JEE Advanced Past Exam 2019 Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

JEE (Advanced)-2019 PAPER-2

PART-I : PHYSICS

SECTION – 1 (Maximum Marks : 32)

• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.

• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).

• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;

Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;

Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and both of which are correct;

Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

• For example : in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then

choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;

choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;

choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;

choosing no option (i.e., the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and

choosing any other combination of options will get –1 mark.

1. A thin and uniform rod of mass M and length L is held vertical on a floor with large friction. The rod is released from rest so that it falls by rotating about its contact-point with the floor without slipping. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct, when the rod makes an angle 60° with vertical ?

[g is the acceleration due to gravity]

(A)  The angular speed of the rod will be 

(B)  The angular acceleration of the rod will be 2g/L

(C)  The radial acceleration of the rod’s center of mass will be 3g/4

(D)  The normal reaction force from the floor on the rod will be Mg/16

Answer: (A, C, D)

2. A block of mass 2M is attached to a massless spring with spring-constant k. This block is connected to two other blocks of masses M and 2M using two massless pulleys and strings. The accelerations of the blocks are a1 , a2 and a3 as shown in the figure. The system is released from rest with the spring in its unstretched state. The maximum extension of the spring is x0 . Which of the following option(s) is/are correct?

[g is the acceleration due to gravity. Neglect friction]

(A) 

(B)  When spring achieves an extension of x0/2 for the first time, the speed of the block connected to the spring is 

(C)  At an extension of x0/4 of the spring, the magnitude of acceleration of the block connected to the spring is 3g/10

(D)  a2 – a1 = a1 – a3

Answer: (D)

3. A small particle of mass m moving inside a heavy, hollow and straight tube along the tube axis undergoes elastic collision at two ends. The tube has no friction and it is closed at one end by a flat surface while the other end is fitted with a heavy movable flat piston as shown in figure. When the distance of the piston from closed end is L = L0 the particle speed is v = v 0 . The piston is moved inward at a very low speed V such that  where dL is the infinitesimal displacement of the piston. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A)  The rate at which the particle strikes the piston v/L

(B)  After each collision with the piston, the particle speed increases by 2V

(C)  If the piston moves inward by dL, the particle speed increases by 

(D) The particle’s kinetic energy increases by a factor of 4 when the piston is moved inward from L0 to

Answer: (B, D)

4. An electric dipole with dipole moment  is held fixed at the origin O in the presence of an uniform electric field of magnitude E0. If the potential is constant on a circle of radius R centered at the origin as shown in figure, then the correct statement(s) is/are:

0 is permittivity of free space. R >> dipole size)

(A) 

(B)  Total electric field at point A is 

(C)  Total electric field at point B is

(D)  The magnitude of total electric field on any two points of the circle will be same.

Answer: (A, C)

5. A mixture of ideal gas containing 5 moles of monatomic gas and 1 mole of rigid diatomic gas is initially at pressure P0 , volume V0 , and temperature T0 . If the gas mixture is adiabatically compressed to a volume V0 /4, then the correct statement(s) is/are, (Given 22 = 2.3; 23.2 = 9.2; R is gas constant)

(A)  The work |W| done during the process is 13RT0

(B)  The average kinetic energy of the gas mixture after compression is in between 18RT0 and 19RT0

(C)  The final pressure of the gas mixture after compression is in between 9P0 and 10P0

(D)  Adiabatic constant of the gas mixture is 1.6

Answer: (A, C, D)

6. Three glass cylinders of equal height H = 30 cm and same refractive index n = 1.5 are placed on a horizontal surface as shown in figure. Cylinder I has a flat top, cylinder II has a convex top and cylinder III has a concave top. The radii of curvature of the two curved tops are same (R = 3 m). If H1 , H2 , and H3 are the apparent depths of a point X on the bottom of the three cylinders, respectively, the correct statement(s) is/are:

(A)  H2 > H1

(B)  H3 > H1

(C)  H2 > H3

(D)  0.8 cm < (H2 – H1) < 0.9 cm

Answer: (A, C)

7. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the slit separation d is 0.3 mm and the screen distance D is 1 m. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm is incident on the slits at angle α as shown in figure. On the screen, the point O is equidistant from the slits and distance PO is 11.0 mm. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A)  For  there will be destructive interference at point O.

(B)  For α = 0, there will be constructive interference at point P.

(C)  For  there will be destructive interference at point P.

(D)  Fringe spacing depends on α.

Answer: (C)

8. A free hydrogen atom after absorbing a photon of wavelength λa gets excited from the state n = 1 to the state n = 4. Immediately after that the electron jumps to n = m state by emitting a photon of wavelength λe. Let the change in momentum of atom due to the absorption and the emission are ∆pa and ∆pe, respectively. If λae = 1/5, which of the option(s) is/are correct?

[Use hc = 1242 eV nm; 1 nm = 109 m, h and c are Planck’s constant and speed of light, respectively)

(A)  m = 2

(B)  λe = 418 nm

(C)  ∆pa/∆pe = 1/2

(D)  The ratio of kinetic energy of the electron in the state n = m to the state n = 1 is 1/4

Answer: (A, D)

SECTION – 2 (Maximum Marks : 18)

• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.

• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.

Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

9. A ball is thrown from ground at an angle θ with horizontal and with an initial speed u0. For the resulting projectile motion, the magnitude of average velocity of the ball up to the point when it hits the ground for the first time is V1 . After hitting the ground, the ball rebounds at the same angle θ but with a reduced speed of u0/α. Its motion continues for a long time as shown in figure. If the magnitude of average velocity of the ball for entire duration of motion is 0.8 V1, the value of α is _________.

Answer: (4)

10. A 10 cm long perfectly conducting wire PQ is moving with a velocity 1 cm/s on a pair of horizontal rails of zero resistance. One side of the rails is connected to an inductor L = 1 mH and a resistance R = 1 Ω as shown in figure. The horizontal rails, L and R lie in the same plane with a uniform magnetic field B = 1 T perpendicular to the plane. If the key S is closed at certain instant, the current in the circuit after 1 millisecond is x × 10–3 A, where the value of x is ______.

[Assume the velocity of wire PQ remains constant (1 cm/s) after key S is closed. Given: e–1 = 0.37, where e is base of the natural logarithm]

Answer: (0.62 to 0.64)

11. A monochromatic light is incident from air on a refracting surface of a prism of angle 75° and refractive index n0 = √ The other refracting surface of the prism is coated by a thin film of material of refractive index n as shown in figure. The light suffers total internal reflection at the coated prism surface for an incidence angle of θ ≤ 60°. The value of n2 is _______.

Answer: (1.50)

12. A perfectly reflecting mirror of mass M mounted on a spring constitutes a spring-mass system of angular frequency Ω such that  with h as Planck’s constant, N photons of wavelength λ = 8π × 10–6 m strike the mirror simultaneously at normal incidence such that the mirror gets displaced by 1 μ If the value of N is x × 1012, then the value of x is _______.

[Consider the spring as massless]

Answer: (1)

13. Suppose a  nucleus at rest and in ground state undergoes α-decay to a nucleus in its excited state. The kinetic energy of the emitted α particle is found to be 4.44 MeV.  nucleus then goes to its ground state by γ-decay. The energy of the emitted γ photon is _______ keV.

[Given: atomic mass of  atomic mass of  atomic mass of α particle = 4.00 u, 1 u = 931 MeV/c2, c is speed of the light]

Answer: (130 to 140)

14. An optical bench has 1.5 m long scale having four equal divisions in each cm. While measuring the focal length of a convex lens, the lens is kept at 75 cm mark of the scale and the object pin is kept at 45 cm mark. The image of the object pin on the other side of the lens overlaps with image pin that is kept at 135 cm mark. In this experiment, the percentage error in the measurement of the focal length of the lens is _______.

Answer: (1.35 to 1.45)

SECTION – 3 (Maximum Marks : 12)

• This section contains TWO (02) List-Match sets.

• Each List-Match set has TWO (02) Multiple Choice Questions.

• Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II.

• List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U).

• Four options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

Answer Q. 15 and Q. 16 by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph

A musical instrument is made using four different metal strings. 1, 2, 3 and 4 with mass per unit length μ, 2μ, and 4μ respectively. The instrument is played by vibrating the strings by varying the free length in between the range L0 and 2L0. It is found that in string-1 (μ) at free length L0 and tension T0 the fundamental mode frequency is f0

.List-I gives the above four strings while list-II lists the magnitude of some quantity.

15. If the tension in each string is T­0, the correct match for the highest fundamental frequency in f0 units will be.

(A)  I → P, II → Q, III → T, IV → S

(B)  I → P, II → R, III → S, IV → Q

(C)  I → Q, II → S, III → R, IV → P

(D)  I → Q, II → P, III → R, IV → T

Answer: (B)

16. The length of the strings 1, 2, 3 and 4 are kept fixed at L0, 3L0/2, 5L0/4, and 7L0/4, respectively. Strings 1, 2, 3 and 4 are vibrated at their 1st, 3rd, 5th, and 14th harmonics, respectively such that all the strings have same frequency. The correct match for the tension in the four strings in the units of T0 will be,

(A)  I → P, II → R, III → T, IV → U

(B)  I → P, II → Q, III → T, IV → U

(C)  I → P, II → Q, III → R, IV → T

(D)  I → T, II → Q, III → R, IV → U

Answer: (B)

Answer Q. 17 and Q. 18 by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph

Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph In a thermodynamic process on an ideal monatomic gas, the infinitesimal heat absorbed by the gas is given by T∆X, where T is temperature of the system and ∆X is the infinitesimal change in a thermodynamic quantity X of the system. For a mole of monatomic ideal gas  Here, R is gas constant, V is volume of gas, TA and VA are constants.

The List-I below gives some quantities involved in a process and List-II gives some possible values of these quantities.

17. If the process carried out on one mole of monatomic ideal gas is as shown in figure in the PV-diagram with  the correct match is,

(A)  I → Q, II → R, III → P, IV → U

(B)  I → Q, II → R, III → S, IV → U

(C)  I → S, II → R, III → Q, IV → T

(D)  I → Q, II → S, III → R, IV → U

Answer: (B)

18. If the process on one mole of monatomic ideal gas is as shown in the TV-diagram with the correct match is,

(A)  I → P, II → R, III → T, IV → S

(B)  I → P, II → T, III → Q, IV → T

(C)  I → P, II → R, III → T, IV → P

(D)  I → S, II → T, III → Q, IV → U

Answer: (C)

JEE (ADVANCED) 2019 PAPER 2

PART-II CHEMISTRY

SECTION – 1 (Maximum Marks : 32)

• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.

• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).

• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;

Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;

Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and both of which are correct;

Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

• For example : in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then

choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;

choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;

choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;

choosing no option (i.e., the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and

choosing any other combination of options will get –1 mark.

1. The cyanide process of gold extraction involves leaching out gold from its ore with CN in the presence of Q in water to form R. Subsequently, R is treated with T to obtain Au and Z. Choose the correct option(s)

(A)  Q is O2

(B)  T is Zn

(C)  Z is [Zn(CN)4]2

(D)  R is [Au(CN)4]

Answer: (A, B, C)

2. With reference to aqua regia, choose the correct option(s).

(A)  Aqua regia is prepared by mixing conc. HCl and conc. HNO3 in 3 : 1 (v/v) ratio

(B)  Reaction of gold with aqua regia produces an anion having Au in +3 oxidation state

(C)  Reaction of gold with aqua regia produces NO2 in the absence of air

(D)  The yellow colour of aqua regia is due to the presence of NOCl and Cl2

Answer: (A, B, D)

3. Consider the following reactions (unbalanced)

Zn + hot conc. H2SO4 → G + R + X

Zn + conc. NaOH → T + Q

G + H2S + NH4OH →Z (a precipitate) + X + Y

Choose the correct option(s)

(A)  Z is dirty white in colour

(B)  The oxidation state of Zn in T is +1

(C)  R is a V-shaped molecule

(D)  Bond order of Q is in its ground state

Answer: (A, C, D)

4. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. Consider an electronic state Ψ of He+ whose energy, azimuthal quantum number and magnetic quantum number are –3.4 eV, 2 and 0, respectively. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true for the state Ψ?

(A)  It is a 4d state

(B)  It has 2 angular nodes

(C)  It has 3 radial nodes

(D)  The nuclear charge experienced by the electron in this state is less than 2e, where e is the magnitude of the electronic charge

Answer: (A, B)

5. Which of the following reactions produce(s) propane as a major product?

Answer: (A, C)

6. Choose the correct option(s) that give(s) an aromatic compound as the major product

Answer: (A, B)

7. Choose the correct option(s) for the following reaction sequence

Consider Q, R and S as major products

Answer: (C, D)

8. Choose the correct option(s) from the following

(A)  Natural rubber is polyisoprene containing trans alkene units

(B)  Nylon-6 has amide linkages

(C)  Teflon is prepared by heating tetrafluoroethene is presence of a persulphate catalyst pressure

(D)  Cellulose has only α-D-glucose units that are joined by glycosidic linkages

Answer: (B, C)

SECTION – 2 (Maximum Marks : 18)

• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.

• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.

Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

9. The amount of water produced (in g) in the oxidation of 1 mole of rhombic sulphur by conc. HNO3 to a compound with the highest oxidation state of sulphur is ___

Answer: (288.00 to 288.30)

10. Total number of cis N–Mn–Cl bond angles (that is, Mn–N and Mn–Cl bonds in cis positions) present in a molecule of cis-[Mn(en)2Cl2] complex is _________

(en = NH2CH2CH2NH2)

Answer: (6)

11. The decomposition reaction  is started in a closed cylinder under isothermal isochoric condition at an initial pressure of 1 atm. After Y × 103 s, the pressure inside the cylinder is found to be 1.45 atm. If the rate constant of the reaction is 5 × 10–4 s–1, assuming ideal gas behavior, the value of Y is __________.

Answer: (2.30 to 2.31)

12. The mole fraction of urea in an aqueous urea solution containing 900 g of water is 0.05. If the density of the solution is 1.2 g cm–3, the molarity of urea solution is ________

(Given data: molar masses of urea and water are 60 g mol1 and 18 g mol1, respectively)

Answer: (2.80 to 3.05)

13. Total number of hydroxyl groups present in a molecule of the major product P is ____

Answer: (6)

14. Total number of isomers, considering both structural and stereoisomers, of cyclic ethers with the molecular formula C4H8O is ____

Answer: (10)

SECTION – 3 (Maximum Marks : 12)

• This section contains TWO (02) List-Match sets.

• Each List-Match set has TWO (02) Multiple Choice Questions.

• Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II.

• List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U).

• Four options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

Answer Q. 15 and Q. 16 by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph

Consider the Bohr’s model of a one-electron atom where the electron moves around the nucleus. In the following, List-I contains some quantities for the nth orbit of the atom and List-II contains options showing how they depend on n.

15. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?

(A)  (I), (P)

(B)  (I), (T)

(C)  (II), (Q)

(D)  (II), (R)

Answer: (B)

16. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?

(A)  (III), (P)

(B)  (III), (S)

(C)  (IV), (Q)

(D)  (IV), (U)

Answer: (A)

Answer Q. 17 and Q. 18 by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph

List-I includes starting materials and reagents of selected chemical reactions List-II gives structures of compounds that may be formed as intermediate products and/or final products from the reactions of List-I.

17. Which of the following options has correct combination considering List-I and List-II?

(A)  (I), (Q), (T), (U)

(B)  (II), (P), (S), (T)

(C)  (II), (P), (S), (U)

(D)  (I), (S), (Q), (R)

Answer: (C

18. Which of the following options has correct combination considering List-I and List-II?

(A)  (III), (S), (R)

(B)  (IV), (Q), (U)

(C)  (III), (T), (U)

(D)  (IV), (Q), (R)

Answer: (D)

JEE (ADVANCED) 2019 PAPER 2

PART-III MATHEMATICS

SECTION – 1 (Maximum Marks : 32)

• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.

• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).

• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;

Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;

Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and both of which are correct;

Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

• For example : in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then

choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;

choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;

choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;

choosing no option (i.e., the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and

choosing any other combination of options will get –1 mark.

1. Let

where PkT denotes the transpose of the matrix Pk. Then which of the following options is/are correct?

(A) 

(B)  X is a symmetric matrix

(C)  The sum of diagonal entries of X is 18

(D)  X – 30I is an inverible matrix

Answer: (A, B, C)

2. Let x ∈ ℝ and let

and R = PQP1.

Then which of the following options is/are correct?

(A)  There exists a real number x such that PQ = QP

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  For x = 1, there exists a unit vector 

Answer: (B, C)

3. For non-negative integers n, let

Assuming cos1 x takes values in [0, π], which of the following options is/are correct?

(A)  f(4) = √3/2

(B) 

(C)  If α = tan(cos1 f(6)), then α2 + 2α – 1 = 0

(D)  sin(7 cos1f(5)) = 0

Answer: (A, C, D)

4. Let f : ℝ → ℝ be a function. We say that f has

PROPERTY 1  if  exists and is finite, and

PROPERTY 2 if  exists and is finite.

Then which of the following options is/are correct?

(A)  f(x) = |x| has PROPERTY 1

(B)  f(x) = x2/3 has PROPERTY 1

(C)  f(x) = x|x| has PROPERTY 2

(D)  f(x) = sin x has PROPERTY 2

Answer: (A, B)

5. Let

Let x1 < x2 < x3 < … < xn < … be all the points of local maximum of f

and y1 < y2 < y3 < … <  yn < … be all the points of local minimum of f.

Then which of the following options is/are correct?

(A)  x1 < y1

(B)  xn+1 – xn > 2 for every n

(C) 

(D)  |xn – yn| > 1 for every n

Answer: (B, C, D)

6. For a ∈ ℝ, |a| > 1, let

Then the possible value(s) of a is/are

(A)  −9

(B)  −6

(C)  7

(D)  8

Answer: (A, D)

7. Let f : ℝ → ℝ be given by f(x) = (x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 5). Define

Then which of the following options is/are correct?

(A)  F has a local minimum at x= 1

(B)  F has a local maximum at x = 2

(C)  F has two local maxima and one local minimum in (0, ∞)

(D)  F(x) ≠ 0 for all x ∈ (0, 5)

Answer: (A, B, D)

8. Three lines

are given. For which point(s) Q on L2 can we find a point P on L1 and a point R on L3 so that P, Q and R are collinear?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A, C)

SECTION – 2 (Maximum Marks : 18)

• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.

• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.

Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

9. Suppose

holds for some positive integer n. Then  equals___

Answer: (6.2)

10. Five persons A, B, C, D and E are seated in a circular arrangement. If each of them is given a hat of one of the three colours red, blue and green, then the number of ways of distributing the hats such that the persons seated in adjacent seats get different coloured hats is _____

Answer: (30)

11. Let |X| denote the number of elements in a set X. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} be a sample space, where each element is equally likely to occur. If A and B are independent events associated with S, then the number of ordered pairs (A, B) such that 1 ≤ |B| < |A|, equals ____

Answer: (422)

12. The value of

in the interval  equals_____

Answer: (0)

13. The value of the integral  equals___

Answer: (0.5)

14. Let  be two vectors. Consider a vector  α, β ∈ ℝ. If the projection of  on the vector  is 3√2, then the minimum value of  equals______

Answer: (18)

SECTION – 3 (Maximum Marks : 12)

• This section contains TWO (02) List-Match sets.

• Each List-Match set has TWO (02) Multiple Choice Questions.

• Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II.

• List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U).

• Four options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

Answer Q.15 and Q.16 by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph.

Let f(x) = sin(πcosx) and g(x) = cos(2πsinx) be two functions defined for x > 0. Define the following sets

whose elements are written in the increasing order :

X = {x : f(x) = 0},           Y = {x : f ʹ(x) = 0},

Z = {x : g(x) = 0},           W = {x : g ʹ(x) = 0}.

List-I contains the sets X, Y, Z and W. List-II contains some information regarding these sets.

15. Which of the following is the only CORRECT combination?

(A)  (I), (P), (R)

(B)  (II), (Q), (T)

(C)  (I), (Q), (U)

(D)  (II), (R), (S)

Answer: (B)

16. Which of the following is the only CORRECT combination?

(A)  (III), (R), (U)

(B)  (IV), (P), (R), (S)

(C)  (III), (P), (Q), (U)

(D)  (IV), (Q), (T)

Answer: (B)

Answer Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph.

Let the circles C1 : x2 + y2 = 9 and C2 : (x – 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = 16, intersect at the points X and Y. Suppose that another circle C3 : (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2 satisfies the following conditions :

(i) centre of C3 is collinear with the centres of C1 and C2,

(ii) C1 and C2 both lie inside C3, and

(iii)C3 touches C1 at M and C2 at N.

Let the line through X and Y intersect C3 at Z and W, and let a common tangent of C1 and C3 be a tangent to the parabola x2 = 8αy.

There are some expressions given in the List-I whose values are given in List-II below :

17. Which of the following is the only CORRECT combination?

(A)  (I), (S)

(B)  (I), (U)

(C)  (II), (Q)

(D)  (II), (T)

Answer: (C)

18. Which of the following is the only INCORRECT combination?

(A)  (I), (P)

(B)  (IV), (U)

(C)  (III), (R)

(D)  (IV), (S)

Answer: (D)

JEE Advanced Past Exam 2019 Paper-1 Question Paper With Answer Key

JEE (ADVANCED) 2019 PAPER-1

PART-1 PHYSICS

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)

• This Section contains Four (04) Questions.

• Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

• For each question, Choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)

Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

1. Consider a spherical gaseous cloud of mass density ρ (r) in free space where r is the radial distance from its center. The gaseous cloud is made of particles of equal mass m moving in circular orbits about the common center with the same kinetic energy K. The force acting on the particles is their mutual gravitational force. If ρ(r) is constant in time, the particle number density n(r) = ρ(r)/m is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

2. A thin spherical insulating shell of radius R carries a uniformly distributed charge such that the potential at its surface is V0. A hole with a small are α4πR2 (α<<1) is made on the shell without affecting the rest of the shell. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A)  The potential at the center of the shell is reduced by 2αV0

(B)  The magnitude of electric field at the center of the shell is reduced by 

(C)  The ratio of the potential at the center of the shell to that of the point at from center towards the hole will be 

(D)  The magnitude of electric at a point, located on all in passing through the hole and shell’s center, on a distance 2R from the center of the spherical shell will be reduced by

Answer: (C)

3. A current carrying wire heats a metal rod. The wire provides a constant power (P) to the rod. The metal rod is enclosed in an insulated container. It is observed that the temperature (T) in the metal rod changes with time (t) as

T(t) = T0(1+βt1/4),

where β is a constant with appropriate dimension while T0 is a constant with dimension of temperature. The heat capacity of the metal is,

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

4. In a radioactive sample,  nuclei either decay into stable  nuclei with decay constant 4.5 × 1010 per year or into stable nuclei with decay constant 0.5 × 1010 per year. Given that in this sample all the stable  nuclei are produced by the  nuclei only. In time t × 109 year, if the ratio  of the sum of stable  nuclei to the radioactive  nuclei is 99, the value of t will be, [Given : In 10 = 2.3]

(A)  1.15

(B)  9.2

(C)  2.3

(D)  4.6

Answer: (B)

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 32)

• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.

• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).

• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen.

Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;

Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which are correct;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.

• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then

choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;

choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;

choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;

choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and choosing any other combination of options will get −1 mark.

5. A cylindrical capillary tube of 0.2 mm radius is made by joining two capillaries T1 and T2 of different materials having water contact angles of 0° and 60°, respectively. The capillary tube is dipped vertically in water in two different configurations, case I and II as shown in figure. Which of the following option(s) is(are) correct?

[Surface tension of water = 0.075 N/m, density of water = 1000 kg/m3, take g= 10 m/s2]

(A)  The correction in the height of water column raised in the tube, due to weight of water contained in the meniscus, will be different for both cases.

(B)  For case II, if the capillary joint is 5 cm above the water surface, the height of water column raised in the tube will be 3.75 cm. (Neglect the weight of the water in the meniscus)

(C)  For case I, if the joint is kept at 8 cm above the water surface, the height of water column in the tube will be 7.5 cm. (Neglect the weight of the water in the meniscus)

(D)  For case I, if the capillary joint is 5 cm above the water surface, the height of water column raised in the tube will be more than 8.75 cm. (Neglect the weight of the water in the meniscus)

Answer: (A, B, C)

6. A conducting wire of parabolic shape, initially y = x2, is moving with velocity  in a non-uniform magnetic field  as shown in figure. If V0, B0, L and β are positive constant and ∆ϕ is the potential difference developed between the ends of the wire, then the correct statement(s) is/are:

(A) 

(B) 

(C)  |∆ϕ| remains the same if the parabolic wire is replaced by a straight wire, y = x initially, of length √2 L

(D)  |∆ϕ| is proportional to the length of the wire projected on the y-axis.

Answer: (B, C, D)

7. In the circuit shown, initially there is no charge on capacitors and keys S1 and S2 are open. The values of the capacitors are C1 = 10 μF, C2 = 30 μF and C3 = C4 = 80 μF.

Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?

(A)  At time t = 0, the key S1 is closed, the instantaneous current in the closed circuit will be 25 mA.

(B)  If key S1 is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully charged, the voltage across the capacitor C1 will be 4 V.

(C)  The key S1 is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully charged. Now key S2 is closed, at this time, the instantaneous current across 30 Ω resistor ( between points P and Q) will be 0.2 A (round off to 1st decimal place).

(D)  If key S1 is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully charged, the voltage difference between points P and Q will be 10 V.

Answer: (A, B)

8. A charged shell of radius R carries a total charge Q. Given Φ as the flux of electric field through a closed cylindrical surface of height h, radius r and with its center same as that of the shell. Here, center of the cylinder is a point on the axis of the cylinder which is equidistant from its top and bottom surfaces. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct?

0 is the permittivity of free space]

(A)  If h > 2R and r > R then Φ = Q/ϵ0

(B)  If h < 8R/5 and r = 3R/5 then Φ = 0

(C)  If h > 2R and r = 3R/5 then Φ = Q/5ϵ0

(D)  If h > 2R and r = 4R/5 then Φ = Q/5ϵ0

Answer: (A, B, C)

9. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas goes through a thermodynamic cycle, as shown in the volume versus temperature (V-T) diagram. The correct statement(S) is/are:

[R is the gas constant]

(A)  Work done in this thermodynamic cycle 

(B)  The above thermodynamic cycle exhibits only isochoric and adiabatic processes.

(C)  The ratio of heat transfer during processes 

(D)  The ratio of heat transfer during processes 

Answer: (A, C)

10. A thin convex lens is made of two materials with refractive indices n1 and n2, as shown in figure. The radius of curvature of the left and right spherical surface are equal. f is the focal length of the lens when n1 = n2 = n. The focal lengths is f + ∆f when n1 = n and n2 = n + ∆ Assuming ∆n << (n – 1) and 1 < n < 2, the correct statement(s) is/are,

(A) 

(B)  For n = 1.5, ∆n = 103 and f = 20 cm, the value of |∆f| will be 0.02 cm (round off to 2nd decimal place).

(C) 

(D)  The relation between  remains unchanged if both the convex surfaces are replaced by concave surfaces of the same radius of curvature.

Answer: (B, C, D)

11. Let us consider a system of units in which mass and angular momentum are dimensionaless. If length has dimension of L, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A)  The dimension of linear momentum is L1

(B)  The dimension of energy is L2

(C)  The dimension of force is L3

(D)  The dimension of power is L5

Answer: (A, B, C)

12. Two identical moving coil galvanometer have 10 Ω resistance full scale deflection at 2 μA current. One of them is converted into a voltmeter of 100 mV full scale reading and the other into an Ammeter of 1mA full scale current using appropriate resistors. These are then used to measure the voltage and current in the Ohm’s law experiment with R = 1000 Ω resistor by using an ideal cell. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A)  The resistance of the Voltmeter will be 100 kΩ

(B)  The resistance of the Ammeter will be 0.02 Ω (round off to 2nd decimal place)

(C)  The measured value of R will be 978 Ω < R < 982 Ω

(D)  If the ideal cell is replaced by a cell having internal resistance of 5 Ω then the measured value of R will be more than 1000 Ω

Answer: (B, C)

SECTION-3 (Maximum Marks : 18)

• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.

• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered;

Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

13. A particle is moved along a path AB-BC-CD-DE-EF-FA, as shown in figure, in presence of a force  where x and y are in meter and α = −1 Nm1. The work done on the particle by this force  will be _____Joule.

Answer: (0.75)

14. A block of weight 100 N is suspended by copper and steel wires of same cross sectional area 0.5 cm2 and, length √3 m and 1 m, respectively. Their other ends are fixed on a ceiling as shown in figure. The angles subtended by copper and steel wires with ceiling are 30° and 60°, respectively. If elongation in copper wire is (∆lC) and elongation in steel wire is (∆lS), then the ratio 

Answer: (2)

15. A train S1, moving with a uniform velocity of 108 km/h, approaches another train S2 standing on a platform. An observer O moves with a uniform velocity of 36 km/h towards S2, as shown in figure. Both the trains are blowing whistles of same frequency 120 Hz. When O is 600 m away from S2 and distance between S1 and S2 is 800 m, the number of beats heard by O is______.

[Speed of the sound = 330 m/s]

Answer: ((7.00 to 10.00)

16. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C has spacing d between two plates having area A. The region between the plates is filled with N dielectric layers, parallel to its plates, each with thickness  The dielectric constant of the mth layer is  For a very large N (> 103), the capacitance C is  The value of α will be _______. [ϵ0 is the permittivity of free space]

Answer: ((0.99 to 1.01))

17. A liquid at 30°C is poured very slowly into a Calorimeter that is at temperature of 110° The boiling temperature of the liquid is 80°C. It is found that the first 5 gm of the liquid completely evaporates. After pouring another 80 gm of the liquid the equilibrium temperature is found to be 50°C. The ratio of the Latent heat of the liquid to its specific heat will be______°C.

[Neglect the heat exchange with surrounding]

Answer: (270)

18. A planar structure of length L and width W is made of two different optical media of refractive indices n1 = 1.5 and n2 = 1.44 as shown in figure. If L >>W, a ray entering from end AB will emerge from end CD only if the total internal reflection condition is met inside the structure. For L = 9.6 m, if the incident angle θ is varied, the maximum time taken by a ray to exit the place CD is t × 109 s, where t is ______.

[Speed of light c = 3 × 108 m/s]

Answer: (49 to 51)

JEE (ADVANCED) 2019 PAPER 1

PART-II CHEMISTRY

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)

• This Section contains Four (04) Questions.

•Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

• For each question, Choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)

Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

1. The green colour produced in the borax bead test of chromium (III) salt is due to

(A)  Cr(BO2)3

(B)  Cr2(B4O7)3

(C)  Cr2O3

(D)  CrB

Answer: (A)

2. Calamine, malachite, magnetite and cryolite, respectively, are

(A)  ZnSO4, CuCO3, Fe2O3, AlF3

(B)  ZnSO­4, Cu(OH)2, Fe3O4, Na3AlF6

(C)  ZnCO3, CuCO3∙Cu(OH)2, Fe3O4, Na3AlF6

(D)  ZnCO3, CuCO3, Fe2O3, Na3AlF6

Answer: (C)

3. Molar conductivity (Λm) of aqueous solution of sodium stearate, which behaves as a strong electrolyte, is recorded at varying concentrations (c) of sodium stearate. Which one of the following plots provides the correct representation of micelle formation in the solution?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

4. The correct of acid strength of the following carboxylic acids is

(A)  III > II > I > IV

(B)  I > II > III > IV

(C)  I > III > II > IV

(D)  II > I > IV > III

Answer: (B)

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 32)

• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.

• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).

• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen.

Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;

Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which are correct;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.

• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then

choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;

choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;

choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;

choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and choosing any other combination of options will get −1 mark.

5. A tin chloride Q undergoes the following reactions (not balanced)

Q + Cl → X

Q + Me3N → Y

Q + CuCl2 → Z + CuCl

X is an monoanion having pyramidal geometry. Both and Y and Z are neutral compounds. Choose the correct option(s)

(A)  The central atom in X is sp3 hyrbridized

(B)  There is a coordinate bond in Y

(C)  The oxidation state of the central atom in Z is +2

(D)  The central atom in Z has one lone pair of electrons

Answer: (A, B)

6. Fusion of MnO2 with KOH in presence of O2 produces a salt W. Alkaline solution of W upon electrolytic oxidation yields another salt X. The manganese containing ions present in W and X. respectively, are Y and Z. Correct statement(s) is (are)

(A)  In aqueous acidic solution, Y undergoes disproportionation reaction to give Z and MnO2

(B)  Both Y and Z are coloured and have tetrahedral shape

(C)  Y is diamagnetic in nature while Z is paramagnetic

(D)  In both Y and Z, π-bonding occurs between p-orbitals of oxygen and d-orbitals of manganese

Answer: (A, B, D)

7. Choose the reaction(s) from the following options, for which the standard enthalpy of reaction in equal to the standard enthalpy of formation.

(A)  2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O (l)

(B)  2C (g) + 3H2 (g) → C2H6 (g)

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C, D)

8. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct regarding the root mean square speed (Urms) and average translational kinetic energy (εav) of a molecule in a gas at equilibrium?

(A)  Urms is doubled when its temperature is increased four times

(B)  εav is doubled when its temperature is increased four times

(C)  εav at a given temperature does not depend on its molecular mass

(D)  Urms inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass

Answer: (A, C, D)

9. Each of the following options contains a set of four molecules. Identify the option(s) where all four molecules possess permanent dipole moment at room temperature.

(A)  BeCl2, CO2, BCl3, CHCl3

(B)  NO2, NH3, POCl3, CH3Cl

(C)  BF3, O3, SF6, XeF6

(D)  SO2, C6H5Cl, H2Se, BrF5

Answer: (B, D)

10. In the decay sequence,

x1, x2, x3 and x4 are particles/radiation emitted by the respective isotopes. The correct option(s) is(are)

(A)  x1 will deflect towards negatively charged plate

(B)  x2 is β

(C)  x3 is γ-ray

(D)  Z is an isotope of uranium

Answer: (A, B, D)

11. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true?

(A)  Monosaccharides cannot by hydrolysed to give polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones

(B)  Oxidation of glucose with bromine water gives glutamic acid

(C)  Hydrolysis of sucrose gives dextrorotatory glucose and laevorotatory fructose

(D)  The two six-membered cyclic hemiacetal forms of D-(+)-glucose are called anomers

Answer: (A, C, D)

12. Choose the correct option(s) for the following set of reactions

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C, D)

SECTION-3 (Maximum Marks : 18)

• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.

• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered;

Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

13. Among B2H6, B3N3H6, N2O, N2O4, H2S2O3 and H2S2O8, the total number of molecules containing covalent bond between two atoms of the same kind is _____

Answer: (4)

14. At 143 K, the reaction of XeF4 with O2F2 produces a xenon compound Y. The total number of lone pair(s) of electrons present on the whole molecule of Y is_____

Answer: (19)

15. For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc at 298 K is 1.6 × 1017.

Fe2+(aq) + S2 (aq) ⇌ FeS (s)

When equal volumes of 0.06 Fe2+ (aq) and 0.2 M S2− (aq) solutions are mixed, the equilibrium concentration of Fe2+ (aq) is found to be Y × 10−17 M. The value of Y is __________.

Answer: (8.70 to 9.10)

16. On dissolving 0.5 g of a non-volatile non-ionic solute to 39 g of benzene, its vapor pressure decreases from 650 mm Hg to 640 mm Hg. The depression of freezing point of benzene (in K) upon addition of the solute is

(Given data : Molar mass and the molal freezing point depression constant of benzene are 78 g mol1 and 5.12 K kg mol1, respectively)

Answer: (0.97 to 1.06)

17. Consider the kinetic data given in the following table for the reaction A + B + C → Product.

The rate of the reaction for [A] = 0.15 mol dm3, [B] = 0.25 mol dm3 and [C] = 0.15 mol dm3 is found to be Y × 105 mol dm3 s1. The value of Y is ______

Answer: (6.70 to 6.80)

18. Schemes 1 and 2 describe the conversion of P to Q and R to S, respectively. Scheme 3 describes the synthesis of T from Q and S. The total number of Br atoms in a molecule of T is ________.

Answer: (4)

JEE (ADVANCED) 2019 PAPER 1

PART-III MATHEMATICS

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)

• This Section contains Four (04) Questions.

• Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

• For each question, Choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)

Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

1. Let S be the set of all complex numbers Z satisfying |z – 2 + i| ≥ √ If the complex number z0 is such that  is the maximum of the set then the principal argument of  is

(A)  −π/2

(B)  π/4

(C)  π/2

(D)  3π/4

Answer: (A)

2. Let 

where α = α (θ) and β = β (θ) are real numbers, and I is the 2 × 2 identity matrix. If

α* is the minimum of the set {α(θ): θ ∈ [0, 2π)} and

β* is the minimum of the set {β(θ): θ ∈ [0, 2π)},

then the value of α* + β* is

(A)  −37/16

(B)  −31/16

(C)  −29/16

(D)  −17/16

Answer: (C)

3. A line y = mx + 1 intersects the circle (x – 3)2 + (y + 2)2 = 25 at the points P and Q. If the midpoint of the line segment PQ has x-coordinate −3/5, then which one of the following options is correct?

(A)  −3 ≤ m < −1

(B)  2 ≤ m < 4

(C)  4 ≤ m < 6

(D)  6 ≤ m < 8

Answer: (B)

4. The area of the region {(x, y) ; xy ≤ 8, 1 ≤ y ≤ x2} is

(A) 

(B) 

(C)  16 loge 2 – 6

(D) 

Answer: (A)

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 32)

• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.

• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).

• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen.

Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;

Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which are correct;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.

• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then

choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;

choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;

choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;

choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;

choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and choosing any other combination of options will get −1 mark.

5. Let α and β be the roots of x2 – x – 1 = 0, with α > β. For all positive integers n, define 

Then which of the following options is/are correct?

(A)  a1 + a2 + a3 + … + an = an+2 – 1 for all n ≥ 1

(B) 

(C)  bn = αn + βn for all n ≥ 1

(D) 

Answer: (A, B, C)

6. Let  and 

where a and b are real numbers. Which of the following option is/are correct?

(A)  a + b = 3

(B)  (adj M)1 + adj M1 = −M

(C)  det(adj M‑2) = 81

(D) 

Answer: (A, B, D)

7. There are three bags B1, B2 and B3. The bag B1 contains 5 red and 5 green balls, B2 contains 3 red and 5 green balls, and B3 contains 5 red and 3 green balls. Bags B1, B2 and B3 have probabilities 3/10, 3/10 and 4/10 respectively of being chosen. A bag is selected random and a ball is chosen at random from the bag. Then which of the following options is/are correct?

(A)  Probability that the chosen ball is green, given that the selected bag is B3, equals 3/8

(B)  Probability that the chosen ball is green equals 39/80

(C)  Probability that the selected bag is B3, given that the chosen ball is green, equals 5/13

(D)  Probability that the selected bag is B3 and the chosen ball is green equals 3/10

Answer: (A, B)

8. In a non-right-angled triangle ∆PQR, let p, q, r denote the lengths of the sides opposite to the angles at P, Q, R respectively. The median from R meets the side PQ at S, the perpendicular from P meets the side QR at E, and RS and PE intersect at O. If p = √3, q = 1, and the radius of the circumcircle of the ∆PQR equals 1, then which of the following options is/are correct?

(A)  Length of RS = √7/2

(B)  Area of ∆SOE = √3/12

(C)  Length of OE = 1/6

(D)  Radius of incircle of 

Answer: (A, C, D)

9. Define the collections {E1, E2, E3, …} of ellipses and {R1, R2, R3, …} of rectangles as follows:

R1 : rectangle of largest area, with sides parallel to the axes, inscribed in E1 :

En : ellipse  of largest area inscribed in Rn – 1, n > 1;

Rn : rectangle of largest area, with sides parallel to the axes, inscribed in En, n > 1.

Then which of the following options is/are correct?

(A)  The eccentricities of E18 and E19 are NOT equal

(B) for each positive integer N

(C)  The length of latus rectum of E9 is 1/6

(D)  The distance of a focus from the centre in E9 is √5/32

Answer: (B, C)

10. Let f : ℝ → ℝ be given by

Then which of the following options is/are correct?

(A)  f is increasing on (−∞, 0)

(B)  f ‘ has a local maximum at x = 1

(C)  f is onto

(D)  f ‘ is NOT differentiable at x = 1

Answer: (B, C, D)

11. Let Γ denote a curve y = y(x) which is in the first quadrant and let the point (1, 0) lie on it. Let the tangent to Γ at a point P intersect the y-axis at YP. If PYP has length 1 for each point P on Γ, then which of the following options is/are correct?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A, B)

12. Let L1 and L2 denote the lines

respectively. If L3 is a line which is perpendicular to both L1 and L2 and cuts both of them, then which of the following options describe(s) L3?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A, B, C)

SECTION-3 (Maximum Marks : 18)

• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.

•For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered;

Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

13. Let ω ≠ 1 be a cube root of unity. Then the minimum of the set

{|a + bω + cω2|2 : a, b, c distinct non-zero integers} equals ___

Answer: (3)

14. Let AP(a; d) denote the set of all the terms of an infinite arithmetic progression with first term a and common difference d > 0. If

AP(1; 3) ∩ AP(2; 5) ∩ AP(3; 7) = AP(a; d)

then a + d equals ______

Answer: (157)

15. Let S be the sample space of all 3 × 3 matrices with entries from the set {0, 1}. Let the events E­1 and E2 be given by

E1 = {A ∈ S : det A = 0} and

E2 = {A ∈ S : sum of entries of A is 7}.

If a matrix is chosen at random from S, then the conditional probability P(E1|E2) equals____

Answer: (0.5)

16. Let the point B be the reflection of the point A(2, 3) with respect to the line 8x – 6y – 23 = 0. Let ΓA and ΓB be circles of radii 2 and 1 with centres A and B respectively. Let T be a common tangent to the circles ΓA and ΓB such that both the circles are on the same side of T. If C is the point of intersection of T and line passing through A and B, then the length of the line segment AC is _____

Answer: (10)

17. If

then 27 I2 equals ______

Answer: (4)

18. Three lines are given by

Let the lines cut the plane x + y +z = 1 at the points A, B and C respectively. If the area of the triangle ABC is ∆ then the value of (6∆)2 equals _____

Answer: (0.75)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2017 With Answer Key

IGNOU B.Ed. 2017 Question Paper

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices given after each question that follows. White cement is the basic raw material for producing cement tiles and cement paint which are used extensively in building construction. The main consumers of white cement are, therefore, cement tile and cement paint manufacturing units. These consumers, mostly in the small scale sector, are today facing a major crisis because of a significant increase in the price of white cement during a short period. The present annual licensed production capacity of white and grey cement in the country is approximately 3.5 lakh tonnes. The average demand is 2-2.5 tonnes. This means that there is idle capacity to the tune of one lakh tonnes or more. The price rise is, therefore, not a phenomenon arising out of inadequate production capacity but evidently because of artificial scarcity created by the manufacturers in their self-interest. The main reason for the continuing spurt in cement price is its decontrol. As it is, there is stiff competition in the cement paint and tile manufacturing business. Any further price revision at this stage is bound to have a severe adverse impact on the market conditions. The Government should take adequate steps to ensure that suitable controls are brought in. Else it should allow import of cement.

1. Why is the price of white cement going up?

(A) Because the government is controlling the quota.

(B) Because of export of white cement.

(C) Because of the large usage of white cement.

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

2. Which of the following statements is false according to the passage?

(A) Price rise in white cement would increase the price of cement paint.

(B) White cement is a controlled product.

(C) Increase in price of white cement is not because of production problem.

(D) Price rise in white cement would upset cement tile market.

Answer: (B)

3. What is the crisis being faced by the cement tile manufacturers as described in the passage?

(A) White cement is priced very low.

(B) White cement is not of good quality.

(C) White cement usage is high.

(D) White cement prices are very high.

Answer: (D)

4. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word ‘idle’ as used in the passage?

(A) Lazy

(B) Clumsy

(C) Large

(D) Excess

Answer: (D)

5. Which of the following is correct according to the passage?

(A) White cement is not used in the manufacture of paint.

(B) White cement forms a minor part of tile manufacturing.

(C) White cement is used only for making paints.

(D)

Answer: (C)

6. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word ‘artificial’ as used in the passage?

(A) Unnatural

(B) Prolonged

(C) Deliberate

(D) Practical

Answer: (C)

7. What is the author’s suggestion to bring down prices?

(A) Government should control the white cement market.

(B) Production capacity should be increased.

(C) Usage of white cement in other areas should be reduced.

(D) Competition among manufactures of cement paints and tiles should be reduced.

Answer: (A)

8. Which of the following words has the opposite meaning as the word ‘basic’ as used in the passage?

(A) Vital

(B) Unimportant

(C) Acidic

(D) Last

Answer: (B)

9. Which of the following is correct according to the passage?

(A) Cement production capacity is more than usage.

(B) Cement production capacity is less than usage.

(C) Cement production capacity is equal to usage.

(D) Cement production capacity is twice than usage.

Answer: (A)

10. What can be presumed from the passage regarding foreign trade in cement?

(A) The country is exporting cement at present.

(B) The country is importing cement at present.

(C) The country is exporting and importing cement at present.

(D) The country is neither exporting nor importing cement at present.

Answer: (D)

Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-14): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

There are six members M, N, O, P, Q and R in a family. There are two married couples in family; N is the businessman and father of Q; R is the grandfather of O; and is a property dealer; P is the grandmother of Q and is a housewife; O is daughter of M; There are one businessman, one property dealer, one lady lecturer and two students in the family.

11. Who is father in law of M?

(A) P

(B) R

(C) N

(D) O

Answer: (B)

12. What is profession of M?

(A) Housewife

(B) Student

(C) Lecturer

(D) Property dealer

Answer: (C)

13. Who is sister of Q?

(A) O

(B) P

(C) M

(D) N

Answer: (A)

14. Which of the following are two married couples?

(A) MO and QR

(B) MN and PR

(C) PR and OQ

(D) MN and QR

Answer: (B)

15. Find the missing number:

(A) 46

(B) 32

(C) 20

(D) 16

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. No. 16-19) : In the following questions a series is being select from the alternatives the correct term to fill in the missing term.

16. 7, 21, 43, ___?___, 111, 157, 211

(A) 73

(B) 71

(C) 75

(D) 77

Answer: (A)

17. 6, 24, 60, 114, 186, ____?__.

(A) 276

(B) 290

(C) 272

(D) 280

Answer: (A)

18. 7, 13, 21, 31, 43, ___?___.

(A) 53

(B) 55

(C) 57

(D) 59

Answer: (C)

19. 3, 15, 35, 63, ___?___.

(A) 69

(B) 79

(C) 89

(D) 99

Answer: (D)

20. If PUZZLE is coded as LEPUZZ, then MENTAL will be coded as:

(A) ZZOPEM

(B) ZENSOM

(C) ALMENT

(D) MOSNET

Answer: (C)

21. If CONFRONTATION is coded as 5931793484693, then TORONTO will be coded as:

(A) 4797347

(B) 4393743

(C) 4898348

(D) 4979349

Answer: (D)

22. Which pair is different in some way from the others in the following?

(A) Town – Shandy

(B) Village – Mall

(C) City – Market

(D) Arcade – Shop

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 23-26) : Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

Geeta, Sita, Proila, Bhavana and Nafisa are five friends. Each one of has six balls : Geeta gives 3 balls to Nafisa who gives 4 balls to Promila. Bhavana gives 2 balls to Sita who gives 3 balls to Geeta. Promila gives 4 balls to Bhavana who gives 2 balls each to Nafisa and Geeta.

23. How many balls does Nafisa have?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 7

Answer: (D)

24. How many balls does Sita have?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 7

Answer: (B)

25. Who has the minimum number of balls?

(A) Bhavana

(B) Nafisa

(C) Sita

(D) Promila

Answer: (A)

26. Who has the maximum number of balls?

(A) Promila

(B) Nafisa

(C) Sita

(D) Geeta

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 27-30) : Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

A and B play Cricket and Hockey, B and D play Tennis, A and C play Volley-Ball and Tennis, C and D and E play Football.

27. Who plays Cricket, Hockey and Volley-ball?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (A)

28. Who plays only Football?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) D

(D) E

Answer: (D)

29. Who plays Tennis and Football?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (D)

30. Who plays Volley-ball and Football?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (C)

Section-III : Educational and General Awareness

31. World Population day is celebrated on:

(A) 19 July

(B) 11 July

(C) 15 July

(D) 17 July

Answer: (B)

32. Gandhiji made a dramatic bid for temple entry rights for untouchables in the year:

(A) 1940

(B) 1935

(C) 1930

(D) 1920

Answer: (*)

33. National Repository of Open Educational Resources (NROER) is being managed by:

(A) IGNOU

(B) NCERT

(C) UGC

(D) NUEPA

Answer: (B)

34. Who was the Editor of the Revolutionary Paper ‘Bande Matram’?

(A) Shyami Krishan Verma

(B) Bhikaji Cama

(C) V.D. Savarkar

(D) G.D. Savarkar

Answer: (B)

35. How many Nations had signed the charter of United Nations on 26th June, 1945?

(A) 64

(B) 61

(C) 52

(D) 51

Answer: (D)

36. Who among the following has termed Indian Federalism as “Co-operative Federalism?

(A) K.C. Wheare

(B) Morris Jones

(C) Granville Austin

(D) Jennings

Answer: (C)

37. By which year, the Union Cabinet on June 17, 2015 has proposed to provide ‘Housing for All’?

(A) 2030

(B) 2025

(C) 2022

(D) 2018

Answer: (C)

38. Which country topped the Global Innovation Index (GIL) 2015 that was released on 17 September, 2015?

(A) Switzerland

(B) United Kingdom

(C) Sweden

(D) The Netherlands

Answer: (A)

39. The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) is head quartered in:

(A) Paris (France)

(B) Vienna (Austria)

(C) New York (USA)

(D) Brussels (Belgium)

Answer: (C)

40. Which city is hosting the 2016 Olympic games?

(A) Seoul

(B) Barcelona

(C) Rio-De-Janerio

(D) Los Angeles

Answer: (C)

41. The main objective of ‘Sakshar Bharat’ is:

(A) to promote ‘education for all’

(B) to promote vocational education

(C) to promote vocational education

(D) to promote education for women

Answer: (D)

42. Under which article of t he Constitution the President of India has been empowered to promulgate ordinance?

(A) Article 356

(B) Article 360

(C) Article 200

(D) Article 123

Answer: (D)

43. Right to Education Act, 2009 is mainly concerned with:

(A) Higher Education

(B) Elementary Education

(C) Secondary Education

(D) Higher Secondary Education

Answer: (B)

44. Who is the author of the Book ‘Fundamental Unity of India’?

(A) Radhakumud Mukherji

(B) Jawaharlal Nehru

(C) Rajani Kothari

(D) Max Weber

Answer: (A)

45. In which year state reorganization commission gave its report on the basis of language?

(A) 1953

(B) 1954

(C) 1955

(D) 1956

Answer: (C)

46. According to United Nations Report released in July 2015, which of the following countries will become world’s most populous country by 2022?

(A) India

(B) China

(C) Pakistan

(D) Bangladesh

Answer: (A)

47. During September 2015, which of the following countries has published first report written by a ‘robot journalist’?

(A) Japan

(B) China

(C) Germany

(D) Switzerland

Answer: (B)

48. Where did Madam Cama hoist the first tricolor Flag in 1907?

(A) London

(B) Paris

(C) Moscow

(D) Stuttgart

Answer: (D)

49. Which committee/commission gave its specific recommendations to improve the conditions of Teacher Education in India?

(A) Hansa Mehta Committee

(B) Radha Krishnan Commission

(C) Justice Verma Commission

(D) National Knowledge Commission

Answer: (C)

50. “IEDSS” stands for:

(A) International Education for Disadvantaged at social stage

(B) Integrated Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage

(C) Inclusive Education for Disadvantaged at Secondary Stage

(D) Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage

Answer: (D)

51. Who among the following shall preside over the joint sitting at two houses of Parliament?

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Answer: (A)

52. Which article of the Constitution defines the duties of Chief Minister?

(A) 162

(B) 164

(C) 165

(D) 167

Answer: (D)

53. Light from the Sum reaches earth in:

(A) 8 minutes

(B) 2 minutes

(C) 6 minutes

(D) 4 minutes

Answer: (A)

54. Which one of the following was the last step in the Gandhian strategy of Satyagraha?

(A) Boy-Cott

(B) Picketing

(C) Fast

(D) Strike

Answer: (C)

55. Finances are distributed between the centre and the state on the recommendation of:

(A) Planning Commission

(B) Public Accounts Committee

(C) Finance Commission

(D) National Development Council

Answer: (C)

Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School

56. Determining, the aim of education is the responsibility of:

(A) Parents

(B) Teachers

(C) Students

(D) Society

Answer: (B)

57. The Schools through its programmes help students to:

(A) Assimilate culture

(B) Protest culture

(C) Ignore other cultures

(D) Make them cultured

Answer: (D)

58. To make all students interested in home work, it should be:

(A) Of equal level

(B) According to the ability of student

(C) Only from the book

(D) Out of the book

Answer: (B)

59. Navodaya schools have been established to:

(A) Increase number of schools in rural areas

(B) Provide good education in rural areas

(C) Complete “Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan”

(D) Check wastage of education in rural areas

Answer: (B)

60. The most important quality of an effective teacher is:

(A) Deep knowledge about the subject taught

(B) A strict disciplinarian

(C) Good rap port with the students

(D) A good motivator

Answer: (C)

61. The idea of basic education was propounded by:

(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C) Mahatma Gandhi

(D) Rabindra Nath Tagore

Answer: (C)

62. Individual attention is important in Teaching-learning process because:

(A) Learners always learn better in group

(B) Teacher training programmes prescribed it

(C) It offers better opportunities to teachers to discipline each learner

(D) Children develop at different rates and learn differently

Answer: (D)

63. If a child writes with his/her left hand and is comfortable doing things with it, she/he should be:

(A) Discouraged

(B) Made to write with left hand

(C) Allowed his preference

(D) Sent to seek medical help

Answer: (C)

64. Which of the following statements is true about “Learning”?

(A) Errors made by children indicate that no learning has taken place

(B) Learning is effective in an environment that is emotionally positive and satisfying for learners

(C) Learning is not affected by emotional factors at any stage of learning

(D) Learning is fundamentally a mental activity

Answer: (B)

65. It is advantage of giving home work that students:

(A) Remain busy at home

(B) Study at home

(C) May be checked for their progress

(D) May develop habit of self study

Answer: (D)

66. A field trip is arranged for:

(A) Making an excursion

(B) See other people doing things

(C) Note the meaning of action

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

67. Students are passive in:

(A) Project method

(B) Discovery method

(C) Lecture method

(D) Inquiry method

Answer: (C)

68. Demonstration effect means:

(A) Effect of advertisement

(B) Imitating effect of consumption

(C) Effect of entertainment

(D) Effect of an experiment

Answer: (B)

69. Dyslexia is a:

(A) Physical disability in which the ability to write is affected by dysfunctional fingers

(B) Form of reading disability linked with weak vision

(C) Learning difficulty to read fluently and with accurate comprehension despite average intelligence

(D) Language based learning difficulty associated with impaired hearing

Answer: (C)

70. If you find a student wearing some odd dress in you class, you will:

(A) Ask the student not to attend the class

(B) Make a joke on him

(C) Counsel him not to wear such clothes in a class

(D) Not p ay any attention

Answer: (C)

71. Some students are backward in studies. What will be you r attitude towards, them:

(A) Harsh

(B) Sympathetic

(C) Liberal

(D) Lovable

Answer: (B)

72. Play therapy is adopted in the study of children in order to:

(A) Make the educational process joyful

(B) To understand the inner motives and complexes of children

(C) Make education more activity centred

(D) Highlight the importance of play activities in education

Answer: (B)

73. The best remedy of the student’s problems related with learning is:

(A) Suggestion for hard work

(B) Supervised study in library

(C) Suggestion for private tuition

(D) Diagnostic teaching

Answer: (D)

74. In a democratic country like India, schools should concentrate on:

(A) Development of traits to face the hurdles of daily life

(B) Development of traits of a good citizenship

(C) Preparation for academic excellence

(D) Inculcation of values cherished by country

Answer: (D)

75. It can safely be assumed that a student understands a principle when He/She can:

(A) Give more examples of it

(B) Use it in solving problems to which it applies

(C) Recognize it again when He/She encounter it again

(D) Recall the principles as and when asked

Answer: (B)

76. Despite of your requests as an incharge of time table in the school, A teacher always comes late. In this situation, you will:

(A) Insult him in the presence of other teachers

(B) Advise him to come in time

(C) Report to the principal

(D) Remain indifferent to it

Answer: (C)

77. Every learner is unique means that:

(A) No two learners are alike in t heir abilities, interest and talents

(B) Learners do not have any common qualities, nor do they share common goals

(C) A common curriculum for all learners is not possible

(D) It is impossible to develop the potentials of learners in a heterogeneous class

Answer: (A)

78. The in-service teacher training can be made more effective by:

(A) Using training package which is well prepared in advance

(B) Making it residential programme

(C) Using co-operative approach

(D) Practicing training follow-up procedures

Answer: (C)

79. In NCTE-the B.Ed curriculum framework-2014 which of the following is emphasized ____ in education.

(A) IT (Information Technology)

(B) ICT (Information and Communication Technology)

(C) ET (Educational Technology)

(D) CT (Communication Technology)

Answer: (B)

80. How many senses a person uses while watching a film?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Answer: (C)

PART-B

Section-V : (i) Science

81. According to laws of refraction (i = Angle of incidence, r = Angle of refraction):

(A) i/r=constant

(B) sin i/sin r = constant

(C) sin i = sin r

(D) i and r are not related

Answer: (B)

82. For photosynthesis, the green plant needs:

(A) CO2

(B) light

(C) chlorophyll

(D) All of these

Answer: (D)

83. In aquatic plant Hydrilla, stomata are:

(A) Present on leaves

(B) Present on stem

(C) Present on roots

(D) Absent

Answer: (A)

84. Convex mirror can form:

(A) Only real image

(B) Only virtual image

(C) Both real as well as virtual images

(D) Only magnified images

Answer: (B)

85. The unit of Pressure is:

(A) Newton

(B) Newton per sq.m

(C) Per sq.m

(D) Joule

Answer: (B)

86. Polio is :

(A) Food borne disease

(B) Water borne disease

(C) Air borne disease

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

87. Two wires A and B are made of the same metal and are of equal lengths but their diameters are in the ratio 1 : 2. Their resistance RA and RB have the ratio:

(A) 1 : 4

(B) 1 : 2

(C) 2 : 1

(D) 4 : 1

Answer: (D)

88. According to Einstein the Energy (E), Mass (M) and Velocity of light (C) are related by the equation:

(A) E = M × C

(B) E = MC2

(C) E = M + C2

(D) E + M = C

Answer: (B)

89. Plant cell can do:

(A) Breathing and Respiration

(B) Respiration and Photosynthesis

(C) Breathing and Photosynthesis

(D) All of these

Answer: (B)

90. The wave length of X-rays is smaller than that of visible light and:

(A) It speed is more than that of visible light

(B) Its frequency is more than that of visible light

(C) Its speed less than that of visible light

(D) Its frequency is less than that of visible light

Answer: (A)

91. The two colours seen at the extreme ends of the pH charge are:

(A) Red and Blue

(B) Red and Green

(C) Green and Blue

(D) Yellow and Green

Answer: (A)

92. HIV is a:

(A) Disease

(B) Vaccine

(C) Virus

(D) Injection

Answer: (C)

93. A body is weighed in several liquids of relative densities 1.1, 1.2, 1.3 and 1.4. Its weight will be the least in the liquid of relative density:

(A) 1.1

(B) 1.2

(C) 1.3

(D) 1.4

Answer: (A)

94. A concave lens produces:

(A) Virtual image

(B) Diminished image

(C) Erect image

(D) All of these

Answer: (D)

95. When two wires of resistances 2 Ohms and 1 Ohm respectively are joined in parallel, their equivalent resistance is:

(A) < 1 Ohm

(B) 1 Ohm

(C) 2 Ohm

(D) > 2 Ohm

Answer: (A)

96. If red litmus is added to acetic acid solution:

(A) It changes to green

(B) It becomes blue

(C) It remains red

(D) It becomes colourless

Answer: (C)

97. Ultimate main source of energy on the earth is:

(A) Coal

(B) Fossil oil

(C) Sun

(D) Air

Answer: (C)

98. The Commercial unit of electric energy is:

(A) Horse Power

(B) Kilo Watt Hour

(C) Joule

(D) Watt hour

Answer: (B)

99. Destruction of forests has resulted in:

(A) Shortage of Rain

(B) Shortage of Natural Resources

(C) Danger to the lives of wild animals and birds

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

100. Use of Chlorofluorocarbons:

(A) Strengthens Ozone layer in the atmosphere

(B) Depletes Ozone layer

(C) Does not affect Ozone layer

(D) Is not a harmful

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (ii) Mathematics

101. The value of sin 60° cos 30° + sin 30° cos 60° is:

(A) 1/2

(B) 1

(C) −1

(D) 2

Answer: (B)

102. The value of 9sec2a – 9 tan2A is:

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 8

(D) 9

Answer: (D)

103. From the top of a 7 m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a cable tower is 60° and angle of depression of its foot is 45°. The height of tower is:

(A) 5(√3 + 1) m

(B) 5(√3 – 1)m

(C) 7(√3 – 1)m

(D) 7(√3+1)m

Answer: (D)

104. The sum of odd numbers between 0 and 50 is:

(A) 425

(B) 525

(C) 625

(D) 725

Answer: (C)

105. The value of is:

(A) 21

(B) 28

(C) 48

(D) 84

Answer: (D)

106. The value is  is:

(A) 6

(B) 36

(C) 216

(D) 18

Answer: (A)

107. A jar contains 24 marbles, some are green and others are blue. If a marble is drawn at random from the jar, then the probability that it is green is 2/3. The number of blue marbles in the jar is:

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

108. A die is thrown twice. The probability that 5 will come up at least one would be______.

(A) 25/36

(B) 11/36

(C) 5/36

(D) 10/36

Answer: (B)

109. Sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4 : 9. Areas of these triangles would be in the ratio ______.

(A) 2 : 3

(B) 4 : 9

(C) 81 : 16

(D) 16 : 81

Answer: (D)

110. The wheels of a car are of diameter 80 cm each. The car runs at a speed of 66 km per hour 10 minutes. The number of complete revolutions made by each wheel is______.

(A) 2640

(B) 3960

(C) 4375

(D) 4875

Answer: (C)

111. Metallic spheres of radii 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm, respectively, are melted to form a single solid sphere, the radius of this sphere would be______.

(A) 8 cm

(B) 12 cm

(C) 14 cm

(D) 16 cm

Answer: (B)

112. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of height 14 cm is 88 cm2. The diameter of the base of cylinder is:

(A) 4 cm

(B) 3 cm

(C) 2 cm

(D) 1 cm

Answer: (C)

113. A train which is 500 meter long crosses a 800 meter long platform in one minute five seconds. The speed of the train is______.

(A) 55 km/hr

(B) 65 km/hr

(C) 70 km/hr

(D) 72 km/hr

Answer: (D)

114. The ratio of father’s age to his son’s age is 7 : 3. The product of their ages is 756. The ratio of their ages after 6 y ears will be:

(A) 2 : 1

(B) 5 : 2

(C) 11 : 7

(D) 13 : 9

Answer: (A)

115. Two numbers are in the ratio of 7 : 4. If 12 is added to the smaller number, then ratio becomes 7 : 5, the bigger number is______.

(A) 77

(B) 84

(C) 91

(D) 98

Answer: (B)

116. In order to pass an examination, a minimum of 33% marks are required. A candidate obtaining 210 marks fails by 21 marks. The total marks for examination was_____.

(A) 700

(B) 600

(C) 550

(D) 500

Answer: (A)

117. A shopkeeper has marked selling price 20% above the cost price and allows some discount to the customers, the profit he earns is 8%. The rate of discount is_______.

(A) 5%

(B) 6%

(C) 10%

(D) 12%

Answer: (C)

118. A conical tent 14 meter in diameter and 4.5 meter high is to be eracted with lateral side 6 meter in length, the cloth required will be_____.

(A) 108 m2

(B) 132 m2

(C) 224 m2

(D) 264 m2

Answer: (B)

119. Two sides of triangle are 8 cm and 11 cm and the perimeter is 32 cm. Its area is_____.

(A) 3√40 cm2

(B) 5√48 cm2

(C) 8√30 cm2

(D) 50 cm2

Answer: (C)

120. The length of a tangent from a point A at a distance of 5 cm from the center of the circle is 4 cm. The radius of the circle is______.

(A) 2 cm

(B) 3 cm

(C) 4 cm

(D) 4.5 cm

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (iii) Social Science

121. Who was the last ruler of the Sayyed Dynasty?

(A) Mubarak Shah

(B) Mohammad Shah

(C) Amir Khusro

(D) Alam Shah

Answer: (D)

122. Which article of t he constitution is meant to eradicate untouchability?

(A) Article 16

(B) Article 22

(C) Article 29

(D) Article 17

Answer: (D)

123. Which point of the earth is the deepest?

(A) Java Trench

(B) Puerto Rico

(C) Mariana Trench

(D) Lipke Island

Answer: (C)

124. What is the currency of Malaysia?

(A) Dollar

(B) Pesco

(C) Ringgit

(D) Baht

Answer: (C)

125. Who wrote the drama ‘Malvikagnimitra’?

(A) Vishakhadutta

(B) Kalidas

(C) Kanishka

(D) Harisena

Answer: (B)

126. Who founded the regional party ‘Shiv Sena’?

(A) Devendra Fadnavis

(B) Bal Thakre

(C) Sharad Yadav

(D) Sushil Kumar Modi

Answer: (B)

127. Which country was affected by the cyclone Hudhud?

(A) Indonesia

(B) Singapore

(C) Malaysia

(D) India

Answer: (D)

128. Who is the chairman of the NITI Aayog in India?

(A) President

(B) Vice President

(C) Prime Minister

(D) Finance Minister

Answer: (C)

129. Which of the following is Value-added Tax?

(A) Income Tax

(B) Custom Tax

(C) Sales Tax

(D) Capital Gain Tax

Answer: (A)

130. What is the currency of Bhutan?

(A) Rupee

(B) Dinar

(C) Taka

(D) Ngultrum

Answer: (D)

131. Who wrote the famous Tamil literary work Kalingattuparani?

(A) Kalladanar

(B) Amarbhujanga

(C) Gangaikanda

(D) Jayagondan

Answer: (D)

132. Who wrote the famous work Surya Siddhanta?

(A) Varahamihira

(B) Aryabhatta

(C) Vriddha-Vagabhatta

(D) Meghaduta

Answer: (B)

133. How much is the security deposit for Lok Sabha election?

(A) Rs 25,000

(B) Rs 50,000

(C) Rs 10,000

(D) Rs 5,000

Answer: (C)

134. Who was the First Feale President of Indian National Congress?

(A) Sarojini Naidu

(B) Indira Gandhi

(C) Pratibha Patil

(D) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

Answer: (A)

135. Who is the present governor of the Reserve Bank of India?

(A) Raghuram Rajan

(B) Manmohan Singh

(C) Arun Jetly

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

136. Which gas was released during the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?

(A) Methane

(B) Methyl Isocyanate

(C) Acetylene

(D) Ammonia

Answer: (B)

137. When was IGNOU established?

(A) 1971

(B) 1977

(C) 1985

(D) 1989

Answer: (C)

138. Through which ocean is most of the world trade carried out?

(A) Pacific Ocean

(B) Arctic Ocean

(C) Atlantic Ocean

(D) Indian Ocean

Answer: (D)

139. Which is the third largest country in the world?

(A) Canada

(B) United States of America

(C) China

(D) Brazil

Answer: (B)

140. Which certificate indicates a guarantee of quality for agricultural food products like ghee, honey, etc.?

(A) ISI

(B) Agmark

(C) BIS

(D) DPT

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (iv) English

Direction (Q. Nos. 141-145) : Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

141. A good dictionary is indispensable for learning a language.

(A) Desirable

(B) Helpful

(C) Valuable

(D) Essential

Answer: (D)

142. The police have succeeded in arresting Rajiv’s

(A) Opponent

(B) Enemy

(C) Murderer

(D) Rival

Answer: (C)

143. Grandmother suffers from chronic

(A) Of long duration

(B) Painful

(C) Occasional

(D) Symptomatic

Answer: (A)

144. Radha is an able but diffident

(A) Difficult

(B) Shy and meek

(C) Confused

(D) Confident

Answer: (B)

145. His judicious handling of the matter saved the situation from going out o f control.

(A) Reasonable

(B) Amicable

(C) Cautious

(D) Nervous

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150) : In each of the following group of words, only one word is correctly spelt. Select the word with the correct spelling.

146.

(A) Reminesent

(B) Reminescent

(C) Reminisent

(D) Reminiscent

Answer: (D)

147.

(A) Hygeine

(B) Higeine

(C) Hygiene

(D) Hygien

Answer: (C)

148.

(A) Harrassment

(B) Harasment

(C) Harrasment

(D) Harassment

Answer: (D)

149.

(A) Spontanity

(B) Spontaneity

(C) Spontaniety

(D) Sponteneity

Answer: (B)

150.

(A) Museam

(B) Muzeum

(C) Museum

(D) Musium

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154) : Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

151. The culprit acknowledged his guilt.

(A) Accepted

(B) Avoided

(C) Repulsed

(D) Denied

Answer: (D)

152. Though an amateur he is a first class player.

(A) Renowned

(B) Seasoned

(C) Professional

(D) Mature

Answer: (C)

153. The initial estimate of the project was very high.

(A) Final

(B) Full

(C) Total

(D) Rough

Answer: (A)

154. She found his behavior towards her distinctly

(A) Graceful

(B) Friendly

(C) Cheerful

(D) Sweet

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156) : Select the word in ach group which does not properly belong to it.

155.

(A) Conspicuous

(B) Conscript

(C) Clear

(D) Visible

Answer: (B)

156.

(A) Perfection

(B) Reflection

(C) Inspection

(D) Retrospection

Answer: (D)

Direction (Q. Nos. 157-160): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternative to fill in the blank to complete the sentence.

157. We ______ trouble on our borders.

(A) Comprehend

(B) Apprehend

(C) Supplement

(D) Complement

Answer: (B)

158. The police _______ the mob.

(A) Scattered

(B) Disbanded

(C) Drove

(D) Dispersed

Answer: (D)

159. His tutor went _____ endless trouble to prepare him _____ the test.

(A) over : before

(B) over : against

(C) through : in

(D) through : for

Answer: (D)

160. He went _____ the room and sat down _____ the sofa.

(A) to : in

(B) into : on

(C) from : upto

(D) in : on

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (v) Hindi

Answer: (D)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2018 With Answer Key

IGNOU B.Ed. 2018 Question Paper

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10): Read the following  passage carefully and choose the best answer out  of the four choices given after each question that  follows.  Among the most important themes in the Disney  movie ‘The Little Mermaid’ are those of questioning  conventional thinking and pursuing a dream. Not  only is Ariel the little memaid, demonstrating  original thought (something that many seem to think  she is lacking) but she is rebelling against her  speciesist father. When Ariel expresses her love for  the human prince, King Trident is furious. When  Ariel points out angrily that he does not understand  her, or even know the man whom she loves, Trident  retorts “know him? I don’t need to know him! He’s  a human!” In a very real way, Disney is encouraging  children to question preconceived ideas that we may  have against a certain group.  Disney also teaches children to pursue what  they love. We see that Ariel’s love for Prince Eric  is more important than all else. In turning to the sea  witch, Ursula, for help, Ariel makes a mistake but  no true hero or heroine is flawless. Ariel puts herself,  her family and all merfolk in danger, but we see  that with the help of her prince, she is able to put  everything to right.  At the end of the film, when Ursula has forced  King Trident to sacrifice his kingdom for his  daughter’s soul, the sea witch uses out of the water,  gigantic and terrifying, wearing the king’s crown  and holding his magic trident. She laughs evilly  and declares that she is the ruler of all mermen and  women. “So much for true love!” She screams victoriously. Eric, however, succeeds in piloting the  prow of his ship straight through her Belly,  vanquishing her. The moral here is that while we  all make mistakes, what is truly important is how  we right the wrongs we may do to others.

1. Why does the author use parentheses around the comment “Something that many seem to  think she is lacking”?

(A)  to indicate a side comment to the reader

(B)  to indicate that it is unimportant

(C)  to indicate a humorous tone

(D)  to indicate a shift in meaning

Answer: (A)

2. Ariel’s father is called a ‘speciesist’ because he:

(A)  does not understand Eric

(B)  opposes Ariel’s love based only on Eric  being human

(C)  is furious

(D)  is rebelling against preconceived notions

Answer: (B)

3. Which of the following fictional plot line would best illustrate the assertion “Disney is  encouraging children to question preconceived ideas that we may have against a  certain group”?

(A)  A movie about the development of the television

(B)  A movie that details the honours of war

(C)  A movie about a girl who overcomes her fear of snakes

(D)  A movie that documents the travels of a rock band

Answer: (C)

4. When Ursula says “So much for true love”, what does it imply?

(A)  She is specialist

(B)  She was hurt in a previous love affair

(C)  Marriage was unacceptable to her 

(D)  She is mocking true love 

Answer: (D)

5. In the sentence “Eric, however, succeeds in piloting the prow of his ship straight through her Belly, vanquishing her”, what does  ‘vanquishing’ mean?

(A)  Killing

(B)  Loving

(C)  Vanishing

(D)  Squashing

Answer: (D)

6. The author’s attitude towards ‘The Little Mermaid’ is primarily one of:

(A)  frustration

(B)  stoicism

(C)  respect

(D)  wonder

Answer: (C)

7. The author’s main point in the passage is:

(A)  Ariel should not have been allowed to marry Eric

(B)  ‘The Little Mermaid’ (film) teaches children to follow their hearts

(C)  Disney movies teach that love is stronger than hate

(D)  Only Prince Eric truly understood Ariel

Answer: (B)

8. ‘Prow’ of a ship is at the:

(A)  back

(B)  middle

(C)  front

(D)  top

Answer: (C)

9. What was the mistake committed by Ariel?

(A)  Loving Eric

(B)  Rebelling against her father

(C)  Taking Ursula’s help

(D)  Killing Ursula with the help of Eric

Answer: (C)

10. In the sentence “……. the sea witch rises out of the water, gigantic and terrifying, ……”, ‘terrifying’ is:

(A)  a gerund

(B)  a participate

(C)  an adjective

(D)  an adverb

Answer: (C)

Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-14): Study the following  information carefully and answer the questions that  follow. 

There are six members in a family—A, B, C,  D, E and F. There are two married couples in the  family. B is a businessman and father of E. F is the  grandfather of C and is a property dealer. D is  grandmother of E and is a housewife. C is the  daughter of A. There are one businessman, one  property dealer, one lady lecturer, one housewife  and two students in the family.

11. What is the profession of A?

(A)  Housewife

(B)  Lecturer

(C)  Student

(D)  Business

Answer: (B)

12. Who is sister of E?

(A)  C

(B)  D

(C)  A

(D)  B

Answer: (A)

13. Which of the following are two married couples?

(A)  AC and DF

(B)  AB and EF

(C)  AB and AC

(D)  AB and DF

Answer: (D)

14. Which of the following is definitely a group of male members?

(A)  BF

(B)  AB

(C)  CD

(D)  EF

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. No. 15-18) : In the following questions a series is being given. Select from the alternatives the correct term of fill in the missing term.

15. 10, 40, ____?____, 1920, 19200

(A)  80

(B)  160

(C)  200

(D)  240

Answer: (D)

16. 0, 7, 26, 63, ___?__, 215

(A)  116

(B)  128

(C)  124

(D)  130

Answer: (C)

17. 13, 21, 31, 43, 57, 73, ___?___.

(A)  87

(B)  89

(C)  91

(D)  94

Answer: (C)

18. 4, 5, 8, 9, 10, 27, 16, 17, 64, 25, 26, ___?__

(A)  78

(B)  94

(C)  112

(D)  125

Answer: (D)

19. Find the missing number.

(A)  25

(B)  21

(C)  19

(D)  7

Answer: (B)

20. If EDUCATION is coded as DCTBZSHNM, how will PROMOTION be coded?

(A)  OQNNLSHNM

(B)  NOQLNSHNM

(C)  NNOQLSHNM

(D)  OQNLNSHNM

Answer: (D)

21. If REGISTRATION is coded as 723489719465, then GENERATOR will be coded is:

(A)  325721967

(B)  352721967

(C)  325271967

(D)  325917267

Answer: (C)

22. Which one is different from the other three in some respect?

(A)  August

(B)  October

(C)  March

(D)  December

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 23-26) : Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow:

  Ira, Vara, Shweta, Pushpa, and Saroj are five friends, Each one of them has six balls. Vara gives 3 balls to Pushpa who gives four balls to Saroj. Saroj gives five balls to Shweta who in turn gives four balls to Vara. Vara gives three balls each to Ira and Pushpa.

23. How many balls does Vara have?

(A)  2

(B)  1

(C)  5

(D)  6

Answer: (B)

24. How many balls does Saroj have?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  5

(D)  6

Answer: (C)

25. Who has the minimum number of balls?

(A)  Ira

(B)  Pushpa

(C)  Saroj

(D)  Vara

Answer: (D)

26. Who has the maximum number of balls?

(A)  Ira

(B)  Shweta

(C)  Saroj

(D)  Vara

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 27-30) : Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

  A and B play Volleyball and Football. B and D play Tennis, A and C play Hockey and Tennis. C, D and E play Cricket.

27. Who plays Volleyball, Football, Tennis and Hockey?

(A)  D

(B)  C

(C)  B

(D)  A

Answer: (D)

28. Who plays only Cricket?

(A)  A

(B)  E

(C)  C

(D)  D

Answer: (B)

29. Who plays Hockey and Cricket?

(A)  A

(B)  B

(C)  C

(D)  D

Answer: (C)

30. Who plays Tennis and Cricket?

(A)  A

(B)  B

(C)  C

(D)  D

Answer: (D)

Section-III : Educational and General Awareness

31. The recommendations of Shanta Kumar Committee are related to:

(A)  Restructuring of Food Corporation of India (FCI)

(B)  Restructuring of Security Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

(C)  Restructuring of Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC)

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

32. The book ‘at the Close of the Play’ is an autobiography of:

(A)  Gary Kirsten

(B)  Yuvraj Singh

(C)  Rahul Dravid

(D)  Ricky Ponting

Answer: (D)

33. Which of the following is the largest gulf in the world?

(A)  Gulf of Aden

(B)  Gulf of Guinea

(C)  Persian Gulf

(D)  Gulf of Mexico

Answer: (D)

34. Who was the author of the Book “The Indian War of Independence, 1857”?

(A)  Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

(B)  V.D. Savarkar

(C)  S.R. Sharma

(D)  R.C. Majumdar

Answer: (B)

35. World Yoga Day is celebrated every year on:

(A)  20th June

(B)  21st June

(C)  22nd June

(D)  23rd June

Answer: (B)

36. Who abolished the use of Persian as court language and ordered the use of vernacular language?

(A)  William Bentinck

(B)  Cornwallis

(C)  Warren Hastings

(D)  John Shore

Answer: (A)

37. Abdul Kalam Island is located in:

(A)  Tamil Nadu

(B)  Andhra Pradesh

(C)  West Bengal

(D)  Odisha

Answer: (D)

38. In the context of Indian history, the principle of ‘Dyarhy’ refers to:

(A)  Division of the Central legislature into two houses.

(B)  Introduction of double Government i.e., Central and State Government

(C)  Having two sets of rulers; one in London other in Delhi

(D)  Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories

Answer: (A)

39. Which one of the following countries topped the World Happiness Report, 2017 published by United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network?

(A)  India

(B)  Denmark

(C)  Norway

(D)  USA

Answer: (C)

40. According to Swachh Survekshan 2017, which city is declared as Cleanest City in India?

(A)  Vishakhapatnam

(B)  Bhopal

(C)  Idukki

(D)  Indore

Answer: (D)

41. Which of the following universities celebrated its Centenary Year in 2017?

(A)  Allahabad University

(B)  Patna University

(C)  Banaras Hindu University

(D)  Aligarh Muslim University

Answer: (B)

42. Vidhyanjali Scheme was an initiative of:

(A)  Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

(B)  Ministry of Science and Technology

(C)  Ministry of Labour and Employment

(D)  Ministry of Human Resource Development

Answer: (D)

43. The first country to implement G.S.T. was:

(A)  France

(B)  USA

(C)  Britain

(D)  Japan

Answer: (A)

44. The objective of Butler Committee of 1927 was to:

(A)  Defend the Jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments

(B)  Define the powers of the secretary of State for India

(C)  Impose censorship on national press

(D)  Investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power and the princess of princely states

Answer: (D)

45. Right to Education Act was enacted in the year:

(A)  2007

(B)  2008

(C)  2009

(D)  2010

Answer: (C)

46. The statement “Tamsoma Jyotigamya” was originally mentioned in:

(A)  Upanishad

(B)  Mahakavya

(C)  Purana

(D)  Shaddarshan

Answer: (A)

47. Who built the Khajuraho Temples?

(A)  Vijayanagar Kings

(B)  Bahmani Kings

(C)  Chandel Kings

(D)  Gupta Kings

Answer: (C)

48. Hockey India League started in the year:

(A)  2010

(B)  2011

(C)  2013

(D)  2012

Answer: (C)

49. With reference to the economic history of Medieval India, the term ‘Araghatta’ refers to:

(A)  Bonded labour

(B)  Land grants made to military officers

(C)  Waterwheel used in the irrigation of land

(D)  Waterland converted to cultivated land

Answer: (C)

50. The Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) Scheme was launched in the year:

(A)  2007

(B)  2008

(C)  2009

(D)  2010

Answer: (C)

51. Mahila Samakhya is a programme which focuses on:

(A)  Women education

(B)  Issues of adolescent girls

(C)  Women empowerment

(D)  Health issues of rural women

Answer: (A)

52. Who originally commissioned Sanchi Stupa?

(A)  Emperor Ashoka

(B)  Chandragupta Maurya

(C)  Harshvardhan

(D)  Kanishka

Answer: (A)

53. SWAYAM PRABHA channel was launched by MHRD during:

(A)  2014

(B)  2015

(C)  2016

(D)  2017

Answer: (C)

54. The norms and regulations of NCTE for two year B.Ed. programme were notified in the year:

(A)  2013

(B)  2014

(C)  2015

(D)  2016

Answer: (B)

55. Who is awarded Sahitya Academy Prize in Hindi for the year 2016?

(A)  Prabha Verma

(B)  Geeta Upadhyay

(C)  Nasira Sharma

(D)  Swaraj Bir

Answer: (C)

Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School

56. The purpose of formative assessment is to:

(A)  check learner’s performance graph

(B)  grade student’s learning outcome

(C)  accelerate student’s learning performance

(D)  provide feedback to teacher effectiveness

Answer: (C)

57. Why is teacher training necessary?

(A)  Helps in acquiring teaching skills

(B)  In understanding methods of school organization

(C)  Upgrading knowledge of content

(D)  All the above

Answer: (D)

58. Drama is suitable for teaching:

(A)  History

(B)  Science

(C)  Language

(D)  All the above

Answer: (D)

59. The greatest satisfaction in teaching is:

(A)  Feeling of love for children

(B)  A sense of service to mankind

(C)  A secured monetary gain

(D)  A sense of contribution to learner’s all-round development

Answer: (D)

60. Human personality is the result of:

(A)  Upbringing at home

(B)  Interaction between heredity and environment

(C)  Only environment

(D)  Only heredity

Answer: (B)

61. Which of the following is an objective type question?

(A)  Short answer question

(B)  Open ended question

(C)  True and False

(D)  Essay type question

Answer: (C)

62. Who is regarded as a first teacher of a child?

(A)  Headmaster

(B)  Class teacher

(C)  Mother

(D)  Tutor

Answer: (C)

63. A teacher who is not able to draw the attention of her students should:

(A)  resign from the post

(B)  find fault in her learners

(C)  start dictating

(D)  evaluate her teaching method and improve it

Answer: (D)

64. Blackboard can be included in which group/category of teaching aid?

(A)  Audio aid

(B)  Visual aid

(C)  Audio-Visual aid

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

65. 10+2+3 system of education was recommended by:

(A)  Mudaliar Commission

(B)  National Policy of Education (1986)

(C)  Kothari Commission

(D)  Radhakrishanan Commission

Answer: (B)

66. For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should:

(A)  allow students to do what they like

(B)  deal with the students strictly

(C)  involve the students in interesting activities

(D)  deal with them politely and firmly

Answer: (C)

67. Informal education is:

(A)  Just schooling

(B)  Lifelong

(C)  Time bound

(D)  Pre-planned

Answer: (B)

68. Mental Health is:

(A)  Symptoms of maladjustment

(B)  Harmonious functioning of the total personality

(C)  Terrible excitement

(D)  Throwing up temper tantrums

Answer: (B)

69. Which of the following is mainly concerned with the software aspect of technology?

(A)  Computer

(B)  TV set

(C)  Floppy

(D)  Scripts

Answer: (A)

70. The psychological barrier in communication is:

(A)  noise

(B)  wrong perception

(C)  ambiguous words

(D)  previous knowledge

Answer: (B)

71. Full form of CABE is:

(A)  Central Administration Board of Education

(B)  Central Allied Board of Education

(C)  Central Advisory Board of Education

(D)  Central Administrative Board of Education

Answer: (C)

72. Which of the following is not a co-curricular activity?

(A)  organizing a quiz

(B)  participating in a cultural programme organized in the school

(C)  reading a Journal in the school library

(D)  deputing a student for drama competition

Answer: (C)

73. Evaluation ascertains:

(A)  how far the learning objectives have been achieved

(B)  the weakness of instructional procedures

(C)  reinforcement and feedback

(D)  all of the above

Answer: (D)

74. Work experience in education means:

(A)  to inculcate in students right attitude towards work

(B)  to participate in productive work for living

(C)  to bridge the gap between school life and

(D)  all of the above

Answer: (D)

75. If a child is not taking interest in the classroom, the teacher must:

(A)  give more home assignment

(B)  report to parents

(C)  use teaching aids

(D)  involve students in teaching-learning through interactive activities

Answer: (D)

76. Maximum participation of students is possible in teaching through:

(A)  Lecture method

(B)  Textbook method

(C)  Discussion method

(D)  Audio-Video aids

Answer: (C)

77. A good textbook does not have the criteria of:

(A)  learner friendly

(B)  logical sequencing of content

(C)  high cost

(D)  interactive language

Answer: (C)

78. Slow learners in the class should be:

(A)  motivated

(B)  neglected

(C)  treated sympathetically

(D)  given easy assignment

Answer: (C)

79. The worst type of classroom management style is:

(A)  autocratic

(B)  democratic

(C)  co-operative

(D)  participatory

Answer: (D)

80. What is best suited source to acquire knowledge systematically?

(A)  from authority

(B)  by personal experiences

(C)  through scientific method

(D)  by expert opinion

Answer: (B)

PART-B

Section-V: (i) Science

81. Positive ions are formed from neutral atoms by the loss of:

(A)  neutrons

(B)  nuclear charge

(C)  protons

(D)  electrons

Answer: (D)

82. Which of the following statements is TRUE? Elements in the first column of the Periodic Table

(A)  are called alkali metals

(B)  are inert gases

(C)  have metallic lusture

(D)  are radioactive in nature

Answer: (A)

83. Which one of the following properties would a solution have if it is an acid?

(A)  Solution turns litmus blue.

(B)  Solution feels slippery.

(C)  Solution has a hydrogen ion concentration of 1013 M.

(D)  Solution is a very good conductor of electricity.

Answer: (D)

84. Which of the electronic configurations given below would you expect for a noble gas?

(A)  1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

(B)  1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

(C)  1s2 2s22p6

(D)  1s2 2s2 2p5

Answer: (C)

85. How many atoms are contained in a mole of sulphuric acid, H2SO4?

(A)  7 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms/mole

(B)  5 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms/mole

(C)  3 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms/mole

(D)  8 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms/mole

Answer: (A)

86. What is the power of a convex lens whose focal length is 50 cm?

(A)  −2 D

(B)  −0.5 D

(C)  +2 D

(D)  +0.5 D

Answer: (C)

87. Which of the colours of visible light has minimum wave length?

(A)  Violet

(B)  Red

(C)  Yellow

(D)  Green

Answer: (A)

88. In a metallic conductor, electric current is due to the movement of:

(A)  ions

(B)  amperes

(C)  electrons

(D)  protons

Answer: (A)

89. An electric charge in uniform motion produces:

(A)  an electric field only

(B)  a magnetic field only

(C)  both electric and magnetic fields

(D)  no such field at all

Answer: (C)

90. The radiations emitted by a hot furnace are:

(A)  ultra-violet

(B)  infra-red

(C)  X-rays

(D)  microwaves

Answer: (B)

91. Normal blood pressure range (mm Hg) is:

(A)  120/80

(B)  100/60

(C)  140/90

(D)  90/50

Answer: (A)

92. Gastric digestion takes place efficiently in:

(A)  acidic medium

(B)  alkaline medium

(C)  neutral medium

(D)  highly alkaline medium

Answer: (A)

93. A doctor advised a person to take an injection of insulin because:

(A)  his blood pressure was low

(B)  his heart was beating slowly

(C)  he was suffering from goitre

(D)  his sugar level in blood was high

Answer: (D)

94. Which of the following is a plant hormone?

(A)  Insulin

(B)  Thyroxine

(C)  Oestrogen

(D)  Cytokinin

Answer: (D)

95. If a tall plant is crossed with a dwarf plant, what is this type of cross called?

(A)  dihybrid

(B)  monohybrid

(C)  reciprocal

(D)  trihybrid

Answer: (B)

96. What is the name of the discipline dealing with the study of inheritance?

(A)  Cytology

(B)  Evolution

(C)  Genetics

(D)  Morphology

Answer: (C)

97. Which of the following constitutes a food chain?

(A)  Grass, wheat and mango

(B)  Grass, goat and human

(C)  Goat, cow and elephant

(D)  Grass, fish and goat

Answer: (B)

98. The depletion of ozone shield is due to:

(A)  Chlorofluorocarbons

(B)  Oxides of nitrogen

(C)  Methane

(D)  All of these

Answer: (A)

99. Which of the following fuel is a fossil fuel?

(A)  Biogas

(B)  Biodiesel

(C)  Coal and Petroleum

(D)  Nuclear fuel

Answer: (C)

100. The main aim of conservation and preservation of the environment is to:

(A)  Preserve the plants

(B)  Preserve the animals

(C)  Preserve the fuels

(D)  Preserve the biodiversity

Answer: (D)

Section-V : (ii) Mathematics

101. The mean of first n natural numbers is:

(A)  n/2

(B)  

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (D)

102. The fifth decile is the same as:

(A)  Mean

(B)  Median

(C)  Mode

(D)  Geometric Mean

Answer: (D)

103. For a positively skewed curve, which of the following is true?

(A)  Mean > Median

(B)  Median > Mean

(C)  Mean = Median

(D)  Mode > Mean

Answer: (A)

104. The 25th percentile coincides with:

(A)  Mean

(B)  First Quartile

(C)  Median

(D)  Third Quartile

Answer: (C)

105. If each side of a rectangle is increased by 20%, its area would increase by:

(A)  20%

(B)  40%

(C)  44%

(D)  56%

Answer: (C)

106. If the radius of circle is increased by 50%, the area of the circle would increase by:

(A)  25%

(B)  125%

(C)  50%

(D)  75%

Answer: (B)

107. Anil and Ankur can do a piece of work in 12j days, Ankur and Harish in 15 days. Harish and Anil in 20 days. How much time will Anil alone take to finish the work?

(A)  25 days

(B)  35 days

(C)  30 days

(D)  40 days

Answer: (C)

108. Which fraction is the largest?

(A)  3/7

(B)  5/9

(C)  5/11

(D)  7/13

Answer: (B)

109. Which fraction is the smallest?

(A)  5/6

(B)  6/7

(C)  7/8

(D)  8/9

Answer: (A)

110. What is 5 per cent of 10 per cent of 5?

(A)  0.25

(B)  0.0125

(C)  0.0625

(D)  0.025

Answer: (D)

111. A train moves at the speed of 180 km per hour. The speed of the train per second is:

(A)  180 m

(B)  120 m

(C)  90 m

(D)  50 m

Answer: (D)

112. A man sells an article for Rs 20 and earns a profit of 20%. What is the cost price?

(A)  Rs 16

(B)  Rs 16.66

(C)  Rs 15

(D)  Rs 15.87

Answer: (B)

113. A student’s score was wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63 which led to increase in average by ½. The number of students in the class is:

(A)  35

(B)  40

(C)  45

(D)  50

Answer: (B)

114. A fruit vender buys oranges at 4 oranges for Rs 3 for sells them at 3 oranges for Rs 4. The profit per cent is about:

(A)  66

(B)  77

(C)  88

(D)  55

Answer: (B)

115. A man’s speed along the current is 15 km/hr and the speed of the current is 1.5 km/hr. Man’s speed against the current is:

(A)  12.0 km/hr

(B)  16.5 km/hr

(C)  13.5 km/hr

(D)  15.5 km/hr

Answer: (A)

116. Two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3. If their LCM is 48, then the sum of numbers is:

(A)  28

(B)  36

(C)  40

(D)  42

Answer: (C)

117. What is the greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the rods of 8 m, 4 m 20 cm and 12 m 20 cm length?

(A)  10 cm

(B)  15 cm

(C)  20 cm

(D)  25 cm

Answer: (C)

118. What per cent of a day is the time of 4 hours?

(A)  6%

(B)  33%

(C)  16.66%

(D)  18.87%

Answer: (C)

119. A student obtained 125 marks but failed by 40 marks. If minimum pass marks are 33%, then t he maximum marks for the exam is:

(A)  240

(B)  360

(C)  420

(D)  500

Answer: (D)

120. A man’s salary was decreased by 50% and then increased by 50%. The net change is:

(A)  25% increase

(B)  33% increase

(C)  25% decrease

(D)  33% decrease

Answer: (C)

Section-V : (iii) Social Science

121. The Sikh Khalsa was founded by:

(A)  Guru Teg Bahadur

(B)  Guru Nanak

(C)  Guru Gobind Singh

(D)  Guru Hargobind

Answer: (C)

122. Relies of Buddha are preserved in a:

(A)  Vihara

(B)  Chaitya

(C)  Stupa

(D)  Monastery

Answer: (C)

123. Which was the first metal used by man?

(A)  Copper

(B)  Silver

(C)  Bronze

(D)  Brass

Answer: (A)

124. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences?

(A)  Madan Mohan Malviya

(B)  Annie Besant

(C)  Mahatma Gandhi

(D)  B. R. Ambedkar

Answer: (D)

125. Tulsidas was a contemporary of:

(A)  Babar

(B)  Akbar

(C)  Jahangir

(D)  Shahjahan

Answer: (B)

126. The study of heavenly bodies is known as:

(A)  Astrology

(B)  Astronautics

(C)  Astronomy

(D)  Astrophysics

Answer: (C)

127. A star which appears blue is:

(A)  Cooler than the moon

(B)  Hotter than the sun

(C)  As hot as the sun

(D)  Cooler than the sun

Answer: (B)

128. A sudden fall in the barometric reading indicates:

(A)  Rain

(B)  Storm

(C)  Fine weather

(D)  Extreme cold

Answer: (B)

129. Lunar eclipse is caused when the:

(A)  Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth

(B)  Earth comes between the Sun and the Moon

(C)  Sun comes between the Earth and Moon

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

130. Which of the following is the largest river in the world?

(A)  Nile

(B)  Congo

(C)  Ganga

(D)  Amazon

Answer: (A)

131. Who among the following was the constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India?

(A)  Dr. B. N. Rau

(B)  Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(C)  K. M. Munshi

(D)  M. C. Setalvad

Answer: (A)

132. The Annual Financial Statement is caused to be laid before both Houses of Parliament by the:

(A)  President

(B)  Speaker

(C)  Vice-President

(D)  Finance Minister

Answer: (A)

133. Which is the highest and final judicial tribunal in respect of the Constitutional of India?

(A)  Parliament

(B)  President

(C)  Supreme Court

(D)  Union Cabinet

Answer: (C)

134. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as The Heart and Soul of the Constitution?

(A)  Right of Freedom of Religion

(B)  Right to Property

(C)  Right to Equality

(D)  Right to Constitutional Remedies

Answer: (D)

135. Which of the following is not a source of revenue to the village panchayats?

(A)  Property Tax

(B)  House Tax

(C)  Land Tax

(D)  Vehicles Tax

Answer: (A)

136. Who is called the Father of Economics?

(A)  Max Muller

(B)  Karl Marx

(C)  Adam Smith

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

137. Green Revolution is associated with _____.

(A)  Agriculture

(B)  Science & Technology

(C)  Milk Production

(D)  Industry

Answer: (A)

138. GDR means:

(A)  Gross Domestic Ratio

(B)  Global Depository Receipt

(C)  Global Development Range

(D)  Geographically Developed Regions

Answer: (B)

139. What is Laissez-faire?

(A)  Mixed Economy

(B)  Controlled Economy

(C)  Non-interference of Government in economic affairs

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

140. The Right to Information Act was enacted in the year:

(A)  2005

(B)  2006

(C)  2007

(D)  2008

Answer: (A)

Section-V : (iv) English

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145): Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

141. The annual meeting of Philosophy Professors was a gathering of the most erudite.

(A)  experienced

(B)  senior

(C)  learned

(D)  famous

Answer: (C)

142. Sarika was so ingenuous that her parents feared that she would be exploited.

(A)  genius

(B)  clever

(C)  intelligent

(D)  simple

Answer: (D)

143. Most of the Snakes are

(A)  harmless

(B)  fast

(C)  poisonous

(D)  scary

Answer: (A)

144. The burglar tried to placate the barking dog.

(A)  hit

(B)  pacify

(C)  shun

(D)  harm

Answer: (B)

145. In traditional families, the young venerate their elders.

(A)  copy

(B)  follow

(C)  revere

(D)  fear

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In each of the following group of words, only one of them is correctly spelt. Select the one with the correct spelling.

146.

(A)  vasillate

(B)  vacilate

(C)  vasilate

(D)  vacillate

Answer: (D)

147.

(A)  fluorescence

(B)  flourescence

(C)  fluroscence

(D)  florscence

Answer: (A)

148.

(A)  Rapudiate

(B)  Repudiate

(C)  Repudete

(D)  Repudate

Answer: (B)

149.

(A)  Pristin

(B)  Prestine

(C)  Pristine

(D)  Prestin

Answer: (C)

150.

(A)  Maleable

(B)  Meleable

(C)  Melleable

(D)  Malleable

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154) : Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

151. Particle physics is an esoteric field of knowledge.

(A)  Popular

(B)  Abstruse

(C)  Obscure

(D)  Difficult

Answer: (A)

152. The life of mayflies seems

(A)  Mysterious

(B)  Evanescent

(C)  Eternal

(D)  Transient

Answer: (C)

153. The principal was uncompromising on the issue of discipline.

(A)  Inflexible

(B)  flexible

(C)  tenacious

(D)  intransigent

Answer: (B)

154. The store cashier was so lethargic that he always had a long queue in front of him.

(A)  Apathetic

(B)  Listless

(C)  Energetic

(D)  Languid

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156) : Select the word in each group that does not belong to it.

155. 

(A)  Loquacious

(B)  Gossipy

(C)  Verbose

(D)  Amicable

Answer: (D)

156.

(A)  Unscruplous

(B)  Meticulous

(C)  Conscientious

(D)  Precise

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160) : Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives to fill in the blank to complete the sentence.

157. After Amar betrayed his teammates by giving away their plan to the opposition, they called him_____.

(A)  a sycophant

(B)  a traitor

(C)  an imbecile

(D)  an expert

Answer: (B)

158. Although Mary receives _____from critics for her unconventional acting style, she never considers, changing to please them.

(A)  kudos

(B)  appreciation

(C)  tirades

(D)  empathy

Answer: (C)

159. Friends often seek Deepika’s _____ as she is known for her ability to listen carefully and offer unbiased advice.

(A)  concern

(B)  empathy

(C)  attention

(D)  counsel

Answer: (D)

160. Behavioural theory is _______ in nature as it focuses on observation and direct study of actions.

(A)  empirical

(B)  diadactic

(C)  theoretical

(D)  obutse

Answer: (A)

Section-V : (v) Hindi

Answer: (B)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (B)

  

 

Answer: (D)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

CTET Examination 2018 Paper-2 Set-M Question Paper With Answer Key

CTET Paper-2 2018 Set-M

Child Development and Pedagogy

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

1. The development from central part of the body towards peripheries or extremities denotes the-

(1)   principles of radiated development

(2)   principles of decentralized development

(3)   principles of proximodistal development

(4)   principles of cascade development

Answer: (3)

2. School is an institution of socialization of children where-

(1)   schoolchildren occupy the central position

(2)   school routines occupy the central position

(3)   school activities occupy the central position

(4)   schoolteachers occupy the central position

Answer: (1)

3. If you join a teacher fraternity and choose to dress like most of the others in your group, you are exhibitin-

(1)   group identity

(2)   obedience

(3)   compliance

(4)   conformity

Answer: (4)

4. The concept of object permanence is attained during Piaget’s __ stage of development.

(1)   sensorimotor

(2)   preoperational

(3)   concrete operational

(4)   formal operational

Answer: (1)

5. Individualized Education Programme is planned from the perspective of-

(1)   Special Education Programme

(2)   Child-centered Education Programme

(3)   Open School Education Programme

(4)   e-Learning Education Programme

Answer: (2)

6. Between ______ months of age, most children begin to combine words into short sentences while speaking.

(1)   12 and 18

(2)   18 and 24

(3)   24 and 30

(4)   30 and 36

Answer: (2)

7. The concept of Intelligence Quotient or IQ was developed by-

(1)   Galton

(2)   Binet

(3)   Stern

(4)   Terman

Answer: (3)

8. Creativity is thought to be related to the concept of-

(1)   fluid intelligence

(2)   crystallized intelligence

(3)   convergent thinking

(4)   divergent thinking

Answer: (4)

9. The acceptable sound combinations of a language are specified in its_____ rules.

(1)   phonological

(2)   grammatical

(3)   syntactic

(4)   inflection

Answer: (1)

10. The position where thought patterns are influenced by language is called-

(1)   cultural tendency

(2)   linguistic determination

(3)   cognitive bias

(4)   sociolinguistic genesis

Answer: (2)

11. Ravi repairs appliances by testing hypothesis about the cause of the malfunction based on his experiences with the symptoms. He uses-

(1)   insight

(2)   algorithms

(3)   mental set

(4)   heuristics

Answer: (4)

12. Dviya often divides the assigned job into small tasks which she can handle easily. She is using-

(1)   reductionism

(2)   secondary elaboration

(3)   subgoal analysis

(4)   functional fixedness

Answer: (3)

13. “Society determines the roles of male and female.” This statement articulates-

(1)   gender as an inherent construct

(2)   gender as a hereditary endowment

(3)   gender as an intuitive construct

(4)   gender as a social construct

Answer: (4)

14. Grading, coding, marking and credit accumulation systems are some of the examples of-

(1)   evaluation procedure of answer sheets of the examination

(2)   symbolizing position of children in the class

(3)   depicting the academic progress in report card

(4)   scoring procedure of assessment of learner’s achievement

Answer: (4)

15. Assessment of learner’s achievement helps the teachers to-

(1)   maintain the performance record of learners

(2)   evaluate the effectiveness of pedagogy

(3)   make ability grouping of learners in the classrooms

(4)   prepare activity log for teaching

Answer: (2)

16. Inclusive Education is based on the principle of-

(1)   social equilibrium

(2)   equity and equal opportunities

(3)   social existence and globalization

(4)   world brotherhood

Answer: (2)

17. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act has been enacted in the year

(1)   1992

(2)   1995

(3)   1999

(4)   2016

Answer: (4)

18. Children with individual differences should be taught in a school having teachers-

(1)   to each in different sections of classrooms based on their individual differences

(2)   trained to use different pedagogy to meet their diverse learning needs

(3)   trained to teach children with specific individual differences

(4)   trained to make them homogeneous learners

Answer: (2)

19. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 ensures the rights of children with disabilities to free education from-

(1)   6 years to 18 years

(2)   3 years to 18 years

(3)   6 years to 14 years

(4)   6 years to 22 years

Answer: (1)

20. Providing teaching-learning materials inaccessible formats to the diverse learners implies-

(1)   Universal Inclusive Education Ethical Considerate

(2)   Universal Code of Teaching Practices

(3)   Universal Humanistic Approach of Teaching

(4)   Universal Design of Learning

Answer: (4)

21. ____ involves self-awareness and control of cognitive abilities e.g., planning, reviewing and revising, etc.

(1)   Centration

(2)   Metacognition

(3)   Cognition

(4)   Accommodation

Answer: (2)

22. When children think to interpret the received information according to their experiences, it is called-

(1)   reflective thinking

(2)   creative thinking

(3)   abstract thinking

(4)   concrete thinking

Answer: (4)

23. Teaching learners at varying levels of difficulty based on the ability of individual learner is known as-

(1)   differentiated instruction

(2)   selective instruction

(3)   precision teaching

(4)   errorless instruction

Answer: (1)

24. Maintenance is the specific stage of learning which is antecedent to _______ stage of learning.

(1)   acquisition

(2)   motivation

(3)   independent

(4)   generalization

Answer: (4)

25. Zajonc believes that cognition and emotion are-

(1)   interdependent

(2)   independent

(3)   interrelated

(4)   integrated

Answer: (2)

26. A teacher is teaching children by demonstration of a task to correct the performances of an already learned task. He is using _____ method of teaching.

(1)   imitation

(2)   observation

(3)   correction

(4)   modelling

Answer: (4)

27. According to Mann and Janis, decision maker children analyze the problem, list the alternatives and weigh each option for its advantages and disadvantages. His behavior reflects-

(1)   surveillance

(2)   vigilant

(3)   outgoing

(4)   autocratic

Answer: (2)

28. In ____ thinking, a child as a problem solver evaluates the truth or likelihood of statements.

(1)   creative

(2)   aesthetic

(3)   abstract

(4)   logical

Answer: (4)

29. The task in which the children get experience while enjoying themselves is known as

(1)   drill and practice task

(2)   consumer type task

(3)   producer type task

(4)   problem type task

Answer: (2)

30. Multisensory approach in teaching-learning is the simultaneous use of visual, auditory, tactile and ______ senses to enhance learning.

(1)   kinesthetic

(2)   vestibular

(3)   perceptual

(4)   observational

Answer: (1)

IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 Either from Part-II (Mathematics and Science) or from Part-III (Social Studies/Social Science).

Part-II

Mathematics and Science

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

31. In a meeting, 4/25 of the members were female. What percent of the members was this?

(1)   40%

(2)   24%

(3)   16%

(4)   4%

Answer: (3)

32. A shop reduced its prices by 10%. What is the new price of an item which was previously sold for Rs 500?

(1)   Rs 510

(2)   Rs 550

(3)   Rs 450

(4)   Rs 400

Answer: (3)

33. Given below is a data set of temperature (in °C) :

−6, −8, −2, 3, 2, 0, 5, 4, 8

What is the range of the data?

(1)   0°C

(2)   16°C

(3)   18°C

(4)   10°C

Answer: (2)

34. A coin is tossed 10 times and the outcomes are observed as :

H, T, H, T, T, H, H, T, H, H

(H is Head; T is Tail)

What is the probability of getting Head?

(1)   3/5

(2)   4/5

(3)   2/5

(4)   1/5

Answer: (1)

35. The numerical expression  shows that-

(1)   rational numbers are closed under addition

(2)   rational numbers are closed under subtraction

(3)   rational numbers are closed under multiplication

(4)   rational numbers are closed  under division

Answer: (1)

36. Which one of the following 3D shapes does not have a vertex?

(1)   Pyramid

(2)   Prism

(3)   Cone

(4)   Sphere

Answer: (4)

37. If  then x is-

(1)   1/5

(2)   2/5

(3)   3/5

(4)   4/5

Answer: (3)

38. Let a, b, c be three rational numbers, where a = 3/5, b = 2/3 and c = −5/6. Which one of the following is true?

(1)   a × (b + c) = b × (a + c)

(2)   a ÷ (b + c) = b ÷ (a +c)

(3)   a + (b + c) = c + (a + b)

(4)   a – (b – c) = c – (a – b)

Answer: (3)

39. A geometric representation, showing the relationship between a whole and its part, is-

(1)   histogram

(2)   pie chart

(3)   bar graph

(4)   pictograph

Answer: (2)

40. If q is the square of a natural number p, then p is-

(1)   the square of q

(2)   the square root of q

(3)   equal to q

(4)   greater than q

Answer: (2)

41. The value of  is-

(1)   9

(2)   10

(3)   11

(4)   12

Answer: (2)

42. In a park, 784 pants are arranged so that number of plants in a row is same as the number of rows. The number of plants in each row is-

(1)   18

(2)   28

(3)   38

(4)   48

Answer: (2)

43. If two quantities x and y vary inversely with each other, then which one of the following is true?

(1)   Ratio of their corresponding values remains constant.

(2)   Product of their corresponding values remains constant.

(3)   Summation of their corresponding values remains constant.

(4)   Difference of their corresponding values remains constant.

Answer: (2)

44. Given

Then the value of y  is-

(1)   8

(2)   6

(3)   4

(4)   2

Answer: (3)

45. To fill a rectangular tank of area 700 m2, 140 m3 of water is required. What will be the height of the water level in the tank?

(1)   10 cm

(2)   20 cm

(3)   30 cm

(4)   40 cm

Answer: (2)

46. Which one of the following is the most suitable strategy to teach the skill of addition of money?

(1)   Use of ICT

(2)   Role play

(3)   Use of models

(4)   Doing lots of problems

Answer: (2)

47. After teaching the concept of multiplication to her class, a teacher asked her children to multiply 48 by 4.

One of her students solved it orally as “To multiply 48 by 4, we first add 48 to 48, which makes 96 and then add another 96 to reach 192. So, the answer is 192”.

What can  you say about his/her strategy of multiplication?

(1)   The child used a wrong method to multiply. He/She has to use the place value algorithm to multiply the numbers.

(2)   He/She has not understood the concept of multiplication.

(3)   The given problem is a multiplication problem and not addition problem.

(4)   He/She  understood multiplication as repeated addition.

Answer: (4)

48. Which one of the following should be taken up as initial activity in introducing the concept of ‘time’ to young learners?

(1)   Discussing about the prior experiences with phrases related to time

(2)   Teaching children how to read time in clock

(3)   Teaching children how to calculate elapsed time

(4)   Conversion of time in different units

Answer: (2)

49.  Which one of the following is not the purpose of assessment?

(A) Monitoring student’s growth

(B) Making instructional decision

(C) Evaluating the effectiveness of curriculum

(D) Ranking the children based on performance

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1)   A

(2)   D

(3)   B

(4)   C

Answer: (2)

50. Which one of the following methods is most suitable for teaching mathematics at upper primary level?

(1)   Demonstration method

(2)   Lecture method

(3)   Activity-based learning

(4)   Problem-solving method

Answer: (4)

51. Which one of the following is most essential in learning mathematics at upper primary level?

(1)   Solving a problem many times

(2)   Exploring different way s to solving a problem

(3)   Memorizing all formulas

(4)   Copying correctly what teacher writes on the board

Answer: (2)

52. The strategy of questioning used in the mathematics class at upper primary level-

(1)   should be discouraged as it demoralizes the child who is  unable to answer

(2)   makes the classroom noisy as the children would be talking too much

(3)   could create stress among children and may lead them to accept the teacher’s authority

(4)   helps children to express their thoughts or understanding and think critically

Answer: (4)

53. A teacher has taught measurement of area to class VIII children, but many of her students are confused between the usage of different units of area and volume. What could be the reason for such a confusion in children?

(1)   The children did not know the use of units for area.

(2)   The children have not memorized different units.

(3)   Different units have been introduced all together without relating them with their daily life. 

(4)   The concept of measurement of area is a difficult topic for a class VIII learner.

Answer: (3)

54. Which one of t he following can be the most appropriate aim of encouraging mathematical communication in classroom?

(1)   Children should be able to use a precise language while talking about mathematical statements and  using them

(2)   Children who have fear about mathematics should be able to interact in the class

(3)   To organize debates in the class regarding topics of mathematics

(4)   Children should be able to recite theorems and formulas in mathematics class

Answer: (1)

55. The purpose of a diagnostic test in mathematics is-

(1)   to know the gaps in children’s  understanding

(2)   to give feedback to the parents

(3)   to fill the progress report

(4)   to plan the question paper for the end term examination

Answer: (1)

56. Remedial teaching is helpful for-

(1)   teaching the whole class

(2)   recapitulating the lesson

(3)   teaching in play-way method

(4)   removing learning difficulties of weak students

Answer: (4)

57. Which one of the following is not a mathematical process?

(1)   Visualization

(2)   Memorization

(3)   Estimation

(4)   Measurement

Answer: (2)

58. “Errors play a crucial role in learning of mathematics.” This statement is-

(1)   false, because errors occur due to carelessness

(2)   true, because errors reflect the thinking of child

(3)   false, because mathematics is exact

(4)   true, because errors provide feedback about the marks they obtained

Answer: (4)

59. While teaching ‘shapes’, a teacher can plan a trip to historical places, as-

(A) it needs to provide leisure time as most of the syllabus has been completed in time

(B) it would be an opportunity to improve communication skill\

(C) shapes are an integral part of every architecture and such trips encourage connections across disciplines

(D) field trips are recommended by Education Board, so must be organized

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1)   A and B

(2)   C

(3)   B and C

(4)   A, C and D

Answer: (2)

60. A student was asked to calculate the surface area of a cube.

He calculated the volume.

The reason(s) of error in calculation is/are-

(A) the student finds the class boring as he does not like mathematics class

(B) the student is not fit to study in that class

(C) the student is not able to understand the concept of surface area and volume

(D) the student has understood the concept of surface area and volume

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1)   C

(2)   B and C

(3)   D

(4)   A and B

Answer: (1)

61. The longest snakes found in the word are-

(1)   vipers

(2)   anacondas

(3)   boas

(4)   reticulated pythons

Answer: (4)

62. Yoga is done by the people in the world because-

(1)   it is a simple exercise

(2)   it keeps people healthy

(3)   it increases hunger

(4)   it brings happiness

Answer: (2)

63. The vaccine for smallpox was discovered by-

(1)   Ronald Ross

(2)   Robert Koch

(3)   Edward Jenner

(4)   Alexander Fleming

Answer: (3)

64. Which one of the following is used as preservative?

(1)   Copper sulphate

(2)   Sodium benzoate

(3)   Ammonium sulphate

(4)   Sodium chloride

Answer: (2)

65. Yeast is used for the production of-

(1)   alcohol

(2)   curd

(3)   sugar

(4)   common salt

Answer: (1)

66. Mitochondria : ATP :: Ribosome : ?

(1)   Carbohydrate

(2)   Fat

(3)   Protein

(4)   Vitamin

Answer: (3)

67. If the frequency of a simple pendulum is 2 Hz, how many oscillations will it complete in 16 seconds?

(1)   8

(2)   16

(3)   32

(4)   64

Answer: (3)

68. Which one of the following metals burns if kept in air?

(1)   Sodium

(2)   Magnesium

(3)   Zinc

(4)   Aluminium

Answer: (1)

69. Magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)2]j is used as-

(1)   oxidizing agent

(2)   reducing agent

(3)   anti-acid

(4)   fermentation agent

Answer: (3)

70. Which one of the following gases burns with pop sound?

(1)   Oxygen

(2)   Hydrogen

(3)   Nitrogen dioxide

(4)   Sulphur dioxide

Answer: (2)

71. Which of the following is/are example(s) of non-contact force?

(1)   Gravitation force

(2)   Muscular force

(3)   Magnetic force

(4)   Both (1) and (2)

Answer: (ONE MARK TO ALL)

72. Diabetes is controlled by ______ hormone.

(1)   thyroxine

(2)   adrenaline

(3)   insulin

(4)   thymosin

Answer: (3)

73. Which one of the following is not a product of petroleum?

(1)   Kerosene

(2)   CNG

(3)   Paraffin wax

(4)   Bitumen

Answer: (2)

74. Red Data Book contains a record of-

(1)   endangered species

(2)   extinct species

(3)   flora

(4)   fauna

Answer: (1)

75. Why are the soles of the shoes treaded?

(1)   To give the shoes more protection

(2)   To decrease friction

(3)   To increase friction

(4)   To increase life of the shoes

Answer: (3)

76. Sarika took distilled water in a bottle and tried to find whether it conducts electricity or not. What is she likely to find?

(1)   It is good conductor of electricity.

(2)   It is an insulator.

(3)   It is poor conductor of electricity.

(4)   None of the above

Answer: (3)

77. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1)   There is a minimum limit of current which can safely flow in the electric circuit.

(2)   There is a maximum limit of current which can safely flow in the electric circuit.

(3)   Fuses are inserted in electric  circuits of all the buildings.

(4)   If the proper fuse is inserted in a circuit, it will blow off if the current is more than th e safe limit.

Answer: (1)

78. Which one of the following places is most likely to be affected by a cyclone?

(1)   Porbandar

(2)   Puri

(3)   Mumbai

(4)   Goa

Answer: (2)

79. The change in seasons on the earth occurs because-

(1)   the axis of rotation of the earth is perpendicular to the plane of its orbit.

(2)   the axis of rotation of the earth is tilted with respect to the plane of its orbit.

(3)   the distance between the earth and the s un is not constant

(4)   the axis of rotation of the earth is parallel to the plane of its orbit

Answer: (2)

80. There are two columns, Column-A and Column B :

Column –A

(a) Canopy

(b) Decomposers

(c) Humus

(d) Porcupine

Column – B

(i) Dead plant and animal tissues

(ii) A wild animal

(iii) Microorganism

(iv) Branches of tall tree

Which one of the following is t he correct sequence of Column-B for the given sequence of Column –A?

(1)   (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(2)   (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

(3)   (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

(4)   (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

Answer: (4)

81. Why is formative assessment important in science?

(1)   It is easy to conduct.

(2)   It helps in developing scientific temper in students.

(3)   It is diagnostic.

(4)   It helps in better understanding of science.

Answer: (3)

82. Why are science fairs organized in schools?

(1)   To prepare students for higher education in science

(2)   To help the students to score higher in their examination

(3)   to nurture creativity and experimentation in science among students

(4)   To evaluate students on the basis of their performance

Answer: (3)

83. As a teacher, which one of the following do you find most appropriate for scientific approach to teaching?

(1)   Clarify the students about the concepts in the class

(2)   Show the use of technology for teaching concepts

(3)   Give projects to the students

(4)   Ask the students to perform activities related to the concepts

Answer: (4)

84. According to NCF-2005, “good science education is true to life”. What does this mean?

(1)   Science should prepare the child to the world of work.

(2)   Science should be able to engage the child meaningfully.

(3)   Science should enable the child in learning the processes of acquiring scientific knowledge.

(4)   Science should help in living easy life.

Answer: (1)

85. Which one of the following is not a quality of scientific attitude?

(1)   Open-mindedness

(2)   Curiosity to learn more

(3)   Objectivity in approach to problems

(4)   Hard work

Answer: (4)

86. Hari wants to teach the circular motion to class VI students. Which one of the following will be the best method?

(1)   Discussion

(2)   Activity-based teaching

(3)   Giving examples

(4)   Demonstration

Answer: (2)

87. Which one of the following is an important aim of learning science?

(1)   To get knowledge of science

(2)   To collect the information of science contents

(3)   To imbibe the values of honesty, integrity and cooperation among learners

(4)   To help the fellow colleagues in getting knowledge of science

Answer: (3)

88. The continuous and comprehensive evaluation in science means-

(1)   summative and formative assessment

(2)   more frequent test and examination

(3)   routine activities and exercises to assess learning

(4)   evaluation of all aspects of science

Answer: (3)

89. Which one of the following is not a step of problem-solving approach?

(1)   Visualizing the situation

(2)   Attempt to solve

(3)   Drawing conclusion

(4)   Observation

Answer: (4)

90. Which one of the following is a step of analogy strategy in science?

(1)   Map similarities

(2)   Presentation of abstraction

(3)   Interlinking concepts

(4)   Application

Answer: (1)

IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 Either from Part-II (Mathematics and Science) Or from Part-III (Social Studies/Social Science).

PART-III

Social Studies/Social Science

31. Wind vane is used for measuring-

(1)   wind velocity

(2)   air pressure

(3)   wind direction

(4)   air temperature

Answer: (3)

32. Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere helps in the transmission of radio waves?

(1)   Stratosphere

(2)   Mesosphere

(3)   Thermosphere

(4)   Exosphere

Answer: (3)

33. Identify the various layers of the earth in order from interior to the outermost layer :

(1)   Crust, mantle, outer core, inner core

(2)   Mantle, crust, outer core, inner core

(3)   Inner core, outer core, crust, mantle

(4)   Inner core, outer core, mantle, crust

Answer: (4)

34. Observe carefully the location o the sun, earth and moon in the given diagram and tell what it depicts :

(1)   Solar eclipse

(2)   Lunar eclipse

(3)   Spring tide

(4)   Neap tide

Answer: (4)

35. When the river enters the plain, it bends and flows forming large bends known as-

(1)   levee

(2)   floodplain 

(3)   meander

(4)   oxbow lake

Answer: (3)

36. Which means of transport is extremely useful in most inaccessible areas and in time of calamities for rescuing people and distributing food, water, clothes and medicines?

(1)   Airways

(2)   Railways

(3)   Roadways

(4)   Waterways

Answer: (1)

37. The branch of geography which deals with composition of a particular human population is called-

(1)   urban geography

(2)   biogeography

(3)   demography

(4)   human geography

Answer: (3)

38. Assertion (A) :

The sun sets in Gujarat about two hours after Arunachal Pradesh.

Reason (R) :

Arunachal Pradesh is on a higher latitude than Gujarat.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

(1)   Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A)

(2)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)

(3)   (A) is true and (R) is false

(4)   (A) is false and (R) is true

Answer: (2)

39. Which one of the following is a n on-conventional source of energy?

(1)   Firewood

(2)   Natural gas

(3)   Solar energy

(4)   Coal

Answer: (3)

40. The breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds is known as-

(1)   sericulture

(2)   viticulture

(3)   horticulture

(4)   pisciculture

Answer: (4)

41. A narrow strip of land joining two landmasses is known as-

(1)   strait

(2)   isthmus

(3)   island

(4)   bay

Answer: (2)

42. Which one of the following continents is smallest in size?

(1)   Australia

(2)   South America

(3)   Africa

(4)   Europe

Answer: (1)

43. At the upper primary stage, Social Science comprises of-

(1)   History, Geography, Political Science, Psychology

(2)   History, Geography, Economics, Sociology

(3)   History, Geography, Political Science, Economics

(4)   History, Geography, Political Science, Sociology

Answer: (3)

44. Inductive learning is contradictory to which one of the following approaches?

(1)   Expository teaching

(2)   Structure training

(3)   Simulation

(4)   Mastery learning

Answer: (1)

45. Read the given statements A and B and select the correct answer :

(A) Critical thinking promotes the building of concepts, application and expansion of ideas.

(B) It does not help in understanding and evaluating arguments and beliefs of others.

(1)   A is true and B is false

(2)   A is false and B is true

(3)   Both A and B are false

(4)   Both A and B are true

Answer: (1)

46. What is an empirical evidence?

(1)   Data gathered in the real world through the senses

(2)   A numeric approach for research

(3)   Data measured in metric units

(4)   Data gathered using reliable methods of data collection

Answer: (1)

47. The models/replicas of physical features are most suitable for teaching-

(1)   History

(2)   Economics

(3)   Geography

(4)   Political Science

Answer: (3)

48. The collection of weather information from the local newspaper is an example of which type of source?

(1)   Primary

(2)   Secondary

(3)   Tertiary

(4)   Both Primary and tertiary

Answer: (2)

49. In which type of classroom, the students with learning disabilities learn alongside other students?

(1)   Exclusive

(2)   Special

(3)   Inclusive

(4)   Modern

Answer: (3)

50. Who has given the following theory?

“All children go through the same sequence of development, but at different rates. Therefore teacher must plan activities for individual children and small groups, not just for the class as a whole.

(1)   C. L. Ogden

(2)   D. Purcell

(3)   J. H. Bell

(4)   J. Piaget

Answer: (4)

51. In order to promote cooperative learning in the classroom, a teacher should-

(1)   engage students in debate and discussions

(2)   given them individual projects

(3)   divide the class in small groups for work

(4)   provide them various sources to do the project

Answer: (1)

52. A self-guided, self-disciplined thinking which attempts to reason at the highest level of quality in a fair-minded way is called-

(1)   critical thinking

(2)   complex thinking

(3)   intelligent thinking

(4)   abstract thinking

Answer: (1)

53. The colours used in the Ajanta Caves Paintings have been derived from which of the following materials?

(1)   Remains of animal organs

(2)   Graphite

(3)   Plants and minerals

(4)   Slate

Answer: (3)

54. The earliest manuscripts were written on-

(1)   palm leaves

(2)   stones

(3)   paper

(4)   wood

Answer: (1)

55. Which one of the following periods is longest in the human history?

(1)   Palaeolithic

(2)   Mesolithic

(3)   Neolithic

(4)   Megalithic

Answer: (1)

56. Read the given statements A and B and select the correct answer:

(A) Mehrgarh is located in a fertile plain near Bolan Pass of Pakistan.

(B) Evidences of farming and herding are found here.

(1)   A is true and B is false

(2)   A is false and B is true

(3)   Both  A and B are false

(4)   Both A and B are true

Answer: (4)

57. In which one of the following States of India, the largest number of Harappan sites have been found?

(1)   Punjab

(2)   Haryana

(3)   Gujarat

(4)   Jammu and Kashmir

Answer: (3)

58. ‘Rig Veda’ was originally composed in which one of the following languages?

(1)   Brahmi

(2)   Pali

(3)   Sanskrit

(4)   Prakrit

Answer: (3)

59. The first ruler of Magadha Mahajanapadas in the sixth century BC was-

(1)   Mahavira

(2)   Prasenjit

(3)   Bimbisara

(4)   Ajatashatru

Answer: (3)

60. Which one of the following is not among the three jewels of Buddhism?

(1)   Buddha

(2)   Dhamma

(3)   Ahimsa

(4)   Sangha

Answer: (3)

61. Who among the following elects the Rajya Sabha Members?

(1)   Voters in Assembly Constituencies

(2)   Voters in Parliamentary Constituencies

(3)   Lok Sabha Members

(4)   Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs)

Answer: (4)

62. Which of the following systems of government was adopted by India?

(1)   Parliamentary and Unitary

(2)   Presidential and Federal

(3)   Presidential and Unitary

(4)   Parliamentary and Federal

Answer: (4)

63. How many Parliamentary Constituencies are reserve for the scheduled Castes?

(1)   48

(2)   84

(3)   47

(4)   74

Answer: (2)

64. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is violated due to practice of untouchability in India?

(1)   Right to Equality

(2)   Right to Freedom

(3)   Right against Exploitation

(4)   Right to Constitutional Remedies

Answer: (1)

  1. As per the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

(1)   Right of Education

(2)   Right against Exploitation

(3)   Right to Freedom of Religion

(4)   Right to Property

Answer: (4)

66. Untouchability refers to the discrimination on the basis of-

(1)   physical disability

(2)   gender

(3)   caste

(4)   race

Answer: (3)

67. Who appoints the Chief Minister?

(1)   The President