruled My sore under a subsidiary alliance with the British after the defeat of Tipu Sultan at the Battle of Seringapatam?

(A)  Gangas

(B)  Kadambas

(C)  Wodeyars

(D)  Pandyans

Answer: (C)

30. Leshalaptu’ is a folk dance of which Indian state?

(A)  Kerala

(B)  Nagaland

(C)  Karnataka

(D)  Goa

Answer: (B)

31. In the plant kingdom, ‘Ferns and Fer allies’ belong to which group?

(A)  Gymnosperms

(B)  Thallophyta

(C)  Bryophyta

(D)  Pteridophyte

Answer: (D)

32. Who became the Nawab of Bengal after the death of Alivardi Khan in 1756?

(A)  Mir Jafar

(B)  Murshid Quli Khan

(C)  Siraj ud-Daullah

(D)  Sujan Khan

Answer: (C)

33. Which explorer discovered sea route to India in 1498?

(A)  Thomas Coryat

(B)  Megasthenes

(C)  Marco Polo

(D)  Vasco da Gama

Answer: (D)

34. The physics phenomenon when, in polar regions like Aalska and Northern Canada, a splendid display of colours is seed in the sky is called a/an-

(A)  aurora borealis

(B)  star shower

(C)  active galactic nucleus

(D)  star’s intrinsic luminosity

Answer: (A)

35. In which of the following states is ‘Me-Dam-Me-Phi’ the festival of ancestor worship celebrated?

(A)  Odisha

(B)  Chhattisgarh

(C)  Madhya Pradesh

(D)  Assam

Answer: (D)

36. Who became the first player of Indian origin to play in an NBA game?

(A)  Sim Bhullar

(B)  Palpreet Singh

(C)  Amjyot Singh

(D)  Satnam Singh

Answer: (A)

37. Who is the author of the book ‘The Free Voice : On Democracy, Culture and the Nation’ ?

(A)  Ravish Kumar

(B)  Arnav Goswami

(C)  Barkha Dutt

(D)  Rahul Kanwal

Answer: (A)

38. Representatives of the Maratha Empire and the British East India Company signed the ‘Treaty of Salbai’ in which year?

(A)  1782

(B)  1769

(C)  1758

(D)  1771

Answer: (A)

39. What is India’s ranking in the Global Economic Freedom Index 2019?

(A)  62nd

(B)  79th

(C)  55th

(D)  83rd

Answer: (B)

40. As per the Constitution of India, the subject of ‘live-stock and animal husbandry’ is included in the-

(A)  Residuary List

(B)  State List

(C)  Union List

(D)  Concurrent List

Answer: (B)

41. Abhijit Vinayak Banerjee was awarded the 2019 Nobel memorial Prize in-

(A)  Chemistry

(B)  Physics

(C)  Literature

(D)  Economics

Answer: (D)

42. In which year was the ‘National Food for Work Programme’ launched in India?

(A)  2000

(B)  1991

(C)  2002

(D)  2004

Answer: (D)

43. Who is first India rower to win a gold at the Asian Games in the year 2010?

(A)  Sawarn Singh

(B)  Bajrang Lal Takhar

(C)  Dattu Baban Bhokanal

(D)  Dushyant Chauhan

Answer: (B)

44. Which Governor-General of India, in 1772, introduced two courts in each district-a criminal court (faujdari adalat) and a civil court (diwani adalat)?

(A)  Lord Dalhousie

(B)  Warren Hastings

(C)  Richard Wellesley

(D)  Robert Clive

Answer: (B)

45. Which one of the following is a distinctive characteristic of angiosperm?

(A)  Thick bark

(B)  Small roots

(C)  Long leaf

(D)  Conceald seeds

Answer: (D)

46. ‘Jnanpith Award’, one of India’s highest literary award, was conceived in the year-

(A)  1972

(B)  1961

(C)  1957

(D)  1969

Answer: (B)

47. Who became the first Indian male squash player to enter the top 10 in the PSA world rankings?

(A)  Cyrus Poncha

(B)  Ramit Tandon

(C)  Sourav Ghosai

(D)  Mahesh Mangaonkar

Answer: (C)

48. Which economist developed international trade theory in 1817 based on comparative advantage and specialization?

(A)  Paul Krugman

(B)  Gary Becker

(C)  Milton Friedman

(D)  David Picardo

Answer: (D)

49. As of October 2019, how many nuclear power plants are present in India?

(A)  11

(B)  7

(C)  9

(D)  5

Answer: (B)

50. Which mineral is also known as ‘fool’s gold’?

(A)  Quartz

(B)  Magneti

(C)  Pyrite

(D)  Fluorite

Answer: (C)

General Intelligence and Reasoning

1. Which of the following pairs of numbers and signs, when their positions are interchanged, will correctly solve the given mathematical equation?

17 × 15 + 3 – 11 ÷ 3 = 45

(A)  15 and 11, ÷ and ×

(B)  17 and 3, − and ÷

(C)  15 and 11, − and ×

(D)  15 and 11, + and −

Answer: (A)

2. Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(A)  Wall

(B)  Ceiling

(C)  Floor

(D)  Fan

Answer: (D)

3. Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term.

QMDFEHKNJ : FDEMQVJNKH : : ? : HLIOPTER

(A)  ILEHOERTP

(B)  ILEHLRETP

(C)  ILEHORETP

(D)  LIEHLREPT

Answer: (B)

4. A farmer is preparing his field. He starts his tractor from garage and drives 5 km towards East. From there, he turns right and drives 6 km. Then, he turns right and drives 8 km. Again, he turns right and drives 10 km when his tractor breaks down. What is current location and garage?

(A)  9 km

(B)  6 km

(C)  5 km

(D)  2 km

Answer: (C)

5. Stayen starts walking towards North. After walking 70 m he turns to left and walks 35 m straight. He then turns to left and walks 30 m, again, he turns to the left and walks a distance of 35 m. How far is he from the starting point and in which direction?

(A)  40 m, South

(B)  35 m, North

(C)  35 m, South

(D)  40 m, North

Answer: (D)

6. Four pairs of numbers have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose out the odd one.

(A)  16 – 3

(B)  50 – 7

(C)  51 – 25

(D)  34 – 32

Answer: (D)

7. Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed)

Answer: (A)

8. If D = 12, AGE = 39, then ‘JADE’ will be equal to?

(A)  62

(B)  40

(C)  58

(D)  60

Answer: (D)

9. Select the option that will replace the question mark to complete the given series.

7, 17, 41, 85, ?, 257

(A)  155

(B)  105

(C)  165

(D)  150

Answer: (A)

10. Four pairs of numbers have been given, out off which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose out the odd one.

(A)  798 : 897 : 798

(B)  432 : 324 : 231

(C)  321 : 213 : 123

(D)  564 : 645 : 456

Answer: (B)

11. ‘Greedy’ is related to ‘Generous’ in the same way as ‘Vindictive’ is related to-

(A)  Merciful

(B)  Revengeful

(C)  Inimical

(D)  Apathetic

Answer: (A)

12. Select the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the following classes.

Answer: (D)

13. 

Answer: (D)

14. Four numbers have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(A)  113

(B)  117

(C)  103

(D)  107

Answer: (B)

15. Select the Venn diagram that best represent the relationship between the following classes.

Answer: (D)

16. How many triangles are three in the given figure?

(A)  33

(B)  32

(C)  30

(D)  25

Answer: (A)

17. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

AOE : FUJ : : RKT : ?

(A)  WQY

(B)  WOY

(C)  VOY

(D)  VQX

Answer: (A)

18. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷, and ÷ means +, then what will be the value of following expression?

13 – 3 + 15 × 3 ÷ 5 = ?

(A)  41

(B)  37

(C)  42

(D)  39

Answer: (D)

19. Select the letter that can replace the question-mark (?) in the following series.

K, J, L, I, ?, H

(A)  D

(B)  N

(C)  L

(D)  M

Answer: (D)

20. Select the option that embedded in the given figure (Rotation is not allowed)

Answer: (B)

21. Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

Answer: (D)

22. Select the option in which the numbers shares the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of numbers.

(73, 78, 93)

(A)  (29, 34, 39)

(B)  (23, 33, 38)

(C)  (145, 150, 165)

(D)  (67, 72, 82)

Answer: (C)

23. Select the option that will fill in the blank and complete the given series.

FTB, IQE, LNH, OKK, ?

(A)  RHN

(B)  RGM

(C)  SHM

(D)  SHN

Answer: (A)

24. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

(I) Some Delhites are Singaporeans.

(II) No Singaporean is an American.

Conclusions:
(I) Some Americans are Singaporeans.

(II) All Singaporeans are Delhites.

(A)  Neither conclusion I nor II follows

(B)  Only conclusion I follows

(C)  Either conclusion I or II follows

(D)  Only conclusion II follows

Answer: (A)

25. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words.

(A)  Table : Spoke

(B)  House : Room

(C)  Star : Galaxy

(D)  Chapter : Book

Answer: (B)

26. Which of the given options would be a logical sequence of the following words?

(1) Decameter    (2) Millimeter

(3) Hectometer   (4) Centimeter

(5) Decimeter

(A)  3, 1, 5, 2, 4

(B)  5, 1, 3, 2, 4

(C)  2, 1, 5, 3, 4

(D)  3, 1, 5, 4, 2

Answer: (D)

27. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Ballet : Choreographer :: Clothes : ?

(A)  Tailor

(B)  Printer

(C)  Shopkeeper

(D)  Producer

Answer: (A)

28. Which of the option figures is the exact mirror image of the given problem figure when the mirror is held to the right side of the problem figure?

Answer: (B)

29. Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

Answer: (D)

30. If the given figure is folded to form a cube, which symbol will come opposite 

Answer: (C)

31. Four letter-cluster have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(A)  BEHK

(B)  GJMQ

(C)  MPSV

(D)  RUXA

Answer: (B)

32. In a certain code language, ‘RIVER’ is written as ’10-3-5-2-10’ then how will ‘PETROL’ be written in the same code language?

(A)  11-2-7-10-13-16

(B)  13-5-8-9-4-15

(C)  12-2-8-10-13-15

(D)  12-2-8-10-4-16

Answer: (D)

33. If in a certain code, ‘BRIDGE’ is written as ‘ACQSHJCEFFHDF’, what is the code of POWER?

(A)  OQNPVXEFRS

(B)  OQNPVXDFOS

(C)  QONPXVDFQS

(D)  QOPNVXDFSQ

Answer: (B)

34. The two given expressions on either side of the ‘=’ sign will have the same value if two terms on either side or on the same side are interchanged. Find from the given option the correct terms to be inter-changed.

5 × 2 + 8 ÷ 2 – 1 = 9 – 6 ÷ 3 + 6 × 3

(A)  8, 9

(B)  5, 9

(C)  2, 6

(D)  1, 9

Answer: (B)

35. In a certain code language, ‘apple’ is called ‘pear’, ‘pear’ is called ‘orange’, ‘orange’ is called ‘guava’ and ‘guava’ is called ‘melon’. In this language, which one of the following will be a citrus fruit?

(A)  Pear

(B)  Melon

(C)  Guava

(D)  Orange

Answer: (C)

36. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question-mark (?) in it.

(A)  15

(B)  25

(C)  22

(D)  23

Answer: (C)

37. Four pairs of letter-cluster have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(A)  OLEV-EVOL

(B)  ARNI-RMIZ

(C)  TSRA-ZIHG

(D)  XHEP-KVRA

Answer: (D)

38. Four pairs of numbers have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose out the odd one.

(A)  64 : 100 : 18

(B)  25 : 16 : 9

(C)  16 : 64 : 12

(D)  81 : 9 : 12

Answer: (D)

39. A statement is given followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the given statements as true and decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statement : The Prime Minister has made clear that his government will make concerted effort for the upliftment of poor farmers and announced an annual pension for them.

Conclusions:

(I) Government understands that the condition of poor farmers needs immediate attention.

(II) No benefits are announced for other sections of society.

(A)  Both conclusions I and II follow

(B)  Only conclusion I nor II follows

(C)  Neither conclusion I nor Ii follows

(D)  Only conclusion I follows

Answer: (D)

40. The Venn diagram given below shows the artists in a Music School. The ‘Triangle’ represents ‘Pianists’, ‘Circle’ represents ‘Drummers’ : The ‘Rectangle’ represents ‘Guitarist and the ‘Square’ represents ‘Singers’. The numbers given in the diagram represents number of persons of that particular category.

How many singers are also pianists and guitarists but not Drummers ?

(A)  9

(B)  7

(C)  5

(D)  12

Answer: (C)

41. Select the option that will replace the question mark to complete the given series.

40, 50, 61, 73, 86, ?, 115

(A)  99

(B)  105

(C)  100

(D)  98

Answer: (C)

42. Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(A)  Rockets

(B)  Planets

(C)  Galaxies

(D)  Stars

Answer: (A)

43. Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of numbers.

76 : 171

(A)  24 : 39

(B)  52 : 115

(C)  28 : 63

(D)  62 : 135

Answer: (C)

44. Which of the option figures is the exact mirror image of the given problem figure when the mirror is held to the right side of the problem figure?

Answer: (C)

45. Arrange the following words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary.

(1) Meticulous    (2) Metric

(3) Method         (4) Mettle

(5) Meter

(A)  5, 3, 1, 4, 2

(B)  5, 1, 3, 2, 4

(C)  3, 4, 5, 1, 2

(D)  5, 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: (D)

46. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words.

Lotus : Flower

(A)  Furniture : Wood

(B)  Rial : Currency

(C)  Paper : Book

(D)  Metal : Copper

Answer: (B)

47. Identify the number that does NOT belong to the following series.

104, 108, 54, 58. 29, 31

(A)  29

(B)  54

(C)  58

(D)  31

Answer: (D)

48. The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?

Answer: (D)

49. Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.

9 : 102 : : 11 : 146 : : 13 : ?

(A)  198

(B)  171

(C)  175

(D)  200

Answer: (A)

50. Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and fourth number is related to third number.

31 : 3 : : 75 : 35 : : 54 : ?

(A)  19

(B)  9

(C)  20

(D)  21

Answer: (C)

SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination-2019 Tier-I (Shift-III) held on 03-03-2020 Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination-2019 Tier-I (Shift-III) held on 03-03-2020

General Intelligence and Reasoning

1. Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question-mark (?) n the following series-
KQG, JTK, HXO, ECS, ?

(A)  BIV

(B)  AIW

(C)  AHW

(D)  BIX

Answer: (B)

2.The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?

Answer: (D)

3. Select the correct mirror image of the given alphanumeric-cluster when a mirror is placed on the right side of the cluster-

Answer: (D)

4. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question-mark (?) in it-

(A)  268

(B)  166

(C)  164

(D)  162

Answer: (D)

5. Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd word-

(A)  Peace

(B)  Non-violence

(C)  Truth

(D)  Hatred

Answer: (D)

6. Select the figure that can replace the question-mark (?) in the following series.

Answer: (A)

7. Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship between the following classes?

Answer: (B)

8. Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

7 : 329 :: 9 : ?

(A)  1029

(B)  728

(C)  711

(D)  743

Answer: (C)

9. The total of the ages of Amit and Suvarna on 1 January, 2015 is 61 years. Amit is three years younger than Suvarna. What was the age of Suvarna on 1 January, 2010?

(A)  27 years

(B)  24 years

(C)  29 years

(D)  32 years

Answer: (A)

10. Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number pair that is different from the rest-

(A)  35 : 1221

(B)  21 : 437

(C)  11 : 118

(D)  33 : 1085

Answer: (C)

11. Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster-

(A)  BGLQ

(B)  OTYD

(C)  KPUZ

(D)  HMRV

Answer: (D)

12. Select the option in which the given figure X is embedded (rotation is not allowed)

Answer: (D)

13. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words-

Calendar : Date

(A)  Class : Group

(B)  Weight : Kilogram

(C)  Food : Vegetarian

(D)  Clock : Time

Answer: (D)

14. In a certain code language, ‘SERVANT’ is coded as ‘192182211420’. How will ‘MAGNIFY’ be coded as in that language?

(A)  1426693625

(B)  1316143522

(C)  1317143625

(D)  1417139625

Answer: (C)

15. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

(A)  24

(B)  18

(C)  20

(D)  22

Answer: (C)

16. Select the letter that can replace the question-mark (?) in the following series-

O, B, L, C, I, D, F, E, ?

(A)  K

(B)  C

(C)  H

(D)  N

Answer: (B)

17. ‘Beverages’ is related to ‘Tea’ in the same way as ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘………..’ .

(A)  Doctor

(B)  Hospital

(C)  Analgesics

(D)  Disease

Answer: (C)

18. Select the number that can replace the question-mark (?) in the following series.

87, 89, 92, 97, 104, 115, ?, 145

(A)  125

(B)  128

(C)  133

(D)  132

Answer: (B)

19. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) ?

Statements:

(1) All prizes are medals.

(2) Some prizes are certificates.

Conclusions:

(I) Some certificates pare prizes.

(II) Some medals are prizes.

(III) Some certificates are medals.

(A)  Only conclusions I and III follow

(B)  Only conclusion II and III follow

(C)  All conclusions I, II and III follow

(D)  Only conclusions I and II follow

Answer: (C)

20. In a certain code language, ‘DEPEND’ is written as ‘EPHTJJ’. How will ‘TRAVEL’ be written as in that language?

(A)  MGWEWY

(B)  NGYFWZ

(C)  MGYEWZ

(D)  MGZEXZ

Answer: (C)

21. Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers in the given set-

(11, 165, 209)

(A)  (14, 210, 276)

(B)  (17, 245, .323)

(C)  (12, 180, 228)

(D)  (15, 225, 275)

Answer: (C)

22. Which two signs and two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

17 + 11 – 12 × 36 ÷ 6 = 80

(A)  × and −; 17 and 11

(B)  + and −; 6 and 12

(C)  × and −; 6 and 12

(D)  × and −; 17 and 12

Answer: (C)

23. Select the dices that can be formed by folding the given sheet along the lines-

(A)  Only II, III and IV

(B)  Only II and III

(C)  Only II and IV

(D)  Only I and II

Answer: (B)

24. If the following words are arranged as per their order in the English dictionary which of the following words will come third in the sequence?

(1) Isomer           (2) Isoline

(3) Isotope          (4) Isolate

(5) Isologs          (5) Isonomy

(A)  Isologs

(B)  Isoline

(C)  Isolate

(D)  Isomer

Answer: (A)

25. A + B means ‘A is the father of B’;

A – B means ‘A is the sister of B’;

A × B means ‘A is the brother of B’;
A ÷ B means ‘A is the mother of B’.

If U + H × L – Q ÷ R – Y, then how is related to Y?

(A)  Mother’s brother

(B)  Mother’s sister

(C)  Sister

(D)  Maternal grandmother

Answer: (B)

General Awareness

26. The last recognized king of the Gupta line was-

(A)  Samudragupta

(B)  Bimbisara

(C)  Ashoka

(D)  Vishnugupta

Answer: (D)

27. In …………. economies, all productive resources are owned and controlled by the government.

(A)  dual

(B)  socialist

(C)  mixed

(D)  capitalist

Answer: (B)

28. The birth anniversary of ….. is celebrated as ‘International Nurses Day’ every year.

(A)  Florence Nightingale

(B)  Alice Walker

(C)  Clara Barton

(D)  Mother Teresa

Answer: (A)

29. The city of ……… is located at the mouth of the Yangtze River.

(A)  Beijing

(B)  Guangzhou

(C)  Shanghai

(D)  Lhasa

Answer: (C)

30. As of December 2019, ……… was the largest crude oil supplier to India.

(A)  Iraq

(B)  Saudi Arabia

(C)  United Arab Emirates

(D)  Iran

Answer: (A)

31. Who among the following publishes the Economic Survey of India?

(A)  National Development Council

(B)  Ministry of Finance

(C)  Institute of Finance

(D)  Indian Statistical Institute

Answer: (B)

32. Name the Indian elected to the International Narcotics Control Board by the UN Economic and Social Council on 23 April, 2014 and re-elected by the Council for a 5-year term (2020-25) on 7 May, 2019

(A)  Sudhir Rajkumar

(B)  Jagjit Pavadia

(C)  Syed Akbaruddin

(D)  Yasmid Ali Haque

Answer: (B)

33. In October 2019, ……… was appointed as the secretary of the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).

(A)  Brijesh Patel

(B)  Sourav Ganguly

(C)  Jay Shah

(D)  Jayesh George

Answer: (C)

34. 1 horse power = approximately ………. watts.

(A)  746

(B)  764

(C)  647

(D)  674

Answer: (A)

35. Which of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC Association?

(A)  Pakistan

(B)  Nepal

(C)  China

(D)  Bhutan

Answer: (C)

36. The process of coating grooves or engravings in ornaments with coloured enamels is called-

(A)  Phulkari

(B)  Zardozi

(C)  Chikankari

(D)  Meenakari

Answer: (D)

37. Who was the first Indian to receive the International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) Blue Cross?

(A)  Ronjan Sodhi

(B)  Vijay Kumar

(C)  Gagan Narang

(D)  Abhinav Bindra

Answer: (D)

38. Which of the following is not a part of the brain?

(A)  Medulla

(B)  Thalamus

(C)  Pons

(D)  Pinna

Answer: (D)

39. As of January 2020, which of the following countries had not independently launched a human into space?

(A)  India

(B)  USA

(C)  Russia

(D)  China

Answer: (A)

40. The first ruler of Magadha from the Haryanka dynasty was-

(A)  Ashoka

(B)  Prasenajit

(C)  Bimbisara

(D)  Aiatshatru

Answer: (C)

41. The ……… helps in equalizing the pressure on either sides of the ear drum.

(A)  cochlear nerve

(B)  malleus

(C)  Eustachian tube

(D)  incus

Answer: (C)

42. Calcium sulphate dihydrate is commonly known as-

(A)  Gypsum

(B)  Glass

(C)  Asbestos

(D)  Limestone

Answer: (A)

43. Who among the following was a famous ‘Qawwall’ singer?

(A)  Nazia Hassan

(B)  Begum Akhtar

(C)  Nusrat Fateh Ali Khan

(D)  Bade Ghulam Ali Khan

Answer: (C)

44. …….. became the Prime Minister of Bhutan in November 2018.

(A)  Lyonchhen Lotay Tshering

(B)  Lyonchhen Jigme Thinley

(C)  Lyonpo Sonam Tobgye

(D)  Lyonpo Sangay Ngedup

Answer: (A)

45. ……….., the world’s highest polo ground, is located in Pakistan.

(A)  Kasur

(B)  Attock

(C)  Shandur

(D)  Okara

Answer: (C)

46. ‘Kiribath’ is a rice dish form-

(A)  Myanmar

(B)  Bhutan

(C)  Nepal

(D)  Sri Lanka

Answer: (D)

47. The Gupta rulers imposed a fine called…….. which was a plough tax paid by every cultivator owning a plough.

(A)  Hiranya

(B)  Sulka

(C)  Halivakara

(D)  Kara

Answer: (C)

48. …………. is the largest city in Sri Lanka.

(A)  Colombo

(B)  Negombo

(C)  Kandy

(D)  Jaffna

Answer: (A)

49. Hiuen Tsang, hailed as the price of pilgrims, visited India during the reign of king-

(A)  Ashoka

(B)  Vishnugupta

(C)  Samudragupta

(D)  Harsha

Answer: (D)

50. Lucifer is another name for the planet-

(A)  Jupiter

(B)  Saturn

(C)  Venus

(D)  Mars

Answer: (C)

Quantitative Aptitude

51. The average of five consecutive even numbers is M. If the next five numbers are also included the average of ten numbers will be-

(A)  M + 5

(B)  11

(C)  10

(D)  M + 10

Answer: (A)

52. The value of  is equal to-

(A)  −1/3

(B)  −1/12

(C)  −19/8

(D)  −9/8

Answer: (C)

53. (a + b – c + d)2 – (a – b + c – d)2 = ?

(A)  4a(b + d – c)

(B)  2a(a + b – c)

(C)  2a(b + c – d)

(D)  4a(b – d + c)

Answer: (A)

54. If 2 sin θ – 8 cos2 θ + 5 = 0, 0° < θ < 90°, then what is the value of (tan 2θ + cosec 2θ)

(A)  3√3

(B)  4√3/3

(C)  2√3

(D)  5√3/3

Answer: (D)

55. Two racers run at a speed of 100 m/min and 120 m/min, respectively. If the second racer takes 10 minutes less than the first to complete the run, then how long is the race?

(A)  2 km

(B)  4 km

(C)  6 km

(D)  1 km

Answer: (C)

Direction-The table below shows income (in rupees) for a particular month, together with their sources is respect of 5 employees A, B, C, D and E-

56. How many employees have their salary more than four times their other incomes?

(A)  3

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

57. As per data in the table, what is the percentage of students who got 20 or more marks?

(A)  14%

(B)  58%

(C)  54%

(D)  42%

Answer: (D)

58. The value of 

(A)  1+ √3

(B)  8/√3

(C)  8/3

(D)  √3 + 3

Answer: (C)

59. In the figure, what is the value of cot θ ?

(A)  17/18

(B)  15/17

(C)  15/8

(D)  8/15

Answer: (C)

60. A can finish a work in 20 days and B can finish the same work in 25 days. They began together, but B left the work after 5 days. How many more days will A take to finish the remaining work?

(A)  11

(B)  8

(C)  16

(D)  21

Answer: (A)

61. The curved surface area of hemisphere with radius 7 cm is- (Take π = 22/7)

(A)  616 cm2

(B)  385 cm2

(C)  462 cm2

(D)  308 cm2

Answer: (D)

62. The value of  is-

(A)  7

(B)

(C) 

(D)  1/7

Answer: (A)

63. From the following table, how many patients were in the age group 40 – 60?

(A)  45

(B)  29

(C)  6

(D)  16

Answer: (D)

Direction- The number of students enrolled in different faculties in a school is as follows-

64. The percentage of students studying in Science and Vocational subject is-

(A)  93%

(B)  50%

(C)  37.2%

(D)  25%

Answer: (C)

65. In ∆ABC, if AB = AC and ∠BAC = 40°, then the measure of ∠B is-

(A)  60°

(B)  40°

(C)  70°

(D)  50°

Answer: (C)

66. What should replace * in the number 94 * 2357, so that number is divisible by 11?

(A)  1

(B)  7

(C)  8

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

67. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 7. If the first number is 20, then the second number will be-

(A)  8

(B)  22

(C)  28

(D)  18

Answer: (C)

68. If the difference between 62% and 80% of a number is 198, then the difference between 92% and 56% of the number will be-

(A)  1100

(B)  3564

(C)  396

(D)  360

Answer: (C)

69. In the given figure, AP bisects ∠ If AB = 4 cm AC = 6 cm and BP = 3 cm, then the length of CP is-

(A)  3 cm

(B)  7 cm

(C)  5 cm

(D)  4.5 cm

Answer: (D)

70. A dealer sold 6 sewing machines for Rs 63,.000 with a profit of 5%. For how much should he sell 8 machines if the intends to earn 15% profit?

(A)  Rs 88,200

(B)  Rs 69,300

(C)  Rs 92,000

(D)  Rs 92,400

Answer: (C)

71. In the given figure, AP and BP are tangents to a circle with centre O. If ∠APB = 62°, then the measure of ∠AQB is-

(A)  28°

(B)  118°

(C)  31°

(D)  59°

Answer: (D)

72. The value of 27a3 – 2√2 b3 is equal to-

(A)  (3a – √2 b) (9a2 – 2b2 + 6√2

(B)  (3a – √2 b) (9a2 + 2b2 + 6√2

(C)  (3a – √2 b) (9a2 + 2b2 + 3√2

(D)  (3a – √2 b) (9a2 – 2b2 – 3√2

Answer: (C)

73. In a circle with radius 5 cm a chord is at a distance of 3 cm from the centre. The length of the chord is-

(A)  3 cm

(B)  7 cm

(C)  8 cm

(D)  4 cm

Answer: (C)

74. A person marked his goods at a price that would give him 40% profit. But he declared a sale and allowed 20% discount on the marked price. What is the profit percentage of the person in the whole transaction?

(A)  12%

(B)  32%

(C)  30%

(D)  20%

Answer: (A)

75. The simple interest on a certain sum at the end of three years at 5% p.a. is Rs 1,200. The compound interest on the same sum for the same period at the same rate is (interest compound yearly)-

(A)  Rs 1,800

(B)  Rs 1,261

(C)  Rs 820

(D)  Rs 1,260

Answer: (B)

English Comprehension

76. Select the incorrectly spelt word-

(A)  Patrner

(B)  Piteous

(C)  Pierce

(D)  Pursue

Answer: (A)

77. In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error-

Deepa walked down the road slowly without looking anybody.

(A)  down the road

(B)  slowly without

(C)  looking anybody

(D)  Deepa walked

Answer: (C)

78. Select the incorrectly spelt word-

(A)  Negligible

(B)  Negociate

(C)  Necessary

(D)  Nuisance

Answer: (B)

79. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech. She said to me, “What time has your flight tomorrow?”

(A)  She asked me what time is my flight the next day

(B)  She asked me what time my flight will be the next day

(C)  She asked me what time my flight was the following day

(D)  She asked me that what time was my flight tomorrow

Answer: (C)

80. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the bold segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

My shoes were worn out so I had to buy a new one

(A)  a new ones

(B)  new ones

(C)  No improvement

(D)  the new one’s

Answer: (B)

81. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom-

Blow one’s own trumpet.

(A)  Follow others

(B)  Praise oneself

(C)  Condemn others

(D)  Be self-reliant

Answer: (B)

Directions- (Q. 82 to 86) In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill each blank.

   Watermelon is thought to have originated in Africa’s Kalahari Desert. Believe it (1) …….. not, the first recorded watermelon harvest (2) ….. nearly 5000 years ago in Egypt and is (3)…… in Egyptian hieroglyphics on the walls of their (4) …. buildings. This fruit was often placed (5) …… the burial tombs of kings to provide nourishment in the afterlife.

82. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1-

(A)  but

(B)  or

(C)  and

(D)  if

Answer: (B)

83. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2-

(A)  contained

(B)  produced

(C)  discovered

(D)  occurred

Answer: (D)

84. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3-

(A)  depicted

(B)  diverted

(C)  distributed

(D)  directed

Answer: (A)

85. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4-

(A)  obsolete

(B)  outdated

(C)  ancient

(D)  elderly

Answer: (C)

86. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 5-

(A)  along

(B)  with

(C)  in

(D)  after

Answer: (C)

87. Select the most appropriate one word substitution for the given group of words-

A place where clothes are kept.

(A)  Coffin

(B)  Wardrobe

(C)  Hangar

(D)  Shaft

Answer: (B)

88. In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error-

Everything that I like to eat are fattening.

(A)  Everything that

(B)  I like

(C)  are fattening

(D)  to eat

Answer: (C)

89. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

VIGILANT

(A)  Wary

(B)  Rash

(C)  Alert

(D)  Cautious

Answer: (B)

90. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word-

(A)  Supple

(B)  Stiff

(C)  Stale

(D)  Soft

Answer: (B)

91. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank-

The government has warned the traders not to …… onions.

(A)  hoard

(B)  combine

(C)  gross

(D)  bulk

Answer: (A)

92. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the bold segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitutes it, select No Improvement-

He sing always when he is having a shower.

(A)  He always sings

(B)  He always sing

(C)  No improvement

(D)  Always he is singing

Answer: (A)

93. Given below are four jumbled sentence Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order-

(1) He that called out to the people but by then only a red glow was visible in the sky.

(2) At first, he thought it was a stuck kite.

(3) Bheema was visiting his fields when he spotted a rising disc shaped object.

(4) But when it started rising higher and emitted light, he was shocked.

(A)  2, 1, 3, 4

(B)  2, 4, 1, 3

(C)  3, 4, 1, 2

(D)  3, 2, 4, 1

Answer: (D)

94. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word-

Implore

(A)  Command

(B)  Honour

(C)  Plead

(D)  Refuse

Answer: (C)

95. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order-

(1) It requires physical endurance, which can be built with training and exercise.

(2) Truly strong personalities meet challenges of life bravely and face hardships with equanimity.

(3) However, strength of character is a personality trait or a quality.

(4) Physical strength is the ability to cope with a physically challenging task.

(A)  3, 2, 1, 4

(B)  2, 1, 3, 4

(C)  4, 1, 3, 2

(D)  4, 2, 3, 1

Answer: (C)

96. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank-

The students went to their …….. classes after the morning assembly.

(A)  respected

(B)  respective

(C)  respectable

(D)  respectful

Answer: (B)

97. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice-

Martin drew a picture of the snow-capped mountains.

(A)  A picture of the snowcapped mountains has been drawn by Martin

(B)  A picture of the snowcapped mountains was drawn by Martin.

(C)  A picture of the snow-capped mountains is drawn by Martin

(D)  A picture of the snow-capped mountains be being drawn by Martin

Answer: (B)

98. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom-

Spill the beans.

(A)  Perform magic

(B)  Work hard

(C)  Waste money

(D)  Give away a secret

Answer: (D)

99. Select the most appropriate one word substitution for the given group of words-

A person very reserved in speech.

(A)  Confident

(B)  Reticent

(C)  Eloquent

(D)  Adamant

Answer: (B)

100. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word-

Glorious

(A)  Splendid

(B)  Unusual

(C)  Enormous

(D)  Gentle

Answer: (A)

Pharmaceutical Science (PY) Competitive Examination-2011 (GPAT, CET, NIPER etc.) Question Paper With Answer Key

Pharmaceutical Science (PY) Competitive Examination-2011

(GPAT, CET, NIPER etc.)

1. A glycoalkaloid:

(P) Contains sulphur in addition to nitrogen in its molecule

(Q) is glycosidic in nature.

(R) Can be hydrolysed to an alkaloid.

(S) Always contains endocylic nitrogen in its molecule.

(A)  P & R

(B)  Q & S

(C)  Q & R

(D)  P & Q

Answer: (B)

2. Which of the following statements are true for ginseng root?

(P) It is among the most traded plant material of Brazil.

(Q) It is obtained from Panax ginseng and Panax quinquefolium.

(R) It is obtained from young plants of six months to one year age.

(S) It contains derivatives of protopanaxadiol.

(A)  P & Q

(B)  R & S

(C)  Q & R

(D)  Q & S

Answer: (A)

3. Which of the following drugs is a triterpenoid containing root?

(A)  Valerian

(B)  Brahmi

(C)  Satavari

(D)  Adusa

Answer: (B)

4. Which of the following alkaloids is derived from tyrosine?

(A)  Quinine

(B)  Morphine

(C)  Atropine

(D)  Ephedrine

Answer: (D)

5. The following options carry the name of the plant, part used and its family. Find a WRONG combination.

(A)  Aegle marmelos, fruit & Rutaceae

(B)  Conium maculatum, fruit & Umbelliferae

(C)  Glycyrrhiza glabra, root and stolon & Leguminosae

(D)  Strophanthus gratus, seed & Scrophulariaceae

Answer: (D)

6. Anomocytic stomata, trichomes with collapsed cell and absence of calcium oxalate crystals are some of the microscopic features of which plant?

(A)  Digitalis

(B)  Hyoscyamus

(C)  Mentha

(D)  Senna

Answer: (A)

7. Each of the following options lists the name of the drug, its class, pharmacological action and plant source. Choose an option showing a WRONG combination.

(A)  Asafoetida, oleo-gum-resin, anti-flatulence, Ferula foetida

(B)  Benzoin balsam, antiseptic, Styrax benzoin

(C)  Myrrh, gum-resin, antiseptic, Commiphora wightii

(D)  Papaine, enzyme proteolytic, Carica papaya

Answer: (C)

8. Quinoline alkaloids are biosynthesized via which one of the following pathways?

(A)  Shikimic acid-tyrosine

(B)  Shikimic acid-tryptophan

(C)  Shikimic acid-cathinone

(D)  Shikimic acid-phenylalanine

Answer: (B)

9. Which of the following ergot alkaloids is water soluble and shows blue fluorescence?

(A)  Ergosine

(B)  Ergotamine

(C)  Ergocristme

(D)  Ergometrine

Answer: (D)

10. Khellin is an active constituent of which one of the following plants?

(A)  Prunus serona

(B)  Tribulus terrestis

(C)  Ammi visnaga

(D)  Vanilla plamfolia

Answer: (C)

11. Golbeater’s skin test is used to detect the presence of which one of the following classes of compounds?

(A)  Tannins

(B)  Steroids

(C)  Glycerides

(D)  Resins

Answer: (A)

12. Which one of the following compounds is useful for the stimulation of cell division and release of lateral bud dormancy?

(A)  Zeatin

(B)  2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid

(C)  Indoleacetic acid

(D)  Picloram

Answer: (A)

13. Phenylethylisoquinoline is the precursor of which of the following alkaloids?

(A)  Colchicine

(B)  Papaverine

(C)  Emetine

(D)  Cephaline

Answer: (A)

14. A powered drug has the following microscopic characters:

Anther cells, arenchyma, pollen grains, phloem fibers, volatile oil cells and stone cells. The powder is obtained from which of the followings?

(A)  Clove bud powder

(B)  Clove bud powder with stalk

(C)  Mother Clove

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

15. Arrange the following fatty acids in decreasing order of their unsaturation (highest to lowest):

(P) Stearic                      (Q) Oleic acid

(R) Lmolenic acid          (S) Linoleic acid

(A)  P > Q > R > S

(B)  S > R > P > Q

(C)  R > S > Q > P

(D)  Q > P > R > S

Answer: (C)

16. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [A] and the Reason [R]:

Assertion (A) : Tannins are plyphenolic substances occurring in plant cell sap. Hydrolysable and condensed tannins are differentiated by match stick test.

Reason (R) :  The condensed tannins are resistant to acid hydrolysis therefore stain the lignin present in match stick.

(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is a correct reason for (A)

(B)  Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct for (A)

(C)  (A) is true but (R) is NOT the correct reason for (A)

(D)  Both (A) and (R) are false

Answer: (B)

17. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [A] and the Reason [R]:

Assertion (A) :  Castor oil is soluble in alcohol and is used as purgative.

Reason (R) :  The oil contains ricinoleic acid having a hydroxyl group at C-12 position which is responsible for its solubility in alcohol and its purgative action.

(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct reason for (A)

(B)  (A) is true but (R) is NOT the correct reason for (A)

(C)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

(D)  Both (A) and (R) are false

Answer: (C)

18. In acetate mevalonate pathway geranyl pyrophosphate leads to formation of monoterpenes, the major constituents of volatile oils.

(P) Geranyl pyrophosphate contains two isoprene units

(Q) Monoterpenes have 15 carbon atoms

(R) The two isoprene units condense in head to tail fashion to give Monoterpenes

(S) Isoprene unit has molecular formula of C5 Hs.

Which one of the given statements is correct?

(A)  P is true, Q is false, R is true, S is false

(B)  P is false, Q is true, R is true, S is false

(C)  P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true

(D)  P is true, Q is false, R is true, S is true

Answer: (D)

19. Two genetic types of Cannabis i.e., drug type and Hemp types are cultivated.

(P) Drug type cannabis is rich in (−) A9-frarcs-tetrahydrocannabinol.

(Q) Hemp type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol

(R) Drug type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol

(S) Hemp type cannabis contains elongated bast fibres.

Which one of the given statements is correct?

(A)  P is true, Q is true, R is true, S is true

(B)  P is true, Q is false, R is false, S is true

(C)  P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true

(D)  P is false, Q is false, R is true, S is false

Answer: (D)

20. Each of the following options lists a phytoconstituent its phytochemical grouping, pharmacological activity and corresponding semi synthetic analogue. Find a MISMATCHING option :

(A)  Podophyllotoxin, lignin, anticancer, etoposide

(B)  Sennoside, anthraquinone, laxative, sinigrin

(C)  Atropine, alkaloid anticholinergic, homatropine

(D)  THC, terpenophenolic, psychoactive, nabilone

Answer: (B)

21. Inhibition/ induction of which of the following Ctychrome P450 enzyme system is most likely to be involved in important drug-drug interactions?

(A)  CYP3A4

(B)  CYP2D6

(C)  CYP2C9

(D)  CYP1A2

Answer: (A)

22. Which of the following mechanisms is NOT related to platelet aggregation inhibitory action?

(A)  ADP receptor antagonism

(B)  Glycoprotein Ilb/IIIa receptor antagonism

(C)  Phosphodiesterase inhibition

(D)  Prostacyclin inhibition

Answer: (D)

23. Choose the correct statement about the given four diseases?

(P) Cardiomyopathy

(Q) Rheumatoid arthritis

(R) Myasthenia gravis

(S) Ulcerative colitis

(A)  Q & S are autoimmune disorders

(B)  P & Q are autoimmune disorders

(C)  P & R are not autoimmune disorders

(D)  R & S are not autoimmune diorders

Answer: (A)

24. Which of the following species is being inactivated by the enzyme Dipeptidly peptidase-4?

(A)  Oxytocin

(B)  Vasopressin

(C)  Incretins

(D)  Glucagon

Answer: (C)

25. Patients taking isosorbide mononitrate or nitro-glycerine should be advised not take Sildenafil. This drug-drug interaction causes which of the following actions?

(A)  Respiratory failure

(B)  Severe hypotension

(C)  Prolongation of QT interval

(D)  Myocardial ischemia

Answer: (B)

26. Which of the following drugs does not induce mydriasis?

(A)  Atropine

(B)  Ephedrine

(C)  Morphin

(D)  Phentolamine

Answer: (C)

27. Which of the following statements is TRUE for angiotensm-II ?

(A)  Causes myocyte hypertrophy

(B)  Decreases the action of sympathetic nervous system

(C)  Increases force of myocardial contraction

(D)  Decreases the synthesis and release of aldosterone

Answer: (A)

28. Which of the following beta blockers has been shown clinically to reduce mortality in patients of symptomatic heart failure?

(A)  Atenolol

(B)  Carvedilol

(C)  Propranolol

(D)  Esmolol

Answer: (B)

29. All of the given four drugs cause vasodilatation.

Choose the correct statement about them.

(P) Bradykimm              (Q) Minoxidil

(R) Acetylcholine          (S) Hydralazine

(A)  P & Q cause release of nitric oxide

(B)  Q & R do not cause release of nitric oxide

(C)  R & S cause release of nitric oxide

(D)  P & S do not cause release of nitric oxide

Answer: (A)

30. Rhabdomyolysis is the side effect associated with which of the following classes of drugs?

(A)  ACE inhibitors

(B)  Statins

(C)  Calcium channel

(D)  Sodium channel blockers

Answer: (B)

31. Blood level monitoring of HBALC is important in which of the given diseased states?

(A)  Hypercholesterolemia

(B)  Diabetes

(C)  Myocardial infarction

(D)  Congestive heart failure

Answer: (B)

32. Most of the emergency contraceptives have which one of the following active ingredients?

(A)  Estradiol

(B)  Norethindr

(C)  Msoprostol

(D)  Levonorge

Answer: (D)

33. Which of the following antibiotics produces concentration dependent bactericidal action and also possesses post-antibiotic effect ?

(A)  Ceftazidime

(B)  Azithromycin

(C)  Amikacin

(D)  Piperacillin

Answer: (C)

34. Antiretroviral Raltegravir is unique, because of which of its following actions:

(A)  Integrase inhibition

(B)  CCR5 Co-receptor antgonism

(C)  Fusion inhibition

(D)  Reverse transcriptase inhibition

Answer: (A)

35. What is chemotaxis?

(A)  Toxicity of chemicals

(B)  Taxonomy of chemicals

(C)  Inhibition of Inflammation

(D)  Movement of leucocytes in inflammation

Answer: (D)

36. Which one of the following is NOT an example of G-protein coupled receptor?

(A)  Carinic cholinergic receptor

(B)  Alpha adrenoceptor

(C)  Nicotinic chlolinergic receptor

(D)  Beta adrenoceptor

Answer: (C)

37. Which of the following used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is NOT a biologic response modifier?

(A)  Anakinra

(B)  Leflunomide

(C)  Etanercept

(D)  Infliximab

Answer: (B)

38. Which of the following statements is FALSE for artemisinin?

(A)  It is a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide

(B)  It is a drug of choice in prophylaxis of malaria

(C)  It does not cure relapsing malaria

(D)  It is useful in treatment of cerebral falciparum malaria

Answer: (B)

39. Which of the following is a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme reverse transcriptase in HIV?

(A)  Lamivudine

(B)  Nevirapine

(C)  Abacavir

(D)  Tenofovir

Answer: (B)

40. Which of the following is the most effective mono-therapy for raising HDL cholesterol?

(A)  Statins

(B)  Niacin

(C)  Ezetimibe

(D)  to-3-Fatty acids

Answer: (B)

41. Which of the following parameters from plasma concentration time profile study gives indication of the rate of drug absorption?

(A)  Cmax

(B)  Tmax

(C)  AUC

(D)  t1/2

Answer: (B)

42. Which of the following pairs has high binding affinity of 5α-reductase?

(A)  Letrozole and androstenedione

(B)  Finasteride and testolactone

(C)  Finasteride and 5-DHT

(D)  Finasteride and testosterone

Answer: (C)

43. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants acts directly on the contractile mechanism of the muscle fibers?

(A)  Pancuronium

(B)  Baclofen

(C)  Dantrolene

(D)  Chlorzoxazone

Answer: (C)

44. Which is the molecular target for the vinca alkaloids as anticancer agents?

(A)  Tyrosine kinase

(B)  DNA

(C)  Ribosomes

(D)  Tubulin

Answer: (D)

45. Choose the correct pair of neurodegenerative disorders from those given below.

(A)  Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer’s disease

(B)  Schizophrenia and Mania

(C)  Alzheimer’s disease and Schizophrenia

(D)  Parkinson’s disease and Autism

Answer: (A)

46. A 64 year old woman with history of Type II diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the followings would be a POOR choice in controlling her diabetes?

(A)  Metformin

(B)  Pioghtazone

(C)  Glipizide

(D)  Exenatide

Answer: (B)

47. Mifepristone and gemeprost combination is used for medical termination of pregnancy. The action is caused due to which of the following mechanisms?

(A)  Mifepristone is an antiestrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.

(B)  Mifepristone is an antirpgestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.

(C)  Mifepristone is an antinadrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.

(D)  Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor angagonist

Answer: (B)

48. Which one of the following is a beta lactamase inhibitor?

(A)  Penicillanic acid

(B)  Embonic acid

(C)  Cephalosporanic acid

(D)  Clavulanic acid

Answer: (D)

49. All of the followings are indications for use of ACE inhibitors EXCEPT for one. Identify that:

(A)  Hypertension

(B)  Myocardial infarction

(C)  Left ventricular dysfunction

(D)  Pheochromocytoma

Answer: (D)

50. Neural tube defects may occur by the which one of the following anti-seizure drugs?

(A)  Ethosuximide

(B)  Vigabatnn

(C)  Valproic acid

(D)  Primidone

Answer: (C)

51. Which water is used for hand washing in a change room of pharmaceutical manufacturing plant?

(A)  Potable water

(B)  Purified water

(C)  Disinfectant water

(D)  Soap water

Answer: (A)

52. Which one of the following drying methods is commonly used in Pharma industry for drying of soft shell capsules?

(A)  Truck drying

(B)  Fluid bed drying

(C)  Vacuum drying

(D)  Microwave drying

Answer: (C)

53. Which one of the following does NOT afford a macromolecular inclusion compound?

(A)  Zeolites

(B)  Dextrins

(C)  Silica gels

(D)  Cyclodextrins

Answer: (D)

54. If C is the concentration of dissolved drug and Cs is the saturation concentration. In which case the sink conditions are said to be maintained?

(A)  C < 20% of Cs

(B)  C > 20% of Cs

(C)  C < 10% of Cs

(D)  C > 10% of Cs

Answer: (C)

55. Which condition does not apply as per Indian law while conducting single dose bioavailability study of an immediate release product?

(A)  Sampling period should be at least three t12 el

(B)  Sampling should represent pre-exposure, peak exposure and post-exposure phases

(C)  There should be at least four sampling points during elimination phase

(D)  Sampling should be continued till measured AUC is at least equal to 80% of AUC

Answer: (D)

56. Upon standing sometimes gel system shrinks a bit and little liquid is pressed out. What is this phenomenon known as?

(A)  Oozing

(B)  Syneresis

(C)  Shrinking

(D)  Desolvation

Answer: (B)

57. Which of the following routes of administration of drugs is associated with Phlebitis?

(A)  Subcutaneous

(B)  Intravenous

(C)  Intraspinal

(D)  Intradural

Answer: (B)

58. Study the following two statements and choose the correct answer :

(P) Antibodies are serum proteins providing immunity.

(Q) IgG provides immunity to new born babies while IgM is the first generated antibody.

(A)  P is correct and Q is incorrect

(B)  P is incorrect and Q is correct

(C)  Both P and Q are correct

(D)  Both P and Q are incorrect

Answer: (C)

59. Which microbe is used for validation of sterilization by filtration process?

(A)  Bacillus stearothermophilus

(B)  Pseudomonas diminuta

(C)  Bacillus subtilis

(D)  Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer: (A)

60. Non-linear pharmacokinetic can be expected due to:

(P) Enzyme induction

(Q) Active secretion

Choose the correct answer.

(A)  P and Q are true

(B)  P is true, Q is false

(C)  Q is true, P is false

(D)  Both P and Q are false

Answer: (A)

61. Which wavelength of the UV light provides maximum germicidial action?

(A)  253.7 nm

(B)  275.5 nm

(C)  283.5 nm

(D)  240.0 nm

Answer: (A)

62. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

(A)  Chick Martin test uses organic matter in media

(B)  The organism in Rideal-Walker test is S. typhi

(C)  Rideal-Walker test uses organic matter in media

(D)  The organism in Chick Martin test is S. typhi

Answer: (C)

63. Which of the following forces contribute to stability of charge-transfer complexes?

(A)  Resonance forces

(B)  Resonance and London dispersion forces

(C)  Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces

(D)  Resonance forces and dipole-dipole interactions

Answer: (D)

64. Which of the following isotherms are produced when the heat of condensation of successive layers is more than the heat of adsorption of first layer?

(A)  Type III and IV

(B)  Type II and V

(C)  Type I and III

(D)  Type III and V

Answer: (D)

65. Which of the following act as a non-ionic emulsifying agent?

(A)  Triethanolamine oleate

(B)  Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate

(C)  N-Cetyl-N-ethylmorpholinium ethosulfate

(D)  Dioctyl sulphosuccinate

Answer: (B)

66. The minimal effective flow rate of air in laminar flow hood it is name at parts less than how many cubic feet per minute?

(A)  10

(B)  50

(C)  100

(D)  1000

Answer: (B)

67. Which of the following Schedules include shelf life of drugs?

(A)  Schedule F

(B)  Schedule M

(C)  Schedule G

(D)  Schedule P

Answer: (D)

68. Which of the following pumps is used in handling of corrosive liquids?

(A)  Turbine pump

(B)  Volute pump

(C)  Air binding pump

(D)  Peristaltic pump

Answer: (D)

69. By addition of which of the followings the shells of soft gelatin capsules may be made elastic?

(A)  Polyethylene glycol

(B)  Sorbitol

(C)  Propylene glycol

(D)  Dibutyl phthalate

Answer: (B & C)

70. Convert 90% v/v alcohol to Proof strength. Choose the correct answer :

(A)  57.77° under proof

(B)  57.77° over proof

(C)  47.41° over proof

(D)  47.41° under proof

Answer: (B)

71. Department of Transport Test (DOT) is performed for which of the following?

(A)  Strip packing

(B)  Aerosols

(C)  Injection packing

(D)  Glass containers

Answer: (B)

72. What is the Heat of vaporization of water at 100°C?

(A)  2790 cal/mole

(B)  7290 cal/mole

(C)  7920 cal/mole

(D)  9720 cal/mole

Answer: (D)

73. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [A] and the Reason [R]:

Assertion [A] : For a pharmaceutical powder true density is greater than the granule density.

Reason [R] : Mercury displacement used for determining granule density, allows penetration of liquid into internal pores of the particles.

(A)  [A] is true but [R] is false

(B)  Both [A] and [R] are false

(C)  Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct reason for [A]

(D)  Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is NOT the correct reason for [A]

Answer: (A)

74. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements:

(P) Rheopexy is the phenomenon when a sol forms gel more readily when sheared gently.

(Q) In a rheopectic system, sol is the equilibrium form.

(R) Rheopexy is phenomenon when a sol forms gel when the material is kept at rest.

(A)  (R) is true but (P) and (Q) are false

(B)  (P) is true but (Q) and (R) are false

(C)  (P), (Q) and (R), all are false

(D)  (P), (Q) and (R), all are true

Answer: (B)

75. Define Plasmapheresis? Choose the correct answer.

(A)  The process of collecting plasma and returning the red blood cells concentrate to the donor

(B)  The process of collecting red blood cells concentrate and returning the plasma to the donor

(C)  The process of separating white blood cells from blood

(D)  The process of generating artificial blood plasma expanders

Answer: (A)

76. Molecules in the smectic liquid crystals, are characterized by which one of the followings?

(A)  Mobility in three directions and rotation in one axis

(B)  Mobility in two directions and rotation in one axis

(C)  Mobility in two directions and no rotation

(D)  Mobility in three directions and no rotation

Answer: (B)

77. Choose the correct sequence of Moisture Vapor Transmission Rate is packaging materials?

(A)  Paper > Aluminium foil > PVC > Pvdc

(B)  Aluminium foil > PVC > Pvdc > Paper

(C)  Aluminium foil > Pvdc > PVC > Paper

(D)  Paper > PVC > Pvdc > Aluminium foil

Answer: (D)

78. How many mL of 50% (w/v) dextrose solution and how many mL of 5% (w/v) dextrose solution are required to prepare 4500 mL of a 10% (w/v) solution?

(A)  500 mL of 50% and 4000 mL of 5%

(B)  1000 mL of 50% and 3500 mL of 5%

(C)  4000 mL of 50% and 500 mL of 5%

(D)  1500 mL of 50% and 3000 mL of 5%

Answer: (A)

79. A drug is administered to a 65 kg volume of distribution is 2 liter/kg and concentration of the drug? patient as 500 mg tablets every 4 hours. Half-life of the drug is 3 h, oral bioavailability of the drug is 0.85. Calculate the steady state:

(A)  5.05 mcg/ml

(B)  4.50 mcg/ml

(C)  3.53 mcg/ml

(D)  3.00 mcg/ml

Answer: (D)

80. P-Glycoprotein pump is responsible for which one of the followings?

(A)  Transporting the drugs from the enterocytes into the gut lumen

(B)  Transporting the drugs from gut lumen into enterocytes

(C)  Transporting the drugs from oral mucosa into blood capillaries

(D)  Transporting the drugs from Peyer’s patches into the gut lumen

Answer: (A)

81. Statement [X]: Hofmeister series grades coagulating power of electrolytes as per their ionic size. Statement [Y]:

The relative coagulating power is given by:

(P) Al+++ > Ba++             (Q) Li and F

(R) NH+ > Na+

Choose the correct statement:

(A)  Statement X is true but P, Q and R are false in Statement Y

(B)  Statement X is false and P, Q and R are false in Statement Y

(C)  Statement X is true and Q and R are false in Statement Y

(D)  Statement X is false and P is false in Statement

Answer: (C)

82. The first stage of wetting on addition of a granulating agent to the powders is characterized by which one of the followings?

(A)  Capillary state

(B)  Pendular state

(C)  Funicular state

(D)  Droplet state

Answer: (B)

83. Larger values of Ky in the Heckel Plot indicate formatoion of what quality of tablets?

(A)  Harder tablets

(B)  Softer tablets

(C)  Fluffy tablets

(D)  Brittle tablets

Answer: (A)

84. The degree of flocculation of suspension is 1.5 and the sedimentation volume is 0.75. What will be the ultimate volume of deflocculated suspension?

(A)  2.0

(B)  1.5

(C)  0.75

(D)  0.5

Answer: (D)

85. What will be the time required for a drug exhibiting first order rate constant of 4.6/hr to to be degraded from initial concentration of 100 mg/ml to 10 mg/ml?

(A)  2 hr

(B)  4 hr

(C)  9 hr

(D)  0.5 hr

Answer: (D)

86. What will be the does required maintaining therapeutic concentration of 20 microgram/ml for 24 hr of a drug exhibiting total clearance of 2 L/hr?

(A)  96 mg

(B)  480 mg

(C)  960 mg

(D)  48 mg

Answer: (C)

87. What will be the urine to plasma ratio of a weakly acidic drug having pKa of 5? [Urine (pH=5) plasma (pH=7]

(A)  1:101

(B)  1:201

(C)  2:101

(D)  1:202

Answer: (C)

88. The Reynolds number widely used to classify flow behavior of fluids is the ratio of which one of the followings:

(A)  Inertial forces to gravitational forces

(B)  Inertial forces to viscous forces

(C)  Viscous forces to inertial forces

(D)  Viscous forces to gravitational forces

Answer: (B)

89. If the distillation graph using McCabe Thiele method is parallel to X-axis, then the feed is one of the followings?

(A)  Saturated liquid

(B)  Saturated vapor

(C)  Super heated liquid

(D)  Super heated vapor

Answer: (A)

90. What for the baffles are provided in a shell and tube heat exchanger?

(A)  To increase turbulence

(B)  To decrease turbulence

(C)  To prevent corrosion

(D)  To increase shell side passes

Answer: (A)

91. S O S means which one of the followings?

(A)  Take occasionally

(B)  Take immediately

(C)  Take when necessary

(D)  Take as directed

Answer: (C)

92. Which statement is FALSE for Association Colloids?

(A)  They are also called amphiphiles

(B)  They contain aggregated molecules

(C)  They show partial solvation

(D)  They are also called micelles

Answer: (C)

93. Which of the following is NOT a reciprocating pump?

(A)  Plunger pump

(B)  Diaphragm pump

(C)  Gear pump

(D)  Piston pump

Answer: (C)

94. Which is NOT applicable to protein binding?

(A)  Klotz reciprocal plot

(B)  Sandberg modified equation

(C)  Blanchard equation

(D)  Detli plot

Answer: (D)

95. Statement [P] : Soft gelatin capsules contain 12-15% moisture. Statement [Q] : Hard gelatin capsule shells contain 6-10% moisture.

Choose the correct statement?

(A)  Both of the above statements P & Q are true

(B)  Both of the above statements P & Q are false

(C)  Statement P is true and Q is false

(D)  Statement P is false and Q is true

Answer: (B)

96. According to USP, the speed regulating device of the dissolution apparatus should be capable of maintaining the speed within limits of what % of the selected speed?

(A)  1%

(B)  2%

(C)  4%

(D)  5%

Answer: (C)

97. A drug whose solubility is 1 g/L is water, when given orally at a dose of 500 mg is absorbed up to 95% of the administered dose. The drug belongs to which class according to the BCS classification?

(A)  Class I

(B)  Class II

(C)  Class III

(D)  Class IV

Answer: (A)

98. Which statement is NOT true for steam distillation?

(A)  It is also called differential distillation

(B)  It can be used for separation of immiscible liquids

(C)  It can be applied for volatile substances

(D)  It can be used for separation of miscible liquids

Answer: (D)

99. The area of clear opening of any two successive sieves according to Tyler standard is in the ratio of :

(A)  1 : 4

(B)  1 : 6

(C)  1 : √2

(D)  1 : √3

Answer: (C)

100. What is Primogel?

(A)  Substituted HPMC for direct compression

(B)  Modified microcrystalline cellulose for direct compression

(C)  Hydro gelling polymer for gel formation

(D)  Modified starch for disintegration

Answer: (D)

101. Upon standing sometimes gel system shrinks a bit and little liquid is pressed out. What is this phenomenon known as?

(A)  Oozing

(B)  Syneresis

(C)  Shrinking

(D)  Desolvation

Answer: (B)

102. Study the following two statements and choose the correct answer :

(P) Antibodies are serum proteins providing immunity.

(Q) IgG provides immunity to new born babies while IgM is the first generated antibody.

(A)  P is correct and Q is incorrect

(B)  P is incorrect and Q is correct

(C)  Both P and Q are correct

(D)  Both P and Q are incorrect

Answer: (C)

103. Non-linear pharmacokinetics can be expected due to

(P) Enzyme induction

(Q) Active secretion

Choose the correct answer.

(A)  Both P and Q are true

(B)  P is true, Q is false

(C)  Q is true, P is false

(D)  Both P and Q are false

Answer: (A)

104. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?

(A)  Chick Martin test uses organic matter in media

(B)  The organism in Rideal-Walker test is S. typhi

(C)  Rideal-Walker test uses organic matter in media

(D)  The organism in Chick Martin test is S. typhi

Answer: (C)

105. Which of the following routes of administration of drugs is associated with Phlebitis?

(A)  Subcutaneous

(B)  Intravenous

(C)  Intraspinal

(D)  Intradual

Answer: (B)

106. Which microbe is used for validation of sterilization by filtration process?

(A)  Bacillus stearothermophilus

(B)  Pseudomonas diminuta

(C)  Bacillus subtilis

(D)  Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer: (A)

107. Which wavelength of the UV light provides maximum germicidal action?

(A)  253.7 nm

(B)  275.5 nm

(C)  283.5 nm

(D)  240.0 nm

Answer: (A)

108. Which of the following forces contribute to stability of charge-transfer complexes?

(A)  Resonance forces

(B)  Resonance and London dispersion forces

(C)  Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces

(D)  Resonance forces and dipole-dipole interactions

Answer: (D)

109. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements:

(P) Rheopexy is the phenomenon when a sol forms gel more readily when sheared gently.

(Q) In arheopectic system, sol is the equilibrium form.

(R) Rheopexy is a phenomenon when a sol forms gel when the material is kept at rest.

(A)  (R) is true but (P) and (Q) are false

(B)  (P) is true but (Q) and (R) are false

(C)  (P), (Q) and (R), all are false

(D)  (P), (Q) and (R), all are true

Answer: (B)

110. Molecules in the smectic liquid crystals are characterize by which one of the followings?

(A)  Mobility in three directions and rotation in one axis

(B)  Mobility in two directions and rotation in one axis

(C)  Mobility in two directions and no rotation

(D)  Mobility in three directions and no rotation

Answer: (B)

111. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following:

Assertion [A]: For a pharmaceutical powder true density is greater than the granule density.

Reason [R]: Mercury displacement used for determining granule density, allows penetration of liquid into internal pores of the particles.

(A)  [A] is true but [R] is false

(B)  Both [A] and [R] is false

(C)  Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct reason for [A]

(D)  Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is NOT the correct reason for [A]

Answer: (A)

112. Define Plasmapheresis? Choose the correct answer.

(A)  The process of collecting plasma and returning

(B)  The process of collecting red blood cells concentrate and returning the plasma to the donor

(C)  The process of separating white blood cells from blood

(D)  The process of generating artificial blood plasma expanders

Answer: (A)

113. Choose the correct sequence of Moisture Vapor Transmission Rate is packaging materials?

(A)  Paper > Aluminium foil > PVC > Pvdc

(B)  Aluminium foil > PVC > Pvdc > Paper

(C)  Aluminium foil > Pvdc > PVC > Paper

(D)  Paper > PVC > Pvdc > Aluminium foil

Answer: (C)

114. What will be the dose required to maintain therapeutic concentration of 20 microgram/ml for 24 hr of a drug exhibiting total clearance of 2 L/hr?

(A)  96 mg

(B)  480 mg

(C)  960 mg

(D)  48 mg

Answer: (C)

115. The Reynolds number widely used to classify flow behavior of fluids is the ratio of which one of the following?

(A)  Inertial forces to gravitational forces

(B)  Inertial force’s to viscous forces

(C)  Viscous forces to inertial forces

(D)  Viscous forces to gravitational forces

Answer: (B)

116. What for the baffles are provided in a shell and tube heat exchanger?

(A)  To increase turbulence

(B)  To decrease turbulence

(C)  To prevent corrosion

(D)  To increase shell side passes

Answer: (A)

117. Which statement is FALSE for Association Colloids?

(A)  They are also called amphiphiles

(B)  They contain aggregated molecules

(C)  They show partial solvation

(D)  They are also called micelles

Answer: (C)

118. What will be the time required for a drug exhibiting first order rate constant 4.6/hr to be degraded from initial concentration of 100 mg/ml to 10 mg/ml?

(A)  2 hr

(B)  4 hr

(C)  9 hr

(D)  0.5 hr

Answer: (D)

119. What will be the urine to plasma ratio of a weakly acidic drug having pKa of 5? [urine (pH = 5) plasma (pH = 7)]

(A)  1 : 101

(B)  1 : 201

(C)  2 : 101

(D)  1 : 202

Answer: (B)

120. If the distillation graph using McCabe Thiele method is parallel to X-axis, then the feed is which one of the followings?

(A)  Saturated liquid

(B)  Saturated vapor

(C)  Superheated liquid

(D)  Superheated vapor

Answer: (A)

121. S. O.S means which one of the followings?

(A)  Take occasionally

(B)  Take immediately

(C)  Take when necessary

(D)  Take as directed

Answer: (C)

122. Which of the following is NOT a reciprocating pump?

(A)  Plunger pump

(B)  Diaphragm pump

(C)  Gear pump

(D)  Piston pump

Answer: (C)

123. Hydrogen peroxide solution (20 volumes) is used topically as a mild antiseptic. It is mainly used for cleaning of wounds which could be due to some of the following actions of hydrogen peroxide.

(P) Astringent action

(Q) Nascent hydrogen releasing action

(R) Oxidizing action

(S) Mechanical cleansing action

Choose the correct statements for the use of hydrogen peroxide as cleaning agent for wounds ?

(A)  P & R

(B)  P & Q

(C)  R & Q

(D)  R & S

Answer: (A)

124. Boric acid a weak acid (pKa 9.19) which cannot be titrated with a standard solution of sodium hydroxide using phenolphthalein as indicator. This titration becomes possible on addition of glycerol due to one of the following reactions. Choose the correct reaction?

(A)  Boric acid becomes boronic acid on reaction with glycerol

(B)  Boric acid gives a monoprotic tetravalent boron ester with glycerol

(C)  Boric acid gives tribasic acid on reaction with glycerol

(D)  Two boric acid molecules combine to give an anhydride in presence of glycerol

Answer: (B)

125. A tooth paste contains stannous fluoride and calcium pyrophosphate along with other formulation constituents. Choose the correct statement out of the following?

(A)  Stannous fluoride is an anticaries agent while calcium pyrophosphate is a dentifrice

(B)  Stannous fluoride is  a dentifrice while calcium pyrophosphate is a desensitizing agent

(C)  Stannous fluoride is a desensitizing agent while calcium pyrophosphate is an anticaries agent

(D)  Both are dentifrices while calcium pyrophosphate is additionally a desensitizing agent

Answer: (A)

126. Magnesium trisilicate is considered to be a better antacid than aluminium hydroxide due to its following additional properties:

(P) It has a fixed chemical composition

(Q) If forms colloidal silicone dioxide
(R) Magnesium ions overcome constipation

(S) Magnesium ions cause higher inhibition of pepsin that aluminium ions Choose the correct combination of statements?

(A)  Q & S

(B)  R & S

(C)  P & Q

(D)  Q & R

Answer: (D)

127. An iron compound used as heamatinic agent must meet two requirements i.e., it should be biologically available and be non-irritating. Which one of the following compounds meet the above two requirements most closely?

(A)  Ferric chloride

(B)  Ferric ammonium sulphate

(C)  Ferric ammonium citrate

(D)  Ferrous thioglycollate

Answer: (B)

128. Diels-Alder reaction can be earned out in which of the following heterocylic compounds most readily?

(A)  Pyrrole

(B)  Thiophene

(C)  Furan

(D)  Pyridine

Answer: (C)

129. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [A] and Reason [R] :

Assertion (A): Quaternary ammonium phase transfer catalysts can enhance the rate of nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions in biphasic systems with water soluble nucleophiles.

Reason (R): Quaternary ammonium compounds are highly polar, positively charge water soluble compounds.

(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A)

(B)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

(C)  (A) is true (R) is false

(D)  Both (A) and (R) are false

Answer: (B)

130. Pyridine is more basic than pyrrole. This is due to which of the following facts?

(A)  Lone pair of electrons on N in pyrrole is localized

(B)  Lone pair of electrons on N in pyridine is localized

(C)  Nitrogen of pyrrole has one hydrogen atom attached to it while pyridine does not have any

(D)  Pyridine has three double bonds while pyrrole has only two

Answer: (B)

131. In nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions arrange the following leaving groups in decreasing order of their leaving capacity?

(P) Brosyl                      (Q) Hydroxyl

(R) Chloro                     (S) Mesyl

(A)  S > R >  P > Q

(B)  P > S > R > Q

(C)  R > Q > S > P

(D)  R > S > Q > P

Answer: (B)

132. Which one of the given compounds can be used as primary standard for standardization of perchloric acid solution in non-aqueous titrations?

(A)  Potassium hydrogen phthalate

(B)  Sodium bicarbonate

(C)  Potassium dihydrogen phosphate

(D)  Sodium methoxide

Answer: (A)

133. Following are the desirable properties of the liquid phase used in GLC EXCEPT for one of the followings. Identify that.

(A)  It should be inert to the analyse

(B)  It should have high viscosity at operating temperature

(C)  It should have low vapour pressure at the operating temperature

(D)  It should have a high resolving power

Answer: (B)

134. To synthesize sulphonylurea antidiabetics, which of the following reactions can be used?

(A)  Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonyl chloride with a desired urea derivative under basic conditions

(B)  Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonamide with a desired isocyanate derivative

(C)  Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonic acid with a desired isocyanate derivative

(D)  Reacting a suitably substituted sulphoxide with a desired urea derivative

Answer: (B)

135. In polarography, DME has a number of a advantages. One of the advantages is that mercury has large hydrogen over potential. It means which one of the followings?

(A)  Hydrogen ions get easily reduced on the DIME

(B)  Hydrogen gas gets easily reduced on the DME

(C)  Hydrogen ions require high potential to be reduced at DME

(D)  Water is difficult to get oxidized at DME

Answer: (A)

136. In HPLC analysis what type of column would you prefer?

(A)  A column with high HETP and high number of plates

(B)  A column with low HETP and low number of plates

(C)  A column with high HETP and low number of plates

(D)  A column with low HETP and high number of plates

Answer: (D)

137. In an optically active organic compound a chiral carbon has the following attached groups :

(P) -CO―CH3   (Q) -C―OH

(R) –CH = CH2 (S) –C = CH

Using ‘Sequence Rules’ choose the correct order of priority of the groups?

(A)  Q > P > S > R

(B)  P > Q > R > S

(C)  Q > P > R > S

(D)  P > Q > S > R

Answer: (A)

138. Which one is an example of a bulk property detector used in HPLC?

(A)  Fluorescence detector

(B)  Photo diode array detector

(C)  Refractive index detector

(D)  UV detector

Answer: (C)

139. A 250 jig/ml solution of drug gave an absorbance of 0.500 at 250 nm at path length of 10 mm. What is the specific absorbance of the drug at 250 nm?

(A)  0.002 cm-1gm-1 litre

(B)  0.002 cm-1gm-1 dl

(C)  20 cm-1gm-1 litre

(D)  20 cm 1 gm-1dl

Answer: (D)

140. Following statements are given for a chemical reaction: Change in Gibb’s free energy of the reaction has a negative value. Change in Enthalpy of the reaction has a negative value. Change in Entropy of the reaction has a positive value. Based on the above statements choose the correct answer.

(A)  The reaction is spontaneous.

(B)  The reaction is non-spontaneous.

(C)  The reaction could either be spontaneous or non-spontaneous.

(D)  The reaction can never be spontaneous

Answer: (A)

141. Which of the following statements is WRONG?

(A)  The energy required for removing an electron from a molecule varies in the given order : lone pair < conjugated n < n on conjugated n < a

(B)  Isotopic ratio particularly useful for the detection and estimation of number of S, Cl and Br atoms in the compounds in MS

(C)  Neutral fragments and molecules do not get detected in the detector in MS

(D)  The most intense peak in the MS is called the molecular ion peak

Answer: (D)

142. The Protons ortho to the nitro group in p-nitrotoluene are examples of which one of the following types?

(A)  Chemically equivalent but magnetically non-equivalent protons

(B)  Chemically and magnetically nonequivalent protons

(C)  Chemically and magnetically nonequivalent protons

(D)  Chemically nonequivalent but magnetically equivalent protons

Answer: (A)

143. The peak at m/z 91 in the mass spectrum for alkylbenzenes is due to which one of the followings?

(A)  Alpha fission

(B)  Mc-Laffartey rearrangement

(C)  Retro Diels-Alder rearrangement

(D)  Tropylium ion formation

Answer: (D)

144. Which one of the following is NOT bioisostearic pair:

(A)  Divalent ether (-0-) and amone (-N-H)

(B)  Hydroxyl (-OH) and thiol (-SH)

(C)  Carboxylate (CO2) and sulfone (SO2)

(D)  Hydrogen (-H) and fluorine (-F)

Answer: (A)

145. The catalytic triad in acetyl cholinesterase e is composed of which of the following amino acid residues?

(A)  Serine, Histidine and Glutamate

(B)  Serine, Arginine and Glutamate

(C)  Threonine, Histidine and Aspartate

(D)  Threonine, Arginine and Glutamate

Answer: (A)

146. Which of the following statements is true?

(A)  Aliphatic protons have chemical shifts > 7 ppm

(B)  Spin quantum number of proton is 1

(C)  Chemical shift describes electronic environment of a proton

(D)  Vicinal coupling constant is always higher than germinal coupling constant

Answer: (C)

147. Beta-Carboline ring system is present in:

(A)  Emetime

(B)  Riboflavine

(C)  Deserpidine

(D)  d-Tubocurarine

Answer: (C)

148. Of the four stereoisomers of chloramphenicol which one is the biologically active isomer?

(A)  L-Erythro

(B)  L-Threo

(C)  D-Erythro

(D)  D-Threo

Answer: (D)

149. Fajan’s method of titrimetric analysis involves detection of the end point on the basis of which one the followings?

(A)  Colour change

(B)  Appearance of a precipitate

(C)  Neutralization reaction

(D)  Adsorption Phenomenon

Answer: (A)

150. In FT-IR instruments Michaelson interferometer is used in place of grating. The function of the interferometer is to act as a modulator’. What do you understand by this statement?

(A)  The function of the interferometer is to act as  monochromator

(B)  The function of the interferometer is to convert high frequency radiations into low ones

(C)  The function of the interferometer is to convert low frequency radiations into high ones

(D)  The function of the interferometer is to convert frequency domain spectra into time domain spectra

Answer: (A)

Pharmaceutical Science (PY) Competitive Examination-2012 (GPAT, CET, NIPER etc.) Question Paper With Answer Key

Pharmaceutical Science (PY) Competitive Examination-2012

(GPAT, CET, NIPER etc.)

1. Which of the following respective Phase-I and Phase-II reactions are the most common drug biotransformation reactions?

(A)  Oxidation and Glucuronidation

(B)  Reduction and Acetylation

(C)  Hydrolysis and Glucuronidation

(D)  Oxidation and Glutathion conjugation

Answer: (A)

2. Which one of the following drugs has positive inotropic and negative chronotropic action?

(A)  Dopamine

(B)  Epinephrine

(C)  Digoxin

(D)  Isoprenaline

Answer: (C)

3. Which one of the following therapeutic classes has been proved clinically as a first line therapy for heart failure and has shown decreased hospitalization, improved symptoms and delayed disease progression?

(A)  Cardiac glycosides

(B)  ACE Inhibitors (ACEIs)

(C)  Renin Antagonists

(D)  Nitrites

Answer: (B)

4. Which one of the following glucose transporters is the new drug target for the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus?

(A)  Sodium glucose linked transporter-2 (SGLT2)

(B)  Glucose transporter-1 (GLUTI)

(C)  Sodium glucose linked transporter-1 (SGLT1)

(D)  Glucose transprter-2 (GLUT2)

Answer: (A)

5. Which one of the following modes of HIV transmission carries highest relative risk of infection with single exposure?

(A)  Transfusion of blood and blood products

(B)  Perinatal-from mother to child

(C)  Sexual contacts with infected partners

(D)  Syringe sharing with drug addicts

Answer: (A)

6. Which of the following are the critical neuro-transmitters playing major role in depression?

(A)  Acetylcholine, Norepinephrine and Dopamine

(B)  Dopamine, Norepinephrine and Serotonin

(C)  Serotonin, Dopamine and y-Amino butyric acid  

(D)  Acetylcholine, Serotonin and y-Amino butyric acid

Answer: (B)

7. A 55 years old man is under DOTS treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis for the last four months. Now, he has developed symptoms of peripheral neuritis. Which one of the following is the right addition to his therapy to manager peripheral neuritis α ?

(A)  Cyanocobalamin

(B)  α-Lipoic acid

(C)  Pyridoxine

(D)  Prednisolone

Answer: (C)

8. What is the primary mechanism of action of local anesthetics?

(A)  Activation of ligand-gated potassium channels

(B)  Blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels

(C)  Stimulation of voltage-gated N-type calcium channels

(D)  Blockade of GABA-gated chloride channels

Answer: (B)

9. Which one of the following anti-asthmatic drugs can cause convulsions and arrhythmia?

(A)  Prednisolone

(B)  Salmeterol

(C)  Zafirlukast

(D)  Theophylline

Answer: (D)

10. Which one of the following anti-arrhythmic drugs acts by inhibiting potassium, sodium and calcium channels?

(A)  Quinidine

(B)  Lignocaine

(C)  Amiodarone

(D)  Flecainide

Answer: (C)

11. A 48 years old woman is having the symptoms of weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, brady-cardia, puffy face, lethargy and dry skin. These symptoms are suggestive of which of the followings?

(A)  Over use of corticosteroid

(B)  Hypothyroidism

(C)  Estrogen deficiency

(D)  Over use of thyroxin sodium

Answer: (D)

12. Increased risk of hypoglycemia and weight gain is the common side effect of drugs used in the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus. Followings are some commonly used drugs, alone or in combination, for the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus:

(P) Metformin    (Q) Pioglitazone

(R) Lipizide       (S) Sitagliptin

Choose the correct combination which is weight neutral and without risk of hypoglycemia:

(A)  P and Q

(B)  Q and R

(C)  R and S

(D)  P and S

Answer: (D)

13. Which one of the following receptors is NOT a ligandgated ion channel receptor?

(A)  Nicotinic Receptor

(B)  5HT3-Receptor

(C)  GABAA-Receptor 

(D)  H2-Receptor

Answer: (D)

14. Which one of the following classes of drugs causes side effects like dryness of mouth, tachycardia, urinary retention, constipation, blurring of vision, precipitation of glaucoma, drowsiness and impairment of cognition?

(A)  Anti-adrenergic

(B)  Anti-cholinergic

(C)  Anti-serotonergic

(D)  Anti-dopaminergic

Answer: (B)

15. Which of the following cytokines are the most important regulators in inflammation and are the targets for anti-inflammatory agents used in rheumatoid arthritis?

(A)  Tumor necrosis factor-a and Interleukin-1

(B)  Acetylcholine esterase and Eicosanoids

(C)  Leukotrienes and Isoprostanes

(D)  Adhesion factor and Monoamine oxidase A

Answer: (A)

16. Which one of the following is a FALSE statement for competitive antagonists?

(A)  They have an affinity for the agonist binding site on receptor

(B)  They have no intrinsic activity

(C)  They cause parallel rightward shift of the control dose response curve

(D)  Maximum response of the agonist cannot be achieved in their presence by increasing the concentration of the agonist.

Answer: (D)

17. Atypical antipsychotics differ from the typical anti-psychotics in various ways that define them as Atypical. Which one of the following is NOT a defining property of the Atypical antipsychotics?

(A)  Sustained hyperprolactinemia

(B)  Improved efficacy in treating the negative symptoms

(C)  Lower risk for extrapyramidal side effects (EPSs)

(D)  Greater serotonin receptor blockade than dopamine blockade

Answer: (A)

18. Which one of the following drugs produces significant relaxation of both venules and arterioles?

(A)  Hydralazine

(B)  Minoxidil

(C)  Diazoxide

(D)  Nitroprusside

Answer: (D)

19. Antiviral action of purine analogues is primarily related to the followings:

(P) Inhibition of RNA synthesis

(Q) Inhibition of DNA polymerase
(R) Immunomodulation

(S) Inhibition of viral penetration

Choose the correct option:

(A)  R is correct and Q is incorrect

(B)  Q is correct and S is incorrect

(C)  P is correct and R is incorrect

(D)  S is correct and P is incorrect

Answer: (B)

20. All of the given four drugs are sympathomimetics:

(P) Adrenaline               (Q) Isoprenaline

(R) Pehnylephrine          (S) Noradrenaline

Choose the correct statement related to their effects on blood pressure:

(A)  P and Q increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure

(B)  Q and R increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure

(C)  R and S increase systolic blood pressure

(D)  P and S increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure

Answer: (C)

21. All of the given four drugs are neuromuscular blocking agents:

(P) Gallamine                 (Q) Succinylcholine

(R) Vecuronium             (S) d-Tubocurarine

Choose the correct statement about them.

(A)  P and Q are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents

(B)  Q and R are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents

(C)  R and S are non-competitive neuromuscular blocking agents

(D)  P and S are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents

Answer: (D)

22. Which one of the following is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor indicated for a variety of malignancies?

(A)  Imatinib

(B)  Paclitaxel

(C)  Ezetimibe

(D)  Mitomycin

Answer: (A)

23. Which one of the following is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy when detected in urine?

(A)  Estrogens

(B)  Progesterone

(C)  Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

(D)  Corticotropic Hormone     

Answer: (C)

24. Followings are some opioid analgesics:

(P) Morphine                 (Q) Pethidine

(R) Pentazocine             (S) Fentanyl

Choose the correct order of respiratory depressant propensity of these agents.

(A)  P > Q > R > S

(B)  Q > P > R > S

(C)  R > P > Q > S

(D)  S > P > Q > R

Answer: (D)

25. Corticosteroids are administered to treat some of the given disease states:

(P) Peptic ulcer                          (Q) Bronchial asthma

(R) Nephrotic syndrome            (S) Myasthenia gravis

Choose the correct statement about the use of corticosteroids for the treatment of these diseases.

(A)  P, Q and S are treated while R is NOT

(B)  P, R and S are treated while Q is NOT

(C)  Q, R and S are treated while P is NOT

(D)  P, Q and R are treated while S is NOT

Answer: (C)

26. Which one of the following statements is FALSE for fluoroquinolones?

(A)  These are highly effective by oral and parenteral routes

(B)  These are relatively more susceptible to development resistance

(C)  These are effective against those bacteria that are resistant to p-lactam and aminoglycoside antibiotics

(D)  These are bactericidal with broad spectrum of activity

Answer: (B)

27. Increased serum levels of which one of the following may be associated with decreased risk of atherosclerosis?

(A)  VLDL

(B)  LDL

(C)  HDL

(D)  Total Cholesterol

Answer: (C)

28. Metformin causes the following actions EXCEPT for the one. Identify that:

(A)  Reduces hepatic neoglucogenesis

(B)  Increases glucose uptake in skeletal muscles

(C)  Enhances sensitivity to insulin

(D)  Increases HbAlc by 1% to 2%

Answer: (D)

29. Misoprostol has a cytoprotective action to gastro intestinal mucosa because of one of the following action. Identify that.

(A)  It enhances secretion of mucus and bicarbonate ion

(B)  It neutralizes hydrochloric acid in stomach

(C)  It antagonizes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

(D)  It is bactericidal to H. pylori

Answer: (A)

30. Which of the following drugs can precipitate bronchial asthma?

(P)  Indomethacin

(Q)  Codeine phosphate

(R)  Rabeprazole

(S)  Theophylline

Choose the correct option.

(A)  P and R can do that

(B) P and Q can do that

(C)  R and S can do that

(D)  S and Q can do that

Answer: (B)

31. Which one of the following alkaloids is derived from Lysine?

(A)  Emetine

(B)  Chelidonin

(C)  Lobeline

(D)  Stachydrine

Answer: (C)

32. Histologically the barks of Cinnamomum cassia and Cinnamomum zeylanicum differ in one of the following features. Identify that.

(A)  Sclerieds

(B)  Pholem Fibers        

(C)  Pericyclic Fibres

(D)  Cortex

Answer: (D)

33. The following characteristic properties are given in context of saponins:

(P)  Saponins give precipitate by shaking with water.

(Q)  Saponins are diterpenes and given foam on shaking with water.

(R)  Saponins are triterpenoidal compounds and cause haemolysis of erythrocytes.

(S)  They are steroidal or triterpenoidal compounds with tendency to reduce surface tension of water.

Choose the correct option.

(A)  P is true; Q is true: R is true: S is true

(B)  P is false; Q is true: R is false: S is true

(C) P is false; Q is true; R is true; S is true

(D)  P is false; Q is false; R is true;  S is true

Answer: (D)

34. Read the given statements about the constituents of Shellac:

(P) Shellolic acid, a major component of alicyclic fraction is responsible for colour.

(Q) Shellolic acid, a major component of aromatic fraction is responsible for colour.

(R) Shellolic acid is a major component of aliphatic fraction and laccaic acid is a component of aromatic fraction.

(S) Aliphatic components are shellolic acid which is alicyclic and aleuratic acid which is acyclic, while laccaic acid is aromatic colouring principle.

What is the correct combination of options?

(A)  P is true; Q is true; R is true;  S is true

(B)  P is false; Q is false; R is false; S is true

(C)  P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true

(D)  P is true; Q is false; R is false; S is true

Answer: (C)

35. Major component of Cymbopogon citrates is citral which is utilized commercially for the followings;

(P) Synthesis of Vitamin A directly from citral

(Q) Synthesis of Vitamin A by first converting to T-ionone

(R) Synthesis of Vitamin A by first converting to T-ionone followed by conversion to a-ionone which is very important intermediate for cartenoid synthesis

(S) Synthesis of Vitamin A by first conversion of citral to T-ionone followed by conversion to P-ionone which is an important intermediate for carotenoid synthesis

Which is the correct combination of options?

(A)  P is true; Q is true; R is true;  S is true

(B)  P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is true

(C)  P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true

(D)  P is false; Q is false; R is false; S is false

Answer: (B)

36. Which one of the following constituents is reported to have anti-hepatotoxic activity?

(A)  Podophyllotoxin

(B)  Andrographoloid

(C)  Linalool

(D)  Safranal

Answer: (B)

37. Geranial and Neral are the monoterpene aldehyde constituents to volatile oil. Read the following statements about them:

(P) Geranial and Neral are both optical isomers

(Q) Geranial and Neral are both geometric isomers

(R) Geranial has Z configuration and Neral has E configuration

(S) Geranial has E configuration and Neral has Z configuration

Choose the correct combination of answers for them.

(A)  P is true; Q is true; R is true;  S is true

(B)  P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is false

(C)  P is true; Q is false; R is true; S is true

(D)  P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is false

Answer: (A)

38. All of the followings applicable to Lignans are correct statements except for one. Identify the INCORRECT statement.

(A)  Lignans are formed by the dimerization of the phenylpropane moiety

(B)  Podophyllotoxin can be termed phytochemically as a lignan

(C)  Lignans can be formed by cyclization of phenylpropane nucleus

(D)  Lignans are the secondary metabolites formed from the Shikimic acid pathway

Answer: (C)

39. Naringin, obtained from orange peel, can be named as one of the followings. Identify the correct name.

(A)  5, 4’-Dihydroxy-7 rhamnoglucoside of flavanone

(B)  5, 4’-Dihydroxy-7-glucoside of flavanone

(C)  5,3’4’-Trihydroxy-7-rhamnoglucoside of flavone

(D)  5,3’,4’-Trihydroxy-7-glucoside of flavones

Answer: (A)

40. Rhizomes of Zingiber officinale contain some sesquiterpene hydrocarbons. Some hydrocarbons are given below.

(P)  3-Bisabolene           (Q)       Gingerone A

(R)  Gingerol                  (S)       Zingiberene

Identify the correct pair of constituents present in the rhizomes.

(A)  P and S

(B)  P and Q

(C)  Q and S

(D)  Q and R

Answer: (D)

41. Listed below are the chemical tests used to identify some groups of phytoconstituents. Identify the test for the detection of the purine alkaloids.

(A)  Keller-Killanit Test

(B)  Murexide Test

(C)  Shinoda Test

(D)  Vitali-Morin Test

Answer: (A)

42. Given below are four statements in context of Hecognein:

(P) It is a saponin

(Q) It is useful for the semi-synthesis of steroidal drugs

(R) It is not a glycoalkaloid

(S) It is obtained from Dioscorea tubers

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P, Q and R are correct while S is incorrect

(B)  P, Q and S are correct while R is incorrect

(C)  Q, R and are correct while P, S are incorrect

(D)  All are correct statements

Answer: (A)

43. Atropine biosynthesis involves a pair of precursors. Identify the correct pair:

(A)  Ornithine and Phenylalanine

(B)  Tyrosine and Tryptophan

(C)  Tryptophan and Dopamine

(D)  Tyrosine and Dopamine

Answer: (B)

44. Study the following statements:

(P) Lutein and zeaxanthin are flavonoids

(Q) Lutein and zeaxanthin are xanthophylls

(R) Lutein and zeaxanthin are required to control age-related macular degeneration

(S) Lutein is a flavonoid while zeaxanthin is its glycoside

Choose the correct answer:

(A)  P is correct while Q, R and S are incorrect

(B)  Q and R are correct while P and S are incorrect

(C)  Statement P is the only correct statement

(D)  Statement S is the only correct statement

Answer: (D)

45. Listed below are some phytoconstituents.

(P) Galactomannan        (Q) Glucomannan

(R) Barbaloin                 (S) Phyllanthin

Identify the constituent(s) present in Aloe vera.

(A)  Only P

(B)  Q and R

(C)  Only S

(D)  P and S

Answer: (B)

46. Choose the correct answer for the binomial nomenclature of fruits of star-anise:

(A)  Pimpinella

(B)  Illicium verum

(C)  Anisatum

(D)  Religiosum 

Answer: (B)

47. Given herewith are two statements:

(P) Digitoxin is a secondary glycoside from Digitalis purpurea

(Q) Digitoxin is a partially hydrolysed glycoside of Purpurea glycoside

Determine the correctness of the above statements.

(A)  Both P and Q are true

(B)  P is true but Q is false

(C)  Both P and Q are false

(D)  P is false but Q is true

Answer: (A)

48. Peruvoside is natural obtained from one of the following plants. Identify the correct name:

(A)  Dioscorea

(B)  Ginseng     

(C)  Liquorice

(D)  Thevetia

Answer: (D)

49. One of the following is NOT required for the initiation and maintenance of plant tissue culture. Identify that.

(A)  Sucrose

(B)  Kinetin

(C)  Auxin

(D)  Absicic acid

Answer: (D)

50. Study the relationship between the given two statements:

(P) Capsanthin is a red coloured principle from Capscicum annum

(Q) Capsanthin is a vanillylamide of isodecenoic acid

Choose the correct answer:

(A)  Both P and Q are correct

(B)  Both P and Q are incorrect

(C)  P is correct but Q is incorrect

(D)  P is incorrect but Q is correct

Answer: (D)

51. For the equation PV = nRT to hold true for a gas, all of the following conditions are necessary EXCEPT for ONE. Identify that.

(A)  The molecules of gas must be of negligible volume

(B)  Collisions between molecules must be perfectly elastic

(C)  The velocities of all molecules must be equal

(D)  The gas must not be decomposing

Answer: (C)

52. Atracurium besylate, a neuromuscular blocking agent, is metabolized through one of the following reactions. Identify that:

(A)  Hoffman

(B)  Hoffman rearrangement

(C)  Michael addition

(D)  Claisen condensation

Answer: (A)

53. Identify the metabolic of prontosil responsible for its antibacterial activity:

(A)  Sulphacetamide

(B)  Sulphanilamide

(C)  p-Amino benzoic acid

(D)  Probenecid

Answer: (B)

54. The central bicyclic ring in penicillin is named as one of the following. Find the correct same.

(A)  1-Thia-4-azabicylo [3, 2, 1] heptanes

(B)  4-Thia-1-azabicylo [3, 2, 0] heptanes

(C)  4-Thia-1-azabicylo [3, 2] heptanes

(D)  1-Thia-4-azabicylo [1, 2, 3] heptanes

Answer: (B)

55. Both the CMR and PMR spectra of an unknown compound show four absorption peaks each. Identify the unknown compound.

Answer: (B)

56. Out of the four given compounds choose the one which is aromatic?

Answer: (B)

57. Quantification of minute quantity of a drug from a complex matrix, without prior separation can be done using one of the following techniques. Identify that.

(A)  Coulometry

(B)  Potentiometry

(C)  Fluorescence spectroscopy

(D)  Radioimmunoassay           

Answer: (D)

58. Which one of the following fragmentation pathways involves a double bond and a γ-hydrogen in mass spectrometry?

(A)  α-Fission    

(B)  α1-Fission

(C)  Mc-Lafferty rearrangement

(D)  Retro-Diel’s Alder rearrangement

Answer: (C)

59. Read the following statements carefully about non-aqueous titrations:

(P) Acetate ion is the strongest base capable of existence in acetic acid

(Q) Mixtures of bases of different strengths can be analyzed by selecting a differentiating solvent for the bases.

(R) Acetic acid acts as a leveling solvent for various acids like perchloric and hydrochloric acids.

(S) Mixtures of bases of different strengths can be analyzed by selecting a leveling solvent for the bases.

Choose the correct answer.

(A)  P and Q are true and R and S are false

(B)  P and S are true and R and Q are false

(C)  R and Q are true and P and S are false

(D)  R and S are true and P and Q are false

Answer: (A)

60. Read the following statements carefully about Volhard’s method:

(P) In Volhard’s titration, silver ions are titrated with thiocyanates in acidic solution

(Q) Ferric ions act as indicator in Volhard’s method, yielding reddish brown ferric thiocyanate

(R) Volhard’s method is used to determine halides

(S) Volhard’s method is direct titration

Choose the correct set of answers.

(A)  P, Q and R are true and S is false

(B)  Q, R and S are true and P is false

(C)  R, S and P true and Q I false

(D)  P, Q, R and S all are true

Answer: (A)

61. Identify the group of enzymes that utilizes NADP or NAD as coenzymes and catalyzes biochemical reactions by the transfer of electrons from one molecule to another.

(A)  Isomerases

(B)  Oxidoreductases

(C)  Transferases

(D)  Ligases

Answer: (B)

62. Glucose is the only source of energy for one of the following. Identify that :

(A)  Cardiac cells

(B)  Nephrons

(C)  RBCs

(D)  Thrombocytes

Answer: (C)

63. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [A] and Reason [R]:

Assertion [A]: Halogens are unusual in their effect on electrophilic aromatic substitution; they are deactivating yet ortho-, para-directing.

Reason [R]: In electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions, reactivity is controlled by stronger inductive effect while orientation is controlled by the stronger hyperconjugation effect.

Choose the correct statement.

(A)  [A] is true but [R] is false

(B)  Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct reason for [A]

(C)  Both [A] and [R] are false

(D)  Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is NOT the correct reason for [A]

Answer: (A)

64. Given are the four statements about dehydration of alcohols to given alkenes:

(P) Ease of dehydration of alcohols take place in the order 3° > 2° > 1°.

(Q) Dehydration is acid catalyzed.

(R) Orientation of the alkene formed is strongly Saytzeff.

(S) Dehydration is irreversible.

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P and Q are correct while R and S are not

(B)  P, Q and R all three are correct but S is not

(C)  P, Q, R and S all are correct

(D)  P, Q and S all three are correct but R is not

Answer: (B)

65. Choose the correct statement regarding the synthesis of phenyl para-propyl ether:

(A)  Phenyl para-propyl ether is prepared from n-propyl bromide and sodium phenoxide

(B)  Phenyl para-propyl ether is prepared from bromo-benzene and sodium para-propoxide

(C)  Phenyl n-propyl ether can be prepared by either of the two methods

(D)  Both (A) and (B) are not the correct methods for the synthesis of phenyl para-propyl ether

Answer: (A)

66. Read the following statements about SN1 reactions:

(P) The proceed with complete inversion (Walden inversion)

(Q) They proceed with racemizationplus some net inversion.

(R) They are characterized by rearrangements.

(S) They are characterized by the reactivity sequence, CH3>1°>2°>3°

Choose the correct combination.

(A)  P and Q are true while R and S are false

(B)  P and R are true while S and Q are false

(C)  Q and R are true while P and S are false

(D)  R and S are true while P and Q are false

Answer: (C)

67. Read the following statements carefully:

(P) Pyrrole and thiophene undergo electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions much faster than benzene

(Q) Pyrrole and thiophene undergo Diels Alder addition reaction very fast

(R) Pyrrole and thiophene undergo nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction faster than benzene

(S) Pyrrole is a pie excessive system while thiophene is a pie deficient system.

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  Q only is true while P, R and S are false

(B)  R and S are true while P and Q are false

(C)  P and R are true while Q and S are false

(D)  P only is true while Q, R and S are false

Answer: (D)

68. Among the followings which one is not only a non-reducing sugar but also does not exhibit mutarotation?

(A)  Glucose

(B)  Maltose

(C)  Lactose

(D)  Sucrose

Answer: (D)

69. Choose the most basic heterocyclic compound among the following.

(A)  Pyridine

(B)  Imidazole

(C)  Pyrrole

(D)  Pyrrolidine

Answer: (D)

70. Following are some drug derivatives used to increase/decrease the water solubility of the parent drugs:

(P) Rolitetracycline

(Q) Erythromycin lactobionate

(R) Chloramphenicol succinate

(S) Erythromycin stearate

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  Q and R are used to increase water solubility while P and S are used to decrease it

(B)  P, Q and R are used to increase water solubility while P is used to decrease it

(C)  Q, S and R are used to increase water solubility while P is used to decrease it

(D)  Q and S are used to increase water solubility while P and R are used to decrease it

Answer: (B)

71. Study the following statements on prevention of crystalluria. By the given approaches crystalluria can be prevented.

(P) By co-administration of sulfadiazine, sulfamerazine and sulfamethazine

(Q) By increasing the pH of urine

(R) By co-administration of sulphanilamide, sulphamethoxazole and folic acid

(S) By administration of co-trimoxazole

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P and Q are correct

(B)  R and S are correct

(C)  P and R are correct

(D)  Q and R are correct

Answer: (A)

72. Progesterone is obtained from diosgenin through the following sequence of chemical reactions:

(P) Acetylation, CrO3 (oxidation), Acetolysis, H2/Pd, Hydrolysis and Oppenauer oxidation

(Q) Oppenauer oxidation, Acetylation, CrO3 (oxidation), Acetolysis, H2/Pd and Hydrolysis

(R) CrO3 (oxidation), Acetolysis, Acetylation, Oppenauer oxidation, Hydrolysis and H2/Pd

(S) Acetylation, H2/Pd, Hydrolysis, CrO3 (oxidation), Oppenauer oxidation and Acetolysis

Choose the correct sequence of reactions.

(A)  P

(B)  Q

(C)  R

(D)  S

Answer: (A)

73. Following statements are given for local anaesthetic drug lidocaine:

(P) It contains a xylidine moiety-gpatindia.com

(Q) It can be used as antiarrhythmic agent on oral administration.

(R) When administered along with adrenaline its toxicity is reduced and its effect is prolonged.

(S) Chemically it is 2-diethylamino-2’,6’-dimethyl-phenyl acetamide

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P, Q and S

(B)  P, Q and R

(C)  P, R and S

(D)  Q, R and S

Answer: (C)

74. One of the following ring systems can be used as the bioisosteric replacement for benzene ring in drug design:

(P) Thiophene                (Q) Cyclohexa-1,3-diene

(R) Pyrrolidine               (S) Imidazoline

Identify the correct answer

(A)  P

(B)  Q

(C)  R

(D)  S

Answer: (A)

75. Some of the following statements describe the properties of Dropping Mercury Electrode (DME) correctly:

(P) Constant renewal of electrode surface eliminates poisoning effects.

(Q) Mercury makes many metal ions easily reducible.

(R) Mercury has large hydrogen over-voltage.

(S) The electrode can get oxidized with ease.

Identify the correct combination.

(A)  All statements P, Q, R and S are correct

(B)  Statements P, Q and R only are correct

(C)  Statements P, R and S only are correct

(D)  Statements P, Q and S only are correct

Answer: (C)

76. Penicillin ring system is derived from two of the following amino acids:

(P) Alanine and methionine

(Q) Cysteine and valine

(R) Glycine and cysteine

(S) Methionine and leucine

Choose the correct pair.

(A)  P

(B)  Q

(C)  R

(D)  S

Answer: (B)

77. For the management of which disease the given drug tacrine is used ? Identify.

(A)  Glaucoma

(B)  Antidote for acticholinesterase poisoning

(C)  As an insecticide

(D)  Alzheimers disease

Answer: (D)

78. Low dose aspirin acts as anti-platelet aggregating agent by which one of the following mechanisms? Find the correct answer.

(A)  It acts as a suicide substrate for COX-1 enzyme present in platelets

(B)  It acts as a transition state analog for COX-2 enzyme present in the platelets

(C)  It acts as a reversible inhibitor of lipoxigenase present in the platelets

(D)  It acts as an affinity label of oxidoreductases present in the platelets

Answer: (A)

79. Some statements are given for clavulanic acid, sulbactam and tazobactam:

(P) All three lack the 6-acylamino side chain

(Q) All are potent inhibitors of the enzyme p-lactamase

(R) All the prodrugs of penicillin

(S) All have weak antibacterial activity

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P, Q and R are true while S is false

(B)  Q, R and S are true while P is false

(C)  P, R and S are true while Q is false

(D)  P, Q and S are true while R is false

Answer: (D)

80. Electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions in indole give one of the following products preferably. Identify that.

(A)  3-Substituted indole

(B)  2-Substituted indole

(C)  5-Substituted Indole

(D)  6-Substituted indole

Answer: (A)

81. Which one of the following species is an intermediate in the reaction shown below?

2CH3CH2CHO…..NaOH……..CH3CH2CH(OH).CH(CH3).CHO

(A)  +CH2CH2CHO

(B)  CH2CH2CHO

(C)  CH3+CHCHO

(D)  CH3CHCHO

Answer: (D)

82. Which detector is used in gas chromatography for halogen containing compounds specifically?

(A)  Katharometer

(B)  Electron capture detector

(C)  Flame ionization detector

(D)  Thermal conductivity detector

Answer: (B)

83. Precessional frequency of a nucleus depends on the following:

(P) Quantum of externally applied magnetic field

(Q) Quantum of electron density present around the nucleus

(R) Frequency of applied electromagnetic radiations

(S) Electronegativity of the element

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P & Q are true

(B)  P & R are true

(C)  Q & R are true

(D)  P & S are true

Answer: (A)

84. Some statements are given about disodium edetate:

(P) Disodium edetate is a bidentate ligand

(Q) Disodium edetate is a complexing agent but not a chelating agent

(R) Disodium edetate can be used for the assay of lithium carbonate

(S) Disodium edetate can be used for the assay of zinc sulphate

Choose the correct answer.

(A)  Q, R & S are true

(B)  Q & S are true

(C)  S only is true

(D)  P, Q R & S all are true

Answer: (C)

85. Which one of the following amino acids is the most effective contributor of protein buffer?

(A)  Alanine

(B)  Glycine

(C)  Histidine

(D)  Arginine

Answer: (C)

86. Given are some statements about cycloalkanes:

(P) Bayer’s theory does not apply to four membered rings.

(Q) Cyclohexane and cyclodecane rings are not flat but are puckered.

(R) Chair from of cyclohexane experiences van der Waals strain due to flagpole interactions.

(S) Boat form of cyclohexane experiences both torsional and Van der Waals strain.

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P, Q & R are true and S is false

(B)  Q & S are true and P & R are false

(C)  P, Q & S are true and R is false

(D)  Q, R & S are true and P is false

Answer: (B)

87. Phenols are more acidic than alcohols. This is due to one the following reasons. Identify that.

(A)  Alkoxide ions are better stabilized by the electron releasing alkyl groups

(B)  Resonance stabilizes both phenols and phenoxide ions to the same extent

(C)  Phenols are better stabilized than the phenoxide ions while reverse is true for alcohols and alkoxides

(D)  Phenoxide ions are much better stabilized than the alkoxide ions

Answer: (D)

88. Study the following statements on alkylating agents as antineoplastics:

(P) They get converted to aziridinium ions and bind to 7th position-N ato of guanine of DNA base pairs

(Q) Nitrogen mustards and Sulfur mustards belong to this class of drugs

(R) They inhibit dihydrofolate reductase enzyme thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis

(S) They chelate electropositive atoms present in the DNA thereby inhibiting DNA uncoiling

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P and Q are correct

(B)  R and S are correct

(C)  P and S are correct

(D)  Q and R are correct

Answer: (A)

89. Study the following statements about the stereochemistry of steroidal aglycones in cardiac glycosides:

(P) Rings A-B and C-D are cis fused while B-C is trans fused.

(Q) Rings A-B and C-D are trans fused while B-C is cis fused.

(R) Rings A-B are trans fused while B-C and C-D are els fused.

(S) Rings A-B are cis fused while B-C and C-D are trans fused.

Choose the correct statement.

(A)  P is true while Q, R and S are false

(B)  Q is true while P, R and S are false

(C)  R is true while P, Q and S are false

(D)  S is true while P, R and Q are false

Answer: (A)

90. Following are some statements about Captopril:

(P) It is a prototype molecule in the design of ACE inhibitors

(Q) It contains a sulphonyl group in its structure

(R) It has a  proline moiety in its structure

(S) It has an ester linkage

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P & Q are true while R & S are false

(B)  Q & R are true while P & S are false

(C)  P & R are true while Q & S are false

(D)  R & S are true while P & Q are false        

Answer: (C)

91. Cetirizine as an anthistaminic agent has a low sedative potential due to one of the following reasons. Identify that.

(A)  It has a chiral center

(B)  It has high log P value

(C)  It has high polarity

(D)  It has low molecular weight

Answer: (C)

92. There are some criteria which an ideal antacid should fulfill. Some of the criteria are given below:

(P) The antacid should be absorbable orally and should buffer in the pH range of 4-6

(Q) The antacid should exert its effect rapidly and should not cause a large evolution of gas

(R) The antacid should not be a laxative or should not cause constipation

(S) The antacid should react with the gastric acid and should inhibit pepsin.

Choose the correct combination of criteria for an ideal antacid.

(A)  P, Q & R

(B)  Q, R & S

(C)  Q & R

(D)  R & S

Answer: (C)

93. Titanium dioxide is used in sun screen products as a topical protective. The topical protective effect of titanium dioxide is arising due to one of the following properties. Identify that.

(A)  It has a high bulk density

(B)  It has a high LTV absorptivity

(C)  It has a low water solubility

(D)  It has a high refractive index

Answer: (D)

94. Deferoxamine is used for the treatment of toxicity caused by one of the following ions:

Identify that.

(A)  Arsenic

(B)  Cyanide

(C)  Iron

(D)  Lead

Answer: (C)

95. Parachor and Molar refraction can be categorized under one of the following properties. Identify that.

(A)  Additive properties

(B)  Constitutive properties

(C)  Colligative properties

(D)  Additive and constitute property

Answer: (D)

96. Rast’s camphor method is used for determination of molecular weight of solutes which are soluble in molten camphor. The basic principle of the method is dependent on one of the following properties. Identify that.

(A)  Elevation of freezing point of camphor by the solute

(B)  Lowering of vapour pressure of camphor by the solute

(C)  Lowering of freezing point of camphor by the solute

(D)  Elevation of boiling point of camphor by the solute

Answer: (C)

97. In polarography, when the limiting current is achieved, one of the following processes takes place.

(A)  The rate of electron transfer just matches the rate of mass transfer

(B)  The rate of electron transfer is slower than the rate of mass transfer

(C)  The rate of electron transfer becomes independent of the rate of mass transfer

(D)  The rate of electron transfer far exceeds the rate of mass transfer

Answer: (D)

98. Starch-iodide paste/paper is used as an external indicator in one of the following titrations.

Identify that.

(A)  Iodometric titration of copper sulphate suing sodium thiosulphate as titrant

(B)  Iodimetric titration of ascorbic acid using iodine solution is titrant

(C)  Diazotisation titration of sulphadiazine using sodium nitrite as titrant

(D)  Potassium dichromate titration using sodium thiosulphate as titrant

Answer: (C)

99. For a dye to be used as metal indicator in complexometric titrations, some of the dye properties are listed below:

(P) The dye should have distinct colour than the dye-metal complex

(Q) The dye-metal complex should have a higher stability than the metal-chelate (titrant) complex

(R) The dye should be capable of complexing with the metal ions

Choose the correct combination of statements for the dye to be used as an indicator in complexometric titrations.

(A)  P & Q are correct while R is not

(B)  Q & R are correct while P is not

(C)  P & R are correct while Q is not

(D)  P, Q and R all are correct

Answer: (C)

100. In amperometry, rotating platinum electrode (RPE) is used as indicating electrode. It has certain advantages as well as disadvantages. Read the following statements about the use of rotation platinum electrode in amperometry:

(P) It causes large diffusion current due to rotation resulting in greater mass transfer

(Q) It causes greatly reduced residual current due to lack of condenser effect

(R) It has a low hydrogen over potential

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P, Q & R are all advantages of using RPE in amperometry

(B)  P & R are advantages of RPE while Q is a disadvantage

(C)  Q & R are advantages of RPE while P is a disadvantage

(D)  P & R are advantages of RPE while R is a disadvantage

Answer: (D)

101. What will be the approximate Tmax of a drug exhibiting Ka of 2r” 1 and K of 0.2 hr-1?

(A)  1.2 hr

(B)  2.4 hr

(C)  4.8 hr

(D)  2.0 hr

Answer: (A)

102. There are some statements related to the protein binding of drugs as given below:

(P) Protein binding decreases the free drug concentration in the system

(Q) Protein binding to plasma albumin is an irreversible process.

(R) Drugs with a low lipophilicity have a high degree of protein binding.

(S) Protein binding of one drug can be affected by the presence of other drug.

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P & Q are true while R & S are false

(B)  Q & R are true while P & S are false

(C)  R & S are true while P & Q are false

(D)  P & S are true while Q & R are false

Answer: (D)

103. Based on Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, at what pH value a weak acid would be 99.9% ionized?

(A)  At pH equivalent to pKa + 3

(B)  At pH equivalent to pKa – 3

(C)  At pH equivalent to pKa – 1

(D)  At pH equivalent to pKa + 1

Answer: (A)

104. Some statements about crystals are given below:

(P) The crystal lattice is constructed from repeating units called unit cells

(Q) The external appearance of a crystal is described by crystal habits, such as needles, prisms, rosettes etc.

(R) Polymorphism is the ability of a compound to crystallize as more than one distinct crystalline species with different internal lattice.

(S) Hydrates are always more soluble than anhydrous form of the same drug.

Choose the corrected combination of statement about crystals.

(A)  Statement P, Q and S are correct but R is wrong

(B)  Statement P, Q and R are correct but S is wrong

(C)  Statement Q, R and S are correct but P is wrong

(D)  Statement R, S and P are correct but Q is wrong

Answer: (B)

105. Which one of the following is NOT used in preparation of baby powders

(A)  Stearic acid

(B)  Boric acid

(C)  Kaolin

(D)  Calcium carbonate 

Answer: (B)

106. According to Kozeny Carmen equation a 10% change in porosity can produce:

(A)  Two fold change in viscosity

(B)  Five fold change in viscosity

(C)  Three fold change in viscosity

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

107. Speed disk atomizer rotates at a speed of:

(A)  3000 – 5000 revolutions per min

(B)  3000 – 50000 revolutions per min

(C)  300 – 50000 revolutions per min

(D)  300 – 5000 revolutions per min

Answer: (B)

108. The Gold coating on a USP Dissolution apparatus-I basket should be:

(A)  Not more than 2.5 in thickness

(B)  Not more than 0.001 mm in thickness

(C)  Not more than 0.025 p. in thickness

(D)  Not more than 0.1 mm in thickness

Answer: (A)

109. Containers used for aerosols should withstand a pressure of:

(A)  130-150 Psig at 130 °F

(B)  140-180 Psig at 130 °F

(C)  140-170 Psig at 120 °F

(D)  120-140 Psig at 120 °F

Answer: (B)

110. Study the following two statements:

(X) If the gas is cooled below its critical temperature, less pressure is required to liquefy it.

(Y) At critical temperature and critical pressure, the liquid will have highest vapor pressure.

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  Both X and Y are correct

(B)  X is incorrect and Y is correct

(C)  X is correct and Y is incorrect

(D)  Both X and Y are incorrect

Answer: (A)

111. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion : [A] and the Reason [R]:

Assertion [A]: For an API of approximately same particle size, the angle of repose will increase with departure from spherical shape.

Reason [R]: Angle of repose is a function of surface roughness and particle size. With constant particle size, increase in roughness increases angle of repose.

(A)  Although [A] is true but [R] is false

(B)  Both [A] and [R] are false

(C)  Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct reason for [A]

(D)  Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is NOT the correct reason for [A]

Answer: (C)

112. Study the following two statements:

(X) When used as granulating agent PEG 6000 improves dissolution rate of the dosage form as it forms a complex with a better solubility.

(Y) Sodium CMC when used as a binder affects dissolution rate of the dosage form as it is converted to less soluble acid form at low pH of the gastric fluid:

Choose the correct answer.

(A)  Both X and Y are correct

(B)  X is incorrect and Y is correct

(C)  X is correct and Y is incorrect

(D)  Both X and Y are incorrect

Answer: (B)

113. Study the following statements about Gram staining:

(P) Gram positive bacteria are stained deep violet and Gram negative bacteria are stained red.

(Q) Gram positive bacteria are stained red and Gram negative bacteria are stained deep violet.

(R) The sequence of addition of staining reagents is crystal violet, iodine solution, alcohol and safranin.

(S) In Gram positive bacteria the purple color developed during staining is lost during alcohol treatment. The cells later take up the safranin and stain red.

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P, Q, R & S all are false

(B)  P & Q are false and R & S are true

(C)  P & S are false and Q & R are true

(D)  P & R are false and Q & S are true

Answer: (D)

114. Choose the correct formula for the calculation of the retail price of a formulation, given by the Govt. of India..

(A)  R.P. = (M.C. + E.D. + P.M. + P.C.) × (1 + MAPE/100)+ C.C.

(B)  R.P. = (M.C. + C.C. + P.M. + P.C.) × (1 + MAPE/100)+ E.D.

(C)  R.P. = (M.C. + C.C. + E.D. + P.C.) × (1 + MAPE/100)+ P.M.

(D)  R.P. = (M.C. + C.C. + P.M. + E.D.) × (1 + MAPE/100)+ P.C.

Answer: (B)

115. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [A] and the reason [R]

Assertion [A] : In arsenic poisoning, dimercaprol, injected intramuscularly acts as antidote by metal complexation.

Reason [R] : EDTA acts as an antidote in lead poisoning, by solubilizing the toxic metal ions from the tissues.

(A)  Although [A] is true but [R] is false

(B)  Both [A] and [R] are false

(C)  Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct reason for [A]

(D)  Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is NOT the correct reason for [A]

Answer: (D)

116. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [A] and the Reasons [R & S]:

Assertion [A] : Butylated hydroxytoluene is added as one of the ingredients in the lipstick formulation.

Reason [R] : It is a good solvent for the wax – oil mixtures and coloring pigments present in the lipstick.

Reason [S] : It is a antioxidant and prevents rancidity on storage.

(A)  [A] is true, and [R] and [S] are true and correct reason for [A]

(B)  [A], [R] and [S] are all false

(C)  [A] is true, [S] is false, and [R] is the correct reason for [A]

(D)  [A] is true, [R] is false, and [S] is the correct reason for [A]

Answer: (D)

117. Which one of the following statements is FALSE about Interferons?

(A)  Interferons are cellular glycoproteins produced by virus infected cell

(B)  Inteferons have not effect an extracellular virus

(C)  Inteferons are virus specific agents that can interfere either with DNA or RNA virus

(D)  They are produced as potent broad spectrum antiviral agents

Answer: (C)

118. In relation to sodium chloride and water mixture, read the following statements :

(P) Mixture is eutectic in nature

(Q) It has eutectic point -21.2°C

(R) The composition of eutectic is 25.3% by Mass

(S) The mixture is a true eutectoid and may exist as peritectic also. Which of the set of statements is correct?

(A)  P & Q

(B)  Q, R & S

(C)  P, Q & S

(D)  P, R & S

Answer: (A)

119. In relation to sterilization, what is the meaning of D300F – 2 minutes?

(A)  Death of all microorganisms in 2 minutes

(B)  Death of 300 microorganisms in 2 minutes

(C)  Death of all microorganisms in 2 minutes at 300°F

(D)  Death of 90% microorganisms in 2 minutes at 300°F

Answer: (D)

120. Choose the correct combination:

(i) Rod mill                    (p) Dried plant drug

(ii) Hammer mill            (q) Thermolabile drug

(iii) Fluid energy mill     (r) Paint

(A)  i & q, ii & p, iii & r

(B)  i & r, ii & q, iii & q

(C)  i & q, ii & r, iii & p

(D)  i & p, ii & q, iii & r

Answer: (B)

121. Which one of the following statements is NOT true for stainless steel 316?

(A)  It is also called inox steel

(B)  It contains 10.5-11% chromium

(C)  Due to the presence of chromium it exhibits passivation phenomenon

(D)  It is not affected by acids

Answer: (D)

122. Precise control of flow is obtained by which one of the following?

(A)  Needle valve

(B)  Butterfly valve

(C)  Gate valve

(D)  Globe valve

Answer: (A)

123. Heat sensitive materials like fruit juice are evaporated in which one of the following?

(A)  Long tube vertical evaporator

(B)  Calandria type evaporator

(C)  Falling film type evaporator

(D)  Forced circulation type evaporator

Answer: (C)

124. Which of the following conditions favour formation of large crystals?

(A)  High degree of supersaturation

(B)  Low nucleation rate

(C)  High magma density

(D)  Rapid cooling of magma

Answer: (B)

125. If M, L, T, Q and O are dimensional representations of mass, length, time, heat and temperature respectively, then what is the dimension of fluid thermal conductivity?

(A)  Q/Mθ

(B)  Q/TL2θ

(C)  Q/TLθ

(D)  M/LTθ

Answer: (D)

126. Which one of the following properties is characteristic of microemulsions?

(A)  These are transparent systems with droplet size less than 1 MICRO METRE

(B)  These are transparent systems with droplet size less than 10 MICRO METRE

(C)  These are non-transparent systems with droplet size less than 1 MICRO METRE

(D)  These are transparent systems with droplet size less than MICRO METRE

Answer: (A)

127. Which one of the following would be an offence in accordance with the provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?

(A)  Packing of Paediatric oral drops in 30 ml pack

(B)  Packing of Oxytocin injection in a single unit blister pack

(C)  Packing of Schedule X drugs in 5 ml injection pack

(D)  Packing of Aspirin tablets (75 mg) in 14 tablet strip pack

Answer: (A)

128. Which one of the following colours is NOT permitted to be used in drugs by the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?

(A)  Chlorophyll

(B)  Riboflavin

(C)  Tartrazine

(D)  Amaranth

Answer: (D)

129. At equal concentrations which one of the following mucilages will posses maximum viscosity?

(A)  Maize starch

(B)  Rice starch

(C)  Wheat starch

(D)  Potato starch

Answer: (D)

130. By which mechanism the microorganisms are killed by autoclaving?

(A)  Coagulation of the cellular proteins of the microorganisms

(B)  Alkylation of essential cellular metabolites of microorganisms

(C)  Stopping reproduction of microorganism cells as a result of lethal mutations

(D)  Oxidation of RNA of microorganisms

Answer: (A)

131. Manufacture and sale of some of the following drugs is prohibited in India:

(P) Fixed dose combination of atropine and antidiarrhoeals

(Q) Penicillin eye ointment

(R) Nimesulide paediatric drops

(S) Gatifloxacin tablets

Choose the drugs which are prohibited?

(A)  P, Q & R

(B)  Q, S & R

(C)  R, S & P

(D)  P, Q, R & S

Answer: (D)

132. Following are the phases of clinical trails:

(P) Human pharmacology

(Q) Therapeutic confirmatory trials

(R) Post marketing trials

(S) Therapeutic exploratory trials

Choose the correct order of phases of clinical trial.

(A)  P, Q, R, S

(B)  P, R, Q, S  

(C)  P, Q, S, R

(D)  P, S, Q, R

Answer: (D)

133. The integrity of seals in case of vials and bottles is determined by some tests : Some of them are given below.

(P) Leaker’s test

(Q) Water hammer test

(R) Spark tester probe.

Choose the correct answer.

(A)  P & Q

(B)  Q & R

(C)  P & R

(D)  P, Q & R all           

Answer: (D)

134. The integrity of seals in case of vials and bottles is determined by some tests : Some of them are given blow.

(P) Gram negative bacteria produce potent pyrogenic substances called endotoxins

(Q) Ethylene oxide mixed with carbon dioxide or fluorinated hydrocarbons is used in gas sterilization

(R) D value is the time (for heat or chemical exposure) or the dose (for radiation exposure) required for the microbial population to decline by one logarithmic unit

(S) Spores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus (Bacillus stearothermophilus) are used for sterility testing of moist heat sterilization process

Choose the correct answer :

(A)  P, Q & R are correct but S is incorrect

(B)  Q, R & S are correct but P is incorrect

(C)  R, S & P are correct but Q is incorrect

(D)  P, Q, R & S all are correct

Answer: (D)

135. Read the following statements:

(P) The surface area measurement using BET approach utilizes argon gas for adsorption

(Q) Full form of BET is Brunauer, Emmett and Teller

Choose the correct answer :

(A)  P & Q are correct

(B)  P is correct but Q is incorrect

(C)  Q is correct but P is incorrect

(D)  Both P & Q are incorrect

Answer: (C)

136. Based on the DLVO theory of force of interaction between colloidal particles, which one of the followings lead to attractive interaction between two particles?

(A)  Solvation forces

(B)  Electrostatic forces

(C)  van der Waals forces

(D)  Steric forces

Answer: (C)

137. Read the following statements with regard to viscosity of a polymer solution:

(P) Specific viscosity of a polymer solution is obtained as relative viscosity +1

(Q) Relative viscosity is the ratio of the viscosity of the solution to the viscosity of pure solvent

(R) Kinematic viscosity is defined as the viscosity of the liquid at a defined as the viscosity of the liquid at a definite temperature

(S) The unit for kinematic viscosity is poise or dyne sec cm2 Indicate the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P & S are correct but Q & R are wrong

(B)  Q & R are correct but P & S are wrong

(C)  P & Q are correct but R & S are wrong

(D)  R & S are correct but P & Q are wrong

Answer: (B)

138. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [A] and the Reason [R]

Assertion [A] : Salts having no ions in common with the slightly soluble electrolyte increase its solubility

Reason [R] : Such salts lower the activity coefficient of the slightly soluble electrolyte

(A)  Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct reason for [A]

(B)  Both [A] and [R] are false

(C)  Although [a] is true but [R] is false

(D)  Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is NOT the correct reason for [A]

Answer: (A)

139. What negative adsorption would do?

(A)  Decrease the surface free energy as well as the surface tension

(B)  Increase the surface free energy as well as the surface tension

(C)  Decrease the surface free energy but increase the surface tension

(D)  Increase the surface free energy but decrease the surface tension

Answer: (B)

140. Read the following statements:

(P) At temperature below Kraft point, micelles will, not form

(Q) At Kraft point, solubility of surfactant equals CMC

(R) Kraft point increases with increasing chain length of hydrocarbon

(S) Kraft point is normally exhibited by non-ionic surfactants

Choose the correct combination of answers.

(A)  P is correct but Q, R & S are wrong

(B)  R & S are correct but P & Q are wrong

(C)  P, Q & R are correct but S is wrong

(D)  All are correct

Answer: (C)

141. Two statements are given regarding the uniformity of dispersion test (L. P.):

(P) It is evaluated using 6 tablets and 500 mL water

(Q) It involves measuring the dispersion time of each tablet

Choose the correct set of statements.

(A)  P is correct while Q is incorrect

(B)  P & Q both are correct      

(C)  P is incorrect while Q is correct

(D)  Both P & Q are incorrect

Answer: (D)

142. Read the following statements:

(P) Caramelization occurs in acidic conditions

(Q) Caramel is optically inactive glucose

(R) Caramel is obtained by burning of glucose

(S) Caramel is obtained by degradation of fructose

Choose the right combination of statements.

(A)  P & Q are true but R & S are false

(B)  P & S are true but Q & R are false

(C)  Q & R are true but P & S are false

(D)  R & S are true but P & Q are false

Answer: (B)

143. Read the following statements regarding value added tax (VAT):

(P) It is an indirect tax

(Q) It is charged at the rate of 8%

(R) It is tax at source

(S) It is effective since April 2010

Choose the correct option.

(A)  P & Q are true R & S are false

(B)  R & S are true P & Q are false

(C)  P & R are true Q & S are false

(D)  Q & S are true P & R are false

Answer: (C)

144. Find the process by which the conversion of sulfasalazine to sulfapyidine and 5-amino salicylic acid takes place in the colon?

(A)  Hydrolysis

(B)  Deamination

(C)  Acetylation

(D)  Azoreduction

Answer: (D)

145. How much quantity (in grams) of sodium chloride is needed to make 30 ml of a 2% isotonic drug (sodium chloride equivalent 0.20) solution?

(A)  0.60

(B)  0.27

(C)  0.15

(D)  0.12

Answer: (C)

146. Read the following statements about lyophilization:

(P) Lyophilization cannot be done in final containers like multiple dose containers.

(Q) Lyophilized product needs special methods for reconstitution.

(R) Lyophilization causes protein denaturation in tissues.

(S) Lyophilization causes protein denaturation in tissues.

Choose the correct combination of statements.

(A)  P is true and Q, R & S are false

(B)  Q is true and P, R & S are false

(C)  R is true and P, Q & S are false

(D)  S is true and P, Q & R are false

Answer: (D)

147. In a pharmacokinetic model depicted in the following scheme, what is the half-life of the drug if the apparent volume of distribution of the drug is 25 L?

(A)  1.7 hr

(B)  2 hr

(C)  4 hr

(D)  3 hr

Answer: (C)

148. A sample of paracetamol tablets claims to contain 500 mg of paracetamol. But, on analysis by Govt. Analyst, it was found to contain 200 mg. As per Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, this product would be categorized as what?

(A)  Misbranded drug

(B)  Adulterated drug

(C)  Spurious drug

(D)  Unethical drug

Answer: (A)

149. Use of which of the following artificial sweeteners is permitted in various dosage forms of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani proprietary medicines?

(A)  Sucralose

(B)  Aspartame

(C)  Saccharin

(D)  All of them

Answer: (D)

150. What will be the maintenance dose of a sustained release 12 hour formulation of drug X exhibiting one compartment kinetics with a half-life of 6 hours, plasma concentration (steady state) 6 μg/ml, volume of distribution 30 L, and an oral bioavailability of 80%?

(A)  249.48 mg

(B)  225.48 mg

(C)  311.85 mg

(D)  281.85 mg

Answer: (C)

Pharmaceutical Science (PY) Competitive Examination-2013 (GPAT, CET, NIPER etc.) Question Paper With Answer Key

Pharmaceutical Science (PY) Competitive Examination-2013

(GPAT, CET, NIPER etc.)

1. Psig equal to …………. .

(A)  psia- 14.7

(B)  psia- 15.7

(C)  psia- 16.7

(D)  pasia- 17.7

Answer: (A)

2. Enteric tablet coating material is …………. .

(A)  Sodium carboxy methyl cellulose

(B)  Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose

(C)  Povidone

(D)  Polyvinyl phthalate acetate

Answer: (D)

3. Solubility of gelatin capsule is decreased by …………. .

(A)  Fumaric acid

(B)  Formaline

(C)  Titanium oxide

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (B)

4. Which of the following is water is insoluble polymer ?

(A)  Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose

(B)  Ethyl cellulose

(C)  Pollyvinyl pyrrolidone

(D)  Hydroxypropyl cellulose

Answer: (B)

5. In Roche friabilator, plastic chamber revolves at …………. .

(A)  25-rpm

(B)  50-rpm

(C)  15-rpm

(D)  30-rpm

Answer: (A)

6. Diffusivity of a solute is affected by …………. .

(A)  Temperature

(B)  Pressure

(C)  Chemical nature

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

7. Equation of half life of a substance in zero order reaction is:

(A)  0.693/k

(B)  a/2k

(C)  1/ak

(D)  3/2a2k

Answer: (B)

8. Which of the following is neutral preservative?

(A)  Chlorocresol

(B)  Chlorobutanol

(C)  Phenylmercuric acetate

(D)  Thiomersol

Answer: (A)

9. NCL is located at:

(A)  Pune

(B)  Kasauli

(C)  Chennai

(D)  Nagpur

Answer: (A)

10. Inadequate spreading of the coating solution before drying is called as:

(A)  Hazing

(B)  Blistering

(C)  Cracking

(D)  Orange peel effect

Answer: (D)

11. The mesh size of USP disintegration apparatus is:

(A)  2 mesh

(B)  5 mesh

(C)  10 mesh

(D)  20 mesh

Answer: (C)

12. According to the Phase rule, where degree of freedom is 3, the system is:

(A)  Bivariant

(B)  Invarient

(C)  Univariant

(D)  Trivariant

Answer: (B)

13. The ratio of dry gelatin / dry glycerin in soft gelatin capsule is:

(A)  0.4/1

(B)  0.6/1

(C)  0.8/1

(D)  1/0.8

Answer: (D)

14. The term used to describe the settling of an aggregated system & refers to the descending of the boundary between the sediment & the clear supernatant above it is :

(A)  Ostwald ripening

(B)  Subsidence

(C)  Sedimentation

(D)  None

Answer: (B)

15. …………. is dimensionless quantity.

(A)  Porosity

(B)  Tortuosity

(C)  Both

(D)  None

Answer: (C)

16. At the critical temperature, the surface tension of the liquid:

(A)  increases up to some extent

(B)  does not change

(C)  becomes zero

(D)  becomes negative

Answer: (C)

17. When one part of the solute is soluble in nine parts of a solvent, then the solute is:

(A)  very soluble

(B)  soluble

(C)  sparingly soluble

(D)  freely soluble

Answer: (D)

18. Number of significant figures in 28.0 is:

(A)  4

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

19. Bloom strength of gelatin capsule is directly proportional to :

(A)  molecular weight

(B)  molecular chain length

(C)  solubility of gelatin

(D)  forces involved in gelatin molecule

Answer: (A)

20. HLB values of detergents are in the range of :

(A)  13-16

(B)  8-16

(C)  7-9

(D)  3-8

Answer: (A)

21. Oral pharmaceutical aerosols involve the use of all propellents except :

(A)  trichloromonoflurmethane

(B)  dichlorodifluromethane

(C)  dichlorotetrafluroethane

(D)  isobutane

Answer: (D)

22. Angle of repose for free flowing powder is:

(A)  less than 20°

(B)  less than 40°

(C)  above 50°

(D)  above 80°

Answer: (A)

23. Chemical nature of asbestos is:

(A)  silica

(B)  cellulose

(C)  alumino silicate

(D)  silico tungstate

Answer: (C)

24. The size reduction of a substance to an extremely fine state by rubbing on a slab with the help of an insoluble liquid is called:

(A)  pulverization

(B)  levigation

(C)  trituration

(D)  elutriation

Answer: (C)

25. Psychrometric chart is related to :

(A)  osmotic pressure

(B)  humidity

(C)  solubility

(D)  evaporation

Answer: (B)

26. The unit of viscosity is :

(A)  g/cm.sec

(B)  g sec/cm

(C)  g.cm.sec

(D)  g. cm/sec

Answer: (A)

27. Magnesia magma is an example of

(A)  plastic flow

(B)  pseudo plastic flow

(C)  dilatants flow

(D)  Newtonian flow

Answer: (C)

28. O°C is equal to …………

(A)  273.61°K

(B)  273.16°K

(C)  273.00°K

(D)  273.68°K

Answer: (B)

29. Cedar wood oil is used in ………. magnification.

(A)  4x

(B)  10x

(C)  40x

(D)  100x

Answer: (D)

30. Ashwagandha is also known as:

(A)  withania root

(B)  shatmuli

(C)  virgianian bark

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

31. One of the following dominantly contains mucilage:

(A)  Isapghol

(B)  Cascara

(C)  Liquorice

(D)  Ajwan

Answer: (A)

32. When vitamin D is dissolved in chloroform and antimony trichloride solution is added to it, ………. colour appears.

(A)  transient blue

(B)  pinkish red

(C)  yellowish green

(D)  greenish yellow

Answer: (B)

33. In case Eugenia caryophyllus :

(A)  calcium oxalate prisms are absent

(B)  trichomes are absent

(C)  starch is absent

(D)  all of the above

Answer: (D)

34. Canada balsam is used for :

(A)  Staining the section

(B)  Staining the calcium oxalate crystal

(C)  Fixing the section

(D)  Staning starch grain

Answer: (C)

35. Sodium cromoglycate has been developed from ……… molecule found in Ammi visnaga.

(A)  Khellin

(B)  Tubocurarin

(C)  Morphine

(D)  Physostigmine

Answer: (A)

36. Johns wort is widely used in United States mainly as :

(A)  Antioxidant

(B)  Antitussive

(C)  Antidepressent

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

37. Biochemical target in pharmaceutical lead discovery may be :

(A)  Enzyme

(B)  Receptor

(C)  Ion channels

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

38. HTS mean :

(A)  High through put screening

(B)  Herbal therapeutic survey

(C)  Both (A) & (B)

(D)  None

Answer: (A)

39. Carbohydrate consisting methoxylated polygalacturonic acid is:

(A)  Chitin

(B)  Cutin

(C)  Suberin

(D)  Pectin

Answer: (D)

40. Cystoliths are present in:

(A)  Vinca leaves

(B)  Datura leaves

(C)  Digitalis leaves

(D)  Vasaka leaves

Answer: (D)

41. Covering trichomes present in Datura are:

(A)  Uniseriate unicellular

(B)  Uniseriate multicellular

(C)  Biseriate unicellular

(D)  Uniseriate multicellular

Answer: (B)

42. Spanish Foxglove is:

(A)  D. lanata

(B)  D. lutea

(C)  D. thapsi

(D)  D. purpurea

Answer: (C)

43. In Coriander sativum, primary ridges are :

(A)  8 in number, prominent & straight

(B)  10 in number, prominent & straight

(C)  8 in number, wavy & inconspicuous

(D)  10 in number, wavy & inconspicuous

Answer: (D)

44. Which is not the characteristic of Gentian root:

(A)  Stone cells are absent

(B)  Starch grains are absent

(C)  Phloem fibres are absent

(D)  Calcium oxalate crystals are absent

Answer: (D)

45. Calcium oxalate crystal in Rauwolfia root is:

(A)  Prismatic

(B)  Cluster

(C)  Acicular

(D)  Rossete

Answer: (A)

46. Aglycon present in ginsenoside is:

(A)  dammarol

(B)  oleanolic acid

(C)  panaxadiol

(D)  polygallic acid

Answer: (A)

47. Virus free plant can be obtained from :

(A)  root culture

(B)  meristem culture

(C)  anther culture

(D)  All of these

Answer: (B)

48. Morphine alkaloids are biosynthesized from ………. amino acid.

(A)  phenyl alanine

(B)  tyrosine

(C)  lycine

(D)  alanine

Answer: (B)

49. Nux vomica contains strychnine not less than :

(A)  1.2%

(B)  2.3%

(C)  2.1%

(D)  3.2%

Answer: (A)

50. Dragendorff’s reagent is:

(A)  potassium mercuric iodide

(B)  potassium bismuth iodide

(C)  potassium iodide

(D)  picric acid

Answer: (B)

51. Kurchi bark belongs to family :

(A)  Rubiaceae

(B)  Apocynaceae

(C)  Loganiaceae

(D)  Leguminoceae

Answer: (B)

52. The major volatile oil present in Eucalyptus leaves is:

(A)  Cineol

(B)  Citral

(C)  Menthol

(D)  Ascaridol

Answer: (A)

53. Immobilization of enzyme on self-assembling nanocrystalline ceramic core is called as:

(A)  aquasome

(B)  neosome

(C)  transfersome

(D)  mesosome

Answer: (A)

54. In kinetics of cell growth in fermentation process, the phase in which cell number does not vary is called :

(A)  latent period

(B)  static period

(C)  death period

(D)  decelerated period

Answer: (A)

55. All enzymes are ………. in nature.

(A)  lipid

(B)  protein

(C)  carbohydrates

(D)  lipopolysaccharides

Answer: (B)

56. Microorganism used for obtained dextran by fermentation is:

(A)  Leuconostoc mesenteroids

(B)  Aspergillus oryzae

(C)  Trichodermal reesii

(D)  Aspergillus niger

Answer: (A)

57. In the tissue culture, all are used as microelements except:

(A)  Mn

(B)  Zn

(C)  Cu

(D)  Mg

Answer: (D)

58. Immobilization technique involves:

(A)  entrapment

(B)  complexation

(C)  adsorption

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

59. The protein part of enzyme is referred as:

(A)  haloenzyme

(B)  apoenzyme

(C)  prosthetic group

(D)  activator

Answer: (B)

60. A gelling agent in case of tissue culture is:

(A)  sucrose

(B)  cellulose

(C)  agar

(D)  gum xanthum

Answer: (C)

61. Which is the functional group transferred by coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate?

(A)  aldehyde

(B)  H-atom

(C)  amino

(D)  acyl

Answer: (C)

62. Extrachromosomal DNA which irreversibly integrate in the host DNA is called:

(A)  plasmid

(B)  mesosome

(C)  episome

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

63. Total number of Purine nucleotides is equal to total number of Pyrimidine nucleotides. This is according to:

(A)  Watson & Crick model

(B)  Bohr’s effect

(C)  Chargaff’s rule

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

64. Exonucleases function:

(A)  to remove nucleic-acid only from the end of chain

(B)  to break bond within the DN chain

(C)  to remove sugar part of DNA

(D)  all of the above

Answer: (A)

65. In the cell culture, which gas is used in Cryopreservation of animals cells

(A)  O2

(B)  N2

(C)  SO2

(D)  CO2

Answer: (B)

66. Some enzyme requires metal ion for their activity. The metal ion is called as:

(A)  Co-factor

(B)  Co-enzyme

(C)  Activator

(D)  All of these

Answer: (C)

67. The movement of gene from one chromosome to another or from one site to different one on the same chromosome is called as:

(A)  translation

(B)  transposition

(C)  transformation

(D)  translocation

Answer: (B)

68. Enzyme used for conversion of m-RNA into c-DNA is

(A)  DNA polymerase

(B)  DNA ligase

(C)  Reverse transcriptase

(D)  RNA polymerase

Answer: (C)

69. The agglomeration of several fold chains of amino-acids is known as…….. structure.

(A)  Primary

(B)  Secondary

(C)  Tertiary

(D)  Quartenary

Answer: (D)

70. Gene manipulation to modify germ cells of animals permanently is called:

(A)  transgenesis

(B)  transphoresis

(C)  gene expression

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

71. Resolving power of electron microscope is near about:

(A)  1 nm

(B)  0.1 nm

(C)  0.01 nm

(D)  0.001 nm

Answer: (B)

72. In differential staining techniques, counter stain used is:

(A)  neutral red

(B)  crystal violet

(C)  methyl violet

(D)  gentian violet

Answer: (A)

73. The substances which are incapable to induce antibody formation themselves but can react with antibodies are known as:

(A)  Antigen

(B)  Haptenes

(C)  Complete Antigen

(D)  None

Answer: (B)

74. The bacteria which cannot grow in present of oxygen is termed as:

(A)  facultative anaerobes

(B)  obligate anaerobes

(C)  aerotolerant anaerobes

(D)  microaerophiles

Answer: (B)

75. Diagnostic test for Scarlet fever is:

(A)  Frei test

(B)  Paulbunnen test

(C)  Schulz-Charton test

(D)  Elek test

Answer: (C)

76. The most abundant amino-acid present in the body is:

(A)  Alanine

(B)  Glutamine

(C)  Aspartine

(D)  Tyrosine

Answer: (B)

77. Antibody, which crosses the placental membrane, is:

(A)  IgA

(B)  IgM

(C)  IgG

(D)  IgD

Answer: (C)

78. All of the following are fat soluble vitamins except:

(A)  Vit-A

(B)  Vit-K

(C)  Vit-C

(D)  Vit-E

Answer: (C)

79. Glycolysis occurs in:

(A)  Mitochondria

(B)  Cytoplasm

(C)  Golgi apparatus

(D)  Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: (B)

80. Krabbe’s disease is due to the defeciancy of:

(A)  β-Galactosidase

(B)  β-Glucosidase

(C)  Ceramidase

(D)  Sphingomylinase

Answer: (A)

81. In normal healthy about, blood urea concentration is found to be :

(A)  20 mg/dL

(B)  60 mg/dL

(C)  80 mg/dL

(D)  100 mg/dL

Answer: (A)

82. In anchored polymerase chain reaction (PCR), how many primers are used:

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

83. Which of the following Anticancer agent have the least emetogenic activity:

(A)  Cisplatin

(B)  Cyclophosphamide

(C)  Decarbazine

(D)  Hydroxyurea

Answer: (D)

84. British Antilewisite (BAL) is name of:

(A)  Penicillamine

(B)  Dimercaprol

(C)  Deferiprone

(D)  Melarsoprol

Answer: (B)

85. Which of the following do not show Albumine-protein binding

(A)  Barbiturates

(B)  Lignocaine

(C)  NSAIDs

(D)  Tolbutamide

Answer: (B)

86. The first line drug for Burkit’s lymphoma is:

(A)  dauxorubucine

(B)  Actinomycine-D

(C)  cyclophosamide

(D)  Vinblastin

Answer: (C)

87. Which of the following factors affects the volume of distribution (Vd) of drug:

(A)  pKa of drug

(B)  patition coefficient of drug

(C)  plasma protein binding

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

88. Canrenone is active metabolite of:

(A)  Digitoxin

(B)  Spironolactone

(C)  Dexamethasone

(D)  Prednisone

Answer: (B)

89. Inverse agonist means:

(A)  binds to receptor and produces the effect of agonist

(B)  binds to receptor and opposes the effect of agonist

(C)  binds to receptor and produces opposite effect of agonist

(D)  binds to receptor and produces effect like antagonist

Answer: (C)

90. The genetically determined unwanted reactivity to chemicals or drugs is called:

(A)  Intolerence

(B)  Drug allergy

(C)  Idiosyncracy

(D)  Poisoning

Answer: (C)

91. Which of the following agent is used in amerlirative test of Myasthenia gravis:

(A)  Eudrophonium

(B)  Physostigmine

(C)  Pyridostigmine

(D)  Neostigmine

Answer: (A)

92. Dale’s experiment is related with:

(A)  Angiotensine

(B)  Serotonine

(C)  Adrenaline

(D)  Acetylcholine

Answer: (C)

93. Straubb reaction in rats is shown by:

(A)  Ephidrine

(B)  Morphine

(C)  Histamine

(D)  Dopamine

Answer: (B)

94. Selective α2-antagonist is:

(A)  Phenoxybenzamine

(B)  Clonidine

(C)  Yohimbine

(D)  Phentolamine

Answer: (C)

95. Auerbach’s plexues and Meissner’s plexues are present in:

(A)  sympathetic system

(B)  parasympathetic system

(C)  enteric nervous system

(D)  none

Answer: (C)

96. One IU of Insulin equals to ………. .

(A)  0.04082 mg

(B)  0.4082 mg

(C)  0.004082 mg

(D)  0.0004082 mg

Answer: (A)

97. De-Jalons method is used in the bioassay of:

(A)  Insulin

(B)  Digitalis

(C)  Adrenaline

(D)  Histamine

Answer: (C)

98. Which one of the following stimulates central trigger zone (CTZ) and induces vomiting:

(A)  Hyoscine

(B)  Ipecac syrup

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  none

Answer: (B)

99. One of the following is a Leukotriene synthatase inhibitor:

(A)  Montelukast

(B)  Nedocromil Sodium

(C)  Ziluton

(D)  Zafirlukast

Answer: (C)

100. Which one of the following Anticonvulsant acts by blocking T-type Calcium channels:

(A)  Ethusuximide

(B)  Iminostilbines

(C)  Lemotrigine

(D)  Topiramate

Answer: (A)

101. Concurrent use of loop diuretics and Streptomycin is avoided because of:

(A)  Ototoxicity

(B)  Nephrotoxicity

(C)  Neuromuscular-blockade

(D)  Agranulocytosis

Answer: (A)

102. Erythromycin acts by:

(A)  combining with 50s-ribosome

(B)  combining with 30s-ribosome

(C)  interfering with DNA synthesis

(D)  all of the above

Answer: (A)

103. Loss of visual acuity due to optic neuritis is a major side effect of:

(A)  Pyrizinamide

(B)  Ethambutol

(C)  Rifampicin

(D)  Thiacetazone

Answer: (B)

104. Polyene antibiotics are ineffective against bacteria because:

(A)  unable to penetrate bacterial cell wall

(B)  bacteria do not have sterol

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

105. G-protein coupled receptors are located:

(A)  intranuclearly

(B)  in cell membrane

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

106. One of the following does not show enantiomerism

(A)  lactic acid

(B)  isopropyl chloride

(C)  chloroiodo methane sulphonic acid

(D)  secondary butyl chloride

Answer: (B)

107. One of the following does not give information about the conformations of macro molecules in solution:

(A)  CD

(B)  ORD

(C)  XRD

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

108. One of the following is incorrect:

(A)  optical rotation is pH dependent

(B)  optical rotation changes with change in solvent

(C)  (S)-(+)-lactic acid is levo-rotatory in water

(D)  unit of specific rotation is deg cm29

Answer: (C)

109. Torsion angles in staggered conformation is:

(A)  90°

(B)  120°

(C)  60°

(D)  45°

Answer: (C)

110. ……………… is stereomutation :

(A)  racemization

(B)  epimerization

(C)  asymmetric transformation

(D)  all of the above

Answer: (D)

111. (+)-Lactic acid is:

(A)  dextro rotatory

(B)  levorotatory

(C)  meso

(D)  achiral

Answer: (A)

112. Phospholipids are usually in:

(A)  anionic form

(B)  dipolar ion form

(C)  non-ionic form

(D)  cationic form

Answer: (B)

113. Hydroxylation of cyclopentene with KmnO4 results in:

(A)  cis-1, 2-cyclopentanediol

(B)  tans-1, 2-cyclopentanediol

(C)  cyclopentanol

(D)  all of the above

Answer: (A)

114. A substance decolourise bromine solution in CCl4 and a cold, dilute, neutral permagnet solution. The substance is:

(A)  alkane

(B)  alkene

(C)  alcohol

(D)  aldehyde

Answer: (B)

115. 

Structure is of ………… .

(A)  (-) – Tartaric acid

(B)  (+)-Tartaric acid

(C)  Meso Tartaric acid

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

116. Structure of (1R, 2S)-(-)-Ephedrine is:

Answer: (A)

117. 

The reaction is:

(A)  Friedel-Craft alkylation

(B)  Hoffmanns reaction

(C)  Witting reaction

(D)  Neber reaction

Answer: (A)

118. How many isomers are possible for Menthol?

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  5

(D)  6

Answer: (B)

119. Hogg kidney is used in kinetic resolution of recemic mixture as a source of:

(A)  Acylase 1

(B)  Lipase

(C)  Hydrolase

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

120. 

is …….. -1-(1-Naphthyl) ethylisocynate:

(A)  R

(B)  S

(C)  RS

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

Pharmaceutical Science (PY) Competitive Examination-2014 (GPAT, CET, NIPER etc.) Question Paper With Answer Key

Pharmaceutical Science (PY) Competitive Examination-2014

(GPAT, CET, NIPER etc.)

1. Enteric coated tablet:

(A)  Protect drug from acidic environment

(B)  Prevent gastric irritation

(C)  delays absorption

(D)  All the above

Answer: (A)

2. Which of the following is true?

(A)  Low pKa, stronger the acid

(B)  Low pKa, stronger the base

(C)  High pKa, weaker the acid

(D)  High pKa, stronger the acid

Answer: (A)

3. Directly compressible diluents is:

(A)  Microcrystalline cellulose

(B)  Lactose

(C)  Starch

(D)  Methyl cellulose

Answer: (A)

4. Wursters process means:

(A)  Coacervation-phase separation

(B)  Pan coating

(C)  Air supension

(D)  Solvent evaporation

Answer: (C)

5. Bloom strength of gelatin is normally:

(A)  50 gm

(B)  200 gm

(C)  300 gm

(D)  400 gm

Answer: (B)

6. Particle size determination of Aerosol is performed by:

(A)  Cascade impactor

(B)  Gas chromatography

(C)  Andersons pipette

(D)  Pcynometer

Answer: (A)

7. Which of the following surfactant is amphoteric in nature?

(A)  Benzalkonium chloride

(B)  Lecithin

(C)  Polyalkoxy ether

(D)  SLS

Answer: (B)

8. The humidity in the operating area of capsule manufacturing is normally:

(A)  60%

(B)  50%

(C)  40%

(D)  20%

Answer: (C)

9. Millard reaction occurs between :

(A)  Hydrous lactose & amine

(B)  Unhydrous lactose & amine

(C)  Starch & amine

(D)  All the above

Answer: (A)

10. The phenomenon of increasing the solubility of various substance in water due to presence of large amount of additives is called:

(A)  Solubilization

(B)  Hydrotrophy

(C)  Cosolvency

(D)  Complexation

Answer: (B)

11. Complete separation of tablet in to two or more layers is called as:

(A)  Capping

(B)  Lamination

(C)  Picking

(D)  Mottling

Answer: (B)

12. The electrode used in polarography is:

(A)  Dropping mercury

(B)  Static mercury

(C)  Both (A) & (B)

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

13. Spans are ……….. .

(A)  Polyoxythylene ether of fatty acid ester

(B)  Sorbitol ester of fatty acid

(C)  Combination of Polyoxyethylene & polyoxypropylene

(D)  High mole. wt. polyethylene glycol

Answer: (A)

14. Dilatometric curve is a plot of:

(A)  Weight v/s temperature

(B)  Specific volume v/s temperature

(C)  Volume v/s temperature

(D)  Density v/s temperature

Answer: (C)

15. A relation between vapour pressure & Absolute temperature of liquid is given by

(A)  Gibbs equation

(B)  Clausius-Clapeyron equation

(C)  Arrhenius equation

(D)  Vant Hoff equation

Answer: (B)

16. 1 Tera is equal to ……….. .

(A)  109

(B)  1012

(C)  1015

(D)  1018

Answer: (B)

17. The temperature at which liquid passes into solid state is known as:

(A)  Melting point

(B)  Triple point

(C)  Dew point

(D)  Freezing point

Answer: (D)

18. The movement of liquid through a plug or membrane across which potential is applied is called:

(A)  Electrophoresis

(B)  Electrodiffusion

(C)  Electroosmosis

(D)  All of these