OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2020 With Answer Key

OUAT Previous Question Paper-2020

PHYSICS

(Questions 1-66)

1. A particle is moving on a straight line path with constant acceleration directed along the directions of instantaneous velocity. Which of the following statements are FALSE about the motion of particle?

(A)  Particle may reverse the direction of motion.

(B)  Distance covered is not equal magnitude of displacement.

(C)  The magnitude of average velocity is less than average speed.

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

2. In photoelectric effect, work function of material is 3.5 eV. By applying −2 V potential, photoelectric current becomes zero, so

(A)  Energy of incident photon is 4.74 eV.

(B)  Energy of incident photon is 2.3 eV.

(C)  If photon having higher frequency is used, photoelectric current is produced.

(D)  When energy of photon is 2.3 eV, photoelectric current becomes maximum.

Answer: (A)

3. A conducting ring is placed around the core of an electromagnet as shown in figure. When ket K is pressed, the ring

(A)  remains stationary

(B)  is attracted towards the electromagnet

(C)  jumps out the core

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

4. The height of the building is 50 ft. The same in millimeter is

(A)  560 mm

(B)  285 mm

(C)  1786.8 mm

(D)  15240 mm

Answer: (D)

5. In the following diagrams, all the charges have equal magnitude. Electric field is zero at the centre of

Answer: (D)

6. If 20 V battery is connected to primary coil of a transformer, then output voltage is

(A)  zero

(B)  20V

(C)  10 V

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

7. Mean kinetic energy per gm. Molecule of a gas is given by

(A) 

(B)  kT

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

8. A hollow sphere is filled with water. There is a hole at the bottom of this sphere. This sphere is suspended with a string from a rigid support and given an oscillation. During oscillation, the hole is opened up and the periodic time of this oscillating system is measured. The periodic time of the system.

(A)  will remain constant.

(B)  will increase upto a certain time.

(C)  increases initially and then decreases to attain its initial periodic time.

(D)  initially decreases and then will attain the initial periodic time value.

Answer: (C)

9. The amount of heat generated in 500 Ω resistance, when the key is thrown over from constant 1 to 2, as shown in figure is

(A)  40 × 103 J

(B)  50 × 103 J

(C)  60 × 103 J

(D)  30 × 103 J

Answer: (C)

10. In the given figure, the convex lens is cut into two pieces and displace along the axes for small distance. The shape of fringe formed on the screen is

(A)  elliptical

(B)  hyperbolic

(C)  circular

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

11. Two point charges A and B of same charge having magnitude of momenta p1 and p2 respectively and having same charge are moving in a plane containing uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane. Then (Trajectories as shown in figure).

(A)  p1 = p2

(B)  p1 > p2

(C)  p1 < p2

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

12. carrier wave is modulated by n number of sine wave with modulation indices μ1, μ2 , μ3 ……. The total modulation index (μ) of the wave is

(A)  μ1 + μ2 + μ3 +……

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (B)

13. Which of the following quantities is NOT dimensionless?

(A)  Reynold’s number

(B)  Strain

(C)  Angle

(D)  Radius of gyration

Answer: (D)

14. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the energy levels in the p-type semi-conductor?

Answer: (C)

15. A wire of cross-section 4 mm2 is stretched by 0.1 mm by a certain weight. How far (length) will be wire of same material and length but of area 8 mm2 stretched under the action of same force.

(A)  0.05 mm

(B)  0.10 mm

(C)  0.15 mm

(D)  0.20 mm

Answer: (A)

16. An iron rod is subjected to cycles of magnetization at the rate of 50 Hz. Given the density of the rod is 8 × 103 kg/m3 and specific heat is 0.11 × 103 cal/Kg° The rise in temperature per minute, if the area inclosed by the B-H loop corresponds to energy of 10−2 J, is [Assume there is not radiation losses]

(A)  78°C

(B)  88°C

(C)  8.1°C

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

17. Which one of the following is the correct graph between energy and wavelength for given photon?

Answer: (A)

18. A coil of wire of radius R has 200 turns and a self-inductance of 108 mH. The self-inductance of a similar coil of 500 turns will be

(A)  375 mH

(B)  527 mH

(C)  675 mH

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

19. de-Broglie wavelength of atom at T k absolute temperature will be

(A)  h/mkT

(B)  h/√3mkT

(C)  √2mkT/h

(D)  √2mkT

Answer: (B)

20. A glass ball is dropped from height 10m. If there is 20% loss of energy due to impact, then after one impact, the ball will go upto

(A)  2 m

(B)  4 m

(C)  6 m

(D)  8 m

Answer: (D)

21. The breaking stress of wire of length 1 and radius is 5 kgwtm2. The length and radius of wire are doubled, the breaking stress in kgwtm2 is

(A)  5

(B)  10

(C)  20

(D)  80

Answer: (B)

22. Mark correct option:

(A)  The root mean square speeds of the molecules of different ideal gases, maintained at the same temperature are the same.

(B)  Electrons in a conductor have no motion in the absence of a potential difference across it.

(C)  One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas is mixed with one mole of a diatomic ideal gas. The molar specific heat of the mixture at constant volume is 2R.

(D)  The pressure exerted by an enclosed ideal gas depends on the shape of t he container.

Answer: (C)

23. The current is resistance R at resonance is

(A)  zero

(B)  minimum but finite

(C)  maximum but finite

(D)  infinite

Answer: (C)

24. In Young’s double slits experiment, the length of band is 1 mm. The fringe width is 0.021 mm. The number of fringes is

(A)  45

(B)  46

(C)  47

(D)  48

Answer: (C)

25. A block is released from top of a smooth inclined plane. It reaches the bottom of the plane is 6 sec. The time taken by the body to cover the first half of the inclined plane is

(A)  3 sec

(B)  4 sec

(C)  3√2 sec

(D)  5 sec

Answer: (C)

26. Hailstone at 0°C falls from a height of 1 km on an insulating surface converting whole of its kinetic energy into heat. What part of it will melt ? (g = 10 m/s2)

(A)  1/33

(B)  1/8

(C)  1/33 × 104

(D)  All of it will melt

Answer: (A)

27. Deuterium atoms in the ground state are radiated by photons of energy 12.8 eV. What will be the energy of induced radiation of longest wavelength? Ionisation energy of deuterium is 14.4 eV.

(A)  12.8 eV

(B)  10.8 eV

(C)  1.6 eV

(D)  2.0 eV

Answer: (D)

28. If both the length of an antenna and the wave length of the signal to be transmitted are doubled, the power radiated by the antenna

(A)  is doubled

(B)  is halved

(C)  increases 16 times

(D)  remains constant

Answer: (D)

29. A particle of mass 100g tied to a string is rotated along a circle of radius 0.5 m. The breaking rension of string is 10 N. The maximum speed with which particle can be rotated without breaking the string is

(A)  10 m/s

(B)  9.8 m/s

(C)  7.7 m/s

(D)  7.07 m/s

Answer: (D)

30. A particular nucleus in a large population of identical radioactive nuclei survives 10 half lives of that isotope. The probability that this surviving nucleus will survive the next half-life is

(A)  1/10

(B)  2/5

(C)  1/2

(D)  1/210

Answer: (C)

30. A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 amp, the energy stored in joule is

(A)  1

(B)  0.05

(C)  0.1

(D)  0.5

Answer: (C)

32. A gas expands under constant pressure P from volume V1 to V2, the work done by the gas is

(A)  P(V1 – V2)

(B)  Zero

(C)  P(V1 + V2)

(D)

Answer: (A)

33. One 10V, 60W bulb is to be connected to 100V line. The required self-inductance of inductance coil will be (f = 50 Hz)

(A)  0.052 H

(B)  2.42 H

(C)  16.2 H

(D)  16.2 mH

Answer: (A)

34. As shown in figure, a body having mass m is attached with two springs having spring constants k1 and k2. The frequency of oscillation is f. Now, if the springs constants of both the springs are increased 4 times, then the frequency of oscillation will be equal to

(A)  2f

(B)  f/2

(C)  f/4

(D)  4f

Answer: (A)

35. An isolated solid metallic sphere is given +Q charge. The charge will be distributed on the sphere

(A)  uniformly but only on surface.

(B)  only on surface but non-uniformly

(C)  uniformly inside the volume.

(D)  non-uniformly inside the volume

Answer: (A)

36. At constant volume temperature is increased then

(A)  collision walls will be less

(B)  collision frequency will increase

(C)  collision will be in straight line

(D)  collision will not change

Answer: (B)

37. Minimum excitation potential of Bohr’s first obrbit in hydrogen atom is

(A)  13.6 V

(B)  3.4 V

(C)  10.2 V

(D)  3.6 V

Answer: (C)

38. A battery of emf 1.2 V and internal resistance 0.5Ω is connected to resistance of 0.5 Ω the P.D. across the resistor is

(A)  1.2 volt

(B)  1.1 volt

(C)  1.05 volt

(D)  1 volt

Answer: (A)

39. As shown in figure, two masses of 3.0 k.g and 1.0 kg are attached at the two ends of a spring having force constant 300 Nm1. The natural frequency of oscillation for the system will be ______ hz. (Ignore friction)

(A)  1/4

(B)  1/3

(C)  4

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

40. A gas is taken in a sealed container at 300 K. It is heated at constant volume to a temperature 600 K. The mean K. E. of its molecules is

(A)  halved

(B)  doubled

(C)  tripled

(upled.0

Answer: (B)

41. A wire of diameter 1 mm breaks under a tension of 100N. Another wire of same materials as that of the first one, but of diameter 2 mm breaks under a tension of

(A)  500 N

(B)  1000 N

(C)  10,000 N

(D)  4000 N

Answer: (D)

42. If the total magnetic field due to the earth is 28 Am1 then the total magnetic induction due to the earth is

(A)  3.52 × 107 T

(B)  3.52 × 105 T

(C)  3.52 × 102 T

(D)  3.52 × 104 T

Answer: (B)

43. Kinetic energy of emitted ray is dependent on

(A)  voltage only

(B)  work function only

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  It does not depend upon physical quantity

Answer: (C)

44. How many photons are emitted by a laser source of 5 × 103 W operating at 632.2 nm in 2 second ? (ft = 6.63 × 1034 Js)

(A)  3.2 × 1016

(B)  1.6 × 1016

(C)  4. × 1016

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

45. In a tangent galvanometer, a current of 01 A produces a deflection of 30°. The current required to produce a deflection of 60°, is

(A)  0.2 A

(B)  0.3 A

(C)  0.4 A

(D)  0.5 A

Answer: (B)

46. When a rubber cord is stretched, the change in volume with respect to change in its linear dimension is negligible, the Poisson’s ratio for rubber is

(A)  1

(B)  0.25

(C)  0.5

(D)  0.75

Answer: (C)

47. Choose the correct order of the root mean square velocity (υrms), the average velocity (υav) and the most probable velocity (υmp).

(A)  υmp > υav > υrms

(B)  υrms > υav > υmp

(C)  υav > υmp > υrms

(D)  υmp > υrms > υav

Answer: (B)

48. A block of mass 100g slides on a rough horizontal surface. If the speed of the block decreases from 10 m/s to 5 m/s, the thermal energy developed in the process is

(A)  3.75 J

(B)  37.5 J

(C)  0.375 J

(D)  0.75 J

Answer: (A)

49. In order to obtain time constant of 10 second in an R-C circuit containing a resistance of 103 Ω, the capacity of the condenser should be

(A)  10 μF

(B)  100 μF

(C)  1000 μF

(D)  10000 μF

Answer: (D)

50. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries constant current i. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field B0 such that B0 is magnitude of magnetic field to a plane of the loop, the magnetic force acting on the loop is

(A)  irB0

(B)  2πirB0

(C)  πirB0

(D)  Zero

Answer: (D)

51. In the figure three identical springs are shown. From spring A, a mass of 4 kg is hung and spring shows elongation of 1 cm. But when a weight of 6 kg is hung on B, the Hook’s descends

(A)  1 cm

(B)  2 cm

(C)  3 cm

(D)  4 cm

Answer: (C)

52. A planet is moving in an elliptical orbit. If T, V, E and L are respectively the kinetic energy, potential energy, total energy and the magnitude of the angular momentum of the planet then the TRUE statement out of the following is

(A)  T is conserved

(B)  V is always positive

(C)  E is always negative

(D)  L is conserved but the direction vectr L continuously changes

Answer: (C)

53. In the given graph, adiabatic and isothermal curves are shown:

(A)  the curve A is isothermal

(B)  the curve B is isothermal

(C)  the curve A is adiabatic

(D)  Both (B) and (C) are correct

Answer: (D)

54. Light of wavelength λ is incident on a slit of width d and distance between screen and slit is D. Then width of maxima and width of slit will be equal, if D is

(A)  d2/ λ

(B)  2d/ λ

(C)  2d2/ λ

(D)  d2/ 2λ

Answer: (D)

55. The gravitational potential difference between the surface of a planet and a point 20 m above it is 16 J/kg. Then the work done in moving a 2kg mass by 8m on

(A)  11.1 J

(B)  5.55 J

(C)  16 J

(D)  27.7 J

Answer: (A)

56. A particle of mass m is attached to one end of a string of length l while the other end is fixed to point h above the horizontal table, the particle is made to revolve in a circle on the table, so as to make P revolutions per second. The maximum value of P if the particle is to be in contact with the table will be

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

57. The alpha and beta particles cause ionization because of

(A)  photoelectric emission

(B)  Compton collision

(C)  pair production

(D)  the electrostatic force

Answer: (D)

58. force of 0.5 is applied on upper block as shown in figure. The work done by lower block on upper block for displacement 3m of the upper block is

(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(A)  1 joule

(B)  −1 joule

(C)  2 joule

(D)  −2 joule

Answer: (A)

59. Figure shown a block of mass m kept on inclined plane with inclination θ. The tension in the string is

(A)  8 N

(B)  10 N

(C)  0.8 N

(D)  Zero

Answer: (D)

60. A train starts from station with an acceleration 1 m/s2. A boy who is 48 m behind the train with a constant velocity 10 m/s, the minimum time after which the boy will catch the train is

(A)  4.8 sec

(B)  8 sec

(C)  10 sec

(D)  12 sec

Answer: (B)

61. In an elastic string whose natural length is equal to that of a uniform rod by attached to the rod at both ends and suspended by the middle point

(A)  the rod will sink until the total work done is non-zero.

(B)  the rod will sink until the total work done is zero.

(C)  sinking of rod is not determined or the basis of work done.

(D)  sinking of rod is not possible.

Answer: (B)

62. A weight W is suspended from the midpoint of a rope, whose ends are at the same level. In order to make the rope perfectly horizontal, the force applied to each of its ends must be

(A)  less than W

(B)  equal to W

(C)  equal to 2W

(D)  infinitely large

Answer: (D)

63. The current gain of transistor is 100, if the base current changes by 10 μ What is the change in collector current?

(A)  0.2 mA

(B)  2 mA

(C)  1 mA

(D)  0.5 mA

Answer: (C)

64. Which of the following physical quantities has Neither dimensions Nor unit?

(A)  Angle

(B)  Luminous intensity

(C)  Coefficient of friction

(D)  Currents

Answer: (C)

65. Which of the following mode of propagation is used to send radio-waves from one place to another?

(A)  Space wave propagation

(B)  Sky wave propagation

(C)  Ground wave propagation

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

66. Six point charges are arranged at the vertices of a regular hexagon of side length a (shown in figure). The magnitude of electric field at the centre of regular hexagon is

(A) 

(B)  Zero

(C) 

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

CHEMISTRY

(Questions-67-132)

67. The half-life period of a first order reaction is 10 minutes. The time required for the concentration of the reactant to change from 0.08 M to 0.02 M is

(A)  10 min.

(B)  20 min.

(C)  30 min.

(D)  40 min.

Answer: (B)

68. Which bond is the smallest?

Answer: (B)

69. The distance between two electrodes of a cell is 2.5 cm and area of each electrode is 5 cm2. The cell constant is

(A)  2

(B)  12.5

(C)  7.5

(D)  0.5

Answer: (D)

70. The conversion of PbO into Pb(NO3)2 involves

(A)  oxidation

(B)  reduction

(C)  neither (A) nor (B)

(D)  both (A) and (B)

Answer: (C)

71. A 0.6% urea solution would be isotonic with

(A)  0.1 M glucose solution

(B)  0.1 MKCI solution

(C)  0.6% glucose solution

(D)  0.6% NaCl solution

Answer: (A)

72. The direct change from solid to gaseous state is referred to as

(A)  dissociation

(B)  decomposition

(C)  sublimation

(D)  deliquescence

Answer: (C)

73. The maximum number of molecules present in

(A)  15 bL of H2 gas at STP

(B)  5L of N2 gas at STP

(C)  0.5 g of H2 gas

(D)  10g of O2 gas

Answer: (A)

74. Which of the following statements is (are) WRONG?

(A)  If the value of 1 = 0, the electron distribution is spherical.

(B)  The shape of the orbital is given by magnetic quantum no.

(C)  Angular moment of 1s, 2s, 3s electrons are equal

(D)  In an atom, all electrons travel with the same velocity.

Answer: (B)

75. Chloroform

(A)  if exposed to air and light forms poisonous compound.

(B)  if inhaled for long time effects central nervous system.

(C)  is used to prepare chlorofluoromethane a Freon refrigerant.

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

76. Aspirin is a(n)

(A)  narcotic

(B)  antipyretic

(C)  tranquillizer

(D)  anaesthetic

Answer: (B)

77. Which of the following is (are) NOT true?

(A)  The most radioactive element present in pitchblende is uranium.

(B)  32P is used for the treatment of leukaemia.

(C)  CO2 present in the air contains 12C only.

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

78. On which factors interface depends?

(A)  Size of the molecules in the bulk phase.

(B)  Weight of the molecules in the bulk phase.

(C)  Numbers of molecules in the bulk phase.

(D)  Physical state of molecules in the bulk phase.

Answer: (A)

79. According to kinetic theory of gases

(A)  the pressure exerted by gas is proportional to mean square velocity of the molecules.

(B)  the pressure exerted by the gas is proportional t the root mean square velocity of the molecules.

(C)  the mean translational KE of the molecule is directly proportional to the absolute temperature

(D)  Both (B) and (C).

Answer: (C)

80. When copper ore is mixed with silica, in a reverberatory furnace copper matte is produced. The copper matte contains

(A)  sulphides of copper (II) and iron (II)

(B)  sulphides of copper (II) and iron (III)

(C)  sulphides of copper (I) and iron (II)

(D)  sulphides of copper (I) and iron (III)

Answer: (A)

81. Which plot represents an exothermic reaction?

Answer: (A)

82. Which statement about aspirin is NOR true?

(A)  Aspirin belongs to narcotic analgesics.

(B)  It is effective in relieving pain.

(C)  It has antiblood clotting action.

(D)  It is a neurologically active drug.

Answer: (A)

83. In a first order reaction A→B, if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M then half-life is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

84. Which of the following will NOT affect the value of equilibrium constant of a reaction?

(A)  Change in the concentration of the reactants

(B)  Change in temperature

(C)  Addition of catalyst

(D)  All of these

Answer: (B)

85. Glucose reacts with excess of phenylhydrazine and forms

(A)  sorbitol

(B)  glucose phenylbyrazone

(C)  glucosaszone

(D)  glucose oxime

Answer: (C)

86. The entropy of a crystalline substance at absolute zero on t he basis of third law of thermodynamics should be taken as

(A)  100

(B)  50

(C)  zero

(D)  different of different substances

Answer: (C)

87. Which of the following would undergo Hofniann’s reaction to give a primary amine?

(A)  RCONH2

(B)  RCONHCH3

(C)  RCOCI

(D)  RCOOR

Answer: (A)

88. Propene reacts with carbon monoxide and hydrogen in presence of cobalt carbonyl catalyst at high temperature and pressure, to form

(A)  propanal

(B)  butanal

(C)  butanone

(D)  butanoic acid

Answer: (B)

89. The hybrid state of central oxygen atom in diethylether is

(A)  sp2

(B)  sp3

(C)  sp

(D)  sp3d

Answer: (B)

90. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanol is

(A)  CnH2nO

(B)  CnH2n – 1O

(C)  CnH2n – 2O

(D)  CnH2nO2

Answer: (C)

91. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown by

Answer: (B)

92. The compound used in enrichment of uranium for nuclear power plant is

(A)  U3O8

(B)  UF6

(C)  UO2(NO3)2

(D)  UCl4

Answer: (A)

93. The sweetest of all sugars is

(A)  glucose

(B)  lactose

(C)  sucrose

(D)  fructose

Answer: (D)

94. In which case, the carbon-carbon bond length is same?

(A)  2-butene

(B)  benzene

(C)  I-butene

(D)  I-propyne

Answer: (B)

95. Which is a correct relationship?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  All of these

Answer: (*)

96. A crystal lattice with alternative +ve and –ve ions has radius ratio 0.52, its coordination number is

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  6

(D)  12

Answer: (C)

97. ______bond is the most polar

(A)  C – O

(B)  C – Br

(C)  C – S

(D)  C – F

Answer: (D)

98. Blood cells do NOT shrink in blood because blood is

(A)  hypertonic

(B)  isotonic

(C)  equimolar

(D)  hypotonic

Answer: (B)

99. Which of the following is known as Freon which is used as a refrigerant?

(A)  CCl2F

(B)  CHCl3

(C)  CH2F2

(D)  CF4

Answer: (A)

100. The credit for the discovery of transuranic elements goes to

(A)  Hahn

(B)  Rutherford

(C)  Seaborg

(D)  Curie

Answer: (C)

101. What is used to prevante electronic instruments clamaged by the moisture?

(A)  Silica gel

(B)  Zeolite

(C)  Chromatographic plate

(D)  All of these

Answer: (A)

102. dz2 orbital has

(A)  a lobe along z-axis and a ring along xy-plane

(B)  a lobe along z-axis and a along xy-place.

(C)  a lobe along z-axis and a ring along yz-plane

(D)  a lobe and ring along z-axis

Answer: (A)

103. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu2O with

(A)  FeS

(B)  CO

(C)  Cu2S

(D)  SO2

Answer: (C)

104. Select the WRONG statement.

(A)  One curie = 3.7 × 1010 dis/minute

(B)  Actinium series starts with U238

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

105. Compound which is added to soap to impart antiseptic properties is

(A)  sodium laurylsulphate

(B)  sodium dodecylebenzenesulphonate

(C)  rosin

(D)  bithional

Answer: (D)

106. In the following statements,

(a)   Ideal gases are liquefied only at very low temperatures

(b)   Ideal gases cannot be liquefied.

(c)   Ideal gas behavior is observed by real gases at low pressures.

(d)   Ideal gases do not exist.

the correct statements are

(A)  a, b, c and d

(B)  a, b and c

(C) b, c and D

(D)  c and d

Answer: (C)

107. Decron is an example of

(A)  polyamide

(B)  polypropylene

(C)  polyurethane

(D)  polyester

Answer: (D)

108. In the evaporation of water, the entropy

(A)  decreases

(B)  increases

(C)  does not change

(D)  sometimes increases, sometimes decreases

Answer: (B)

109. A compound is formed by elements A and B. This crystallizes in the cubic structure when atoms A are at the corners of the cube and atoms B are at the centre of the body. The simplest formula of the compound is

(A)  AB

(B)  AB2

(C)  A2B

(D)  AB4

Answer: (A)

110. Dead burnt plaster is

(A)  CaSO4

(B) 

(C)  CaSO4H2O

(D)  CaSO42H2O

Answer: (A)

111. Semipenneable membrane is that which pennits the passage of

(A)  Solute molecules only

(B)  Solvent molecules only

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer: (B)

112. Which is non-aromatic compound?

Answer: (*)

113. When one coulomb’ of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution, the mass deposited on the electrode is equal to

(A)  equivalent weight

(B)  molecular weight

(C)  electrochemical equivalent

(D)  one gram

Answer: (C)

114. Among the following compounds, which one is NOT responsible for depletion of ozone layer?

(A)  CH4

(B)  CFCl3

(C)  NO

(D)  Cl2

Answer: (A)

115. The plot between concentration versus time for a zero order reaction is represented by

Answer: (D)

116. In a chemical reaction, two reactants take part. The rate of reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of one of them and inversely proportional to the concentration of the other. The order of the reaction is

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

117. Which of the following could act as propellant for rockets?

(A)  Liquid oxygen + Liquid argon

(B)  Liquid nitrogen + Liquid oxygen

(C)  Liquid hydrogen + Liquid oxygen

(D)  Liquid hydrogen + Liquid nitrogen

Answer: (C)

118. Heating mixture of Cu2O and Cu2S will give

(A)  Cu + SO2

(B)  Cu + SO3

(C)  CuO + CuS

(D)  CU2SO3

Answer: (A)

119. p-nitrophenol and o-nitrophenol are separated by

(A)  cystallisation

(B)  fractional distillation

(C)  distillation

(D)  steam distillation

Answer: (D)

120. Which of the following has magnesium ?

(A)  Carbonic anhydrase

(B)  Vitamin B12

(C)  Chlorophyll

(D)  Haemocyanine

Answer: (C)

121. Primary amine + aldehyde → X, what is X?

(A)  Nitro

(B)  Nitroso

(C)  Amino

(D)  Imino

Answer: (D)

122. Which graph will show equilibrium condition?

Answer: (C)

123. Propyne on hydroboration-oxidation gives mainly

(A)  propanone

(B)  propanoic acid

(C)  propanal

(D)  propane

Answer: (C)

124. The oxidation numbers of C in CH4, CH3HI CH2Cl, CHCI3 and CCl4 are respectively

(A)  +4, +2, 0, −2, −

(B)  +2, +4, 0, −4, −2

(C)  −4, −2, 0, +2, +4

(D)  −2, −4, 0, +4, +2

Answer: (C)

125. The reagent used for the preparation of higher ethers from halogenated ethers is

(A)  conc. H2SO4

(B)  sodium alkoxide

(C)  dry silveroxide

(D)  Grignard reagent

Answer: (D)

126. Heavy water is used in atomic reactors as

(A)  coolant

(B)  moderator

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  Neither (A) Nor (B)

Answer: (C)

127. CH3OH and C2H5OH may be distinguished chemically

(A)  by the action of HCl

(B)  by the action of I2 + NaCO3

(C)  by the action of NH3

(D)  solubility in water

Answer: (B)

128. Flurosis, a bone disease, is caused by the presence of

(A)  pesticides in water

(B)  fluorides in water

(C)  carbon monoxide in air

(D)  sulphur dioxide in air

Answer: (B)

129. Which one of the following cyano complexes would exhibit the lowest value of paramagnetic behavior?

(A)  [Cr(CN)6]3

(B)  [Co(CN)6] 3

(C)  [Fe(CN)6] 3

(D)  BaCO3

Answer: (B)

130. Metal carbonates decompose on heating to give metal oxide and carbon dioxide. Which of the metal carbonates is most stable thermally?

(A)  MgCO3

(B)  CaCO3

(C)  SrCO3

(D)  BaCO3

Answer: (D)

131. Which of the following is NOT an actinide ?

(A)  Curium

(B)  Califomium

(C)  Uranium

(D)  Terbium

Answer: (D)

132. The major product formed by monobromination of methy chyclopentane is

Answer: (D)

MATHEMATICS

Questions – 133-200

133. Four natural numbers are selected at random and are multiplied. The probability that the product is divisible by 5 or 10 is

(A)  49/625

(B)  369/625

(C)  64/625

(D)  256/625

Answer: (B)

134. Let  satisfied A2 + aA + bI = 0, then a, b are respectively equal to

(A)  −4, 2

(B)  −3, 3

(C)  −4, 1

(D)  −3, 1

Answer: (C)

135. The mean of 5 observations is 4.4 and the variance is 8.24. If three of the five observations are 1, 2 and 6, the two values are

(A)  4 and 9

(B)  3 and 5

(C)  2 and 6

(D)  4 and 6

Answer: (A)

136. Three numbers are chosen at random without replacement from {1, 2, 3 ……., 10}. The probability that minimum of the chosen number is 3 or their maximum is 7, is

(A)  11/30

(B)  11/40

(C)  1/7

(D)  1/8

Answer: (B)

137. The equations of perpendicular bisectors of the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC are x – y + 5 = 0 and equation of the line BC is

(A)  23x + 14y – 40 = 0

(B)  23x + 14y + 40 = 0

(C)  14x + 23y – 40 = 0

(D)  14x + 23y + 40 = 0

Answer: (C)

138. If  then  is

(A)  2

(B)  1

(C)  0

(D)  x

Answer: (C)

139. Consider the proposition : “If we control population growth, we prosper”. Negative of this proposition is

(A)  If we do not control population growth, we prosper.

(B)  If we control population, we do not prosper.

(C)  We control population but we do not prosper.

(D)  We do not control population but we prosper.

Answer: (C)

140. If the tangent at (1, 1) on y2 = x(2 – x)2 meets the curve gain at P, then P is

(A)  (4, 4)

(B)  (−1, 2)

(C)  (9/4, 3/8)

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

141. The value of the sum of the series 3nC0 – 8nC1 + 13nC2 – 18nC3 + …. upon (n + 1) terms, is

(A)  0

(B)  3n

(C)  5n

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

142. The value of  is

(A)  π

(B)  π/6

(C)  π/3

(D)  π/4

Answer: (B)

143. If the letters of the word MOTHER are written in all possible orders and these words are written out as in a dictionary, then the rank of the word MOTHER is

(A)  240

(B)  261

(C)  308

(D)  309

Answer: (D)

144. An equation of the curve in which subnormal varies as the square of the ordinate is (k is constant of proportionality)

(A)  y = Aekx

(B)  y = ekx

(C) 

(D)  y2 + kx2  = A

Answer: (A)

145. The sum of the series (1 + 2) + (1 + 2 + 22) + (1 + 2 + 22 + 23)+ …. upto n terms is

(A)  2n+2 – n – 4

(B)  2(2n – 1)

(C)  2n+1 – n

(D)  2n+1 – 1

Answer: (A)

146. Let there be two points A, B on the curve y = x2 in the plane OXY satisafying OA I = 1 and OB I = −2 then the length of the vector 2OA – 3OB is

(A)  √14

(B)  2√51

(C)  3√41

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

147. If n is a positive integer greater than unity and z is a complex number satisfying the equation zn = (z + 1)n, then

(A)  Im (z) < 0

(B)  Im (z) > 0

(C)  Im (z) = 0

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

148. Let [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x. If f(x) = sin1x, g(x) [x2] and 

(A)  fogohh(x) = π/2

(B)  fogpoh(x) = π

(C)  hofog = hogof

(D)  hofog ≠ hogof

Answer: (C)

149. Let f : N → N be defined by f(x) = x2 + x + 1, then f is

(A)  one-one onto

(B)  many one onto

(C)  one-one but not into

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

150.  equals

(A)  1 + √5

(B)  −1 + √5

(C)  −1 + √2

(D)  1 + √2

Answer: (B)

151. Let R be a relation on the set N be defined by {(x, y) |x, y ∈ N, 2x + y = 41}. Then R is

(A)  reflexive

(B)  symmetric

(C)  transitive

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

152. Let = {1, 2, 3}, B = {3 4}, C = {4, 5, 6}. Then A ⋃ (B⋂C) is

(A)  {3}

(B)  {1, 2, 3, 4}

(C)  {1, 2, 5, 6)

(D)  {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}

Answer: (B)

153. If  decreases for all x, then

(A)  ab – bc < 0

(B)  ad –  bc < 0

(C)  ab – cd > 0

(D)  ab – cd < 0

Answer: (A)

154. If  then at x = 0

(A)  f(x) has no limit

(B)  f(x) is discontinuous

(C)  f(x) is continuous but not differentiable

(D)  f(x) is differentiable

Answer: (D)

155. 

(A)  √2

(B)  Does not exist

(C)  1

(D)  −√2

Answer: (B)

156. An unbiased cubical die is thrown 5 times. The probability that the maximum number appearing on the die is 4 is

(A)  7/65

(B)  1023/65

(C)  3871/65

(D)  1781/65

Answer: (B)

157. The distance between the lines 5x – 12y + 65 = 0 and 5x – 12y – 39 = 0, is

(A)  4

(B)  16

(C)  2

(D)  8

Answer: (D)

158. If ω ≠ 1 is a cube root of unity and  then value of x is

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  −1

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

159. If p and q are two propositions, then ~ (p ↔ q) is

(A)  ~ p ^ ~ q

(B)  ~p ⋁ (~ p ^ q)

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

160. The distance between the line r = 2is – 2j + 3k + λ (i – j + 4k) and the plane r.(i + 5j + k) = 5 is

(A)  3/10

(B)  10/3

(C)  10/9

(D)  10/3√3

Answer: (D)

161. Common roots of the equation z3 + 2z2 + 2z + 1 = 0 and z1985 + z100 + 1 = 0 are bijection?

(A)  w, w2

(B)  1, w, w2

(C)  −1, w, w2

(D)  −w, w2

Answer: (A)

162. Which of the following functions from Z to itself are bijection?

(A)  f(x) = x3

(B)  f(x) = x + 2

(C)  f(x) = 2x + 1

(D)  f(x) = x2 + x

Answer: (B)

163. Let  Then the real roots of the equation x2 – f′(x) = 0 are

(A)  ±1

(B)  ±1/√2

(C)  ±1/2

(D)  0 and 1

Answer: (A)

164. Let A = (p, q, r) Which of the following is NOT an equivalence relation on A?

(A)  R1 = {(p, q), (q, r), (p, r), (p, p)}

(B)  R2 = {(r, q), (r,p), (r, r), (p, q)}

(C)  R3 = {(p, p), (q, q), (r, r), (p, q)}

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

165. A particular solution of  is

(A)  e3x + 3e4y

(B)  4e3x – e4y = 3

(C)  3e3x + 4e4y = 7

(D)  4e3x + 3e4y = 7

Answer: (D)

166. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = x2 + 2, y = x, x = 0 and x= 3, in square units is

(A)  21/4

(B)  21/2

(C)  39/2

(D)  39/4

Answer: (A)

167. If sets A and B are defined as

A = {(x, y) : y = ex, x ∈ R}

B = {(x, y) : y = x, x ∈ R}, then

(A)  B ⊂ A

(B)  A ⊂ B

(C)  A ⋂ B = ϕ

(D)  A ⋃ B = A

Answer: (C)

168. If the line  lies in the plane x + 3y – az + β = 0. Then (α, β) = ?

(A)  (5, −15)

(B)  (−5, 5)

(C)  (6, −17)

(D)  (−6, 7)

Answer: (D)

169. If R is a relation from a set A to a set B and S is relation from a set B to a set C, then the relation SoR

(A)  is from A to C

(B)  is from C to A

(C)  does not exist

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

170. The non-zero vectors a, b and c are related by a = 8b and c = −7b. Then the angle between a and c is

(A)  0

(B)  π/4

(C)  π/2

(D)  π

Answer: (D)

171. Let F : A → B and g : B → A be two functions such that gof = IA. Then

(A)  f is an injection and g is a surjection

(B)  f is a surjection and g is an injection

(C)  f and g both are injections

(D)  f and g both are surjections

Answer: (*)

172. The solution of the equation (2x + y + 1)dx + (4x + 2y – 1) dy =0 is

(A)  log |2x + y – 1| = C + x + y

(B)  log (4x + 2y – 1) = C + 2x + y

(C)  log(2x + y + 1) + x + 2y = C

(D)  log|2x + y – 1| + x + 2y = C

Answer: (D)

173. If z1 = a + ib and z2 = c + id are complex numbers such that |z1| = |z2| = 1 and, then  , then the pair of w2 = b + id satisfy

(A)  |w1| = 1

(B)  |w2| = 1

(C) 

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

174. The value of  is ([x] is the greatest integer function)

(A) 

(B) 

(C)  1000(e – 1)

(D) 

Answer: (C)

175. If the interior angles of a polygon are in A.P. with common difference 5° and smallest angle is 120°, then the number of sides of the polygon is

(A)  9 or 16

(B)  9

(C)  16

(D)  13

Answer: (B)

176. If  then x is any term of the following.

(A)  3, 6, 9, 12, ……

(B)  9, 18, 27, 36, …

(C)  6, 12, 18, 24, ….

(D)  6/5, 12/5, 18/5, ….

Answer: (C)

177. Let f(x) = sgn(sgn(sgn x))

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  0

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

178. If  then 4x2 – 4xycosα + y 2 is equal to

(A)  4 sin2 α

(B)  −4 sin2 α

(C)  −2 sin2 α

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

179. The statement ~ (p ↔ ~ q) is

(A)  equilvalent to ~ p ↔ q

(B)  a tautology

(C)  a fallacy

(D)  equivalent to p ↔ q

Answer: (*)

180. Suppose a, b, c, > 0 and a, b, c are the pth, qth, rth terms of a GP. Let

Then numerical value of ∆ is

(A)  −1

(B)  2

(C)  0

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

181. The total number of proper divisors or 38808 is

(A)  72

(B)  70

(C)  69

(D)  71

Answer: (A)

182. If letter of the word “ASSASSIN” are written down at random in a row, the probability that no two S’s occur together is

(A)  1/7

(B)  1/14

(C)  1/28

(D)  1/35

Answer: (B)

183. Let A, B, C be three square matrices of the same order, such that whenever AB = AC then B = C, if A is

(A)  singular

(B)  non-singular

(C)  symmetric

(D)  skew-symmetric

Answer: (*)

184. If  and  then the standard deviation of x­1, x2, ….., x18 is

(A)  4/9

(B)  9/4

(C)  3/2

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

185. The least number of times a fair coin must be tossed so that the probability of getting at least one head is 0.95 is

(A)  5

(B)  6

(C)  7

(D)  12

Answer: (C)

186. The equation of one side of a rectangle is 3x – 4y – 10 = 0 and the co-ordinates of two of its vertices are (−2, 1) and (2, 4). Then the area of the rectangle is

(A)  20 sq. units

(B)  40 sq. units

(C)  10 sq. units

(D)  30 sq. units

Answer: (A)

187. The slope of the tangent of the curve

x = t2 + 3t – 8

y = 2r2 – 2t – 5

at the point (2, −1) is

(A)  2/3

(B)  6/7

(C)  4/5

(D)  3/2

Answer: (B)

188. The least value of n so that yn = yn + 1 where y = x2 + ex is

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  5

(D)  2

Answer: (B)

189. The interval in which x must lie so that the numerically greatest term in the expansion of (1 – x)2 has the numerically greatest coefficient, if

(A)  [5/6, 6/5]

(B)  (5/6, 6/5)

(C)  (4/5, 5/4)

(D)  [4/5, 5/4)

Answer: (A)

190. 

(A)  1/2

(B)  3/2

(C)  5/2

(D)  7/2

Answer: (C)

191. Logical equivalent proposition to the proposition ~(p ⋁ q) is

(A)  ~p ⋀ ~q

(B)  ~p ⋁ ~q

(C)  ~p → ~q

(D)  ~p ↔ ~q

Answer: (*)

192. The nearest point on the line 3x – 4y = 25 from the origin is

(A)  (−4, 5)

(B)  (3, −4)

(C)  (3, 4)

(D)  (3, 5)

Answer: (B)

193. The distance of the point (1, −5, 9) from the plane x – y + z = 5 measured along a straight line x = y = z is

(A)  10√3

(B)  5√3

(C)  3√10

(D)  3√5

Answer: (*)

194. The unit vector which is orthogonal to the vector 5i + 2j + 6k and is coplanar with the vectors 2i + j + k and i – j + k is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

195. If A is a finite set having n elements, then P(A) has _______ elements.

(A)  2n

(B)  2n

(C)  n

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

196. A function out of the following whose period is NOT π is

(A)  sin2x

(B)  cos2x

(C)  tan(2x + 3)

(D)  y = |sin x|

Answer: (C)

197. 

(A)  2√a log a

(B)  √a log a

(C)  log a

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

198. If 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 and θ = sin1 x + cos1 x − tan1 x, then

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

199. Which of the following is NOT a statement?

(A)  17 is a prime number.

(B)  22 is an odd number.

(C)  What a beautiful flower !

(D)  New Delhi is Capital of India

Answer: (C)

200. If a = ω ≠ 1 is cube root of unity, b = −785, c = 2008i, and 

 then ∆ equals

(A)  −i

(B)  i

(C)  1

(D)  1 – ωi

Answer: (C)

BIOLOGY

(Questions – 133-200)

133. Which is a part of pectoral girdle?

(A)  Glenoid cavity

(B)  Sternum

(C)  Illium

(D)  Acetabulum

Answer: (A)

134. Due to discovery of which of the following in 1980 the evolution was termed as RNS world?

(A)  mRNA, tRNA, TRNA synthesize proteins.

(B)  In some virus RNA is genetic material.

(C)  RNA have enzymatic property.

(D)  RNA is not found in all cells.

Answer: (C)

135. Iris is part of

(A)  sclerotic

(B)  choroid/uvula

(C)  choroid and retina

(D)  sclerotic and choroid

Answer: (D)

136. Desert plants are generally

(A)  viviparous

(B)  succulent

(C)  herbaceous

(D)  heterophyllus

Answer: (B)

137. A condition of failure of kidney to form urine is called

(A)  deamination

(B)  entropy

(C)  anuria

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

138. In RNA, thymine is replaced by

(A)  adenine

(B)  guanine

(C)  Cytosine

(D)  Uracil

Answer: (D)

139. A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of might blindness in developing countries is

(A)  Flavr savr tomatoes

(B)  Starling maize

(C)  Bt soybean

(D)  Golden rice

Answer: (D)

140. Escherichia coli is used extensively in biological research as it is

(A)  easily cultured

(B)  easily available

(C)  easy to handle

(D)  easily multiplied in host

Answer: (A)

141. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice By using which of the following biofertilizer?

(A)  Mycorrhiza

(B)  Azollapinnata

(C)  Cyanobacteria

(D)  Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis

Answer: (B)

142. The part of life cycle of malarial parasite plasmodium vivax, that is passed in female Anopheles is

(A)  Sexual cycle

(B)  Pre-erythrocytic schizogony

(C)  Exo-erythrocytic schizogony

(D)  Post-erythrocytic schizogony

Answer: (A)

143. The bacteria associated with plant genetic engineering are

(A)  Salmonella and Pseudomonas

(B)  Salmonella typhimurium and Agrobacterium

(C)  Bacillus thuringiensis and Pseudomonas Fluorescens

(D)  Both (B) and (C)

Answer: (D)

144. In plants inulin and pectin are

(A)  reserved food material

(B)  wastes

(C)  secretory material

(D)  insect attaching material

Answer: (A)

145. Middle piece of mammalian sperm possesses

(A)  mitochondria and centriole

(B)  mitochondria only

(C)  centriole only

(D)  nucleus and mitochondria

Answer: (A)

146. Photoreceptors of earthworm occur on

(A)  clitellum

(B)  many eyes

(C)  dorsal surface

(D)  lateral sides

Answer: (C)

147. Most diverse macromolecules, found in the cell both Physically and chemically are

(A)  proteins

(B)  carbohydrates

(C)  nucleic acids

(D)  lipids

Answer: (A)

148. The population of an insect species shows an explosive Increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of t he season. What does This show?

(A)  S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.

(B)  The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.

(C)  Its population growth curve is of J-type

(D)  The population of its predacors increases enormously.

Answer: (C)

149. Which is employed for artificial ripening of banna fruits?

(A)  Auxin

(B)  Cumarin

(C)  Ethylene

(D)  Cytokinin

Answer: (C)

150. Home sapiens evolved during

(A)  Pleistocene

(B)  Oligocene

(C)  Pliocene

(D)  Miocene

Answer: (A)

151. In which one of the following do the two names rafer to one and the same thing?

(A)  Tricarboxylic acid cycle and Urea cycle

(B)  Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle

(C)  Tricarboxylic acid cycle and Citric acid cycle

(D)  Cirric acid cycle and Calvin cycle

Answer: (C)

152. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?

(A)  Galactose

(B)  Gluconic acid

(C)  B-methyl galactoside

(D)  Sucrose

Answer: (A)

153. In plant cells, peroxisomes are associated with

(A)  photorespiration

(B)  phototropism

(C)  photoperiodism

(D)  photosynthesis

Answer: (A)

154. Which of the following plant species you would select for the production of bioethanol?

(A)  Brassica

(B)  Zea mays

(C)  Pongamia

(D)  Jatropha

Answer: (D)

155. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from

(A)  effector organs to CNS

(B)  receptors to CNS

(C)  CNS to receptors

(D)  CNS to muscles

Answer: (B)

156. Bio augmentation is

(A)  the addition of commercially prepared bacterial Strain

(B)  production of fertilizers by using bacteria

(C)  the metals are deposited as insoluble oxides and sulphides by activities of bacteria

(D)  removal of pests

Answer: (A)

157. Glycogen is a polymer of

(A)  galactose

(B)  glucose

(C)  fructose

(D)  sucrose

Answer: (B)

158. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain Character of a population are of the same value, the following is most likely to occur.

(A)  Normal distribution

(B)  Bio-modal distribution

(C)  T-shaped curve

(D)  Skewed curve

Answer: (A)

159. Choose the correct match:

Bladderwort, Sundew, Venusfly trap

(A)  Nepenthes, Diorea, Drosera

(B)  Nepenthes, Utricularia, Vanda

(C)  Utricularia, Drosera, Diorea

(D)  Diorea, Trapa, Vanda

Answer: (C)

160. One of the following is the correct sequence to make a Transgenic animals.

(A)  Transomics-Transfection Micro infection Electro portion – Retroviralvectors

(B)  Micro injection Transfection Electro portion-

(C)  Retroviral vectors Transomics Transfection – Micro injection – Transomics Electro portion – Retroviral vectors

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

161. Protein synthesis in an animal cell takes place

(A)  only in the cytoplasm

(B)  in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm

(C)  in cytoplasm as well as it mitochondria

(D)  Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear Envelope

Answer: (C)

162. Flowering dependent on cold treatment in

(A)  cryotherapy

(B)  cryogenics

(C)  cryoscopy

(D)  vernalization

Answer: (D)

163. Transgenic plants are produced by using Ti Plasmids From the

(A)  Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(B)  E. coli

(C)  Bacteriophage

(D)  Agrobacterium varians

Answer: (A)

164. The plant group that produces spores and embryo but Lacks vascular tissues and seeds is

(A)  Pteridophyta

(B)  Rhodophyta

(C)  Bryophyta

(D)  Phaeophyta

Answer: (C)

165. Removal of apical bud results in

(A)  formation of new apical buid

(B)  elongation of main stem

(C)  death of plant

(D)  Formation of lateral branching

Answer: (D)

166. In pinus, the pollen grain has 6 chromosomes then its Endosperm will have the chromosome

(A)  12

(B)  18 n 8

(C)  6

(D)  24

Answer: (C)

167. The foods made from genetically modified crops required to Pass human testing because

(A)  they may cause allergies

(B)  they may alter genes

(C)  they may cause mutations and release toxins

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

168. Aquatic reptiles are

(A)  ammonotelic

(B)  ureotelic

(C)  ureotelic in water

(D)  ureotelic over land

Answer: (B)

169. Function of iris is to

(A)  move lens forward and backward

(B)  refract light rays

(C)  bring about movements of eye lids

(D)  alter the size of pupil

Answer: (D)

170. The aquatic fem, which is an excellent biofertilizer, is

(A)  Azolla

(B)  pteridium

(C)  Salvinia

(D)  Marselia

Answer: (A)

171. In a standard ECG, which one of the following Alphabets is the correct representation of the respective Activity of the human heart?

(A)  R-repolarisation of ventricles

(B)  S-start of systole

(C)  T-end of diastole

(D)  P-depolarisation of the atria

Answer: (D)

172. Total number of bones in the hind limb of man is

(A)  14

(B)  30

(C)  24

(D)  21

Answer: (D)

173. The most environmental hazards were created by Accidents in nuclear power plant and MIC gas tragedy Respectively in

(A)  Russia in 1990 and Bhopal in 1986

(B)  Ukrain in 1988 and USA in 1984

(C)  Bhopal in 1984 and Russia in 1990

(D)  Ukrain in 1986 and Bhopal 1984

Answer: (D)

174. Meiosis-II performs

(A)  separation of sex chromosomes

(B)  synthesis of DNA and centromeres

(C)  separation of homologous chromosomes

(D)  separation of chromatids

Answer: (D)

175. Sequence of which of the following is used to know the Phylogeny?

(A)  mRNA

(B)  rRNA

(C)  tRNA

(D)  DNA

Answer: (B)

176. During which stage, in the complete oxidation of Glucose are the greatest number of ATP molecules Formed from ADP?

(A)  glycolysis

(B)  krebs cycle

(C)  conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co-A

(D)  electron transport chain

Answer: (D)

177. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent evidence in Favour of evolution. This evidence comes from the field of

(A)  Biogeography

(B)  Anatomy

(C)  Embryology

(D)  Palaeontology

Answer: (A)

178. Movement of auxins is

(A)  Centripetal

(B)  basipetal

(C)  Acropetal

(D)  Both (B) and (C)

Answer: (D)

179. Agene pair hides the effect of another. The phenomenon is

(A)  epistasis

(B)  dominance

(C)  mutation

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

180. Radioactive thymidine when added to the medium surrounding living mammalian cells gets incorporated into the newly synthesized DNA. Which of the following types of chromatin is expected to become Radioactive if cells are exposed radioactive radioactive thymidine As soon as they enter the S-shape?

(A)  Heterochromatin

(B)  Euchromatin

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  Neither heterochromatin nor euchromatin but only the nucleolus

Answer: (B)

181. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?

(A)  Hashish causes alter thought perceptions and Hallueinations.

(B)  Opium stimulates nervous system and causes Hallucinations.

(C)  Morphine leads to delusions and distributed Comolions.

(D)  Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary Euphoria.

Answer: (A)

182. Flight muscles of bird are attached to

(A)  clavicle

(B)  keel of sternum

(C)  scapul

(D)  coracoid

Answer: (B)

183. During cleavage, what is TRUE about cells?

(A)  Nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains unchaged.

(B)  Size does not increase.

(C)  There is less consumption of oxygen.

(D)  The division is like meiosis.

Answer: (B)

184. Pyrenoids are the centres for formation of

(A)  prophyra

(B)  enzymes

(C)  fat

(D)  starch

Answer: (D)

185. Who discovered plasmodium in RBC of human beings?

(A)  Ronald Ross

(B)  Mendel

(C)  Laveran

(D)  Stephen

Answer: (C)

186. Modifications by germ line gene therapy are heritable as the Functional gene is incorporated into

(A)  their genome

(B)  one of the gene

(C)  Somatic cells

(D)  All of these

Answer: (A)

187. In soil, water available for roots (to plants) is

(A)  capillary water

(B)  hygroscopic water

(C)  gravitational water

(D)  chemically bound water

Answer: (A)

188. Suppression of reproduction of one type of organism of utilizing some features of its biology or Physiology to destroy it or by use of another organism is known as

(A)  Competition

(B)  Predation

(C)  Biological control

(D)  Physiological control

Answer: (B)

189. Which one of the following proved effective for biological control of nematodal diseases plants?

(A)  Pisoighusrinctorius

(B)  Pseudomonas cepacia

(C)  Glioclodiumvircns

(D)  Paccilomyceslilacinus

Answer: (D)

190. Which one belongs to Monera?

(A)  Amoeba

(B)  Escherichia

(C)  Gelidium

(D)  Spirogyra

Answer: (B)

191. The Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of

(A)  Oxygen

(B)  Hydrogen

(C)  Chlorine

(D)  Sulphur dioxide

Answer: (D)

192. Study of fossils is

(A)  Palaeoncology

(B)  Herpetology

(C)  Saurology

(D)  Organic evolution

Answer: (A)

193. A patient suffering from cholera is given saline drip because

(A)  Cl-ions are important component of blood plasma

(B)  Nations help to retain water in the body

(C)  Na+ ions are important in transport of substances across membrane

(D)  Cl-ions help in the formation of HCl in stomach For digestion

Answer: (B)

194. Gonads develop from embryonic

(A)  ecodermn

(B)  endoderm

(C)  mesoderm

(D)  Both (B) and (C)

Answer: (C)

195. Which of the following cranial nerves can regulate Heart beat?

(A)  X

(B)  IX

(C)  VIII

(D)  VII

Answer: (A)

196. Random genetic drift in a population probably results from

(A)  constant low mutation rate

(B)  large population size

(C)  highly genetically variable individuals

(D)  interbreeding within this population

Answer: (D)

197. A deltoid ridge occurs in

(A)  radius

(B)  ulna

(C)  femur

(D)  humerus

Answer: (D)

198. The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian crosses are called

(A)  multiple alleles

(B)  allelomorphs

(C)  aliolori

(D)  paramorphs

Answer: (B)

199. Golgi apparacus is absent in

(A)  higher plans

(B)  Yeast

(C)  bacteria and orange-green algae

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

200. In general, in the developmental history of a of Mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through A two-chambered fish like heart, three-chambered a Frog like heart and finally to four-chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statements by approximated?

(A)  Hardy-Weinberg law

(B)  Lamarkc’s principle

(C)  Biogenetic law

(D)  Mendelian principles

Answer: (C)

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2012 Question Paper With Answer Key

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2012
Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2012 Question Paper With Answer Key

Air Force Common Admission Test

(AFCAT) -1/2012

Directions (Qs. 1-5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

Pablo Picasso showed his truly exceptional talent from a very young age. His first word was lapis (Spanish for pencil) and he  learnt to draw before he could talk. He was the only son in the family and very good-looking, so he was thoroughly spoilt. He hated school and often refused to go unless his doting parents allowed him to take one of his father’s pet pigeons with him.

   Apart from pigeons, his great love was art and when in 1891 his father, who was an amateur artist, got a job as a drawing teacher at a college, Pablo went with him to the college. He often watched his father paint and sometimes was allowed to help. One evening his father was painting a picture of their pigeons when he had to leave the room. He returned to find that Pablo had completed and picture, and it was so amazingly beautiful and lifelike that he gave his son his own palette and brushes and never painted again. Pablo was just thirteen.

1. As a boy Pablo Picasso was

(A)  Ordinary looking but talented.

(B)  Handsome and talented.

(C)  Handsome and studious.

(D)  Handsome and hardworking.

Answer: (B)

2. He was spoilt mostly because he was

(A)  A smart boy.

(B)  Loved by one and all.

(C)  The only son in the family.

(D)  Always surrounded by notorious boys.

Answer: (C)

3. Picasso went to school only when

(A)  His friends accompanied him.

(B)  His father went with him.

(C)  He was allowed to paint at school.

(D)  He was allowed to carry a pet with him.

Answer: (D)

4. When his father painted in the college, Pablo

(A)  Occasionally helped him.

(B)  Rarely helped him.

(C)  Always helped him.

(D)  Invariably helped him.

Answer: (A)

5. Pablo’s father gave up painting because he

(A)  Did not like the job.

(B)  Retired from the college.

(C)  Was impressed by his son’s talent.

(D)  Lost interest in painting.

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 6-10): In each of the following questions, find out which part has an error.

6. The boss was irritated (A)/by him neglecting (B)/the duties and (C)/ not listening to his advice (D).

Answer: (B)

7. Each of the three (A)/beggars were (B)/asking for more (C)/ food to eat (D).

Answer: (B)

8. My brother sent (A)/two pairs (B)/of shoe (C)/from America (D).

Answer: (C)

9. The young boy said (A)/that he (B)/neither liked me (C)/nor my wife (D).

Answer: (C)

10. He was (A)/congratulated for (B)/ his success in (C)/ the 100 m race (D).

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 11-15): Pick up the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. Sanjay was _____ with divine vision to see the great battle.

(A)  Demure

(B)  Authorized

(C)  Endowed

(D)  Uttered

Answer: (C)

12. There was so much _____ material in the essay that it was difficult to get the author’s message.

(A)  Variegated

(B)  Superficial

(C)  Extraneous

(D)  Exemplary

Answer: (C)

13. The world is so constructed that if you wish to enjoy its pleasures, you must also _____ its pains.

(A)  Deny

(B)  Neglect

(C)  Ignore

(D)  Endure

Answer: (D)

14. Indian press did not give _____ to the British publicity.

(A)  Credence

(B)  Scion

(C)  Augury

(D)  Opportunity

Answer: (A)

15. Travellers _______ their reservations well in advance if they want to travel during the Diwali holidays.

(A)  has better to get

(B)  has better get

(C)  has to get better

(D)  had better got

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 16-18): In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals.

16. EMANCIPATE

(A)  Set free

(B)  Exist

(C)  Correct morally

(D)  Restrain

Answer: (A)

17. DECEIT

(A)  Simplicity

(B)  Gentility

(C)  Sincerity

(D)  Dishonesty

Answer: (D)

18. ADMONITION

(A)  Thrash

(B)  Hindrance

(C)  Warning

(D)  Exhort

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 19-20): In each of the following, choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.

19. VOCIFEROUS

(A)  Laudable

(B)  Quiet

(C)  Dangerous

(D)  Powerful

Answer: (B)

20. IMPLICATE

(A)  Involve

(B)  Exonerate

(C)  Corrupt

(D)  Accuse

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 21-40): Choose the correct answer.

21. The person who is regarded as the greatest law giver of ancient India is

(A)  Panini

(B)  Kautilya

(C)  Manu

(D)  Patanjali

Answer: (C)

22. The immortal fame of Ashoka largely rests upon

(A)  His conversion to Buddhism and its propagation.

(B)  His policy for the welfare of his subjects.

(C)  His work in the sphere of politics and moral teaching.

(D)  His extensive conquests.

Answer: (B)

23. Gandhiji started Dandi March

(A)  The demonstrate against the British Empire.

(B)  To break the salt law.

(C)  To boycott foreign goods.

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

24. The first war of Indian Independence began on 10 May 1857 at

(A)  Meerut

(B)  Jhansi

(C)  Barrackpore

(D)  Delhi

Answer: (A)

25. The sun rises in Arunachal Pradesh two hours before it does in Dwaraka in Gujarat. This is because the former is

(A)  Higher in elevation than Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East.

(B)  Situated further North than Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East.

(C)  Situated further East (about 30° Longitude) than Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East.

(D)  Situated about 30° East of Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East.

Answer: (C)

26. Srinagar is situated on the banks of the river

(A)  Ravi

(B)  Sutlej

(C)  Jhelum

(D)  Chenab

Answer: (C)

27. The areas in India that receive approximately an average of more than 200 cms of rainfall annually are

(A)  Meghalaya, Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh.

(B)  Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra

(C)  Meghalaya, Assam, Rajasthan, Jammu & Kashmir

(D)  Meghalaya, Delhi, Punjab, Rajasthan

Answer: (A)

28. Isotherms are imaginary lines drawn on a map which connect places of equal

(A)  Atmospheric pressure

(B)  Humidity

(C)  Rainfall

(D)  Temperature

Answer: (D)

29. Jim Corbett National Park is situated in which state?

(A)  Arunachal Pradesh

(B)  Himachal Pradesh

(C)  Andhra Pradesh

(D)  Uttarakhand

Answer: (D)

30. Which one of the following statement regarding the sun is correct?

(A)  The sun is composed mainly of hydrogen.

(B)  Its energy is generated by nuclear collision in its interior.

(C)  It is calculated that the sun consumes about a trillion pounds of hydrogen every second.

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

31. Supersonic speed is speed greater than the speed of sound (in air at sea level) that is to say around ______ miles/hour.

(A)  760

(B)  860

(C)  960

(D)  1060

Answer: (A)

32. Yoga Sutra was written by

(A)  Vatsyayana

(B)  Patanjali

(C)  Bhratrihari

(D)  Maharshi Mahesh

Answer: (B)

33. The National Institute of Oceanography is located at

(A)  Trivandrum

(B)  Panaji

(C)  Cochin

(D)  Mangalore

Answer: (B)

34. An aeroplance rises because

(A)  Of upward reaction of air.

(B)  The density of air above the plane is less than below it.

(C)  The pressure above its wings is less than the pressure below them.

(D)  Its nose points upwards.

Answer: (C)

35. Rocks formed on the solidification of molten matter are called

(A)  Metamorphic rocks

(B)  Sedimentary rocks

(C)  Volcanic rocks

(D)  Igneous rocks

Answer: (D)

36. The pioneer of Atomic energy in India is

(A)  Homi J. Bhabha

(B)  Vikram Sarabhai

(C)  C. V. Raman

(D)  C. K. Naidu

Answer: (A)

37. Which one of the following statements regarding FIFA World Cup 2010 is not correct?

(A)  South Africa became the first host nation to fail to qualify for the tournament’s second round.

(B)  The tournament was the culmination of a qualification process that began in August 2007.

(C)  This is the first time that the tournament was hosted by an African nation.

(D)  Zakumi, the official mascot for the FIFA World Cup, 2010 is an African bush elephant.

Answer: (A)

38. The first Indian to win the World Amateur Snooker Championship is

(A)  Om Agarwal

(B)  Geet Sethi

(C)  Michael Ferreira

(D)  Wilson Jones

Answer: (A)

39. The first person to win the Arjuna award for badminton is

(A)  Pullela Gopichand

(B)  Prakash Padukone

(C)  Nandu Natekar

(D)  Farook Engineer

Answer: (C)

40. The sport which requires the largest field is

(A)  Football

(B)  Cricket

(C)  Hockey

(D)  Polo

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 41-45): Find the odd one out.

41.

(A)  Advice

(B)  Counsel

(C)  Direct

(D)  Suggest

Answer: (C)

42.

(A)  Tumble

(B)  Topple

(C)  Crumble

(D)  Sprain

Answer: (D)

43.

(A)  Sobriquet

(B)  Alias

(C)  Pseudonym

(D)  Anonymous

Answer: (A)

44.

(A)  Mumbai

(B)  Goa

(C)  Visakhapatnam

(D)  Thiruvananthapuram

Answer: (D)

45.

(A)  Petrol

(B)  Acetone

(C)  Mercury

(D)  Kerosene

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 46-55): In the following questions, the words given bear a certain relationship. Your task is to find out from the choices the words with the same relationship.

46. Hope : Despair

(A)  Work : Failure

(B)  Worship : Adore

(C)  Cow : Milk

(D)  Encourage : Dishearten

Answer: (D)

47. Army : Logistics

(A)  War : Logic

(B)  Soldiers : Students

(C)  Business : Strategy

(D)  Team : Individual  

Answer: (C)

48. Bouquet : Flower

(A)  Skin : Body

(B)  Chain : Link

(C)  Product : Factory

(D)  Page : Book

Answer: (B)

49. Revenge : Vendetta

(A)  Sleep : Dream

(B)  Sun: Moon

(C)  Envy : Jealousy

(D)  Heaven : God

Answer: (C)

50. Refine : Style

(A)  Retouch : Photograph

(B)  Paint : Wall

(C)  Compose : Song

(D)  Author : Book

Answer: (A)

51. Fear : Tremble

(A)  Hand : Shake

(B)  Heat : Perspire

(C)  Distance : Walk

(D)  Evening : Star

Answer: (B)

52. Condone : Offence

(A)  Punish : Criminal

(B)  Mitigate : Penitence

(C)  Overlook : Aberration

(D)  Ignore : Loyalty

Answer: (C)

53. Plant : Flower

(A)  Face : Eye

(B)  Stem : Tree

(C)  Chair : Sofa

(D)  Blades : Grass

Answer: (A)

54. Protoplasm : Cell

(A)  Fibre : Plastic         

(B)  Coin : Money

(C)  Chemistry : Elements

(D)  Chain : Link

Answer: (B)

55. Nalanda : Takshshila

(A)  Venus : Mars

(B)  University : College

(C)  Office : Department

(D)  Ship : Cargo

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 51-60): In the following questions, the first word is related to the second in the same way as the third word is related to the fourth. Either the third or the fourth word is missing and is left blank. You have to choose the correct word to fill in the blank.

56. Foot is to Man as Hoof is to _______.

(A)  Dog

(B)  Cow

(C)  Cat

(D)  Rabbit

Answer: (B)

57. Broad is to Narrow as _______ is to Lane.

(A)  Footpath

(B)  Field

(C)  Pavement

(D)  Road

Answer: (D)

58. Back is to Backbone as Belly is to ______.

(A)  Throat

(B)  Ribs

(C)  Heart

(D)  Navel

Answer: (B)

59. Ankle is to Knee as Wrist is to ______.

(A)  Elbow

(B)  Finger

(C)  Hand

(D)  Foot

Answer: (A)

60. Sting is to Bee as _____ is to Snake.

(A)  Slithering

(B)  Rats

(C)  Poison

(D)  Fangs

Answer: (D)

61. Hari’s income is 20% more than Madhu’s income. Madhu’s income is less than Hari’s income by

(A)  15%

(B)  16.66%

(C)  20%

(D)  22.25%

Answer: (B)

62. A sum of money lent out at simple interest doubled itself in 20 years. In how many yeas wil it triple itself?

(A)  28  years

(B)  30 years

(C)  40 years

(D)  35 years

Answer: (C)

63. Which of the following fractions are in ascending order?

(A)  2/3, 3/5, 7/9, 9/11, 8/9

(B)  3/5, 2/3, 9/11, 7/9, 8/9

(C)  3/5, 2/3, 7/9, 9/11, 8/9

(D)  8/9, 9/11, 7/9, 2/3, 3/5

Answer: (C)

64. 337.62 + 8.591 + 34.4 = ?

(A)  370.611

(B)  380.511

(C)  380.611

(D)  426.97

Answer: (C)

65. Find the sum of : 

(A)  3/5

(B)  3/2

(C)  3/8

(D)  4/7

Answer: (C)

66. Find the average of all the numbers between 6 and 34 which are divisible by five.

(A)  18

(B)  20

(C)  24

(D)  30

Answer: (B)

67. The average of first 80 natural numbers is

(A)  40

(B)  41

(C)  40.5

(D)  142

Answer: (C)

68. If the sum of a few numbers is 450 and their mean is 50 and if another number 100 is included, the mean would become

(A)  55

(B)  60

(C)  75

(D)  150

Answer: (A)

69. ?% of 932 + 30 = 309.6

(A)  25

(B)  30

(C)  35

(D)  40

Answer: (B)

70. The difference between a number and its two-fifth is 510. What is 10% of that number?

(A)  12.75

(B)  85

(C)  204

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

71. One litre of water is evaporated from 6 litres of a solution containing 5% salt. The percentage of salt in the remaining solution is

(A)  16%

(B)  5%

(C)  4%

(D)  6%

Answer: (D)

72. A shopkeeper professes to sell all things at a discount of 10% but increases the Selling Price of each article by 20%. His gain on each article is

(A)  6%

(B)  8%

(C)  10%

(D)  12%

Answer: (B)

73. If the selling price of an article is 4/3rd of its cost price, the profit in transaction is

(A)  16.75%

(B)  20.50%

(C)  25.50%

(D)  33.33%

Answer: (D)

74. If the selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit per cent.

(A)  66.66

(B)  100

(C)  105.33

(D)  120

Answer: (B)

75. If 4/5th of an estate is worth Rs 16,800, then the value of 3/7th of the estate is

(A)  Rs 9000

(B)  Rs 21000

(C)  Rs 72000

(D)  Rs 90000

Answer: (A)

76. If  and 8a + 5b = 22, then the value of ‘a’ is

(A)  1

(B)  1/2

(C)  3/2

(D)  3/4

Answer: (C)

77. If (a – b) is 6 more than (c + d) and (a + b) is 3 less than (c – d), then the value of (a – c) is

(A)  0.5

(B)  1.0

(C)  1.5

(D)  2.0

Answer: (C)

78. Two numbers are in the ratio 7 : 8. If 3 is added to each of them their ratio becomes 8 : 9. The numbers are

(A)  14, 16

(B)  24, 27

(C)  21, 24

(D)  16, 18

Answer: (C)

79. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first to the second is 2 : 3 and that of the second to the third is 5 : 8, then the second number is

(A)  20

(B)  30

(C)  48

(D)  58

Answer: (B)

80. A certain amount was divided between Sita and Gita in the ratio 9 : 8. If Sita’s share was Rs 4500 then the amount is

(A)  Rs 9000

(B)  Rs 8500

(C)  Rs 6750

(D)  Rs 9025

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 81-84): Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in figure (X).

81. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

82. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

83. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

84. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

85. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 86-90): In reach of the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.

86. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

87. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

88. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

89. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

90. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 91-95): In each of the following questions, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains Fig. (X) as its part.

91. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

92. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

93. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

94. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

95. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 96-100): In each of the following questions, find out which of the answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) completes the figures matrix.

96. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

97. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

98. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

99. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

100. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2013 Question Paper With Answer Key

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2013
Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2013 Question Paper With Answer Key

Air Force Common Admission Test

(AFCAT) -1/2013

Directions (Qs. 1 to 5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

   We shall go on to the end, we shall fight in France, we shall fight on the seas and oceans, we shall fight with the growing confidence and strength in the air, we shall defend our island whatever the cost may be, we shall fight on the beaches, we shall fight on the landing grounds, we shall fight in the fields and in the streets, we shall fight in the hills. We shall never surrender, and even if this island or a large part of it were subjugated and starving, then our empire beyond the seas would carry on the struggle, until the New World steps forth to the rescue and the liberation of the Old.

1. On the basis of the passage which of the following statements may be said to be correct?

(A)  The speaker is encouraging his men for the conquest of France

(B)  The speaker is an aggressive and maniacal war-monger

(C)  The speaker is not satisfied with the conquest of the island

(D)  The speaker is a patriot urging the defence of his motherland

Answer: (D)

2. The speaker in the passage wants to go on fighting because:

(A)  He is a raving lunatic

(B)  He is in a state of utter despair

(C)  He expects help from other quarters

(D)  He is the leader of a suicide squad

Answer: (B)

3. Which of the following pair of the phrases helps best to bring out the intention of the speaker?

(A)  “Go on the end”, “shall never surrender”

(B)  “Growing confidence”, “subjugated and starving”

(C)  “Subjugated and starving”, “fighting on the landing ground”

(D)  “Fighting in the streets”, subjugated and starving”

Answer: (A)

4. The passage consists of repetitive patterns in syntax and vocabulary. The effect of th is style is that it:

(A)  Reveals the speaker’s defects in giving a speech

(B)  Produces the impression of bad poetry

(C)  Conveys the speaker’s helpless situation

(D)  Reinforces the speaker’s basic intention

Answer: (D)

5. The tone of the speaker is:

(A)  Pleading and urging

(B)  Inspiring and encouraging

(C)  Discouraging and gloomy

(D)  Menacing and bullying

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 6 to 8):  In each of the following, choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals.

6. MEDDLE

(A)  Disregard

(B)  Overlook

(C)  Interfere

(D)  Free

Answer: (C)

7. ABJURE

(A)  Renounce

(B)  Run off secretly

(C)  Abide

(D)  Discuss

Answer: (A)

8. Estrange

(A)  Endanger

(B)  To become puzzling

(C)  Miscalculate

(D)  Alienate

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 9 and 10): In each of the following, choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals:

9. DEROGATORY

(A)  Conferred

(B)  Immediate

(C)  Praising

(D)  Private

Answer: (C)

10. WANE

(A)  Widen

(B)  Poor

(C)  Swell

(D)  Tight

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 11 to 15): In each of the following questions, find out which part has an error.

11. The police has (A)/ arrested the thief (B)/ who broke into my house (C)/ last night (D).

Answer: (A)

12. The man who (A)/ they thought to be (B)/ a gentleman turned out (C)/ to be a rogue (D).

Answer: (D)

13. I told him on his face (A)/ that he could not hope (B)/ to pass the stringent (C)/ Medical examination of the Services Selection Board (D).

Answer: (B)

14. Mohan is one of those boys (A)/ who has expressed (B)/ willingness for joining (C)/ the educational tour (D).

Answer: (B)

15. I may spend (A)/this summer vacations (B)/with one of my friends (C)/in the back waters of Kerala (D).

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 16 to 20): Pick up the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

16. According to the weather ______ it is going to be cloudy today.

(A)  Announcement

(B)  Indication

(C)  Prediction

(D)  Forecast

Answer: (D)

17. The villagers ________ the murder of their leader by burning the police van.

(A)  Protested

(B)  Avenged

(C)  Mourned

(D)  Consoled

Answer: (A)

18. While on a routine flight, the aircraft was hit by a missile and _______ into flames.

(A)  Fired

(B)  Burst

(C)  Caught

(D)  Engulfed

Answer: (D)

19. Hari got the company car for a ______ price as he was the senior most employee in the company.

(A)  Reduced

(B)  Discounted

(C)  Fixed

(D)  Nominal

Answer: (B)

20. The unruly behavior of the soldiers _____ their commander.

(A)  Clashed

(B)  Aggrieved

(C)  Incensed

(D)  Impeached

Answer: (C)

21. Who accorded the title ‘Mahatma’ to MK Gandhi?

(A)  Sardar Patel

(B)  Jawaharlal Nehru

(C)  Sarojini Naidu

(D)  Rabindranath Tagore

Answer: (D)

22. The Non Co-operation Movement started in which year?

(A)  1900

(B)  1921

(C)  1940

(D)  1935

Answer: (B)

23. During the Middle Ages education was confined only to:

(A)  Kshatriyas

(B)  Brahmins

(C)  Peasants

(D)  Shudras

Answer: (B)

24. Who among the following was responsible for the spread of Buddhism in Sri Lanka?

(A)  Ashoka

(B)  Mahavira

(C)  Parsavanath

(D)  Chandra Gupta Maurya

Answer: (A)

25. The elements which have low value of ionization potential are strong:

(A)  Oxidising agents

(B)  Reducing agents

(C)  Oxidising and Reducing agents depending upon the reactants    

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

26. Wayne Rooney, the famous footballer, hails from which country?

(A)  Italy

(B)  Brazil

(C)  Argentina

(D)  England

Answer: (D)

27. The official song ‘WakaWaka’ of FIFA World Cup held in the year 2010 at South Africa was sung by which popular singer?

(A)  Madonna

(B)  Destiny Child

(C)  Shakira

(D)  Rehanna

Answer: (C)

28. In the year 2011, the ace badminton player Saina Nehwal was honoured with which sports award?

(A)  Dronacharya Award

(B)  Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award

(C)  Arjun Award

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

29. Term ‘Visible Horizon’ in astronomy is defined as:

(A)  The circle of contact of the earth and the cone of visual rays passing through the meridian of the place.

(B)  The circle of contact of the earth and the cone of visual rays not passing through the meridian of the place.

(C)  The circle of contact of the earth and the cone of visual rays passing through the point of observation.

(D)  The circle of contact of the earth and the cone of visual rays not passing through the point of observation.

Answer: (C)

30. NREGA stands for:

(A)  National Revenue Engagement Guarantee Association

(B)  National Revenue Employment Guarantee Act

(C)  National Rural Employment Guarantee Association

(D)  National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

Answer: (D)

31. River Satluj originates from:

(A)  Northern slopes of the Kailash range

(B)  Spring at Verinag

(C)  Rakas Lake

(D)  Amarkantak plateau

Answer: (C)

32. Limonitic ore is the ore of which metal?

(A)  Iron

(B)  Aluminium

(C)  Zinc

(D)  Cobalt

Answer: (A)

33. Black revolution relates to which of the following?

(A)  Self-dependence in foodgrains production

(B)  Self-dependence in milk production

(C)  Self-dependence in petroleum/crude oil

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

34. Karrar is the unmanned bomber aircraft of

(A)  Iraq

(B)  Iran

(C)  Turkey

(D)  Pakistan

Answer: (B)

35. Who is the author of book ‘Keeping the Faith: Memoirs of a Parliamentarian?

(A)  David Omand        

(B)  Raja Shehadeh

(C)  Raghav Bahl

(D)  Somnath Chatterjee

Answer: (D)

36. _______ is a thyroid hormone which controls the balance of calcium in the body.

(A)  Calcitonin

(B)  Thyroxine

(C)  Calmodulin

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

37. The cell wall in plants is interrupted by narrow pores carrying fine strands of cytoplasm which interlink the contents of the cells. These strands are called:

(A)  Plasmahole

(B)  Microvilli

(C)  Plasmodesmata

(D)  Plasmalemma

Answer: (C)

38. Who is the cricketer bestowed with an honorary commission in the Territorial Army?

(A)  Sachin Tendulkar

(B)  Kapil Dev

(C)  Virendra Sehwag

(D)  Harbhajan Singh

Answer: (B)

39. The transport phenomenon occurs only in ______ state of a gas and is ______.

(A)  Non-equilibrium, irreversible

(B)  Non-equilibrium, reversible

(C)  Equilibrium, irreversible

(D)  Equilibrium, reversible

Answer: (B)

40. Which of the following compounds form nitrites with nitrous acid?

(A)  Primary amines

(B)  Secondary amines

(C)  Tertiary amines

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

41. The number whose square is equal to the difference of the squares of 37 and 23 is:

(A)  45.09

(B)  28.98

(C)  47.09

(D)  28

Answer: (B)

42. The average age of 8 men is increased by 4 years when one of them whose ages is 30 years is replaced by a new man. What is the age of new man?

(A)  55  years

(B)  62 years

(C)  42 years

(D)  69 years

Answer: (B)

43. A vessel, full of water, weighs 24 kg. When the vessel is ¼ full, it weights 9 kg. Find the weight of empty vessel.

(A)  4 kg

(B)  5 kg

(C)  8 kg

(D)  3 kg

Answer: (A)

44. If a – b = 4 and ab = 45, find the value of a3 – b3.

(A)  604

(B)  370

(C)  253

(D)  199

Answer: (A)

45. If a/(a + b) = 15/21, what is (a + b)/(a – b) equal to?

(A)  13/9

(B)  23/11

(C)  14/5

(D)  21/9

Answer: (D)

46. 

(A)  2

(B)  6

(C)  4

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

47. A man’s average monthly expenditure for the first four months of the year was Rs 231.25. For the next five months, the average monthly expenditure was Rs 22.75 more than what is was during the first four months. If the person spent Rs 605 in all during the remaining three months of the year, find what percentage of his annual income of Rs 3500 did he save in the year?

(A)  10%

(B)  15%

(C)  20%

(D)  25%

Answer: (C)

48. The average age of students of a class is 15.8 years. The average age of boys in the class is 16.4 years and that of the girls is 15.4 years. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls in the class is:

(A)  1 : 2

(B)  2 : 3

(C)  3 : 4

(D)  3 : 5

Answer: (B)

49. 18 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 18 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank, if the capacity of the bucket is 12 litres?

(A)  12

(B)  13.5

(C)  24

(D)  Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Answer: (A)

50. Srinivasan invests two equal amounts in two banks giving 8% and 12% rate of interest respectively. At the end of year, the interest earned is Rs 1500. Find the sum invested in each.

(A)  Rs 8500

(B)  Rs 15000

(C)  Rs 7500

(D)  Rs 17000

Answer: (C)

51. The simple interest accrued on a sum of money at the end of four years is 1/5th of its principal. What is the rate of interest per annum?

(A)  4%

(B)  5%

(C)  6%

(D)  Inadequate data

Answer: (B)

52. A sum of Rs 2600 is lent out into parts, one at 9% and another at 7%. If the total annual income is Rs 206, find the money lent at 7%.

(A)  Rs 1400

(B)  Rs 900

(C)  Rs 1600

(D)  Rs 1200

Answer: (D)

53. In an election between two candidates, 70% of the voters cast their votes. Out of which 2% of the votes were declared invalid. A candidate got 7203 votes which was 60% of the total valid votes. Find the total number of voters enrolled in that election.

(A)  18050

(B)  17500

(C)  17000

(D)  7203

Answer: (B)

54. If the price of kerosene be raised by 11%, find by how much per cent a house holder must reduce his consumption of kerosene so as not to increase his expenditure?

(A)  11%

(B)  9.9%

(C)  11.09%

(D)  8.25%

Answer: (B)

55. 75 pupils from a school appeared for an examination and 80% of them passed. Another school entered 10 more pupils than the first school and five pupils less than the first school passed. The pass % of in the second school was:

(A)  75%

(B)  84%

(C)  72%

(D)  64.7%

Answer: (D)

56. Divide Rs 80 in the proportion of 3 : 6 : 7.

(A)  Rs 10, Rs 35, Rs 40

(B)  Rs 15, Rs 30, Rs 35           

(C)  Rs 15, Rs 35, Rs 30

(D)  Rs 10, Rs 40, Rs 35

Answer: (B)

57. Calculate the amount on Rs 1875 for 2 years at 4% per annum, compounded yearly.

(A)  Rs 676

(B)  Rs 776

(C)  Rs 1778

(D)  Rs 2028

Answer: (D)

58. If x varies as y and x = 8 when y = 15, then the value of x when y = 10 is :

(A)  5

(B)  15/8

(C)  8/15

(D)  16/3

Answer: (D)

59. In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 2 : 1. What amount of water must be added to make the ratio of milk and water as 1 : 2?

(A)  42 Litres

(B)  56 Litres

(C)  60 Litres

(D)  77 Litres

Answer: (C)

60. A sum of Rs 10,000 is lent partly at 6% and the remaining at 10% p.a. If the yearly interest on the average is 9.2%, the money lent at 10% is:

(A)  Rs 8000

(B)  Rs 8500

(C)  Rs 5000

(D)  Rs 2000

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 61 to 65): Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group

61.

(A)  Garo

(B)  Khasi

(C)  Kangra

(D)  Jayantia

Answer: (C)

62.

(A)  Vigro

(B)  Pisces

(C)  Cancer

(D)  Orion

Answer: (D)

63.

(A)  Shoulder

(B)  Foot

(C)  Finger

(D)  Elbow

Answer: (C)

64.

(A)  Canoe

(B)  Dingy

(C)  Yacht

(D)  Igloo

Answer: (D)

65.

(A)  Inn

(B)  Club

(C)  Motel

(D)  Hostel

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 66 to 70): The following questions consist of two words that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four alternatives. Select the best alternative that has the same relationship as the original pair of words

66. Liquor : Drink

(A)  Bread : Butter

(B)  Tea : Beverage

(C)  Sniff : Inhale

(D)  Water : Sip

Answer: (D)

67. Evaporation : Cloud

(A)  Mountain : Snow

(B)  Book : Pages

(C)  Pressure : Atmosphere

(D)  Tension : Breakdown

Answer: (D)

68. Barrel : Vial

(A)  Book : Pamphlet

(B)  Book : Reader

(C)  Brochure : Compiler

(D)  Length : Height

Answer: (A)

69. Cream : Cosmetics

(A)  Tiger : Forest

(B)  Mountain : Valley

(C)  Magazine : Editor

(D)  Teak : Wood

Answer: (D)

70. Carnivore : Herbivore

(A)  Flesh : Plant

(B)  Horse : Lion

(C)  Camel : Giraffe

(D)  Animal : Bird

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 71 to 80): Three words in bold letters are given in each question, which have something in common among themselves. Out of the four given alternatives, choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

71. Hamlet : Macbeth : Faustus

(A)  They were Princes.

(B)  They are plays by Shakespeare.

(C)  They are characters from various dramas.

(D)  They were romantic heroes.

Answer: (C)

72. Vesuvius : Etna : Kilimanjaro

(A)  These are sites of volcanoes.

(B)  These are island countries.

(C)  These are hills of Italy.

(D)  These lie in polar region.

Answer: (A)

73. Knot : Watt : Fathom

(A)  The terms are used by sailors.

(B)  The terms are used for installing electricity.

(C)  The terms are connected with rope.

(D)  They are units of measurement.

Answer: (D)

74. Barauni : Digboi : Ankleshwar

(A)  They are famous for oil fields

(B)  They are famous religious places.

(C)  They are tourist places of South India.

(D)  They are famous for handlooms.

Answer: (A)

75. Knight : Rook : Bishop

(A)  These are missionaries

(B)  These are churchmen.

(C)  These are chessmen.

(D)  These are ranks of military.

Answer: (C)

76. Abhi Bhattacharya : Utpal Dutt : Satyajit Ray

(A)  They are character actors.

(B)  They are directors of Bengali movies.

(C)  They are famous poets and writers.

(D)  These personalities belong to Bengal.

Answer: (D)

77. Voodoo : Sorcery : Necromancy

(A)  They are ancient arts found in sculptures.

(B)  They are terms connected with black magic.

(C)  They are ancient scripts.

(D)  They are means of communication of prehistoric age.

Answer: (B)

78. Rourkela : Bokaro : Durgapur

(A)  They are steel plants.

(B)  They have coal mines.

(C)  They have atomic power plants.

(D)  They are on the sea coast.

Answer: (A)

79. Spinach : Fenugreek : Celery

(A)  These are cactus plants.

(B)  These are wild plants.

(C)  These are wild flowers.

(D)  These are leafy vegetables.

Answer: (D)

80. Yeats : Ghalib : Kabir

(A)  They were social reformers.

(B)  They were famous poets.

(C)  They were saints.

(D)  They were yoga instructors.

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 81 to 85): There are two sets of figures namely the Problem figures containing five figures 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and answer figures A, B, C, D. You have to select one figure from the Answer figures which will continue the same series as given in the Problem figures.

81. 

Answer: (A)

82. 

Answer: (D)

83. 

Answer: (D)

84. 

Answer: (B)

85. 

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 86 to 90): The following situations involve a cluster of three or more geometrical figures, having one or more dots placed at any point inside the cluster. This cluster is followed by a set of four alternative figures each composed of a cluster of the same type of figures. Now, for each dot we have to observe the region in which it is enclosed i.e., in which of the geometrical figure this region is common.

   From amongst the figures marked A, B, C and D, select the figure which satisfied the same conditions of placement of the dot as in Fig. (X)

86. 

Answer: (D)

87. 

Answer: (C)

88. 

Answer: (C)

89. 

Answer: (A)

90. 

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 91 to 95): In this portion a figure is given as an original figure (X) followed by four answer figures. The original figure is embedded or hidden in one of the answer figures (A, B, C & D). Select the alternative that carries the correct figure which clearly shows the embedded portion of the original figure.

91. 

Answer: (D)

92. 

Answer: (D)

93. 

Answer: (B)

94. 

Answer: (D)

95. 

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 96 to 100): In each of the following questions, a part of the figure is missing. Find out from the given options A, B, C or D, the right figure to fit in the missing figure (X).

96. 

Answer: (C)

97. 

Answer: (D)

98. 

Answer: (B)

99. 

Answer: (B)

100. 

Answer: (A)

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2014 Question Paper With Answer Key

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2014
Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2014 Question Paper With Answer Key

Air Force Common Admission Test

(AFCAT) -1/2014

Directions (Qs. 1 to 4): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

   And then Gandhi came. He was like a powerful current of fresh air that made us stretch ourselves and take deep breaths, like a beam of light that pierced the darkness and removed the scales from our eyes, like a whirlwind that upset many things but most of all the working of people’s minds. He did not descend from the top; he seemed to emerge from the millions of India, speaking their language and incessantly drawing attention to them and their appalling condition. Get off the back of these peasants and workers, he told us, all of you who live b their exploitation; get rid of the system that produces this poverty and misery.

1. Gandhi came like a powerful current of fresh air and ……

(A)  awakened us to the plight of the masses in the grip of oppressors

(B)  made us patriotic

(C)  emboldened us to attack and destroy the oppressors

(D)  praised our culture

Answer: (A)

2. The rise of Gandhi ………

(A)  shocked people

(B)  made India powerful

(C)  made the condemnation of the exploiter final

(D)  made women feel secure

Answer: (C)

3. Gandhi fought the ………..

(A)  rich

(B)  oppressor

(C)  apathetic masses

(D)  unjust system

Answer: (D)

4. The conspicuous role of Gandhi is that of a ……..

(A)  father

(B)  reformer

(C)  teacher

(D)  liberator

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 5 to 10): Select the most appropriate word from the options against each number:

   Those living in the slums are 5 and tough because they are totally 6 to the vagaries and hardships of life. The rising sun 7 the day and the setting sun closes the day for them. It is like a drama where the curtain 8 up in the morning and comes down in the evening. They don’t 9 hypertension and heart attacks because there is, after all 10 to worry about.

5.

(A)  Poor

(B)  Sick

(C)  Hardy

(D)  Weak

Answer: (A)

6.

(A)  Dependent

(B)  Independent

(C)  Exposed

(D)  Tried

Answer: (C)

7.

(A)  Heralds

(B)  Herald

(C)  Bring

(D)  Brings

Answer: (A)

8.

(A)  Hangs

(B)  Hand

(C)  Goes

(D)  Shines

Answer: (C)

9.

(A)  Know

(B)  Get

(C)  Think

(D)  Have

Answer: (D)

10.

(A)  Everything

(B)  Something

(C)  Somewhere

(D)  Nothing

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 11 to 12): Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the given word.

11. ‘TRANSGRESSOR’

(A)  Passenger

(B)  Law-breaker

(C)  Protector

(D)  Comrade

Answer: (B)

12. ‘EGREGIOUS’

(A)  Common

(B)  Social

(C)  Plain

(D)  Atrocious

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 13 to 15): Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word.

13. ‘PREDILECTION’

(A)  Oblivion

(B)  Objectivity

(C)  Aversion

(D)  Defeat

Answer: (C)

14. ‘CACOPHONOUS’

(A)  Tamed

(B)  Harmonius

(C)  Domestic

(D)  Silent

Answer: (B)

15. ‘CALUMNY’

(A)  Apology

(B)  Eulogy

(C)  Enjoyment

(D)  Reservation

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 16 to 20): Choose the word that best defines the given phrase.

16. ‘Able to use both hands alike’

(A)  Dexterous

(B)  Ambidextrous

(C)  Skilful

(D)  Expert

Answer: (B)

17. ‘A written account of the life of an individual’

(A)  Autobiography

(B)  Epigraph

(C)  Biography

(D)  Novel

Answer: (C)

18. ‘The identification of a disease by its symptoms’

(A)  Prescription

(B)  Prognosis

(C)  Diagnosis

(D)  Biopsy

Answer: (C)

19. ‘Prolonged inability to sleep’

(A)  Amnesia

(B)  Utopia

(C)  Nausea

(D)  Insomnia

Answer: (D)

20. ‘A style in which a writer makes a display of his knowledge’

(A)  Verbose

(B)  Pedantic

(C)  Ornate

(D)  Pompous

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 21 to 25): Choose the correctly spelt word.

21. The school alumni gathering put us in a _______ mood.

(A)  Remniscent

(B)  Reminisent

(C)  Reminiscent

(D)  Reminicent

Answer: (C)

22. ‘God is a Dead’ is a ________ statement.

(A)  Blasphemus

(B)  Blaphemous           

(C)  Blasphemous

(D)  Blosphemos

Answer: (C)

23. The threat of an epidemic caused great alarm and ________.

(A)  Trepidation

(B)  Terpidation

(C)  Trepidition

(D)  Trepidattion

Answer: (A)

24. The din caused by the children howling is enough to ______ the dead.

(A)  Ressurect

(B)  Resurrect

(C)  Resurect

(D)  Resurecct

Answer: (B)

25. Can you ______ the car into that parking spot?

(A)  Manuer

(B)  Manever

(C)  Manoeuvre

(D)  Manuver

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 26 to 47): Choose the appropriate answer.

26. Who was the Governor-General of India during the ‘Sepoy Mutiny’?

(A)  Lord Dalhousie

(B)  Lord Harding

(C)  Lord Canning

(D)  Lord Lytton.

Answer: (C)

27. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A)  Goa attained full statehood in 1987

(B)  Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat

(C)  Daman & Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India

(D)  Dadar & Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954.

Answer: (D)

28. On which river is Washington DC situated?

(A)  Potomac

(B)  Irrawaddy

(C)  Mississippi

(D)  Hudson

Answer: (A)

29. When body is accelerated ………

(A)  Its velocity never changes

(B)  Its speed will always changes

(C)  Its direction always changes

(D)  Its speed may or may not change

Answer: (B)

30. Which of the following is not an agency of UN?

(A)  World Bank

(B)  International Atomic Energy Agency

(C)  Universal Postal Union

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (D)

31. Which kind of missile of BRAHMOS?

(A)  Medium range ballistic missile

(B)  Supersonic cruise missile

(C)  Short range tactical missile

(D)  Ultrasonic cruise missile

Answer: (B)

32. Which of the following is not a unit of energy?

(A)  Calorie

(B)  Joule

(C)  Electron volt

(D)  Watt

Answer: (C)

33. Who among the following has been called the ‘Napoleon of India’?

(A)  Ashoka

(B)  Samudragupta

(C)  Chandragupta

(D)  Harshavardhana

Answer: (B)

34. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old man of India’?

(A)  Dadabhai Naoroji

(B)  Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(C)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(D)  A. O. Hume

Answer: (A)

35. Which amongst t he following has the power to regulate the right of citizenship in India?

(A)  Union Cabinet

(B)  Parliament

(C)  Supreme Court

(D)  Law Commission

Answer: (B)

36. The Baglihar Hydroelectric power project in J & K is built across the river ……….

(A)  Beas

(B)  Chenab

(C)  Jhelum

(D)  Sutlej

Answer: (B)

37. Which Indian sportsperson was appointed ‘Messenger of Peace’ in 2001 by the UN?

(A)  Prakash Padukone

(B)  Vishwanathan Anand

(C)  Sachin Tendulkar

(D)  Vijay Amritraj

Answer: (D)

38. Indian Women’s hockey team secured which of the following position in Asian Champions Trophy, 2013?

(A)  First

(B)  Second

(C)  Third

(D)  Fourth

Answer: (C)

39. Which is the longest bone in the human body?

(A)  Fibula

(B)  Radius

(C)  Stapes

(D)  Femur

Answer: (D)

40. A US team of scientist has found that the mechanism responsible for the ageing process is located ………..

(A)  Inside the face

(B)  Inside the skin

(C)  Inside the brain

(D)  Inside the heart

Answer: (C)

41. The outer most layer of the Sun is known as ……….

(A)  Corona

(B)  Photosphere

(C)  Chromosphere

(D)  Granule

Answer: (A)

42. Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore was founded by …….

(A)  CV Raman

(B)  Jamshedji Tata

(C)  Vikram Sarabhai

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

43. Which among the following is not a gallantry medal?

(A)  Ashoka Chakra

(B)  Arjuna Award

(C)  Param Vir Chakra

(D)  Shaurya Chakra

Answer: (B)

44. Which one of the following pairs of water bodies are connected by the Suez Canal?

(A)  Indian Ocean – Pacific Ocean

(B)  Mediterranean Sea – Black Sea

(C)  Mediterranean Sea – Red Sea

(D)  Atlantic Ocean – Pacific Ocean

Answer: (C)

45. Kalhana’s ‘Rajatarangini’ is a history of …..

(A)  Kashmir

(B)  Harsha’s reign

(C)  Rajasthan

(D)  Chandragupta’s reign

Answer: (A)

46. The Constitution of India was promulgated on January 26, 1950 because …….

(A)  This day was being celebrated as the Independence Day since 1929

(B)  This was desired by the farmers of India

(C)  The British did not want to leave India earlier than this date

(D)  It was an auspicious day

Answer: (A)

47. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A)  Indonesia – Jakarta

(B)  Maldives – Male

(C)  North Korea – Seoul

(D)  Zimbabwe – Harare

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs.48 to 50): Complete the seires.

48. A, B, D, G, ?, P

(A)  I

(B)  J

(C)  K

(D)  L

Answer: (C)

49. Z, S, W, O, T, K, Q, G, ?, ?

(A)  N, D

(B)  N, C

(C)  O, C

(D)  O, D

Answer: (B)

50. BCD, RQP, LMN, TS?

(A)  U

(B)  V

(C)  R

(D)  T

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 51): If A = C, B – D, C = E and so on code the following.

51. ‘STUDENT’

(A)  VWVFGPV

(B)  UUWFGPV

(C)  UVWFGPV

(D)  UVVFGPV

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 52): If A = Z, B -= Y and so on, code the following.

52. ‘EDITOR’

(A)  VWRGLI

(B)  VWRGVI

(C)  VWVGLI

(D)  VWRLLI

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 53 to 55): Choose the most appropriate word.

53. ‘RUSTLE’ is to ‘LEAVES’ as ‘PATTER’ is to _______

(A)  Snow

(B)  Wind

(C)  Rain

(D)  Storm

Answer: (C)

54. ‘INDISCREET’ is to ‘IMPRUDENT’ as ‘INDISPOSED’ is to _______

(A)  Concerned

(B)  Reluctant

(C)  Crucial

(D)  Clear

Answer: (B)

55. ‘ACCIDENT’ is to ‘CAREFULNESS’ as ‘DISEASE’ is to _______

(A)  Sanitation

(B)  Treatment

(C)  Medicine

(D)  Doctor

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 56 to 58): Each of the following questions has four statements. Three are logically correct Some of which may look factually absurd. Ignore this absurdity and look to the logical corrections. Choose the statement which is wrong or doubtful.

56.

(A)  Birds fly in the air. Trees are birds. Therefore, trees fly in the air.

(B)  Some boys steal. All who steal are naughty. All naughty are honest. Therefore, some boys are honest

(C)  All girls like dance. Some girls are Indian. All Indians are artists. Therefore, some artists like dance.

(D)  All liars are not thieves. All thieves are criminals. Therefore, all liars are criminals.

Answer: (D)

57.

(A)  Ramesh is tall. Ramesh is a boy. Therefore, boys are tall.

(B)  All who can fly are animals. Some birds can fly. Therefore, some birds are animals.

(C)  Men live in houses. Houses grow on trees. Trees float in water. Therefore, men float in water.

(D)  All living things are mobile. Some non-living things are mobile. Therefore, some mobile are living and some non-living.

Answer: (A)

58.

(A)  All books can read. Some pencils are books. All pencils are clever. Therefore, all clever cannot read.

(B)  Some who fail are stupid. Some criminals are stupid. Therefore, all criminals fail.

(C)  Some liar are thieves. All thieves are criminals. Therefore, some liars are criminals.

(D)  All that is given is black. Trees are green. Therefore, trees are black.

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 59 to 60): Consider the statement and assumptions that follow. Which of these assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

59. Statement: “You won’t get sweets at any cost. I will not let you eat things that are not good for your teeth” – a mother tells her child

Assumptions:

(i) The mother cares for her child.

(ii) Sweets are not good for her child.

(iii) The mother has the authority to decide what her child is to eat.

(A)  (i) & (ii) are implicit.

(B)  (ii) & (iii) are implicit

(C)  (i) & (iii) are implicit

(D)  All are implicit

Answer: (A)

60. Statement: “Clearly, the judiciary cannot provide all answers. But it seems the public, weary of an inactive Executive, is turning to the Supreme Court as a last resort” – an article.

Assumptions:

(i) The Supreme Court is above the Executive.

(ii) The Supreme Court is more active than the Executive.

(iii) The Executive does not have sufficient powers.

(A)  (i) & (ii) are implicit

(B)  (ii) & (iii) are implicit

(C)  (i) & (iii) are implicit

(D)  Only (ii) is implicit

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 61 to 62): Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.

61.

(A)  Tsangpo

(B)  Hazaribagh

(C)  Kanha

(D)  Bandipur

Answer: (A)

62.

(A)  Wheat

(B)  Rice

(C)  Mustard

(D)  Gram

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 63 to 67): The following questions consist of two words that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four alternatives. Select the best alternative that has same relationship as the original pair of words.

63. Creche : Infants

(A)  School : Pupils

(B)  Deck : Sailors

(C)  Cottage : Guests

(D)  Aircraft : Crew

Answer: (C)

64. Pesticide : Plant

(A)  Injection : Disease

(B)  Vaccination : Body

(C)  Medicine : Cure

(D)  Teacher : Student

Answer: (B)

65. Stare : Glance

(A)  Gulp : Sip

(B)  Confide : tell

(C)  Hunt : Stalk

(D)  Step : Walk

Answer: (A)

66. Ecstasy : Pleasure

(A)  Hatred : Affection

(B)  Rage : Anger

(C)  Joy : Grief

(D)  Mumble : Speak

Answer: (B)

67. Necromancy : Ghosts

(A)  Romance : Stories

(B)  Magic : Amulets

(C)  Alchemy : Gold

(D)  Sorcery : Spirit

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 68 to 70): There is certain relationship between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given on another side of : : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the pair has. Select the best alternative/relationship.

68. Firm : Flabby : : Piquant : ?

(A)  Salty

(B)  Pleasant

(C)  Bland

(D)  Smell

Answer: (C)

69. Funk : Vitamins : : Curie : ?

(A)  Uranium

(B)  Radioactivity

(C)  Photography

(D)  Radium

Answer: (B)

70. Contamination : Food : : Infection : ?

(A)  Diseases

(B)  Body

(C)  Germs

(D)  Microbes

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 71 to 85): Choose the most appropriate answer.

71. An article costs Rs 50 presently. The rate of inflation is 300%. What will be cost of this article after two years?

(A)  Rs 200

(B)  Rs 600

(C)  Rs 800

(D)  Rs 1000

Answer: (C)

72. A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell his groceries at his cost price, but uses a false weight of 900 grams for each kilogram. Find his again percentage.

(A)  91/9%

(B)  100/9%

(C)  100/11%

(D)  95/9%

Answer: (B)

73. A man purchased a bullock and a cart for Rs 1800. He sold the bullock at a profit of 20% and the cart at a profit of 30%. His total profit was 155/6 %. Find the cost price of bullock.

(A)  Rs 650

(B)  Rs 750

(C)  Rs 900

(D)  Rs 800

Answer: (B)

74. There were 35 students in a hostel. If the number of students be increased by 7, the expenditure on food increases by Rs 42 per day while the average expenditure of students is reduced by Rs 1. What was the initial expenditure on food per day?

(A)  Rs 432

(B)  Rs 442

(C)  Rs 420

(D)  Rs 400

Answer: (C)

75. There were 24 students in a class. One of them, who was 18 years old, left the class and his place was filled up by a new comer. If the average of the class was thereby lowered by 1 month, the ago of new comer is

(A)  14 years

(B)  15 years

(C)  16 years

(D)  17 years

Answer: (C)

76. Find two natural numbers whose sun is 85 and the least common multiple is 102.

(A)  30 & 55

(B)  17 & 68

(C)  35 & 55

(D)  51 & 34

Answer: (D)

77. In a fort there was sufficient food for 200 soldiers for 31 days. After 27 days, 120 soldiers left the fort. For how many extra days will the rest of the food last for the remaining soldiers?

(A)  12 days

(B)  10 days

(C)  8 days

(D)  6 days

Answer: (D)

78. 10 is added to certain number, the sum is multiplied by 7, the product is divided by 5 and 5 is subtracted from the quotient. The remainder left is half of 88. What is the number?

(A)  21

(B)  20

(C)  25

(D)  30

Answer: (C)

79. 19 persons went to a hotel for a combined dinner party. 13 of them spent Rs 79 ach one their dinner and the rest spent Rs 4 more than the average expenditure of all the 19. What was the total money spent by them?

(A)  1628.4

(B)  1534

(C)  1492

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

80. Two typists of varying skills can do a typing job in 6 minutes if they work together. If the first typist typed alone for 4 minutes and then the second typist typed alone for 6 minutes, they would be left with 1/5 of the whole work. How many minutes would it take the slower typist to complete the typing job working alone?

(A)  10 minutes

(B)  15 minutes

(C)  12 minutes

(D)  20 minutes

Answer: (B)

81. A bag contains 25 paise, 50 paise and 1 Rs coins. There are 220 coins in all and the total amount in the bag is Rs 160. If there are thrice as many 1 Rs coins as there are 25 paise coins, then what is the number of 50 paise coins?

(A)  60

(B)  40

(C)  120

(D)  80

Answer: (A)

82. The sum of two numbers is equal to thrice their difference. If the smaller of the numbers is 10 find the other number.

(A)  15

(B)  30

(C)  40

(D)  None of thes

Answer: (D)

83. If a person repaid Rs 22500 after 10 years of borrowing a loan, at 10% per annum simple interest find out what amount did he take as a loan?

(A)  11,225

(B)  11,250

(C)  10,000

(D)  7,500

Answer: (B)

84. A sum of money invested at simple interest triples itself in 8 years. How many times will it become in 20 years time?

(A)  8 times

(B)  7 times

(C)  6 times

(D)  9 times

Answer: (C)

85. 

(A)  1

(B)  4

(C)  0.216

(D)  0.164

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 86 to 89): In these tests you will find an Incomplete Figure and four Answer Figures. You have to select one diagram from the Answer Figures which fits into the blank column in Incomplete figure in order to complete it:

86. 

Answer: (A)

87. 

Answer: (B)

88. 

Answer: (B)

89. 

Answer: (D)

90. 

(A)  LS

(B)  RQ

(C)  LM

(D)  LQ

Answer: (D)

91. 

(A)  SN

(B)  DZ

(C)  SM

(D)  SZ

Answer: (C)

92. 

(A)  PR

(B)  JR

(C)  GS

(D)  JK

Answer: (B)

93. 

(A)  BF

(B)  GB

(C)  BG

(D)  CG

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 94 to 97): In these tests find the odd figure out.

94. 

Answer: (D)

95. 

Answer: (B)

96. 

Answer: (B)

97. 

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 98 to 100): In these tests Figure X is Hidden in the option figures. Find the Correct option.

98. 

Answer: (B)

99. 

Answer: (C)

100. 

Answer: (A)

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2015 Question Paper with Answer Key

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2015
Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2015 Question Paper with Answer Key

Previous Paper

Airforce Common Admission Test

(AFCAT)-1/2015

Directions (Qs. No. 1-4): Which word or words explains the meaning of the following idioms:

1. In a jiffy

(A)  Outstanding

(B)  Suddenly

(C)  In a fix

(D)  Appropriate

Answer: (B)

2. Upto the hilt

(A)  Completely

(B)  Upto the mark

(C)  Upto the final decision

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

3. Man of Letters

(A)  Who writes too many letters

(B)  An important person

(C)  A politician

(D)  A literary person

Answer: (D)

4. Sangfroid

(A)  Composure

(B)  Go on leave

(C)  Changed Suddenly

(D)  Make an attempt

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. No. 5-10): Select the most appropriate word from the options against each number:

   As home entertainment, television is rapidly becoming more …(5)… than any other form. A news broadcast becomes more immediate when people …(6)… actually see the scene …(7)… question and the movement of the figures. Films could be viewed in the …(8)… of the home and a variety of shows are also available. One of the advantages of travel programmes is the …(9)… of far away places which many viewers would not …()… see.

5.

(A)  interesting

(B)  popular

(C)  powerful

(D)  purposeful

Answer: (B)

6.

(A)  could

(B)  would

(C)  might

(D)  shall

Answer: (A)

7.

(A)  of

(B)  with

(C)  as

(D)  in

Answer: (D)

8.

(A)  surroundings

(B)  assistance

(C)  comfort

(D)  privilege

Answer: (C)

9.

(A)  glimpses

(B)  image

(C)  portrait

(D)  picture

Answer: (A)

10.

(A)  possible

(B)  rather

(C)  else

(D)  otherwise

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. No. 11-14): Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the given word:

11. Sporadic

(A)  Epidemic

(B)  Whirling

(C)  Occasional

(D)  Stagnant

Answer: (C)

12. Genesis

(A)  Style

(B)  Beginning

(C)  Movement

(D)  Relevant

Answer: (B)

13. Intransigent

(A)  Authoritative

(B)  Impersonal

(C)  Strenuous

(D)  Unbending

Answer: (D)

14. Intimidate

(A)  Mislead

(B)  Misplace

(C)  Frighten

(D)  Demoralise

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. No. 15-18): Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word:

15. Clemency

(A)  Corporal

(B)  Intolerance

(C)  Compromise

(D)  Sensibility

Answer: (B)

16. Cajole

(A)  Nestle

(B)  Secede

(C)  Bully

(D)  Moisten

Answer: (C)

17. Malevolent

(A)  Kindly

(B)  Vacuous

(C)  Ambivalent

(D)  Primitive

Answer: (A)

18. Purgatory

(A)  Reward

(B)  Celestial

(C)  Flawless

(D)  Proximity

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 19-21): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it:

   In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three months old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young from demanding full access to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal at the expense of others. The smallest of the cubs forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing polar bears, I have only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn.

19. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

(I) Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non availability of prey.

(II) Polar bears always give birth no triplets.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are true?

(A)  I only

(B)  II only

(C)  Both I and II

(D)  Neither I nor II

Answer: (A)

20. Female polar bears given birth during

(A)  Spring

(B)  Summer

(C)  Autumn

(D)  Winter

Answer: (D)

21. Mother bear

(A)  Takes sides over cubs

(B)  Lets the cubs fend for themselves

(C)  Feeds only their favourites

(D)  Sees that all cubs get an equal share

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 22-25): Choose the word that best defines the given phrases:

22. A Curtain Lecture

(A)  To speak plainly

(B)  Vulgar Ideas

(C)  Private scolding of a husband by his wife

(D)  Hate others

Answer: (C)

23. Square pegs in round holes

(A)  A genuinely helpful person

(B)  A Clever person

(C)  People in the wrong jobs

(D)  To be perplexed

Answer: (C)

24. In weal and woe

(A)  By hook or crook

(B)  During illness

(C)  In prosperity and adversity

(D)  During the operation

Answer: (C)

25. Globetrotters

(A)  People against global philosophy

(B)  People indulging in treachery

(C)  Intelligent minds

(D)  Travellers around the world

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. No. 26-29): Choose the correctly spelt word:

26.

(A)  Konnoisseur

(B)  Conoisseur

(C)  Connoisseur

(D)  Konoisseur

Answer: (C)

27.

(A)  Munifisent

(B)  Muneficent

(C)  Munificent

(D)  Munificient

Answer: (C)

28.

(A)  Equanimity

(B)  Equannimity

(C)  Equanimmisty

(D)  Equinimity

Answer: (A)

29.

(A)  Vetarinary

(B)  Veteninary

(C)  Veterinary

(D)  Vetniary

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. No. 30-65): Choose the most appropriate answer:

30. A, B and C can do a piece of word in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?

(A)  12 days

(B)  15 days

(C)  16 days

(D)  18 days

Answer: (B)

31. A man can row  in still water and finds that it takes him thrice as much time to row up than to row down the same distance in the river. The speed of the current is

(A)    

(B)    

(C)    

(D)   

Answer: (C)

32. The speed of a boat in still water is 10 kmph. If it can travel 26 km downstream and 14 km upstream in the same time, the speed of the stream is

(A)  2 kmph

(B)  2.5 kmph

(C)  3 kmph

(D)  4 kmph

Answer: (C)

33. If a sum becomes double in 16 years, how many times will it be in 8 years?

(A)    

(B)   

(C)    

(D)   

Answer: (A)

34. In how many years will a sum of Rs 800 at 10% per annum compounded semi-annually become Rs 926.10?

(A)    

(B)   

(C)   

(D)    

Answer: (B)

35. A sells 2 TV sets, one at a loss of 15% and another at a profit of 15%. Find the loss/again percentage in the overall transaction?

(A)  2.25%

(B)  3%

(C)  4%

(D)  No profit, no loss

Answer: (D)

36. A man travelled from a point A to B at the rate of 25 kmph and walked back at the rate of 4 kmph. If the whole journey took 5 hrs 48 minutes, the distance between A and B is

(A)  30 km

(B)  24 km

(C)  20 km

(D)  51.6 km

Answer: (C)

37. A Train travelling at a uniform speed clears a platform 200 m long in 10 seconds and passes a telegraph post in 5 seconds. The speed of the train is

(A)  36 km/h

(B)  39 km/h

(C)  144 km/h

(D)  78 km/h

Answer: (C)

38. The price of sugar increases by 20% due to the festive season. By what percentage should a family reduce the consumption of sugar so that there is no change in the expenditure?

(A)  20%

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (C)

39. A’s salary is 20% lower than B’s salary, which is 15% lower than C’s salary. By how much per cent is C’s salary more than A’s salary?

(A)  44.05%

(B)  45.05%

(C)  46.05%

(D)  47.05%

Answer: (D)

40. The average weight of 5 men is increased by 2 kg when one of the men whose weight is 60 kg is replaced by a new man. The weight of the new man is

(A)  50 kg

(B)  65 kg

(C)  68 kg

(D)  70 kg

Answer: (D)

41. A and B can do a piece of work in 18 days; B and C can do it in 24 days, A and C can do it in 36 days. In how many days B alone can finish the work?

(A)  48 days

(B)  45 days

(C)   

(D)  144 days

Answer: (C)

42. The opposition party status is accorded to a political party in the Lok Sabha only if it captures at least

(A)  5% Seats

(B)  10% Seats

(C)  15% Seats

(D)  20% Seats

Answer: (B)

43. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘A Bend in the River’?

(A)  Chetan Bhagat

(B)  V. S. Naipaul

(C)  Kiran Desai

(D)  Anita Desai

Answer: (B)

44. ‘Long Walk to Freedom’ is a book written by

(A)  Sonia Gandhi

(B)  L. K. Advani

(C)  Nelson Mandela

(D)  Benazir Bhutto

Answer: (C)

45. Which sports personality has been awarded the honoarary rank of Group Captain by the IAF?

(A)  Kapil Dev

(B)  Sania Mirza

(C)  Saina Nehwal

(D)  Sachin Tendulkar

Answer: (D)

46. Which country among the following has been declared Ebola-free by WHO?

(A)  Sierra Leone

(B)  Liberia

(C)  Nigeria

(D)  Guinea

Answer: (C)

47. How many Gold Medals did India win in the Incheon Asian Games held in October 2014?

(A)  10

(B)  11

(C)  12

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

48. Who has been appointed as the new Finance Secretary of India?

(A)  Arvind Mayaram

(B)  Rajiv Mehrishi

(C)  Kaushik Basu

(D)  Dinesh Gupta

Answer: (B)

49. Which among the following is India’s first long range subsonic cruise missile?

(A)  Agni II

(B)  Prithvi

(C)  Dhanush

(D)  Nirbhay

Answer: (D)

50. The branch of science that studies cells is called

(A)  Cytology

(B)  Entomology

(C)  Homoplastic

(D)  Hormonology

Answer: (A)

51. How many Vice Presidents are elected at the start of its each regular session of UN General Assembly?

(A)  Nine

(B)  Fifteen

(C)  Two

(D)  Twenty one

Answer: (D)

52. The highest civilian award of India ‘Bharat Ratna’ has been awarded to only two foreigners so far. One of them is Nelson Mandela. The other is

(A)  Marshal Tito

(B)  Mikhail Gorbachev

(C)  Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

(D)  Abdul Wali Khan

Answer: (C)

53. Sir C.V. Raman was awarded Nobel Prize for his work connected with which of the following phenomenon of radiation?

(A)  Scattering

(B)  Diffracting

(C)  Interference

(D)  Polarisation

Answer: (A)

54. In which city is headquarters of Asian Development Bank located?

(A)  Manila

(B)  Singapore

(C)  Bangkok

(D)  Jakarta

Answer: (A)

55. K-15 missile is

(A)  Submarine launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM)

(B)  Inter Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM)

(C)  Medium Range Ballistic Missile (MRBM)

(D)  Short Range Ballistic Missile (SRBM)

Answer: (A)

56. India agreed to UN Chief Ban Ki-Moon’s offer to remain as a member of the advisory board of one of the following recently

(A)  UNCCT

(B)  UNICEF

(C)  UNEP

(D)  UNCTAD

Answer: (A)

57. Kaziranga National Park is famous for

(A)  One-horned Rhinos

(B)  Tigers

(C)  Swamp Dears (Barasingha)

(D)  Elephants

Answer: (A)

58. Who was the first Indian to win an individual medal in Olympics?

(A)  Milkha Singh

(B)  P. T. Usha

(C)  Karnam Malleshwari

(D)  K. D. Jadhav

Answer: (D)

59. Who among the following was the Congress President at Madras Session of 1927 when it boycotted the Simon Commission?

(A)  Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

(B)  M. A. Ansari

(C)  Lala Lajpat Rai

(D)  Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer: (B)

60. Why did Kalinga prove to be a turning point in the life of Ashoka?

(A)  Ashoka annexed Kalinga

(B)  It was the starting point of the expansion of his empire

(C)  Ashoka became a zealous Buddhist

(D)  It enabled Mauryan Empire to reach its climax

Answer: (C)

61. Which of the following wings was not part of the espionage system described by Kautilya?

(A)  Crime Branch

(B)  Special Branch

(C)  Political Branch

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

62. Alauddin Khalji did not build

(A)  Siri fort

(B)  Tomb of Jalauddin

(C)  Hauz-i-Alai

(D)  Jamaat Khana Masjid

Answer: (D)

63. Which of the following dynasties was ruling over North India at the time of Alexander’s invasion?

(A)  Nanda

(B)  Maurya

(C)  Sunga

(D)  Kanva

Answer: (A)

64. Which of the following Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs) is under development in India?

(A)  Agni-I

(B)  Agni-II

(C)  Agni-IV

(D)  Agni-VI

Answer: (D)

65. Who among the following was adjudged as the Most Valuable Player of the 17th Asian Games held at Incheon, South Korea?

(A)  Mary Kom of India

(B)  Kosuke Hagino of Japan

(C)  Ning Zetao of China

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 66-70): In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

66. East : Orient :: ? : ?

(A)  North : Polar

(B)  North : Tropic

(C)  South : Capricorn

(D)  West : Occident

Answer: (D)

67. Ignominy : Disloyalty : : ? : ?

(A)  Death : Victory

(B)  Martyr  : Man

(C)  Fame : Heroism

(D)  Destruction : Victory

Answer: (C)

68. Loath : Coercion : : ? : ?

(A)  Detest : Caressing

(B)  Irritate : Caressing

(C)  Irate : Antagonism

(D)  Reluctant : Persuasion

Answer: (D)

69. Trilogy : Novel : : ? : ?

(A)  Rice : Husk

(B)  Milk : Cream

(C)  Serial : Episode

(D)  Gun : Cartridge

Answer: (C)

70. Wife : Marriage : : ? : ?

(A)  Bank : Money

(B)  Nationality : Citizenship

(C)  Service : Qualification

(D)  Attendance : Register

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 71-75): Each of these questions given below contains three elements. These elements may or may not have some inter-linkage. Each group of elements may fit into one of these diagrams at A, B, C or D. You have to indicate the group of elements which correctly fits into the diagrams.

71. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Doctors, Human Beings and Married People?

Answer: (D)

72. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Children, Naughty and Studious?

Answer: (C)

73. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Thief, Criminal and Police?

Answer: (A)

74. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Man, Worker and Garden?

Answer: (D)

75. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Males, Cousins and Nephews?

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. No. 76-80): In each of the following questions, select a figure fro amongst the four alternative, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.

76. 

Answer: (B)

77. 

Answer: (D)

78. 

Answer: (D)

79. 

      

Answer: (C)

80. 

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. No. 81-85): Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked 1, 2, 3 4 and 5 called the Problem Figures followed by four other figures marked A, B, C and D called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

81. 

Answer: (D)

82. 

Answer: (C)

83. 

       

Answer: (C)

84. 

Answer: (C)

85. 

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. No. 86-90): In each of the following questions, four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is different. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

86. 

(A)  Othello

(B)  King Lear

(C)  Oliver Twist

(D)  Macbeth

Answer: (C)

87. 

(A)  Nimitz

(B)  Yamamoto

(C)  Nelson

(D)  Montgomery

Answer: (D)

88.

(A)  Blaze

(B)  Glint

(C)  Simmer

(D)  Shimmer

Answer: (C)

89.

(A)  Aravalli hills

(B)  Shivalik hills

(C)  Mole hills

(D)  Satpura hills

Answer: (C)

90.

(A)  Beaver

(B)  Alpaca

(C)  Walrus

(D)  Koala

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. No. 91-95): In each problem, out of the four figures marked A, B, C and D three are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other three. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

91. 

Answer: (C)

92. 

 

Answer: (D)

93. 

Answer: (D)

94. 

Answer: (A)

95. 

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. No. 96-100): Each of the following questions consist of two sets of figures. Figures 1, 2, 3 and 4 constitute the Problem Set while figures A, B C and D constitute the Answer Set. There is a definite relationship between figures 1 and 2. Establish a similar relationship between figures 3 and 4 by selecting a suitable figure from the Answer set that would replace the question mark (?) in fig. 4.

96. 

Answer: (A)

97. 

Answer: (D)

98.

Answer: (C)

99. 

Answer: (C)

100. 

Answer: (C)

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2017 Question Paper With Anwer Key

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2017
Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2017 Question Paper With Anwer Key

Previous Paper (Solved)

Air Force Common Admission Test

(AFCAT)-1 2017

1. Which religion was founded by Akbar?

(A)  Mahjan

(B)  Din-i-Ilahi

(C)  Aiwan-i-Khalsa

(D)  Din Panah

Answer: (B)

2. Who was army chief in October 2016?

(A)  Dalbir Singh Suhag

(B)  Bipin Rawat

(C)  J. J. Singh

(D)  Ramnath Goel

Answer: (A)

3. Who was navy chief in October 2016?

(A)  Ashok Malhotra

(B)  Vipin Tyagi

(C)  Sunil Lanba

(D)  Dalbir Sirohi

Answer: (C)

4. Yarlung Zangbo river in India is known as ……

(A)  Ganga

(B)  Gomati

(C)  Narmada

(D)  Brahamputra

Answer: (D)

5. Which is the highest tower of the world?

(A)  Sky tree

(B)  Big Ben Tower