GATE Exam 2023 Life Sciences (XL) Question Paper With Answer Key


XL: Life Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. The village was nestled in a green spot, _______ the ocean and the hills.

(A)   through

(B)   in

(C)   at

(D)   between

Answer: (D)

2. Disagree : Protest : : Agree : _______

(By word meaning)

(A)   Refuse

(B)   Pretext

(C)   Recommend

(D)   Refute

Answer: (C)

3. A ‘frabjous’ number is defined as a 3 digit number with all digits odd, and no two adjacent digits being the same. For example, 137 is a frabjous number, while 133 is not. How many such frabjous numbers exist?

(A)   125

(B)   720

(C)   60

(D)   80

Answer: (D)

4. Which one among the following statements must be TRUE about the mean and the median of the scores of all candidates appearing for GATE 2023?

(A)   The median is at least as large as the mean.

(B)   The mean is at least as large as the median.

(C)   At most half the candidates have a score that is larger than the median.

(D)   At most half the candidates have a score that is larger than the mean.

Answer: (C)

5. In the given diagram, ovals are marked at different heights (h) of a hill. Which one of the following options P, Q, R, and S depicts the top view of the hill?

(A)   P

(B)   Q

(C)   R

(D)   S

Answer: (B)

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

6. Residency is a famous housing complex with many well-established individuals among its residents. A recent survey conducted among the residents of the complex revealed that all of those residents who are well established in their respective fields happen to be academicians. The survey also revealed that most of these academicians are authors of some best-selling books.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)   Some residents of the complex who are well established in their fields are also authors of some best-selling books.

(B)   All academicians residing in the complex are well established in their fields.

(C)   Some authors of best-selling books are residents of the complex who are well established in their fields.

(D)   Some academicians residing in the complex are well established in their fields.

Answer: (MTA)

7. Ankita has to climb 5 stairs starting at the ground, while respecting the following rules:

(1) At any stage, Ankita can move either one or two stairs up.

(2) At any stage, Ankita cannot move to a lower step.

Let F(N) denote the number of possible ways in which Ankita can reach the 𝑁𝑡ℎ stair. For example, F(1) = 1, F(2) = 2, F(3) = 3.

The value of F(5) is _______.

(A)   8

(B)   7

(C)   6

(D)   5

Answer: (A)

8. The information contained in DNA is used to synthesize proteins that are necessary for the functioning of life. DNA is composed of four nucleotides: Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Cytosine (C), and Guanine (G). The information contained in DNA can then be thought of as a sequence of these four nucleotides: A, T, C, and G. DNA has coding and non-coding regions. Coding regions—where the sequence of these nucleotides are read in groups of three to produce individual amino acids—constitute only about 2% of human DNA. For example, the triplet of nucleotides CCG codes for the amino acid glycine, while the triplet GGA codes for the amino acid proline. Multiple amino acids are then assembled to form a protein.

Based only on the information provided above, which of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) The majority of human DNA has no role in the synthesis of proteins.

(ii) The function of about 98% of human DNA is not understood.

(A)   only (i)

(B)   only (ii)

(C)   both (i) and (ii)

(D)   neither (i) nor (ii)

Answer: (D)

9. Which one of the given figures P, Q, R and S represents the graph of the following function?

f(x) = | |x + 2| − |x – 1| |

(A)   P

(B)   Q

(C)   R

(D)   S

Answer: (A)

10. An opaque cylinder (shown below) is suspended in the path of a parallel beam of light, such that its shadow is cast on a screen oriented perpendicular to the direction of the light beam. The cylinder can be reoriented in any direction within the light beam. Under these conditions, which one of the shadows P, Q, R, and S is NOT possible?

(A)   P

(B)   Q

(C)   R

(D)   S

Answer: (D)

Chemistry – P (Compulsory)

XL-P: Q.11 – Q.19 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which one among the following mixtures gives a buffer solution in water?


(B) CH3COOH + NaCl

(C) NaOH + NaCl


Answer: (A)

12. What is the major product formed in the given reaction?

Answer: (C)

13. The CORRECT order of stability of the given metal oxides is

(A) LiO2 > NaO2 > KO2 > RbO2

(B) LiO2 < NaO2 < KO2 < RbO2

(C) LiO2 < NaO2 > KO2 > RbO2

(D) LiO2 > NaO2 < KO2 < RbO2

Answer: (B)

14. Which of the following is/are CORRECT when two single complementary strands of DNA come together to form a double helix at a given temperature?

(ΔS and ΔH are changes in entropy and enthalpy of the process, respectively.)

(A) ΔS > 0

(B) ΔS < 0

(C) ΔH > 0

(D) ΔH < 0

Answer: (B, D)

15. Suitable reagent(s) to bring about the conversion of P to Q in good yield is/are

Answer: (B, D)

16. Choose the CORRECT trend(s) of the first ionization energies among the following.

(Given: Atomic numbers C: 6; N: 7; O: 8; F: 9; Si: 14; P: 15; S: 16; Cl: 17)

(A) C < N > O < F

(B) Si < P > S < Cl

(C) C < N < O < F

(D) Si < P < S < Cl

Answer: (A, B)

17. The depression of freezing point of water (in K) for 0.1 molal solutions of NaCl and Na2SO4 are ΔT1 and ΔT2, respectively. Assuming the solutions to be ideal, the ratio ΔT1⁄ΔT2 is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.66 to 0.68)

18. Considering cyclobutane to be planar, the number of planes of symmetry in the following compound is ___________ (in integer).

Answer: (1 to 1)

19. The dipole moment (μ) of BrF is 1.42 D and the bond length is 176 pm. The atomic charge distribution (q) in the molecule is _____ (rounded off to two decimal places). (Given: 1 D = 3.34 × 1030 C m; the factor e (electronic charge) = 1.60 × 1019 C)

Answer: (0.16 to 0.18)

XL-P: Q.20 – Q.27 Carry TWO marks Each

20. Consider two different paths in which the volume of an ideal gas doubles isothermally:

(i) Reversible expansion (work done = wrev)

(ii) Irreversible expansion, with the external pressure equal to the final pressure of the gas (work done = wirrev)

Answer: (A)

21. A mixture of four peptides, PKKRK, RGERV, RYRGV and LVVYP, is loaded onto an ion-exchange column at pH = 7.2. If carboxymethyl (CM) cellulose is used as the stationary phase of this column, then which peptide elutes first?





Answer: (D)

22. Match the coordination complexes given in Column I with the most appropriate properties in Column II.

(Given: Atomic numbers of Mn: 25; Co: 27; Ni: 28)

(A) E-1, F-2, G-3, H-4

(B) E-2, F-1, G-4, H-3

(C) E-4, F-2, G-1, H-3

(D) E-1, F-4, G-3, H-2

Answer: (A)

23. Compounds P and Q undergo E2 elimination with reaction rate constants of k1 and k2, respectively, as shown below. Which is/are the CORRECT option(s)?

(A) k1 > k2

(B) k2 > k1

(C) Most stable conformer of P gives the product

(D) Most stable conformer of Q gives the product

Answer: (A, C)

24. According to Hard-Soft Acid-Base (HSAB) principle, the CORRECT option(s) for the solubility trend in water is/are

(A) AgF > AgCl > AgBr > AgI

(B) LiBr > LiCl > LiF

(C) AgF < AgCl < AgBr < AgI

(D) LiBr < LiCl < LiF

Answer: (A, B)

25. Compound X gives alcohol P as the major product for the reaction shown below. Suitable option(s) for X is/are

Answer: (B, C)

26. The number of radial node(s) for the valence orbital of U(III) ion is _____ (in integer).

(Given: Atomic number of U is 92)

Answer: (1 to 1)

27. Eº = 1.10 V for the following cell reaction:

Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) ⇌ Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)

For this reaction, the equilibrium constant is y × 1037 at 298 K. The value of y is _____ (rounded off to two decimal places).

(Given : F = 96485 C mol1, R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)

Answer: (1.58 to 1.66)

Biochemistry (XL-Q)

XL-Q: Q.28 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

28. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: On a per carbon basis, palmitic acid yields more ATP than glucose.

Reason [r]: Carbons in palmitic acid are more reduced than those in glucose.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C) [a] is true but [r] is false

(D) [a] is false but [r] is true

Answer: (A)

29. When cell components are fractionated by sedimentation, the correct order (from lower to higher gravitational force, g) in which the components get separated is _______.

(A) nuclei, mitochondria, microsomes, and ribosomes

(B) microsomes, mitochondria, ribosomes, and nuclei

(C) nuclei, ribosomes, mitochondria, and microsomes

(D) ribosomes, microsomes, mitochondria, and nuclei

Answer: (A)

30. In a population, the probability of a susceptible individual getting infected with SARS-CoV-2 is low when a majority of individuals in the population becomes immune to this virus. This phenomenon is known as _______.

(A) innate immunity

(B) adaptive immunity

(C) active immunity

(D) herd immunity

Answer: (D)

31. Given below are four reactions of the glycolytic pathway catalyzed by the enzymes E1, E2, E3, and E4, as indicated. Which of these enzymes is/are NOT part of the gluconeogenesis pathway?

(A) E1

(B) E2

(C) E3

(D) E4

Answer: (A, D)

32. Which of the following molecules is/are second messenger(s) produced by the phosphoinositide signaling cascade?

(A) Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate

(B) Inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate

(C) Inositol 1,3,5-triphosphate

(D) Diacylglycerol

Answer: (B, D)

33. A protein has seven cysteine residues. The maximum number of disulfide bonds of different combinations that can possibly be formed by these seven cysteine residues is _______ (in integer).

Answer: (48 to 48)

34. A lyophilized sample of 20 nanomoles of an oligonucleotide is dissolved in water and the volume of the solution is made up to 200 μ The concentration (in μM) of the oligonucleotide in this solution is ______ (in integer).

Answer: (100 to 100)

35. DNA in a 1 cm long chromatin contains 5 × 109 base pairs. The fold compaction of this DNA within the chromatin is _______ (in integer).

Answer: (170 to 170)

XL-Q: Q.36 – Q.46 Carry TWO marks Each

36. Intracellular concentrations of ATP, ADP, and inorganic phosphate in four cell types are given below. Which one of these cell types has the most negative ΔG for ATP hydrolysis?

(A) L

(B) K

(C) B

(D) M

Answer: (C)

37. Which one of the following amino acids has more than two acid-base groups?

(A) Alanine

(B) Leucine

(C) Phenylalamine

(D) Tyrosine

Answer: (D)

38. Enzyme activity profiles as a function of time in the absence or presence of different types of feedback mechanisms are shown in the figure below. Match the following feedback mechanisms with the corresponding profiles in the figure.

(p) No feedback mechanism

(q) Negative feedback mechanism with short delay

(r) Negative feedback mechanism with long delay

(s) Positive feedback mechanism

(A) (p) – (i); (q) – (ii); (r) – (iii); (s) – (iv)

(B) (p) – (iv); (q) – (iii); (r) – (ii); (s) – (i)

(C) (p) – (iv); (q) – (ii); (r) – (iii); (s) – (i)

(D) (p) – (i); (q) – (iii); (r) – (ii); (s) – (iv)

Answer: (B)

39. A linear DNA fragment of 5 kilobase (kb) when completely digested with EcoRI produces 2.5 kb, 1.5 kb, and 1 kb fragments. Complete digestion of the same 5 kb fragment with XbaI produces 3.5 kb and 1.5 kb fragments. Which one of the following sets of fragments will be obtained if the 5 kb fragment is fully digested with EcoRI and XbaI simultaneously?

(A) 3 kb and 2 kb

(B) 2 kb and 1 kb

(C) 2 kb, 1.5 kb, 1 kb, and 0.5 kb

(D) 2.5 kb, 1.5 kb, 0.75 kb, and 0.25 kb

Answer: (C)

40. Match the cell types listed in Group I with associated processes listed in Group II.

(A) (p) – (ii); (q) – (i); (r) – (iii); (s) – (iv)

(B) (p) – (ii); (q) – (i); (r) – (iv); (s) – (iii)

(C) (p) – (iii); (q) – (i); (r) – (iv); (s) – (ii)

(D) (p) – (iii); (q) – (ii); (r) – (i); (s) – (iv)

Answer: (C)

41. Four statements about lipids are given below as options. Choose the statement(s) which is/are CORRECT.

(A) Cholesterol is amphipathic

(B) Self-assembly of phospholipids in water is due to hydrophobic effect

(C) The temperature at which the gel phase changes to liquid crystalline phase increases with an increase in the degree of unsaturation of fatty acyl tails

(D) The choline head group of lipids is positively charged

Answer: (A, B, D)

42. Which of the following technique(s) can be used to separate proteins according to their molecular weights from a mixture of proteins?

(A) Ion exchange chromatography

(B) Size exclusion chromatography

(C) Sodium dodecylsulfate – polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE)

(D) Sucrose density gradient centrifugation

Answer: (B, C, D)

43. B cells produce two forms of an immunoglobulin: (i) membrane-bound form, known as B cell receptor (BCR) and (ii) soluble form, known as antibody. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT about BCR and antibody produced by the same B cell?

(A)  BCR and antibody have identical antigen binding site

(B) BCR and antibody recognize different epitopes

(C) BCR and antibody are encoded by the same gene

(D) BCR and antibody are formed by differential splicing

Answer: (A, C, D)

44. A 100 ml solution of pH 10 was well-mixed with a 100 ml solution of pH 4. The pH of the resultant 200 ml solution is ___________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (4.29 to 4.31)

45. An organism uses only the glycerophosphate shunt pathway to transport cytosolic NADH to mitochondria. For every two electrons transported, complex I, complex III, and complex IV of the electron transport chain in this organism transport 2.5, 1.5, and 2.0 protons (H+), respectively. The H+ to ATP ratio of FOF1-ATPase of this organism is 4.0. Terminal electron acceptor is oxygen.

The number of ATP molecules synthesized by oxidizing NADH from glycolysis is __________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (1.74 to 1.76)

46. If the extracellular concentration of sodium ion (Na+) is ten times more than its intracellular concentration, then the sodium equilibrium potential at 20 ºC in mV is ________________ (rounded off to two decimal places). Assume that the membrane is permeable only to Na+ [Use R = 1.987 cal deg−1 mol−1 and F = 23062 cal mol−1 V−1]

Answer: (57.80 to 58.80)

Botany (XL-R)

XL-R: Q.47 – Q.54 Carry ONE mark Each

47. Which one of the following statements on Casparian strips is correct?

(A) Casparian strips are specific to vascular plants found in epidermal cells.

(B)  Casparian strips are modifications mostly found in shoot tissue.

(C) Casparian strips act as a cellular barrier to allow selective nutrient uptake and exclusion of pathogens.

(D) Casparian strips are common in root endodermal cells of non-vascular plants.

Answer: (C)

48. Rotenone is a chemical often used to kill insect pests on crop plants and fishes in lakes. Rotenone acts by inhibiting electron transport from the NADH dehydrogenase enzyme in Complex I to ubiquinone in the mitochondrial electron transport chain. Which one of the following explains why plants can tolerate rotenone application?

(A) The Complex I in plants is resistant to rotenone.

(B) Plants inactivate rotenone by enzymatic degradation.

(C) Plants have specific channels that efflux rotenone out of the cell.

(D)  Plants have additional NAD(P)H dehydrogenases that are resistant to rotenone.

Answer: (D)

49. Although Pseudomonas syringae infection in plants is actively inhibited by the endogenous salicylic acid (SA) of host origin, a successful infection is still established because the bacterium secretes coronatine, an effector molecule. Which one of the following best describes the mode of action of coronatine?

(A) Coronatine inhibits SA biosynthesis.

(B) Coronatine promotes the biosynthesis of jasmonic acid (JA), and JA signaling in turn inhibits SA response.

(C) Coronatine is a structural analogue of SA, which binds to the SA receptor and inhibits its function.

(D) Coronatine is a structural analogue of jasmonic acid (JA), which activates JA signaling to inhibit SA response.

Answer: (D)

50. The schematic depicts an unexpanded plant cell within a hypocotyl with the arrangement of cellulose microfibrils marked on its cell wall.

Which one of the following shapes would most likely result from the expansion of this cell if the pattern of the cellulose fibrils does not change?

Answer: (A)

51. Which one or more of the following statements is/are NOT CORRECT with respect to pollen development in angiosperm?

(A) Tapetal cell wall in all angiosperms breaks down to release the cytoplasmic content.

(B) Tapetal cell wall in all angiosperms remains intact.

(C) Tapetal cell wall breaks down in some angiosperm species, whereas it remains intact in others.

(D) Within an angiosperm species, the tapetal cell wall breaks down in some individuals and not in others.

Answer: (A, B, D)

52. Regulation of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase (PEPCase) governs CO2 fixation in both C4 and CAM (crassulacean acid metabolism) plants. Which one or more of the following statements with respect to PEPCase activity is/are CORRECT?

(A) PEPCase in C4 plants is inactivated by dephosphorylation during the day.

(B) PEPCase in CAM plants is inactivated by dephosphorylation during the day.

(C) PEPCase in C4 plants is inactivated by dephosphorylation at night.

(D) PEPCase in CAM plants is inactivated by dephosphorylation at night.

Answer: (B, C)

53. Which one or more processes listed below DOES NOT/DO NOT produce carbon dioxide during fermentation?

(A) Brewing wine using yeast.

(B) Baking bread using yeast.

(C) Making yogurt using lactobacillus.

(D) Making cheese using fungus.

Answer: (C, D)

54. The ovule of a diploid species with 2n = 8 undergoes double fertilization. If the pollen is contributed by an individual with meiotic nondisjunction, the chromosome number of the zygote will be _________.

Answer: (12 to 12)

XL-R: Q.55 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

55. Match the tasks given in Group I with the associated techniques conventionally used as listed in Group II.

(A) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4; T-5

(B) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2; T-5

(C) P-5; Q-4; R-1; S-2; T-3

(D) P-3; Q-5; R-1; S-2; T-4

Answer: (B)

56. Periderm is a protective tissue found in stems and roots of gymnosperm and woody dicotyledons. It contributes to the increased thickness by secondary growth. Match the peridermal components given in Group I with the cell/tissue types given in Group II.

(A) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2

(B) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1

(C) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4

(D) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

Answer: (B)

57. Match the following rice diseases in Group I with their causal agents in Group II.

(A) P-5; Q-3; R-2; S-1

(B) P-4; Q-2; R-5; S-3

(C) P-4; Q-5; R-3; S-1

(D) P-5; Q-4; R-1; S-2

Answer: (A)

58. Central vascular cylinder or stele consists of the primary vascular system (xylem and phloem) and the associate fundamental tissue. Match the schematics of stele in Group I (xylem shown in green, and phloem shown as  ) with their respective types in Group II.

(A) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3

(B) P-5; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(C) P-5; Q-3; R-1; S-2

(D) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-5

Answer: (A)

59. Consider the following four experimental observations (i, ii, iii, iv) on the effect of the FT gene on flowering transition in the shoot apical meristem (SAM) of Arabidopsis thaliana.

(i) The FT promoter is active in leaves alone.

(ii) The ft null mutation causes delayed flowering transition of the SAM.

(iii) Expressing a recombinant FT protein fused to nuclear localization signal sequence under the endogenous promoter does not rescue the delayed-flowering phenotype of the ft null mutant.

(iv) Downregulation of FT transcript in the SAM by RNA interference in the wild-type background does not alter flowering transition.

Which one of the following conclusions best explains the above observations?

(A) FT protein resident in leaves causes flowering transition of the SAM.

(B) FT transcript moves from leaves to the meristem and promotes flowering.

(C) FT protein moves from leaves to the SAM and promotes flowering.

(D) Both FT transcript and FT protein are required in the SAM to promote flowering.

Answer: (C)

60. Which one of the options given correctly matches the alkaloids in Group I with their source plants in Group II?

(A) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(B) P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2

(C) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4

(D) P-4; Q-2; R-1; S-3

Answer: (A)

61. A drought tolerant rice genotype was found to be associated with a missense mutation in the gene A. Which one or more of the following experiments is/are appropriate to validate whether the mutation in A is the causal factor for drought tolerance?

(A)  Introduce the same mutation in a drought sensitive rice genotype and test if it becomes drought tolerant.

(B)  Delete the wild-type A in drought sensitive plant and test if it becomes drought tolerant.

(C) Determine the stability of the protein encoded by the wild-type and the mutant forms of A.

(D) Repair the mutation in the drought tolerant rice genotype and test if it becomes drought sensitive.

Answer: (A, D)

62. Blue light can directly induce opening of stomata. Blue light also triggers photosynthesis in the guard cells, which indirectly induces stomatal opening. Which one or more of the following experimental approaches would test the direct effect of blue light on stomatal opening?

(A) Application of low photon fluxes of red light followed by high fluence rate of blue light.

(B) Application of high fluence rates of red light followed by low photon fluxes of blue light.

(C) Application of high fluence rates of blue light followed by high photon fluxes of red light.

(D)  Inhibition of photosynthetic electron transport by dichlorophenyldimethylurea (DCMU).

Answer: (B, D)

63. In a diploid angiosperm species, flower colour is regulated by the R gene. RR and Rr genotypes produce red flowers, whereas the rr genotype produces white flowers. If two individual plants are randomly selected from a large segregating population of a genetic cross between RR and rr parents, the probability of both the plants producing red flowers is _______.

(Rounded off to two decimal places)

Answer: (0.56 to 0.56)

64. A cytoplasmic male-sterile female plant with the restorer (nuclear) genotype rr is crossed to a male-fertile male plant with the genotype RR. Both RR and Rr can restore the fertility, whereas rr cannot. When an F1 female plant with Rr genotype was test-crossed to a male-fertile male plant with the rr genotype, the percentage of the population that is male fertile would be _______ %. (Answer in integer)

Answer: (50 to 50)

65. The frequencies for autosomal alleles A and a are p = 0.5 and q = 0.5, respectively, where A is dominant over a. Under the assumption of random mating, the mating frequency among dominant parents is _________. (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Answer: (0.5 to 0.6)

Microbiology (XL-S)

XL-S: Q.66 – Q.73 Carry ONE mark each

66. Monkey pox is caused by a

(A) double-stranded DNA virus

(B) single-stranded DNA virus

(C) double-stranded RNA virus

(D) single-stranded RNA virus

Answer: (A)

67. Which one of the following converts sulfate to hydrogen sulfide?

(A) Beggiatoa

(B) Desulfovibrio

(C) Thiobacillus

(D) Thiothrix

Answer: (B)

68. Which one of the statements about bacterial flagella is correct?

(A) Flagella varies in length ranging from 0.5 to 2 μm.

(B) Flagella are adjacent fibrils with regular patterns.

(C) Flagella helps in conjugation.

(D) Flagella originates from basal body.

Answer: (D)

69. Microbial plastics are made from

(A) polyhydroxyalkanoates

(B) polystyrene

(C) polyurethane

(D) polyvinyl chloride

Answer: (A)

70. The correct sequence of metabolic intermediates in Krebs cycle is

(A) α-ketoglutarate → fumarate → succinate → malate

(B) fumarate → malate → succinate → α-ketoglutarate

(C) α-ketoglutarate → succinate → fumarate → malate

(D) succinate → α-ketoglutarate → malate → fumarate

Answer: (C)

71. Catabolite repression in bacteria is regulated by the concentration of

(A) amino acids

(B) glucose

(C) messenger RNA

(D) lactose

Answer: (B)

72. Phagocytosis was first described by

(A) Elie Metchnikoff

(B) Robert Hooke

(C) Robert Koch

(D) Paul Ehrlich

Answer: (A)

73. Which one of the following statements about batch culture of microbes is NOT correct?

(A) Cells from stationary phase will show longer lag phase when inoculated in fresh growth medium compared to those collected from exponential phase.

(B)  Death phase of culture is often exponential in nature.

(C) Stationary phase is the cryptic growth phase.

(D) The rate of generation of new cells during exponential growth phase is constant.

Answer: (D)

XL-S: Q.74 – Q.84 Carry TWO marks each

74. Match the test in Group I with its application in Group II

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Answer: (A)

75. Which one of the following is NOT correct about antibiotic resistance mechanism in microbes?

(A)  Mycoplasma is naturally resistant to penicillins due to presence of R plasmid.

(B) Gram-negative bacteria are impermeable to penicillin G.

(C) β-lactamases of bacteria can cleave penicillins.

(D) Selective microbes can efflux penicillins entering the cell and develop resistance.

Answer: (A)

76. A suspension of photosynthetic green algae was illuminated in the presence of 14CO2 for few seconds. The first metabolite in the Calvin cycle to be radiolabeled will be

(A) glyceraldehyde

(B) 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate

(C) 3-phosphoglycerate

(D) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate

Answer: (C)

77. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: Endospore can survive heat that would rapidly kill vegetative cells of the same species.

Reason [r]: In endospore, the protoplasm is reduced to minimum volume as a result of the accumulation of calcium-dipicolinic acid complexes and small acid-soluble spore proteins, which forms a cytoplasmic gel and a thick cortex.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C) Both [a] and [r] are false

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Answer: (A)

78. Which one of the following conjugations will result in formation of merodiploids?

(A) F+ donor × F recipient

(B) Hfr donor × F recipient

(C) F’ donor × F recipient

(D) F+ donor × Hfr recipient

Answer: (C)

79. Which of the following genus is/are a spirochete(s)?

(A) Borrelia

(B) Leptospira

(C) Spirulina

(D) Treponema

Answer: (A, B, D)

80. Which of the following is/are non-membrane bound inclusion bodies?

(A) Carboxysomes

(B) Cyanophycin granules

(C) Poly-β-hydroxybutyrate granules

(D) Polyphosphate granules

Answer: (B, D)

81. Which of the following antibiotics is/are isolated from Streptomyces spp.?

(A) Gentamicin

(B) Nystatin

(C) Polymyxins

(D) Tetracyclines

Answer: (B, D)

82. Which of the following statements about the primary and secondary adaptive immune responses to an antigen is/are correct?

(A) IgM antibodies appear first in response to the initial exposure of the antigen.

(B) Majority of the antibodies produced in response to the second exposure of the same antigen are IgM isotype.

(C) Second exposure of the same antigen stimulates production of memory cells.

(D) Primary antibody response has shorter lag phase than secondary antibody response.

Answer: (A, C)

83. The spontaneous, and induced mutations in bacteria can be distinguished by

(A) fluctuation test

(B) replica plating

(C) disc diffusion test

(D) use-dilution test

Answer: (A, B)

84. During the exponential growth, it took 6 hours for the population of bacterial cells to increase from 2.5 × 106 to 5 × 108. The generation time of the bacterium, rounded off to the nearest integer, is ________ minutes.

Answer: (46 to 48)

Zoology (XL-T)

XL-T: Q.85 – Q.92 Carry ONE mark Each

85. Which one of the following animals has “Book Lungs” as a respiratory organ?

(A) Earthworm

(B) Scorpion

(C) Octopus

(D) Starfish

Answer: (B)

86. Which one of the following describes the “innate behavior” of an animal?

(A) A behavior that is triggered due to the change in environment.

(B) A behavior that is trained by the parents.

(C)  A behavior that is determined by heredity.

(D) A behavior that is learnt by “hit and trial” approach.

Answer: (C)

87. Which one of the following represents a true “Ecological population” ?

(A) A pitcher plant and a trapped fly in it

(B) All animals that live near each other in a national park

(C) The leeches and the flatworms that live in a forest

(D) All the lions in a reserve forest

Answer: (D)

88. Which of the following animals show “Bottle cells” during the gastrulation stage of development?

(A) Snails

(B) Amphibians

(C) Birds

(D) Mammals

Answer: (B)

89. The organisms that obtain energy from inorganic compounds are known as

(A) Autotrophs

(B) Organotrophs

(C) Lithotrophs

(D) Phototrophs

Answer: (C)

90. Which of the following is/are the causative agent(s) of Filariasis?

(A) Wuchereria bancrofti

(B) Leishmania donovani

(C) Brugia malayi

(D) Trypanosoma gambiense

Answer: (A, C)

91. In a population of 1000 wild dogs in a grassland, 360 and 480 dogs had black body colour with genotypes BB and Bb, respectively. In the same population, remaining dogs were white in colour with a genotype of bb. Based on this data, the frequency of allele “b” in the population is ______ (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (0.4 to 0.4)

92. A mature rat sperm cell has 2.5 μg of genomic DNA that is equivalent of a haploid genome. Compared to this sperm cell, the amount of genomic DNA (in μg) in a somatic cell, which is in the G2 phase of cell cycle, will be _____ (in integer).

Answer: (10 to 10)

XL-T: Q.93 – Q.103 Carry TWO marks Each

93. In an experiment, excess amount of bicod mRNA (more than wild-type expression level) was injected into the posterior pole of a wild-type Drosophila embryo at pre-blastodermal stage. Out of the following options, which one represents the best expected phenotype in the resulted developing embryo?

(A) Normal embryo with head structure at anterior and tail structure at posterior pole

(B) Head structure only at posterior pole of the embryo

(C) Tail structure at anterior and head structure at posterior poles of the embryo

(D) Head structure at both anterior and posterior poles of the embryo

Answer: (D)

94. Match the hormones/precursors listed in Column I with their chemical type in Column II and the tissue of origin listed in Column III

(A) P – (ii) – d ; Q – (iii) – c ; R – (iv) – a ; S – (i) – b

(B) P – (ii) – d ; Q – (iv) – a ; R – (i) – c ; S – (iii) – b

(C) P – (i) – c ; Q – (ii) – b ; R – (iv) – d ; S – (iii) – a

(D) P – (iv) – a ; Q – (i) – d ; R – (ii) – b ; S – (iii) – c

Answer: (A)

95. Match the syndromes listed in Column I with the cause/symptoms listed in Column II

(A) P – (ii) ; Q – (v) ; R – (iv) ; S – (iii) ; T – (i)

(B) P – (iv) ; Q – (iii) ; R – (i) ; S – (ii) ; T – (v)

(C) P – (iii) ; Q – (iv) ; R – (i) ; S – (v) ; T – (ii)

(D) P – (v) ; Q – (iv) ; R – (ii) ; S – (i) ; T – (iii)

Answer: (C)

96. Match the immunological statements in Column I with the appropriate descriptions from Column II

(A) P – (ii) ; Q – (iii) ; R – (iv) ; S – (i)

(B) P – (iv) ; Q – (iii) ; R – (i) ; S – (ii)

(C) P – (iv) ; Q – (ii) ; R – (iii) ; S – (i)

(D) P – (i) ; Q – (iv) ; R – (iii) ; S – (ii)

Answer: (A)

97. Match the standard/stated cofactors in Column I with their respective enzymes in Column II

(A) P – (v) ; Q – (ii) ; R – (iv) ; S – (i) ; T– (iii)

(B) P – (ii) ; Q – (iv) ; R – (v) ; S – (iii) ; T – (i)

(C) P – (iv) ; Q – (ii) ; R – (iii) ; S – (i) ; T – (v)

(D) P – (ii) ; Q – (i) ; R – (iii) ; S – (iv) ; T – (v)

Answer: (B)

98. The presence of excess glucose has been known to prevent the induction of lac operon as well as other operon controlling enzymes involved in carbohydrate metabolism in E. coli. Which of the following processes define(s) the phenomenon?

(A) Catabolite repression

(B) Attenuation

(C) Glucose effect

(D) Feedback inhibition

Answer: (A, C)

99. Which of the following techniques is/are used for determining the three-dimensional structure of proteins?

(A) Cryo-electron Microscopy

(B) Circular Dichroism

(C)  Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy

(D) X-ray Diffraction

Answer: (A, C, D)

100. Among the following statements, which is/are TRUE regarding the replication of DNA?

(A)  Replication is bidirectional and conservative in nature.

(B) Replication in eukaryotes takes place at multiple Ori sites simultaneously.

(C)  Both the strands replicate in discontinuous manner.

(D)  One strand replicates in continuous while the other replicates in discontinuous manner.

Answer: (B, D)

101. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE for Colchicine?

(A) It binds to tubulin molecule and disrupts the assembly/polymerization of microtubule.

(B) It inhibits crossover of chromosomes during meiosis.

(C) It inhibits chromosome condensation during Prophase.

(D) It blocks mitotic cells in Metaphase.

Answer: (A, D)

102. Wild-type Drosophila females having three linked genes (AABBCC) were crossed with triple recessive mutant (aabbcc) males. The F1 female progenies (AaBbCc) were back crossed with the triple negative mutant (aabbcc) males. The cross resulted in following number of progenies in F2 :

The order of genes as determined from the above data was found to be “ABC” (note that the order is equivalent to “CBA” and the order outside the markers are arbitrary).

The recombination map distance (in centi Morgan) between “A to C” is ______ (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (53.8 to 53.8)

103. The length of a double helical DNA molecule is 13.6 km. If the DNA double helix weighs 1 × 10−18 g per 1000 nucleotide pairs and rise per base pair is 3.4 Å, then weight of the double helical DNA molecule (in nanogram) will be ______ (in integer).

Answer: (40 To 40)

Food Technology (XL-U)

XL-U: Q.104 – Q.111 Carry ONE mark Each

104. Choose the correct group of fat soluble vitamins

(A)  Cholecalciferol, α-Tocopherol, Menadione

(B) Thiamine, Cholecalciferol, α-Tocopherol

(C) Niacin, α-Tocopherol, Menadione

(D) Biotin, Thiamin, Niacin

Answer: (A)

105. The synthesis of thyroxine T4 in human body requires

(A) Selenium

(B) Iodine

(C) Iron

(D) Zinc

Answer: (B)

106. Which among the followings is NOT an essential amino acid?

(A) L-Phenylalanine

(B) L-Valine

(C) L-Lysine

(D) L-Arginine

Answer: (D)

107. The time required for stipulated destruction of a microbial population at a given temperature is

(A) D-value

(B) F-value

(C) z-value

(D) Q10 value

Answer: (B)

108. Which among the following statements is NOT correct?

(A) Cod fish is a major source of ω-3 fatty acids.

(B) Beetroot is a good source of β-carotene.

(C) Apple is a good source of vitamin B12.

(D) Fresh sugarcane juice is a good source of polyphenol oxidase.

Answer: (C)

109. Calculate the efficiency in percent (rounded off to 1 decimal place) of an oil expeller which yields 37 kg oil containing 5% solid impurities from 100 kg mustard seeds. The oil content of the mustard seed is 38%.

Answer: (92.0 to 93.0)

110. Orange juice is packaged aseptically and stored under ambient conditions. The degradation of vitamin C in the juice occurs during storage and it follows first order reaction kinetics. The degradation rate constant is 5.2 × 103 day1. The half-life of vitamin C in days is ____________ (in integer).

Answer: (132 to 134)

111. The weight of 10 kg dried cauliflower containing 5% moisture (wet basis) after rehydration is 60 kg. If the fresh cauliflower contained 87% moisture (wet basis), calculate the coefficient of rehydration (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (0.75 to 0.90)

XL-U: Q.112 – Q.122 Carry TWO marks Each

112. Some of the industrial products are produced by fermentation processes. Identify the correct pair of product and fermentative microorganism.

(A) Vinegar – Acetobacter aceti

(B) Citric acid – Enterbacter aerogenes

(C) Ethanol – Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(D) L-Lysine – Aspergillus niger

Answer: (MTA)

113. Choose the correct statement(s) about the enzyme and its application in food processing reaction.

(A)  Chymosin is widely used in cheese manufacturing.

(B) Thermolysin is used in the synthesis of Aspartame.

(C) β-Galactosidase catalyzes the hydrolysis of galactose.

(D) Lipase is used for restructuring of acyl glycerol.

Answer: (MTA)

114. Identify the Gram +ve bacteria responsible for causing food borne diseases among the followings

(A) Campylobacter jejuni

(B) Clostridium botulinum

(C) Vibrio cholerae

(D) Salmonella typhi

Answer: (B)

115. Extrusion cooking is accomplished in four different stages, which are indicated as I, II, III and IV in the figure given below. Choose the correct option representing the name of each stage.

(A) I – Feeding, II – Cooking, III – Kneading, IV – Expansion

(B) I – Kneading, II – Feeding, III – Cooking, IV – Expansion

(C) I – Feeding, II – Kneading, III – Cooking, IV – Expansion

(D) I – Cooking, II – Kneading, III – Feeding, IV – Expansion

Answer: (C)

116. Match the method/ value used for measuring lipid characteristics in Column I with the corresponding properties indicated by them, in Column II.

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Answer: (A)

117. Match the peeling technique in Column I with the vegetable, for which it is used in industry, given in Column II.

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Answer: (D)

118. Match the process in Column I with the related food component in Column II.

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Answer: (A)

119. Identify the correct statement(s) related to grain polysaccharides among the followings.

(A) Dextrin are a group of low molecular weight polysaccharides produced by dry hydrolysis of starch.

(B) Amylose is a linear polymer of D-glucose units joined by α (1→6) glycoside linkages.

(C)  Amylopectin is a branched chain polymer of D-galactose monomer units.

(D)  Retrogradation is a process of reassociation of amylose and formation of crystalline structure by gelatinized starch upon cooling.

Answer: (A, D)

120. A sample of glucose isomerase enzyme converts 15 μmoles of substrate glucose into product fructose min1 mL1 under standard assay conditions. The enzyme activity of the glucose isomerase in International Unit (IU) is _______ (in integer).

Answer: (15 to 15)

121. If D10 for Salmonella in egg yolk is 0.75 kGy, calculate the radiation dose in kGy (rounded off to 2 decimal places) required for reducing the Salmonella count in egg yolk by 8 log cycles.

Answer: (13.00 to 14.50)

122. The average moisture binding energy of a textured protein product (TPP) at 8% moisture content (dry basis) is 3200 cal.mol-1. If the water activity of the TPP at the above moisture content is 0.30 at 30℃, the water activity of the sample at 45℃ is __________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places). The value of Gas constant R = 1.987 cal.mol1.K1.

Answer: (0.32 to 0.41)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate 2020 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Post Graduate)

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2020

1. Three Science classes A, B and C take a Life Science test. The average score of class A is 83. The average score of class B is 76. The average score of class C is 85. The average score of classes A and B is 79 and average score of classes B and C is 81. Then, the average score of classes A, B and C is

(a)  80

(b)  80.5

(c)  81.5

(d)  81

Answer: (c)

2. In a library the ratio of story books and other books is 7 : 2 and there are 1512 story books. Due to collection of some more story books the said ratio becomes 15 : 4. The number of story books collected is

(a)  100

(b)  97

(c)  108

(d)  205

Answer: (c)

3. A and B have their monthly incomes in the ratio 8 : 5, while their monthly expenditures are in the ratio 5 : 3. If they have saved Rs. 12000 and Rs. 10000 monthly respectively, then the difference in their monthly incomes is

(a)  Rs. 52000

(b)  Rs. 46000

(c)  Rs. 44000

(d)  Rs. 42000

Answer: (d)

4. A farmer travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 h. He travelled partly on foot at the rate 4 km/h and partly on bicycle at the rate 9 km/h. The distance travelled on foot is

(a)  14 km

(b)  15 km

(c)  16 km

(d)  17 km

Answer: (c)

5. A sum of Rs. 7930 is divided into 3 parts and given on loan at 5% simple interest to A, B and C for 2 yr, 3 yr and 4 yr, respectively. If the amounts of all three are equal after their respective periods of loan, then the A received a loan of

(a)  Rs. 2760

(b)  Rs. 3050

(c)  Rs. 2800

(d)  Rs. 2750

Answer: (a)

6. A and B can do a piece of work in 30 and 36 days, respectively. They began the work together but A leaves after some days and B finished the remaining work in 25 days. After how many days did A leave?

(a)  6 days

(b)  11 days

(c)  10 days

(d)  5 days

Answer: (d)

7. From 1980-90, the population of a country was increased by 20%. From 1990-2000, the population of the country was increased by 20%. From 2000-10, the population of the country was increased by 20%. Then the overall increased population (in percentage) of the country from 1980-2010 was

(a)  60%

(b)  62.8%

(c)  72.2%

(d)  72.8%

Answer: (d)

8. If the product of two positive numbers be 1575 and their ratio is 7 : 9, then the greater number is

(a)  35

(b)  63

(c)  45

(d)  135

Answer: (c)

9. If A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 3 : 7, then

A + B : B + C : C + A is equal to

(a)  4 : 10 : 9

(b)  5 : 8 : 9

(c)  5 : 10 : 9

(d)  4 : 8 : 9

Answer: (c)

10. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 21 and 84, respectively. If the ratio of the two numbers is 1 : 4, then the larger of the two numbers is

(a)  84

(b)  108

(c)  48

(d)  12

Answer: (a)

11. A sell a cycle to B at a profit of 20% and B sells it to C at a loss of 25%. If C bought the cycle for Rs. P, then the cost price of it for A was

(a)  Rs. 9/10 P

(b)  Rs. 10/9 P

(c)  Rs. 1/20P

(d)  Rs. 9/20 P

Answer: (b)

12. A number when divided by 361 gives a remainder 47. If the same number is divided by 19, then the remainder obtained is

(a)  8

(b)  1

(c)  3

(d)  9

Answer: (d)

13. If 64 buckets of water are removed from a cubical shaped water tank completely filled with water, 1/3 of the tank remains filled with water. The length of each side of the tank is 1.2 m. Assuming that all buckets are of the same measure, then the volume (in litre) of water contained by each bucket is

(a)  12

(b)  16

(c)  18

(d)  15

Answer: (c)

14. In a farm there are cows and hens. If heads are counted there are 180, if legs are counted there are 420. The number of cows in the farm is

(a)  150

(b)  30

(c)  130

(d)  50

Answer: (b)

15. If the arithmetic means of 3a and 4b is greater than 50, and a is twice of b, then the smallest possible integer value of a is

(a)  18

(b)  19

(c)  20

(d)  21

Answer: (d)

16. If the average of eight consecutive even number be 93, then the greatest number among them is

(a)  86

(b)  98

(c)  100

(d)  102

Answer: (c)

17. x can copy 80 pages in 20 h, x and y together can copy 135 pages in 27 h. Then y can copy 20 pages in

(a)  3 h

(b)  12 h

(c)  20 h

(d)  24 h

Answer: (c)

18. The average of the largest and smallest 3 digit number formed by 0, 2 and 4 would be

(a)  213

(b)  303

(c)  312

(d)  222

Answer: (c)

19. In what ratio two types of tea costing Rs. 180/kg and Rs. 280/kg should be mixed in the ratio so that the mixture obtained sold at Rs. 320/kg to earn a profit of 20% is

(a)  1 : 13

(b)  2 : 13

(c)  3 : 13      

(d)  4 : 13

Answer: (b)

20. If a person marked a product 25% above the cost price but allows 10% discount, then the percentage of profit is

(a)  15%

(b)  12.5%

(c)  35%

(d)  17.5%

Answer: (b)

21. x and Mr. y each bought the same motorcycle using a 10% off coupon. Mr. x’s cashier took 10% off the price and then added 8.5% sales tax, whereas Mr. y’s cashier first added the sales tax and then took 10% off the total price. The amount Mr. x paid is

(a)  same as the amount Mr. y paid

(b)  greater than Rs. 850 as the amount Mr. y paid

(c)  less than Rs. 550 as the amount Mr. y paid

(d)  greater than Rs. 85 as the amount Mr. y paid

Answer: (a)

22. Two workers A and B are engaged to do a piece of work A working alone would take 8 h more to complete the work than when work together. If B worked alone, would take  more than when work together. The time required to finish the work together is

(a)  4 h

(b)  6 h

(c)  5 h

(d)  8 h

Answer: (b)

23. A and B invest in the ratio 3 : 5. After 6 months, C joins the business investing an amount equal to amount of B. At the end of the year what will be the ratio of their profits?

(a)  3 : 5 : 2

(b)  3 : 5 : 5

(c)  6 : 10 : 5

(d)  8 : 10 : 5

Answer: (c)

24. If a man walks at the rate of 5 km/h, he misses a train by 7 min. However, if he walks at the rate of 6 km/h, he reaches the station 5 min before the arrival of the train. The distance covered by him to reach the station is

(a)  6 km

(b)  4 km

(c)  7 km

(d)  6.25 km

Answer: (a)

25. A dealer fixed the price of an article 40% above the cost of production. While selling it he allows a discount of 20% and makes a profit of Rs. 48. The cost of production (in Rs.) of the article is

(a)  400

(b)  360

(c)  320

(d)  420

Answer: (a)

26. Articles are marked at a price which gives a profit of 25%. After allowing a certain discount the profit reduces to  The discount per cent is


(b)  12%

(c)  10%

(d)  11.1%

Answer: (c)

27. The average age of 30 students of a class is 14 yr 4 months. After admission of 5 new students in the class the average becomes 13 yr 9 months. The youngest one of the five new students is 9 yr 11 months old. The average age of the remaining 4 new students is

(a)  13 yr 6 months

(b)  12 yr 4 months

(c)  10 yr 4 months

(d)  11 yr 4 months

Answer: (c)

28. A sum of money is paid back in two annual installments of Rs. 17640 each, allowing 5% compound interest compounded annually. The sum borrowed was

(a)  Rs. 32400

(b)  Rs. 32000

(c)  Rs. 32200

(d)  Rs. 32800

Answer: (d)

29. There is a number consisting of two digits, the digit in the unit’s place is twice that in the ten’s place and if 2 is subtracted from the sum of the digits, the difference is equal to 1/6th of the number. The number is

(a)  26

(b)  23

(c)  25

(d)  24

Answer: (d)

30. Average of n numbers is a. The first number is increased by 2, second one is increased by 4, the third one is increased by 8 and so on. The average of the new numbers is

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-34) In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.


(a)  Reprimand

(b)  Censure

(c)  Commendation

(d)  Reproach

Answer: (c)


(a)  Boast

(b)  Remember

(c)  Manipulate

(d)  Harmonise

Answer: (b)

33. WHIM

(a)  Fancy

(b)  Clumsy

(c)  Desire     

(d)  Strange behaviour

Answer: (c)


(a)  Rude

(b)  Impertinent

(c)  Blunt

(d)  Frank

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 35-38) In each of the following questions, a word has been spelt in four different ways out of which only one is correct. Find the correctly spelt word.


(a)  Mountaineous

(b)  Mountaneous

(c)  Mountainous

(d)  Mountanous

Answer: (c)


(a)  Hindrence

(b)  Hindrane

(c)  Hinderence

(d)  Hinderance

Answer: (b)


(a)  Sacrosanct

(b)  Sacrosenct

(c)  Secrosanct

(d)  Sacrosantt

Answer: (a)


(a)  Palid

(b)  Pallid

(c)  Palled

(d)  Pellid

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 39-42) In each of the following below four sentences are given which are denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D). By using all the four sentences you have to frame a meaningful paragraph. The correct order of the sentences is your answer. Choose from the four alternatives the one having the correct order of sentences and mark it as your answer.

39. (A) Now under liberated economy they are learning to compete domestically and globally.

(B) In India corporations until recently achieved success by avoiding competition, using protected and regulated domestic markets.

(C) The trend is irreversible.

(D) Business leaders are preparing themselves to meet competitive challenges, and to avoid being swept away.

(a)  BADC

(b)  BDCA

(c)  BDAC

(d)  CDBA

Answer: (a)

40. (A) Recovery was given inadequate attention and consequently some bank branches regularly incurred heavy losses and their parent bodies had to bale them out.

(B) As a result, banks indulged in extensive lending to borrowers who had little or no potential to make repayments.

(C) To fulfill the social objectives laid down by the master of nationalization, banks were asked to lend to identified priority sectors.

(D) 1992-93 results showed that the loss making branches of public sector banks increased from 10,000 to 13,000 and the quantum of losses showed at Rs. 3,369 crores.

(a)  BACD

(b)  DABC

(c)  CBAD

(d)  BCAD

Answer: (c)

41. (A) Finally the bureaucratic organization took over from the pioneering enterprise.

(B) The nineteenth century was the age of entrepreneur, the self-made man.

(C) Thoughtful business administration took over from action-centred business

(D) In the twentieth century the rational executive took command.

(a)  DBAC

(b)  CABD

(c)  BDCA

(d)  BCDA

Answer: (c)

42. (A) He was so busy with them that he did not get time to eat.

(B) Thousands of people came to him and asked different types of questions.

(C) No one cared to see that he had his food or rest that night.

(D) Swami Vivekanand once stayed in a small village.

(a)  BCDA

(b)  CBAD

(c)  DBAC

(d)  DBCA

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 43-47) Each item in this section consists of sentences with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

43. He speaks eloquently and can pull crowds.

(a)  confusingly

(b)  expressively

(c)  powerfully

(d)  fluently

Answer: (a)

44. Everyone has to fight the inertia in the system.

(a)  sluggishness

(b)  indolence

(c)  activity

(d)  torpor

Answer: (c)

45. There is a need to promote philanthropy in education.

(a)  charity

(b)  benevolence

(c)  nastiness

(d)  likeliness

Answer: (c)

46. What we lack in the current times is

(a)  empathy

(b)  carefulness

(c)  indifference

(d)  hardship

Answer: (c)

47. Tempestuous behavior would not yield much in any place.

(a)  relaxed

(b)  passionate

(c)  intense

(d)  windy

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 48-52) Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group you consider most appropriate for the blank space.

48. The Election Commission on Saturday …….. that the Assembly elections in five states will be held from 12th November to 7th

(a)  pronounced

(b)  announced

(c)  promulgated

(d)  issued

Answer: (b)

49. The victims were fruit vendors and they were going in an auto when they ……….. an accident on the way.

(a)  met with

(b)  ran into

(c)  experienced

(d)  heard

Answer: (a)

50. Scores of villagers are …….. a sit-in protest against the construction of a new underpass.

(a)  performing

(b)  sitting

(c)  staging

(d)  standing

Answer: (c)

51. It is common for patients to stop ………… medicine as soon as they start feeling better.

(a)  eating

(b)  gulping

(c)  swallowing

(d)  taking

Answer: (d)

52. A four-year-old girl got a new lease of life after doctors at a hospital ………… a cancerous tumour from one of her kidneys.

(a)  rejuvenated

(b)  removed

(c)  displaced

(d)  replaced

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-55) Choose the correct plural form of the given words.

53. Loaf

(a)  Loaves

(b)  Loafs

(c)  Loavs

(d)  Lofes

Answer: (a)

54. Spy

(a)  Spis

(b)  Spys

(c)  Spies

(d)  Spiess

Answer: (c)

55. Vertex

(a)  Vertics

(b)  Vertexs

(c)  Verticess

(d)  Vertices

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-75) Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.


Indian nationalism emanated from ‘traditional patriotism’, a socially active sentiment of attachment to land, language and cult, that developed in the subcontinent long before the process of westernization had begun. In India of the 18th and early 19th centuries, such sentiments were emerging on a regional basis as homeland was being defined by various terms like desh, vatan or nadu. But although regionally centred at Bengal, Maharashtra, Awadh or Mysore, their isolation broke down through various means of communication, the political legitimacy of  the Mughal empire was recognized throughout Hindustan, which was thought to be the abode of both the Hindus and the Muslims. Cultural barriers melted down through commercialization and regular pilgrimages. It burst forth through numerous acts of resistance; participated by both princes and the commoners, culminating in the Revolt of 1857. After the revolt, a modern sector of politics gradually evolved in India, through rapid spread of education, development of communication systems, such as the railways and telegraph and the emergence of a new public space created by the colonial institutions.

56. Which of the following was the result of the East India Company’s rule in India?

(a)  Good government

(b)  Consolidation of patriotic sentiments

(c)  New ethical tradition

(d)  Evangelicalism

Answer: (b)

57. Which of the following contributed most to the dissolution of cultural barriers?

(a)  Pilgrimage

(b)  Creation of Mughal Empire

(c)  Commercialization

(d)  Communication networks

Answer: (c)

58. In pre-colonial India, what did the nationalism mean?

(a)  Cultural construction of homeland

(b)  Linguistic affinity

(c)  Patriotism

(d)  Social activism

Answer: (d)


Anxiety and conscience are a pair of powerful dynamos. Of course, I can only speak for myself between them, they have ensured that one shall work at anything worthwhile. They are blind forces which drive but do not direct. Fortunately, I have also been moved by a third motive-the wish to see and understand. Curiosity is another motive for action. It is also one of the distinctive characteristics of human nature (keep) contrasted with the natures of non-human animals.

All human beings have curiosity in some degree and we also have it about things which are of no practical use. Curiosity may be focused on anything in the universe, but the spiritual reality of the phenomenon should be the ultimate objective of all curiosity for it to be fruitful. Thanks to my mother, my approach to this ultimate objective is through the story of human affairs.

59. What is the main objective of this passage?

(a)  Distinguish between human beings and animals

(b)  Project curiosity as a potent motivating factor

(c)  Project anxiety and conscience as inadequate motivators

(d)  Motivation and spiritual reality

Answer: (b)

60. A characteristic, peculiar to human beings that is referred to, is

(a)  superior intelligence

(b)  spirit of enquiry

(c)  capacity to rationalize and analyze

(d)  ability to shift the practical from the impractical

Answer: (b)

61. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?

(a)  Animals are as curious as human beings

(b)  Curiosity is the only motive for action

(c)  People motivated by curiosity do not need other motives to guide them

(d)  People motivated by anxiety and conscience alone can be misdirected

Answer: (d)

62. According to the author

(a)  those who have little curiosity are curious about unimportant things

(b)  apart from humans no other living being have the gift of curiosity

(c)  the highest form of the curiosity can be satisfied by study of human affairs alone

(d)  spiritual reality is the ultimate goal of humans through action

Answer: (d)

63. The author subscribes to the view that

(a)  one’s curiosity should focus beyond the façade on the latent meaning of things

(b)  curiosity is an inherited family characteristic

(c)  a study of human affairs is the most effective method of satisfying one’s curiosity

(d)  in order to motivate, curiosity must be coupled with anxiety and conscience

Answer: (a)


One simple physical concept lies behind the formation of the stars : gravitational instability. The concept is not new. Newton first perceived it late in the 17th century.

Imagine a uniform, static cloud of gas in space. Imagine then that the gas is somehow disturbed so that one small spherical region becomes a little denser than the gas around it so that the small region’s gravitational field becomes slightly stronger. It now attracts more matter to it and its gravity increases further, causing it to begin to contract. As it contracts, its density increases, which increase its gravity even more, so that it picks up even more matter and contracts even further. The process continues until the small regions of gas finally forms a gravitationally bound object.

64. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(a)  describe a static condition

(b)  support a theory considered outmoded

(c)  depict the successive stages of a phenomenon

(d)  demonstrate the evolution of the meaning of a term

Answer: (c)

65. It can be inferred from this passage that the author views the information contained within it as

(a)  lacking in elaboration

(b)  original but obscure

(c)  speculative and unprofitable

(d)  uncomplicated and traditional

Answer: (d)

66. With which of the following words can you replace the word ‘uniform’ as given in this passage?

(a)  Uniting

(b)  Varying

(c)  Gaseous

(d)  Unvarying

Answer: (d)

67. What does the word ‘It in bold type stand for in the passage?

(a)  Gravitational instability

(b)  Cloud of gas

(c)  Small spherical denser region

(d)  Matter

Answer: (c)

68. The author provides information that answers which of the following questions? Choose the correct option.

(i) What causes the disturbances that changes the cloud from its original static condition?

(ii) How does this small region’s increasing density affect its gravitational field?

(iii) What is the end result of the gradually increasing concentration of the small region of gas?

(a)  Only (i)

(b)  Only (ii)

(c)  (ii) and (iii)

(d)  All of these

Answer: (c)


As heart disease continues to be the number one killer in the United States, researchers have become increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High fat-diets and life in the fast lane have long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. But according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising. Heart failure, e.g., appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of heart attacks occurs in cold weather and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other day of the week.

In addition. People are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after waking. Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980 and have since discovered a number of possible causes. An early morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate and concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 am and 10:00 am. In other studies, both birthday and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors.

Statistics reveal that heart attack rate increases significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though, stress is thought to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of future comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered.

69. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(a)  Cardiology

(b)  Diet and stress as factors in heart attacks

(c)  Seasonal and temporal patterns of heart attacks

(d)  Risk factors in heart attacks

Answer: (c)

70. The word ‘potential’ could best be replaced by which of the following?

(a)  Harmful

(b)  Possible

(c)  Unknown

(d)  Primary

Answer: (b)

71. According to the passage, which of the following is not a possible cause of morning heart attacks?

(a)  Decreased blood flow to the heart

(b)  Increased blood pressure

(c)  Lower heart rate

(d)  Increase in hormones

Answer: (c)

72. Which of the following is cited as possible risk factor?

(a)  Getting married

(b)  Rainy weather

(c)  Eating fatty foods

(d)  Driving fast

Answer: (c)

73. Which of the following does the passage infer?

(a)  We now fully understand how the risk factors trigger heart attacks.

(b)  We do not fully understand how the risk factors trigger heart attacks.

(c)  We have not identified risk factors associated with heart attacks.

(d)  We have recently begun to study how risk factors work.

Answer: (b)

74. What could be the suitable title of the passage?

(a)  Heart disease in the USA

(b)  Causes of Heart Attack

(c)  Stress

(d)  Risk of Heart attack in Humans

Answer: (b)

75. Which word can be the most opposite word of ‘unlikely’?

(a)  Susceptible

(b)  Stimulating

(c)  Implicated

(d)  Aforementioned

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.

P, who faces are centre, sits third to the right of V. T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbor of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbor of P.

76. Who sits second to the left of Q?

(a)  V

(b)  P

(c)  T

(d)  Y

Answer: (b)

77. What is the position of T with respect to V?

(a)  Fourth to the left

(b)  Second to the left

(c)  Third to the left

(d)  Third to the right

Answer: (c)

78. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a)  R

(b)  W

(c)  V

(d)  S

Answer: (d)

79. Which of the following will come in place of the question mark(?) based upon the given seating arrangement?


(a)  YT

(b)  VY

(c)  VQ

(d)  PY

Answer: (a)

80. Which of the following is true regarding R?

(a)  R is an immediate neighbor of V

(b)  R faces the centre

(c)  R sits exactly between T and S

(d)  Q sits third to left of R

Answer: (c)

81. In the given figure, which letter represents those Actors who are also Dancers, Singers as well as Violinists?

(a)  S

(b)  Q

(c)  P

(d)  U

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 82 and 83) In the following questions, which one of the following diagram represents the correct relationship among :

82. Lion, Fox and Carnivorous

Answer: (c)

83. Manager, Labour Union and Worker

Answer: (a)

84. In a certain code language ‘INSTITUTION’ is written as ‘NOITUTITSNI’. How will ‘PERFECTION’ is written in that language?





Answer: (d)

85. In a certain code language ‘RELATED’ is written as ‘EFUBKDQ’, then how will ‘RETAINS’ be written in that language?





Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-89) In these questions, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

86. KNQT : LORU : : ADGJ : ?

(a)  BEHK

(b)  FHLO

(c)  DGEF

(d)  MPVW

Answer: (a)


(a)  MEUBG

(b)  BGMUE

(c)  EBGMU

(d)  MUGEB

Answer: (d)

88. ADIP : DGLS : : BEJQ : ?

(a)  EHMT

(b)  EJQU

(c)  CGLS

(d)  FINU

Answer: (a)

89. ACE : BDF : : CEG : ?

(a)  DEF

(b)  DFH

(c)  DEH

(d)  DFE

Answer: (b)

Direction (Q. No. 90) A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.


Answer: (c)

91. Fatima while introducing Mustafa to her husband said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. How is Fatima related to Mustafa?

(a)  Aunt

(b)  Sister

(c)  Niece

(d)  Mother

Answer: (b)

92. A, Q, Y and Z are different persons. Z is the father of Q. A is the daughter of Y and Y is the son of Z. If P is the son of Y and B is the brother of P, then

(a)  B and Y are brothers

(b)  A is the sister of B

(c)  Z is the uncle of B

(d)  Q and Y are brothers

Answer: (b)

93. Radhika went 50 m South from her house, then turned left and went 20 m, then turning to North she went 30 m. In which direction is her home from this point?

(a)  North

(b)  South-West

(c)  East

(d)  North-West

Answer: (d)

94. If South-East becomes North and North-East becomes West and all the rest directions are changed in the same manner, what will be the direction for the West?

(a)  North-East

(b)  South

(c)  South-East

(d)  South-West

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 95-97) In the following questions a statement is given, you have to assume everything to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Give Answer

(a) If only course of action I follows

(b) If only course of action II follows

(c) If either course of action I or II follows

(d) If both courses of action I and II follow

95. Statement Many pilgrims died in a stampede while boarding a private ferry to the holy place on the first day of the ten-day-long festival.

Course of action

(I) The Government should immediately cancel the licences of all the private ferry operators with immediate effect.

(II) The Government should deploy an. adequate number of its personnel to guide pilgrims on their journey to the holy place.

Answer: (b)

96. Statement Some students of the local college were caught travelling in the train without purchasing valid tickets.

Courses of action

(I) The parents of these students should be informed about the incident and requested to counsel their wards.

(II) These students should be put behind bars for travelling without bona fide credentials.

Answer: (a)

97. Statement A large part of the locality was flooded as the main pipe supplying drinking water burst while the workers of a utility company were laying cables in the area.

Courses of action

(I) The civic authority should immediately arrange to repair the damage and stop loss of water.

(II) The civic authority should seek an explanation and compensation from the utility company for the damage caused by them.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 98 and 99) In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by two Conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follow from the given statements.

98. Statements

(A) Education is a process of lighting.

(B) Mind requires light to enlighten the core of cognitive aspect.


(I) Education is a light which removes the darkness of mind.

(II) Education is a static process for mind.

(a)  Only Conclusion I follows

(b)  Only Conclusion II follows

(c)  Both Conclusions I and II follow

(d)  Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: (a)

99. Statements

(A) Best performance in Olympics fetches a gold medal.

(B) Player ‘X’ got god medal but later was found to be using a prohibited drug.


(I) ‘X’ should be allowed to keep the gold medal.

(II) Gold medal should be withdrawn and given to the next person.

(a)  Only Conclusion II follows

(b)  Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

(c)  Both Conclusions I and II follow

(d)  Only Conclusion I follows

Answer: (a)

100. In this question, two statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to decide which of the given conclusion(s) follow(s) from the given statements.


(A) There are monks among those who are felicitated for remarkable social service.

(B) Jitananda and Vidyananda are among those felicitated.


(I) Jitananda and Vidyananda did remarkable social service

(II) All monks do social service

(III) Jitananda and Vidyananda are not monks

(IV) All monks are felicitated

(a)  Only conclusion I follows

(b)  Only conclusion II follows

(c)  Only conclusion III follows

(d)  Only conclusion IV follows

Answer: (a)

101. The tagline ‘The Complete Man’ is associated with which of the following fashion brand?

(a)  Siyaram

(b)  Raymond

(c)  Zara

(d)  Allen Solly

Answer: (b)

102. Who is the current CEO of Indian fashion e-commerce company Myntra?

(a)  Amar Nagaram

(b)  Ananth Narayanan

(c)  Vineet Saxena

(d)  Mukesh Bansal

Answer: (a)

103. Which of the following retail stores belong to Aditya Birla Group?

(a)  Big Bazar

(b)  Croma

(c)  Hypercity

(d)  Pantaloons

Answer: (d)

104. RADO, the famous international wrist watch range belongs to

(a)  Switzerland

(b)  Spain

(c)  Japan

(d)  France

Answer: (a)

105. Which Indian film actress is the brand ambassador of online portal ‘Make My Trip’?

(a)  Priyanaka Chopra

(b)  Shraddha Kapoor

(c)  Alia Bhatt

(d)  Deepika Padukone

Answer: (c)

106. Which among the following dance forms belongs to Andhra Pradesh?

(a)  Sattriya

(b)  Bharatnatyam

(c)  Kathak

(d)  Kuchipudi

Answer: (d)

107. Which among the following is an Indian Brand?

(a)  Chanel

(b)  Zara

(c)  Gucci

(d)  Allen Solly

Answer: (d)

108. Who is the first female Chief Economist of International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

(a)  Kristalina Georgieva

(b)  Anshula Kant

(c)  Gita Gopinath

(d)  Rohini Pandey

Answer: (c)

109. Which state is known for its renowned Maheshwari and Chanderi Sarees?

(a)  Karnataka

(b)  Madhya Pradesh

(c)  Tamil Nadu

(d)  Rajasthan

Answer: (b)

110. Which of these cities is a World Heritage city by declared by UNESCO?

(a)  Ahmedabad

(b)  Delhi

(c)  Chennai

(d)  Hyderabad

Answer: (a)

111. In which state is the Manas National Park located?

(a)  Assam

(b)  Rajasthan

(c)  Meghalaya

(d)  Manipur

Answer: (a)

112. Baggit is a well known brand which sells

(a)  bags

(b)  belts

(c)  wallets

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

113. Who became the first ever Indian to win a gold at Badminton World Championship?

(a)  PV Sindhu

(b)  Saina Nehwal

(c)  P Kashyap

(d)  Jwala Gutta

Answer: (a)

114. Where is Louis Vuitton headquarters located?

(a)  London

(b)  Milan

(c)  Paris

(d)  New York

Answer: (c)

115. Which is the world’s biggest retailer brand?

(a)  Target

(b)  Walmart  

(c)  JC Penny

(d)  Amazon

Answer: (b)

116. Which of the following desert is located in China?

(a)  Thar desert

(b)  Atacama desert

(c)  Kalahari desert

(d)  Gobi desert

Answer: (d)

117. In which year was the Lakme Fashion Week first started?

(a)  2006

(b)  2008

(c)  2000

(d)  1999

Answer: (d)

118. Which Constitutional Amendment Act gave Constitutional Status to Panchayati Raj Institutions?

(a)  73rd

(b)  74th

(c)  93rd

(d)  94th

Answer: (a)

119. Which of the following is not a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization?

(a)  India

(b)  China

(c)  Japan

(d)  Russia

Answer: (c)

120. Retail venture ‘Big Bazar’ is owned by

(a)  Future Group

(b)  Bharti Group

(c)  Sriram Group

(d)  Rahja Group

Answer: (a)

121. Which of these river is a tributary of Ganga?

(a)  Son

(b)  Narmada

(c)  Godavari

(d)  Mahi

Answer: (a)

122. Which Indian American economist was awarded the Nobel Prize of Economics in 2019?

(a)  Kaushik Basu

(b)  Raghuram Rajan

(c)  Abhijeet Banerjee

(d)  Urjit Patel

Answer: (c)

123. Who among the following is not an Indian fashion designer?

(a)  Manish Malhotra

(b)  Rohit Bal

(c)  Ritu Kumar

(d)  Bibi Russell

Answer: (d)

124. Which city is known as the ‘Manchester’ of South India?

(a)  Cochin

(b)  Coimbatore

(c)  Calicut

(d)  Chennai

Answer: (b)

125. Little black dress was introduced by

(a)  Zara

(b)  Gucci

(c)  Prada

(d)  Coco Chanel

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 126-139) Read each case very carefully and answer the questions that follow.


The Chinese krait and the Chinese cobra might be the original source of the newly discovered coronavirus that has triggered an outbreak of a deadly infectious respiratory illness in China in winter 2019. The many-banded krait (Bungarus multicinctus), also known as the Taiwanese krait or the Chinese krait, is a highly venomous species of elapid snake found in much of Central and Southern China and South-East Asia.

The illness was first reported in late December 2019 in Wuhan, a major city in central China and has been rapidly spreading. Since then, sick travellers from Wuhan have infected people in China and other countries, including the United States. India, Japan, Australia, Singapore, Hong Kong.

Using samples of the virus isolated from patients, scientists in China have determined the genetic code of the virus and used microscopes to photograph it. The pathogen responsible for this pandemic is a new coronavirus. It’s in the same family of viruses as the well-known Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (SARS-CoV) and Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-CoV), which have killed hundreds of people in the past 17 years. The World Health Organization (WHO) has named the new coronavirus 2019-nCoV.

The name of coronavirus comes from its shape, which resembles a crown or solar corona when imaged using an electron microscope. The electron microscopic image reveals the crown shape structural details for which the coronavirus was named. This image is of the Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-CoV).

Coronavirus is transmitted through the air and primarily infects the upper respiratory and gastrointestinal tract of mammals and birds. Though most of the members of the coronavirus family only cause mild flu-like symptoms during infection, SARS-CoV and MERS-CoV can infect both upper and lower airways and cause severe respiratory illness and other complications in humans. This new 2019-nCoV causes similar symptoms to SARS-CoV and MERS-CoV. People infected with these coronaviruses suffer a severe inflammatory response. Unfortunately, there is no approved vaccine or antiviral treatment available for coronavirus infection. A better understanding of the life cycle of 2019-nCoV, including the source of the virus, how it is transmitted and how it replicates are needed to both prevent and treat the disease.

126. Taiwanese Krait or the Chinese Krait, the original source of the newly discovered coronavirus, is a highly venomous species of elapid snake found in much of

(a)  Central China

(b)  Southern China

(c)  South-East Asia

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

127. Coronavirus affected sick travellers from Wuhan have infected people in China and other countries, including

(a)  Tanzania

(b)  Australia

(c)  Uganda

(d)  Congo

Answer: (b)

128. The Pathogen responsible for the pandemic of China is a new coronavirus. The WHO has named the new coronavirus 2019 as

(a)  SARS-CoV

(b)  MERS-CoV

(c)  nCoV

(d)  W-CoV

Answer: (c)

129. The electron microscopic image of the virus depicts which shape and structure of coronavirus?

(a)  Helical shape

(b)  Icosahedral shape

(c)  Prolate shape

(d)  Crown shape

Answer: (d)

130. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus and Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus can infect

(a)  upper airways

(b)  lower airways

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)


The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel 2019 (commonly known as the Nobel Prize for economics) has been awarded to Abhijeet Banerjee, Esther Duflo and Michael Kremer “for their experimental approach to alleviating global poverty.”

Through the award, the Nobel committee recognized both the significance of development economics in the world today and the innovative approaches developed by these three economists.

Esther Duflo is only the second woman to be awarded the prize (after Elinor Ostrom in 2009). Banerjee, who is also her husband, is the third ever non-white recipient (after Arthur Lewis in 1979 and Amartya Sen in 1998).

In a recent issue of the journal ‘Nature’, Goran Hansson, head of the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences that awards the Nobel, highlighted measures to address the imbalance in gender and ethnicity among winners.

He said “we are making sure to elect women to the academy” from which the prize-awarding committees for the chemistry, physics and economics Nobels are drawn. The first woman to win the John Bates Clark Medal for top economists under 40, an important indicator of who will be awarded the economics Nobel in the future, Susan Athey, only did so in 2007.

Esther Duflo was the second winner in 2010. Since then, women winners of the Clark medal have been more frequent.

Of course, award decisions are made strictly on significance of contributions. But, based on this evidence, perhaps Athey, Amy Finkelstein (who won the medal in 2012) and Emi Nakamura (who won it in 2019) will not be far behind.

131. The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences has been awarded to

(a)  Abhijeet Banerjee

(b)  Esther Duflo

(c)  Michael Kremer

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

132. Esther Duflo is also only the second woman to be awarded the Nobel Prize in Economics after

(a)  Goran Hansson

(b)  Elinor Ostrom

(c)  Susan Athey

(d)  Emi Nakamura

Answer: (b)

133. Abhijeet Banerjee is the third ever non-white recipient of Nobel Prize for Economics after

(a)  Arthur Lewis and Amartya Sen

(b)  Goran Hansson and Amartya Sen

(c)  Elinor Ostrom and Amartya Sen

(d)  Susan Athey and Emi Nakamura

Answer: (a)

134. The first woman to win the John Bates Clark Medal for top economists under 40 is

(a)  Susan Athey

(b)  Goarn Hasson

(c)  Elinor Ostrom

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)


In the 16th century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration, Ferdinand Magellan led the first expedition to sail around the world. As a young Portuguese noble, he served the king of Portugal, but he became involved in the quagmire of political intrigue at court and lost the king’s favor.

After he was dismissed from service by the king of Portugal, he offered to serve the future Emperor Charles V of Spain.

A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World, West of 50 degrees W longitude to Spain and all the land East of that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to prove that the East Indies fell under Spanish authority. On 20th September, 1519, Magllan set sail from Spain with five ships.

More than a year later, one of these ships was exploring the topography of South America in search of a water route across the continent. This ship sank, but the remaining four ships searched along the Southern peninsula of South America.

Finally they found the passage they sought near 50 degrees S latitude. Magellan named this passage the ‘Strait of All Saints’, but today it is known as the “Strait of Magellan”.

One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean. Those who remained, crossed the meridian, now known as the International Date Line in the early spring of 1521 after 98 days in the Pacific Ocean. During those long days at sea, many of Magellan’s men died of starvation and disease.

Later, Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and was killed in a tribal battle. Only one ship and 17 sailors under the command of the Basque navigator Elcano survived to complete the westward journey to Spain and thus prove once and for all that the world is round, with no precipice at the edge.

135. Which of the following century is known as ‘an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration?

(a)  17th century

(b)  18th century

(c)  16th century

(d)  15th century

Answer: (c)

136. After being dismissed from service of Portuguese king, Magellan served under which king?

(a)  Charles V of Britain

(b)  Charles V of Spain

(c)  George IV of Britain

(d)  Czar of Russia

Answer: (b)

137. The passage which was discovered by Magellan is known by which name today?

(a)  Strait of Hormuz

(b)  Strait of Gibraltar

(c)  Strait of Magellan

(d)  Strait of Charles

Answer: (c)

138. In which year, Spanish Ships crossed International Date Line

(a)  1525

(b)  1500

(c)  1498

(d)  1521

Answer: (d)

139. Under whose command, the only surviving ship returned to Spain and proved that world is round?

(a)  Ferdinand Magellan

(b)  Elcano

(c)  Christopher Columbus

(d)  John Cabot

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 140-150) In each of these questions a passage is followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inferences separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

(a) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it directly follows from the facts given in the passage.

(b) If the inference is ‘probably true’ i.e. through not definitely true in the light of facts given.

(c) If you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of facts given.

(d) If you think the inference is ‘definitely’ false’ i.e. it contradicts the given facts.


Sanitation is one of the biggest problems in India. There are about 700 million people who have no access to toilets at home. Slum areas do not have toilets. People are thus forced to defecate in the open, which causes numerous diseases like diarrhoea, cholera, dehydration etc. Many rural schools also have no toilets, because of which parents do not send their kids, especially girls, to school.

Due attention was drawn towards this problem by Gandhiji but nothing much was done. A growing population is the biggest challenge causing these problems.

For example, the sewage system in Delhi was designed to meet the needs of a population of three million people. But Delhi now has more than 14 million of population. This is not just the case of Delhi; every state and region in India is the same. Though 12 million toilets claim to have been built under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan in the last five years, as per a UN report, 44% of the population continues to defecate in the open. Sanitation, solid waste management and drainage continue to pose challenges.

A ranking exercise was taken up by the Government of India called ‘Swachh Survekshan” to assess rural and urban areas for their levels of cleanliness and active implementation of Swachhata mission initiatives in a timely and innovative manner.

The objective of the survey is to encourage large scale citizen participation and create awareness amongst all sections of society about the importance of working together towards making towns and cities a better place to live in. Additionally, the survey also intends to foster a spirit of healthy competition among towns and cities to  improve their service delivery to citizens, towards creating cleaner cities and towns.

140. A growing population is the biggest challenge causing problems related to sanitation.

Answer: (a)

141. There is a lack of good hygiene habits and inadequacy of social support in society that made sanitation a major problem in the country.

Answer: (b)

142. Objective of ‘Swachh Survekshan Mission’ is to encourage people to go for cleanliness activities individually and neglect group activities

Answer: (d)

143. ‘Swachh Survekshan’ exercise to assess rural and urban areas for their levels of cleanliness has increased the healthy competition among states.

Answer: (a)

144. Most of the cities are doing good in terms of sanitation except few such as Delhi and Mumbai.

Answer: (c)


Availability of clean cooking fuel is a major challenge for rural households in India. This deprivation is predominantly suffered by women and children as they are the most exposed to harmful effects of smoke from burning unclean fuels in the households.

In order to safeguard the health of women and children by providing them with a clean cooking fuel-LPG, the Government of India (GoI) launched (1st May, 2016) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY). The scheme aims to provide five crore deposit-free LPG connections to women belonging to Below Poverty Line (BPL) households appearing in Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC2011) and suffering with at least one deprivation.

In SECC-2011 Census survey, Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) enumerated 24.49 crore (17.97 crore rural and 6.52 crore urban) households in the country. Out of these, 10.31 crore households {8.72 crore rural (48.53 per cent) and 1.59 crore urban (24.39 per cent)} suffered with at least one deprivation, which were identified by the GoI for release of five crore LPG connections under PMUY.

PMUY provides that an amount of Rs. 1600 per LPG connection towards security deposit for LPG Cylinder, Pressure Regulator and Installation Charges etc. would be borne by the Government as one-time financial assistance to adult women of BPL households included in the SECC-2011 and who are not already having any LPG connection in their household. It also prescribed that the Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) viz. Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) would provide an option to PMUY beneficiaries to opt for loan, if they so desire, to cover the cost of a cooking stove and first refill. EMI of loan amount would be recovered by the OMCs from the subsidy amount due to the beneficiaries on refills.

145. It was women and children who are mostly exposed due to burning of unclean fuel in household.

Answer: (a)

146. Giving gas cylinder in the name of women will strengthen their economic status in the family.

Answer: (b)

147. Though cylinder will be provided free of cost, the charges of pressure regulator and installation charges will be borne by beneficiary.

Answer: (d)

148. Putting cost of cooking stove and refill on beneficiary will become hindrace for BPLs to go for refilling of cylinders.

Answer: (b)

149. The major challenge for rural households in India is availability of cooking fuel.

Answer: (a)

150. PMUY also prescribed OMCs, IOCL, BPCL and HPCL for beneficiaries to opt for loan if they desire to cover the cost of a cooking stove and first refill.

Answer: (a)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) UNDER GRADUATE 2020 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Under Graduate)

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2020

1. A company employed 200 workers to complete a certain work in 150 days. If only 1/4th of the work has been done in 50 days, then in order to complete the whole work in time, the number of additional workers to be employed was

(a)  300

(b)  200

(c)  100

(d)  600

Answer: (c)

2. A boat moves downstream at the rate of 1 km in  and upstream at the rate of 5 km in an hour. What is the speed of the boat in the still water?


(b)  8 km/h


(d)  4 km/h

Answer: (c)

3. The average weight of first 11 persons among 12 persons is 95 kg. The weight of 12th person is 33 kg more than the average weight of all the 12 persons. The weight of the 12th person is

(a)  128 kg

(b)  97.45 kg

(c)  128.75 kg

(d)  131 kg

Answer: (d)

4. If a man earns Rs. 2000 for his first 50 h of work in a week and is then paid one and one half times his regular hourly rate for any additional hours, then the hours must he work to make Rs. 2300 in a week is

(a)  4 h

(b)  5 h

(c)  6 h

(d)  7 h

Answer: (b)

5. Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 6 h and pipe B in 8 h. If both the pipes are opened and after 2 h pipe A is closed, then how much time pipe B will take to fill the remaining tank?

Answer: (b)

6. A builder purchases 25 windows at 25% off the total price of Rs. 120000. If the builder receives an additional discount of Rs. 7500 for the purchase, then the cost of each window is

(a)  Rs. 3100

(b)  Rs. 3200

(c)  Rs. 3300

(d)  Rs. 3400

Answer: (c)

7. x does 1/4 of a job in 6 days, y completes rest of the job in 12 days. Then, x and y could complete the job together in

Answer: (a)

8. If 90 men can do a certain job in 16 days, working 12 h per day, then that part of that work which can be complete by 70 men in 24 days, working 8 h per day is

(a)  2/3

(b)  5/8

(c)  7/9

(d)  1/3

Answer: (c)

9. A profit of 12% is made when a mobile phone is sold at Rs. P and there is 4% loss when the phone is sold at Rs. Q. Then Q : P is

(a)  4 : 5

(b)  3 : 1

(c)  1 : 1

(d)  6 : 7

Answer: (d)

10. A man purchases some oranges at the rate of 3 for Rs. 40 and the same quantity at 5 for Rs. 60. If he sells all the oranges at the rate of 3 for Rs. 50, then find his gain or loss per cent (to the nearest integer).

(a)  31% loss

(b)  32% profit

(c)  34% loss

(d)  31% profit

Answer: (b)

11. Pooja wants to sell a watch at a profit of 20%. She bought it at 10% less and sold it at Rs. 30 less, but still she gained 20%. The cost price of watch is

(a)  Rs. 220

(b)  Rs. 225

(c)  Rs. 240

(d)  Rs. 250

Answer: (d)

12. The portion of a ditch 48 m long, 16.5 m wide and 4 m deep that can be filled with stones and earth available during excavation of a tunnel, cylindrical in shape, of diameter 4 m and length 56 m is (take π = 22/7)

(a)  1/9 part

(b)  1/4 part

(c)  2/9 part

(d)  1/2 part

Answer: (c)

13. A school group charters three identical buses and occupies 4/5 of the seats. After 1/4 of the passengers leave, the remaining passengers use only two of the buses. The fraction of the seats on the two buses that are now occupied is

(a)  7/10

(b)  9/10

(c)  8/9

(d)  7/9

Answer: (b)

14. Let x be the smallest number, which when added to 2000 makes the resulting number divisible by 12, 16, 18 and 21. The sum of the digits of x is

(a)  7

(b)  6

(c)  5

(d)  4

Answer: (a)

15. While solving a problem, by mistake, Anita squared a number and then subtracted 25 from it rather than first subtracting 25 from the number and then squaring it. But the got the right answer. What was the given number?

(a)  13

(b)  38

(c)  48

(d)  Cannot be determined

Answer: (a)

16. P and Q together can do a job in 6 days Q and R can finish the same job in 60/7 days. P started the work and worked for 3 days. Q and R continued for 6 days. Then, the difference of days in which R and P can complete the job, is

(a)  15

(b)  10

(c)  8

(d)  12

Answer: (b)

17. Two places P and Q are 162 km apart. A train leaves P for Q and simultaneously another train leaves Q for P. They meet at the end of 6 h. If the former train travels 8 km/h faster than the other, then speed of train from Q is

Answer: (b)

18. In an examination average marks obtained by the girls of a class is 85 and the average marks obtained by the of the same class is 87. If the girls and boys are in the ratio 4 : 5, then average marks of the whole class (approx.) is closest to

(a)  86.5

(b)  86.1

(c)  85.9

(d)  86.4

Answer: (b)

19. The price of an antique is reduced by 20% and then this price again reduced by 10%. The total reduction of the price is

(a)  30%

(b)  28%

(c)  25%

(d)  23%

Answer: (b)

20. The marked price of a tape recorder is Rs. 12600. A festival discount of 5% is allowed on it. Futher for cash payment, a second discount of 2% is given. The cash payment, is to be made for buying it, is

(a)  Rs. 11730.60

(b)  Rs. 11703.60

(c)  Rs. 11073.60

(d)  Rs. 11370.60

Answer: (a)

21. A shopkeeper sold his goods at half the list price and thus lost 20%. If he had sold on the listed price, his gain percentage would be

(a)  20%

(b)  35%

(c)  60%

(d)  72%

Answer: (c)

22. In a school there were 1554 students and the ratio of the number of the boys and girls was 4 : 3. After few days, 30 girls joined the school but few boys left, as a result the ratio of the boys and girls became 7 : 6. The number of boys who left the school is

(a)  84

(b)  76

(c)  74

(d)  86

Answer: (b)

23. The number, which can be written in the form of n(n + 1) (n + 2), where n is a natural number, is

(a)  3

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  5

Answer: (b)

24. If x can finish a job in 4 h and y can finish the same job in 8 h independently, then they together will finish the job in

(a)  160 min

(b)  150 min

(c)  140 min

(d)  120 min

Answer: (a)

25. In a partnership business, B’s capital was half of A’s. If after 8 months, B withdrew half of his capital and after 2 months more A withdrew one-fourth of his capital, then the profit ratio of A and B will be

(a)  10 : 23

(b)  23 : 10

(c)  5 : 2

(d)  2 : 5

Answer: (b)

26. A car covers four successive 7 km distances at speeds of 10 km/h, 20 km/h, 30 km/h, 60 km/h, respectively. Its average speed over this distance is

(a)  40 km/h

(b)  20 km/h

(c)  30 km/h

(d)  60 km/h

Answer: (b)

27. If a hemisphere is melted and four spheres of equal volume are made, then the radius of each sphere will be equal to

(a)  1/4th of the radius of the hemisphere

(b)  radius of the hemisphere

(c)  1/2 of the radius of the hemisphere

(d)  1/6th of the radius of the hemisphere

Answer: (c)

28. The average of six numbers is 3.95. The average of two of them is 3.4, while the average of the other two is 3.85. The average of the remaining two numbers is

(a)  4.5

(b)  4.7

(c)  4.6

(d)  4.8

Answer: (c)

29. If (x3 – y3) : (x2 + xy + y2) = 5 : 1 and (x2 – y2) : (x – y) = 7 : 1, then the ratio 2x : 3y equals

(a)  3 : 2

(b)  4 : 1

(c)  2 : 3

(d)  4 : 3

Answer: (b)

30. A manufacturer fixes his selling price at 33% over the cost of production. If cost of production goes up by 12% and manufacturer raises his selling price by 10%, his percentage profit is

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-33) In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/proverb has been given (underlined) followed by some alternatives. Choose the one that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.

31. There is no cut and dried formula for success in life.

(a)  guaranteed

(b)  readymade form

(c)  compulsory

(d)  undefined

Answer: (b)

32. Meena is not highly qualified but she has the gift of the gab.

(a)  loves to gossip

(b)  speaks irrationally

(c)  art of speaking

(d)  constantly talk out of context

Answer: (c)

33. Rahul proved to be a fair-weather friend to Abhishek as he refused to support him in hard times.

(a)  a selfish friend

(b)  a faithful friend

(c)  a man of good heart

(d)  a man of wisdom

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 34 and 35) In each of the questions below, only one among the given alternatives is correctly spelt. Find out the word with correct spelling.


(a)  Enterprenuer

(b)  Enterepraneur

(c)  Entrapreneur

(d)  Entrepreneur

Answer: (d)


(a)  Itinarary

(b)  Itenerary

(c)  Itinerary

(d)  Itinarery

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36 and 37) In each of the following questions, choose the wrongly spelt word.


(a)  Conceit

(b)  Deceit

(c)  Receive

(d)  Percieve

Answer: (d)


(a)  Coupious

(b)  Cautious

(c)  Captious 

(d)  Capricious

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 38 and 39) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate singular form of the given word.

38. Phenomena

(a)  Phenomen

(b)  Phenomenal

(c)  Phenomenon

(d)  Phenomenas

Answer: (c)

39. Strata

(a)  Stratum

(b)  Stratas

(c)  Stratal

(d)  Strati

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 40 and 41) From among the options given below each word, choose the appropriate plural form of the given word.

40. Medium

(a)  Mediums

(b)  Media

(c)  Medias

(d)  Mediumies

Answer: (b)

41. Crisis

(a)  Crisisess

(b)  Crisises

(c)  Crisies

(d)  Crises

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-45) in each of these question, choose the alternative which can replace the underlined word without changing the meaning of the sentence.

42. His boss’ criticism left him feeling rather

(a)  annoyed

(b)  arrogant

(c)  embarrassed

(d)  awakened

Answer: (c)

43. He wrote a scathing review of the prize winning novel.

(a)  biased

(b)  scornful

(c)  unbalanced

(d)  subjective

Answer: (b)

44. Even the most careful researcher cannot predict the possible future ramifications of his findings.

(a)  consequences

(b)  developments

(c)  uses

(d)  conclusions

Answer: (a)

45. After he came back from his evening walk, he felt famished.

(a)  exhausted

(b)  peevish

(c)  relaxed

(d)  hungry

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-49) Fill in the blanks.

46. I swam …….. the lake.

(a)  in

(b)  into

(c)  at

(d)  on

Answer: (a)

47. He lives ……. 48, MG Road.

(a)  in

(b)  at

(c)  on

(d)  for

Answer: (b)

48. Nobody …….. that he is innocent.

(a)  is believing

(b)  believes

(c)  believe

(d)  believed

Answer: (b)

49. Mother ……… busy cooking for the guests who are arriving in the evening.

(a)  was

(b)  has

(c)  had been

(d)  has been

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 50-53) In each of these questions, choose the alternative which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word.

50. He has a passion for indigenous

(a)  native

(b)  foreign

(c)  silly

(d)  cheap

Answer: (b)

51. The leader was pragmatic in his approach to the problems faced by the country.

(a)  indefinite

(b)  vague

(c)  idealistic

(d)  optimistic

Answer: (c)

52. That was dauntless

(a)  cowardly

(b)  secret

(c)  subtle

(d)  devious

Answer: (a)

53. It is obligatory for a common citizen to follow the rules.

(a)  advisable

(b)  unnecessary

(c)  superfluous

(d)  optional

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 54 and 55) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative that can be substituted for the given phrase/sentence.

54. Giving undue favours to one’s own kith and kin.

(a)  Favouritism

(b)  Nepotism

(c)  Corruption

(d)  Worldliness

Answer: (b)

55. That cannot be corrected

(a)  Invulnerable

(b)  Hardened

(c)  Incurable

(d)  Incorrigible

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-75) Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.


“The history of science is the real history of mankind.” In this striking epigram, a nineteenth century writer links science with its background. Like most epigrams, its power lies in emphasizing by contrast an aspect of truth which may be easily overlooked. In this case, it is easy to overlook the relations between science and mankind and to treat the former as some abstract third party, which can sometimes be praised for its beneficial influences, but frequently and conveniently blamed for the horrors of war.

Science and mankind cannot be divorced from time to time at man’s convenience. Yet, we have seen that, in spite of countless opportunities of improvement, the opening  years of the present period of civilization have been dominated by International conflict. Is this the inevitable result of the progress of science or does the fault lie somewhere else?

56. The sentence “The history of science is the real history of mankind” means

(a)  science has given man countless opportunities for improvement.

(b)  science and mankind cannot always be divorced.

(c)  mankind has progressed as science has developed.

(d)  the good and bad uses of science reflect the character of man.

Answer: (d)

57. The epigram given in the passage highlights

(a)  the evolution of science

(b)  the real history of man

(c)  the contrast between science and civilization

(d)  an elusive truth about human nature

Answer: (d)

58. The aspect of truth likely to be overlooked is that science

(a)  has made war horrible

(b)  is beneficial to man

(c)  is what man has made it

(d)  has created international conflicts

Answer: (c)

59. The writer implies that international conflict is the result of

(a)  faulty relations between nations

(b)  human weaknesses

(c)  invention of deadly weapons

(d)  progress of science

Answer: (b)

60. The last sentence of the passage suggests that

(a)  civilization could prosper well without scientific inventions.

(b)  the trouble lies with human beings themselves.

(c)  people have missed opportunities to improve themselves.

(d)  the horrors of modern life are the inevitable result of the progress of science.    

Answer: (b)


There is more than a modicum of truth in the assertion that “a working knowledge of ancient history is necessary to the intelligent interpretation of current events”. But the sage who uttered these words of wisdom might well have added something on the benefits of studying, particularly, the famous battles of history for the lessons they contain for those of us who lead or aspire for leadership.

Such a study will reveal certain qualities and attributes which enabled the winners to win, and certain deficiencies which caused the losers to lose. And the student will see that the same pattern recur consistently, again and again, throughout the centuries.

61. The expression ‘more than a modicum of truth’ means

(a)  nothing but truth

(b)  some truth

(c)  much truth

(d)  more than a small amount of truth

Answer: (d)

62. In this context, ‘intelligent interpretation of current events’ means

(a)  skillful interpretation of events

(b)  intellectual outlook on events

(c)  appropriate understanding of events

(d)  rational explanation of events

Answer: (d)

63. According to the writer, a study of the famous battles of history would

(a)  provide food to modern leaders for reflection.

(b)  be beneficial to wise man.

(c)  help us understand the art of human warfare.

(d)  be more useful than a general knowledge of ancient history.

Answer: (a)

64. A person who aspires to lead could learn from the history of battles

(a)  the qualities and deficiencies of commanders of these battles.

(b)  what led the previous leaders win battle.

(c)  what made them lose a battle.

(d)  the strategies they evolved in course of these battles.

Answer: (a)

65. A knowledge of history is necessary to interpret current problems because

(a)  they may be repetitions of past events.

(b)  only then they can be put in a proper context.

(c)  they have roots in the past.

(d)  they can be contrasted with the past events.

Answer: (a)


No one knows when or by whom rockets were invented. In all probability the rocket was not suddenly invented but evolved gradually over a long period of time. Perhaps in different parts of the world at the same time. Some historians of rocketry; notably Willy Ley, trace the development of rocket to the 13th century China, a land noted in ancient times for its firework display.

In the year AD 1232, when the Mongols laid siege to the city of Kai-Feng Fu, the capital of Homan province, the Chinese defenders used weapons that were described as ‘arrows of flying fire’.

There is no explicit statement that these arrows were rockets, but some students have concluded that they were because the record does not mention bows or other means of shooting the arrows.

In the same battle, we read the defenders dropped from the walls of the city a kind of bomb described as ‘heaven-shaking thunder’. From these meager references, some students have concluded that the Chinese, by the year 1232, had discovered gun powder and had learned to use it to make explosive bombs as well as propulsive charge for rockets.

66. The passage gives, primarily, a history of

(a)  the bravery of the Chinese

(b)  the invention of rockets

(c)  the attack on China by the Mongols

(d)  the battle against the Chinese wall

Answer: (b)

67. According to this passage, rockets were invented by

(a)  Willy Ley

(b)  unknown people

(c)  the Mongols

(d)  the ruler of Honan province

Answer: (b)

68. According to this passage, rockets were

(a)  a gift of God to the Chinese

(b)  invented in the twentieth century

(c)  invented in AD 1232

(d)  developed over many centuries

Answer: (d)

69. The phrase ‘arrows of flying fire’

(a)  means some ancient phenomenon in the skies

(b)  refers to lightning and thunder

(c)  is another name for rockets

(d)  is assumed to refer to rockets

Answer: (d)

70. The bombs have been referred to as ‘heaven shaking thunder’ because they

(a)  contain gunpowder

(b)  make thunderous noise

(c)  are propelled by rockets

(d)  seem to fall from heaven

Answer: (b)


When we pick up a newspaper, a book or an article we come to our task with certain preconceptions and predispositions. We expect to find a specific piece of information or be presented with an argument or an analysis of something, say, the likelihood of recession in the next six months or the reasons why children can’t read. We probably know a little about the book or article we are reading even before we start. There was, after all, some reason why we chose to read one piece of writing rather than another.

Our expectations and predispositions may, however, blind us to what the article and its author is actually saying. If, for example, we are used to disagreeing with the author, we may see only what we expect to see and not what is actually there. Day after day in our routine pattern of life we expose ourselves to same newspaper, the same magazine, even books by authors with the same perspectives. In order to reflect on our reading habits and improve our skills we need to break out of this routine, step back and look at what we are doing when we read.

71. According to the author, which one of the following statements is not true?

(a)  Reader’s preconceptions influence their reading.

(b)  Readers have expectations when they read an article or a book.

(c)  Readers look for specific information in any of their readings.

(d)  Readers assume that everything they read will have new information.

Answer: (d)

72. Our expectations and predispositions may, however, blind us because

(a)  we may not get the actual ideas of the author.

(b)  we will get the actual ideas of the author.

(c)  we may disagree with the author.

(d)  we will agree with all the ideas of the author.

Answer: (a)

73. One of the ways to improve our reading habits is to

(a)  break the routine by changing the time of reading.

(b)  change the types of topics we read.

(c)  break the routine of reading the same newspaper.

(d)  stop reading for some time and then restart reading.

Answer: (d)

74. Which quality does the author here advocate, to be a good reader?

(a)  Being objective to the ideas of the author.

(b)  Having preconceptions and predispositions.

(c)  Having continuous routines.

(d)  Disagreeing with the author.

Answer: (a)

75. Which word the passage means ‘viewpoints’?

(a)  Preconceptions

(b)  Predispositions

(c)  Pattern

(d)  Perspectives

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct alternative from the following.

Give Answer

(a) If (A) is true but (R) is false

(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(c) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(d) If (A) is false but (R) true

76. Assertion (A) India celebrates its Independence day on 15th

Reason (R) India became independent on 15th August, 1947.

Answer: (c)

77. Assertion (A) Silver is not used to make wires.

Reason (R) Silver is a bad conductor.

Answer: (a)

78. Assertion (A) In India, people elect their own representatives.

Reason (R) India is a democratic country .

Answer: (c)

79. Assertion (A) A body weighs less when immersed in water.

Reason (R) Newton’s law explains the above phenomenon.

Answer: (a)

80. Assertion (A) The steam engine was invented by James Watt.

Reason (R) There was a problem of taking out water from flooded mines.

Answer: (c)

81. In a certain code language ‘KAMLESH’ is written as ‘GUJLMCO’, then how will ‘NATURAL’ be written in the language?





Answer: (a)

82. The time on the watch is 9 : 15 and the hour hand points towards West. The direction of the minute hand is

(a)  North

(b)  South

(c)  East

(d)  West

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 83-85) In the following questions, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

83. ? : ALKLO :: WOULD : TLRIA

(a)  BLOCK

(b)  DONOR

(c)  CONES

(d)  BARGE

Answer: (b)

84. BEAK : ORNX :: FILM : ?

(a)  RUXY

(b)  MLIF

(c)  SVYZ

(d)  URON

Answer: (c)

85. AB : ZY :: CD : ?

(a)  WX

(b)  UV

(c)  XW

(d)  VU

Answer: (c)

86. Complete the following series by choosing the correct term.


(a)  VWX

(b)  GHI

(c)  IJK

(d)  GKL

Answer: (b)

87. If WOOD is coded as 23|225|4, then MEET is coded as

(a)  13|5|5|20

(b)  13|10|20

(c)  13|25|20

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

88. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the alphabetical series.

W, T, P, M, I, F, B, ?, ?

(a)  Z, V

(b)  X, U

(c)  Y, U

(d)  Y, V

Answer: (c)

89. City C is to the South of city B and city A is to the North of city C. In which direction city A is located in respect of city B?

(a)  North

(b)  South

(c)  East

(d)  Cannot be determined

Answer: (d)

90. Surbhi ranks 18th in a class of 49 students. What is her rank from the last?

(a)  31

(b)  28

(c)  35

(d)  32

Answer: (d)

91. There are 35 students in a class. Suman ranks third among the girls in the class. Amit ranks 5th among the boys in the class. Suman is one rank below Amit in the class. No, two students hold the same rank in the class. What is Amit’s rank in the class?

(a)  7th

(b)  5th

(c)  8th

(d)  Cannot be determined

Answer: (a)

92. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

4, 7, 12, 21, 38, ?

(a)  75

(b)  71

(c)  78

(d)  77

Answer: (b)

93. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

4, 6, 16, 62, 308, ?

(a)  990

(b)  1721

(c)  698

(d)  1846

Answer: (d)

94. If A is B’s sister, C is B’s mother, D is C’s father and E is D’s mother, then how is A related to D?

(a)  Granddaughter

(b)  Daughter

(c)  Aunt

(d)  Father

Answer: (a)

95. Rajesh is the brother of Ankit. Shano is the sister of Shubham. Ankit is the son of Shano. How is Rajesh related to Shano?

(a)  Father

(b)  Brother

(c)  Son

(d)  Nephew

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-98) In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statements and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Give Answer

(a) if only Assumption I is implicit

(b) if only Assumption II is implicit

(c) if either Assumption I or II is implicit

(d) if both Assumption I and II are implicit

96. Statement The driver of the huge truck pulled the emergency brakes to avoid hitting the auto rickshaw which suddenly came in front of the truck.


(I) The auto rickshaw driver may be able to steer his vehicle away from the oncoming truck.

(II) The truck driver may be able to stop the truck before it hits the auto rickshaw.

Answer: (b)

97. Statement The doctor warned the patient against any further consumption of alcohol if he desired to get cured from the ailment and live a longer life.


(I) The patient may follow the doctor’s advice and stop consuming alcohol.

(II) The doctor may be able to cure the patient from the ailment if the patient stops consuming alcohol.

Answer: (d)

98. Statement The Chairman of the company urged all the employees to refrain from making long personal calls during working hours in order to boost productivity.


(I) Majority of the employees may respond positively to the Chairman’s appeal.

(II) Most of the employees may continue to make long personal calls during working hours.

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 99 and 100) In these questions, identify the diagram that represents the best relationship among classes given below.

99. Women, Sisters and Wives

Answer: (a)

100. Pulses, Redgram, Moongdal

Answer: (a)

101. Myntra, the popular fashion e-commerce platform is an entity of which company?

(a)  Amazon

(b)  Flipkart

(c)  Snapdeal

(d)  Google

Answer: (b)

102. Which among the following brands is not an Indian brand?

(a)  Allen Solly

(b)  Da Milano

(c)  Monte Carlo

(d)  Steve Madden

Answer: (d)

103. ‘Carat Lane’, the biggest online jewellery company in India is associated with which brand?

(a)  Kalyan

(b)  Malabar Gold

(c)  Tanishq

(d)  PC Jewellers

Answer: (c)

104. The brand ‘ZARA’ is associated with which country?

(a)  India

(b)  France

(c)  England

(d)  Spain

Answer: (d)

105. National Gallery of Modern Art is located at

(a)  Mumbai

(b)  Kolkata

(c)  New Delhi

(d)  Lucknow

Answer: (c)

106. Who among the following is the brand ambassador of Men’s clothing brand “Wrogn’?

(a)  Hritik Roshan

(b)  Virat Kohli

(c)  Ranveer Singh

(d)  Rohit Sharma

Answer: (b)

107. ‘Your Style, Your Store’ is the tag line of which of the following retail chains?

(a)  Lifestyle

(b)  Pantaloons

(c)  Landmark

(d)  Shoppers shop

Answer: (a)

108. Peter England, one of India’s premium Men’s wear brands, belongs to which group?

(a)  Reliance Industries

(b)  Aditya Birla Group

(c)  Tata Group

(d)  Adani Group

Answer: (b)

109. Nike, a popular fashion and sportswear brand belongs to which country?

(a)  USA

(b)  UK

(c)  Japan

(d)  Spain

Answer: (a)

110. Mirabai Chanu is a famous Indian sportsperson of

(a)  Hockey

(b)  Boxing

(c)  Weightlifting

(d)  Badminton

Answer: (c)

111. What type of fabric is Calico?

(a)  Silk

(b)  Cotton

(c)  Linen

(d)  Wool

Answer: (b)

112. Who was won the Australian open Tennis Title 2020 in the men’s category?

(a)  Rafael Nadal

(b)  Novak Djokovic

(c)  Roger Federer

(d)  Dominic Thiem

Answer: (b)

113. Lakme Fashion week winter festive 2019 took place at

(a)  Bangaluru

(b)  Mumbai

(c)  Delhi

(d)  Pune

Answer: (b)

114. Which of the following is a West flowing river?

(a)  Godavari

(b)  Kaveri

(c)  Son

(d)  Narmada

Answer: (d)

115. Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in which of the following states?

(a)  Maharashtra

(b)  Uttar Pradesh

(c)  Rajasthan

(d)  Tamil Nadu

Answer: (c)

116. Where is the headquarter of World Trade Organization located?

(a)  Vienna

(b)  Geneva

(c)  New York

(d)  Philippines

Answer: (b)

117. Who was sworn in as the Prime Minister of Great Britain in July 2019?

(a)  Theresa May

(b)  Tony Blair

(c)  Boris Johnson

(d)  Bonar Law

Answer: (c)

118. Which part of Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Rights?

(a)  III

(b)  IV

(c)  IV A

(d)  II

Answer: (a)

119. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated to commemorate the return of whom to India?

(a)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(b)  Mahatma Gandhi

(c)  Rakesh Sharma

(d)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer: (b)

120. Which of the following Union Territories are recently merged with Daman and Diu?

(a)  Dadar and Nagar Haveli

(b)  Andaman and Nicobar island

(c)  Lakshadweep

(d)  Chandigarh

Answer: (a)

121. Which is the first Design School in India?

(a)  NID

(b)  NIFT

(c)  IDC

(d)  SID

Answer: (a)

122. Which country is known as the ‘Land of the Rising Sun’?

(a)  Norway

(b)  Australia

(c)  Japan

(d)  Mexico

Answer: (c)

123. The 2024, Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in

(a)  Tokyo

(b)  Paris

(c)  Los Angles

(d)  Shanghai

Answer: (b)

124. Van Heusen is a leading international brand of

(a)  Cars

(b)  Bikes

(c)  Clothing

(d)  Sports accessories

Answer: (c)

125. Who was awarded the 2019 Ramon Magsaysay award for journalism?

(a)  Ravish Kumar

(b)  Bhavesh Kumar

(c)  Abhisar Sharma

(d)  Vinod Dua

Answer: (a)


Nike used factory scraps and recycled “space waste  yarn” to create the Space Hippie sneakers in an experimental project to reduce the carbon impact of its products. Each of the four different designs in the collection – named Space Hippie 01, 02, 03 and 04 – are made from scrap material taken from Nike’s factory floors. Which the brand has named “space junk”, and other recycled materials. The result is the creation of Nike footwear with Nike’s lowest carbon footprint scores ever. Nike said the shoe is a first step towards employing the process of the circular economy, which aims to eliminate waste and pollution from manufacturing. The upper part of Space Hippie is knitted from what Nike calls “space waster yarn”. This is made from 100 per cent recycled material including plastic water bottles, T-shirts and textile scraps.

When combined with other design elements, Nike claims the shoe upper consists of a total of 90 per cent recycled content. It redesigned this lightweight foam in a manner that uses around half the carbon dioxide equivalent as compared to normal Nike foams. The outsole part of each shoe in the Space Hippie collection is built from “crater foam”, made from a mixture of standard Nike foams and 15 per cent recycled waste rubber that has been ground down into granules, which Nike has branded as Nike Grind.

126. Nike has used recycled materials to create the space hippie sneakers for which purpose?

(a)  To change its product strategy

(b)  To reduce carbon impact

(c)  To support waste collectors

(d)  To create new designs

Answer: (b)

127. According to Nike, the space hippie sneakers are the first step towards

(a)  A clean environment

(b)  A circular economy

(c)  A sustainable ecosystem

(d)  A new brand to be launched by Nike

Answer: (b)

128. The outsole part of the Nike sneakers is built from which foam?

(a)  Space waste foam

(b)  Crater foam

(c)  Rubber foam

(d)  Junk foam

Answer: (b)

129. The space waste yarn used by Nike is

(a)  waste collected from outer space

(b)  waste collected from waste collectors

(c)  waste from Nike’s factories

(d)  waste from other brands

Answer: (c)

130. The Recycled waste rubber used by Nike in their sneakers, has been named as

(a)  Nike waste

(b)  Nike granules

(c)  Nike rubber

(d)  Nike grind

Answer: (d)


Swedish fast-fashion major H and M has announced its first global collaboration with celebrated Indian couture and jewellery designer Sabyasachi Mukherjee. The new collection will be sold under the label Wanderlust. The collection will be out on 16th April, 2020. The high-end Indian designer wants to make the designs accessible to a larger set of people, both in India and worldwide.

The Sabyasachi plus H and M collection will be offering clothes for both ladies and men, including accessories and will give a modern twist to its inspiration-Indian textile, craft and history. Taking cues from India’s rich textile, craft and history, the collection mixes modern and traditional silhouettes with a tilt towards athleisure and glamping. A key highlight of this collection will be Indian textile and print traditions made by the Sabyasachi Art Foundation, meticulously crafted, embroidery and multicultural silhouettes. The collection will be available at all H and M stores in India as well as selected H and M flagship stores around the world, and online on and Myntra.

Sabyasachi has previously collaborated with various international luxury designers and brands such as KarI Lagerfeld, Christian Louboutin, Pottery Barn, Balmain and Versace.

131. Sabyasachi has collaborated with H and M, which is based in which of these countries

(a)  Norway

(b)  Australia

(c)  Sweden

(d)  India

Answer: (c)

132. Under the collaboration of Sabyasachi and H and M, their new product range will be known as

(a)  Global star

(b)  Cosmos  

(c)  Korona

(d)  Wanderlust

Answer: (d)

133. The Sabyasachi and H and M collection will offer which of these products

(a)  Ladies clothes

(b)  Men clothes

(c)  Accessories

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

134. Apart from, which other online portal would sell the products of their collaboration?

(a)  Flipkart

(b)  e-bay

(c)  Myntra

(d)  Amazon

Answer: (c)

135. The aim of Sabyasachi and H and M collaboration is

(a)  Mixing Indian and Western culture

(b)  Showing traditional arts of India

(c)  Giving an old glance to its products

(d)  Making designs accessible to larger set of people

Answer: (d)


Prada has become the first luxury brand to sign a loan tied to sustainability targets. Prada has signed a £42.9 million loan with banking group Credit Agricole, with repayment terms conditional to meeting key targets around the sustainability of its products and operations. Prada’s interest payments on the five-year loan will be determined annually based on whether the company has hit three specific objectives.

The first focuses on its physical shops, setting out that a certain number of them need to be certified gold or platinum according to the green-building rating system, Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED). This evaluates everything from the design and construction of a building to its management and the extent to which it uses resources and produces waste. The other targets are related to the amount of training hours given to employees, and reinforce a pledge made by Prada earlier this year which involves phasing out the use of virgin nylon by 2021.

According to Prada’s chief financial officer Alessandra Cozzani, linking more sustainable business practices to concrete financial rewards is an attempt to engrain these values into the very functioning of the company.

This transaction demonstrates that sustainability is a key element for the development of the Prada Group. Beyond substituting nylon, Prada has also gone fur-free, switching to faux fur, although these are often made of plastic.

136. Prada has become the first luxury brand to sign a loan that is tied to its

(a)  economic performance

(b)  sustainability targets

(c)  stocks in markets

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

137. Prada has to design its shops to meet the sustainability targets according to which rating system?

(a)  BIS

(b)  LEED

(c)  ISO

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

138. Prada has promised to phase out virgin nylon by which year?

(a)  2020

(b)  2021

(c)  2025

(d)  2050

Answer: (b)

139. According to Prada, what is the purpose of linking the sustainable practices to financial rewards?

(a)  To save the environment

(b)  To achieve the sustainable development

(c)  The engrain sustainable values in functioning of the company

(d)  To develop Prada Group

Answer: (c)

140. Apart from substitution of the Nylon, Prada has also eliminated which of the following elements from its processes?

(a)  Wool

(b)  Cotton

(c)  Plastic

(d)  Fur

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-150) In each of these questions, a passage is followed by several inferences. You  have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and secede upon its degree of truth or falsity.

(a) If the inference is definitely true i.e. it directly follows from the facts given the passage.

(b) If the inference is probably true i.e. though not definitely true in the light of facts given

(c) If the inference is probably false i.e. though not definitely false in the light of facts given

(d) If the inference is definitely false i.e. it contradicts the facts given.


In India, the proportion of women in paid work is among the lowest in the world, at just over 23% – a figure which contrasts sharply with the corresponding rate of over 78% for  men. Opportunities for women to enter employment in the country are limited by a range of factors. These include a dominant tradition of female domestic responsibility, and a prevailing social patriarchy.

Deeply entrenched cultural expectations mean that women are more likely to stay at home. And when they do work, it is mainly on an informal basis, without the luxury of secured wages and contracts.

Against this backdrop, the idea of female entrepreneurship in India faces major challenges. Setting up a business can require significant efforts outside of normal work times, and can lead to women being perceived as irresponsible if they dedicate time to entrepreneurial activities.

But the scenario is still changing. Improved access to social media, education, and social enterprises are all contributing to change.

These are giving momentum to the aspirations of women entrepreneurs in India. Their stories will hopefully inspire women entrepreneurs from around the world, while encouraging policy makers to create avenues that support their aspirations.

141. In India, the proportion of women in paid work is just 23% as compared to 78% for men.

Answer: (a)

142. The women have low participation rate in paid work as they do not have necessary skill set.

Answer: (d)

143. A large number of women are employed in the informal sector of the economy that do not provide regular wages.

Answer: (b)


In the wake of the recent brutal murder of a  young woman in Hyderabad, much of the public discourse on the subject has been confined to outrage, policing, punishment and tougher laws. All this sound and fury suggest that few really want to address the basic flaws in our culture that breed male violence against women.

Holding up a mirror to ourselves can be a painful exercise as it is safer to vent against the government of the day, lack of law enforcement personnel and unutilized budget allocations for women’s safety programmes.

Deep-rooted social prejudice against women reflects in India’s adverse sex ratio, particularly in the age group 0-6. Families prefer boys: female foetus are selectively aborted, infant girls allowed to die. An official campaign of the government has been addressing this most violent form of discrimination against the female sex.

However, other egregious forms of discrimination that push women to a subordinate role in society and train men to see themselves as entitled to favourable treatment fail to get addressed. Only rigorous democratization of society can bring about sustainable improvement in the conditions of women. The sooner we realize this, the better.

144. There has been a critical discussion on the issues that affect women in the country.

Answer: (d)

145. Families prefer a boy child over a girl child and discriminate against the women.

Answer: (a)

146. The problems of women can be addressed when they get truly represented in the society.

Answer: (b)

147. There are basic flaws in the culture and society of India that are only responsible for perpetuating male violence.

Answer: (b)


In the decade between 2005 and 2016, India lifted 27 crore people out of extreme poverty-more than the combined population of Congo, Uganda, Iraq, Venezuela, Australia and Italy. India more than doubled its per capita GDP moving up from being a poor country to a middle-income one. An average Indian now earns slightly more than Rs. 10,500 a month, up from around Rs. 4,000 in 2005. The numbers are flattering but deceiving. More than 36 crore Indians still cannot afford three square meals a day, which is why the World Bank continues to bracket India with Nicaragua, Honduras, Kenya and Kiribati. On an average, even people in war-torn Libya and sanctions-plagued Cuba continue to earn more than Indians.

There is another worry line for India. The Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative, which annually publishes the most authoritative index of poverty across the world, has found that the poorest among India’s poor did not increase their income as much as the other sections did. It means that the gap between the poor and the rich is widening fast. The last time the government appointed an expert committee to estimate poverty in India was seven years ago. The committee, headed by former Reserve Bank of India Governor C. Rangarajan submitted its report but the report has neither been rejected nor been released, which means that economists in India still baser their research largely on data that date back to 2012.

148. India has been able to lift almost 27 crore people out of extreme poverty.

Answer: (a)

149. India’s average per capita income has increased in the decade 2005-2016 because of reduction in its population.

Answer: (c)

150. The gap between poor and rich is widening fast because of reducing income of the poor.

Answer: (b)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate 2021 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Post Graduate)

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2021

1. The length, breadth and height of a room are in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. If its volume be 1296 m3, find its breadth.

(a)  24 m

(b)  15 m

(c)  16 m

(d)  12 m

Answer: (d)

2. Ram and Shyam run a race of 2000 m. First, Ram gives Shyam a start of 200 m and beats him by 30 s. Next, Ram gives Shyam a start of 3 min and is beaten by 1000 m. Find the time in and is beaten by 1000 m. Find the time in minute in which Ram and Shyam can run the race separately?

(a)  8 min, 10 min,

(b)  4 min, 5 min

(c)  5 min, 9 min

(d)  6 min, 9 min

Answer: (b)

3. There is a number lock with four rings. How many attempts at the maximum would have to be made before getting the right number?

(a)  104

(b)  255

(c)  104 – 1

(d)  256

Answer: (c)

4. If the curved surface area of a cone is thrice that of another cone and slant height of the second cone is thrice that of the first, find the ratio of the area of their base.

(a)  9 : 1

(b)  81 : 1

(c)  3 : 1

(d)  27 : 1

Answer: (b)

5. Seven equal cubes each of side 5 cm are joined end to end. Find the surface area of the resulting cuboid.

(a)  750 cm2

(b)  1500 cm2

(c)  2250 cm2

(d)  700 cm2

Answer: (a)

6. 400 students took the mock test 60% of the boys and 80% of the girls cleared the cut off in the test. If the total percentage of students qualifying is 65%, how many girls appeared in the test?

(a)  100

(b)  120

(c)  150

(d)  300

Answer: (a)

7. Two fair dices are thrown. Given that, the sum of the dice is less than or equal to 4, find the probability that only one dice shows two.

(a)  1/4

(b)  1/2

(c)  2/3

(d)  1/3

Answer: (d)

8. There are 10 persons P1, P2, ….,P9, P10. Out of these 10 persons, 5 persons are to be arranged in a line such that in each arrangement P1 must occur whereas P4 and P5 do not occur. The number of such possible arrangements are

(a)  7C4 × 5!

(b)  9C5 × 5!

(c)  8C5 × 5!  

(d)  9C5 × 4!

Answer: (a)

9. In a business, A and C invested amounts in the ratio 2 : 1, whereas the ratio between amounts invested by A and B was 3 : 2. If Rs. 157300 was their profit, how much amount did B receive?

(a)  Rs. 24200

(b)  Rs. 36300

(c)  Rs. 48400

(d)  Rs. 72600

Answer: (c)

10. What will be the ratio of petrol and kerosene in the final solution formed by mixing petrol and kerosene that are present in three vessels in the ratio 4 : 1, 5 : 2 and 6 : 1, respectively?

(a)  166 : 22

(b)  83 : 22

(c)  83 : 44

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

11. A cistern contains 50 L of water. 5 L of water is taken out of it and replaced with wine. The process is repeated again. Find the proportion of wine and water in the resulting mixture.

(a)  1 : 4

(b)  41 : 50

(c)  19 : 81

(d)  81 : 19

Answer: (c)

12. A person saves 6% of his income, 2 yr later, his income shoots up by 15% but his savings remain the same. Find the hike in his expenditure (in approx.. per cent).

(a)  13.65%

(b)  12.45%

(c)  14.85%

(d)  15.95%

Answer: (d)

13. A reduction in the price of petrol by 10% enables a motorist to buy 5 gallons more for Rs. 180. Find the original price of petrol (in Rs. Per gallon).

(a)  20

(b)  30

(c)  40

(d)  50

Answer: (c)

14. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% on the marked price of an item but charges a sales tax of 8% on the discounted price. If the customer pays Rs. 680.40 as the price including the sales tax, then what is the marked price of the item?

(a)  Rs. 630

(b)  Rs. 700

(c)  Rs. 780

(d)  None of these   

Answer: (b)

15. Ashok borrows Rs. 1500 from two moneylenders. He pays interest at the rate of 12% per annum for one loan and at the rate of 14% per annum for the other. The total interest he pays for the entire year is Rs. 186. How much does he borrow at the rate of 12%?

(a)  Rs. 1200

(b)  Rs. 1300

(c)  Rs. 1400

(d)  Rs. 1000

Answer: (a)

16. A driver of an auto-rickshaw makes a profit of 20% on every trip when he carries three passengers and the price of petrol is Rs. 30/L. Find the percentage profit for the same journey if he goes for four passengers per trip and the price of petrol reduces Rs. 24/L? (Assume that revenue per passenger is the same in both the cases).

(a)  33.33%

(b)  65.66%

(c)  100%

(d)  Data inadequate

Answer: (c)

17. After receiving two successive rises, Ajitha’s salary became equal to 15/8 times of her initial salary. By how much per cent was the salary rised the first time if the second rise was twice as high (in per cent) as the first?

(a)  15

(b)  20

(c)  25

(d)  30

Answer: (d)

18. Find the principal if compound interest is charged on the principal at the rate of  per annum for two years and the sum becomes Rs. 196.

(a)  Rs. 140

(b)  Rs. 154

(c)  Rs. 150

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

19. A tank of 4800 m3 capacity is full of water . The discharging capacity of the pump is 10 m3/min higher than its filling capacity. As a result the pump needs 16 min less to discharge the fuel, then to fill up the tank. Find the filling capacity of the pump.

(a)  50 m3/min

(b)  25 m3/min

(c)  55 m3/min

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

20. Divide Rs. 6000 into two parts, so that simple interest on the first part for 2 yr at 6% per annum may be equal to the simple interest on the second part for 3 yr at 8% per annum?

(a)  Rs. 4000, Rs. 2000

(b)  Rs. 5000, Rs. 1000

(c)  Rs. 3000, Rs. 3000

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

21. A part of Rs. 38800 is lent out at 6% per six months. The rest of the amount is lent out at 5% per annum after 1 yr. The ratio of interest after 3 yr from the time when first amount was lent out is 5 : 4. Find the second part that was lent out at 5%.

(a)  Rs. 26600

(b)  Rs. 28800

(c)  Rs. 7500

(d)  Rs. 28000

Answer: (b)

22. A person draws a card from a pack of 52, replaces it and shuffles it. He continues doing it until he draws a heart. What is the probability that he has to make 3 trials?

(a)  9/64

(b)  3/64

(c)  5/64

(d)  1/64

Answer: (a)

23. The cost of manufacture of an article is made up of four components A, B, C and D which have a ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 : 6, respectively. If there are respective changes in the cost of +10%, −20%, −30% and +40%, then what would be the percentage change in the cost?

(a)  2.22%

(b)  1.80%

(c)  3.28%

(d)  0.95%

Answer: (a)

24. A railway passenger counts the telegraph poles on the rail road as he passes them. The telegraph poles are at a distance of 50 m. What will be his count in 4 h, if the speed of the train is 45 km/h?

(a)  600

(b)  2500

(c)  3600

(d)  5000

Answer: (c)

25. In a zoo, there are healthy deers and ducks. If the heads are counted, there are 180, while the legs are 448. What will be the number of deers in the zoo?

(a)  156

(b)  68

(c)  22

(d)  44

Answer: (d)

26. Aditi bought an article and spent Rs. 110 on its repairs. She then sold it to Samir at a profit of 20%. Samir sold it to Vikas at a lost of 10%. Vikas finally sold it for Rs. 1188 at a profit of 10%. How much did Aditi pay for the article?

(a)  Rs. 890

(b)  Rs. 1000

(c)  Rs. 780

(d)  Rs. 840

Answer: (a)

27. Mukesh borrows a certain sum of money from the ABC Bank at 10% per annum at compound interest. The entire debt is discharged in full by Mukesh on payment of two equal amounts of Rs. 1000 each, one at the end of the first year and the other at the end of the second year. What is the approximate value of the amount borrowed by him?

(a)  Rs. 1852

(b)  Rs. 1694

(c)  Rs. 1736

(d)  Rs. 1792

Answer: (c)

28. After selling a watch, Sultan found that he had made a loss of 10%. He also found that had he sold it for Rs. 27 more, he would have made a profit of 5%. The actual initial loss was what percentage of the profit earned, had he sold the watch for a 5% profit?

(a)  23%

(b)  150%

(c)  180%

(d)  200%

Answer: (d)

29. A cistern is normally filled in 6 h but takes 4 h longer to fill because of a leak in its bottom. If the cistern is full, the leak will empty it in how much time?

(a)  20 h

(b)  15 h

(c)  23 h

(d)  17 h

Answer: (b)

30. A and B completed a work together in 5 days. Had A worked at twice the speed and B at half the speed, it would have taken them 4 days to complete the job. How much time would A alone take to do the work?

(a)  10 days

(b)  20 days

(c)  15 days

(d)  25 days

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-33) In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/proverb has been given followed by some alternatives. Choose the one that best expresses the meaning of the given bold idiom/proverb.

31. Don’t mix with the bad hats.

(a)  people of bad character

(b)  people selling bad hats

(c)  people of poor status

(d)  people with bad hats

Answer: (a)

32. The scientist worked for donkey’s years to arrive at the formula.

(a)  a short time

(b)  for donkeys

(c)  for few years

(d)  a long time

Answer: (d)

33. The President gave away the prizes to the winners.

(a)  released

(b)  gave back

(c)  distributed

(d)  let go

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 34 and 35) In each of the questions below, only one among the given alternatives is correctly spelt. Find out the word with the correct spelling.


(a)  Adulation

(b)  Adlation

(c)  Aduletion

(d)  Addulation

Answer: (a)


(a)  Indipensable

(b)  Indipenseble

(c)  Indispansible

(d)  Indispensable

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36 and 37) In each of the questions below, choose the wrongly spelt word.


(a)  Potassium

(b)  Possibility

(c)  Parasology

(d)  Preamble

Answer: (c)


(a)  Sanguinery

(b)  Itinerary

(c)  Temporary

(d)  Necessary

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 38 and 39) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate singular form.

38. Lice

(a)  Lices

(b)  Louse

(c)  Licen

(d)  Leece

Answer: (b)

39. Loaves

(a)  Loaf

(b)  Loav

(c)  Loave

(d)  Loafs

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 40 and 41) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate plural form.

40. Chateau

(a)  Chateaus

(b)  Chateaux

(c)  Chatea

(d)  Chateaues

Answer: (b)

41. Nucleus

(a)  Nucleuses

(b)  Nucleus

(c)  Nuclei

(d)  Nucleius

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-45) In each of these questions, choose the alternative which can replace the underlined word without changing the meaning of the sentence.

42. Tax evasion amounts to larcenous accumulation of public money by some unscrupulous individuals.

(a)  miserly

(b)  extravagant

(c)  theft

(d)  shrewd

Answer: (c)

43. I cannot believe in the veracity of his statement.

(a)  truth

(b)  usefulness

(c)  sincerity

(d)  falsity

Answer: (a)

44. People thronged to pay homage to the departed leader.

(a)  humility

(b)  tribute

(c)  obedience

(d)  allegiance

Answer: (b)

45. He is a sycophant who tries to win over politicians.

(a)  a psychologist

(b)  an opportunist

(c)  an unscrupulous man

(d)  a flatterer

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-49) Fill in the blanks.

46. Did the boys turn ……… for football practice?

(a)  up

(b)  on

(c)  back

(d)  in

Answer: (a)

47. Corruption is a standing hindrance ………. The nation’s development.

(a)  of

(b)  over

(c)  to

(d)  upon

Answer: (c)

48. You ……… mad if you think I’m going to show my answer-sheet.

(a)  are supposed to be

(b)  must be

(c)  will be

(d)  ought to be

Answer: (b)

49. At one time Mr. Nigel ……… this supermarket.

(a)  was owing

(b)  used to own

(c)  had owned

(d)  owned

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 50-53) In each of these questions, choose the alternative which is closest to the opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

50. There was marked deterioration in his condition.

(a)  reformation

(b)  amendment

(c)  improvement

(d)  revision

Answer: (c)

51. I find his views repugnant.

(a)  amiable

(b)  repulsive

(c)  amoral

(d)  apolitical

Answer: (a)

52. There was not a single bibulous adventurer in our expedition.

(a)  fearful

(b)  cowardly

(c)  sober

(d)  unenergetic

Answer: (c)

53. This author has perspicuity in his style.

(a)  frankness

(b)  bluntness

(c)  obtuseness

(d)  vivacity

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 54 and 55) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative that can be substitutes for the given word/sentence.

54. A person who eats too much

(a)  Glutton

(b)  Nibbler   

(c)  Cannibal

(d)  Omnivore

Answer: (a)

55. Fear of spiders

(a)  Hydrophobia

(b)  Social Phobia

(c)  Agoraphobia

(d)  Arachnophobia

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-75) Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.


Organisations are institutions in which members compete for status and power. They compete for the resources of the organization, for example, finance to expand their own departments, for career advancement and for power to control the activities of others. In pursuit of these aims, groups are formed and sectional interests emerge. As a result, policy decisions may serve the ends of the political and career systems rather than those of the concern. In this way, the goals of the organization may be displaced in favour of sectional interests and individual ambition. These preoccupations sometimes prevent the emergence of organic systems. Many of the electronics firms in their study had recently created research and development departments employing highly qualified and well-paid scientists and technicians. Their high pay and expert knowledge were sometimes seen as a threat to the established order of rank, power and privilege. Many senior managers had little knowledge of the technicalities and possibilities of new developments and electronics. Some felt that close cooperation with the experts in an organic system would reveal their ignorance and show that their experience was now redundant.

56. The author makes out a case for

(a)  organic system

(b)  research and development in organizations

(c)  an understanding between senior and middle level executives

(d)  a refresher course for senior

Answer: (a)

57. The theme of the passage is

(a)  groupism in organisations

(b)  individual ambitions in organizations.

(c)  frustration of senior managers.

(d)  emergence of sectional interests in organizations.

Answer: (d)

58. Policy decision in organization should involve

(a)  cooperation at all levels in the organization.

(b)  modernization of the organization.

(c)  attracting highly qualified personnel.

(d)  keeping in view the larger objectives of the organization.

Answer: (b)

59. “Organic system” as related to the organization implies is

(a)  growth with the help of expert knowledge.

(b)  growth with inputs from science and technology

(c)  steady all-round development.

(d)  natural and unimpeded growth.

Answer: (a)

60. The author tends to see the senior managers as

(a)  ignorant and incompetent.

(b)  a little out of step with their work environment.

(c)  jealous of their younger colleagues.

(d)  robbed of their rank, power and privilege

Answer: (a)


Teaching more than most other professions, has been transformed during the last hundred years from a small, highly skilled profession concerned with a minority of the population, to a large and important branch of public service. The profession has a great and honourable tradition, extending from the dawn of history until recent times, but any teacher in the modern world who allows himself to be inspired by the ideals of his predecessors is likely to be made sharply aware that it is not his function to teach what he thinks, but to instill such beliefs and prejudices as are thought useful by his employers.

61. In ancient times, the teaching profession was

(a)  reserved for the upper class.

(b)  reserved for a privileged few.

(c)  open to everyone irrespective of any differences

(d)  limited to a highly skilled minority.

Answer: (d)

62. The phrase ‘Extending from the drawn of history’ indicates

(a)  tradition

(b)  culture

(c)  antiquity

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

63. In modern times, a successful teacher is primarily supposed to

(a)  impart knowledge.

(b)  impart new and latest skills.

(c)  toe the lines preferred by those in authority.

(d)  instill values he cherishes the most.

Answer: (c)

64. The modern teacher is not able to follow the ideals of his predecessors because

(a)  of more interest in politics than in academic activity.

(b)  of tremendous advancements in professional skills.

(c)  of social and financial constraints.

(d)  the students are not serious about studies.

Answer: (c)

65. The author seems to

(a)  be against the current trend in the teaching profession.

(b)  approve the recent developments in the mode of teaching.

(c)  be a traditionalist in his views.

(d)  consider education as a part of public service.

Answer: (a)


Speech is a great blessing but it can also be a great curse, for while it helps us to make our intentions and desires known to our fellows, it can also, if we use it carelessly, make our attitude completely misunderstood. A slip of the tongue, the use of an unusual word or of an ambiguous word, and so on, may create an enemy where we had hoped to win a friend. Again, different classes of people use different vocabularies, and the ordinary speech of an educated man may strike an uneducated listener as pompous. Unwittingly, we may use a word which bears a different meaning to our listener from what it does to men of our own class. Thus speech is not a gift to use lightly without thought, but one which demands careful handling. Only a fool will express himself alike to all kinds and conditions of men.

66. Speech can be a curse, because it can

(a)  hurt others.

(b)  lead to carelessness.

(c)  create misunderstanding.

(d)  reveal our intentions

Answer: (c)

67. A “slip of the tongue” means something said

(a)  unintentionally.

(b)  without giving proper thought.

(c)  to hurt another person.

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

68. While talking to an uneducated person, we should use

(a)  ordinary speech.

(b)  his vocabulary.

(c)  simple words.

(d)  polite language.

Answer: (b)

69. If one used the same style of language with everyone, one would sound

(a)  flat

(b)  boring

(c)  foolish

(d)  democratic

Answer: (c)

70. The best way to win a friend is to avoid

(a)  irony in speech.

(b)  pomposity in speech.

(c)  verbosity in speech.

(d)  ambiguity in speech.

Answer: (d)


If you are running out of ideas for your New Year’s resolution, consider running. Researchers have found that runners show greater functional connectivity in brain regions important for tasks such as planning and decision-making. “These activities, such as running, that people consider repetitive actually involve many complex cognitive functions – like planning and decision-making – that may have effects on the brain,” said one of the researchers, David Raichlen, associate professor at University of Arizona, at Tucson in the United States. For the study, the researchers compared brain scans of young adults engaged in cross-country running to young adults who do not engage in regular physical activity.

Participants were roughly of the same age – 18 to 25 – with comparable body mass index and educational levels. The runners, overall showed greater functional connectivity or connections between distinct brain regions within several areas of the brain, including the frontal cortex, which is important for cognitive functions such as planning decision-making and the ability to switch attention between tasks.

71. Research has shown that running

(a)  may weaken your heart.

(b)  could deteriorate your eye-sight.

(c)  improves your brain-functioning.

(d)  has no effect on your health.

Answer: (c)

72. Cognitive functioning of your brain impacts your

(a)  ability to take decisions.

(b)  capability to plan things.

(c)  ability to shift  your attention from one task to another.

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

73. Generally, running is considered

(a)  not a good physical activity.

(b)  an activity which repeats itself regularly.

(c)  a useless activity for health.

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

74. While selecting participants to conduct research, it was ensured that participants were of similar

(a)  academic background.

(b)  age group.

(c)  body mass index.

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

75. Which of the following statements is not true?

(a)  Running hampers various connections between different brain regions.

(b)  Running is recommended as a good hobby for people.

(c)  Participants for research included those who took part in cross-country running.

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-79) Each of these questions has an assertion (A) and reason (R). Mark answer as

(a) if both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) if both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) if (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) if (A) is false but (R) is true.

76. Assertion (A) Devaluation of a currency may promote export.

Reason (R) Price of the country’s products in the international market may fall due to devaluation.

Answer: (a)

77. Assertion (A) Fiscal deficit is greater than budgetary deficit.

Reason (R) Fiscal deficit is the borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India plus other liabilities’ of the government to meet its expenditure.

Answer: (d)

78. Assertion (A) According to statistics, more female children are born each year than male children in India.

Reason (R) In India, the death rate of a male child is higher than that of the female child.

Answer: (c)

79. Assertion (A) Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting Bt gene.

Reason (R) The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.

Answer: (a)

80. T is the son of P, S is the son of Q. T is married to R. R is Q’s daughter. How is S related T?

(a)  Brother

(b)  Uncle

(c)  Father-in-law

(d)  Brother-in-law

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-84) In each of these questions a statement is followed by two arguments numbered I and II.

Mark answer as

(a) if only Argument I is strong

(b) if only Argument II is strong

(c) if both the Argument are strong

(d) if neither Argument I nor II is strong

81. Statement Has the Medical Science really lengthened the span of life?

Argument I Yes, the new drugs have been able to combat the diseases and increases the span of life.

Argument II No, the eternal truth that every person’s days are numbered cannot be denied.

Answer: (a)

82. Statement Should mass media be fully controlled by the government?

Argument I Yes, the contradictory news only confuses the people.

Argument II No, its credibility will be doubtful if it confuses people.

Answer: (d)

83. Statement Should sales tax be abolished?

Argument I Yes, it will eliminate an important sources of corruption

Argument II Yes, it will bring the prices of commodities down and hence consumers will be benefited.

Answer: (b)

84. Statement Computer based technology is very fruitful for industrial development in India.

Argument I Yes, accuracy, fast production and fineness are possible through computer technology.

Argument II No, it will increase unemployment in the country.

Answer: (c)

85. A and B start walking from point O. A covers a distance of 300 m in North direction and B covers a distance of 400 m towards West. How far are they now from each other?

(a)  700 m

(b)  500 m

(c)  50 m

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

86. Aisha, who is Mohan’s daughter, says to Reena, “Your mother Riya is younger sister of my father, who is third child of Sanjay”. How is Sanjay related to Reena?

(a)  Uncle

(b)  Father

(c)  Grandfather

(d)  Father-in-law

Answer: (c)

87. How many 7’s not immediately preceded by 4 but immediately followed by 2 are there in the following series?

3 4 7 2 8 7 2 9 4 7 1 3 5 7 2 9 9 7 7 2 5 1 4 7 2 3

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (c)

88. In a row of boys, Anand is eleventh from the left and Deepak is fifteenth from the right. When Anand and Deepak interchange their positions Anand will be fifth from the left. Which of the following will be Deepak’s position from the right after rearrangement?

(a)  Seventh

(b)  Seventeenth

(c)  Eleventh

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

89. Shiva walks 10 km towards North and then turns right. After walking 3 km, he again turns right and walks 7 km. Now he turns left and walks 1 km. How far is he from the starting point?

(a)  10 km

(b)  7 km

(c)  20 km

(d)  5 km

Answer: (d)

90. If in a certain language SURVIVE is coded as 9182723 and MONSOON is coded as 6549554, how is RUMOUR coded in that language?

(a)  518618

(b)  581618

(c)  865118

(d)  816518

Answer: (d)

91. Neeraj starts walking towards South. After walking 15 m, he turns towards North. After walking 20 m, he turns towards East and walks 10 m. He then turns towards South and walks 5 m. How far is he from his original position and in which direction?

(a)  10 m, East

(b)  10 m, South-East

(c)  10 m, West

(d)  10 m, North-East

Answer: (a)

92. If Neena says, “Anita’s father Raman is the only son of my father-in-law Mahipal”, then how is Bindu, who is the sister of Anita, related to Mahipal?

(a)  Niece

(b)  Daughter

(c)  Daughter-in-law

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

93. Thirteen students are standing in horizontal row from left to right. If all the odd numbered students in the row are shifted to successive odd numbered positions, what will be the position of Sahil who was 7th in the row initially?

(a)  9th from right

(b)  6th from left

(c)  5th from right

(d)  8th from left

Answer: (c)

94. In the following number series how many such 7’s are there which are immediately preceded by a pair of numbers whose product is more than the product of pair of numbers immediately following 7?

2 2 7 1 3 9 4 8 7 6 5 4 2 8 3 5 7 4 6 5 9 7 8 6 4 3 9 7 4 6 5 2

(a)  1

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 95-100) Complete the series replacing?

95. HSJ, IRL, JQN, ?

(a)  KPR

(b)  KPP

(c)  PKP

(d)  KOP

Answer: (b)

96. 2, 4, 7, 14, 17, 34, ?

(a)  37

(b)  39

(c)  68

(d)  70

Answer: (a)

97. 2, 4, 12, 48, 240,

(a)  960

(b)  1440

(c)  1080

(d)  1920

Answer: (b)

98. 71, 76, 69, 74, 67, 72, ?

(a)  77

(b)  80

(c)  65

(d)  76

Answer: (c)

99. In a code language, ‘mok dan sil’ means ‘nice big house’, ‘fit kon dan’ means ‘house is good’ and ‘warm tir fit’ means ‘cost is high’. Which word stands for ‘good’ in that language?

(a)  mok

(b)  dan

(c)  fit

(d)  kon

Answer: (d)

100. If in a certain language code ‘nee tim see’ means ‘how are you’, ‘ble nee see’ means ‘where are you’, then what is the code for ‘where’?

(a)  see

(b)  tim

(c)  nee

(d)  ble

Answer: (d)

101. Which company has roped in Saikhom Mirabai Chanu as its brand ambassador?

(a)  Patanjali

(b)  Amway India

(c)  Bigbasket

(d)  Modicare

Answer: (b)

102. The tagline Bleed Blue is associated with which of the following fashion brand?

(a)  Zara

(b)  Allen Solly

(c)  Nike

(d)  Adidas

Answer: (c)

103. Which of the person is the brand ambassador of Siyaram fashion brand?

(a)  Mahendra Singh Dhoni

(b)  Rohit Shetty

(c)  Virat Kohli

(d)  Ranbir Kapoor

Answer: (a)

104. Who has been roped in as the chairman of the committee formed by government to double and quadruple the exports of handlooms in 3 years?

(a)  Dinesh Bhargav

(b)  Sunil Sethi

(c)  Anamika Khanna

(d)  Ashish Soni

Answer: (b)

105. Amazon has appointed which Indian celebrity to lend voice for Alexa?

(a)  Shatrughan Sinha

(b)  Rajnikanth

(c)  Shahrukh Khan

(d)  Amitabh Bachchan

Answer: (d)

106. The ‘Jogajog’ is a platform similar to Facebook. The new platform is being developed by which country ?

(a)  Pakistan

(b)  India

(c)  Nepal

(d)  Bangladesh

Answer: (d)

107. Which of the following retail stores belong to Ambani’s Reliance Industries?

(a)  Pantaloons

(b)  Big Bazar

(c)  Shoppers Stop

(d)  Westside

Answer: (b)

108. Which of the following is an emirati retail fashion brand which comes under Dubai-based retail company?

(a)  Westside

(b)  Lifestyle

(c)  Pantaloons

(d)  Max

Answer: (b)

109. Which states is known for its renowned Tant saree and Batik saree?

(a)  Assam

(b)  Odisha

(c)  West Bengal

(d)  Gujarat

Answer: (c)

110. Which of the following brand is the famous for ladies suits in India?

(a)  Baluchari

(b)  Gucci

(c)  Flormar

(d)  Biba

Answer: (d)

111. How many Indian companies features in the 2021 Fortune’s Global 500 list?

(a)  9

(b)  5

(c)  7

(d)  11

Answer: (c)

112. Which is the first Indian city to become 100 percent COVID-19 vaccinated?

(a)  Hyderabad

(b)  Bhubaneswar

(c)  Pune

(d)  Indore

Answer: (b)

113. Neeraj Chopra has claimed the gold medal for India at Tokyo Olympics in which event?

(a)  Boxing

(b)  Shooting 

(c)  Wrestling

(d)  Javelin Throw

Answer: (d)

114. Government of India launched brand name and logo for marketing of the urban Self-Help Group (SHG) products. What brand name has been given to these products?

(a)  SonChiraiya

(b)  Neelkanth

(c)  Saras

(d)  Gauraiya

Answer: (a)

115. My e-Haat portal has been launched by which company to empower artisans?

(a)  Reliance Foundation

(b)  Infosys Foundation

(c)  Adani Foundation

(d)  HCL Foundation

Answer: (d)

116. Dholavira is the newest Indian site to be inscribed on the UNESCO’s World Heritage list. Where is Dholavira located?

(a)  Ladakh

(b)  Mizoram

(c)  Telangana

(d)  Gujarat

Answer: (d)

117. Which country has assumed the Presidency of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC)?

(a)  India

(b)  Russia

(c)  France

(d)  Germany

Answer: (a)

118. Which of the following brand belongs to Titan as sub-brand?

(a)  Chumbak

(b)  Dressberry

(c)  Fastrack

(d)  Roadster

Answer: (c)

119. Good Morning is the sub-brand of the following brands

(a)  Gucci

(b)  Park Avenue

(c)  Axe

(d)  Old Spice

Answer: (b)

120. Zodiac is the famous brand in which categories of following?

(a)  T-shirt

(b)  Jeans

(c)  Tie

(d)  Kurti

Answer: (c)

121. Who among these is the noted environmentalist and the leader of the Chipko Movement?

(a)  Mohan Dharia

(b)  Chandi Prasad Bhatt

(c)  Mike Pandey

(d)  Sunderlal Bahuguna

Answer: (d)

122. Raimona Reserve Forest has been declared as a National Park. Where is it located?

(a)  Sikkim

(b)  Assam

(c)  Tamil Nadu

(d)  Punjab

Answer: (b)

123. Who among the following has won the Miss Universe title in May 2021?

(a)  Julia Gama

(b)  Andrea Meza

(c)  Adline Castelino

(d)  Kimberly Jimenez

Answer: (b)

124. miniTV is a newly launched free video streaming service. The service has been launched by which entity?

(a)  Amazon India

(b)  Star India

(c)  Reliance

(d)  Zee Entertainment

Answer: (a)

125. The book title “Elephant In The Womb” is a debut book by which Indian celebrity?

(a)  Shilpa Shetty

(b)  Kalki Koechlin

(c)  Twinkle Khanna

(d)  Anushka Sharma

Answer: (b)


American scientists David Julius and Ardem Patapoutian won the 2021 Nobel Prize for Medicine for the discovery of receptors in the skin that sense temperature and touch and could pave the way for new pain-killers. Patrik Ernfors, a member of the Nobel Committee, in Oslo, Sweden, recognized the work by David Julius and Ardem Patapoutian as it has unlocked one of the secrets of nature.

Humans’ abilities to sense heat, cold, pressure and position are vital for perceiving and reacting to our surroundings. Understanding how they work is critical for treating chronic pain and other conditions. Their work, carried out independently, for discovering the molecular bases of how nerves convert stimuli-the burn of a chili pepper or the soft pressure of a hug-into signals that can be sensed by the brain.

Julius and his colleagues worked to find the receptor for capsaicin, component in chilies that causes a painful burning sensation. They identified the gene that encodes a new protein, called TRPV1-an ion channel in the membranes of cells that opens in response to heat. Julius got the idea to do his capsaicin experiments while shopping in a grocery store: “Walking through the supermarket aisle one day, seeing all these hot chili pepper sauces, et cetera, I was thinking, “We really have to get his project done,” . “And my wife said, ‘Well, then  you should get on it!”

Julius and Patapoutian independently identified another protein: TRPM8, which is sensitive to cold and menthol. Additionally, Patapoutian and his colleagues identified the genes for proteins that sense touch, known as Piezo 1 and Piezo 2. He showed that these two proteins were force activated ion channels. Piezo2 was also found to be important for sensing the positions of limbs in space, an ability known as proprioception.

126. Most of the Nobel Prizes in Medicines won by Americans and Europeans since its inception. The award is given by the Nobel Committee for Medicine based at

(a)  London

(b)  New York

(c)  Lisbon

(d)  Stockholm

Answer: (d)

127. American scientists won the Nobel Prize for the discovery of receptors in the skin that sense temperature, this will help in

(a)  New kinds of Pain Killer

(b)  Chemo Therapy

(c)  Treating Gene Structures

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (a)

128. The new identified gene that encodes a new protein, called TRPV1 found at

(a)  Berberine

(b)  Piperine

(c)  Curcumin

(d)  Capsaici

Answer: (d)

129. Julius and Patapoutian independently identified another protein named TRPM8, which is sensitive to

(a)  Cold and Menthol

(b)  Pressure and Position

(c)  Burning Sensation

(d)  All of these

Answer: (a)

130. Patapoutian and his colleagues identified the genes known as Piezol and Piezoz. Which of these two proteins were ion channels of the above two?

(a)  Shape-activated ion channels

(b)  Force-activated ion channels

(c)  Channel-activated ion channels

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)


In the year-2020, the fashion industry was trying to hold back its position, as the concept of work from home (WFH) became inevitable. Most of the people started working from home. Retail shops were shut down due to the pandemic and online shopping increased to encourage social distancing. Due to cost-cutting and new responsibilities, expensive purchases were curtailed, which subsequently affected the fashion industry.

Now that the world is slowly returning to normalcy, we have all started to regain and reshape ourselves in the new economic sphere. The designers have to come forward in terms of competitive clothing. Designer now uses Indian handloom fabric to make it more comfortable as it absorbs sweat, so it can be worn at home all day long. However, for now, designing competitive clothing is a challenge. The pandemic has taught us a huge lesson. It has given us time to rethink and reinvent ourselves.

Also, it is undeniable that clothes shape our personality, bringing out the best version of ourselves.

Also, it is undeniable that clothes shape our personality, bringing out the best version of ourselves. Our clothes and jewellery have always been inspired by our cultures and traditions. As humans started to get civilized, presenting oneself was always a prime psychological and emotional point within a human being. Moreover, the psychology of presenting oneself lies at the core of human existence.

During the 80s and 90s, Indian people were clueless about fashion. In today’s generation, our lifestyle is a reference to previous cultural influences. We need to get inspired by classical music, 500-year-old Amir Khusrow’s poetry, and Mughal influences in our craft. So, I feel that in today’s generation, our lifestyle is a reference to previous cultural influences. Even we can get inspirations from our kings and royal families, the way they were wearing their clothes, the jewellery, turbans, attire, shoes, and/or makeup.

However, we need to reinvent and make garments that are wearable and relevant in today’s time. However fashion industry in India has explored many avenues, but the real challenge is to make clothing more relevant to the modem lifestyle. Many designers has worked in each region with each design, including lehengas, cholis, anarkali, Hyderabadi and Pakistani shararas, and farshi. So, a lot of areas have already been explored.

The major question in fashion industry is how do we take out the traditional attire and make it relevant in contemporary dressing sense. Since the younger generation is fast-paced, they don’t want so much fabric and weight on themselves. One needs to select the best textile and make it into a stylish garment.

131. The Fashion Industry has evolved from normalcy to WFH culture with the concept of

(a)  Online Purchasing

(b)  Staggered Fashion

(c)  Competitive Clothing

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

132. Which of following have highly influenced our cultures and traditions?

(a)  Clothes and Jewellery

(b)  International Exposure

(c)  Wealth and Prosperity

(d)  Religion and Society

Answer: (a)

133. Which element/s can help us for crafting right fashion?

(a)  Classical Music and Poetry

(b)  Mughal Art and Craft

(c)  Kings and Royal Families

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

134. The real challenge lies in today’s fashion industry in making relevant to

(a)  with cost cutting

(b)  modern lifestyle

(c)  contemporary and fusion

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

135. What sort of fashion, younger generation wants these days?

(a)  Lighter and Stylish

(b)  Smart and Durable

(c)  Costly and Rich Work

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)


A series of latest scams have exposed the vulnerabilities of the Aadhaar-enabled Payment System (AePS). The AePS enables a person to withdraw money from her bank account anywhere in the country using a local “business correspondent” (BC). A BC is an informal bank agent equipped with a biometric Point-of-Sale (PoS) machine-a kind of micro-ATM.

If you want to withdraw, say, Rs. 500 from your bank account using a BC, you just have to give him the name of your bank and submit yourself to Aadhaar-based biometric authentication (ABBA). The BC will give you Rs. 500 in cash, and his own account will be credited with the same amount. For this to be possible, your bank account must be linked with Aadhaar. But what if the BC enters “one thousand rupees” in the PoS machine even as he gives you five hundred? In that case, one thousand will be debited from your account, and credited to the BC’s account, but you will only get five hundred.

A corrupt BC can even get away with asking a gullible customer to put her finger in the PoS machine under some pretext, without giving her any money. Many similar cases of AePSenabled fraud have emerged in Indial. Most of them are unresolved. Even if the BC can be traced, it is easy for him to claim that he did disburse cash as per records-it is his word against the victim’s. In short, corrupt BCs operate with virtual impunity.

The AePS is a a valuable facility for those who are able to use it safely. Like other micro-A TM systems, it has helped to decongest banks. It can be particularly useful to migrant workers who have no ATM facility. But AePS can be improved through number of measures, for those who are not clear about how it works.

For instance, BCs could be required to make manual if not digital entries into printed customer passbooks. That would act as a permanent, verifiable receipt that cannot be denied to the customer so easily (a blank entry would be incriminating).

Ensuring that BCs are clearly identified in transaction records would also help. So would SMS alerts, when the customer has a mobile number. Roaming BCs should perhaps be banned, at least in states with low literacy levels. And most importantly, better grievance redressal facilities must be made available to the victims of AePS fraud.

136. A Business Correspondent (BC) is equipped with PoS machine, which help in

(a)  Withdraw money without Bank

(b)  Aadhaar-linked Payment

(c)  B2B Transfer

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

137. How Aadhaar-based biometric authentication (ABBA) functions?

(a)  Through Smart Cards with chip

(b)  Through QR Code

(c)  Through biometric based Authentication

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

138. The AcPS are important tool to provide assistance to poor people as it maintains

(a)  Confidentiality

(b)  Authentication

(c)  Hassle-free

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

139. Various cases of AePS-enabled fraud have emerged in India because of

(a)  a corrupt BC

(b)  AePS-related irregularities

(c)  untraceable in nature

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

140. The BCs can be made accountable with

(a)  Manual Entries of Details

(b)  Clear Transaction Details

(c)  Switching to Traditional Methods

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-150) In each of these questions a passage is followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inferences separately in the context of the passage and decide upon it degree of truth or Falsity.

(a) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it directly follows from the facts given in the passage.

(b) If the inference is ‘probably true’ i.e. through not definitely true in the light of facts given.

(c) If you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of facts given.

(d) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it contradicts the given facts.


With a combination of rapid turnover of the latest trends, affordable prices, and matchless convenience, online shopping apps are set to take over the fashion industry in India. In the last decade, e-commerce has transformed the business landscape worldwide, driven by the almost complete shift to online shopping during the Covid-19 pandemic. Sites like Ajio, owned by billionaire Mukesh Ambani’s Reliance Industries, and, a subsidiary of Walmart owned Flipkart, the largest player in Indian e-commerce space.

The main reasons behind the growing popularity of such platforms are competitive prices, steep discounting and true to its moniker of “fast fashion,” its ability to create and release the latest styles on demand. Though, online shopping does have its drawbacks, with numerous customers complaining about fraud pictures that show completely different colours or flawed sizing issues. These fast fashion apps may offer good deals to consumers; the speedy turnover and the short life of these garments come at big cost to the environment and ecology.

However, environmentalists are concerned about the impact of such large-scale e-commerce. The micro-plastics released from clothes are not as visible as large plastic packaging. Ingestion of these has catastrophic effects on marine life and even humans. Globally, the fashion industry is responsible for 20 pc of wastewater. To combat this, Indian designers have introduced sustainable fashion e-commerce that offers a wide range of vegan apparel created from 10 pc organic cotton in a fair-trade factory.

Fast or slow, the online fashion industry will undoubtedly continue to expand exponentially. According to IBEF, the Indian e-commerce market expected to grow from USD 46.2 billion in 2020 to USD 111.40 billion by 2025, largely led by giants such as Flipkart and Amazon. Ultimately, it may be to the consumers whether the current e-commerce giants will continue to outpace their local, smaller counterparts, or whether they will be forced to alter some of their controversially unethical manufacturing processes.

141. The growing popularity of e-Commerce platforms are due to steep discounts.

Answer: (b)

142. E-Commerce has transformed the business landscape worldwide, through completely shift to online shopping during the Covid-19 pandemic.

Answer: (a)

143. Online shopping doesn’t have any drawbacks as it offers good deals to consumers.

Answer: (d)

144. Environmentalists are concerned about e-commerce, because of different forms of environment pollution.

Answer: (a)

145. The future of E-Commerce is not bright in India as it will lead by giants like Flipkart and Amazon.

Answer: (c)


Every year, millions of people are forced to abandon their homes in search of safer places to rebuild their lives. According to the UN, over 82.4 million people were force to leave their homes in 2020 and more than 20 million of them are refugees. Over 200,000 of these refuges are currently in India.

Through its history, India has hosted people fleeing war, conflict and persecution many times-Zoroastrians from Iran, Sri Lankans in the 1980s or Afghans during varied waves of displacement, including the current one in 2021. The country also has the experience of rehabilitating Partition refugees.

Welcoming refuges lies at the core of India’s secular, spiritual and cultural values. India has taken part in 49 peacekeeping missions, in which more than 195,000 troops and a significant number of police personnel assisted the UN and international NGOs in conflict-ridden lands. The paradox, therefore, of such a welcoming country not having its own homegrown national refugee framework requires a rethink.

A sustainable refugee policy is a necessary step intelligently manage population movements and ensure transparency and predictability in our administrative actions. Treatment of refugees must receive the same attention that other human rights protection issues receive-this is consistent with the constitutional emphasis on the rule of law.

The legislation will also clarify the roles of different agencies-governmental, judicial, UN – involved in refugee protection and lay down the procedures of coordination amongst them. It would also help avoid friction between the host country and the country of origin. Other states would recognize the move to grant asylum as a peaceful, humanitarian and legal act, and not an arbitrary political gesture. It will also provide a platform for dialogue on sharing responsibility and aid the search of durable solutions to the root causes of a refugee problem.

Welcoming refugees generally implies an initial investment of public funds. Once refugees start working, this investment may harvest dividends.

Refugees can fill gaps in the labour market or start trades that create wealth and help improve international trade and investment. Thanks to their diverse experiences, refugees bring new concepts, technologies and innovative ideas.

146. Accepting refuges is against the core of India’s cultural values.

Answer: (d)

147. India has given shelter to Sri Lankans in the 1980s and Afghans during the current one in 2021.

Answer: (a)

148. An urgent and temporary refugee policy is required in India to manage refugee movements.

Answer: (c)

149. In India, there is need for a legislative law to deal with the refugee crisis will and also clarify the roles of different agencies-governmental, judicial, UN involved in refugee protection.

Answer: (a)

150. If refugees shall work and invest in India, this will harvest dividends and prosperity.

Answer: (b)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) UNDER GRADUATE 2021 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Under Graduate)

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2021

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-25) Study the passages given below to answer the questions that follow each passage.


Opera refers to a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional content is conveyed to the audience as much through the lyrics. By contrast, in musical theatre an actor’s dramatic performance is primary, and the music plays a lesser role. The drama in opera is presented using the primary elements of theatre such as scenery, costumes and acting. However, the words of the opera or libretto are sung rather than spoken. The singers are accompanied by a musical ensemble ranging from a small instrumental ensemble to a full symphonic orchestra.

1. It is pointed out in the passage that Opera

(a)  has developed under the influence of musical theatre.

(b)  is a drama sung with the accompaniment of an orchestra.

(c)  is often performed in Europe.

(d)  is the most complex of all the performing arts.

Answer: (b)

2. We can understand from the passage that

(a)  drama in opera is more important than the music.

(b)  people are captivated more by opera than musical theatre.

(c)  orchestras in operas can vary considerably in size.

(d)  musical theatre relies above all on music.

Answer: (c)

3. It is stated in the passage that

(a)  an opera requires an orchestra.

(b)  many people find musical theatre more captivating than opera.

(c)  music in musical theatre is not as important as it is in opera.

(d)  opera doesn’t have any properties in common with musical theatre.

Answer: (a)

4. A good opera performance requires

(a)  dramatic skills

(b)  singing skills

(c)  musical instrumental skills

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)


Dolphins are regarded as the friendliest creatures in the sea and stories of them helping drowning sailors have been common since Roman times. The more we learn about dolphins, the more we realize that their society is more complex than people previously imagined. They look after other dolphins when they are ill, care for pregnant mothers and protect the weakest in the community, as we do. Some scientists have suggested that dolphins have a language but it is much more probable that they communicate with each other without needing words. Could any of these mammals be more intelligent than man?

Certainly the most common argument in favour of man’s superiority over them, that we can kill them more easily than they can kill us, is the least satisfactory. On the contrary, the more we discover about these remarkable creatures, the less we appear superior when we destroy them.

5. It is clear from the passage that dolphins

(a)  are proven to be less intelligent than once thought.

(b)  have a reputation for being friendly to humans.

(c)  are the most powerful creatures that live in the oceans.

(d)  are capable of learning a language and communicating with humans.

Answer: (b)

6. The fact that the writer of the passage thinks that we can kill dolphins more easily than they can kill us

(a)  means that they are less adapted to their environment than humans are to theirs.

(b)  proves that dolphins are not the most intelligent species at sea.

(c)  does not mean that we are superior to them.

(d)  proves that the linguistic skills of dolphins are not comprehensible to humans.

Answer: (c)

7. One can infer from the passage that

(a)  dolphins are quite abundant in some areas of the world.

(b)  communication is the most fascinating aspect of the dolphins.

(c)  the ability to think is unique to dolphins among all mammals.

(d)  dolphins have some social traits are similar to those of humans.

Answer: (d)

8. If a dolphin gets sick, the other dolphins

(a)  take care of the sick one

(b)  move on to keep away

(c)  simply keep looking at the sick member

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)


Naval architects never claim that a ship is unsinkable, but the sinking of the passenger-and-car ferry Estonia in the Baltic surely should never have happened. It was well designed and carefully maintained. It carried the proper number of lifeboats. It had been thoroughly inspected on the day of I ts fatal voyage. Yet hours later, the Estonia rolled over and sank on a cold, stormy night. It went down so quickly that most of those on board, caught in their dark, flooding cabins, had no chance to save themselves. Of those who managed to scramble overboard, only 139 survived The rest died of hypothermia before the rescuers could pluck them from the cold sea. The final death toll was 912 souls. However, there were an unpleasant number of questions about why the Estonia sank and why so many survivors were men in the prime of their lives, while most of the dead were women, children and the elderly.

9. One can understand from the passage that

(a)  most victims were trapped inside the ship as they were in their cabins.

(b)  the lifesaving equipment did not work well and lifeboats could not be lowered.

(c)  design faults and incompetent crew contributed to the sinking of the Estonia ferry.

(d)  naval architects claimed that the Estonia was unsinkable.

Answer: (a)

10. It is clear from the passage that the survivors of the accident

(a)  were immune to hypothermia.

(b)  were mostly young men.

(c)  told the investigators nothing about the accident

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (b)

11. According to the passage, when the Estonia sank,

(a)  there were only 139 passengers on board.

(b)  few of the passengers were asleep.

(c)  there were enough lifeboats for the number of people on board.

(d)  faster reaction by the crew could have increased the Estonia’s chances of survival.

Answer: (c)

12. Estonia appears to be a

(a)  naval ship

(b)  naval submarine

(c)  cargo ship

(d)  passenger ferry

Answer: (d)


Erosion of America’s farmland by wind and water has been a problem since settlers first put the prairies and grasslands under the plough in the nineteenth century. By the 1930s, more than 282 million acres of farmlands were damaged by erosion. After 40 years of conservation efforts, now soil erosion has again accelerated due to new demands placed on the land by heavy crop production. In the years ahead, soil erosion and the pollution problems it causes are likely to replace petroleum scarcity as the nation’s most critical natural resource problem.

13. As we understand from the passage, today, soil erosion in America

(a)  causes humans to place new demands on the land

(b)  happened so slowly that it took forty years to get noticed.

(c)  is the most critical problem that the nation faces.

(d)  is worse than it was in the nineteenth century.

Answer: (d)

14. The author points out in the passage the soil erosion in America

(a)  has damaged 282 million acres ever since settlers first put the prairies and grasslands under the plough.

(b)  could become a more serious problem in the future.

(c)  has been so severe that it has forced people to abandon their settlements.

(d)  was on the decline before 1930s.

Answer: (b)

15. It is pointed out in the passage that in America

(a)  petroleum is causing heavy soil erosion and pollution problems.

(b)  soil erosion has been hastened due to the overuse of farming lands.

(c)  heavy crop production is necessary to meet the demands and to prevent a disaster.

(d)  water is undoubtedly the largest cause of erosion.

Answer: (b)

16. From the passage, it appears that the profession of early settlers in America was

(a)  mining.

(b)  conservation work.

(c)  agriculture.

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (c)


The Gandharva Music and Art Fair-better known to its participants and to history simply as “Gandharva”-should have been a colossal failure. Just a month prior to its August 15th, 1969 opening, the fair’s organisers were informed by the Council of Gandharva Music and Art, Allahabad that permission to hold the festival was withdrawn. Amazingly, not only was a new site found, but word spread to the public of the fair’s new location. At the new site, fences that were supposed to facilitate ticket collection never materialized and all attempts at gathering tickets were abandoned. Crowd estimates of 30,000 kept rising; by the end of the three days, some estimated the crowd at 500,000. Then, on the opening night, it began to rain. Off and on, throughout all three days, huge summer storms rolled over the gathering. In spite of these problems, most people think of Gandharva not only as a fond memory but also as the defining moment for an entire generation.

17. Which of the following would be closest in meaning to the word ‘colossal’ as used in this passage?

(a)  Definite

(b)  Surprising

(c)  Massive

(d)  Disastrous

Answer: (c)

18. Which of the following is implied in the passage, about The Gandharva Music and Art Fair held in August 1969?

(a)  It was a colossal failure.

(b)  It was the defining moment for an entire generation.

(c)  Ticket sales never materialized as per expectations.

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (b)

19. In what context is the word ‘amazingly’ used in the passage?

(a)  The fair drew such an unexpectedly enormous crowd

(b)  The event was moved and word sent out in a very short time.

(c)  Despite pressure by Allahabad officials, the fair was held successfully.

(d)  The stormy weather was so unfavourable.

Answer: (b)

20. As per the passage, most people think of Gandharva as a fond memory because the

(a)  event was held for the first time in August, 1969.       

(b)  crowds that thronged the venue were larger than anticipated.

(c)  performers at the fair were popular amongst the youth.

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (d)


Everybody earns the living in their own way to support themselves as well as the family. If you are employed and bored with what you do, take a look at the weirdest jobs below to know that you are luckier than many people. Those who are not well educated or have strange hobbies take up to following jobs t make ends meet:

(a) Fire-Observer Sounds interesting! This job requires the candidate to sit and watch for any upcoming fires in forests. You sit on a tower and warn the authorities about any impending dangers. It’s quite a lonely job. So, if there are any loners out there who seek complete loneliness they can try their hands at this weird job.

(b) Ice-Cream Taster A sweet job! But it takes more than just tasting the ice-creams to get your pay in this job. There can be no compromise about the quality of the ice-cream, so one has to keep all the taste-buds on his tongue alive and active. This requires you to follow a strict diet, not eating anything too spicy or hot. You cannot smoke, drink or even use strong perfumes!

.(c) Sports Mascot Getting dressed in an often silly-looking costume, entertaining thousands of screaming fans and shadow-punching umpires are all in a day’s work for the Sports Mascot.

The term, mascot, or in this case, the sports mascot is used to describe a person, animal or object that is thought to bring luck. Sporting entities are usually the home for these “luck” bringers, but mascots can also be found in other areas of society, such as military units and charity organisations.

The next time you sit at your desk considering a job change, sneak a peek at this list of weird jobs that give a complete twist to your career.

21. A word close in meaning to ‘weird’ is …

(a)  bored

(b)  luckier

(c)  strange

(d)  well educated

Answer: (c)

22. A fire observer

(a)  works alone

(b)  works with lots of people

(c)  has to hate loneliness

(d)  is a lonely person

Answer: (a)

23. A mascot is a/an ….. symbol.

(a)  bad luck

(b)  good luck

(c)  melancholic

(d)  elegant

Answer: (b)

24. An ice-cream taster

(a)  eats whatever he wants

(b)  drinks alcohol.

(c)  has a strict diet.

(d)  is a heavy smoker.

Answer: (c)

25. Getting dressed in an often silly-looking costume probably means to

(a)  dress elegantly

(b)  dress casually

(c)  be naked

(d)  dress ridiculously

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 26 and 27) Choose the option that is the plural form of the given word.

26. Bunch

(a)  Bunches

(b)  Bunch

(c)  Bunchs

(d)  Bunchies

Answer: (a)

27. Shelf

(a)  Shelf

(b)  Shelves

(c)  Shelfes

(d)  Shelfies

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 28-30) Fill in the blanks.

28. He ……… from fever

(a)  has been suffering

(b)  has suffered

(c)  is suffering

(d)  was suffering

Answer: (a)

29. I shall get a job before the week ……….

(a)  will end

(b)  ends

(c)  had ended

(d)  is ending

Answer: (b)

30. The servant had finished his work when I …….. him.