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Gate 2017 Computer Science and Information Technology Question Paper 11th Feb 2017 Session 1 PDF Download

July 21, 2017 by M Prakash

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Computer Science and Information Technology 11th Feb 2017 Session 1

Subject Name: Computer Science and Information Technology

Duration : 180

Total Marks: 100

1. Let X be a Gaussian random variable mean 0 and variance σ². Let Y=max(X, 0) where max (a,b) is the maximum of a and b. The median of Y is ____________.

Ans: (0)

2. Consider the Karnaugh map given below, where x represents “don’t care” and blank represents 0.

Assume for all inputs (a, b, c, d) the respective complements are also available. The above logic is implemented 2-input NOR gates only. The minimum number of gates required is ____________.

Ans: (1)

3. The statement (¬p) ⇒ (¬q) is logically equivalent to which of the statements below?

I. p ⇒ q

II. q ⇒ p

III. (¬q) ⋁ p

(¬p) ⋁ q

(A) I only

(B) I and IV only

(D) II and III only

Ans: (D)

4. Consider the following table:

Match the algorithms to the design paradigms they are based on.

(A) P-(ii), Q-(iii),R-(i)

(B) P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(ii)

(D) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii)

Ans: (C)

5. A sender S sends a message m to receiver R, which is digitally signed by S with its private key. In this scenario, one or more of the following security violations can take place.

I. S can launch a birthday attack to replace m with a fraudulent message.

II. A third party attacker can launch a birthday attack to replace m with a fraudulent message.

III. R can launch a birthday attack to replace m with a fraudulent message.

Which of the following are possible security violations?

(A) I and II only

(B) I only

(D) II and III only

Ans: (B)

6. Consider the following grammar.

What is FOLLOW (Q) ?

(A) {R}

(B) {w}

(D) {w, $}

Ans: (C)

7. Consider the language L given by the regular expression (a + b)^*b(a + b) over the alphabet {a, b}. The smallest number of states needed in a deterministic finite-state automation (DFA) accepting L is ___________.

Ans: (4)

8. Consider a two-level cache hierarchy with L1 and L2 caches. An application incurs 1.4 memory accesses per instruction on average. For this application, the miss rate of L1 cache 0.1, the L2 cache experiences, on average, 7 misses per 1000 instructions. The miss rate of L2 expressed correct to two decimal places is ___________.

Ans: (0.05)

9. Consider the following CPU processes with arrival times (in milliseconds) and length of CPU burst (in milliseconds) as given below:

If the pre-emptive shortest remaining time first scheduling algorithm is used to schedule the processes., then the average waiting time across all processes is ________ milliseconds.

Ans: (3)

10. Threads of a process share

(A) global variable but not heap.

(B) heap but not global variables.

(D) Both heap and global variables.

Ans: (D)

11. Let c₁ …… c_n be scalars, not all zero, such that where a_i are column vectors in Rⁿ. Consider the set of linear equations Ax = b

where A = [a_i……..a_n] and The set of equations has

(A) a unique solution at x = J_n where J_n denotes a n-dimensional vector of all 1

(B) no solution

(D) finitely many solutions.

Ans: (C)

12. Consider the C code fragment given below.

Assuming that m and n point to valid NULL- terminated linked lists, invocation of join will

(A) append list m to the end of list n for all inputs.

(B) either cause a null pointer dereference or append list m to the end of list n.

(D) append list n to the end of list m for all inputs.

Ans: (B)

13. The n-bit fixed-point representation of an unsigned real number real X uses f bits for the fraction part. Let i = n –f. The range of decimal values for X in this representation is

(A) 2⁻^f to 2ⁱ

(B) 2⁻^f to (2ⁱ – 2⁻^f)

(D) 0 to (2ⁱ – 2⁻^f)

Ans: (D)

14. Consider the following intermediate program in three address code

p = a− b

q = p *c

p = u * v

q = p + q

Which one of the following corresponds to a static single assignment form of the above code?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (B)

15. Consider the C struct defined below:

struct data {

int marks [100] ;

char grade;

int cnumber;

};

struct data student;

The base address of student is available in register R1. The field student.grade can be accessed efficiently using

(A) Post-increment addressing mode. (R1)+

(B) Pre-decrement addressing mode, -(R1)

(D) Index addressing mode, X(R1), where X is an offset represented in 2’s complement 16-bit representation.

Ans: (D)

16. Consider a TCP client and a TCP server running on two different machines. After completing data transfer, the TCP client calls close to terminate the connectional and a FIN segment is sent to the TCP server. Server-side TCP responds by sending an ACK which is received by the client-side TCP. As per the TCP connections state diagram (RFC 793), in which state does the client-side TCP connection wait for the FIN from the sever-side TCP?

(A) LAST-ACK

(B) TIME-WAIT

(D) FIN-WAIT-2

Ans: (D)

17. Consider the following context-free grammar over the alphabet ∑ = {a,b,c} with S as the start symbol.

S → abScT|abc T

T → bT|b

Which one of the following represents the language generated by the above grammar ?

(A) {(ab)ⁿ (cb)ⁿ | n ≥ 1}

(B)

(D) {(ab)ⁿ (cbⁿ)^m| m, n ≥ 1

Ans: (B)

18. Consider the first-order logic sentence F : ∀ z(∃yR (x, y)). Assuming non-empty logical domains, which of the sentences below are implied by F?

I. ∃y(∃xR(x, y)) II. ∃y(∀xR(x, y))

III. ∀y(∃xR (x, y)) IV. ¬∃x(∀y¬R(x, y))

(A) IV only

(B) I and IV only

(D) II and III only

Ans: (B)

19. When two 8-bit numbers A₇…..A₀ and B₇…..B₀ in 2’s complement representation (with A₀ and B₀ as the least significant bits ) are added using a ripple-carry adder, the sum bits obtained are S₇……S₀ and the carry bits are C₇….C₀. An overflow is said to have occurred if

(A) the carry bit C₇ is 1

(B) all the carry bits (C₇….C₀) are 1

(C)

(D)

Ans: (C)

20. Consider a database that has the relation schema EMP (EmpId, EmpName, and DeptName). An instance of the schema EMP and a SQL query on it are given below.

The output of executing the SQL query is _____.

Ans: (2.6)

21. The following functional dependencies hold true for the relational schema R{V,W,X,Y,Z}:

Which of the following is irreducible equivalent for this set of functional dependencies ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (A)

22. Consider the following functions from positive integers to real numbers:

The CORRECT arrangement of the above functions in increasing order of asymptotic complexity is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (B)

23. Let T be a tree with 10 vertices. The sum of the degrees of all the vertices in T is _________.

Ans: (18)

24. Let T be a binary search tree with 15 nodes. The minimum and maximum possible heights of T are :

Note: The height of a tree with a single node is 0.

(A) 4 and 15 respectively

(B) 3 and 14 respectively

(D) 3 and 15 respectively

Ans: (B)

25. Consider the following C code:

# include <stdio.h>

int * assignval (int *x, int val) {

*x = val;

return x;

}

void main ( ) {

int * x= malloc (sizeof (int));

if (NULL = = x) return;

x = assignval (x,0);

if(x) {

x=(int *) malloc (sizeof (int));

if (NULL = = x) return;

x = assignval (x, 10);

}

printf(“%d\n”, *x);

free (x);

}

The code suffers from which one of the following problems:

(A) compiler error as the return of malloc is not typecast appropriately.

(B) compiler error because the comparison should be made as x==NULL and not as shown.

(D) compiles successfully but execution may result in memory leak.

Ans: (D)

26. Consider a combination of T and D flip-flops connected as shown below. The output of the D flip-flop is connected to the input of the T flip-flop and the output of the T Flip-flop is connected to the input of the D Flip-flop.

Initially, both Q₀ and Q₁ are set to 1 (before the 1^st clock cycle). The outputs

(A) Q₁Q₀ after the 3^rd cycle are 11 and after the 4^th cycle are 00 respectively

(B) Q₁Q₀ after the 3^rd cycle are 11 and after the 4^th cycle are 01 respectively

(D) Q₁Q₀ after the 3^rd cycle are 01 and after the 4^th cycle are 01 respectively

Ans: (B)

27. The number of integers between 1 and 500 (both inclusive) that are divisible by 3 or 5 or 7 is ______________.

Ans: (271)

28. Consider a RISC machine where each instruction is exactly 4 bytes long. Conditional and unconditional branch instructions use PC- relative addressing mode with Offset specified in bytes to the target location of the branch instruction. Further the Offset is always with respect to the address of the next instruction in the program sequence. Consider the following instruction sequence.

Instr. No. Instruction

i: add R2, R3, R4

i + 1; sub R5, R6, R7

i + 2; cmp R1, R9, R10

i + 3 beq R1, Offset

If the target of the branch instruction is i, then the decimal value of the Offset is __________.

Ans: (−16)

29. Consider the C functions foo and bar given below:

int foo (int val ) {

int x = 0;

while (val > 0) {

x = x + foo ( val –);

}

return val ;

}

int bar (int val ) {

int x = 0;

while (val > 0) {

x = x + bar (val – 1) ;

}

return val ;

}

Invocations of foo (3) and bar (3) will result in:

(A) Return of 6 and 6 respectively.

(B) Infinite loop and abnormal termination respectively.

(D) Both terminating abnormally

Ans: (B)

30. In a RSA cryptosystem a participant A uses two prime numbers p = 13 and q =17 to generate her public and private keys. If the public key of A is 35. Then the private key of A is __________.

Ans: (11)

31. Let A be an array of 31 numbers consisting of sequence of 0’s followed by a sequence of 1’s. The problem is to find the smallest index i that A[i] is 1 by probing the minimum numbers of locations in A. The worst case number of probes performed by an optimal algorithm is _____________.

Ans: (5)

32. If G is grammar with productions

S → SaS|aSb|bSa|SS|∈

where S is the start variable, then which one of the following is not generated by G?

(A) abab

(B) aaab

(D) babba

Ans: (D)

33. The value of

(A) is 0

(B) is −1

(D) does not exist

Ans: (C)

34. Instructions execution in a processor is divided into 5 stages. Instruction Fetch (IF), Instruction Decode (ID) , Operand Fetch (OF), Execute (EX), and Write Back (WB), These stages take 5,4,20, 10 and 3 nanoseconds (ns) respectively. A pipelined implementation of the processor requires buffering between each pair of consecutive stages with a delay of 2ns. Two pipelined implementations of the processor are contemplated.

(i) a naïve pipeline implementation (NP) with 5 stages and

(ii) an efficient pipeline (EP) where the OF stage id divided into stages OF1 and OF2 with execution times of 12 ns and 8 ns respectively.

The speedup (correct to two decimals places) achieved by EP over NP in executing 20 independent instructions with no hazards is ________________.

Ans: (1.508)

35. Consider a database that has the relation schemas EMP(EmpId, EmpName, DepId). And DEPT(DeptName, DeptId). Note that the DeptId can be permitted to be NULL in the relation EMP. Consider the following queries on the database expressed in tuple relational calculus.

Which of the above queries are safe?

(A) (I) and (II) only

(B) (I) and (III) only

(D) (I), (II) and (III)

Ans: (D)

36. Recall that Belady’s anomaly is that the pages-fault rate may increase as the number of allocated frames increases. Now consider the following statements:

S1: Random page replacement algorithm (where a page chosen at random is replaced) suffers from Belady’s anomaly

S2: LRU page replacement algorithm suffers from Belady’s anomaly

Which of the following is CORRECT ?

(A) S1 is true, S2 is true

(B) S1 is true, S2 is false

(D) S1 is false, S2 is false

Ans: (B)

37. The output of executing the following C program is ________.

# include <stdio.h>

int total (int v) {

while (v) {

count + = v & 1;

v>> = 1;

}

return count;

}

void main ( ) {

static int x = 0;

int i = 5;

for (; i> 0; i–) {

x=x + total (i) ;

}

printf (“%d\n”, x) ;

}

Ans: (23)

38. Consider the following C program.

#include <stdio.h>

#include<string.h>

void printlength (char *s, char *t) {

unsigned int c = 0;

int len = ((strlen(s) – strlen (t)) > c) ? strlen(s): strlen(t);

printf (“%d\n”, len);

}

void main ( ) {

char *x = “abc”;

char *y =”defgh”;

printlength (x,y);

Recall that strlen is defined in string.h as returning a value of type size_t, which is an unsigned int. The output of the program is _____________.

Ans: (3)

39. Consider the following languages over the alphabet ∑ = {a, b, c}

Let L₁ = {aⁿbⁿc^m|m, n ≥ 0} and L₂ = {a^mbⁿcⁿ|m, n ≥ 0}

Which of the following are context-free languages ?

I. L₁ ⋃ L₂ II. L₁ ⋂ L₂

(A) I only

(B) II only

(D) Neither I nor II

Ans: (A)

40. Consider a 2-way set associative cache with 256 blocks and uses LRU replacement, Initially the cache is empty. Conflict misses are those misses which occur due the contention of multiple blocks for the same cache set. Compulsory misses occur due to first time access to the block. The following sequence of accesses to memory blocks.

(0,128,256,128,0,128,256,128,1,129,257,129,1,129,257,129)

is repeated 10 times. The number of conflict misses experienced by the cache is ___________.

Ans: (76)

41. Let u and v be two vectors in R² whose Euclidean norms satisfy ||u|| = 2||v||. What is the value of α such that w = u + αv bisects the angle between u and v ?

(A) 2

(B) 1/2

(D) −1/2

Ans: (A)

42. Consider the following grammar:

stmt → if exp r then else expr ;stmt|0

expr → termrelop term|term

if → a|b|c

number → [0 – 9]

where relop is a relational operate (e.g <, >,….) —O refers to the empty statement, and if ,then, else are terminals.

Consider a program P following the above grammar containing ten if terminals. The number of control flows paths in P is ____________. For example the program

if e₁ then e₂ else e₃

has 2 controls flow paths e₁ → e₂ and e₁ → e₃

Ans: (1024)

43. In a database system, unique time stamps are assigned to each transaction using Lamport’s logical clock . Let TS(T₁) and TS(T₂) be the timestamps of transactions T₁ and T₂ Besides, T₁ holds a lock on the resource R, and T₂ has requested a conflicting lock on the same resource R. The following algorithm is used to prevent deadlocks in the database system assuming that a killed transaction is restarted with the same timestamp.

if TS(T₂) < TS (T₁) then

T₁ is killed

else T₂ waits.

Assume any transactions that is not killed terminates eventually. Which of the following is TRUE about the database system that uses the above algorithm to prevent deadlocks?

(A) The database system is both deadlock-free and starvation- free.

(B) The database system is deadlock- free, but not starvation-free.

(D) The database system is neither deadlock- free nor starvation-free.

Ans: (A)

44. Let A and B be infinite alphabets and let # be a symbol outside both A and B. Let f be a total functional from A^* to B^*. We say f is computable if there exists a Turning machine M which given an input x in A^*, always halts with f(x) on its tape. Let L_f denote the language {x#f (x)| x∈A^*} .Which of the following statements is true:

(A) f if computable if and only if L_f is recursive.

(B) f is computable if and only L_f recursively enumerable.

(D) If f is computable then L_f is recursively enumerable, but not conversely.

Ans: (A)

45. Consider the expression (a – 1)^* (((b + c)/3)+d)). Let X be the minimum number of registers required by an optimal code generation (without any register spill) algorithm for a load/store architecture in which (i) only loads and store instructions can have memory operands and (ii) arithmetic instructions can have only register or immediate operands. The value of X is _________.

Ans: (2)

46. Let G = (V, E) be any connected undirected edge-weighted graph. The weights of the edges in E are positive and distinct. Consider the following statements:

(I) Minimum spanning tree of G is always unique.

(II) Shortest path between any two vertices of G is always unique.

Which of the above statements is/are necessarily true?

(A) (I) only

(B) (II) only

(D) Neither (I) nor (II)

Ans: (A)

47. A multithreaded program P executes with x number of threads and uses y number of locks for ensuring mutual exclusion while operating on shared memory locations. All locks in the program are non-reentrant, i.e., if a thread holds a lock l, then it cannot re-acquire lock l without releasing it. If a thread is unable to acquire a lock, it blocks until the lock becomes available. The minimum value of x and the minimum value of y together for which execution of P can result in a deadlock are:

(A) x = 1, y = 2

(B) x = 2, y = 1

(D) x = 1, y = 1

Ans: (C)

48. The values of parameters for the Stop-and – Wait ARQ protocol are as given below:

Bit rate of the transmission channel = 1Mbps

Propagation delay from sender to receiver = 0.75 ms

Time to process a frame = 0.25ms

Number of bytes in the information frame =1980

Number of bytes in the acknowledge frame = 20

Number of overhead bytes in the information frame = 20

Assume that there are no transmission errors. Then the transmission efficiency ( expressed in percentage) of the Stop-and – Wait ARQ protocol for the above parameters is _________(correct to 2 decimal places)

Ans: (89.33)

49. A computer network uses polynomials over GF(2) for error checking with 8 bits as information bits and uses x³ + x + 1 as the generator polynomial to generate the check bits. In this network, the message 01011011 is transmitted as

(A) 01011011010

(B) 01011011011

(D) 01011011100

Ans: (C)

50. Let p, q, and r be propositions and the expression (p → q) → r be a contradiction. Then, the expression (r → p) → q is

(A) a tautology

(B) a contradiction

(D) always TRUE when q is TRUE

Ans: (D)

51. A cache memory unit with capacity of N words and block size of B words is to be designed. If it is designed as a direct mapped cache, the length of the TAG field is 10 bits. If the cache unit is now designed as a 16-way set-associative cache, the length of the TAG field is ______bits.

Ans: (14)

52. Consider the following two functions.

The output printed when fun1 (5) is called is

(A) 53423122233445

(B) 53423120112233

(D) 53423120213243

Ans: (A)

53. Consider a database that has the relation schema CR (Student Name, Course Name). An instance of the schema CR is as given below.

The following query is made on the database.

T1 → π_CourseName(σ_{StudentName = ‘SA’}(CR))

T2 ← CR ÷ T1

The number of rows in T2 is ____________.

Ans: (4)

54. Let A be n × n real valued square symmetric matrix of rank 2 with

Consider the following statements.

(I) One eigen value must be in [-5, 5]

(II) The eigen value with the largest magnitude must be strictly greater than 5.

Which of the above statements about eigen values of A is/are necessarily CORRECT?

(A) Both (I) and (II)

(B) (I) only

(D) Neither (I) nor (II)

Ans: (B)

55. Consider the context-free grammars over the alphabet {a,b,c} given below. S and T are nonterminals

G₁ : S → aSb|T, T→ cT|∈

G₂ :S → bSa|T, T → cT|∈.

The language L(G₁) ⋂ L(G₂) is

(A) Finite.

(B) Not finite but regular.

(D) Recursive but not context-free.

Ans: (B)

56. Research in the workplace reveals that people work for many reason ___________.

(A) money beside

(B) beside money

(D) besides money

Ans: (D)

57. After Rajendra chola returned from his voyage to Indonesia, he _______ to visit the temple in Thanjavur.

(A) was wishing

(B) is wishing

(D) had wished

Ans: (C)

58. Rahul Murali, Srinivas and Arul are seated around a square table. Rahul is sitting to the left of Murali. Srinivas is sitting to the right of Arul. Which of the following pairs are seated opposite each other ?

(A) Rahul and Murali

(B) Srinivas and Arul

(D) Srinivas and Rahul

Ans: (C)

59. Find the smallest number y such that y×162 is a perfect cube.

(A) 24

(B) 27

(D) 36

Ans: (D)

60. The probability that a k-digit number does NOT contain the digits 0,5,or 9 is

(A) 0.3^k

(B) 0.6^k

(D) 0.9^k

Ans: (C)

61. A contour line joins locations having the same height above the mean sea level. The following is a contour plot of a geographical region. Contour lines are shown at 25m intervals in this plot. If in a flood, the water level rises to 525m, which of villages P,Q, R, S,T get submerged ?

(A) P, Q

(B) P, Q, T

(D) Q, R, S

Ans: (C)

62. “The hold of the nationalist imagination on our colonial past is such that anything inadequately or improperly nationalist is just not history”

Which of the following statements best reflects the author’s opinion ?

(A) Nationalists are highly imaginative.

(B) History is viewed through the filter of nationalism.

(D) Nationalism has to be both adequately and properly imagined.

Ans: (B)

63. The expression is equal to

(A) the maximum of x and y

(B) the minimum of x and y

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

64. Six people are seated around a circular table. There are at least two men and two women . There are at least three right-handed persons. Every woman has a left-handed person to her immediate right. None of the women are right-handed. The number of women at the table is

(A) 2

(B) 3

(D) Cannot be determined

Ans: (A)

65. Arun, Gulab, Neel and Shweta must choose one shirt each from a pile of fours shirts coloured red, pink, blue and white respectively. Arun dislikes the colour red and Shweta dislikes the colour white. Gulab and Neel like all the colours. In how many different ways can they choose the shirts so that no one has a shirt with a colour he or she dislikes ?

(A) 21

(B) 18

(D) 14

Ans: (D)

Gate 2017 Chemical Engineering Question Paper 12th Feb 2017 PDF Download

July 21, 2017 by M Prakash

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Chemical Engineering 12th Feb 2017

Subject Name: Chemical Engineering

Duration : 180

Total Marks: 100

1. In a venture meter, ∆P₁ and ∆P₂ are the pressure drops corresponding to volumetric flow rates Q₁ and Q₂. If equals

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 0.25

Ans: (B)

2. The volumetric properties of two gases M and N are described by the generalized compressibility chart which expresses the compressibility factor (Z) as a function of reduced pressure and reduced temperature only. The operating pressure (P) and temperature (T) of two gases M and N along with their critical properties (P_C, T_C) are given in the table below.

Z_M and Z_N are the compressibility factor of the gases M and N under the given operating conditions respectively.

The relation between Z_M and z_N is

(A) Z_M = 8Z_N

(B) Z_M = 3Z_N

(D) Z_M = 0.333Z_N

Ans: (C)

3. e polymerization process in Group-1 with the polymers in Group-2.

Group-1 Group-2

P) Free radical polymerization I) Nylon 6.6

Q) Ziegler Natta polymerization II) Polypropylene

R) Condensation polymerization III) Poly vinyl chloride

Choose the correct set of combinations.

(A) P − I,Q − II,R − III

(B) P − III,Q − II,R − I

(D) P-II, Q-I, R-III

As: (B)

4. An LVDT (Linear Variable Differential Transformer) is a transducer used for converting

(A) displacement to voltage

(B) Voltage to displacement

(D) voltage to current

Ans: (A)

5. Match the variables in Group-1 with the instruments in Group-2.

Group-1 Group-2

P) Temperature I) Capacitance probe

Q) Liquid level II) McLeod gauge

R) Vacuum III) Chromatograph

S) Concentration IV) Thermistor

Choose the correct set of combinations.

(A) P-IV,Q-III,R-II,S-I

(B) P-I,Q-II,R-IV,S-III

(D) P-III,Q-II,R-I,S-IV

Ans: (C)

6. The thickness of laminar boundary layer over a flat plate varies along the distance from the leading edge of the plate. As the distance increases, the boundary layer thickness

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(D) initially decreases and then increases

Ans: (A)

7. The marks obtained by a set of students are 38, 84, 45,70, 75, 60, 48.

The mean and median marks, respectively, are

(A) 45 and 75

(B) 55 and 48

(D) 60 and 70

Ans: (C)

8. In a heat exchanger, the inner diameter of a tube is 25 mm and its outer diameter is 30 mm. The overall heat transfer coefficient based on the inner area is 360 W/m².℃. Then, the overall heat transfer coefficient based on the outer area, rounded to the nearest integer, is ___W/m².℃.

Ans: (300)

9. The cost of a new pump (including installation) is 24,000 Rupees. The pump has useful life of 10 years. Its salvage value is 4000 Rupees. Assuming straight line depreciation, the book value of the pump at the end of 4th year, rounded to the nearest integer, is ___ Rupees.

Ans: (16000)

10. A gas bubble (gas density ρ_g = 2 kg/m³; bubble diameter D = 10⁻⁴ m) is rising vertically through water (gas density ρg = 1000 kg/m³; viscosity μ = 0.001 Pa.s) Force balance on the bubble leads to the following equation,

Where n is the velocity of the bubble at any given time t. Assume that the volume of the rising bubble does not change. The value of g = 9.81 m/s².

The terminal rising velocity of the bubble (in cm/s), rounded to 2 decimal places, is ___ cm/s.

Ans: (0.54)

11. Water is heated at atmospheric pressure from 40℃ to 80℃ using two different processes. In process I, the heating is done by a source at 80℃. In process II, the water is first heated from 40℃ to 60℃ by a source at 60℃, and the then from 60℃ to 80℃ by another source at 80℃. Identify the correct statement.

(A) Enthalpy change of water in process I is greater than enthalpy change in process II

(B) Enthalpy change of water in process II is greater than enthalpy change in process I

(D) Process II is closer to reversibility

Ans: (D)

12. The DCDA (Double Contact Double Absorption) process is used the manufacture of

(A) Urea

(B) Sulphuric acid

(D) ammonia

Ans: (B)

13. The real part of 6eⁱ^π^/3 is ____.

Ans: (3)

14. Consider a first order catalytic reaction in a porous catalyst pellet.

Given R – characteristic length of the pellet: D_e – effective diffusivity; k_c – mass transfer coefficient k₁ – rate constant based on volume of the catalyst pellet; C_s – concentration of reactant on the pellet surface.

The expression for Thiele modulus is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (B)

15. Which of the following conditions are valid at the plait point?

P) Density difference between the extract and raffinate phases is zero

Q) Interfacial tension between the extract and raffinate phases is zero

R) Composition difference between the extract and raffinate phases is zero

(A) P and Q only

(B) Q and R only

(D) P, Q and R

Ans: (D)

16. The purpose of the mathanation reaction used in ammonia plants is to

(A) remove CO as it is a catalyst poison

(B) increase the amount of hydrogen

(D) utilize methane as a catalyst for ammonia synthesis

Ans: (A)

17. Which of the following is the correct sequence of equipment for size reduction of solids?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (D)

18. Let i and j be the unit vectors in the x and y directions, respectively. For the function

F(x, y) = x³ + y²

the gradient of the function i.e.. ∇F is given by

(A) 3x²i – 2yj

(B) 6x²y

(D) 2yi – 3x²j

Ans: (C)

19. Consider steady state mass transfer of a solute A from a gas phase to a liquid phase. The gas phase bulk and interface mole fractions are y_{A, G} and y_{A, i} respectively. The liquid phase bulk and interface mole fractions are x_{A, L} and x_{A, i}, respectively. The ratio is very close to zero.

The implies that mass transfer resistance is

(A) negligible in the gas phase only

(B) negligible in the liquid phase only

(D) considerable in both the phases

Ans: (B)

20. The value of

Ans: (1)

21. For a solid-catalyzed gas phase reversible reaction, which of the following statements is ALWAYS TRUE?

(A) Adsorption is rate-limiting

(B) Desorption is rate-limiting

(D) Temperature does not affect equilibrium conversion

Ans: (C)

22. The one-dimensional unsteady heat conduction equation is

Where, T – temperature, t – time, r – radial position, k – thermal conductivity, ρ- density, and C_p – specific heat.

For the cylindrical coordinate system, the value of n in the above equation is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) 3

Ans: (B)

23. The composition of vapour entering a tray in a distillation column is 0.47. The average composition of the vapour leaving the tray is 0.53. The equilibrium composition of the vapour corresponding to the liquid leaving this tray is 0.52. All the compositions are expressed in mole fraction of the more volatile component.

The Murphree efficiency based on the vapour phase, rounded to the nearest integer, is ___ %.

Ans: (120)

24. The number of positive roots of the function f (x) shown below in the range 0 < x < 6 is ___________.

Ans: (3)

25. The following reaction rate curve is shown for a reaction A → P. Here, (−r_A) and x_A represent reaction rate and conversion, respectively. The feed is pure A and 90% conversion is desired

Which amongst the following reactor configurations gives the lowest total volume of the reactor (s)?

(A) CSTR followed by PFR

(B) Two CSTRs in series

(D) A single PFR

Ans: (A)

26. The total cost (C_T) of an equipment in terms of the operation variable x and y is

The optimal value of C_T, rounded to 1 decimal place, is _______.

Ans: (91.5)

27. The vapour pressure of a pure substance at a temperature T is 30bar. The actual and ideal gas values of g / RT for the saturated vapour at this temperature T and 30 bar are 7.0 and 7.7 respectively. Here, g is the molar Gibbs free energy and R is the universal gas constant. The fugacity of the saturated liquid at these conditions, rounded to 1 decimal place, is ___ bar.

Ans: (14.9)

28. The Sherwood number (Sh_L) correlation for laminar flow over a flat plate of length L is given by

Where Re_L and Sc represent Reynolds number and Schmidt number, respectively.

This correlation, expressed in the form of Chilton-Colburn j_D factor, is

(A) j_D = 0.664

(B)

(D)

Ans: (B)

29. For the initial value problem

the value of x at t = π/3, is _____.

Ans: (0.5)

30. In a counter current stripping operation using pure steam the mole ratio of a solute in the liquid stream is reduced from 0.25 to 0.05. The liquid feed flow rate, on a solute-free basis, is 3mole/s. The equilibrium line for the system is given in the figure below.

The MINIMUM flowrate of pure steam for this process, rounded to 1 decimal place, is ___mol/s.

Ans: (4)

31. The Laplace transform of a function is The initial and final values, respectively, of the function are

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (B)

32. The following table provides four sets of Fanning friction factor data, for different values of Reynolds number (Re) and roughness factor

Which of the above sets of friction factor data is correct?

(A) Set I

(B) Set II

(D) Set IV

Ans: (C)

33. In a batch adsorption process, 5 g of fresh adsorbent is used to treat 1 litre of an aqueous phenol solution. The initial phenol concentration is 100 mg/litre. The equilibrium relation is given by q* = 1.3C

Where, q* is the amount of phenol adsorbed in mg of phenol per gram of adsorbent: and C is the concentration of phenol in mg/litre in the aqueous solution.

When equilibrium is attained between the adsorbent and the solution, the concentration of phenol in the solution, rounded to 1 decimal place is ___________ mg/litre.

Ans: (13.34)

34. A bond has a maturity value of 20,000 Rupees at the end of 4 years. The interest is compounded at the rate of 5% per year.

The initial investment to be made, rounded to the nearest integer, is _______ Rupees.

Ans: (16454)

35. Size analysis was carried out on a sample of gravel. The data for mass fraction (x_i) and average particle diameter (D_pi) of the fraction is given in the table below :

The mass mean diameter of the sample, to the nearest integer, is ________mm.

Ans: (13)

36. A propeller (diameter D = 15 m) rotates at N = 1 revolution per second (rps). To understand the flow around the propeller, a lab-scale model is made. Important parameters to study the flow are velocity of the propeller tip (V = πND), diameter D and acceleration due to gravity (g). The lab-scale model is 1/100^th of the size of the actual propeller.

The rotation speed of the lab-scale model, to the nearest integer, should be _________ rps.

Ans: (10.0)

37. The transfer function of a system is

For a unit step increase in the input, the fractional overshoot, rounded to 2 decimal places, is ______.

Ans: (0.37)

38. A fluid over a heated horizontal plate maintained at temperature T_w. The bulk temperature of the fluid is T_∞ . The temperature profile in the thermal boundary layer is given by:

Here, y is the vertical distance from the plate, δ_t is the thickness of the thermal boundary layer and k is the thermal conductivity of the fluid.

The local heat transfer coefficient is given by

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (C)

39. The following liquid second-order reaction is carried out in an isothermal CSTR at steady state A → R (−r_A) = 0.005 C_A² mol/m³.hr

Where, C_A is the concentration of the reactant in the CSTR. The reactor volume is 2m³, the inlet flow rate is 0.5 m³/hr and the inlet concentration of the reactant is 1000 mol/m³. The fractional conversion, rounded to 2 decimal places, is _____.

Ans: (0.80)

40. Reaction A → B is carried out in a reactor operating at steady state and 1 mol/s of pure A at 425℃ enters the reactor. The outlet stream leaves the reactor at 325℃. The heat input to the reactor is 17kW. The heat of reaction at the reference temperature of 25℃ is 30kJ/mol. The specific heat capacities (in kJ/mol.K) of A and B are 0.1 and 0.15, respectively.

The molar flowrate of B leaving the reactor, rounded to 2 decimal places, is ____mol/s.

Ans: (0.6)

41. The C-curve measured during a pulse tracer experiment is shown below. In the figure, C(t) is the concentration of the tracer measured at the reactor exit in mol/liter at time t seconds.

The mean residence time in the reactor, rounded to 1 decimal place, is ______ s.

Ans: (1.0)

42. The reversible reaction of t-butyl alcohol (TBA) and ethanol (EtOH) to ethylt-butyl ether (ETBE) is

TBA + EtOH ⇌ ETBE +Water

The equilibrium constant for this reaction is K_C = 1. Initially, 74 g of TBA is mixed with 100g of aqueous solution containing 46 weight% ethanol. The molecular weights are:74g/mol for TBA. 46g/mol for EtOH, 102g/mol for ETBE, and 18 g/mol for water.

The mass of ETBE at equilibrium, rounded to 1 decimal place, is ____g.

Ans: (20.4)

43. Let I_b_λ be the spectral black body radiation intensity per unit wavelength about the wavelength λ. The blackbody radiation intensity emitted by a blackbody over all wavelengths is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (C)

44. Match the equipment in Group-1 with the process in Group-2:

Group-1

(P) Fluidized bed

(Q) Multistage adiabatic reactor with Inter-stage cooling.

(R) Fourdrinier machine

(S) Diaphragm cell

Group-2

(I) Paper-making

(II) Sodium hydroxide manufacturer

(III) SO₂ oxidation

(IV) Catalytic cracking

Choose the correct set of combinations.

(A) P − IV,Q − III,R − I,S − II

(B) P − IV,Q − III,R − II,S − I

(D) P − III,Q − IV,R − II,S − I

Ans: (A)

45. Oil is being delivered at a steady state flowrate through a circular pipe of a radius 1.25 × 10⁻² m and length 10 m. The pressure drop access the pipe is 500 Pa.

The shear stress at the pipe wall, rounded to 2 decimal places______ Pa

Ans: (0.3125)

46. Match the problem type in Group-1 with the numerical method in Group-2

Group-1 Group-2

(P) System of linear algebraic equations (I) Newton-Raphson

(Q) Non-linear algebraic equations (II) Gauss-seidel

(R) Ordinary differential equations (III) Simphson’s Rule

(S) Nemerical integrations (IV) Runge-Kutta

Choose the correct set of combinations.

(A) P − II,Q − I,R − III,S − IV

(B) P − I,Q − II,R − IV,S − III

(D) P − II,Q − I,R − IV,S − III

Ans: (D)

47. The following gas-phase reaction is carried out in a constant-volume isothermal batch reactor

A + B → R + S

The reactants A and B as well as the product S are non-condensable gases. At the operating temperature, the saturation pressure of the product R is 40 kPa.

Initially, the batch reactor contains equimolar amounts of A and B (and no products) at a total pressure of 100 kPa. The initial concentrations of the reactants are C_{A, 0} = C_{B, 0} = 12.56 mol/m³. The rate of reaction is given by (−r_A) = 0.08C_AC_B mol/m³.s.

The time at which R just starts condensing, rounded to 1 decimal place, is_____

Ans: (4)

48. The vapor phase composition and relative volatilities (with respect to n-propane) on an ideal tray of a distillation column are

The mole fraction of n-propane in the liquid phase, rounded to 2 decimal places, is ____.

Ans: (0.88)

49. The Characteristic equation of a closed-loop system is

6s³ + 11s² + 6s + (1 + k) = 0, Where k > 0

The value of K beyond which the system just becomes unstable, rounded to the nearest integer, is _____.

Ans: (10)

50. A aqueous salt-solution enters a crystallizer operating at steady state at 25℃. he feed temperature is 90℃ and the salt concentration in the feed is 40 weight%. The salt crystallizes as a pentahydrate. The crystals and the mother liquor leave the crystallizer. The molecular weight of the anhydrous salt is 135. The solubility of the salt at 25℃ is 20 weight%.

The feed flowrate required for a production rate of 100 kg/s of hydrated salt, rounded to the nearest integer, is ____ kg/s.

Ans: (200)

51. The pressure of a liquid is increased isothermally. The molar volume of the liquid decreases from 50.45 × 10⁻⁶ m³/mol to 48 × 10⁻⁶ m³/mol during this process. The isothermal compressibility of the liquid is 10⁻⁹ Pa⁻¹, which can b e assumed to be independent of pressure.

The change in the molar Gibbs free energy of liquid, rounded to nearest integer, is J/mol.

Ans: (2511.4)

52. The open loop transfer function of a process with a proportional controller (gain K_C) is

Based on the Bode criterion for closed-loop stability, the ultimate gain of the controller, rounded to 2 decimal places, is____.

Ans: (0.78)

53. In nucleate boiling, the pressure inside a bubble is higher than the pressure of the surrounding liquid. Assuming that both the liquid and vapour are saturated, the temperature of the liquid will ALWAYS be

(A) at 100℃

(B) lower than the temperature of the vapour

(D) higher than the temperature of the vapour

Ans: (B)

54. A box has 6 red balls and white balls. A ball is picked at random and replaced in the box, after which a second ball is picked.

The probability of both the balls being red, rounded to 2 decimal places, is ____.

Ans: (0.36)

55. A sparingly soluble gas (solute) is in equilibrium with a solvent at 10 bar. The mole fraction of the solvent in the gas phase is 0.01. At the operating temperature and pressure, the fugacity coefficient of the solute in the gas phase and the Henry’s law constant are 0.92 and 1000 bar, respectively. Assume that the liquid phase obeys Henry’s law.

The MOLE PERCENTAGE of the solute in the liquid phase, rounded to 2 decimal places, is _____.

Ans: (0.91)

56. Consider the following sentences:

All benches are bed is a bulb. Some bulbs are lamps.

Which of the following can be inferred?

(i) Some beds are lamps.

(ii) Some lamps are beds.

(A) Only i

(B) Only ii

(D) Neither i nor ii

Ans: (D)

57. The following sequence of numbers is arranged in increasing order: 1,x,x,x, y, y,9,16,18. Given that the mean and median are equal, and are also equal to twice the mode, the value of y is

(A) 5

(B) 6

(D) 8

Ans: (D)

58. The bacteria in milk are destroyed when it _________ heated to 80 degree Celsius.

(A) would be

(B) will be

(D) was

Ans: (C)

59. If the radius of a right circular cone is increased by 50%, its volume increases by

(A) 75%

(B) 100%

(D) 237.5%

Ans: (C)

60. __________ with someone else’s email account is now very serious offence.

(A) Involving

(B) Assisting

(D) Incubating

Ans: (C)

61. Students applying for hostel rooms are allotted rooms in order of seniority. Students already staying in a room will move if they get a room in their preferred list. Preferences of lower ranked applicants are ignored during allocation.

Given the data below, which room will Ajit stay in?

(A) P

(B) Q

(D) S

Ans: (B)

62. The bar graph below shows the output of five carpenters over one month, each of whom made different items of furniture: Chairs, tables, and beds.

Consider the following statements.

(i) The number of beds made by carpenter C2 is exactly the same as the same as the number

of tables made by carpenter C3.

(ii) The total number of chairs made by all carpenters is less than the total number of tables.

Which one of the following is true?

(A) Only i

(B) Only ii

(D) Neither i nor ii

Ans: (C)

63. The last digit of (2171)⁷ + (2172)⁹ + (2173)¹¹ + (2174)¹³ is

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 8

Ans: (B)

64. Two machines M1 and M2 are able to execute any of four jobs P, Q, R and S. The machines can perform one job on one object at a time. Jobs P, Q, R and S take 30 minutes, 20 minutes, 60 minutes and 15 minutes each respectively. There are 10 objects each requiring exactly 1 job. Job P is to be performed on 2 objects. Job Q on 3 objects. Job R on 1 object and Job S on 4 objects. What is the minimum time needed to complete all the jobs?

(A) 2 hours

(B) 2.5 hours

(D) 3.5 hours

Ans: (A)

65. The old concert hall was demolished because of fears that the foundation would be affected by the construction tried to mitigate the impact of pressurized air pockets created by the excavation of large amounts of soil. But even with these safeguards, it was feared that the soil below the concert hall would not be stable.

From this, one can infer that

(A) The foundations of old buildings create pressurized air pockets underground, which are difficult to handle during metro construction.

(B) Metro construction has to be done carefully considering its impact on the foundations of existing buildings.

(D) Pressurized air can be used to excavate large amounts of soil from underground areas.

Ans: (B)

Gate 2017 Civil Engineering Question Paper 12th Feb 2017 Session 2 PDF Download

July 21, 2017 by M Prakash

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Civil Engineering 12th Feb 2017 Session 2

Subject Name: Civil Engineering

Duration : 180

Total Marks: 100

1. Consider a rigid retaining wall with partially submerged cohesionless backfill with a surcharge. Which one of the following diagrams closely represents the Rankine’s active earth pressure distribution against this wall?.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (B)

2. The VPI (vertical point of intersection) is 100 m away (when measured along the horizontal) from the VPC (vertical point of curvature). If the vertical curve is parabolic, the length of the curve (in meters and measured along the horizontal) is _______

Ans: (200)

3. For a construction project. The mean and standard deviation of the completion time are 200 days and 6.1 days, respectively. Assume normal distribution and use the value of standard normal deviate Z = 1.64 for the 95% confidence level. The maximum time required (in days) for the completion of the project would be __________

Ans: (210)

4. Given that the scope of the construction work is well-defined with all its drawings, specifications, quantities and estimates, which one of the following types of contract would be most preferred?

(A) EPC contract

(B) Percentage rate contract

(D) Lump sum contract

Ans: (D)

5. The divergence of the vector field V = x²i + 2y³j + z⁴k at x = 1, y = 2, z = 3 is _______

Ans: (134)

6. Consider the frame shown in the figure:

If the axial and shear deformations in different members of the frame are assumed to be negligible, the reduction in the degree of kinematical indeterminacy would be equal to

(A) 5

(B) 6

(D) 8

Ans: (B)

7. As per Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules 2000 of India, the day time noise limit for a residential zone, expressed in dB (A) L_eq, is

(A) 55

(B) 65

(D) 85

Ans: (A)

8. Let G be the specific gravity of soil solids, w the water content in the soil sample, γ_w the unit weight of water, and γ_d the dry unit weight of the soil. The equation for the zero air voids line in a compaction test plot is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (A)

9. The safety within a roundabout and the efficiency of a roundabout can be increased, respectively, by

(A) increasing the entry radius and increasing the exit radius

(B) increasing the entry radius and decreasing the exit radius

(D) decreasing the entry radius and decreasing the exit radius

Ans: (C)

10. In a material under a state of plane strain, a 10×10 mm square centered at a point gets deformed as shown in the figure.

If the shear strain γ_xy at this point is expressed as 0.001k (in rad), the value of k is

(A) 0.50

(B) 0.25

(D) −0.50

Ans: (C)

11. The method of orientation used, when the plane table occupies a position not yet located on the map, is called as

(A) traversing

(B) radiation

(D) resection

Ans: (D)

12. If a centrifugal pump has an impeller speed of N (in rpm), discharge Q (in m³/s) and the total head H (in m), the expression for the specific speed Ns of the pump is given by

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (C)

13. Following observations have been made for the elevation and temperature to ascertain the stability of the atmosphere:

The atmosphere is classified as

(A) Stable

(B) Unstable

(D) Inverse

Ans: (C)

14. During a storm event in a certain period, the rainfall intensity is 3.5 cm/hour and the Φ − index is 1.5 cm/hour. The intensity of effective rainfall (in cm/hour, up to one decimal place) for this period is ______

Ans: (2)

15. For a broad gauge railway track on a horizontal curve of radius R (in m), the equilibrium cant e required for a train moving at a speed of V (in km per hour) is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (B)

16. Consider the following simultaneous equations (with c₁ and c₂ being constants):

3x₁ + 2x₂ = c₁

4x₁ + x₂ = c₂

The characteristic equation for these simultaneous equations is

(A) λ² – 4λ – 5 = 0

(B) λ² – 4λ + 5 = 0

(D) λ² + 4λ + 5 = 0

Ans: (A)

17. A sheet pile has an embedment depth of 12 m in a homogeneous soil stratum. The coefficient of permeability of soil is 10⁻⁶ m/s. Difference in the water levels between the two sides of the sheet pile is 4 m. The flow net is constructed with five number of flow lines and eleven number of equipotential lines. The quantity of seepage (in cm³/s per m, up to one decimal place) under the sheet pile is _____

Ans: (1.6)

18. While aligning a hill road with a ruling gradient of 6 %, a horizontal curve of radius 50 m is encountered. The grade compensation (in percentage, up to two decimal places) to be provided for this case would be______

Ans: (1.5)

19. Consider the following statements related to the pore pressure parameters, A and B:

P. A always lies between 0 and 1.0

Q. A can be less than 0 or greater than 1.0

R. B always lies between 0 and 1.0

S. B can be less than 0 or greater than 1.0

For these statements, which one of the following options is correct?

(A) P and R

(B) P and S

(D) Q and S

Ans: (C)

20. Let the characteristic strength be defined as that value, below which not more than 50% of the results are expected to fall. Assuming a standard deviation of 4 MPa, the target mean strength (in MPa) to be considered in the mix design of a M25 concrete would be

(A) 18.42

(B) 21.00

(D) 31.58

Ans: (C)

21. The plate load test was conducted on a clayey strata by using a plate of 0.3m × 0.3 m dimensions, and the ultimate load per unit area for the plate was found to be 180 kPa. The ultimate bearing capacity (in kPa) of a 2 m wide square footing would be

(A) 27

(B) 180

(D) 2000

Ans: (B)

22. The infiltration capacity of a soil follows the Horton’s exponential model, f = c₁ + c₂e⁻^kt. During and experiment, the initial infiltration capacity was observed to be 200 mm/h. After a long time, the infiltration capacity was reduced to 25 mm/h. If the infiltration capacity after 1 hour was 90 mm/h, the value of the decay rate constant, k (in h⁻¹, up to two decimal places) is_______

Ans: (0.99)

23. A two-faced fair coin has its faces designated as head (H) and tail (T). This coin is tossed three times in succession to record the following outcomes: H, H, H. If the coin is tossed one more time, the probability (up to one decimal place) of obtaining H again, given the previous realizations of H, H and H, would be_______

Ans: (0.5)

24. The most important type of species involved in the degradation of organic matter in the case of activated sludge process is

(A) Autotrophs

(B) Heterotrophs

(D) Photo-autotrophs

Ans: (B)

25. Let w = f (x,y), where x and y are functions of t. Then, according to the chain rule, is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (C)

26. Consider the portal frame shown in the figure and assume the modulus of elasticity 4 E = 2.5×10 MPa and the moment of inertial, I = 8×10⁸ mm⁴ for all the members of the frame.

The rotation (in degrees, up to one decimal place) at the rigid joint Q would be_______

Ans: (1.003)

27. The radii of relative stiffness of the rigid pavements P and Q are denoted by ℓ_p and ℓ_Q, respectively. The geometric and material properties of the concrete slab and underlying soil are given below:

The ratio (up to one decimal place) of ℓ_p/ℓ_Q is _______

Ans: (2)

28. A 1 m wide rectangular channel carries a discharge of 2m³/s. The specific energy-depth diagram is prepared for the channel. It is observed in this diagram that corresponding to a particular specific energy, the subcritical depth is twice the supercritical depth. The subcritical depth (in meters, up to two decimal places) is equal to _______

Ans: (1.069)

29. A hollow circular shaft has an outer diameter of 100 mm and inner diameter of 50 mm. If the allowable shear stress is 125 MPa, the maximum torque (in kN-m) that the shaft can resist is_______

Ans: (23.009)

30. Consider the following statements:

P. Walls of one brick thick are measured in square meters.

Q. Walls of one brick thick are measured in cubic meters.

R. No deduction in the brickwork quantity is made for openings in walls up to 0.1 m² area.

S. For the measurement of excavation from the borrow pit in a fairly uniform ground, dead men are left at suitable intervals.

For the above statements, the correct option is

(A) P-False; Q-True; R- False: S-True

(B) P-False; Q-True: R-False; S-False

(D) P-True; Q-False; R-True; S-True

Ans: (D)

31. Following are the statements related to the stress paths in a triaxial testing of soils:

P. If σ₁ = σ₃, the stress point lies at the origin of the p-q plot

Q. If σ₁ = σ₃, the stress point lies on the p-axis of the p-q plot.

R. If σ₁ > σ₃, both the stress points p and q are positive.

For the above statements, the correct combination is

(A) P − False; Q − True; R − True

(B) P − False; Q − True; R − True

(D) P − True; Q − False; R − False

Ans: (A)

32. A simply supported rectangular concrete beam of span 8m has to be prestressed with a force of 1600kN. The tendon is of parabolic profile having zero eccentricity at the supports. The beam has to carry an external uniformly distributed load of intensity 30 kN/m. Neglecting the self-weight of the beam, the maximum dip (in meters, up to two decimal places) of the tendon at the mid-span to balance the external load should be________

Ans: (0.15)

33. An observer standing on the deck of a ship just sees the top of a lighthouse. The top of the lighthouse is 40 m above the sea level and the height of the observer’s eye is 5 m above the sea level. The distance (in km, up to one decimal place) of the observer form the lighthouse is _______

Ans: (33)

34. If AB^T is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (A)

35. A 2 m long, axially loaded mild steel rod of 8 mm diameter exhibits the load-displacement (p−δ) behavior as shown in the figure.

Assume the yield stress of steel as 250 Mpa. The complementary energy (in N-mm) stored in the bar up to its linear elastic behavior will be_______

Ans: (15707, 963)

36. Two cars P and Q are moving in a racing track continuously for two hour. Assume that no other vehicles are using the track during this time. The expressions relating the distance travelled d (in km) and time t (in hour) for both the vehicles are given as

P:d = 60t

Q:d = 60t²

Within the first one hour, the maximum space headway would be

(A) 15 km at 30 minutes

(B) 15 km at 15 minutes

(D) 30 km at 15 minutes

Ans: (A)

37. Consider the following definite integral:

The value of the integral is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (A)

38. A municipal corporation is required to treat 1000 m³/day of water. It is found that an overflow rate of 20 m/day will produce a satisfactory removal of the discrete suspended particles at a depth of 3 m. The diameter (in meters, rounded to the nearest integer) of a circular settling tank designed for the removal of these particles would be______

Ans: (8)

39. For the construction of a highway. A cut is to be made as shown in the figure.

The soil exhibits c’ = 20 kPa, ϕ = 18°, and the undrained shear strength = 80 kPa. The unit weight of water is 9.81 kN/m³. The unit weights of the soil above and below the ground water table are 18 and 20 kN/m³, respectively. If the shear stress at Point A is 50 kPa, the factors of safety against the shear failure at this point, considering the undrained and drained conditions, respectively, would be

(A) 1.6 and 0.9

(B) 0.9 and 1.6

(D) 1.2 and 0.6

Ans: (A)

40. A catchment is idealized as a 25 km × 25 km square. It has five rain gauges, one at each corner and one at the center, as shown in the figure.

During a month, the precipitation at these gauges is measured as G₁ = 300 mm, G₂ = 285mm, G₃ = 272mm, G₄ = 290mmand G₅ =288mm. The average precipitation (in mm, up to one decimal place) over the catchment during this month by using the Thiessen polygon method is_______

Ans: (287.375)

41. The tangent to the curve represented by y = x ln x is required to have 45° inclination with the x-axis. The coordinates of the tangent point would be

(A) (1, 0)

(B) (0, 1)

(D) (√2, √2)

Ans: (A)

42. Water is pumped at a steady uniform flow rate of 0.01 m³/s through a horizontal smooth circular pipe of 100 mm diameter. Given that the Reynolds number is 800 and g is 9.81 m/s² , the head loss (in meters, up to one decimal place) per km length due to friction would be____

Ans: (66.67)

43. Group I given a list of test methods and test apparatus for evaluating some of the properties of ordinary Portland cement (OPC) and concrete. Group II gives the list of these properties.

Group I Group II

P. Le chatelier test 1. Soundness of OPC

Q. Vee-Bee test 2. Consistency and setting time of OPC

R. Blaine air permeability test 3. Consistency or workability of concrete

S. The Vicat apparatus 4. Fineness of OPC

The correct match of the items in Group I with the items in Group II is

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Ans: (A)

44. The figure shows a U-tube having a 5 mm×5 mm square cross-section filled with mercury (specific gravity = 13.6) up to a height of 20 cm in each limb (open to the atmosphere).

If 5cm³ of water is added to the right limb, the new height (in cm, up to two decimal places) of mercury in the LEFT limb will be______

Ans: (20.735)

45. The analysis of a water sample produces the following results:

The total hardness (in mg/L as CaCO₃) of the water sample is_____

Ans: (300)

46. Consider the three prismatic beams with the clamped supports P, Q, and R as shown in the figures.

Given that the modulus of elasticity, E is 4 2.5×10 MPa; and the moment of inertia, I is 8×10⁸ mm⁴, the correct comparison of the magnitudes of the shear forces S and the bending moment M developed at the supports is

(A) S_P < S_Q < S_R ; M_P = M_Q = M_R

(B) S_P = S_Q > S_R ; M_P = M_Q > M_R

(D) S_P < S_Q < S_R ; M_P < M_Q < M_R

Ans: (C)

47. Consider a square-shaped area ABCD on the ground with its centre at M as shown in the figure. Four concentrated vertical load of P=5000 kN are applied on this area, at each corner.

The vertical stress increment (in kPa, up to one decimal place) due to these loads according to the Boussinesq’s equation, at a point 5 m right below M, is______

Ans: (191.36)

48. For a given water sample, the ratio between BO_{5-day, 20}_℃ and the ultimate BOD is 0.68. The value of the reaction rate constant k (on base e)( in day⁻¹, up to two decimal place) is ________

Ans: (0.23)

49. Two identical concrete piles having the plan dimensions 50 cm× 50 cm are driven into a homogeneous sandy layer as shown in the figures. Consider the bearing capacity factor N_q for ϕ = 30°as24.

If Q_P1 and Q_P2 represent the ultimate point bearing resistance of the piles under dry and submerged conditions, respectively, which one of the following statements is correct ?

(A) Q_P1 > Q_P2 by about 100%

(B) Q_P1 < Q_P2 by about 100%

(D) Q_P1 < Q_P2 by about 5%

Ans: (A)

50. The culturable command area of a canal is 10,000 ha. The area grows only two crops-rice in the Kharif season and wheat in the Rabi season. The design discharge of the canal is based on the rice requirements, which has an irrigated area of 2500 ha, base period of 150 days and delta of 130 cm. The maximum permissible irrigated area (in ha) for wheat, with a base period of 120 days and delta of 50 cm, is_______

Ans: (5200)

51. The composition of a municipal solid waste sample is given below:

The difference between the energy content of the waste sample calculated on dry basis and as-discarded basis (in kJ/kg) would be______

Ans: (3870)

52. Consider the following second-order differential equation:

y”− 4y’+ 3y = 2t − 3t²

The particular solution of the differential equations is

(A) −2 – 2t – t²

(B) −2t – t²

(D) −2 – 2t – 3t²

Ans: (A)

53. Two plates of 8 mm thickness each are connected by a fillet weld of 6 mm thickness as shown in the figure.

The permissible stresses in the plate and the weld are 150 MPa and 110 MPa, respectively. Assuming the length of the weld shown in the figure to be the effective length, the permissible load P (in KN) is______

Ans: (60)

54. Two prismatic beams having the same flexural rigidity of 1000 kN-m² are shown in the figures.

If the mid-span deflections of these beams are denoted by δ₁ and δ₂ (as indicated in the figures). The correct option is

(A) δ₁ = δ₂

(B) δ₁ < δ₂

(D) δ₁ >> δ₂

Ans: (A)

55. Two towers A and B, standing vertically on a horizontal ground, appear in a vertical aerial photograph as shown in the figure.

The length of the image of the tower A on the photograph is1.5 cm and of the tower B is 2.0 cm. The distance of the top the tower A (as shown by the arrowhead) is 4.0 cm and the distance of the top of the tower B is 6.0 cm, as measured form the principal point p of the photograph. If the height of the tower B is 80 m, the height (in meters) of the tower A is ______

Ans: (90)

56. There was no doubt that their work was thorough.

Which of the words below is closest in meaning to the underlined word above?

(A) Pretty

(B) Complete

(D) Haphazard

Ans: (B)

57. Four cards lie on a table. Each card has a number printed on one side and a colour on the other. The faces visible on the cards are 2, 3, red, and blue.

Proposition: If a card has an even value on one side, then its opposite face is red.

The cards which MUST be turned over to verify the above proposition are

(A) 2, Red

(B) 2, 3, Red

(D) 2, red, blue

Ans: (C)

58. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability that the product of the numbers appearing on the top faces of the dice is a perfect square is

(A) 1/9

(B) 2/9

(D) 4/9

Ans: (B)

59. What is the value of x when

(A) 1

(B) −1

(D) Cannot be determined

Ans: (B)

60. The event would have been successful if you ______ able to come.

(A) are

(B) had been

(D) would have been

Ans: (B)

61. P,Q,R,S,T and U are seated around a circular table. R is seated two places to the right of Q.P is seated three places to the left of R. S is seated opposite U. If P and U now switch seats.

Which of the following must necessarily be true?

(A) P is immediately to the right of R

(B) T is immediately to the left of P

(D) U is immediately to the right of R or P is immediately to the left of T

Ans: (C)

62. Bhaichung was observing the pattern of people entering and leaving a car service centre. There was a single window where customers were being served. He saw that people inevitably came out of the centre in the order that they went in. However, the time they spent inside seemed to vary a lot: some people came out in a matter of minutes while for others it took much longer.

From this, what can one conclude?

(A) The centre operates on a first-come-first-served basis but with variable service times, depending on specific customer needs.

(B) Customers were served in an arbitrary order since they took varying amounts of time for service completion in the centre.

(C) Since some people came out within a few minutes of entering the centre. The system is likely to operate on a last-come-first-served basis.

(D) Entering the centre early ensured that one would have shorter service times and most people attempted to do this.

Ans: (A)

63. A map shows the elevations of Darjeeling, Gangtok, Kalimpong, pelling, and Siliguri.

Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Gangtok. Pelling is at a lower elevation than Gangtok. Pelling is at a higher elevation that siliguri. Darjeeling is at a higher elevation than Gangtok.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the paragraph above?

i. Pelling is at a higher elevation than Kalimpong

ii. Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Darjeeling

iii. Kalimpong is at a higher elevation than siliguri

iv. Siliguri is at a lower elevation than Gangtok

(A) Only ii

(B) Only ii and iii

(D) Only iii and iv

Ans: (C)

64. Budhan covers a distance of f19 km in 2 hours by cycling one fourth of the time and walking the rest. The next day he cycles (at the same speed as before) for half the time and walks the rest (at the same speed as before) and covers 26 km in 2 hours. The speed in km/h at which Budhan walks is

(A) 1

(B) 4

(D) 6

Ans: (D)

65. The points in the graph below represent the halts of a lift for duration of 1 minute, over a period of 1 hour.

Which of the following statements are correct?

i. The elevator never moves directly from any non-ground floor to another non-ground floor over the one hour period

ii. The elevator stays on the fourth floor for the longest duration over the one hour period

(A) Only i

(B) Only ii

(D) Neither i nor ii

Ans: (D)

Gate 2017 Civil Engineering Question Paper 12th Feb 2017 Session 1 PDF Download

July 21, 2017 by M Prakash

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Civil Engineering 12th Feb 2017 Session 1

Subject Name: Civil Engineering

Duration : 180

Total Marks: 100

1. The ordinates of a 2-hour unit hydrograph for a catchment are given as

The ordinate (in m³/s) of a 4-hour unit hydrograph for this catchment at the time of 3 h would be______

Ans: (15)

2. A uniformly distributed line load of 500 kN/m is acting on the ground surface. Based on Boussinesq’s theory, the ratio of vertical stress at a depth 2 m to that at 4 m, right below the line of loading, is

(A) 0.25

(B) 0.5

(D) 4.0

Ans: (C)

3. According to IS 456-2000, which one of the following statements about the depth of neutral axis χ_{u, bal} for a balanced reinforced concrete section is correct?

(A) χ_{u, bal}depends on the grade of concrete only.

(B) χ_{u, bal}depends on the grade of steel only.

(D) χ_{u, bal}does not depend on the grade of concrete and grade of steel.

Ans: (B)

4. Group I lists the type of gain or loss of strength in soils. Group II lists the property or process responsible for the loss or gain of strength in soils.

Group I Group II

P. Regain of strength with time 1. Boiling

Q. Loss of strength due to cyclic loading 2. Liquefaction

R. Loss of strength due to upward seepage 3. Thixotropy

S. Loss of strength due to remolding 4. Sensitivity

The correct match between Group I and Group II is

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

Ans: (C)

5. A runway is being constructed in a new airport as per the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) recommendations. The elevation and the airport reference temperature of this airport are 535 m above the mean sea level and 22.65°C, respectively. Consider the effective gradient of runway as 1%. The length of runway required for a design-aircraft under the standard conditions is 2000 m. Within the framework of applying sequential corrections as per the ICAO recommendations, the length of runway corrected for the temperature is

(A) 2223 m

(B) 2250 m

(D) 2750 m

Ans: (C)

6. A soil sample is subjected to a hydrostatic pressure, σ. The Mohr circle for any point in the soil sample would be

(A) a circle of radius σ and center at the origin

(B) a circle of radius σ and center at a distance σ from the origin

(D) a circle of diameter σ and center at the origin

Ans: (C)

7. The figure shows a two-hinged parabolic arch of span L subjected to a uniformly distributed load of intensity q per unit length.

The maximum bending moment in the arch is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

8. For a steady incompressible laminar flow between two infinite parallel stationary plates, the shear stress variation is

(A) linear with zero value at the plates

(B) linear with zero value at the center

(D) quadratic with zero value at the centre

Ans: (B)

9. An elastic bar of length L, uniform cross sectional area A, coefficient of thermal expansion α, and Young’s modulus E is fixed at the two ends. The temperature of the bar is increased by T, resulting in an axial stress σ. Keeping all other parameters unchanged, if the length of the bar is doubled, the axial stress would be

(A) σ

(B) 2σ

(D) 0.25ασ

Ans: (A)

10. The number of parameters in the univariate exponential and Gaussian distributions, respectively, are

(A) 2 and 1

(B) 1 and 2

(D) 1 and 1

Ans: (B)

11. The wastewater form a city, containing a high concentration of biodegradable organics, is being steadily discharged into a flowing river at a location S. If the rate of aeration of the river water is lower than the rate of degradation of the organics, then the dissolved oxygen of the river water

(A) is lowest at the locations S.

(B) is lowest at a point upstream of the location S.

(D) is lowest at a point downstream of the location S.

Ans: (D)

12. The reaction rate involving reactants A and B is given by –k[A]^α [B]^β. Which one of the following statements is valid for the reaction to be first –order reaction?

(A) α = 0 and β = 0

(B) α = 1 and β = 0

(D) α = 1 and β = 2

Ans: (B)

13. A strip footing is resting on the ground surface of a pure clay bed having an undrained cohesion C_u. The ultimate bearing capacity of the footing is equal to

(A) 2πC_u

(B) πC_u

(D) (π + 2)C_u

Ans: (D)

14. A simply supported beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed load. Which one of the following statements is true?

(A) Maximum or minimum shear force occurs where the curvature is zero.

(B) Maximum or minimum bending moment occurs where the shear force is zero.

(D) Maximum bending moment and maximum shear force occur at the same section.

Ans: (B)

15. A triangular pipe network is shown in the figure.

The head loss in each pipe is given by h_f = rQ^1.8, with the variables expressed in a consistent set of units. The value of r for the pipe AB is 1 and for the pipe BC is 2. If the discharge supplied at the point A (i.e., 100) is equally divided between the pipes AB and AC, the value of r (up to two decimal places) for the pipe AC should be_______

Ans: (0.62)

16.

Ans: (1)

17. A super-elevation e is provided on a circular horizontal curve such that a vehicle can be stopped on the curve without sliding. Assuming a design speed v and maximum coefficient of side friction f_max, which one of the following criteria should be satisfied?

(A) e ≤ f_max

(B) e > f_max

(D)

Ans: (A)

18. Which one of the following is NOT present in the acid rain?

(A) HNO₃

(B) H₂SO₄

(D) CH₃COOH

Ans: (D)

19. The accuracy of an Electronic Distance Measuring Instrument (EDMI) is specified as ±(a mm + b ppm). Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) Both a and b remain constant, irrespective of the distance being measured.

(B) a remains constant and b varies in proportion to the distance being measured.

(D) Both a and b vary in proportion to the distance being measured.

Ans: (B)

20. Consider the following partial differential equation:

For this equation to be classified as parabolic, the value of B² must be_______

Ans: (36)

21. The matrix P is the inverse of a matrix Q. If I denotes the identity matrix, which one of the following options is correct?

(A) PQ = I but QP ≠ I

(B) QP = I but PQ ≠ I

(D) PQ – QP = I

Ans: (C)

22. Vehicles arriving at an intersection from one of the approach road follow the Poisson distribution. The mean rate of arrival is 900 vehicles per hour. If a gap is defined as the time difference between two successive vehicle arrivals (with vehicles assumed to be points), the probability (up to four decimal places) that the gap is greater than 8 seconds is______

Ans: (0.1354)

23. Let x be a continuous variable defined over the interval (−∞, ∞) and . The integral g(x) = ∫f(x) dx is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (B)

24. The number of spectral bands in the Enhanced Thematic Mapper sensor on the remote sensing satellite Landsat-7 is

(A) 64

(B) 10

(D) 15

Ans: (C)

25. A 3 m thick clay layer is subjected to an initial uniform pore pressure of 145 kPa as shown in the figure.

For the given ground conditions, the time (in days, rounded to the nearest integer) required for 90% consolidation would be ________

Ans: (1770.833)

26. A planar truss tower structure is shown in the figure.

Consider the following statements about the external and internal determinacies of the truss.

(P) Externally Determinate

(Q) External Static Indeterminacy = 1

(R) External Static Indeterminacy = 2

(S) Internally Determinate

(T) Internal Static Indeterminacy = 1

(U) Internal Static Indeterminacy = 2

Which one of the following options is correct?

(A) P-False; Q-True; R-False; S-False; T-False; U-True

(B) P-False; Q-True; R-False; S-False: T-True; U-False

(D) P-True; Q-True; R-False; S-True; T-False; U-True

Ans: (A)

27. Consider the stepped bar made with a linear elastic material and subjected to an axial load of 1 kN, as shown in the figure.

Segments 1 and 2 have cross-sectional are of 100 mm² and 60 mm², Young’s modulus of 2×10⁵MPa and 3 × 10⁵ MPa, and length of 400 mm and 900 mm, respectively. The strain energy (in N-mm, up to one decimal place) in the bar due to the axial load is_____

Ans: (35)

28. Consider the beam ABCD shown in the figure.

For a moving concentrated load of 50 kN on the beam, the magnitude of the maximum bending moment (in kN-m) obtained at the support C will be equal to______

Ans: (200)

29. A column is subjected to a load through a bracket as shown in the figure.

The resultant force (in kN, up to one decimal place) in the bolt 1 is_____

Ans: (5.9 to 6.1)

30. The activity details of a project are given below:

The estimated minimum time (in days) for the completion of the project will be________

Ans: (51)

31. The value of M in the beam ABC shown in the figure is such that the joint B does not rotate.

The value of support reaction (in kN) at B should be equal to______

Ans: (60)

32. Two wastewater streams A and B, having an identical ultimate BOD are getting mixed to form the stream C. The temperature of the stream A is 20°C and the temperature of the stream C is 10°C. It is given that

• The 5-day BOD of the stream A measured at 20°C=50 mg/l

• BOD rate constant (base 10) at 20°C=0.115 per day

• Temperature coefficient = 1.135

The 5 –day BOD (in mg/l, up to one decimal place) of the stream C, calculated at 10°C, is______

Ans: (20.0 to 22.0)

33. A particle of mass 2 kg is travelling at a velocity of 1.5 m/s. A force f(t)=3t² (in N) is applied to it in the direction of motion for a duration of 2 seconds, where t denotes time in seconds. The velocity (in m/s, up to one decimal place) of the particle immediately after the removal of the force is________

Ans: (5.5)

34. The queue length (in number of vehicles) versus time (in seconds) plot for an approach to a signalized intersection with the cycle length of 96 seconds is shown in the figure (not drawn to scale).

At time t = 0, the light has just turned red. The effective green time is 36 seconds, during which vehicles discharge at the saturation flow rate, s (in vph). Vehicles arrive at a uniform rate, v (in vph), throughout the cycle. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) v = 600 vph, and for this cycle, the average stopped delay per vehicle = 30 seconds

(B) s = 1800 vph, and for this cycle, the average stopped delay per vehicle = 28.125 seconds

(D) s = 1200 vph, and for this cycle, the average stopped delay per vehicle = 28.125 seconds

Ans: (B)

35. For the function f(x) = a + bx, 0 ≤ x ≤ 1, to be a valid probability density function, which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) a = 1, b = 4

(B) a = 0.5, b = 1

(D) a = 1, b = −1

Ans: (B)

36. The infinite sand slope shown in the figure is on the verge of sliding failure. The ground water table coincides with the ground surface. Unit weight of water γ_w = 9.81 kN/m³.

The value of the effective angle of internal friction (in degrees, up to one decimal place) of the sand is ________

Ans: (34.335)

37. A sluice gate used to control the flow in a horizontal channel of unit width is shown in the figure.

It is observed that the depth of flow is 1.0 m upstream of the gate, while the depth is 0.2 m downstream of the gate. Assuming a smooth flow transition across the sluice gate, i.e., without any energy loss, and the acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s², the discharge (in m³/s, up to two decimal places) passing under the sluice gate is_______

Ans: (0.82)

38. Group I contains three broad classes of irrigation supply canal outlets. Group II presents hydraulic performance attributes.

The correct match of the items in Group I with the items in Group II is

(A) P-1; Q-2; R-3

(B) P-3; Q-1; R-2

(D) P-1; Q-3; R-2

Ans: (D)

39. Consider the matrix Which one of the following statements is TRUE for the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of this matrix?

(A) Eigenvalue 3 has a multiplicity of 2, and only one independent eigenvector exists.

(B) Eigenvalue 3 has a multiplicity of 2, and two independent eigenvectors exist.

(D) Eigenvalues are 3 and -3, and two independent eigenvectors exist.

Ans: (A)

40. The laboratory test on a soil sample yields the following results: natural moisture content = 18%, liquid limit = 60%, plastic limit = 25%, percentage of clay sized fraction = 25%.

The liquidity index and activity (as per the expression proposed by skempton ) of the soil, respectively, are

(A) -0.2 and 1.4

(B) 0.2 and 1.4

(D) 1.2 and 0.714

Ans: (A)

41. The solution of the equation

(A) Q(t) = e⁻^t – 1

(B) Q(t) = 1 + e⁻^t

(D) Q(t) = 1 − e⁻^t

Ans: (D)

42. Water flows through a 90° bend in a horizontal plane as depicted in the figure.

A pressure of 140 kPa is measured at section 1-1. The inlet diameter marked at section 1-1 is while the nozzle diameter marked at section 2-2 is Assume the following:

(i) Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s².

(ii) Weights of both the bent pipe segment as well as water are negligible.

(iii) Friction across the bend is negligible.

The magnitude of the force (in kN, up to two decimal places) that would be required to hold the pipe section is______

Ans: (2.50 to 3.75)

43. A pre-tensioned rectangular concrete beam 150 mm wide and 300 mm depth is prestressed with three straight tendons, each having a cross-sectional area of 50 mm², to an initial stress of 1200 N/mm². The tendons are located at 100 mm from the soffit of the beam. If the modular ratio is 6, the loss of prestressing force (in kN, up to one decimal place) due to the elastic deformation of concrete only is ______.

Ans: (4.8)

44. The spherical grit particles, having a radius of 0.01mm and specific gravity of 3.0, need to be separated in a settling chamber. It is given that

• g = 9.81 m/s²

• the density of the liquid in the settling chamber = 1000 kg/m³

• the kinematic viscosity of the liquid in the settling chamber = 10⁻⁶ m²/s

Assuming laminar conditions, the settling velocity (in mm/s, up to one decimal place) is_____

Ans: (0.436)

45. The equivalent sound power level (in dB) of the four sources with the noise levels of 60 dB, 69 dB, 70 dB and 79 dB is_______

Ans: (79.9)

46. Consider the equation with u = 0 at t = 0. This is numerically solved by using the forward Euler method with a step size. ∆t = 2. The absolute error in the solution at the end of the first time step is_________

Ans: (8)

47. It is proposed to drive H-piles up to a depth of 7 m at a construction site. The average surface area of the H-pile is 3 m² per meter length. The soil at the site is homogeneous sand, having an effective friction angle of 32°. The ground water table (GWT) is at a depth of 2 m below the ground surface. The unit weights of the soil above and below the GWT are 16 kN/m³ and 19 kN/m³, respectively. Assume the earth pressure coefficient, K= 1.0, and the angle of wall friction, δ =23°. The total axial frictional resistance (in kN, up to one decimal place) mobilized on the pile against the driving is________

Ans: (385.0 to 390.0)

48. The wastewater having an organic concentration of 54 mg/l is flowing at a steady rate of 0.8m3/day through a detention tank of dimensions 2m × 4m × If the contents of the tank are well mixed and the decay constant is 0.1 per day, the outlet concentration (in mg/l, up to one decimal place) is ______

Ans: (17.9 to 18.1)

49. The radius of a horizontal circular curve on a highway is 120 m. The design speed is 60 km/hour, and the design coefficient of lateral friction between the tyre and the road surface is 0.15. The estimated value of superelevation required (if full lateral friction is assumed to develop), and the value of coefficient of friction needed (if no superelevation is provided) will, respectively, be

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (C)

50. Consider two axially loaded columns, namely, 1 and 2, made of a linear elastic material with Young’s modulus 2×10⁵ MPa, square cross-section with side 10 mm, and length 1 m. For Column 1, one end is fixed and the other end is free. For Column 2, one end is fixed and the other end is pinned. Based on the Euler’s theory, the ratio (up to one decimal place) of the buckling load of Column 2 to the buckling load of Column 1 is ________

Ans: (8)

51. The observed bearings of a traverse are given below:

The stations(s) most likely to be affected by the local attraction is/are

(A) Only R

(B) Only S

(D) P and Q

Ans: (A)

52. A 1 m wide rectangular channel has a bed slope of 0.0016 and the Manning’s roughness coefficient is 0.04. Uniform flow takes place in the channel at a flow depth of 0.5 m. At a particular section, gradually varied flow (GVF) is observed and the flow depth is measured as 0.6 m. The GVF profile at that section is classified as

(A) S₁

(B) S₂

(D) M₂

Ans: (C)

53. A consolidated undrained triaxial compression test is conducted on a normally consolidated clay at a confining pressure of 100 kPa. The deviator stress at failure is 80 kPa, and the pore-water pressure measured at failure is 50 kPa. The effective angle of internal friction (in degrees, up to one decimal place) of the soil is_________

Ans: (26.4)

54. An effective rainfall of 2-hour duration produced a flood hydrograph peak of 200 m³/s. The flood hydrograph has a base flow of 20 m³/s. If the spatial average rainfall in the watershed for the duration of storm is 2 cm and the average loss rate is 0.4 cm/hour, the peak of 2-hour unit hydrograph (in m³/s-cm, up to one decimal place) is_________

Ans: (150)

55. The following observations are made while testing aggregate for its suitability in pavement construction:

i. Mass of oven-dry aggregate in air = 1000 g

ii. Mass of saturated surface-dry aggregate in air = 1025 g

iii. Mass of saturated surface-dry aggregate under water = 625 g

Based on the above observations, the correct statement is

(A) bulk specific gravity of aggregate = 2.5 and water absorption = 2.5 %

(B) bulk specific gravity of aggregate = 2.5 and water absorption = 2.4 %

(D) apparent specific gravity of aggregate = 2.5 and water absorption = 2.4 %

Ans: (A)

56. Consider the following sentences:

All benches are beds. No bed is a bulb. Some bulbs are lamps.

Which of the following can be inferred?

i. Some beds are lamps.

ii. Some lamps are beds

(A) Only i

(B) Only ii

(D) Neither i nor ii

Ans: (D)

57. The following sequence of numbers is arranged in increasing order: 1, x, x, x, y, y,9,16,18. Given that the mean and median are equal, and are also equal to twice the mode, the value of y is

(A) 5

(B) 6

(D) 8

Ans: (D)

58. The bacteria in milk are destroyed when it _________ heated to 80 degree Celsius.

(A) would be

(B) will be

(D) was

Ans: (C)

59. If the radius of a right circular cone is increased by 50%, its volume increases by

(A) 75%

(B) 100%

(D) 237.5%

Ans: (C)

60. __________ with someone else’s email account is now very serious offence.

(A) Involving

(B) Assisting

(D) Incubating

Ans: (C)

Given the data below, which room will Ajit stay in?

(A) P

(B) Q

(D) S

Ans: (B)

62. The bar graph below shows the output of five carpenters over one month, each of whom made different items of furniture: Chairs, tables, and beds.

Consider the following statements.

i. The number of beds made by carpenter C2 is exactly the same as the same as the number of tables made by carpenter C3.

ii. The total number of chairs made by all carpenters is less than the total number of tables.

Which one of the following is true?

(A) Only i

(B) Only ii

(D) Neither i nor ii

Ans: (C)

63. The last digit (2171)⁷ + (2172)⁹ + (2173)¹¹ + (2174)¹³ is

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 8

Ans: (B)

(A) 2 hours

(B) 2.5 hours

(D) 3.5 hours

Ans: (A)

From this, one can infer that

(A) The foundations of old buildings create pressurized air pockets underground, which are difficult to handle during metro construction.

(B) Metro construction has to be done carefully considering its impact on the foundations of existing buildings.

(D) Pressurized air can be used to excavate large amounts of soil from underground areas.

Ans: (B)

Gate 2017 Biotechnology Question Paper 5th Feb 2017 PDF Download

July 21, 2017 by M Prakash

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Biotechnology 5th Feb 2017

Subject Name: Biotechnology

Duration : 180

Total Marks: 100

1. Which one of the following organisms is an indicator of fecal contamination?

(A) Escherichia coli

(B) Streptococcus lactis

(D) Lactobacillus acidophilus

Ans: (A)

2. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is used for

(A) Quantifying antibody levels in blood

(B) Determining the molecular weight of an antigen

(D) Determining the molecular weight of an anti body

Ans: (A)

3. At the transcription start site of a gene, any of the four nucleotides can occur with equal probability p. The Shannon Entropy S, given by this start site is _____.

Given data: ln(2) = 0.69

Ans: (1.36)

4. The transcription factor X binds a 10 base pair DNA stretch. In the DNA of an organism, X was found to bind at 20 distinct sites. An analysis of these 20 binding sites showed the following distribution:

What is the consensus sequence for the binding site of X?

(A) NGTCNNNTNN

(B) AGTCACNTGC

(D) ANNNACGNGC

Ans: (B)

5. Macrophages eliminate pathogenic bacteria upon activation by

(A) NK cells

(B) Basophils

(D) Plasma cells

Ans: (C)

6. A bacterium has a genome of size 6 million base pairs. If the average rate of DNA synthesis is 1000 base paris/second, the time taken (in minutes) for replication of the genome will be ___ .

Ans: (100)

7. An enzyme catalyzes a reaction by

(A) Decreasing the energy of the substrate.

(B) Decreasing the activation energy of the reaction.

(D) Increasing the activation barrier of the reaction.

Ans: (B)

8. Which one of the following techniques can be used to determine the structure of a 15 kDa globular protein at atomic resolution?

(A) Raman spectroscopy

(B) IR spectroscopy

(D) NMR spectroscopy

Ans: (D)

9. In eukaryotes, cytokinesis is inhibited by

(A) Cytochalasin D

(B) Vinblastine

(D) Colchicines

Ans: (A)

10. Which one of the following mechanisms is used by human pathogens to evade host immune responses?

(A) Somatic hypermutation

(B) Antibody production

(D) Complement activation

Ans: (C)

11. An enzyme reaction exhibits Michaelis-Menten kinetics. For this reaction, on doubling the concentration of enzyme while maintaining [S] > > [E₀].

(A) Both K_m and V_max will remain the same.

(B) K_m will remain the same but V_max will increase.

(D) Both k_m and V_max will increase.

Ans: (B)

12. The surface area (in m²) of the largest sphere that can fit into a hollow cube with edges of length 1 meter is ______ .

Given data : π = 3.14

Ans: (3.14)

13. Assertion [a]: Gram negative bacteria show staining with saffranin.

Reason [r]: Gram negative bacteria have an outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a].

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a].

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false.

Ans: (A)

14. A proto-oncogene is suspected to have undergone duplication in a certain type of cancer. Of the following techniques, which one would verify the gene duplication?

(A) Northern blotting

(B) Southern blotting

(D) Western blotting

Ans: (B)

15. For y = f(x), if at x = 0, and y = 1 at x = 1, the value of y at x = 2 is _______.

Ans: (1)

16. If a protein contains four cysteine residues, the number of different ways they can simultaneously form two intra-molecular disulphide bonds is ____.

Ans: (3)

17. Natural proteins are composed primarily of 20 α − amino acids. Which one of the following statements is true for any of these amino acids in a solution of p^H5?

(A) Only the amino group is ionized.

(B) Only the carboxylic acid group is ionized.

(D) Both amino and carboxylic acid groups are neutral.

Ans: (A)

18. During protein synthesis, tRNAs are NOT involved in

(A) Charging

(B) Initiation

(D) Termination

Ans: (D)

19. A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was set up with the following reagents: DNA template. Taq polymerase, butter, dNTPs, and Mg²⁺ . Which one of the following is missing in the reaction mixture?

(A) Helicase

(B) Single-stranded binding proteins

(D) Reverse transcriptase

Ans: (C)

20. The plant hormone indole-3-acetic acid is derived from

(A) Histidine

(B) Tyrosine

(D) Proline

Ans: (C)

21. Secretory proteins synthesized by ER-associated ribosomes traverse through

(A) Mitochondria

(B) peroxisomes

(D) the nucleus

Ans: (C)

22. A 5 liter chemostat is fed fresh medium at 0.2 litres/minute having a substrate concentration of 25 grams/liter. At steady state, the outgoing stream has substrate concentration of 2.5 grams/liter. The rate of consumption (grams/liter/minute) of the substrate in the reactor is ___.

Ans: (0.86)

23. If the nucleotide composition (%) of a viral genome is A =10, U = 20, C = 40, and G = 30, which one of the following is this genome?

(A) Double stranded RNA

(B) Single stranded RNA

(D) Double stranded DNA

Ans: (B)

24. In a thin layer chromatography experiment using a silica gel plate, a compound showed migration of 12.5 cm and the solvent front showed migration of 18 cm. The R_f value for the compound is ____ .

Ans: (0.694)

25.

Ans: (1)

26. A pedigree of an inheritable disease is shown below.

This inheritable disease is

(A) X-linked dominant

(B) X-linked recessive or Y-linked

(D) only X-linked recessive

Ans: (B)

27. A DNA strand of length 25 mm wraps diametrically around the circumference of a spherical histone-octamer once. The radius (nm) of the histone-octamer is _____ .

Given data: π = 3.14

Ans: (3.91)

28. A recombinant protein is to be expressed under the control of the lac promoter and operator in a strain of E.coli having the genotype lacl⁺ crp⁺. Even in the absence of inducer IPTG, low levels of expression of the recombinant protein are seen (leaky expression). Which one of the following should be done to minimize such leaky expression?

(A) Addition of lactose to the medium

(B) Removal of all glucose from the medium

(D) Addition of allo-lactose to the medium

Ans: (C)

29. EcoRI restriction sites on a 10kb DNA fragment are shown below.

Upon partial digestion, what are the lengths (in kb) of all the possible DNA fragments obtained?

(A) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 10

(B) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7

(D) 2 and 3

Ans: (D)

30. A zero-order liquid phase reaction is being carried out in a batch reactor with k = 10³ mol/min. If the starting concentration of A is 0.1 moles/liter, the time (in minutes) taken by the system before A is exhausted in a 100 liter reactor is ____ .

Ans: (100)

31. The interaction energy E between two spherical particles is plotted as a function of the distance (r) between them. When r < a, where a is a constant, the net force between the spherical particles is repulsive. When r ≥ a, they attract via van der Waals attraction. Which one of the following plots correctly represents the interaction energy between the above two particles?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (D)

32. The value of c for which the following system of linear equations has an infinite number of solution is ____ .

Ans: (4)

33. Which one of the following amino acids has three ionizable groups?

(A) Glycine

(B) Leucine

(D) Lysine

Ans: (D)

34. The distribution of marks scored by a large class in an exam can be represented as a normal distribution with mean μ and standard deviation σ. In a follow-up exam in the same class, everyone scored 5 marks more than their respective score in the earlier exam. For this followup exam, the distribution of marks can be represented as a normal distribution with mean μ₂ and standard deviation σ₂ , Which one of the following is correct?

(A) μ = μ₂; σ > σ₂

(B) μ < μ₂; > σ > σ₂

(D) μ < μ₂; σ = σ₂

Ans: (D)

35. Which one of the following CANNOT be a recognition sequence for a Type II restriction enzyme?

(A) GAATTC

(B) AGCT

(D) ATGCCT

Ans: (D)

36. Match the plant hormones in Column I with functions in Column II

(A) P − 4, Q−3, R − 2, S−1

(B) P − 4, Q−2, R −3, S−1

(D) P − 2, Q−1, R − 4 S−3

Ans: (A)

37. One hundred E.Coli cells are each infected by single λ phage particle. The ratio of the number of phage particles committing to lysogeny to those committing to lysis is 4:1. Assuming that the average burst size is 80, the number of free phage particles released after one round of infection is ____ .

Ans: (1600)

38. Which one of the following organisms is responsible for crown gall disease in plants?

(A) Xamthomonas campestris

(B) Rhizobium etli

(D) Erwinia stewartii

Ans: (C)

39. The specific activity of an enzyme in a crude extract of E.coli is 9.5 units/mg of protein. The specific activity increased to 68 units/mg of protein upon ion-exchange chromatography. The fold purification is ___.

Ans: (7.20)

40. Shown below is a plasmid vector (P) and an insert (Q). The insert was cloned into the BamHI site of the vector. The recombinant plasmid was isolated and digested with BamHI or XhoL. The results from the digestion experiments are shown in (R).

Which one of the following explains the digestion results shown in (R)?

(A) The insert did not ligate to the vector.

(B) One copy of the insert ligated to the vector.

(D) The insert ligated to the vector as two copies but not in tandem.

Ans: (C)

41. For an E.coli culture in the exponential phase of growth, optical density (OD) at 540 nm is 0.3 at hours and 0.6 at 4 hours. Assuming that the measured OD is linearly proportional to the number of E.coli cells, the growth rate (per hour) for this culture is ____.

Ans: (0.14)

42. Consider an infinite number of cylinders. The first cylinder has a radius of 1 meter and height of 1 meter. The second one has a radius of 0.5 meter and height of 0.5 meter. Every subsequent cylinder has half the radius and half the height of the preceding cylinder. The sum of the volumes (in cubic meters) of these infinite number of cylinders is ____.

Given data : π = 3.14

Ans: (3.62)

43. The concentration (in micromolar) of NADH in a solution with is ____.

Given data: Path length = 1 cm; Molar extinction coefficient of NADH ε₃₄₀ = 6220M⁻¹ cm⁻¹

Ans: (79)

44. During anaerobic growth, an organism converts glucose (P) into biomass (Q), ethanol (R) acetaldehyde (S), and glycerol (T). Every mole of carbon present in glucose gets distributed among the products as follows:

1(C – moleP) → 0.14 (C – moleQ) + 0.25(C – moleR) + 0.3(C – moles) + 0.31(C – moleT)

From 1800 grams of glucose fed to the organism, the ethanol produced (in grams) is ____.

Given data: Atomic weights (Da) of C =12, H = 1, o −16, and N =14

Ans: (345)

45. Which of the following conditions promote the development of human autoimmune disorders?

P. Inability to eliminate self-reactive lymphocytes

Q. Generation of auto-antibodies

R. Ability to eliminate self-reactive T-cells

S. Induction of regulatory T-cells in the thymus

(A) P, R

(B) Q, S

(D) R, S

Ans: (C)

46. The genome is diploid at the end of which phases of a human mitotic cell cycle?

(A) G2 & S

(B) G1 & M

(D) G1 & G2

Ans: (B)

47. Match the proteins in Group I with cellular processes in Group II.

(A) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Ans: (D)

48. Which one of the following graphs represents the kinetics of protein precipitation by addition of ammonium sulphate? On the Y-axis, [Protein] represents the concentration of free protein in solution.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (A)

49. Match the organisms in Column I with the characteristics in Column II

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(B) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

(D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Ans: (D)

50. An immunocompetent person becomes infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria. Which of the following graphs correctly depicts bacterial load in this person over time

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (B)

51. For the probability density P(x) = 0.5 e^−0.5x, the integral

Ans: (1)

52. The circular dichroism spectra of three proteins P, Q and R are given below:

(A) P: α -helix, Q: β -sheet, and R: Random coil

(B) P: β -sheet, Q: α-helix , and R: Random coil

(D) P: Random coil, Q: α -helix, and R: β -sheet

Ans: (A)

53. The angle (in degrees) between the vectors

Ans: (90)

54. Growth of a microbe in a test tube is modeled as where, X is the biomass, r is the growth rate, and K is the carrying of the environment (r ≠ 0; k ≠ 0). If the value of starting biomass is which one of the following graphs qualitatively represents the growth dynamics?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (A)

55. If the chemical composition of proteins in an organism is CH₅O_0.3N_0.3S_0.004, ,the mass percentage of carbon in the proteins is ____.

Given data : Atomic weights (Da) of C = 12, H = 1, O = 16, N = 14 and S = 32.

Ans: (53)

56. Some tables are shelves. Some shelves are chairs. All chairs are benches. Which of the following conclusions can be deduced from the preceding sentences?

i. At least one bench is a table

ii. At least one shelf is a bench

iii. At least one chair is a table

iv. All benches are chairs.

(A) Only i

(B) Only ii

(D) Only iv

Ans: (B)

57. I _________________ made arrangements had I ______________ informed earlier.

(A) could have, been

(B) would have, being

(D) had been, been

Ans: (A)

58. She has a sharp tongue and it can occasionally turn_______

(A) hurtful

(B) left

(D) vital

Ans: (A)

59. 40% of deaths on city roads may be attributed to drunken driving. The number of degrees needed to represent this as a slice of a pie chart is

(A) 120

(B) 144

(D) 212

Ans: (B)

60. In the summer, water consumption is known to decrease overall by 25%. A Water Board official states that in the summer household consumption decreases by 20%.while other consumption increases by 70%

Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) The ratio of household to other consumption is 8/17

(B) The ratio of household to other consumption is 1/17

(D) There are errors in the official’s statement.

Ans: (D)

61. ‘If you are looking for a history of India, or for an account of the rise and fall of the British Raj, or for the reason of the cleaving of the subcontinent into two mutually antagonistic parts and the effects this multilation will have in the respective section, and ultimately on Asia, you will not find events, and was too intimately associated with the actors, to get the perspective needed for the impartial recording of these matters”.

Here, the word ‘antagonistic’ is closest in meaning to

(A) impartial

(B) argumentative

(D) hostile

Ans: (D)

62. There are 3 Indians and 3 Chinese in a group of 6 people. How many subgroups of this group can we choose so that every subgroup has at least one Indian?

(A) 56

(B) 52

(D) 44

Ans: (A)

63. Trucks (10 m long) and cars (5 long) go on a single lane bridge. There must be gap of at least 20 m after each truck and a gap of atleast 15 m after each car. Trucks and cars travel at a speed of 36 km/h. If cars and trucks go alternately. What is the maximum number of vehicles that can use the bridge in one hour?

(A) 1440

(B) 1200

(D) 600

Ans: (A)

64. A contour line joins locations having the same height above the mean sea level. The following is a contour plot of a geographical region. Contour lines are shown at 25 m intervals in this plot.

The path from P to Q is best described by

(A) Up-Down-Up-Down

(B) Down-Up-Down-Up

(D) Up-Down-Up

Ans: (C)

65. T.U.V.W.W.X.Y. and Z are seated around a circular table. T’s neighbours are Y and V. Z is seated third to the left of T and second to the right of S. U;s neighbours are S and Y; and T and W are not seated opposite each other. Who is third to the left of V?

(A) X

(B) W

(D) T

Ans: (A)

Gate 2017 Architecture and Planning Question Paper 4th Feb 2017 PDF Download

July 21, 2017 by M Prakash

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Architecture and Planning 4th Feb 2017

Subject Name: Architecture and Planning

Duration : 180

Total Marks: 100

1. The Pritzker Architecture prize for the year 2016 has been awarded to

(A) Alejandro Aravena

(B) Frei Otto

(D) Yung Ho Chang

Ans: (A)

2. As per the CPWD Handbook on Barrier Free and Accessibility, 2014, Government of India,, the minimum length of a straight ramp in metre to raise a wheelchair to the plinth level to 600 mm, is _____

Ans: (7.2)

3. Tuscan and Composite orders are associated with

(A) Greek Architecture

(B) Islamic Architecture

(D) Roman Architecture

Ans: (D)

4. A pointed arch having two centres and radii greater than the span is known as

(A) Lancet arch

(B) Gothic arch

(D) Drop arch

Ans: (A)

5. The concepts of ‘serial vision’, ‘punctuation’ and ‘closure’ were proposed by

(A) Le Crobusier

(B) Louis Kahn

(D) Kevin Lynch

Ans: (C)

6. In one litre of paint, volume of solid pigment and volume of non-volatile binder are 400 cc and 600 cc respectively. The Pigment Volume Concentration number of the paint is ______

Ans: (0.4)

7. ‘Cold joint’ refers to the

(A) expansion joint in large span concrete members

(B) interface between an already setting concrete and a fresh batch of concrete

(D) joining of two similar metals in vacuum

Ans: (B)

8. Slenderness ratio of a column is represented as :

(A) Effective length/Cross-sectional area

(B) Effective length/Radius of gyration

(D) Actual length/Radius of gyration

Ans: (B)

9. Liquidated damage refers to the

(A) cost borne by the contractor to rectify defects within defect-liability period

(B) compensation paid on breach of contract to the affected p arty by the other party

(D) money earned by the owner from selling damaged property through auction

Ans: (B)

10. Which of the following processes is NOT used for corrosion resistance of cast iron?

(A) Painting

(B) Epoxy coating

(D) Galvanizing

Ans: (C)

11. Data on ‘households with one or more married couples sharing room with a person aged 12 years or more’, is used for computing

(A) housing density

(B) housing shortage

(D) housing affordability

Ans: (B)

12. Excellence in Design for Greater Efficiency (EDGE) programme DOES NOT focus on

(A) lower carbon emission

(B) greater resource efficiency

(D) labour safety

Ans: (D)

13. Select the right option representing strategic components arranged in ascending order of specified minimum area under Smart City Mission of Government of India.

(A) Greenfield development – Redevelopment – Retrofitting

(B) Redevelopment – Greenfield development – Retrofitting

(D) Redevelopment – Retrofitting – Greenfield development

Ans: (B)

14. The grade-separated interchange suitable for 3-legged road intersection is

(A) Trumpet

(B) Full Clover leaf

(D) Partial Clover leaf

Ans: (A)

15. The design element provided to ensure safety of a vehicle travelling at prescribed design speed along the curved segment of a highway is

(A) shoulder

(B) super-elevation

(D) footpath

Ans: (B)

16. Which of the following process is NOT adopted in solid waste management?

(A) Incineration

(B) Pyrolysis

(D) Sanitary landfill

Ans: (C)

17. The principle of Eminent Domain is the power to

(A) restrict exercise of rights in land through zoning and environmental laws

(B) control land use

(D) acquire and take possession of property in order to promote public interest

Ans: (D)

18. In which of the following models does the private partner own the revenue as well as the risk associated with the project for a limited period of time?

(A) Build, Own, Operate (BOO)

(B) Build, Own, Operate, Transfer (BOOT)

(D) Design, Bid, Build (DBB)

Ans: (B)

19. In a multi-storied building, the type of plumbing system suitable for reusing the sullage for non-potable use is

(A) single stack system

(B) partially ventilated single stack system

(D) two pipe system

Ans: (D)

20. The unit for measuring sound absorption in a room is

(A) Sabin

(B) Phon

(D) Hertz

Ans: (A)

21. In Geographic Information System, DEM represents information on

(A) vegetation cover

(B) soil type

(D) topography

Ans: (D)

22. Minimum points required for GRIHA certification is

(A) 35

(B) 40

(D) 60

Ans: (C)

23. ArchiCAD, Auto Desk Revit, Digital Project Designer (CATIA) and Vector Works Architect are examples of

(A) Statistical Analysis software

(B) GIS software

(D) Image processing software

Ans: (C)

24. The CARTOSAT 2C satellite recently launched by ISRO

(A) is a geo-synchronous satellite

(B) is a part of IRNSS GPS satellite system

(D) has high spatial resolution

Ans: (D)

25. Which of the following trees has a columnar form?

(A) Delonix regia

(B) Tamarindus indica

(D) Callistemon lanceolatus

Ans: (C)

26. Match the architectural movements in Group-I with their proponents in Group-II.

Group-I Group-II

P. Deconstruction 1. Joseph Paxton

Q. Historicism 2. Kenzo Tange

R. Metabolism 3. Walter Gropius

S. Art Nouveau 4. Victor Horta

5. Frank O. Gehry

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5

Ans: (A)

27. Associate the historic buildings in Group-I with their predominant materials in Group-II.

Group-I

P. Lingaraj Temple, Bhubaneshwar, India

Q. Victoria Memorial, Kolkata, India

R. Padmanabhapuram Palace, Thuckalay, India

S. Humayun’s Tomb, Delhi, India

Group-II

1. Red sandstone

2. Timber

3. Terracotta tiles

4. Sandstone and laterite

5. Marble

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5

(B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-5

(D) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1

Ans: (D)

28. Match the terminologies in Group-I with their description in Group-II.

Group-I

P. Pruning

Q. Felling

R. Hoeing

S. Mulchin

Group-II

1. Cutting of trees

2. Removing broken branches from trees for better growth

3. Maintaining moisture content in soil by a protective layer

4. Indiscriminate cutting of branches to reduce the size of a tree

5. Loosening the ground to remove weeds

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-1

Ans: (A)

29. A proposed housing will have HIG, MIG and LIG units on a site measuring 60,750 sq.m. The buildable area of each category of units with respect to the total buildable area will be 30%, 50% and 20% respectively. The maximum allowable FAR is 2.5, ground coverage 45% and height 15 m. The maximum buildable area in sq.m of HIG units, considering a floor height of 3 m for all categories will be _____

Ans: (41000 to 41010)

30. In 2011, the population of a town was 5,00,000 and the number of housing units were 1,00,000. Calculate the additional number of dwelling units (DU) required by 2031 so that there is no housing shortage. The assumptions are

i. 5% decadal increase in population

ii. New DU to be complete by 2021 is 10,000

iii. Number of DU which become non habitable by 2031 is 5,000

iv. Average household size is 4.5

Ans: (17495 to 17505)

31. Match the classical urban planning theories in Group-I with their proponents in Group-II.

Group-I Group-II

P. Concentric Zone Model 1. Berry and Horton

Q. Sector Model 2. Horner Hoyt

R. Multiple Nuclei Model 3. Ernest Burgess

S. Factorial Ecology 4. Shevky and Bell

5. Harris and Ullman

32. Match the distinguished housing projects in Group with their architects in Group-II.

Group-I

P. Nagakin Capsule Tower, Tokyo, Japan

Q. Tara Apartment, New Delhi, India

R. Habitat 67, Montreal, Canada

S. Byker Wall, New Castle, England

Group-II

1. Walter Gropius

2. Moshe Safdie

3. Ralph Erskine

4. Charles Correa

5. Kisho Kurokawa

(A) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5

(D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Ans: (A)

33. Match the development scheme by Government of India in Group-I with their objectives in Group-II.

Group-I Group-II

P. PMAY 1. Housing for All

Q. AMRUT 2. Rural cluster development

R. NRuM 3. Heritage city development

S. HRIDAY 4. Urban mobility improvement

5. Urban rejuvenation

(A) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-3

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-5

Ans: (B)

34. Match the international events in Group-I with their directives in Group-II.

Group-I

P. Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro, 1992

Q. UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, New York, 1992

R. UN Sustainable Development Summit, New York, 2015

S. Habitat II, Istanbul, 1996

Group-II

1. Kyoto Protocol

2. Agenda 21

3. Heritage conservation

4. Agenda 2030

5. Housing for All

(A) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-3

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4

Ans: (C)

35. Match the planning techniques in Group-I with their salient features in Group-II.

Group-I

P. Land pooling

Q. Action Plan

R. Land sharing

S. Transfer of Development Rights

Group-II

1. Assigning specific task on a short time horizon

2. Assembling privately owned land parcels for development

3. Agreement for reallocation of land between occupiers and owners

4. Assigning specific task on a long time horizon

5. Incentive based voluntary shifting of FAR of a plot to another plot

(A) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-5

(D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-5

Ans: (B)

36.

For a symmetrical two dimensional truss as shown in the above figure, vertical force in kN acting on the member PQ is _______

Ans: (0)

37.

Value of bending moment in kN-m at point C for a beam as shown in the above figure is ______

Ans: (28)

38. Fee of contractor for a project has the following provisions

• Basic fee = 15% of actual cost of work incurred

• Bonus = 20% of savings from estimated cost of work

• Penalty = 20% of cost overrun

If the estimated cost of project is Rs. 60,000, and the actual cost is Rs. 70,000, then the total fee of contractor in Rupees is _____

Ans: (8500)

39. A site has a unidirectional slope of 30° with horizontal along its longer side. The projected dimensions of the site on the horizontal plane measures 30 m × 40 m. Using cut and fill method the site has to be leveled parallel to the horizontal plane. The minimum amount of earth to be excavated in cubic metre is _______

Ans: (3463 to 3465)

40. The optimistic, most-likely and pessimistic time for developing a new product are 12 months, 15 months and 17 months, respectively. Calculate the expected time in months.

Ans: (14.00 to 15.00)

41. A circular plate inclined at an angle θ with horizontal plane generates an ellipse as top view with major axis and minor axis of 5 cm and 2.5 cm respectively. The value of θ in degrees is ______

Ans: (60)

42. Calculate the volume of cement in cubic metre required for making 10 cubic metre of M20 grade Plain Cement Concrete work, assuming the ratio of dry concrete mix to wet concrete mix as 1.52.

Ans: (2.7 to 2.9)

43. One acre of agricultural land has been given on a lease till perpetuity at an annual rent of Rs. 10,000 to be paid at the end of each year. Net Present Value of the land parcel in Rupees assuming a discount rate of 5% per annum is ________

Ans: (200000)

44. In year 2001, a district with 4,000 manufacturing jobs had a 10% share of total manufacturing jobs within the state. In year 2011, the state recorded 15% drop in manufacturing jobs whereas, share of the district in total manufacturing jobs within the state increased to 15%. Additional manufacturing jobs created in the district between year 2001 and 2011 is ______

Ans: (1100)

45. Match the parameters in Group I with their units in Group II

Group I Group II

(P) Traffic flow 1. Metre

(Q) Traffic density 2. Cycles/second

(R) Right of Way 3. Seconds

(S) Traffic signal cycle length 4. Vehicle/km

5. PCU/hr

(A) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3

Ans: (B)

46. Match the planning tasks in Group I with the tools of analysis in Group II

Group I

(P) Population projections

(Q) Regional resource allocation

(R) Trip distribution

(S) Design of water distribution network

Group-II

1. Input-Output Analysis

2. Hardy Cross Method

3. Cohort Analysis

4. Gravity Model

5. Moving observer method

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

(D) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-2

Ans: (A)

47. Match the land use classes in Group I with the use zones in Group II

Group-I

(P) Transportation

(Q) Commercial

(R) Public and Semi-public

(S) Recreational

Group II

1. Sports complex

2. Heritage and conservation areas

3. Burial ground

4. BRT corridor

5. Service sector

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-5

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-5, R-3, S-1

Ans: (D)

48. Associate the structural systems in Group I with the building in Group II.

Group-I

(P) Folded plates

(Q) Shell

(R) Tensegrity

(S) Pneumatic

Group-II

1. Kurilpa Bridge, Brisbane

2. Eden Project, Cornwall

3. Riverside Museum, Glasgow

4. MIT Auditorium, Boston

5. 30, St. Mary Axe, London

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-1

(D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Ans: (A)

49. As per National Building Code of India, 2005, the maximum number of occupants per unit exit width of a doorway is 60, where unit exit width is 500 mm. The maximum permissible occupants in a theatre having four number of 2.2 m wide doors will be _____

Ans: (960)

50. Match the instruments in Group I with the corresponding tests in Group II.

Group I

(P) Pycnometer

(Q) Brinell’s Apparatus

(R) Los Angeles Apparatus

(S) Vicat’s Apparatus

Group II

1. Initial and final setting time

2. Abrasion test

3. Surface hardness test

4. Slump test

5. Apparent Specific gravity

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Ans: (A)

51. Water flows through a constricted circular pipe whose diameter at the constricted end is half of the non-constricted end. Velocity of water at the non-constricted end is 2 m/s. Velocity of water in m/s at the constricted end using the principle continuity of flow is ______

Ans: (8)

52. A drainage basin of 180 hectares comprises 40% wooded area, 45% grassed area and 15% paved area. Runoff coefficients for wooded, grassed and paved areas are 0.01, 0.02 and 0.95 respectively. The composite runoff coefficient for the drainage basin is ______

Ans: (0.2 to 0.25)

53. A fluorescent light source consumes 40 W electric power and has a luminous efficacy of 40 lm/W. Illumination in lux at a distance of 3 m from this light source is _______

Ans: (175 to 180)

54. A room measures 3 m (width) × 4 m(length) × 3 m(height). The outdoor temperature is 36℃. The volumetric specific heat of air is 1300 J/cu.m.℃. The ventilation heat flow rate in Watts required to attain an internal room temperature of 26℃ with 3 air changes per hour is _______

Ans: (390)

55. Match the equipment in Group-I with their applications in Group-II.

Group-I Group-II

P. PIR 1. Air conditioning

Q. FCU 2. Lighting

R. OLED 3. Power generation

S. BIPV 4. Motion detection

5. Daylight sensing

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1

(B) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-1

Ans: (C)

56. He was one of my best __________ and I felt his loss _________.

(A) friend, keenly

(B) friends, keen

(D) friends, keenly

Ans: (D)

57. As the two speakers became increasingly agitated, the debate became __________.

(A) lukewarm

(B) poetic

(D) heated

Ans: (D)

58. A right – angled cone (with base radius 5cm and height 12cm), as shown in the figure below, is rolled on the ground keeping the point P fixed until the point Q (at the base of the cone, as shown) touches the ground again.

By what angle (in radians) about P does the cone travel?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (D)

59. In a company with 100 employees, 45 earn Rs. 20,000 per month, 25 earn Rs. 30,000, 20 earn Rs. 40,000 8 earn Rs. 60,000, and 2 earn Rs. 150,000. The median of the salaries is

(A) Rs. 20,000

(B) Rs. 30,000

(D) Rs. 40,000

Ans: (B)

60. P,Q, and R talk about S’s car collection. P states that S has at least 3 cars. Q believes that S has less than 3 cars. R indicates that to his knowledge, S has at least one Car. Only one of P, Q and R is right the number cars owned by S is.

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) Cannot be determined

Ans: (A)

61. “Here, throughout the early 1820s, Stuart continued to fight his losing battle to allow his sepoys to wear their caste-marks and their own choice of facial hair on parade, being again reprimanded by the commander-in-chief. His retort that ‘A stronger instance than this of European prejudice with relation to this country has never come under my observations’ had no effect on his superiors.”

According to this paragraph, which of the statements below is most accurate?

(A) Stuart’s commander – in chief was moved by this demonstration of his prejudice.

(B) The Europeans were accommodating of the sepoys’ desire to weak their caste – marks.

(D) The commander– in – Chief was exempt from the European preiudice that dictated how the sepoys were to dress.

Ans: (C)

62. What is the sum of the missing digits in the subtraction problem below?

(A) 8

(B) 10

(D) Cannot be determined

Ans: (D)

63. Let S₁ be the plane figure consisting of the points (x,y) given by the inequalities |x – 1| ≤ 2 and |y + 2| ≤ Let S₂ be the plane figure given by the inequalities x – y ≥ −2, y ≥ 1, and x ≤ 3 Let S be the union of S₁ and S₂. The area of S is

(A) 26

(B) 28

(D) 34

Ans: (C)

64. Two very famous sportsmen Mark and Steve happened to be brothers, and played for country K. Mark teased James, an opponent from country E, “There is no way you are good enough to play for your country.’’ James replied, “Maybe not, but at least I am the best player in my own family.”

Which one of the following can be inferred from this conversation?

(A) Mark was known to play better than James

(B) Steve was known to play better than Mark

(D) James played better than Steve

Ans: (B)

65. The growth of bacteria (lactobacillus) in milk leads to curd formation. A minimum bacterial population density of 0.8(in suitable units) is needed to form curd. In the graph below, the population density of lactobacillus in 1 litre of milk is plotted as a function of time, at two different temperatures, 25°C and 37°C.

Consider the following statements based on the data shown above:

(i) The growth in bacterial population stops earlier at 37°C as compared to 25°C

(ii) The time taken for curd formation at 25°C is twice the time taken at 37°C

Which one of the following options is correct?

(A) Only i

(B) only ii

(D) Neither i nor ii

Ans: (A)

Gate 2017 Agriculture Engineering Question Paper 4th Feb 2017 PDF Download

July 21, 2017 by M Prakash

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Agricultural Engineering 4th Feb 2017

Subject Name: Agricultural Engineering

Duration : 180

Total Marks: 100

1. Matrix is a

(A) Diagonal matrix

(B) Orthogonal matrix

(D) Skew-symmetric matrix

Ans: (D)

2. Direction cosines of the vector 3i – 2j + 6k are

(A) [3/7, −2/7, 6/7]

(B) [−3/7, 2/7, −6/7]

(D) [7/3, −7/2, 7/6]

Ans: (A)

3. Characteristic equation of the matrix with Eigen value λ is

(A) λ² + 3λ + 4 = 0

(B) λ² + 3λ – 2 = 0

(D) λ² + 3λ = 0

Ans: (C)

4. A box contains three white and four red balls. Two balls are drawn randomly in sequence. If the first draw resulted in a red ball, the probability of getting a second red ball in the next draw is

(A) 0.33

(B) 0.50

(D) 0.75

Ans: (B)

5. The probability of getting two heads and two tails from four tosses of the same coin is _____.

Ans: (0.37 to 0.38)

6. The purchase price of a tractor is R.s 5.0 lakh. Considering the constant rate of depreciation as 0.2 in declining balance method, the value of the tractor at the end of 4^th year in lakh will be ______.

Ans: (2.03 to 2.06)

7. The pump used in high pressure orchard sprayer is

(A) Centrifugal pump

(B) Rotary pump

(D) Turbine pump

Ans: (C)

8. The Reel Speed Index of a grain combine is more than 1.5, it will increase

(A) Cutter bar loss

(B) Shatter loss

(D) Straw walker loss

Ans: (B)

9. A diesel fuel has same ignition delay as that of blend of two reference fuels namely 56% n-cetane and 44% hepta-methylanonane. The cetane number of the diesel fuel is ______.

Ans: (62.6 to 62.6)

10. Air temperature at the beginning of adiabatic compression in an IC engine is 27℃ and the engine compression ratio is 16 : 1. The temperature of air at the end of the compression in ℃ will be ______.

Ans: (635 to 637)

11. In fuel property determination, Reid vapour pressure test is used for measuring

(A) Volatility

(B) Viscosity

(D) Carbon residue

Ans: (A)

12. A tractor pulls 8 kN drawbar load against 4 kN rolling resistance. If the tractor develops 57% tractive efficiency, the slip experienced by the tractor in percentage will be _______.

Ans: (14 to 15)

13. Antecedent Moisture Condition (AMC) for a soil are defined on the basis of total rainfall occurred during previous ______ days.

Ans: (5 to 5)

14. The seepage analysis in earthen dams is carried out by drawing flownet which consists of equipotential and stream lines. For a homogeneous and isotropic earthen dam, these two lines are always

(A) orthogonal to each other

(B) parallel to each other

(D) convergent to each other

Ans: (A)

15. Remedial measure generally adopted for controlling stream-bank erosion is

(A) Shelter belts

(B) Spurs

(D) Drop spillways

Ans: (B)

16. Thickness of capillary zone above the water table varies

(A) linearly with the pore-size of soil

(B) inversely with the height of water table

(D) inversely with the pore-size of soil

Ans: (D)

17. A cavity well is a tubewell which has

(A) gravel pack and a strainer

(B) a PVC strainer

(D) a bamboo strainer

Ans: (C)

18. Modified Hooghoudt’s equation for the computation of drain spacing is applicable to

(A) homogeneous soils

(B) anisotropic soils

(D) layered soils

Ans: (D)

19. The sum of ‘specific yield’ and ‘specific retention’ for an unconsolidated geologic formation is equal to its

(A) effective porosity

(B) total porosity

(D) macro-porosity

Ans: (B)

20. Sphericity of a cube with each side as L is _______.

Ans: (0.707 to 0.807)

21. A cylindrical shallow bin is filled with grains having angle of repose of 33°. The limiting height of diameter ratio of the bin is ________.

Ans: (0.64 to 0.65)

22. Length of the husking zone in a rubber roll paddy dehusker, having d as roller diameter, c as clearance between the rolls, and b as grain thickness, is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (B)

23. For a psychrometric ratio of 1003 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹, the latent heat of vaporization at the wet bulb temperature of 35℃ is 2418.9 kJ kg⁻¹. The saturation vapour pressure is 19.7 kPa corresponding to the dry bulb temperature of 60℃. If the relative humidity of air is 20%, the saturation vapor pressure of the air at the wet bulb temperature in kPa will be ________.

Ans: (5.4 to 5.6)

24. A sphere (3.5 cm diameter) made of copper (ρ = 8954 kg m⁻³; C_p = 0.4 kJ kg⁻¹ K⁻¹; k = 375 W m⁻¹ K⁻¹) is initially at uniform temperature of 200℃. It is suddenly placed in an environment of 35℃ having convective film coefficient of 12 W m⁻² K⁻¹. After 18 minutes of exposure, the temperature of the sphere in ℃ will be______.

Ans: (123 to 124)

25. The reaction rate for destruction of Clostridium botulimum increases 11 times for temperature rise of 10℃ from 121.1℃. The decimal reductioni time of this organism is 5.7 s at 121.1℃. The minimum sterilization time in seconds at 135℃, for eight log cycle reduction of the organism, is

(A) 0.20

(B) 0.31

(D) 2.49

Ans: (C)

26. The areas of seven horizontal cross-sections of a water reservoir at intervals of 9 m are 210, 250, 320, 350, 290, 230 and 170 m². The estimated volume of the reservoir in m³ using Simpson’s rule is ______.

Ans: (14760 to 14760)

27. Divergence value of a function (x²y)i – (z³ – 3x)j + (4y²) k at x = 1, y = 2 and z = 3 is _______.

Ans: (4 to 4)

28. Differentiation of gives

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (D)

29.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (D)

30. A subsoiler operating at 400 mm depth requires 15 kW peak drawbar power at 3 km h⁻¹ The standard is rigidly fixed vertically on the main frame. The resultant soil resistance acts horizontally at a vertical distance of 450 mm from the main frame. The standard has rectangular cross-section with width of thickness ratio of 4:1, and it fails due to bending. If the allowable bending stress is 90 N mm⁻², the width of the standard in mm will be ______.

Ans: (128 to 130)

31. A 9-row fluted roller type speed drill with 400 mm ground wheel diameter is used for sowing wheat at 200 mm row spacing. Each fluted roller discharges 6500 mm³ volume of seeds per revolution. The ratio of ground wheel rpm to fluted roller shaft rpm is 2:1. If the bulk density of wheat is 850 kg m⁻³, the seed rate in kg ha⁻¹ will be ______.

Ans: (108.5 to 110.5)

32. The diameter of feed rollers of a conveyor type power chaff cutter is 100 mm and they are rotating at 90 rpm for cutting the dry fodder. The effective length of each feed roller is 250 mm and the average clearance between them is 15 mm. The compressed density of the material while passing through the feed roller s is 250 kg m⁻³. The throughout capacity of the chaff cutter in ton h⁻¹ is ______.

Ans: (1.55 to 1.65)

33. The horizontal component of resultant soil thrust (T) acting on each gang of a single acting disc harrow is 1650 N. The resultant downward load (W) acting on each gang is 2500 N. The perpendicular distance of T from the gang axis is 200 mm. In order to get a uniform depth of cut, the distance between the line of action of W and the centre of gang in mm will be _______.

Ans: (131 to 133)

34. A cylindrical parabolic solar collector is designed to heat a fluid that enters the absorber at 140℃ at a flow rate of 5 kg min⁻¹. The specific heat capacity of the fluid is 1.5 kJ kg⁻¹℃⁻¹ and its outlet temperature is 180℃. If the incident beam radiation on the plane of aperture is 3000 kJ h⁻¹ m⁻² and useful projected area of the reflector is 2 m × 10 m, the efficiency of the collector in percentage will be ______.

Ans: (30 to 30)

35. A load of 3 kN is acting on a tyre having 150 mm nominal width. The effective friction coefficient of tyre and ground interaction is 0.6 and the kingpin offset is 10 mm. Assuming the tyre impression on ground as circle of diameter same as the tyre nominal width, the kingpin torque of the tyre in N m will be ______.

Ans: (96 to 98)

36. In a tractor power transmission, the input pinion (24 teeth) is in mesh with a gear (46 teeth) on counter shaft and another gear (20 teeth) of counter shaft is in mesh with main shaft gear (50 teeth). The engine is running at 1800 rpm, differential gear ratio is 3.5:1 and final drive ratio is 4 : 1. If the tractor is fitted with 1.2 m diameter rear wheels, the forward speed of the tractor in kmh⁻¹ is _______.

Ans: (5.5 to 6.5)

37. A hydraulic system comprising of a pump and a single acting cylinder lifts 11 kN road. The pump flow rate is 25 L min⁻¹ and its overall efficiency is 80%. The cylinder diameter is 80 mm and its efficiency is 90%. If the pressure drop in the hydraulic circuit is 500 kPa, the power required to drive the pump in kW will be ________.

Ans: (1.4 to 1.7)

38. A tractor of 19.5 kN weight and 1.8 m wheel base has 70% static weight on the rear axle. It pulls 8 kN drawbar load parallel to the ground through a hitch point located 450 mm above the ground. The dynamic weight on the rear axle of the tractor under operating condition in kN will be ________.

Ans: (15 to 17)

39. A six-stage centrifugal pump delivers 120 L s⁻¹ against a total head of 510 m. If the design speed of this pump is 1450 rpm, the specific speed of the pump will be _______.

Ans: (565 to 570)

40. A watershed of 100 km² is underlain by an unconfined aquifer having hydraulic conductivity of 15 m day⁻¹ and specific yield of 0.20. If 30 million m³ of water is pumped from this aquifer through uniformly distributed wells, the average drop of water table over the watershed in meter will be

(A) 1.50

(B) 0.75

(D) 6.00

Ans: (A)

41. Match the following items between Column-I and Column-II with the most appropriate combinations.

Column-I Column-II

(1) Neutron Probe (P) Open channel flow

(2) Pressure Plate Apparatus (Q) Deep percolation

(3) Tipping Bucket (R) Aquifer parameters

(4) Current Meter (S) Soil moisture

(5) Pumping Test (T) Rainfall intensity

(6) Lysimeter (U) Soil-moisture characteristic curve

(A) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-T, 4-S, 5-R, 6-U

(B) 1-S, 2-U, 3-T, 4-P, 5-R, 6-Q

(D) 1-P, 2-U, 3-S,, 4-T, 5-R, 6-Q

Ans: (B)

42. Graded furrows of 80 m length and 0.75 spacing are used for irrigating a field with an initial furrow stream of 100 L min⁻¹. The initial furrow stream flow reaches the lower end of the field in 40 min. Thereafter, the furrow stream flow is reduced to 30 L min⁻¹ and the cutback stream flow is continued for 1 hour. The average depth of irrigation over the field in cm will be _______.

Ans: (9.65 to 9.75)

43. The soil of a cropped field has field capacity of 25% and wilting point of 13% on weight basis. The effective root-zone depth of the crop is 0.70 m and the consumptive use of water by the crop is 5 mm day⁻¹. Apparent specific gravity of the soil is 1.50. If the allowable soil moisture depletion is 40%, the permissible moisture depletion between irrigations and the frequency of irrigation are

(A) 5 cm; 10 days

(B) 10 cm; 7 days

(D) 4 cm; 8 days

Ans: (A)

44. A watershed of 4.8 km² generates 4.3 cm runoff from a rain storm of 4-hour duration. The measured rainfall intensities for this storm in successive 30-minute durations are given below:

The value of Φ-index for the watershed in cm h⁻¹ will be

(A) 6.5

(B) 5.3

(D) 2.1

Ans: (C)

45. Bunds are to be constructed to conserve rainwater in a farm having 6% slope. If the horizontal interval between two bunds is 30 m and there is no loss of water, the required height of the bund to store rainwater from an 18 cm rainfall event with 10 years of return period in cm will be _______.

Ans: (80 to 81)

46. A rectangular channel having bed slope of 0.05% and Manning’s roughness coefficient of 0.01 carries a discharge of 5 m³ s⁻¹. If the channel is designed as the most economical section, the width of the channel in meter will be _______.

Ans: (2.45 to 2.50)

47. A trapezoidal notch, placed over an emergency spillway, has the following details:

Top width = 2 m

Bottom width = 1 m

Height = 0.5 m

Coefficient of discharge for the triangular portion = 0.65

Coefficient of discharge for the rectangular portion = 0.68

For a flow head of 0.4 m over the notch, the discharge in Ls⁻¹ will be about

(A) 155

(B) 353

(D) 663

Ans: (D)

48. In a vertical tube single effect evaporator, the boiling film coefficient inside the tubes is 1350 W m⁻² K⁻¹. Steam condensation film coefficient outside is 7500 W m⁻² K⁻¹. Thermal conductivity of 20 tubes make of SS 304 is 16 W m⁻¹ K⁻¹. The vertical tubes are 4.3 m long and are of 25 mm ID and 27 mm OD, maintaining a steady 15℃ temperature difference across the tube walls. Assume no boiling point rise, no heat losses, the feed enters the evaporator at the boiling point and the latent heat of vaporization of water is 2346.3 kJ kg⁻¹. Total water evaporation rate from the evaporator bundle of tubes in kg h⁻¹ will be _______.

Ans: (168 to 169)

49. Hot water at 95℃ is sent through a countercurrent tube-in-tube heat exchange with cold water entering at 25℃. Hot/cold water specific heat capacity is 4.2 kJ kg⁻¹ K⁻¹. Flow rates of hot and cold water are 2.7 and 4.1 kg min⁻¹,, respectively. Overall heat transfer coefficient is 55 W m⁻² K⁻¹ and the area of heat transfer is 5 m². Cold water outlet temperature from the heat exchanger in ℃ will be ________.

Ans: (55 to 56)

50. In a cold storage, 10 metric ton of potato is to be brought down from 30 to 80℃ storage temperature in 6 hours of air blast at the evaporator temperature of −10℃. Specific heat capacity of potato is 3.2 kJ kg⁻¹ K⁻¹. COP of the refrigeration cycle deployed is 4.2 with evaporator load extraction capacity of 210 kJ kg⁻¹. Neglecting the respiration load of potato, the refrigerant flow rate and compressor power requirement will be

(A) 3.9 kg min⁻¹; 7.76 kW

(B) 9.3 kg min⁻¹l; 8.50 kW

(D) 3.9 kg min⁻¹; 8.50 kW

Ans: (C)

51. Steam (h_f = 632.2, h_fg = 2113.2, h_g = 2745.4 kJ kg⁻¹) at 150℃ is used to sterilize milk by direct stream injection. Milk is initially at 90℃ and after sterilization, the blend of resultant milk and condensed steam (h_f = 567.6, h_fg = 2159.1, h_g = 2726.7 kJ kg⁻¹) are at 135℃. Specific heat capacity of milk is 3.8 kJ kg⁻¹ K⁻¹. Assuming no energy loss, the amount of milk (in kg) sterilized per kg steam supplied is

(A) 21.57

(B) 12.74

(D) 4.48

Ans: (B)

52. A batch of 1000 kg of apples containing 6.2% bruised apples is sorted by an electronic colour sorter. The sorted apples contain 927.3 kg red apples and 17.4 kg bruised apples. Remaining red and bruised apples are delivered at the rejection outlet of the sorter. Overall effectiveness of the sorter is _______.

Ans: (0.70 to 0.72)

53. Spherical dust particles of 50 μm are settling under gravity in air at 21℃ and normal atmospheric pressure. Density of particles is 1250 kg m⁻³ and density of air is 1.2 kg m⁻³. Considering viscosity of air as 1.81 × 10⁻⁵ Pa s, the settling velocity of dust in mm s⁻¹ will be _______.

Ans: (94 to 94)

54. India’s annual paddy production is 160 million ton (clean paddy basis). Average husk content of paddy is 22.4% and milled rice yield is 70%. Considering 18% oil content in bran fraction and calorific value of 12 MJ kg⁻¹ of husk, the oil potential of bran and energy potential of husk will respectively be

(A) 2.19 × 10⁶ ton; 430080 × 10¹² J

(B) 2.19 × 10⁶ ton; 210450 × 10¹² J

(D) 4.76 × 10⁶ ton; 430080 × 10¹² J

Ans: (A)

55. A cylindrical silo, 3 m in diameter and 20 m high, is filled with barley having bulk density of 625 kg m⁻³. Coefficient of friction between grain and the bin wall is 0.45 and the ratio of lateral pressure to vertical pressure is 0.4. The lateral pressure at the base of the bin in kPa will be __________.

Ans: (10.1 to 10.2)

56. The ways in which this game can be played ______ potentially infinite.

(A) is

(B) is being

(D) are being

Ans: (C)

57. If you choose plan P, you will have to _____ plan Q, as these two are mutually______.

(A) forgo, exclusive

(B) forget, inclusive

(D) adopt, intrusive

Ans: (A)

58. If a and b are integers and a – b is even, which of the following must always be even?

(A) ab

(B) a² + b² + 1

(D) ab – b

Ans: (D)

59. A couple has 2 children. The probability that both children are boys if the older one is a boy is

(A) 1/4

(B) 1/3

(D) 1

Ans: (C)

60. P looks at Q while Q looks at R. P is married, R is not. The number of pairs of people in which a married person is looking at an unmarried person is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) Cannot be determined

Ans: (B)

61. “If you are looking for a history of India, or for an account of the rise and fall of the British Raj, or for the reason of the cleaving of the subcontinent into two mutually antagonistic parts and the effects this mutilation will have in the respective sections, and ultimately on Asia, you will not find it in these pages; for though I have spent a lifetime in the country, I lives too near the seat of events, and was too intimately associated with the actors, to get the perspective needed for the impartial recording of these matters.”

Which of the following is closest in meaning to ‘cleaving’?

(A) deteriorating

(B) arguing

(D) splitting

Ans: (D)

62. X bullocks and Y tractors take 8 days to plough a field. If we halve the number bullocks and double the number of tractors, it takes 5 days to plough the same field. How many days will it take X bullocks alone to plough the field?

(A) 30

(B) 35

(D) 45

Ans: (A)

63. There are 4 women P, Q, R, S and 5 men V, W, X, Y, Z in a group. We are required to form pairs each consisting of one woman and one man. P is not to be paired with Z, and Y must necessarily be paired with someone. In how many ways can 4 such pairs be formed?

(A) 74

(B) 76

(D) 80

Ans: (C)

64. All people in a certain island are either ‘Knights’ or ‘Knaves’ and each person knows every other person’s identify. Knights NEVER lie, and knaves ALWAYS lie.

P says “Both of us are knights”. Q says “None of us are knaves”.

Which one of the following can be logically inferred from the above?

(A) Both P and Q are knights

(B) P is a knight; Q is a knave

(D) The identities of P, Q cannot be determined

Ans: (D)

65. In the graph below, the concentration of a particular pollutant in a lake is plotted over (alternate) days of a month in winter (average temperature 10℃) and a month is summer (average temperature 30℃)

Consider the following statements based on the data shown above :

i. Over the given months, the difference between the maximum and the minimum pollutants concentrations is the same in both winter and summer.

ii. There are at least four days in the summer month such that the pollutant concentrations on those days are within 1 ppm of the pollutant concentrations on the corresponding days in the winter month.

Which one of the following options is correct?

(A) Only i

(B) Only ii

(D) Neither i nor ii

Ans: (B)

Gate 2017 Aerospace Engineering Question Paper 5th Feb 2017 PDF Download

July 21, 2017 by M Prakash

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Aerospace Engineering 5th Feb 2017

Subject Name: Aerospace Engineering

Duration : 180

Total Marks: 100

1. Given the vectors the vector that is perpendicular to both and is given by :

(A) (B)

Ans: (D)

2. The value of the integral I = ∫_C((x – y) dx + x²dy), with C the boundary of the square 0 ≤ x ≤ 2; 0 ≤ y ≤ 2, is _________

Ans: (11.9 to 12.1)

3. Let be a unit vector that is function of the parameter t. Then

Ans: (0 to 0)

4. The eigenvalues λ_n and eigenfunctions u_n(x) of the Sturm-Liouville problem 0 < x < 1; y(0) = 0, y(1) = 0 are given by :

(A) λ_n = n²π²; u_n(x) = sin λ_n x, n = 0, ±1, ±2, …, ∞

(B) λ_n = n²π²/k²; u_n(x) = sin knπx, n = 0, ±1, ±2, …, ∞

(D) λ_n = n²π²; u_n(x) = sin nπx, n = 0, ±1, ±2, …, ∞

Ans: (C)

5. 3-point Gaussian integration formula is given by: with x₁ = 0, This formula exactly integrates

(A) f(x) = 5 – x⁷

(B) f(x) = 2 + 3x + 6x⁴

(D)

Ans: (B)

6. Which one of the following statements is NOT true

(A) The pitching moment of any airfoil at any angle of attack is always zero at the center of pressure

(B) The pitching moment of any airfoil at any angle of attack is always zero at the aerodynamic center

(D) The pitching moment about the aerodynamic center, for any airfoil, does not vary with angle of attack

Ans: (B)

7. Which one of the following statements is NOT true

(A) Compared to a laminar boundary layer, a turbulent boundary layer is more desirable on a wing operating at large angle of attack

(B) The skin friction drag for a turbulent boundary layer is larger than that for a laminar boundary layer

(D) A separated flow does not necessarily lead to a turbulent boundary layer

Ans: (C)

8. A DE Laval nozzle is to be designed for an exit Mach number of 1.5. The reservoir conditions are given as P_o = 1 atm (gage) T_o = 20℃, γ = 1.4. Assuming shock free flow in the nozzle, the exit absolute pressure (in atm) is ________ (in three decimal places)

Ans: (0.540 to 0.560)

9. Consider a steady one dimensional flow of a perfect gas with heat transfer in a duct. The T-s diagram (shown below) shows both the static and the stagnation conditions at two locations. A and B, in the duct, A_t and B_t denote stagnation conditions for states A and B, respectively. It is known that (∆T)_A = (∆T)_B. M_A and M_B are the Mach numbers of the flow at locations A and B.

Which of the following statements is true about the flow.

(A) Flow is subsonic and M_A < M_B.

(B) Flow is supersonic and M_A < M_B

(D) Flow is supersonic and M_A < M_B

Ans: (B)

10. To ensure only the longitudinal static stability (and not the condition for equilibrium) of a low speed aircraft,, the aircraft components must be designed to satisfy which one of the following conditions:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (B)

11. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the shear centre of a cross-section:

P : It is that point in the cross-section through which shear loads produce no twisting.

Q: This point is also the centre of twist of sections subjected to pure torsion.

R: The normal stress at this point is always zero.

(A) P, Q and R

(B) P only

(D) P and R only

Ans: (C)

12. Let be respectively the non-dimensional locations of the stick-fixed maneuver point and stick-fixed neutral point of a low speed conventional aircraft. These distances are measured with respect to the nose of the fuselage. The numerical value of

(A) will always be negative

(B) will always be positive

(D) can have any value depending on the location of the center of gravity of the aircraft

Ans: (B)

13. The phenomenon of rudder lock in conventional low speed aircraft is primarily due to

(A) large value of directional derivative, C_n_β

(B) the sidewash due to fuselage on the vertical stabilizer

(D) the sidewash due to wing on the vertical stabilizer

Ans: (C)

14. The period of revolution of earth about the sun is 365.256 days, approximately. The semi-major axis of the earth’s orbit is close to 1.4953 × 10¹¹ m. The semi-major axis of the orbit of Mars is 2.2783 × 10¹¹ m. The period of revolution of Mars, about the sun, is _______ Earth days (in three decimal place)

Ans: (686.5 to 687.5)

15. Consider a system consisting of certain amount of perfect gas enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston. This system can undergo following processes

(i) Expansion with finite pressure difference with the surrounding.

(ii) Compression with infinitesimal pressure difference with the surrounding.

(iii) Heat transfer with finite temperature difference with the reservoir.

(iv) Heat transfer with infinitesimal temperature difference with the reservoir.

Out of these which processes are reversible?

(A) (i) and (iii)

(B) (i) and (iv)

(D) (ii) and (iv)

Ans: (D)

16. Among the following engines, which one is expected to have the maximum Specific Impulse?

(A) Cryogenic Rocket

(B) Solid Propellant Rocket

(D) SCRAM Jet

Ans: (D)

17. The maximum gas flow rate that can be handled by a multistage axial compressor at a given rotational speed is dictated by

(A) Compressor Surge

(B) Rotating Stall

(D) Optimum Design Pressure Ratio

Ans: (C)

18. For a turbine stage, which one of the following losses occurs due to the turning of the wall boundary layer through an angle due to curved surface?

(A) Profile loss

(B) Annulus loss

(D) Secondary flow loss

Ans: (D)

19. In the vane-less space between the impeller and the diffuser vanes in a Centrifugal Compressor, the angular momentum varies in the following manner in the radial direction

(A) Increases

(B) Remains constant

(D) First increases and then decreases

Ans: (B)

20. Which of the following statements about the neutral axis of a beam with unsymmetrical cross section is true:

(A) The product of second moment of area about the neutral axis is always zero.

(B) The normal stress along the neutral axis is always zero.

(D) The product of second moment of area about the neutral axis and the normal stress about the neutral axis are always zero.

Ans: (B)

21. Assuming that the aircraft is flying straight, the top spar cap/flange of a wing is most likely to fail in :

22. A 2-DOF undamped spring-mass system with two masses and two springs has natural frequencies ω₁ = 0.79 rad/s and ω₂ = 1.538 rad/s. The mode shapes for the system are given by ϕ₁ = [0.7321]^T and ϕ₂ = [−2.73]^T. If the first mass is displaced by 1 cm, the minimum displacement in cms to be given to the second mass to make the system vibrate in first mode alone is =_____ (in three decimal place).

Ans: (1.360 to 1.370)

23. An aircraft landing gear can be idealized as a single degree of freedom spring-mass-damper system. The desirable damping characteristics of such a system is :

(A) Under damped

(B) Over damped

(D) Undamped

Ans: (C)

24. A single degree of freedom spring-mass system of natural frequency 5 Hz is modified in the following manners :

Case 1 : Viscous damping with damping ratio ς = 0.2 is introduced in parallel to the spring.

Case 2 : The original undamped spring-mass system is moved to a surface with coefficient of friction, μ = 0.01.

The ratio of the damped natural frequency for the cases 1 and 2 is given by ______ (in three decimal places).

Ans: (0.970 to 0.990)

25. Which of the following statements about the compatibility equations are true:

P. Strain compatibility equations must be satisfied in the solution of three-dimensional problems in elasticity.

Q. Six strains are defined in terms on three displacement functions and can have arbitrary values.

R. Compatibility equations are an expression of the continuity of displacements.

(A) P and Q

(B) Q and R

(D) P, Q and R

Ans: (C)

26. Matrix and Vector are given. If vector {x} is the solution to the system of equations [A] {x} = {b}, which of the following is true for {x} :

(A) Solution does not exist

(B) Infinite solutions exist

(D) Five possible solutions exist

Ans: (B)

27. Let matrix Then for any non-trivial vector which of the following is true for the value of K = {x}^T[A] {x}:

(A) K is always less than zero

(B) K is always greater than zero

(D) K can be anything

Ans: (D)

28. Consider the initial value problem:

If are the Laplace transforms of y(t) and f(t) respectively, then Y(s) is given b y :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (B)

29. Let u(x, t) denote the displacement of a point on a rod. The displacement satisfies the following equation of motion :

0 < x < 1

with u(x, 0) = 0.01 sin (10 πx), u(0, t) = 0, u(1, t) = 0. The value of u(0.25, 1) is ______ (in three decimal places).

Ans: (0.008 to 0.012)

30. The equation has a solution y(x) that is :

(A) A polynomial in x

(B) Finite series in terms of non-integer fractional powers of x

(D) Consists of exponential functions of x.

Ans: (C)

31. Consider a straight wing with rectangular planform a aspect ratio 10 and with a NACA 0012 airfoil. The span effectiveness factor for this wing is 0.95. Assume the flow to be incompressible and governed by thin airfoil theory. The lift coefficient of this wing, at an angle of attack of 6 deg, is _____ (in three decimal places)

Ans: (0.540 to 0.550)

32. Consider an incompressible flow over a flat plate with the following approximation to the velocity profile :

where δ is the boundary layer thickness and U the free-stream speed. The normalized momentum thickness (θ/δ) for this profile is ______ (in three decimal places).

Ans: (0.165 to 0.168)

33. An idealized velocity field is given by At point (−1, 1, 0) and at t = 1, the magnitude of the material acceleration vector of the fluid element is _______

Ans: (20 to 20)

34. A trace from the schlieren photograph of the flow around a corner reveals the edges of the expansion fan as shown below. The leading and trailing edges of the expansion fan make the angles as shown. Assuming γ = 1.4, the angle of the expansion fan (in degrees) is _______(in two decimal places)

Pandtl Meyer function is given by

Ans: (48.00 to 49.00)

35. A strong normal shock wave, with a pressure ratio of 29 across it, is travelling into stationary air (γ = 1.4) at T = 280 K in a straight duct (see figure). The magnitude of the velocity of the air induced behind the shock wave is ________m/s. (round to nearest integer)

(Gas constant = 287 J/kg.K; Shock wave relations:

Ans: (1341 to 1343)

36. In the figure below, water exits from a nozzle into atmospheric pressure of 101 kPa. If the exit velocity is V₂ = 8 m/s and friction is neglected, the magnitude of the axial force on the flange at location 1 required to keep the nozzle attached to the pipe is _______ N (round to nearest integer).

Ans: (90 to 92)

37. A football, meant to be thrown at 100 km/h in sea level air (ρ = 1.22 kg/m³, μ = 1.78 × 10⁻⁵ N-s/m²), is to be tested using a one-quarter scale model in a water tunnel (ρ = 1000 kg/m³, μ = 10⁻³ N-s/m²). For dynamic similarity, the ratio of the model force to the prototype force is _______(round to nearest integer).

Ans: (4 to 4)

38. An aircraft model was tested in a low speed wind-tunnel (Reynolds number = 2 × 10⁶ based on wing mean chord). The variation of pitching moment of coefficient (C_m) with angle of attack (α) for two elevator deflections (δ_e) as recorded during this test is presented below.

Based on the result presented in the figure above, the value of elevator control power (C_m3e) in per radian will be ________ (in three decimal place).

Ans: (-0.060 to -0.050)

39. A pilot was flying a single engine propeller aircraft and maintaining a steady level flight at a lift coefficient, C_L = 0.5 at an altitude of 500 m. Due to some emergency, at the same altitude (500 m), the pilot had to fully deploy the landing gear. If the pilot wants to maintain steady level flight at the same C_L = 0.5 and at the same altitude, which of the following control actions should the pilot undertake:

(A) move the elevator up, the decrease the throttle

(B) move the elevator up, and increase the throttle

(D) move the elevator down, and increase the throttle

Ans: (B)

40. A conventional low speed aircraft had the following aerodynamic characteristics :

C_D0 = 0.020, e = 1.0 (Oswald efficiency).

The aircraft was flown to maintain steady level flight and for minimum thrust required, at a lift coefficient of C_L = 0.8. The numerical value of the aspect ratio of the wing is ______ (in three decimal places).

Ans: (10.000 to 10.500)

41. A batch of aluminium alloy yields in uniaxial tension at the s tress of 330 MN/m². If this material is subjected to the following state of stress: σ_x = 140 MN/m², σ_y = −70 MN/m², σ_z = 0, τ_xx = χ MN/m², τ_yz = 0 and τ_zx = 0. The value of χ that would result in yielding according to the Von Mises failure criterion is _________ (in three decimal places).

Ans: (157.000 to 158.000)

42. The roots obtained by solving longitudinal characteristic equations of motion for a statically stable aircraft are given below :

λ_{1, 2} = −0.02 ± 0.30i, λ_{3, 4} = −2.00±2.50i, where

The undamped short-period longitudinal natural frequency (radians/sec) and damping ratio, in that order, are close to

(A) 3.40, 0.73

(B) 3.36, 0.65

(D) 3.20, 0.63

Ans: (D)

43. An aircraft is to be designed to ensure that it has enough excess power to achieve steady climb at flight path angle, γ = 10 degrees, maintaining The numerical value of the thrust to weight ratio of the complete aircraft to meet the above requirement under standard atmospheric condition will be ________ (in three decimal place).

Ans: (0.270 to 0.280)

44. A conventional aircraft was analyzed to estimate the contribution of wing towards C_m0 (C_m at α = 0) of the whole aircraft. The wing was installed with zero setting angle along the fuselage reference line. Further, the wing was laid such that and are the non-dimensional distances, from the leading edge of the wing, of the aerodynamic center of the wing and center of gravity of the aircraft respectively. The wing had the following aerodynamic characteristics:

C_L0 = 0.20, and C_mac _wing = −0.02.

The numerical value of C_{m0, w}(contribution of the wing to C_m0) about the CG of the aircraft is _________ (in two decimal places).

Ans: (0.00 to 0.00)

45. In a combustor, gaseous Octane (C₈H₁₈) and air are to be burned in stoichiometric proportions. If the required flowrate of air is 1 kg/s, what should be the corresponding flow rate of Octane?

(A) 0.066 kg/s

(B) 15.15 kg/s

(D) 6.25 kg/s

Ans: (A)

46.

The given diagram represents the velocity triangles at the leading edge (1) and trailing edge (2) at the mean radius of a single stage axial compressor rotor. The stage efficiency of the compressor is 0.8. The stagnation temperature of air entering the stage is 298 K and the specific heat at constant pressure for air is 1.005 kJ/kgK. The ratio of specific heats for air is 1.4. Considering actual work in the rotor is equal to the ideal work, the pressure ratio for the stage is equal to _______ (in two decimal points).

Ans: (1.20 to 1.30)

47. An aircraft with a turbojet engine, having an inlet area of 1 m², is flying at 270 m/s at an altitude where the atmosphere pressure is equal to 0.9 bar and the ambient temperature is equal to 290 K. The stagnation pressure and temperature at the exit of the turbine are equal to 1.6 bar and 774 K respectively. The specific heat at constant pressure of the burned gases is equal to 1.147 kJ/kgK and the ratio of specific heats is equal to 1.33. Considering ideal expansion in the nozzle with no losses, the specific thrust produced by the engine is _________ Ns/kg (in one decimal place).

Ans: (215.0 to 217.0)

48. Air, at 450 K stagnation temperature and at a rate of 50 kg/s, enters the combustor of a turbofan engine and is burned with 1 kg/s of Aviation Kerosene (Heating value 44 MJ/kg). The specific heat at constant pressure for the incoming air and the burned products are 1.005 kJ/kgK and 1.147 kJ/kgK respectively. Considering 100% burner efficiency, the stagnation temperature at the exit of the combustor is equal to ________K. (in one decimal place).

Ans: (1130.0 to 1145.0)

49. A single stage chemical rocket, having an initial mass of 10,000 kg and specific impulse of 450 s, is launched from the surface of the earth and has to reach the escape velocity (11 km/s) at burn out. Consider g_e = 9.8 m/s². If the atmospheric drag and the effect of gravity are to be neglected, the mass of propellant to be carried by the rocket is equal to ________ kg (in one decimal place)

Ans: (9100.0 to 9200.0)

50. A centrifugal compressor requires 1800 kW of power to compress 10 kg/s of air. Consider the whirl velocity component is equal to the impeller speed (ie., no slip) and no losses in the impeller. If the impeller has to rotate at 1900 rad/s, the diameter of the impeller is to be _______ m(in two decimal place).

Ans: (0.40 to 0.50)

51. An aircraft wing is idealized as a cantilever beam of constant width and length l with a tip mass of weight W (Newtons) and has a uniformly distributed loading of q_o (Newtons/m) as shown in the figure. Flexural rigidity = EI and q_ol = 10 W.

The upward deflection of the tip of the aircraft wing under the given loading can be expressed as :

The value of k is ________ (in three decimal places).

Ans: (0.910 to 0.920)

52. For the state of plane stress shown in the figure, the minimum principal stress is −7 MN/m². The normal stress σ_x in MN/m² is equal to _______ (round to nearest integer).

Ans: (104 to 106)

53. The maximum normal stress in MN/m² for the thin walled beam of square cross section of outer dimension 120 mm × 120 mm and wall thickness 1 mm under the action of moment M_o = 96 Nm as shown in the figure is ______ (in three decimal places).

Ans: (6.900 to 7.400)

54. The idealized cross section of a thin-walled wing box structure shown in the figure is subjected to an anticlockwise torque of 10 kNm. The corresponding shear-flow distribution under this loading condition is shown in the figure. The area of each cell is A₁ = 300 × 10³ mm² and A₂ = 250 × 10³ mm². The ratio of the unknown x/y is given by _________ (in three decimal places).

Ans: (0.640 to 0.650)

55. The natural frequency of the system suspended by two identical springs of stiffness k as shown in the figure is given by for small displacement. Both the springs make an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The value of a is _________(in two decimal places).

56. The ninth and the tenth of this month are Monday and Tuesday _______.

(A) figuratively

(B) retrospectively

(D) rightfully

Ans: (C)

57. It is _______ to read this year’s textbook ______ the last year’s

(A) easier, than

(B) most easy, than

(D) easiest, from

Ans: (A)

58. A rule states that in order to drink beer, one must be over 18 years old. In a bar, there are 4 people. P is 16 years old, Q is 25 years old, R is drinking milkshake and S is drinking a beer. What must be checked to ensure that the rule is being followed?

(A) Only P’s drink

(B) Only P’s drink and S’s age

(D) Only P’s drink, Q’s drink and S’s age

Ans: (B)

59. Fatima starts from point P, goes North for 3 km, and then East for 4 km to reach point Q. She then turns to face point P and goes 15 km in that direction. She then goes North for 6 km. How far is she from point P, and in which direction should she go to reach point P?

(A) 8 km, East

(B) 12 km, North

(D) 10 km, North

Ans: (A)

60. 500 students are taking one or more courses out of Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics. Registration records indicate course enrolment as follows: Chemistry (329), Physics (186), Mathematics (295), Chemistry and Physics (83), Chemistry and Mathematics (217), and Physics and Mathematics (63). How many students are taking all 3 subjects?

(A) 37

(B) 43

(D) 53

Ans: (D)

61. “If you are looking for a history of India, or for an account of the rise and fall of the British Raj, or for the reason of the cleaving of the subcontinent into two mutually antagonistic parts and the effects this mutilation will have in the respective sections, and ultimately on Asia, you will not find it in these pages; for though I have spent a lifetime in the country. I lived too near the seat of events, and was too intimately associated with the actors, to get the perspective needed for the impartial recording of these matters.”

Which of the following statements best reflects the author’s opinion?

(A) An intimate association does not allow for the necessary perspective.

(B) Matters are recorded with an impartial perspective.

(D) Actors are typically associated with the impartial recording of matters.

Ans: (A)

62. Each of P, Q, R, S, W, X, Y and Z has been married at most once. X and Y are married and have two children P and Q. Z is the grandfather of the daughter S of P. Further, Z and W are married and are parents of R. Which one of the following must necessarily be FALSE?

(A) X is the mother-in-law of R

(B) P and R are not married to each other

(D) Q cannot be married to R

Ans: (D)

63. 1200 men and 500 women can build a bridge in 2 weeks. 900 men and 250 women will take 3 weeks to build the same bridge. How many men will be needed to build the bridge in one week?

(A) 3000

(B) 3300

(D) 3900

Ans: (C)

64. The number of 3-digit numbers such that the digit 1 is never to the immediate right of 2 is

(A) 781

(B) 791

(D) 891

Ans: (C)

65. A contour line joins locations having the same height above the mean sea level. The following is a contour plot of geographical region. Contour lines are shown at 25 m intervals in this plot.

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