IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2019 With Answer Key

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam-2019


Section-I General English Comprehension

Directions (Qs. No. 1-10) : Read the passage carefully and select the appropriate answers given in front of each question.

     This is a monologue delivered in a 1998 movie. The speaker is about to scatter the ashes of his friend.

“Donny was a good bowler, and a good man. He was one of us. He was a man who loved the outdoors…and bowling, and as a surfer he explored the beaches of Southern California, from La Jolla to Leo Carrillo and …upto… Pismo. He died, like so many young men of his generation, he died before his time. In your wisdom, Lord, you took  him, as  you took so many bright, blooming young men at Kheshan, at Hill 364 of Langdoh (battle of Vietnam war).

     These young men gave their lives. And so would Donny. Donny who loved bowling. And so, Theodore Donald Karabotsos, in accordance with what we think your dying wishes might well have been, we commit  you final mortal remains in the lap of the Pacific Ocean, which  you loved so well. Goodnight, sweet prince”.

1. The first sentence of the paragraph “Donny was a good bowler, and a good man” is a:

(A) Simple Sentence

(B) Complex Sentence

(C) Compound Sentence

(D) Complex-compound Sentence

Answer: (C)

2. Attitude towards ‘bowling’ of the narrator better defines:

(A) Dishonour

(B) Respect

(C) Disobedience

(D) Disinterested

Answer: (B)

3. In this context, the nearest synonym for ‘in the lap’ in the last sentence, would be:

(A) Chest

(B) Rest

(C) Water

(D) Foam

Answer: (B)

4. The sentence “died like a young man” shows that:

(A) He gave his life while fighting for his country.

(B) He committed suicide.

(C) He died in adolescence.

(D) He was murdered.

Answer: (A)

5. In the last two sentences, the narrator’s expressions can be better considered as:

(A) Enraged

(B) Confused

(C) Encouraged

(D) Formal

Answer: (D)

6. In the above paragraph, the attitude of the narrator towards Donny is mainly:

(A) Is of sad companionship

(B) Is without bias.

(C) Is of obvious rancour.

(D) Is of proudly separation.

Answer: (A)

7. The reference to Kheshang, Hill 364 of Langdoh in the sentence “By his will, God…” suggests that:

(A) Donny was killed in the battle

(B) Donny was buried on Hill 364

(C) The narrator also lost his friends in these places

(D) The narrator is remembering these places

Answer: (C)

8. In this perspective, the sense of line “In your wisdom, Lord….took the  youth” is well explained:

(A) Excitement

(B) Flurried

(C) Patient

(D) Ambivalent

Answer: (C)

9. In the sentence “In your wisdom, Lord ….” the word ‘bright’ most nearly means:

(A) intelligent

(B) light

(C) vivid

(D) dazzling

Answer: (A)

10. In the statement “ He was a man who loved the outdoors….” The word ‘bowling’ is a:

(A) Verb

(B) Adjective

(C) Gerund

(D) Noun

Answer: (D)

Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning

Directions (Qs. No. 11-14): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

     There are six members in a family-A, B, C, D E and F. C is the sister of F. D is father of A and F is grandson of D. B is brother-in-law of F’s mother. E is the daughter of D. There are only two females in the family.

11. Who is the daughter of A and E?

(A) C

(B) E

(C) B

(D) D

Answer: (A)

12. Who is the mother of F?

(A) C

(B) E

(C) A

(D) B

Answer: (B)

13. Two female members of the family are:

(A) D, E

(B) A, C

(C) C, E

(D) F, C

Answer: (C)

14. Who is the uncle of C?

(A) D

(B) A

(C) F

(D) B

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. No. 15-18): In the following questions a series is being given. Select from the alternatives the correct term to fill in the missing term.

15. 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, ?

(A) 210

(B) 215

(C) 217

(D) 252

Answer: (C)

16. 15, 32, 67, 138, ?, 568

(A) 276

(B) 278

(C) 280

(D) 281

Answer: (D)

17. 19, 29, 41, 55,?, 89

(A) 69

(B) 71

(C) 74

(D) 76

Answer: (B)

18. 64, 63, 49, 49, 48, 36, 36, 35, 25, 25, 24, ?

(A) 16

(B) 18

(C) 20

(D) 22

Answer: (A)

19. Find the missing number:

(A) 89

(B) 93

(C) 72

(D) 64

Answer: (C)

20. Which is different from the rest of the three on any basis?

(A) Edge

(B) Corner

(C) Tip

(D) Vertex

Answer: (A)

21. If OCCUPATION is coded as QEEWRCVKQP, how will PROFESSION be coded?





Answer: (C)

22. The POTENTIAL is coded as 657247314, how will TALENT be coded?

(A) 714274

(B) 714247

(C) 741247

(D) 724147

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 23-26): Study the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

     Mariam, Kunti, Begum, Shilpi and Meera are five friends. Each has six balls. Mariam gave three balls to Shilpi, who gave two balls each to Kunti and Meera. Begum gave four balls to Mariam who in turn gave three each to Kunti and Meera. Kunti gave five balls to Begum and Meera gave four balls to Shilpi.

23. Who possesses the most balls?

(A) Begum

(B) Shilpi

(C) Meera

(D) Kunti

Answer: (B)

24. How many balls are with Begum?

(A) 9

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 7

Answer: (D)

25. How many balls are with Kunti?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Answer: (A)

26. Who has the fewest balls?

(A) Begum

(B) Meera

(C) Mariam

(D) Kunti

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. No. 27-30): Study the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

     A and B play cricket and tennis. B and D play hockey. A and C play volleyball and tennis. C, D and E play football.

27. Who plays hockey and football?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (D)

28. Who plays cricket, tennis and volleyball?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (A)

29. Who plays only football?

(A) E

(B) D

(C) C

(D) B

Answer: (A)

30. Who plays volleyball and football?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (C)

Section-III : Educational and General Awareness

31. Where is the headquarter of International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)?

(A) Tel Aviv City, Israel

(B) Paris, France

(C) Tehran, Iran

(D) Masdar City, United Arab Emirates

Answer: (D)

32. What is geographically closest to Greater Nicobar?

(A) Sumatra

(B) Borneo

(C) Java

(D) Sri Lanka

Answer: (A)

33. Which of the following is a multi-level global campaign to spread awareness about the importance of education for girls?

(A) Girl’s Rising

(B) The most important part of our life; Girl

(C) Save Girls: Educate Girls

(D) Education for Girls

Answer: (A)

34. Lord Macaulay is related to:

(A) By introducing instruction through English medium

(B) Military reform

(C) End of sati practice

(D) Legal disclosure

Answer: (A)

35. Which of the following is not composed by Sant Tulsidas?

(A) Geetawali

(B) Kavitawali

(C) Vinay Patrika

(D) Sahitya Ratna

Answer: (D)

36. Which browser is developed by Google?

(A) Internet Explorer

(B) Firefox

(C) Safari

(D) Chrome

Answer: (D)

37. Who wrote the book “The Coalition Years 1996-2012”?

(A) Yashwant Sinha

(B) P. Chidambaram

(C) Pranab Mukherjee

(D) Sitaram Yechury

Answer: (C)

38. Parliament approved the National Education Policy in:

(A) 1985

(B) 1986

(C) 1988

(D) 1989

Answer: (B)

39. Which of the following acts was called by Jawaharlal Nehru as “Proclamation Letter of Slavery”?

(A) Regulating Act, 1773

(B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(C) Government of India Act, 1919

(D) Government  of India Act, 1935

Answer: (D)

40. Where is Jog Falls located?

(A) On the Tapti river

(B) On the Sharavati river

(C) On the Kaveri river

(D) On the Bhima river

Answer: (B)

41. In which year did the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan scheme start?

(A) 1999-2000

(B) 2000-2001

(C) 2001-2002

(D) 2002-2003

Answer: (B)

42. Yashpal Committee Report (1993) is known as:

(A) Learning the pleasure within

(B) Learning without Burden

(C) Learning to Learn

(D) Learning to Live Together

Answer: (B)

43. Who was given the Jnanpith Award for the year 2016?

(A) Sankha Ghosh

(B) Mridula Garg

(C) Namvar Singh

(D) Sankara Kurup

Answer: (A)

44. National Curriculum Framework was created by NCERT:

(A) 2005

(B) 2006

(C) 2007

(D) 2008

Answer: (A)

45. Which book was written by Swami Dayanand Saraswati?

(A) Satyarth Prakash

(B) Raja Yoga

(C) Geetanjali

(D) Chaturang

Answer: (A)

46. How can the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India be increased?

(A) By the notification of President

(B) By Parliamentary law

(C) By amending the Constitution of India

(D) By a representation of the Supreme Court

Answer: (B)

47. When did Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana enforce?

(A) 2014

(B) 2015

(C) 2016

(D) 2017

Answer: (B)

48. The main objective of the Hunter Commission (1882) was:

(A) Assessing the status of primary education and suggesting improvements

(B) Suggesting Police Reforms

(C) Examining revolutionary movements in India

(D) Translation of Indian literature into English

Answer: (A)

49. Section ‘51A’ of the Constitution deals with:

(A) Fundamental Rights

(B) Fundamental Duties

(C) Girl education

(D) Woman education

Answer: (B)

50. In which year was the All India Muslim League established?

(A) 1905

(B) 1904

(C) 1907

(D) 1906

Answer: (D)

51. Which region is called the ‘rice bowl’ of India?

(A) North-East Region

(B) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

(C) Indus-Ganga Plain

(D) Krishna-Godavari delta region

Answer: (D)

52. For which book Viren Dangwal was given the Sahitya Akademi Award?

(A) Syahi Tal

(B) Esi Duniya mein

(C) Dushchakra Mein Srasta

(D) Kal ki Baat

Answer: (C)

53. “Jeevan ka Phiya” is used as a ‘Theme’ in which of the following?

(A) Varli painting

(B) Thanka painting

(C) Manjusha painting

(D) Kalamkari painting

Answer: (B)

54. First President of India was:

(A) Dr. Radhakrishnan

(B) Dr. Zakir Husain

(C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer: (D)

55. Recently, the Energy Ganga Project implemented by the Government of India is:

(A) Saving Gangai Dolphin in Ganges River

(B) Removing water pollution from the Ganges River and conserving the Ganges River

(C) Protection of Ganga flood affected plains

(D) Providing LPG from pipes to residents

Answer: (D)

Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School

56. The objective of teaching is:

(A) Change in behavior of students in expected direction

(B) Complete personality development of students

(C) Character building of students

(D) Getting selected in a proper  job

Answer: (A)

57. Why should there be discipline in the classroom?

(A) Children should feel that it is compulsory.

(B) Children should accept the tribunal.

(C) Children should understand the importance of organized and systematic work.

(D) If they want to become teachers, it will help them.

Answer: (C)

58. On which channel IGNOU’s programs are shown?

(A) Mukt channel

(B) Eklavya channel

(C) Gyan channel

(D) Vyas channel

Answer: (C)

59. The best definition of education can be:

(A) The preparation

(B) To acquire knowledge

(C) Learning

(D) Intellectual freedom

Answer: (D)

60. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of teacher education in India?





Answer: (A)

61. The dictionary is a:

(A) Audio medium

(B) Visual medium

(C) Print media

(D) Audio-Visual medium

Answer: (C)

62. Which title will be appropriate for the opening of the first day in nursery class?

(A) My best friend

(B) My neighbourhood

(C) My school

(D) My family

Answer: (D)

63. A good teacher is one who:

(A) Encourages children for all round development.

(B) Helps children to learn their lesson easily.

(C) Prepares children to pass the exam.

(D) Establishes discipline in the classroom.

Answer: (A)

64. What will you do if a child does not understand the lesson properly taught in class?

(A) Repeat the lesson

(B) Students will be asked to read additional books/learning materials.

(C) Know the child’s prior knowledge

(D) Will reread the lesson by choosing examples from the child’s background

Answer: (D)

65. In the perspective of education, socialization means:

(A) Building your own social standards

(B) To respect elders in society

(C) Adaptation and adjustment in social environment

(D) Always comply with social standards

Answer: (C)

66. The most important objective of teaching is:

(A) To understand teacher’s narrative to children

(B) Completing the lesson of your subject

(C) Keeping children comfortable during teaching

(D) Taking classes regularly

Answer: (A)

67. Statement ‘Men are generally more intelligent than women’:

(A) is true

(B) can be true

(C) shows gender differences

(D) Perfect for multiple areas of intelligence

Answer: (C)

68. Which one of the following is not an ‘output’ device?

(A) Keyboard

(B) Visual Display Unit

(C) Printer

(D) Plotter

Answer: (A)

69. Which of the following is not the main objective of NCERT?

(A) To organize pre-service and in-service training of teachers.

(B) To act as  a nodal institution in achieving the goals of universal elementary education

(C) To encourage and coordinate research in the field of school education

(D) Developing rules for teacher education programs

Answer: (D)

70. The purpose of the task is to:

(A) Keeping students busy at home

(B) Improvement in handwriting

(C) Parents’ participation in student learning

(D) Promotion of self-learning

Answer: (D)

71. In which state the first Open University was established in India?

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Delhi

(C) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (A)

72. Which is not a suitable tool for structural assessment?

(A) Duty

(B) Oral question

(C) Terminal examination

(D) Question Forum & Puzzle

Answer: (C)

73. Which of the following is not correct about the school?

(A) They are powerful-agencies of social change.

(B) They are social units of cultural transfer.

(C) They are influenced by the social and economic scenario in the country.

(D) They are possible means of conflict and separation.

Answer: (D)

74. What is the biggest benefit of interaction between teachers and fellows?

(A) It helps in effective learning.

(B) It provides satisfaction to the teacher.

(C) It encourages scholars to ask questions.

(D) It creates better collective relationships.

Answer: (A)

75. If a child often quarrels with his siblings, how will you help him as a teacher?

(A) You punish him in school

(B) Comparing him to others will discourage him

(C) Will ask parents to take drastic action

(D) By taking him alone find the reason for such behavior.

Answer: (D)

76. An effective teaching-aid material has one of the following characteristic/qualities:

(A) It looks good.

(B) Awakens all departments.

(C) Visible to everyone.

(D) It is easy to make.

Answer: (B)

77. What is not desired for a proper teaching-learning environment in the classroom?

(A) Autonomy of fellowship

(B) Freedom to teacher for innovation

(C) Meeting of continuous teacher-parent association

(D) Punishment for wrong behavior

Answer: (D)

78. Ann effective classroom environment occurs in:

(A) Different types of educational aids

(B) Live interaction of student-teacher

(C) Torrential silence

(D) Excessive discipline

Answer: (B)

79. Ethical values can be developed effectively in students when teachers:

(A) Speaks of sustainable values.

(B) He complies himself.

(C) Tells the story of great people.

(D) Provides reading material.

Answer: (B)

80. The success of teaching depends on:

(A) On advance skills

(B) On oral communication skills

(C) On children’s understanding

(D) On children’s choice

Answer: (C)


Section-V : (i) Science

81. An electric motor converts:

(A) Electrical energy into heat energy

(B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy

(C) Mechanical energy into electrical energy

(D) Mechanical energy into heat energy

Answer: (B)

82. The part of DNA that informs a protein, is called:

(A) Nucleus

(B) Chromosome

(C) Modesty

(D) Gene

Answer: (D)

83. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

(A) Sulphur dioxide

(B) Nitrogen dioxide

(C) Carbon dioxide

(D) Carbon monoixde

Answer: (C)

84. Which of the following would be true for highly acidic and highly alkaline solutions?

(A) The concentration of hydrogen ion in the solution will be 107 M

(B) The solution will turn litmus into red colour

(C) Solutions will be very good conductor of electricity

(D) The solutions will release hydrogen by reacting with Mg

Answer: (C)

85. Which colour of visible light has the lowest frequency?

(A) Violet

(B) Red

(C) Yellow

(D) Green

Answer: (B)

86. The blood corpuscles that help in blood clotting at the place of injury are:



(C) Platelets

(D) Eosinophils

Answer: (C)

87. The result of the ozone hole is:

(A) Green effect house

(B) Global warming

(C) Acid rain

(D) Increase in UV radiation

Answer: (D)

88. Choose a compound that has an oxidation number of +5 to chlorine.

(A) HClO4

(B) HClO3

(C) HClO2

(D) HClO

Answer: (B)

89. If the focal length of a lens is f, the power of the lens will be:

Answer: (A)

90. Which of the following electronic distributions should have a minimum ionic energy?

(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

(B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6

(D) 1s2 2s2 2p3

Answer: (B)

91. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

(A) Wind energy

(B) Ocean energy

(C) Solar energy

(D) Fossil energy

Answer: (D)

92. Which of the following properties is different for neutral atoms of two isotopes of the same element?

(A) Atomic number

(B) Mass

(C) Number of electrons

(D) General chemical reaction

Answer: (B)

93. What percentage of genes does a child get from his father?

(A) 25%

(B) 50%

(C) 75%

(D) 100%

Answer: (B)

94. Xylem in plants are responsible:

(A) For water transport

(B) For manure transport

(C) For the transport of amino acids

(D) For oxygen transport

Answer: (A)

95. Resistance of metal Conductor:

(A) Increases with increase in temperature

(B) Decreases with increase in temperature

(C) Doesn’t change with change in temperature

(D) Becomes zero at high temperature

Answer: (A)

96. Which of the following will form an ionic solution in water?

(A) CO2

(B) CCl4

(C) O2

(D) NaI

Answer: (D)

97. The reason for the movement of food in the esophagus is:

(A) Balsamic by saliva

(B) Peristalsis

(C) Gravitational pull

(D) Filtration

Answer: (B)

98. In which production the biodegraded waste can be used?

(A) Manure

(B) Biogas

(C) Both manure and biogas

(D) Neither manure nor biogas

Answer: (C)

99. In human beings, kidney is part of which system?

(A) Nutrition

(B) Respiration

(C) Excretion

(D) Circulation

Answer: (C)

100. The fastest depleting natural resources in the world are:

(A) Water

(B) Forest

(C) Air

(D) Sunlight

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (ii) Mathematics

101. The largest 4-digit number divisible by 15, 25, 40, and 75 will be?

(A) 9000

(B) 9200

(C) 9400

(D) 9600

Answer: (D)

102. How many digits will be in the right of the decimal point in the product of 65.425, and 0.03216?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Answer: (C)

103. 17 pen are sold at Rs 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 pens, what is the cost price of one pen?

(A) Rs 43

(B) Rs 60

(C) Rs 55

(D) Rs 34

Answer: (B)

104. A fruit seller purchases 5 oranges in Rs 4 then sells 4 oranges in Rs 5, what is his profit per cent?

(A) 50%

(B) 48.56%

(C) 56.25%

(D) 62.25%

Answer: (C)

105. If (5.6)2 + 5.6p + (3.4)2 is a perfect square, then what is the value of p?

(A) 3.4

(B) 9.0

(C) 2.2

(D) 6.8

Answer: (D)

106. If the shadow of a pole is √3 times its length, then the angle of elevation towards the sun will be:

(A) 30°

(B) 45°

(C) 60°

(D) 75°

Answer: (A)

107. How many two-digit prime numbers have 1 as a second digit?

(A) 03

(B) 04

(C) 05

(D) 06

Answer: (C)

108. The total number of prime numbers between 20 and 50 will be:

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Answer: (B)

109. The value of  is:

(A) 1.2

(B) 3.8

(C) 5.0

(D) 4.0

Answer: (C)

110. HCF of two numbers is 5 and LCM is150. If one number is 25, then the second number will be:

(A) 45

(B) 40

(C) 30

(D) 20

Answer: (C)

111. At 8.30 am, the angle between the minute and the hour hand in a watch will be:

(A) 60°

(B) 70°

(C) 75°

(D) 90°

Answer: (C)

112. If a shopkeeper gives 5% discount in his sale 3 times continuously, the total discount will be:

(A) 15%

(B) 12.27%

(C) 17.74%

(D) 14.26%

Answer: (D)

113. A clock starts in the afternoon. The hour needle will be bent at 5.10 pm?

(A) 145°

(B) 155°

(C) 160°

(D) 175°

Answer: (B)

114. A fruit seller has some oranges. He sold 30% of the oranges, yet he has 245 oranges left. How many oranges did he have in the beginning?

(A) 250

(B) 300

(C) 350

(D) 400

Answer: (C)

115. A 350 m. long train is running at a speed of 45 km/hr. In how much time it will cross 140 m. long platform?

(A) 30 seconds

(B) 40 seconds

(C) 45 seconds

(D) 50 seconds

Answer: (B)

116. If  then:

(A) a = b

(B) a + b =1

(C) a – b = 0

(D) a – b = 1

Answer: (B)

117. If one number is 10% less than another, which is 10% more than 200, then what is the first number?

(A) 190

(B) 198

(C) 202

(D) 218

Answer: (B)

118. Which of the following represents the ratio of seconds to hours?

(A) .00025

(B) .00026

(C) .00027

(D) .00028

Answer: (C or D)

119. A train running at a speed of 40 km/hr crosses a post in 18 seconds. The length of the train will be:

(A) 180 m

(B) 200 m

(C) 240 m

(D) 360 m

Answer: (B)

120. A student gets 240 marks in the examination and is failed with 60 marks, if the maximum marks is 600, then what is the passing percentage?

(A) 36%

(B) 40%

(C) 45%

(D) 50%

Answer: (D)

Section-V : (iii) Social Science

121. The word ‘mansab’ is used:

(A) A piece of land

(B) A position

(C) An office

(D) A pay scale

Answer: (B)

122. The Constitution of India was adopted:

(A) By the Governor General

(B) By British Parliament

(C) By Constituent Assembly

(D) By Indian Parliament

Answer: (C)

123. Excise duty is a tax:

(A) On sale of goods

(B) On export of goods

(C) On the production of goods

(D) On import of goods

Answer: (C)

124. Which of the following is not a fundamental feature of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Presidential government

(B) Parliamentary government

(C) Federal government

(D) Freedom of judiciary

Answer: (A)

125. The Similipal Tiger Reserve is located at:

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Uttarakhand

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Odisha

Answer: (D)

126. Which state is the largest producer of coal in India?

(A) Bihar

(B) Jharkhand

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Odisha

Answer: (B)

127. Supernova is a:

(A) A dwarf star

(B) A black hole

(C) A meteor

(D) A dead star

Answer: (D)

128. Who is called the father of Indian Constitution?

(A) B.R. Ambedkar

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: (A)

129. Which of the following Gupta emperors was equally important in war and personal achievements?

(A) Chandragupta I

(B) Chandragupta II

(C) Kumargupta I

(D) Skandagupta

Answer: (B)

130. Which English Governor General started postage stamps in India?

(A) Lord Dalhousie

(B) Lord Auckland

(C) Lord Canning

(D) Lord William Bentinck

Answer: (A)

131. Where was the Mughal ruler Bahadur Shah II sent as captive by the British?

(A) Mendeley jail

(B) Adaman and Nicobar

(C) Rangoon

(D) Hyderabad

Answer: (C)

132. Members of Rajya Sabha are:

(A) Directly elected.

(B) Mostly nominated.

(C) Both chosen directly and indirectly.

(D) Elected by the assembly members.

Answer: (D)

133. Which section of the constitution has given residuary rights to the Parliament?

(A) Section 45

(B) Section 21A

(C) Section 148

(D) Section 360

Answer: (*)

134. On which river is the Gandhi Sagar Dam built?

(A) Narmada

(B) Chambal

(C) Tapti

(D) Mahanadi

Answer: (B)

135. The President of the Union of India is conferred with equivalent to which of the following:

(A) British Monarch

(B) President of America

(C) President of Egypt

(D) President of Russia

Answer: (A)

136. Who is the Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Finance Minister

(C) Commerce Minister

(D) Vice-President of India

Answer: (D)

137. Who was the last Mughal emperor?

(A) Babur

(B) Humayun

(C) Bhadur Shah Zafar

(D) Aurangzeb

Answer: (C)

138. Which of the following is the longest national highway in the country?

(A) National Highway-1

(B) National Highway-44

(C) National Highway-3

(D) National Highway-4

Answer: (B)

139. Who is considered as the founder of scientific socialism?

(A) Rousseau

(B) Karl Marx

(C) Engels

(D) Lenin

Answer: (B)

140. India is a ………… .

(A) Social economy

(B) Capitalist economy

(C) Mixed economy

(D) Open economy

Answer: (C)

Section-V : (iv) English

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145): Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

141. The treacherous accountant gave away secrets to the rival company.

(A) greedy

(B) perfect

(C) faithful

(D) disloyal

Answer: (D)

142. The compliant student made sure to compliment her supervisor at every stage.

(A) brilliant

(B) amicable

(C) obliging

(D) faithful

Answer: (C)

143. The personalities of the twins are as disparate as day and night.

(A) dissimilar

(B) similar

(C) common

(D) incomprehensible

Answer: (A)

144. Ania is a vociferous defender of labour unions.

(A) eloquent

(B) forceful

(C) submissive

(D) amiable

Answer: (B)

145. The critic described the painting as insipid.

(A) Inspiring

(B) Uninteresting

(C) Significant

(D) Aesthetic

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In this group of words, only one word is correctly spelt. Select the one with the correct spelling.


(A) Grigarious

(B) Gregerious

(C) Gregarious

(D) Grigerious

Answer: (C)


(A) Alleviate

(B) Allevate

(C) Aleviate

(D) Aleeviate

Answer: (A)


(A) Transitery

(B) Transitory

(C) Transetory

(D) Transetery

Answer: (B)


(A) Erasable

(B) Erasible

(C) Erasibal

(D) Erascible

Answer: (A)


(A) Dessonance

(B) Dissonance

(C) Desonance

(D) Disonance

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

151. His volatile personality made it difficult to predict his reaction to anything.

(A) capricious

(B) erratic

(C) fickle

(D) calm

Answer: (D)

152. The character Scrooge in ‘A Christmas Carol’ is a misanthrope.

(A) cynic

(B) philanthropist

(C) pessimist

(D) recluse

Answer: (B)

153. His prodigal son quickly wasted all of his savings.

(A) miserly

(B) extravagant

(C) lavish

(D) wasteful

Answer: (A)

154. Anita has a reputation for veracity, so everyone trusted her.

(A) candour

(B) exactitude

(C) dishonesty

(D) fidelity

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156): Select the word in each group that does not properly belong to it.


(A) ardent

(B) enthusiastic

(C) passionate

(D) apathetic

Answer: (D)


(A) professional

(B) lay person

(C) amateur

(D) novice

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives to fill in the blank to complete the sentence.

157. Despite the efforts to ______ the discord between the two fractions, the two groups remained sworn enemies.

(A) intensify

(B) exploit

(C) assuage

(D) excite

Answer: (C)

158. To avoid being ______, the teacher often includes jokes and amusing anecdotes in her lectures.

(A) amusing

(B) complex

(C) eccentric

(D) monotonous

Answer: (C)

159. The mines of the gold rush dug so deeply into the mountain that any more excavation could have had ________ consequences, causing a cave-in or a complete collapse.

(A) rigid

(B) devastating

(C) alienating

(D) moderate

Answer: (B)

160. To properly represent its ____ forms, Manu included, in his paper on the history of renaissance Art, over twenty sections each describing a different style.

(A) diverse

(B) simplest

(C) identical

(D) singular

Answer: (A)

Section-V : (v) Hindi

Answer: (D)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam-2021


Section-I General English Comprehension

Directions (Qs. No. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices given after each question that follows:

     Nature is like business. Business sense dictates that we guard our capital and live from the interest. Nature’s capital is the enormous diversity of living things. Without it, the cannot feed ourselves, cure ourselves of illness or provide industry with the raw materials of wealth creation. Professor Edward Wilson of Harvard University, says: “The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us is the ongoing loss of genetic and species diversity. This will take millions of years to correct.”

     Only 150 plant species have ever been widely cultivated. Yet over 75,000 edible plants are known in the wild. In a hungry world, with a population growing by 90 million each year, so much wasted potential is tragic. Medicines from the wild are worth around 40 billion dollars a year. Over 5000 species are known to yield chemical with cancer fighting potential. Scientists currently estimate that the total number of species in the world is between 10-30 million with only around 1.4 million identified.

     The web of life is torn when human beings exploit natural resources in short-sighted ways. The trade in tropical hardwoods can destroy whole forests to extract just a few commercially attractive specimens. Bad agricultural practices trigger 24 billion tonnes of top soil erosion a year losing the equivalent of 9 million tonnes of grain output. Cutting this kind of unsuitable exploitation and institution “sustainable utilization” will help turn the environmental crisis around.

1. Why does the author compare ‘nature’ to ‘business’?

(A) Because of the capital depletion in nature and business

(B) Because of the similarity with which one should use both

(C) Because of the same interest level yield

(D) Because of the diversity of the various capital inputs

Answer: (D)

2. “The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us”-What is the business equivalent of the folly the author is referring to?

(A) Reducing the profit margin

(B) Not pumping some money out of profits into the business

(C) Eroding the capital base of the business

(D) Putting interest on capital back into the business

Answer: (C)

3. Which of the following statements is false in the context of the passage?

(A) The diversity of plant life is essential for human existence

(B) Scientists know the usefulness of most plant specie

(C) Chemicals for cancer treatment are available from plants

(D) There are around ten times the plant species undiscovered as compared to the discovered ones

Answer: (B)

4. Which of the following correctly reflects the opinion of the author to take care of hunger in the world?

(A) Increase the number of species of edible plants being cultivated.

(B) Increase cultivation of the 150j species presently under cultivation

(C) Increase the cultivation of medicinal plants

(D) Increases the potential of the uncultivated edible plants

Answer: (C)

5. Which of the following is mentioned as the immediate cause for the destruction of forests?

(A) Soil Erosion

(B) Destruction of Habitat

(C) Cutting of Trees

(D) Bad Agricultural Practices

Answer: (C)

6. The author gives two examples of ‘unsuitable exploitation’. These are:

(A) Bad agricultural practices and soil erosion

(B) Bad agricultural practices and trade in tropical hardwoods

(C) Trade in tropical hardwoods and soil erosion

(D) Trade in tropical hardwoods and losing tonnes of grain output

Answer: (B)

7. The passage is about

(A) Business

(B) Nature

(C) Environmental Crisis

(D) Agricultural Practices

Answer: (B)

8. What, according to the author, is ‘environmental crisis’

(A) Trade in tropical hardwoods

(B) Bad agricultural practices

(C) Soil erosion

(D) The ongoing loss of genetic and species diversity

Answer: (D)

9. Which of the following words is nearly the same in meaning as the words ‘wasted’ as used in the passage?

(A) Consumed

(B) Squandered

(C) Unutilised

(D) Unprofitable

Answer: (C)

10. Which of the following words is nearly opposite in meaning to ‘cutting’ as used in the passage?

(A) Uniting

(B) Avoiding

(C) Joining

(D) Combining

Answer: (D)

Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning

11. Which of the following is the next term in the series?






Answer: (C)

12. Which of the following continues the series?

2, 4, 6, 9, 12, ?

(A) 14

(B) 15

(C) 16

(D) 17

Answer: (C)

13. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?

25, 49, 81, ?, 169

(A) 100

(B) 64

(C) 121

(D) 144

Answer: (C)

14. Rohit said to a girl, “Your mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law.” How is Rohit related to the girl?

(A) Father

(B) Uncle

(C) Brother

(D) Cousin

Answer: (A)

15. In a code language, STAR is written as RATS, then ROUT will be written as:





Answer: (D)

16. In a code language 25 means, ‘Green Apple’, 35 means ‘Red Apple’ and 34 means ‘Red Cherry’. What is the code for ‘Green Cherry’?

(A) 23

(B) 24

(C) 34

(D) 43

Answer: (B)

17. Father said to the son, “When you were born, I was of your present age.” If the father is 36 years old now, how old was the son 7 years ago?

(A) 11 years

(B) 13 years

(C) 15 years

(D) 17 years

Answer: (A)

18. A circular coin is placed on a plane surface. How many more coins of the same size can be placed around it so that each touches the central coin and adjacent coins?

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

Answer: (B)

19. From a starting point, a man moves 3 km north, then turns west and walks 2 km, again turns back and walks 1 km and then moves 5 km towards east. How far is the how from starting point?

(A) 5 km

(B) 8 km

(C) 10 km

(D) 12 km

Answer: (A)

20. If 3rd of December is Saturday, then the last day of the month would be:

(A) Monday

(B) Saturday

(C) Thursday

(D) Sunday

Answer: (B)

21. Five houses A to E are in a row. A is to the right of B, E is to the left of C and right of A, and B is to right of D. Which house is in the middle?

(A) D

(B) C

(C) B

(D) A

Answer: (D)

22. The medians of a triangle ABC intersect at D. How many triangles are formed in the resulting figures?

(A) 18

(B) 16

(C) 12

(D) 8

Answer: (B)

23. If 6 + 7 is 43 and 5 + 6 is 31, then 4 + 5 is :

(A) 9

(B) 20

(C) 21

(D) 25

Answer: (C)

24. If 213 is written as 6 and 432 is written as 9, then 543 would be written as:

(A) 10

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 13

Answer: (C)

25. If order of first 13 English alphabets is reversed, then which letter would not change its position?

(A) E

(B) F

(C) G

(D) H

Answer: (C)

26. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?

1, 2, 3, 1, 4, 9, 1, ?, 27

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

Answer: (D)

27. The population of a town consists of 45% men and 40% women. If the number of children is 30,000, then the total population of the town is:

(A) 2 lakhs

(B) 3 lakhs

(C) 4.5 lakhs

(D) 6 lakhs

Answer: (A)

28. Which of the following words appears first of all in the dictionary?

(A) Compensate

(B) Compassionate

(C) Compression

(D) Competition

Answer: (B)

29. Preetig ranks 38th in her class both from top and bottom. How many students are there in the class?

(A) 77

(B) 76

(C) 75

(D) 74

Answer: (C)

30. A square is divided into 16 equal parts by intersecting lines parallel to its sides. How many squares are formed in the resulting figure?

(A) 16

(B) 28

(C) 30

(D) 36

Answer: (C)

Section-III : Educational and General Awareness

31. Kisan Diwas is celebrated on:

(A) October 23

(B) November 23

(C) December 23

(D) September 23

Answer: (C)

32. “A Bunch of Old Letters” was written by:

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Abdul Kalam

(D) Morarji Desai

Answer: (A)

33. Who is known as ‘Man of Destiny’?

(A) Adolf Hitler

(B) George Bernard Shaw

(C) Napoleon

(D) Shakespeare

Answer: (C)

34. Mission Innovation aims to:

(A) accelerate clean energy innovation to address climate change

(B) promote indigeous development of Nano Satellites

(C) adopt new methods of agriculture

(D) adopt new methods of water harvesting

Answer: (A)

35. Who was the Viceroy at the time of Quit India Movement?

(A) Lord Warren Hastings

(B) Lord Dalhousie

(C) Lord Curzon

(D) Lord Linlithgow

Answer: (D)

36. The ‘Red Line campaign’ started by India is related to which of the following field?

(A) Fencing of India-Pakistan Border

(B) Zero open defecation

(C) Curb irrational use of antibiotics

(D) Zero corruption

Answer: (C)

37. The Union Budget is presented under which Article of the Constitution of India ?

(A) 110

(B) 111

(C) 112

(D) 113

Answer: (C)

38. When was the Indian Post Office Act passed?

(A) 1852

(B) 1853

(C) 1854

(D) 1898

Answer: (D)

39. Which event occurred first in India’s Independence struggle?

(A) Simon Commission

(B) Non-Cooperation Movement

(C) Gandhi-Irwin Pact

(D) Tripura Adhiveshan of Congress

Answer: (B)

40. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in:

(A) UK

(B) Canada


(D) South Africa

Answer: (C)

41. The country which levied a tax on WhatsApp and Facebook in the year 2018 is:

(A) Uganda

(B) Zambia

(C) Zimbabwe

(D) Tanzania

Answer: (A)

42. According to the World Bank, which country remained the top recipient of remittances in 2018?

(A) India

(B) China

(C) Mexico

(D) Philippines

Answer: (A)

43. The Tropic of Capricorn does not pass through:

(A) Argentina

(B) Bolivia

(C) Brazil

(D) Chile

Answer: (B)

44. Similipal Tiger Reserve is situated in the State of:

(A) Odisha

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) West Bengal

(D) Karnataka

Answer: (A)

45. In which State is Silent Valley situated?

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Kerala

(C) Assam

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (B)

46. A document called “ The Future We Want” related to which of the following organizations?

(A) United Nations Conference of Sustainable Development

(B) Global Environment Facility

(C) United nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

(D) Convention on Biological Diversity

Answer: (A)

47. The Spratly Islands are located in which of the following seas?

(A) The Caspian Sea

(B) The Black Sea

(C) The Mediterranean Sea

(D) The South China Sea

Answer: (D)

48. Tapti river originates from which district of Madhya Pradesh?

(A) Betul

(B) Balaghat

(C) Chhindwara

(D) Hoshangabad

Answer: (A)

49. Which of the following monuments in India is not a world heritage?

(A) Fatehpur Sikri

(B) Ajanta and Ellora

(C) Khajuraho

(D) Jantar Mantar in Delhi

Answer: (D)

50. ‘Life Divine’ is written by:

(A) Aurobindo Ghosh

(B) V.V Giri

(C) Amrita Pritam

(D) V.D. Savarkar

Answer: (A)

51. Which writ is issued by the High Court to the lower courts to stop legal actions?

(A) Habeas corpus

(B) Prohibition

(C) Quo warranto

(D) Certiorari

Answer: (B)

52. Return of income is submitted under which Section of the Income Tax Act?

(A) Section 138(1)

(B) Section 142(1)

(C) Section 139(1)

(D) Section 129(1)

Answer: (C)

53. National Knowledge Commission was headed by:

(A) Ashok Ganguly

(B) P. Balaram

(C) Sam Pitroda

(D) Deepak Nayyar

Answer: (C)

54. Which of the following is the apex body in the area of Teacher Education in India?





Answer: (C)

55. The idea of Four Pillars of Education was suggested by:





Answer: (B)

Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School

56. RTE Act, 2009 envisages all children free admission to:

(A) Sainik schools

(B) Army schools

(C) Neighbourhood schools

(D) Navodaya schools

Answer: (C)

57. “Learning Without Burden” is the report submitted by a committee under the chairmanship of:

(A) Prof. Amrit Desai

(B) Prof. Amrik Singh

(C) Prof. Ved Prakash

(D) Prof. Yashpal

Answer: (D)

58. What is the verbal component of a poster?

(A) Image

(B) Caption

(C) Graph

(D) Table

Answer: (B)

59. Which of the following learner characteristics impacts teaching the most?

(A) Prior experience of the learner

(B) Educational status of the parents of the learner

(C) Peer group of learner

(D) Family size from which the learner comes

Answer: (A)

60. National Education Day is observed on November 11 every year in the memory of:

(A) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

(C) Zakir Hussain

(D) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: (B)

61. Determining the aims of Education is the responsibility of:

(a) Parents                        (b) Teachers

(c) Students                     (d) Society

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (b) and (c)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) only (a)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (D)

62. Immediate outcome of teaching is related to:

(A) desirable changes in the behaviour of students.

(B) development of personality of students.

(C) moral development of students.

(D) enhancing employability.

Answer: (B)

63. Discipline in the class essentially helps to:

(A) establish teacher’s authority.

(B) make children understand that indiscipline is punishable.

(C) make classroom activities organised and orderly.

(D) adhere to the time-table.

Answer: (C)

64. Which of the following is not desirable for effective teaching?

(A) Questioning

(B) Using teaching aids

(C) Following textbook rigidly

(D) Encouraging student talk

Answer: (C)

65. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?

(a) Multiple tests

(b) Criteria-based tests

(c) Assessment for learning

(d) Assessing scholastic and co-scholastic aspects

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b) and (d)

(B) (b) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (D)

66. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple choice type questions?

(A) These are objective.

(B) These are subjective.

(C) These do not need appropriate distractors.

(D) These do not have a fixed answer.

Answer: (A)

67. The key component of teacher-student communication during teaching is:

(A) Humour

(B) Learner’s problems

(C) Subject content

(D) Motivating statements

Answer: (D)

68. Which among the following is a teacher-centred method?

(A) Project

(B) Lecture

(C) Group work

(D) Brainstorming

Answer: (B)

69. A teacher as a facilitator is one who:

(A) delivers lectures.

(B) explains concepts and principles.

(C) gives printed notes to students.

(D) inspires students to learn.

Answer: (D)

70. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?

(A) Students asking questions

(B) Maximum attendance of students

(C) Silence in the classroom

(D) Students taking notes

Answer: (A)

71. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The students are:

(A) Encoders

(B) Decoders

(C) Noise eliminators

(D) Senders

Answer: (B)

72. CIET stands for:

(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology

(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology

(C) Central Institute for Educational Technology

(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques

Answer: (C)

73. An effective classroom environment has:

(A) No teaching aids

(B) Lively student-teacher interaction

(C) Silence

(D) Strict discipline

Answer: (B)

74. In which period did India become a centre of higher learning with Nalanda and Taxila?

(A) Chola period

(B) Gupta period

(C) Harappa Civilization period

(D) Mughal period

Answer: (B)

75. Curriculum is:

(A) same as syllabus

(B) content to be taught

(C) overall educational activities within and outside the school.

(D) only teaching, no other activities.

Answer: (C)

76. What is the full from SWAYAM?

(A) Study Webs of Active-Learning for  Young Aspiring Minds

(B) Study Webs for Accustomed Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

(C) Study Ways of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

(D) Study Webs of Actual Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

Answer: (A)

77. Operation Blackboard was launched under National Policy on Education (1986) to:

(A) provide schools with adequate number of blackboards.

(B) create awareness for using blackboards.

(C) provide minimum essential facilities to the schools.

(D) use blackboard effectively in the teaching learning process.

Answer: (C)

78. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of:

(A) course coverage.

(B) aims of teaching.

(C) learning outcomes of students

(D) use of teaching aids in the classroom.

Answer: (C)

79. Good teaching does not involve:

(A) Guiding

(B) Motivating

(C) Explaining

(D) Encouraging rote learning

Answer: (D)

80. Project method is based on the principle of:

(A) Learning by play-way

(B) Learning by doing

(C) Learning from teacher

(D) Learning from books

Answer: (B)


Section-V : (i) Science

81. Cause of Acid rain is:

(A) Release of oxides of Carbon, Nitrogen and Sulphur in the atmosphere due to burning of fossil fuels.

(B) Friction among clouds causes electric charges

(C) Humidity produces acid vapour

(D) Sun heats up the clouds

Answer: (A)

82. Which of the following is acidic in nature?

(A) Common Salt solution

(B) Pure water

(C) Lemon juice

(D) Baking soda solution

Answer: (C)

83. What is the volume of 16 g of oxygen at Standard Temperature and pressure (S.T.P.)?

(A) 22.4 litres

(B) 11.2 litres

(C) 22.4 cm3

(D) 11.2 cm3

Answer: (B)

84. Mass number of an element is X and it has 11 electrons. The number of neutrons in it is:

(A) X + 11

(B) X

(C) 11

(D) X – 11

Answer: (D)

85. An example of a chemical change is:

(A) Conversion of water into ice

(B) Conversion of water into steam

(C) Heating of a resistor on passing current

(D) Conversion of milk into curd

Answer: (D)

86. A man is 10 feet away from his image in a plane mirror fixed in a wall. He walks 3 feet towards the mirror. What is the distance between him and his image now?

(A) 2 feet

(B) 3 feet

(C) 4 feet

(D) 6 feet

Answer: (C)

87. If a ray of light is going from air to glass and angle of incidence is i and angle of refraction is r we have:

(A) i < r

(B) sin i = sin r


(D) sin i × sin r = Constant

Answer: (C)

88. Two resistance of two ohms each are joined in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance?

(A) 1 ohm

(B) 2 ohms

(C) 3 ohms

(D) 4 ohms

Answer: (A)

89. What unbalanced force in Newton (N) will accelerate a 25 kg body from 5 m/s to 10 m/s in 5 seconds?

(A) 1 N

(B) 5 N

(C) 25 N

(D) 50 N

Answer: (C)

90. Watt is the unit of:

(A) Energy

(B) Work

(C) Force

(D) Power

Answer: (D)

91. The planet nearest to Earth in our Solar System is:

(A) Mercury

(B) Venus

(C) Mars

(D) Jupiter

Answer: (A)

92. Alpha particles are:

(A) Positively charged

(B) Negatively charged

(C) Not charged

(D) Same as photons

Answer: (A)

93. Night blindness is caused due to:

(A) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘A’

(B) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘B’

(C) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘C’

(D) Excess of Vitamin ‘A’

Answer: (A)

94. Why is a flash of lightning seen before the sound of thunder is heard?

(A) Because light travels faster than sound

(B) Because light is produced much earlier

(C) Because sound is obstructed by clouds

(D) Because sound is produced farther away

Answer: (A)

95. The disease ‘Jaundice’ is associated with:

(A) Eyes

(B) Lungs

(C) Gums

(D) Liver

Answer: (D)

96. It is the process by which green plants manufacture food in the form of carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight.

(A) Osmosis

(B) Radioactivity

(C) Photosynthesis

(D) Ecology

Answer: (C)

97. Which one of the following is not an essential micronutrient for plants?

(A) Zinc

(B) Copper

(C) Boron

(D) Sodium

Answer: (D)

98. What is the measure of acidity of a liquid?

(A) Boiling Point

(B) Freezing Point

(C) pH

(D) Density

Answer: (C)

99. Which one of the following is also known as ‘Laughing Gas’?

(A) Helium

(B) Nitrous oxide

(C) Nitrogen dioxide

(D) Nitrogen

Answer: (B)

100. Respiration involves exchange of:

(A) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen

(C) Nitrogen and Carbon dioxide

(D) Hydrogen and Nitrogen

Answer: (A)

Section-V: (ii) Mathematics

101. The sum of the odd numbers between 0 and 50 is:

(A) 575

(B) 625

(C) 675

(D) 725

Answer: (B)

102. Ten observations have been arranged in ascending order as under:

29, 32, 48, 50, x, x + 2, 72, 78, 84, 95

The median is 63. The value of x is:

(A) 60

(B) 61

(C) 62

(D) 64

Answer: (C)

103. 75th Percentile coincides with:

(A) Median

(B) Mode

(C) First Quartile

(D) Third Quartile

Answer: (D)

104. Mean, Median and Mode coincide in:

(A) Positively skewed curve

(B) Negatively skewed curve

(C) Normal probability curve

(D) Leptokurtic curve

Answer: (C)

105. The value of sec A(1 – sin A) (sec A + tan A) is:

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) sin A

(D) cos A

Answer: (B)

106. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 30° ad the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. The tower is 50 m high. The height of the building is:

Answer: (A)

107. In ∆ABC, AB = 6√3 cm, AC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm. The angle B is:

(A) 45°

(B) 60°

(C) 90°

(D) 120°

Answer: (C)

108. 8 men can dig a pit in 20 days. If a man works half as much more as a boy, 4 men and 9 boys will dig a similar pit in:

(A) 12 days

(B) 14 days

(C) 16 days

(D) 18 days

Answer: (C)

109. 12 copies of a book were sold for Rs 1,800 thereby gaining the cost price of 3 copies. The cost price of a copy is:

(A) Rs 100

(B) Rs 120

(C) Rs 140

(D) R 160

Answer: (B)

110. A wooden box is 110 cm × 90 cm × 40 cm is size. Packets 22 cm in length, 15 cm in breadth and 6 cm in height are to be placed in it. How many of these can be place in the box?

(A) 160

(B) 180

(C) 200

(D) 220

Answer: (C)

111. The approximate value of :

0.4 × 0.4 + 0.04 × 0.04 + 0.04 is:

(A) 0.16

(B) 0.20

(C) 0.44

(D) 0.46

Answer: (B)

112. Two trains 126 m and 114 m long are running in opposite directions, one at the rate of 30 kmph and another one at 42 kmph. From the moment they meet, the will cross each other in:

(A) 13 seconds

(B) 12 seconds

(C) 11 seconds

(D) 10 seconds

Answer: (B)

113. A student passed in first division securing 440 marks, but missed distinction marks of 75% by 10 marks. The maximum marks for the exam was:

(A) 500

(B) 550

(C) 700

(D) 600

Answer: (D)

114. A sum of money amounts to Rs 1,800 in 2 years and Rs 2,592 in 4years at a compound interest rate of:

(A) 10%


(C) 15%

(D) 20%

Answer: (*)

115. The HCF and LCM of two number are 16 and 672 respectively. If one of the numbers is 112, what is the other number?

(A) 96

(B) 192

(C) 80

(D) 48

Answer: (A)

116. A man’s salary was decreased by 30% and then increased by 30%. The net change is:

(A) 10% increase

(B) 10% decrease

(C) 9% decrease

(D) 9% increase

Answer: (C)

117. The average salary of male employees in a firm is Rs 5,200 and that of female employees is Rs 4,200. The mean salary of all employees is Rs 5,000. The percentage of female employees is:

(A) 15%

(B) 20%

(C) 25%

(D) 30%

Answer: (B)

118. How much would A get if a sum of Rs 890 is to be divided amongst A, B and C such that A : B is 4 : 5 and B : C is 6 : 7?

(A) Rs 160

(B) Rs 200

(C) Rs 220

(D) Rs 240

Answer: (D)

119. A father’s age is 5 times the age of his daughter. It was 9 times, five years ago. How old is the father now?

(A) 45 years

(B) 50 years

(C) 55 years

(D) 60 years

Answer: (B)

120. A two-digit number is less than 30. The sum of its digits is 7 and their multiplication product is 10. The number is:

(A) 16

(B) 24

(C) 25

(D) 28

Answer: (C)

Section-V : (iii) Social Science

121. Which of the following periodicals is not correctly matched with the editor?

(A) Bande Mataram : Aurobindo Ghosh

(B) Sandhya : Barindra Ghosh

(C) New India : Bipin Chandra Pal

(D) Yugantar : Bhupendranath Datta

Answer: (B)

122. An instrument used to record the motion of the ground during an earthquake is:

(A) Seismometer

(B) Seismogram

(C) Seismology

(D) Seismograph

Answer: (D)

123. The idea of ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ in the Indian Constitution is taken from the Constitution of:

(A) Ireland

(B) Australia

(C) Britain


Answer: (A)

124. The idea of “Lokpal” bill is taken from:

(A) Britain

(B) America

(C) Scandinavian countries

(D) France

Answer: (C)

125. Who was the First Woman President of Indian National Congress?

(A) Sarojini Naidu

(B) Rajkumari Amrita Kaur

(C) Annie Besant

(D) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

Answer: (C)

126. Mahatma Gandhi gave the title of ‘Sardar’ to Vallabhbhai Patel for his great organisational skill in the :

(A) Kheda Satyagraha

(B) Bardoli Satyagraha

(C) Salt Satyagraha

(D) Champaran Satyagraha

Answer: (B)

127. Andaman wild pig is an example of:

(A) Vulnerable species

(B) Endemic species

(C) Rare species

(D) Extinct species

Answer: (B)

128. Which country has the highest productivity of rice?

(A) India

(B) China

(C) Sri Lanka

(D) Bangladesh

Answer: (B)

129. The main source of National Income in India is ………. .

(A) Primary Sector

(B) Secondary Sector

(C) Service Sector

(D) Allied Sector

Answer: (C)

130. The central banking functions are performed by the:

(A) Central Bank of India

(B) Reserve Bank of India

(C) State Bank of India

(D) Punjab National Bank

Answer: (B)

131. The First Battle of Panipat was in the year:

(A) 1520

(B) 1526

(C) 1530

(D) 1535

Answer: (B)

132. Who was popularly known as the “Parrot of India”?

(A) Amir Khusro

(B) Khwaja Nasir

(C) Parthasarathi Mishra

(D) Chand Bardai

Answer: (A)

133. The Capital of the kingdom of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was:

(A) Lahore

(B) Ambala

(C) Patiala

(D) Amritsar

Answer: (A)

134. Of the four events mentioned below, which was the last to take place?

(A) The Cripps Mission

(B) Simla Conference

(C) Cabinet Mission Plan

(D) The Ratings Mutiny

Answer: (C)

135. Which dynasty ruled during the years 1206 – 1290 in India?

(A) Mauryan dynasty

(B) Slave dynasty

(C) Gupta dynasty

(D) Chalukya dynasty

Answer: (B)

136. The organization that negotiates trade agreements between almost all of the nations in the world is:





Answer: (A)

137. The lowest layer of the Earth’s atmosphere is:

(A) Stratosphere

(B) Mesosphere

(C) Troposphere

(D) Thermosphere

Answer: (C)

138. Black soil is most suitable for the cultivation of:

(A) Paddy

(B) Maize

(C) Cotton

(D) Wheat

Answer: (C)

139. Which of the following rivers is called as Dakshina Ganga?

(A) Kaveri

(B) Krishna

(C) Godavari

(D) Tungabhadra

Answer: (C)

140. A Public Service Commission was established in India for the first time by:

(A) Indian Council Act, 1892

(B) The Government of India Act, 1919

(C) The Act of 1909

(D) The Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (iv) English

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) : Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

141. Being a big businessman, Gita’s father is very affluent.

(A) Prosperous

(B) Poor

(C) Talkative

(D) Intelligent

Answer: (A)

142. The massacre of Kashmiri Pandits in 1990 was tragic.

(A) Stabbing

(B) Slaughter

(C) Murder

(D) Genocide

Answer: (D)

143. The young boys were reprimanded for watching obscene videos.

(A) Objectionable

(B) Vulgar

(C) Displeasing

(D) Condemnable

Answer: (B)

144. He pilfered many precious things from the palace.

(A) Destroyed

(B) Damaged

(C) Stole

(D) Snatched

Answer: (C)

145. Resilience is a desirable human trait.

(A) Flexibility

(B) Pride

(C) Rigidity

(D) Joyfulness

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In each of the following group of words, only one of them is correctly spelt. Select the one with the correct spelling.


(A) acomodate

(B) accomodate

(C) accommodate

(D) acommodate

Answer: (C)


(A) purtinacious

(B) pertinacious

(C) purtenacious

(D) pertenecious

Answer: (B)


(A) perilous

(B) parilous

(C) perilus

(D) parilus

Answer: (A)


(A) bleeth

(B) blith

(C) blithe

(D) bleethe

Answer: (C)


(A) invidous

(B) invidious

(C) envidous

(D) envidious

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

151. He is mystic by nature.

(A) spiritual

(B) magical

(C) visionary

(D) worldly

Answer: (D)

152. The number of words in a dictionary are finite.

(A) strange

(B) endless

(C) indefinite

(D) vague

Answer: (B)

153. He had ample number of days to prepare for the exam.

(A) insufficient

(B) large

(C) small

(D) adequate

Answer: (A)

154. He lived a lavish life:

(A) showy

(B) rich

(C) simple

(D) moral

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives to fill in the blank to complete the sentence.

155. The soldiers were instructed to …… restraint and handle the situation peacefully.

(A) exercise

(B) control

(C) prevent

(D) enforce

Answer: (A)

156. Since one cannot read all books, one should be content with making a ………. selection.

(A) normal

(B) standard

(C) judicious

(D) moderate

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160) : Choose the correct answer.

157. The novel ‘Wuthering Heights’ was written by:

(A) Charlotte Bronte

(B) Emily Bronte

(C) George Eliot

(D) Jane Austen

Answer: (B)

158. The poem ‘Daffodils’ was written by:

(A) Keats

(B) Shelley

(C) Wordsworth

(D) Byron

Answer: (C)

159. The play ‘Man and Superman’ was written by:

(A) Shakespeare

(B) Bernard Shaw

(C) Eugene O’Neil

(D) Aurobindo Ghosh

Answer: (B)

160. The novel ‘The Guide’ was written by:

(A) Rabindranath Tagore

(B) R. K. Narayan

(C) Anita Desai

(D) Khushwant Singh

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (v) Hindi

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2022 With Answer Key

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam-2022


Section-I General English Comprehension

Directions (Qs. No. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices after each question that follows:

            A great deal of discussion continues as to the real extent of global environmental degradation and its implications. What few people challenge, however, is that the renewable natural resources of developing countries are today subject to stresses of unprecedented magnitude. These pressures are brought about, in part, by increased population and the quest for an ever expanding food supply because the health, nutrition and general well-being of the poor majority are directly dependent on the integrity and productivity of their natural resources, the capability of government to manage them effecting over the long-term becomes of paramount importance.

            Developing countries are becoming more aware of the ways in which present and future economic development must build upon a sound and sustainable natural resource base. Some are looking at our long tradition in environmental protection and are receptive to US assistance which recognizes the uniqueness of the social and ecological systems in these tropical countries. Developing countries recognize the need to improve their capability to analyse issues and their own natural resource management. Some countries such as Senegal, India, Indonesia, Thailand etc. are now including conservation concerns in their economic development process.

            Because so many governments of developing nations have recognized the importance of these issues, the need today is not merely one of raising additional consciousness, but for carefully designed and sharply focused activities aimed at the establishment of effective resource management reforms that are essential to the achievement of sustainable development.

1. Some developing countries of Asia and Africa have:

(A)  formulated very ambitious plans of protecting the habitat in their region.

(B)  laid a great stress on the conservation of natural resources in their educational endeavor.

(C)  carefully dovetailed environmental conservation with the overall strategies of planned economic development.

(D)  sought the help of US experts in solving the problems of environmental degradation.

Answer: (D)

2. Technical know-how developed in the USA:

(A)  cannot be easily assimilated by the technocrats o developing countries.

(B)  can be properly utilised on the basis of developing countries being able to launch an in-depth study of their specific problems.

(C)  can be easily borrowed by the developing countries to solve the  problem of environmental degradation.

(D)  can be very effective in solving the problem of resource management in tropical countries.

Answer: (D)

3. There has been a pronounced deterioration of habitat all over the globe because of:

(A)  population explosion

(B)  unprecedented urbanisation

(C)  massive industrialisation in the developing countries.

(D)  large scale deforestation

Answer: (A)

4. The poor people of the developing world can lead a happy and contented life if:

(A)  aid flows freely to the developing world.

(B)  industries based on agriculture are widely developed.

(C)  economic development takes place within ambit o conservation of natural resources.

(D)  there is an assured supply of food and medical care.

Answer: (C)

5. How much environmental pollution has taken place in the developing and the developed world?

(A)  There has been a marginal pollution of environmental in the developed world and extensive damage in the developing world.

(B)  There has been a considerable pollution of environment all over the globe.

(C)  There has been an extensive environmental degradation both in the developed as well as the developing world.

(D)  The environmental pollution that has taken place al over the globe continues to be a matter of speculation and enquiry.

Answer: (D)

6. What according to the passage, is an unquestionable reality today?

(A)  The renewable natural resources in developing countries are in great danger and on the verge of coming to an end.

(B)  The renewable natural resources in developed countries will never end.

(C)  The renewable natural resources all over the world are going to end soon.

(D)  The renewable natural resources in the developed world will end soon.

Answer: (A)

7. What is the most important reason for the depletion of natural resources in developing countries?

(A)  Lack of knowledge

(B)  Population explosion

(C)  Life style of people

(D)  Callousness of their governments

Answer: (B)

8. What is the most important for the preservation of natural resources?

(A)  Funding from external sources to manage resources.

(B)  Advancement in science and technology to manage resources.

(C)  Awareness of the people to manage resources.

(D)  Capability of governments to manage resources.

Answer: (D)

9. Activities aimed at preservation of natural resources is important for:

(A)  Social Development

(B)  Sustainable Development

(C)  Political Development

(D)  Cultural Development

Answer: (B)

10. The passage is about:

(A)  Population Explosion

(B)  Expanding Food Supply

(C)  US assistance for managing natural resources

(D)  Effective resource management for sustainable development

Answer: (D)

Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning

11. If 4 +4 = 15 and 6 + 6 = 35, then 8 +8 = ?

(A) 65                                          (B) 63

(C) 64                                          (D) 62

Answer: (B)

12. If SYSTEM is coded as METSYS and FORMER is coded as REMROF, then CARPET would be coded as:

(A) PETCAR                               (B) PETRAC

(C) TEPRAC                               (D) RACTEP

Answer: (C)

13. According to the dictionary order, which of the following words will appear last of others?

(A) Dress                                     (B) Drink

(C) Dream                                    (D) Drift

Answer: (A)

14. Gaurav ranks 23rd from the top and 22nd from the bottom in a certain test. How many students appeared in the test?

(A) 43                                          (B) 44

(C) 45                                          (D) 46

Answer: (B)

15. In a certain coding system, NAME is coded as 3245 and MINT is coded as 4137, then MITE would be coded as:

(A) 4317                                      (B) 4725

(C) 4571                                      (D) 4175

Answer: (D)

16. Which of the following is the next term in the series?

2, 9, 28, 65,  ____

(A) 99                                          (B) 121

(C) 126                                        (D) 145

Answer: (C)

17. Five books are placed in such a sway that book C is above book D, book E is below book A, book D is above book A and book B is below book E. Which book is at the bottom?

(A) A                                           (B) B

(C) C                                            (D) D

Answer: (B)

18. A bag contains equal number of rupee 1, 50 paisa and 25 paisa coins. If the total amount of money in the bag is Rs. 35, what is the number of each type of coins?

(A) 15                                          (B) 18

(C) 20                                          (D) 25

Answer: (C)

19. A man walking from north to south turns right at right angle. Again the turns right at right angle. In which direction is he now walking?

(A) East                                       (B) North

(C) South                                     (D) West

Answer: (B)

20. Which of the following pairs of numbers is different from others in some way?

(A) 27-57                                     (B) 25-63

(C) 18-28                                     (D) 36-96

Answer: (B)

21. Which of the following numbers will be placed at the blank space in the series?

20, 19, 17, _____, 10, 5

(A) 9                                            (B) 11

(C) 14                                          (D) 16

Answer: (C)

22. A woman pointed to a man and said, “His mother is the only daughter of my mother.” What is the woman to the man?

(A) Niece                                     (B) Daughter

(C) Sister                                     (D) Mother

Answer: (B)

23. Which of the following numbers is different from others in some way?

(A) 42                                          (B) 81

(C) 121                                        (D) 144

Answer: (A)

24. If CHDR represents DIES, then SHLD will represent:

(A) LIME                                     (B) LINE

(C) SINE                                     (D) TIME

Answer: (D)

25. Which of the following numbers continues the series?

1, 8, 27, 64, 125, _____, ?

(A) 156                                        (B) 196

(C) 216                                        (D) 225

Answer: (C)

26. EFGH : DEFG :: OPQR : ?

(A) PQRS                                    (B) QRST

(C) MNOP                                   (D) NOPQ

Answer: (D)

27. Which of the following would be the next term in the series?

CE, HJ, MO, RT, ____ ?

(A) WY                                       (B) YZ

(C) XZ                                         (D) UV

Answer: (A)

28. ‘Ignorance’ is to ‘Education’ as ‘Disease’ is to:

(A) Doctor                                   (B) Hospital

(C) Medicine                               (D) Nurse

Answer: (C)

29. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?

25, 100, 225, ______, 625

(A) 256                                        (B) 324

(C) 400                                        (D) 484

Answer: (C)

30. Which of the following continues the series?

(A) STZ                                       (B) SRY

(C) TSR                                       (D) TSY

Answer: (A)

Section-III : Educational and General Awareness

31. ‘Story of My Life’ was written by:

(A) Morarji Desai                                    (B) Abdul Kalam

(C) Vivekananda                                     (D) Togore

Answer: (A)

32. The Father of English Poetry was:

(A) Geoffery Chaucer                 (B) Shakespeare

(C) Wordsworth                          (D) Dryden

Answer: (A)

33. World Water Day is celebrated on:

(A) 21st March                             (B) 22nd March

(C) 24th March                             (D) 23rd March

Answer: (B)

34. Who advises the State Government on legal matters?

(A) Attorney General

(B) Advocate General

(C) Chief Justice of High Court

(D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

Answer: (B)

35. The maximum duration of zero hour in the Lok Sabha is:

(A) 30 minutes                             (B) 60 minutes

(C) 2 hours                                   (D) Indefinite period

Answer: (A)

36. ‘No appeal, No Daleel, No Vakil’ perfectly sums up which of the following?

(A) Rowlatt Act

(B) Non-co-operation Movement

(C) Satyagrah

(D) Swadesh Movement

Answer: (A)

37. ‘Alice in Wonderland’ was written by:

(A) George Orwell

(B) Lewis Carroll

(C) Chester Bowls

(D) Sinclair Lewis

Answer: (B)

38. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called:

(A) Supplementary Question

(B) Short Notice Question

(C) Starred Question

(D) Unstarred Question

Answer: (A)

39. Article 280 of the constitution of India deals with:

(A) Finance Commission

(B) Information Commission

(C) Election Commission

(D) Public Service Commission

Answer: (A)

40. Where is the New Moore island situated?

(A) Arab Sagar

(B) Indian Ocean

(C) Bay of Bengal

(D) Bay of Mannar

Answer: (C)

41. Sea territory of India extends upto:

(A) 4 nautical miles

(B) 12 nautical miles

(C) 200 nautical miles

(D) 400 nautical miles

Answer: (B)

42. World Economic Forum was founded by:

(A) Klaus Schwab

(B) Paul Krugman

(C) Bill Gates

(D) Peter Thiel

Answer: (A)

43. Which of the following prepared the draft of Basic Education?

(A) Sapru Commission

(B) Shiksha Sammelan Wardha

(C) Radhakrishnan Commmission

(D) Zakir Hussain Committee

Answer: (D)

44. How many inhabited islands are there in Lakshadweep?

(A) 17

(B) 20

(C) 10

(D) 15

Answer: (C)

45. In which of the following historical sites of Haryana did excavation indicate 4500 years old civilization relies?

(A) Rakhigarhi

(B) Siswal

(C) Rohtak

(D) Karnal

Answer: (A)

46. Who described Bal Gangadhar Tilak as the ‘Maker of Modern India’?

(A) G. K. Gokhale

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) B.C. Pal

Answer: (B)

47. In the which year did the Industrial Policy express the concept of a mixed economy for India?

(A) 1948

(B) 1951

(C) 1954

(D) 1956

Answer: (A)

48. Who translated ‘Atharvaveda’ in Pension during Mughal period?

(A) Abdul Hamid Lahori

(B) haji Ibrahim Sarhindi

(C) Khathi Khan

(D) Malik Muhammad Jayasi

Answer: (B)

49. The Rigveda consists of:

(A) 1028 hymns

(B) 1000 hymns

(C) 2028 hymns

(D) 1038 hymns

Answer: (A)

50. Which of the following rivers is called ‘Biological Desert’?

(A) Brahmaputra

(B) Ganga

(C) Damodar

(D) Yamuna

Answer: (C)

51. Who is remembered as the pioneer of economic nationalism?

(A) Bipin Chandra Paul

(B) Gokhale

(C) R.C Dutt

(D) Madan Mohan Malviya

Answer: (C)

52. The 15th Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas, 2019 was held in:

(A) Lucknow

(B) Agra

(C) Prayagraj

(D) Varanasi

Answer: (D)

53. Establishment of DIETs was the result of the recommendation of:

(A) Indian Education Commission (1964-66)

(B) University Education Commission (1948-49)

(C) Secondary Education Commission (1952-53)

(D) National Policy on Education (1986)

Answer: (D)

54. The ruling dynasty in India during Timur’s invasion was:

(A) Lodhi

(B) Tughlaq

(C) Saiyyad

(D) Khilji

Answer: (B)

55. When did Curzon pass the Indian Universities Act?

(A) 1901

(B) 1902

(C) 1903

(D) 1904

Answer: (D)

Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School

56. Which of the following is a maxim of teaching?

(A) Simple to complex

(B) Unknown to known

(C) Abstract to concrete

(D) Far to near

Answer: (A)

57. Human Development is determined:

(A) by the genetic makeup of the individual.

(B) by a complex of inherited and environmental factors.

(C) primarily by environmental factors over which the individual has no control.

(D) primarily by environmental factor over

Answer: (B)

58. Non-formal education means:

(A) education obtained through open educational institutions

(B) education obtained through formal schools.

(C) education obtained through polytechnics.

(D) education obtained in conventional universities.

Answer: (A)

59. Text-book development at the national level is carried out by:





Answer: (B)

60. Which among the following is constructivist approach to teaching-learning?

(A) Bloom’s Approach

(B) 5-E Approach

(C) Morrison Approach

(D) Herbartian Approach

Answer: (D)

61. The purpose of National Science Talent Search Scheme is to:

(A) conduct an all India examination.

(B) identify students for recruitment to scientific posts.

(C) identify talented students and nurture their talent.

(D) provide uniformity in science teaching.

Answer: (C)

62. While counseling students, a teacher should:

(A) plan to do most of talking

(B) establish rapport with students.

(C) refrain from giving information

(D) assume complete responsibility for solving problems

Answer: (A)

63. In teaching, if noting has been learnt, nothing has been:

(A) Taught

(B) Studied

(C) Examined

(D) Observed

Answer: (A)

64. Basic requirement for success of lecture method is:

(A) use of teaching aids

(B) content delivery in a lucid language

(C) theme based interaction among participants

(D) including a large number of ideas

Answer: (B)

65. One of the most powerful factors influencing teaching effectiveness is:

(A) teacher’s gender

(B) experience of teachers

(C) location of schools

(D) teacher’s communication skills

Answer: (B)

66. The best way for providing value education is through:

(A) discussions on text of a particular religion

(B) integration of values within subject content

(C) religious discourses

(D) lectures on values

Answer: (D)

67. The purpose of continuous and comprehensive evaluation is to:

(A) evaluate scholastic and co-scholastic aspects continuously

(B) priorities term and examination

(C) evaluate mainly scholastic aspects

(D) evaluate primarily co-scholastic aspects

Answer: (A)

68. What is not required for good teaching?

(A) Direction

(B) Diagnosis

(C) Remedy

(D) Teacher’s bias

Answer: (D)

69. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching?

(A) Classroom activities that encourage learning

(B) Socio-economic background of teachers

(C) Learning through experience

(D) Teacher’s knowledge

Answer: (B)

70. A good learner is one who:

(A) only memorizes

(B) is not open-minded

(C) does not think divergently

(D) thinks critically

Answer: (D)

71. Instructional aids are used by the teacher to:

(A) adhere to educational policies

(B) utilise school’s resources

(C) clarify the concepts

(D) ensure discipline

Answer: (C)

72. CLASS stands for:

(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools

(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools

(C) Computer Literacy and Students in Schools

(D) Center of Literacy and Studies in Schools

Answer: (C)

73. The first National Policy on Education following independence was formulated in:

(A) 1948

(B) 1958

(C) 1968

(D) 1978

Answer: (C)

74. Classroom environment should not have:

(A) interactivity

(B) activity

(C) autocracy

(D) brainstorming

Answer: (C)

75. “Spare the rod and spoil the child” gives the message that:

(A) punishment the class should be banned

(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable

(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished

(D) positive discipline should be encouraged

Answer: (C)

76. What is the other name of Yashpal Committee Report?

(A) Learning with Burden

(B) Learning without Burden

(C) Learning with Grace

(D) Learning with Progress

Answer: (B)

77. Choose full form of NCERT:

(A) National Coordinator of Educational Resources and Tools

(B) National Council of Educational Research and Training

(C) National Centre for Educational Research and Training

(D) New Centre of Educational Resources and Tools

Answer: (B)

78. ‘Fill in the blanks’ with alternatives is which type of question?

(A) Open-ended question

(B) Objective type question

(C) Short answer question

(D) Subjective type question

Answer: (A)

79. Classroom management is ineffective when it is:

(A) Autocratic

(B) Democratic

(C) Co-operative

(D) Participatory

Answer: (A)

80. The idea of basic education was proposed by:

(A) Dr. Zakir Hussian

(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C) Mahatma Gandhi

(D) Rabindranath Tagore

Answer: (C)


Section-V : (i) Science

81. The effective resistance of the following combination from A to B is :

(A) 2 Ω

(B) 4 Ω

(C) 5 Ω

(D) 8 Ω

Answer: (C)

82. Light year is a unit of:

(A) Time

(B) Distance

(C) Density

(D) Pressure

Answer: (B)

83. Ice floats in water in a cylinder and the water level is at level A. When the ice melts the water level:

(A) will remain unchanged

(B) will go up

(C) will go down

(D) may go up or down

Answer: (A)

84. An ideal fuse wire should have:

(A) a low resistance and low melting point

(B) a high resistance and high melting point

(C) a low resistance and high melting point

(D) a high resistance and low melting point

Answer: (D)

85. Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from:

(A) Air to glass

(B) Air to water

(C) Water to glass

(D) Glass to air

Answer: (D)

86. The lightest element in our world is:

(A) Hydrogen

(B) Helium

(C) Oxygen

(D) Chlorine

Answer: (A)

87. In the upper layers of the earth, that is, in the crust, the most abundant metal is:

(A) Iron

(B) Zinc

(C) Aluminium

(D) Copper

Answer: (C)

88. The nucleus of Helium is like:

(A) An alpha particle

(B) A beta particle

(C) A gamma particle

(D) A proton

Answer: (A)

89. If a chemical reaction is accompanied by evolution of heat, it is:

(A) Exothermic reaction

(B) Endothermic reaction

(C) Reversible reaction

(D) Redox reaction

Answer: (A)

90. Pressure cooker works on the principle:

(A) When the pressure increases the boiling point of water increases.

(B) When the pressure increases the boiling point of water decreases.

(C) Pressure has no effect on boiling point.

(D) Heat and steam does not escape from the cooker

Answer: (A)

91. For reducing friction between different parts of machines the following is used:

(A) Lubricant

(B) Detergent

(C) Levers

(D) Catalyst

Answer: (A)

92. The sugar in the milk in the natural form is called:

(A) Glucose

(B) Sucrose

(C) Lactose

(D) Fructose

Answer: (C)

93. The following is not an element of the bone:

(A) Oxygen

(B) Phosphorus

(C) Uranium

(D) Calcium

Answer: (C)

94. The following treatment is suggested for a person whose kidneys are not working:

(A) Surgical removal of kidneys

(B) Radiotherapy

(C) Blood transfusion

(D) Dialysis

Answer: (D)

95. If mitochondria are removed from the cell:

(A) Nothing happens

(B) The cell cannot reproduce

(C) Leaves become white

(D) Energy metabolism of the cell is reduced

Answer: (D)

96. The foetal growth is monitored using:

(A) X-rays

(B) Microwaves

(C) Ultrasonics

(D) Ultraviolet rays

Answer: (C)

97. Viruses need the following for growth:

(A) Living host

(B) Dead host

(C) Minerals

(D) Sugars

Answer: (A)

98. The following process does not increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the air:

(A) Breathing

(B) Photosynthesis

(C) Petrol burning

(D) Decay of vegetation

Answer: (B)

99. Polio is a disease of the following type:

(A) Air-borne

(B) Water-borne

(C) Food-borne

(D) Bacteria-borne

Answer: (B)

100. The major pollutants are:

(A) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen

(C) Hydrogen and Nitrogen

(D) Carbon monoxide and Lead

Answer: (D)

Section-V : (ii) Mathematics

101. Which of the following has the largest numerical value?

(A) √10

(B) √100

(C) 1/√0.01

(D) 1/0.01

Answer: (D)

102. The value of  is:



(C) 1/6

(D) 1/8

Answer: (C)

103. A batsman scores 448 runs in x innings. In his next innings he is out for 62 and thereby increases his average by 2. The value of x is:

(A) 16

(B) 18

(C) 20

(D) 22

Answer: (A)

104. A’s salary is 50% above B’s. How much per cent is B’s salary below A’s?


(B) 40%

(C) 100%

(D) 150%

Answer: (A)

105. A producer blends two varieties of tea, one costing Rs 150 per kg and the other Rs 200 per kg in the ratio of 7 : 3. He sells the blended variety at Rs 181.50 per kg. His profit per cent is:

(A) 20

(B) 15

(C) 10

(D) 8

Answer: (C)

106. A tradesman sells his goods at 10% discount on the marked price. What price should he mark on an article that costs him Rs 900 to gain 10%?

(A) Rs 1,000

(B) Rs 1,100

(C) Rs 1,150

(D) Rs 1,200

Answer: (B)

107. A sum of Rs 1,000 invested at 10% per annum compound interest amounts to Rs 1,331. The period of time is:

(A) 2 years

(B) 3 years

(C) 3½ years

(D) 4 years

Answer: (B)

108. A person buys a pen costing Rs 240 on hire purchase basis. He pays. Rs 60 cash down and the rest in 6 monthly installments of Rs 32 each. The rate of interest charged by the dealer is:

(A) 18%

(B) 20%

(C) 22%

(D) 24%

Answer: (*)

109. A plane left 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and in order to reach its destination 1500 km away in time it has to increase its speed by 250 km/hr. from its usual speed. The usual speed of the plane is:

(A) 850 km/hr.

(B) 800 km/hr.

(C) 750 km/hr.

(D) 700 km/hr.

Answer: (C)

110. If sec θ + tan θ = m, then the value of sin θ is:

Answer: (D)

111. The value of  is:

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) −1

(D) √2

Answer: (A)

112. From a building 60 metres high the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a lamp post are 30° and 60° The difference of heights between the building and the lamp post is:

(A) 20√3 m

(B) 20/√3 m

(C) 20 m

(D) 25 m

Answer: (C)

113. The length of the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and its perimeter is 144 cm. The area of the triangle is:

(A) 840 cm2

(B) 1080 cm2

(C) 1440 cm2

(D) 864 cm2

Answer: (D)

114. The minute hand of a clock is 12 cm long. The area of the face of the clock described by the minute hand in 35 minutes is:

(A) 210 cm2

(B) 264 cm2

(C) 280 cm2

(D) 285 cm2

Answer: (B)

115. A metallic cone having base radius 2.1 cm and height 8.4 cm is melted and moulded into a sphere. The radius of the sphere is:

(A) 2.1 cm

(B) 1.05 cm

(C) 1.5 cm

(D) 2 cm

Answer: (A)

116. Water is flowing at a rate of 15 km/hr through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. The time in which level of water in the tank will rise by 21 cm is :

(A) 1 hour

(B) 1½ hours

(C) 2 hour

(D) 2½ hours

Answer: (C)

117. The mode of the following series is 36:

The missing frequency is:

(A) 10

(B) 12

(C) 8

(D) 7

Answer: (A)

118. What is the probability that an ordinary year as 53 Mondays?

(A) 2/7

(B) 1/7

(C) 7/53

(D) 7/52

Answer: (B)

119. The sum of all the three-digit natural numbers which are multiples of 7 is:

(A) 70336

(B) 73306

(C) 76033

(D) 73360

Answer: (A)

120. The value of p for which the points (−5, 1) (1, p) and (4, −2) are collinear is:

(A) 2

(B) −2

(C) 1

(D) −1

Answer: (D)

Section-V : (iii) Social Science)

121. In the presence of the President and Vice President who discharges the function of President?

(A) Attorney General

(B) Chief Justice of India

(C) PM of India

(D) Advocate General

Answer: (B)

122. Which of the following institutions can expand and increase the scope of Fundamental Rights in the constitution?

(A) High Court

(B) Supreme Court

(C) National Human Rights Commission

(D) State Human Right Commission

Answer: (B)

123. How many members are there in the Election Commission?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Answer: (C)

124. Panchayati Raj is based on the Ideology of:

(A) Democratic Decentralization

(B) People Participation in Govt.

(C) Centralization

(D) Community Development

Answer: (A)

125. The United Nations Organization was established on:

(A) 24th September, 1945

(B) 15th July, 1945

(C) 24th October, 1945

(D) 26th August, 1945

Answer: (C)

126. The last country to join SAARC was:

(A) Sri Lanka

(B) Bangladesh

(C) Maldives

(D) Afghanistan

Answer: (D)

127. Which of the following nations adopted an Open Door Policy?

(A) China

(B) Japan

(C) U.S.A.

(D) South Korea

Answer: (A)

128. The central nodal agency for implementing value support works for commercial crops is:





Answer: (A)

129. Diminishing marginal utility is the basis of:

(A) Law of Supply

(B) Law of Return

(C) Law of Demand

(D) Law of Consumption

Answer: (C)

130. Loss of interest income on funds is an example of:

(A) Explicit Cost

(B) Implicit Cost

(C) Marginal Cost

(D) Direct Cost

Answer: (B)

131. Who was the leader and inspirer of the Young Bengal Movement of the late 1820s and 1830s?

(A) Rasik Krishna Mallic

(B) Ramtaru Lahiri

(C) Henry Vivian Derozio

(D) Pearey Chand Mitra

Answer: (C)

132. The first Indian ruler who joined the subsidiary alliance was:

(A) The Nawab of Awadh

(B) The Nizam of Hyderabad

(C) Peshwa Baji Rao

(D) Jhansi ki Rani

Answer: (B)

133. The Raja Rani temple is located in:

(A) Bhubaneswar

(B) Khajuraho

(C) Kanchipuram

(D) Varanasi

Answer: (A)

134. Which one of the following rivers flows westward?

(A) Godavari

(B) Kaveri

(C) Krishna

(D) Tapti

Answer: (D)

135. The term “Fani” is associated with:

(A) Cyclone

(B) Rainfall

(C) Flood

(D) Landslide

Answer: (A)

136. The literacy rate of India in 2011 was:

(A) 72.04%

(B) 73.04%

(C) 74.04%

(D) 75.04%

Answer: (C)

137. Dualistic economy means existence of:

(A) Both industrial and agricultural sectors

(B) Both public and private sectors

(C) Both socialist and capitalist economies

(D) Both foreign and domestic investments

Answer: (A)

138. Who was the first to unfurl the first Indian National Flag, the parent and precursor of the flag of independent India?

(A) Dada Bhai Naoroji

(B) Taraknath Das

(C) Raja Mahendra Pratap

(D) Madam Bhikaji Cama

Answer: (D)

139. Operation Flood is also known as:

(A) Green Revolution

(B) White Revolution

(C) Blue Revolution

(D) Black Revolution

Answer: (B)

140. In India the Tropic of Cancer passes through how many states?

(A) 7

(B) 8

(C) 6

(D) 5

Answer: (B)

Section-V: (iv) English

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) : Choose the word that is nearest meaning to the underlined word:

141. Employers like diligent employees.

(A) Conscientious

(B) Obedient

(C) Meticulous

(D) Hardworking

Answer: (C)

142. The meeting was adjourned after discussion for two hours.

(A) Postponed

(B) Stopped

(C) Begun

(D) Reviewed

Answer: (A)

143. He is such sham that it is different to get along with him.

(A) pretender

(B) unnatural

(C) blunt

(D) unfair

Answer: (A)

144. Oh who despises his colleagues can never be successful.

(A) accuses

(B) ignores

(C) hates

(D) discourages

Answer: (C)

145. The school took the students of 9th class on a three days’ excursion to Goa.

(A) trip

(B) picnic

(C) visit

(D) tournament

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In each of the following group of words, only one of them is spelt correctly. Select the one with the correct spelling.


(A) megnificent

(B) magnifecent

(C) magnificant

(D) megnifecant

Answer: (*)


(A) tanacious

(B) tenacious

(C) tanecious

(D) tenecious

Answer: (B)


(A) consummation

(B) consumation

(C) consamation

(D) consamation

Answer: (A)


(A) menifest

(B) menifast

(C) manifest

(D) manifast

Answer: (C)


(A) posterity

(B) postarity

(C) posterety

(D) portarety

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word:

151. The criminal was detained by the police.

(A) protected

(B) dismissed

(C) released

(D) deterred

Answer: (C)

152. His depressing attitude was not liked by anyone.

(A) horrifying

(B) uplifting

(C) bewildering

(D) digressing

Answer: (B)

153. Feasibility of the project is under study.

(A) Unsuitability

(B) Impracticability

(C) Impropriety

(D) Applicability

Answer: (B)

154. A mammoth statue overlooked the building.

(A) effluent

(B) tiny

(C) huge

(D) narrow

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives and fill in the blanks to complete

155. This book is about a man who _____ his family and went to live in the Himalayas.

(A) exited

(B) deserted

(C) banished

(D) expelled

Answer: (B)

156. The villagers _____ the death of their leader by keeping all the shops closed.

(A) announced

(B) protested

(C) mourned

(D) consoled

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160): Choose the correct answer:

157. The novel ‘Persuasion’ was written by:

(A) Charlotte Bronte

(B) Emily Bronte

(C) George Eliot

(D) Jane Austen

Answer: (D)

158. The poem ‘Ode to Nightingale’ was written by:

(A) Keats

(B) Shelley

(C) Wordsworth

(D) Bacon

Answer: (A)

159. The play ‘Desire under the Elms’ was written by:

(A) Shakespeare

(B) Bernard Shaw

(C) Eugene O’Neill

(D) Brecht

Answer: (C)

160. The Novel ‘Train to Pakistan’ was written by:

(A) Tagore

(B) R.K. Narayan

(C) Anita Desai

(D) Khushwant Singh

Answer: (D)

Section-V : (v) Hindi

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

JEE Main Session 2 March 18th Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key



1. The decay of a proton to neutron is:

(a)  Not possible as proton mass is less than the neutron mass

(b)  Always possible as it is associated only with β+ decay

(c)  Possible only inside the nucleus

(d) Not possible but neutron to proton conversion is possible

Answer: (d)

2. An object of mass m1 collides with another object of mass m2, which is at rest. After the collision, the objects move at equal speeds in opposite directions. The ratio of the masses m2: m1 is:

(a)  2 : 1

(b)  1 : 1

(c)  1 : 2

(d) 3 : 1

Answer: (d)

3. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating along y-direction can have the following pair of electric field  and magnetic field components.

(a)  Ex, Bz or Ez, Bx

(b)  Ey, Bx or Ex, By

(c)  Ex, By or Ey, Bx

(d) Ey, By or Ez, Bz

Answer: (a)

4. A solid cylinder of mass m is wrapped with an inextensible light string and is placed on a rough inclined plane as shown in the figure. The frictional force acting between the cylinder and the inclined plane is :

[The coefficient of static friction, μs, is 0.4]


(b)  0

(c)  mg/5

(d) 5 mg

Answer: (c)

5. An ideal gas in a cylinder is separated by a piston in such a way that the entropy of one part is S1 and that of the other part is S2. Given that S1 > S2. If the piston is removed then the total entropy of the system will be:

(a)  S1 + S2

(b)  S1 – S2

(c)  S1 × S2

(d) S1/S2

Answer: (a)

6. The time taken for the magnetic energy to reach 25% of its maximum value, when a solenoid of resistance R, inductance L is connected to a battery, is :



(c)  Infinite


Answer: (a)

7. For an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, the fractional change in its pressure is equal to (where λ is the ratio of specific heats) :





Answer: (a)

8. The correct relation between α (ratio of collector current to emitter current) and β (ratio of collector current to base current) of a transistor is :





Answer: (a)

9. In a series LCR circuit, the inductive reactance (XL) is 10 Ω and the capacitive reactance (XC) is 4 Ω. The resistance (R) in the circuit is 6 Ω. Find the power factor of the circuit.

(a)  1/√2

(b)  √3/2

(c)  1/2

(d) 1/2√2

Answer: (a)

10. A proton and an α-particle, having kinetic energies Kp and Kα respectively, enter into a magnetic field at right angles. The ratio of the radii of the trajectory of proton to that α-particle is 2: 1. The ratio of KP: Kα is :

(a)  1 : 8

(b)  1 : 4

(c)  8 : 1

(d) 4 : 1

Answer: (d)

11. The function of time representing a simple harmonic motion with a period of π/ω is :

(a)  cos(ωt) + cos(2ωt) + cos(3ωt)


(c)  sin2 (ωt)

(d) sin (ωt) + cos (ωt)

Answer: (b)

12. Consider a uniform wire of mass M and length L. It is bent into a semicircle. Its moment of inertia about a line perpendicular to the plane of the wire passing through the centre is :





Answer: (d)

13. The angular momentum of a planet of mass M moving around the sun in an elliptical orbit is The magnitude of the areal velocity of the planet is :

(a)  L/M

(b)  2L/M

(c)  L/2M

(d) 4L/M

Answer: (c)

14. The velocity – displacement graph of a particle is shown in the figure.

The acceleration – displacement graph of the same particle is represented by:

Answer: (d)

15. Three rays of light, namely red (R), green (G) and blue (B) are incident on the face PQ of a right angled prism PQR as shown in the figure.

The refractive indices of the material of the prism for red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.27, 1.42 and 1.49 respectively. The colour of the ray(s) emerging out of the face PR is:

(a)  Blue

(b)  Green

(c)  Red

(d) Blue and Green

Answer: (c)

16. Consider a sample of oxygen behaving like an ideal gas. At 300 K, the ratio of root mean square (rms) velocity to the average velocity of gas molecule would be : (Molecular weight of oxygen is 32 g/mol; R=8.3 JK1 mol1)





Answer: (c)

17. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit under the central potential field, U(r) = −C/r, where C is a positive constant. The correct radius – velocity graph of the particle’s motion is :

Answer: (a)

18. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(A) Electric monopoles do not exist whereas magnetic monopoles exist.

(B) Magnetic field lines due to a solenoid at its ends and outside cannot be completely straight and confined.

(C) Magnetic field lines are completely confined within a toroid.

(D) Magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet are not parallel.

(E) χ = —1 is the condition for a perfect diamagnetic material, where χ is its magnetic susceptibility.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(a)  (B) and (C) only

(b)  (B) and (D) only

(c)  (C) and (E) only

(d) (A) and (B) only

Answer: (c)

19. The speed of electrons in a scanning electron microscope is 1×107 ms1. If the protons having the same speed are used instead of electrons, then the resolving power of scanning proton microscope will be changed by a factor of:

(a)  1/√1837

(b)  √1837

(c)  1837

(d) 1/1837

Answer: (c)

20. If the angular velocity of earth’s spin is increased such that the bodies at the equator start floating, the duration of the day would be approximately :

[Take g = 10 ms2, the radius of earth, R = 6400 × 103 m, Take π = 3.14]

(a)  60 minutes

(b)  does not change

(c)  84 minutes

(d) 1200 minutes

Answer: (c)


21. Two wires of same length and thickness having specific resistances 6 Ω cm and 3 Ω cm respectively are connected in parallel. The effective resistivity is ρ Ω cm. The value of ρ, to the nearest integer, is _________.

Answer: (4)

22. A ball of mass 4 kg, moving with a velocity of 10 ms1, collides with a spring of length 8 m and force constant 100 Nm1. The length of the compressed spring is x m. The value of x, to the nearest integer, is _______

Answer: (6)

23. Consider a 72 cm long wire AB as shown in the figure. The galvanometer jockey is placed at P on AB at a distance x cm from A. The galvanometer shows zero deflection.

The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ___________

Answer: (48)

24. Consider a water tank as shown in the figure. It’s cross-sectional area is 0.4 m2. The tank has an opening B near the bottom whose cross-sectional area is 1 cm2. A load of 24 kg is applied on the water at the top when the height of the water level is 40 cm above the bottom, the velocity of water coming out the opening B is v ms1. The value of v, to the nearest integer, is …………

[Take value of g to be 10 ms2]

Answer: (3)

25. The typical output characteristics curve for a transistor working in the common emitter configuration is shown in the figure.

The estimated current gain from the figure is …………..

Answer: (200)

26. The radius of a sphere is measured to be (7.50 ± 0.85) cm. Suppose the percentage error in its volume is x. The value of x, to the nearest integer x, is …………

Answer: (34)

27. The projectile motion of a particle of mass 5 g is shown in the figure.

The initial velocity of the particle is 5√2 ms1 and the air resistance is assumed to be negligible. The magnitude of the change in momentum between the points A and B is X × 102 kgms1. The value of X, to the nearest integer, is …………………..

Answer: (5)

28. An infinite number of point charges, each carrying 1 μC charge, are placed along the y-axis at y = 1m, 2m, 4m, 8m ………… The total force on a 1 C point charge, placed at the origin, is X × 103 The value of X, to the nearest integer, is ………

Answer: (12)

29. A TV transmission tower antenna is at a height of 20 m. Suppose that the receiving antenna is at.

(i) Ground level

(ii) a height of 5 m

The increase in antenna range in case (ii) relative to case (i) is n%. The value of n, to the nearest integer, is

Answer: (50)

30. A galaxy is moving away from the earth at a speed of 286 km/s. The shift in the wavelength of a redline at 630 nm is X × 1010 The value of X, to the nearest integer, is [Take the value of speed of light c, as 3 × 108 ms1]

Answer: (6)



1. Consider the below-given reaction, the product ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are:

Answer: (b)

2. The charges on the colloidal CdS sol. and TiO2 are, respectively

(a)  positive and negative

(b)  negative and negative

(c)  negative and positive

(d) positive and positive

Answer: (c)

3. The oxide that shows a magnetic property is:

(a)  SiO2

(b)  Na2O

(c)  Mn3O4

(d) MgO

Answer: (c)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bohr’s theory accounts for the stability and line spectrum of Li+ ion.

Statement II: Bohr’s theory was unable to explain the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of a magnetic field.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a)  Both statement I and statement II are true

(b)  Statement I is true but statement II is false

(c)  Statement I is false but statement II is true

(d) Both statement I and statement II are false

Answer: (c)

5. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                 List-II

(a) Mercury                       (i) Vapour phase refining

(b) Copper                         (ii) Distillation Refining

(c) Silicon                          (iii) Electrolytic Refining

(d) Nickel                          (iv) Zone Refining

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(b)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii),(d)-(ii)

(c)  (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Answer: (d)

6. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                             List-II

(Class of Chemicals)                    (Example)

(a) Antifertility drug                     (i) Meprobamate

(b) Antibiotic                                (ii) Alitame

(c) Tranquilizer                           (iii) Norethindrone

(d) Artificial Sweetener               (iv) Salvarsan

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(b)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (d)

7. Main Products formed during a reaction of 1-methoxy naphthalene with hydroiodic acid are:

Answer: (d)

8. Consider the given reaction, percentage yield of:

(a)  A > C > B

(b)  B > C > A

(c)  C > B > A

(d) C > A > B

Answer: (c)

9. An organic compound “A” on treatment with benzene sulphonyl chloride gives compound B. B is soluble in dil. NaOH solution. Compound A is:

(a)  C6H5–N–(CH3)2

(b)  C6H5–NHCH2CH3


(d) C6H5−CH2NHCH3

Answer: (c)

10. The first ionization energy of magnesium is smaller as a compound to that of elements X and Y but higher than that of Z. The elements X, Y and Z, respectively are:

(a)  argon, lithium and sodium

(b)  chlorine, lithium and sodium

(c)  neon, sodium and chlorine

(d) argon, chlorine and sodium

Answer: (d)

11. In the following molecule:

The hybridisation of Carbon a, b and c respectively are:

(a)  sp3, sp2, sp2

(b)  sp3, sp2, sp

(c)  sp3, sp, sp

(d) sp3, sp, sp2

Answer: (a)

12. In the reaction of hypobromite with amide, the carbonyl carbon is lost as:

(a)  HCO3

(b)  CO32

(c)  CO2

(d) CO

Answer: (b)

13. The oxidation states of nitrogen in NO, NO2, N2O and NO3 are in the order of

(a)  NO2 > NO3 > NO > N2O

(b)  N2O > NO2 > NO > NO3

(c)  NO3 > NO2 > NO > N2O

(d) NO > NO2 > NO3 > N2O

Answer: (c)

14. Match List-I and List-II:

List-I                                 List-II

(a) Be                                (i) treatment of cancer

(b) Mg                               (ii) extraction of metals

(c) Ca                                (iii) incendiary bombs and signals

(d) Ra                                (iv) windows of X-ray tubes

                                          (v) bearings for motor engines

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)

(b)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(c)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (c)

15. Deficiency of vitamin K causes:

(a)  Cheilosis

(b)  Increase in blood clotting time

(c)  Increase in the fragility of RBCs

(d) Decrease in blood clotting time

Answer: (b)

16. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: C2H5OH and AgCN both can generate nucleophiles.

Statement II: KCN and AgCN both will generate nitrile nucleophiles with all reaction conditions.

Choose the most appropriate option:

(a)  Statement I is false but statement II is true

(b)  Statement I is true but statement II is false

(c)  Both statement I and statement II are false

(d) Both statement I and statement II are true

Answer: (b)

17. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Non-biodegradable wastes are generated by thermal power plants.

Statement II: Biodegradable detergents lead to eutrophication.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(a)  Statement I is false but statement II is true

(b)  Statement I is true but statement II is false

(c)  Both statement I and statement II are false

(d) Both statement I and statement II are true

Answer: (b)

18. A hard substance melts at high temperature and is an insulator in both solid and in molten state. This solid is most likely to be a/an:

(a)  Metallic solid

(b)  Covalent solid

(c)  Ionic solid

(d) Molecular solid

Answer: (b)

19. The secondary valency and the number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) in CuSO4.5H2O, respectively, are:

(a)  6 and 4

(b)  4 and 1

(c)  5 and 1

(d) 6 and 5

Answer: (b)

20.In a basic medium, H2O2 exhibits which of the following reactions?

(A) Mn2+ → Mn4+

(B) I2 → I

(C) PbS → PbSO4

(a)  (A), (C) only

(b)  (A) only

(c)  (B) only

(d) (A), (B) only

Answer: (d)


21. The solubility of CdSO4 in water is 8.0 × 10–4 mol L–1. Its solubility in 0.01 M H2SO4 solution is ______ × 10–6 mol L–1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

(Assume that solubility is much less than 0.01 M)

Answer: (64)

22. The molar conductivities at infinite dilution of barium chloride, sulphuric acid and hydrochloric acid are 280, 860 and 426 S cm2 mol–1 The molar conductivity at infinite dilution of barium sulphate is _____ S cm2 mol–1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (288)

23. A reaction has a half life of 1 min. The time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is _____ min. (Round off to the nearest integer) [ Use ln2 = 0.69, ln10 = 2.3]

Answer: (10)

24. The equilibrium constant KC for this reaction is ______ × 10–2. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Use : R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1, ln 10 = 2.3

log102 = 0.30, 1 atm = 1 bar]

[antilog (– 0.3) = 0.501]

Answer: (2)

25. Consider the below reaction where 6.1 g of benzoic acid is used to get 7.8 g of m-bromo benzoic acid.

The percentage yield of the product is _____

(Round off to the nearest integer)

[Given : Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u, Br : 80.0 u]

Answer: (78)

26. A solute A dimerizes in water. The boiling point of a 2 molal solution of A is 100.52ºC. The percentage association of A is ______. (Round off to the nearest integer.)

[Use : Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol–1]

Boiling point of water = 100ºC]

Answer: (1)

27. The number of species below that has two lone pairs of electrons in their central atom is ______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer.)

SF4, BF4, CIF3, AsF3, PCl5, BrF5, XeF4, SF6

Answer: (2)

28. 10.0 mL of Na2CO3 solution is titrated against 0.2 M HCl solution. The following litre values were obtained in 5 readings 4.8 mL, 4.9 mL, 5.0 mL, 5.0 mL and 5.0 mL. Based on these readings and the convention of titrimetric estimation the concentration of Na2CO3 solution is ____mM

Answer: (50)

29. In Tollen’s test for aldehyde, the overall number of electron(s) transferred to the Tollen’s reagent formula [Ag(NH3)2]+ per aldehyde group to form silver mirror is ________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (2)

30. A xenon compound ‘A’ upon partial hydrolysis gives XeO2F2. The number of lone pairs of electrons presents in compound A is ______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (19)



1. Let the system of linear equations

4x + λy + 2z = 0

2x – y + z = 0

μx + 2y + 3z = 0, λ, μ ∈ R

Has a non-trivial solution. Then which of the following is true?

(a)   μ = 6, λ ∈ R

(b)   λ = 2, μ ∈ R

(c)   λ = 3, μ ∈ R

(d)   μ = −6, λ ∈ R

Answer: (a)

2. A pole stands vertically inside a triangular park ABC. Let the angle of elevation of the top of the pole from each corner of the park be π/3. If the radius of the circumcircle of △ABC is 2, then the height of the pole is equal to

(a)   1/√3

(b)   √3

(c)   2√3

(d)   2√3/3

Answer: (c)

3. Let in a series of 2n observations, half of them are equal to a and the remaining half are equal to − Also by adding a constant b in each of these observations, the mean and standard deviation of the new set become 5 and 20, respectively. Then the value of a2 + b2 is equal to:

(a)   250

(b)   925

(c)   650

(d)   425

Answer: (4)

4. Let  where f is continuous function in [0, 3] such that  for all t ∈ [0, 1] and  for all t ∈ {1, 3]. The largest possible interval in which g(3) lies is:

(a)   [1, 3]

(b)   [−1, −1/2]

(c)   [−3/2, −1]

(d)   [1/3, 2]

Answer: (d)

5. If 15 sin4 θ + 10 cos4 θ = 6, for some θ ∈ R, then the value of 27 sec6 θ + 8 cosec6 θ is equal to:

(a)   250

(b)   500

(c)   400

(d)   350

Answer: (a)

6. Let f : R − {3} → R − {1] be defined by  Let g : R − R be given as g (x) = 2x − Then, the sum of all the values of x for which f1 (x) + g1 (x) = 13/2 is equal to

(a)   7

(b)   5

(c)   2

(d)   3

Answer: (b)

7. Let S1 be the sum of the first 2n terms of an arithmetic progression. Let S2 be the sum of the first 4n terms of the same arithmetic progression. If (S2 − S1) is 1000, then the sum of the first 6n terms of the arithmetic progression is equal to :

(a)   3000  

(b)   7000

(c)   5000

(d)   1000

Answer: (a)

8. Let S1 = x2 + y2 = 9 and S2 = (x − 2)2 + y2 = 1. Then the locus of the centre of a variable circle S which touches S1 internally and S2 externally always passes through the points:

(a)   (1/2, ± √5/2)

(b)   (2, ± 3/2)

(c)   (1, ± 2)

(d)   (0, ± √3)

Answer: (b)

9. Let the centroid of an equilateral triangle ABC be at the origin. Let one of the sides of the equilateral triangle be along the straight line x + y = 3. If R and r be the radius of circumcircle and incircle respectively of ΔABC, then (R + r) is equal to

(a)   2√2

(b)   3√2

(c)   7√2

(d)   9/√2

Answer: (d)

10. In a triangle ABC, if vector BC = 8, CA = 7, AB = 10, then the projection of the vector AB on AC is equal to:

(a)   25/4

(b)   85/14

(c)   127/20

(d)   115/16

Answer: (b)

11. Let in a Binomial distribution, consisting of 5 independent trials, probabilities of exactly 1 and 2 successes be 0.4096 and 0.2048 respectively. Then the probability of getting exactly 3 successes is equal to:

(a)   80/243

(b)   32/625

(c)   128/625

(d)   40/243

Answer: (b)

12. Let  be two non-zero vectors perpendicular to each other and  then the angle between the vectors  is equal to:

(a)   sin1(1/√3)

(b)   cos1(1/√3)

(c)   sin1(1/√6)

(d)   cos1(1/√2)

Answer: (b)

13. Let a complex number be w = 1 − √3i. Let another complex number z be such that |zw| = 1 and arg (z) − arg (w) = π/2. Then the area of the triangle with vertices origin, z and w is equal to:

(a)   1/2

(b)   4

(c)   2

(d)   1/4

Answer: (a)

14. The area bounded by the curve 4y2 = x2 (4 − x) (x − 2) is equal to:

(a)   3π/2  

(b)   π/16

(c)   π/8

(d)   3π/8

Answer: (a)

15. Define a relation R over a class of n × n real matrices A and B as “ARB if there exists a non-singular matrix P such that PAP1 = B”. Then which of the following is true?

(a)   R is reflexive, symmetric but not transitive

(b)   R is symmetric, transitive but not reflexive

(c)   R is an equivalence relation

(d)   R is reflexive, transitive but not symmetric

Answer: (c)

16. If P and Q are two statements, then which of the following compound statement is a tautology?

(a)   ((P ⇒ Q) ^ ~Q) ⇒ P

(b)   ((P ⇒ Q) ^ ~ Q) ⇒ ~ P

(c)   ((P ⇒ Q) ^ ~ Q)

(d)   ((P ⇒ Q) ^ ~ Q) ⇒ Q

Answer: (b)

17. Consider a hyperbola H : x2 − 2y2 = 4. Let the tangent at a point P (4, √6) meet the x-axis at Q and latus rectum at R (x1, y1), x1 > 0. If F is a focus of H which is nearer to the point P, then the area of ΔQFR is equal to:

(a)   √6 −1

(b)   4√6 −1

(c)   4√6


Answer: (d)

18. Let f : R → R be a function defined as

If f is continuous at x = 0, then the value of a + b is equal to

(a)   −2

(b)   −2/5

(c)   −3/2

(d)   −3

Answer: (c)

19. Let y = y (x) be the solution of the differential equation  0 < x < 2.1, with y(2) = 0. Then the value of  at x = 1 is equal to:





Answer: (d)

20. Let a tangent be drawn to the ellipse  at (3√3 cos θ, sin θ) where  Then the value of θ such that the sum of intercepts on axes made by a tangent is minimum is equal to:

(a)   π/8

(b)   π/6

(c)   π/3

(d)   π/4

Answer: (b)


21. Let P be a plane containing the line and parallel to the line  If the point (1, −1, α) lies on the plane P, then the value of |5α| is equal to __________.

Answer: (38)


Then the value of α is equal to _________.

Answer: (160)

23. The term independent of x in the expansion of  is equal to ________.

Answer: (210)

24. Let nCr denote the binomial coefficient of xr in the expansion of (1 + x)n. If  α, β ∈ R, then α + β is equal to ________.

Answer: (*)

25. Let P (x) be a real polynomial of degree 3 which vanishes at x = − Let P(x) have local minima at x = 1, local maxima at x = −1 and  then the sum of all the coefficients of the polynomial P (x) is equal to ____________.

Answer: (8)

26. Let the mirror image of the point (1, 3, a) with respect the plane  be (−3, 5, 2). Then, the value of |a + b| is equal to________.

Answer: (1)

27. If f (x) and g (x) are two polynomials such that the polynomial P (x) = f (x3) + x g (x3) is divisible by x2 + x + 1, then P (1) is equal to _______.

Answer: (0)

28. Let I be an identity matrix of order 2 × 2 and Then the value of n ∈ N for which Pn = 5I – 8P is equal to________.

Answer: (6)

29. Let f : R → R satisfy the equation f (x + y) = f (x) . f (y) for all x, y ∈ R and f (x) ≠ 0 for any x ∈ If the function f is differentiable at x = 0 and f’ (0) = 3, then  is equal to ________.

Answer: (3)

30. Let y = y (x) be the solution of the differential equation  with y(1) = 0. If the area bounded by the line x = 1, x = eπ, y = 0 and y = y(x) is αe2π + b, then the value of 10(α + β) is equal to_________.

Answer: (4)

JEE Main Session 2 March 18th Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key



1. In a series LCR resonance circuit, if we change the resistance only, from a lower to higher value :

(a)  The resonance frequency will increase

(b)  The quality factor will increase

(c)  The quality factor and the resonance frequency will remain constant

(d) The bandwidth of the resonance circuit will increase

Answer: (d)

2. A radioactive sample disintegrates via two independent decay processes having half-livesT1/21 and T1/22 The effective half-life, T1/2 of the nuclei is:

(a)  None of the above




Answer: (d)

3. In the experiment of Ohm’s law, a potential difference of 5.0 V is applied across the end of a conductor of length 10.0 cm and diameter of 5.00 mm. The measured current in the conductor is 2.00 A. The maximum permissible percentage error in the resistivity of the conductor is:

(a)  7.5

(b)  3.9

(c)  8.4

(d) 3.0

Answer: (b)

4. An AC source rated 220V, 50 Hz is connected to a resistor. The time taken by the current to change from its maximum to the rms value is:

(a)  0.25 ms

(b)  25 ms

(c)  2.5 ms

(d) 2.5 s

Answer: (c)

5. Four identical long solenoids A, B, C and D are connected to each other as shown in the figure. If the magnetic field at the centre of A is 3 T, the field at the centre of C would be: (Assume that the magnetic field is confined within the volume of the respective solenoid.)

(a)  6T

(b)  12T

(c)  1T

(d) 9T

Answer: (c)

6. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 100 MHz is travelling in a vacuum along the x-direction. At a particular point in space and time,   (where,  is unit vector along z-direction). What is  at this point ? (speed of light c = 3 × 108 m/s)





Answer: (c)

7. A particle is travelling, 4 times as fast as an electron. Assuming the ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle to that of the electron is 2:1, the mass of the particle is :

(a)  1/16 times of mass of e

(b)  1/6 times the mass of e

(c)  1/8 times the mass of e

(d) 8 times the mass of e

Answer: (c)

8. What will be the average value of energy along one degree of freedom for an ideal gas in thermal equilibrium at a temperature T? (kB is Boltzmann constant)

(a)  kBT

(b)  (2/3)kB T

(c)  (3/2) kB T

(d) (1/2) kB T

Answer: (d)

9. Your friend is having an eyesight problem. She is not able to see clearly a distant uniform window mesh and it appears to her as non-uniform and distorted. The doctor diagnosed the problem as:

(a)  Myopia and hypermetropia

(b)  Astigmatism

(c)  Myopia with astigmatism

(d) Presbyopia with astigmatism

Answer: (c)

10. The time period of a simple pendulum is given by  The measured value of the length of the pendulum is 10 cm known to a 1 mm accuracy. The time for 200 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 100 seconds using a clock of 1 s resolution. The percentage accuracy in the determination of ‘g’ using this pendulum is ‘x’. The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is.

(a)  5%

(b)  4%

(c)  3%

(d) 2%

Answer: (c)

11. An oil drop of radius 2 mm with a density of 3 g cm–3 is held stationary under a constant electric field 3.55 × 105 V m–1 in Millikan’s oil drop experiment. What is the number of excess electrons that the oil drop will possess? Consider g = 9.81 m/s2.

(a)  1.73 × 1010

(b)  48.8 × 1011

(c)  1.73 × 1012

(d) 17.3 × 1010

Answer: (a)

12. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. The period of another satellite in a circular orbit of radius 9R is :

(a)  3 T

(b)  9 T

(c)  27 T

(d) 12 T

Answer: (c)

13. A loop of flexible wire of irregular shape carrying current is placed in an external magnetic field. Identify the effect of the field on the wire

(a)  Loop assumes a circular shape with its plane parallel to field

(b)  Shape of the loop remains unchanged

(c)  Wire gets stretched to become straight

(d) Loop assumes circular shape with its plane normal to the field

Answer: (d)

14. In Young’s double-slit arrangement, slits are separated by a gap of 0.5 mm, and the screen is placed at a distance of 0.5 m from them. The distance between the first and the third bright fringe formed when the slits are illuminated by monochromatic light of 5890 Å is:

(a)  1178 × 106 m

(b)  1178 × 109 m

(c)  5890 × 107 m

(d) 1178 × 1012 m

Answer: (a)

15. Match List – I with List – II

List – I                 

(a) 10 km height over earth’s surface

(b) 70 km height over earth’s surface

(c) 180 km height over earth’s surface

(d) 270 km height over earth’s surface


(i) Thermosphere

(ii) Mesosphere

(iii) stratosphere

(iv) Troposphere

(a)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

(b)  (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(c)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

(d) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)

Answer: (b)

16. A constant power delivering machine has towed a box, which was initially at rest, along a horizontal straight line. The distance moved by the box in time ‘t’ is proportional to:

(a)  t

(b)  t3/2

(c)  t1/2

(d) t2/3

Answer: (b)


17. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with an angular speed ω. Two particles having mass m each are now attached at diametrically opposite points. The angular speed of the ring will become:





Answer: (a)

18. Imagine that the electron in a hydrogen atom is replaced by a muon (μ). The mass of a muon particle is 207 times that of an electron and the charge is equal to the charge of an electron. The ionization potential of this hydrogen atom will be:

(a)  27.2 eV

(b)  331.2 eV

(c)  13.6 eV

(d) 2815.2 eV

Answer: (d)

19. The P-V diagram of a diatomic ideal gas system going under cyclic process as shown in the figure. The work done during an adiabatic process CD is (use γ = 1.4):

(a)  200 J

(b)  −500 J

(c)  −400 J

(d) 400 J

Answer: ()

20. The position, velocity and acceleration of a particle moving with constant acceleration can be represented by:

Answer: (a)


21. As shown in the figure, a particle of mass 10 kg is placed at point A. When the particle is slightly displaced to its right, it starts moving and reaches point B. The speed of the particle at B is x m/s. (Take g = 10 m/s2).The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is _______.

Answer: (10)

22. A parallel plate capacitor has a plate area of 100 m2 and plate separation of 10 m. The space between the plates is filled up to a thickness of 5 m with a material of dielectric constant 10. The resultant capacitance of the system is ‘x’ pF. The value of ε0 = 8.85 × 1012m1. The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is _______.

Answer: (161)

23. An NPN transistor operates as a common emitter amplifier with a power gain of 106. The input circuit resistance is 100 Ω and the output load resistance is 10 kΩ. The common-emitter current gain ‘β’ will be ______. (Round off to the nearest integer)

Answer: (100)

24. The voltage across the 10 Ω resistor in the given circuit is x volt.

The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is_________.

Answer: (70)

25. Two separate wires A and B are stretched by 2 mm and 4 mm respectively, when they are subjected to a force of 2 N. Assume that both the wires are made up of the same material and the radius of wire B is 4 times that of the radius of wire A. The length of the wires A and B are in the ratio of a : b, Then a/b can be expressed as 1/x where x is.

Answer: (32)

26. A bullet of mass 0.1 kg is fired on a wooden block to pierce through it, but it stops after moving a distance of 50 cm into it. If the velocity of the bullet before hitting the wood is 10 m/s and it slows down with uniform deceleration, then the magnitude of effective retarding force on the bullet is ‘x’ N. The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is

Answer: (10)

27. A ball of mass 10 kg moving with a velocity 10√ 3 m/s along the x-axis, hits another ball of mass 20 kg which is at rest. After the collision, the first ball comes to rest while the second ball disintegrates into two equal pieces. One-piece starts moving along the y-axis with a speed of 10 m/s. The second piece starts moving at an angle of 30° with respect to the x-axis. The velocity of the ball moving at 30° with x-axis is x m/s. The configuration of pieces after collision is shown in the figure below The value of x to the nearest integer is ______.

Answer: (20)

28. The circuit shown in the figure consists of a charged capacitor of capacity 3 µF and a charge of 30 µC. At time t = 0, when the key is closed, the value of current flowing through the 5M Ω resistor is ‘x’ µA. The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is _______.

Answer: (2)

29. A person is swimming with a speed of 10 m/s at an angle of 120° with the flow and reaches to a point directly opposite on the other side of the river. Then the speed of the flow is ‘x’ m/s. The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is _____.

Answer: (5)

30. A particle performs simple harmonic motion with a period of 2 second. The time taken by the particle to cover a displacement equal to half of its amplitude from the mean position is  The value of ‘a’ to the nearest integer is _____.

Answer: (6)



1. The ionic radius of Na+ ion is 1.02 Å. The ionic radii (in Å) of Mg2+ and Al3+, respectively are:

(a)  0.72 and 0.54

(b)  0.68 and 0.72

(c)  1.05 and 0.99

(d) 0.85 and 0.99

Answer: (a)

2. Match List-I with List-II:





(a) Alcoholic potassium hydroxide (i) electrodes in batteries
(b) Pd/BaSO4 (ii) obtained by addition reaction
(c) BHC (Benzene hexachloride (iii) used for β-elimination reaction
(d) Polyacetylene (iv) Lindlar’s Catalyst


Choose the most appropriate match:

(a)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(b)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (d)

3. The statements that are TRUE:

(A) methane leads to both global warming and photochemical smog

(B) methane is generated from paddy fields

(C) methane is a stronger global warming gas than CO2

(D) methane is a part of reducing smog.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (B), (C), (D) only

(b)  (A), (B), (C) only

(c)  (A), (B), (D) only

(d) (A) and (B) only

Answer: (b)

4. Compound with molecular formula C3H6O can show:

(a)  Both positional isomerism and metamerism

(b)  Metamerism

(c)  Positional isomerism

(d) Functional group isomerism

Answer: (d)

5. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
(a) Ca(OCl)2 (i) Antacid
(b)   (ii) Cement
(c) CaO (iii) Bleach
(d) CaCO3 (iv) Plasters of Paris


Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(b)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(c)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(d) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (a)

6. In a binary compound, atoms of element A form a hcp structure and those of element M occupy 2/3 of the tetrahedral voids of the hcp structure. The formula of the binary compound is:

(a)  M2A3

(b)  MA3

(c)  M4A

(d) M4A3

Answer: (d)

7. Match List-I with List-II:


(Class of Drug)



(a) Antacid (i) Novestrol
(b) Artificial Sweetener (ii) Cimetidine
(c) Antifertility (iii) Valium
(d) Tranquilizers (iv) Alitame


Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(b)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (b)

8. Reagent, 1-naphthylamine and sulfanilic acid in acetic acid is used for the detection of:

(a)  NO

(b)  N2O

(c)  NO3

(d) NO2

Answer: (d)

9. The correct structures of trans-[NiBr2(PPh3)2] and meridional-[Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] respectively are:

Answer: (b)

10. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                 List-II

(a) Chlorophyll                  (i) Ruthenium

(b) Vitamin-B12                 (ii) Platinum

(c) Anticancer drug           (iii) Cobalt

(d) Grubbs catalyt             (iv) Magnesium

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(b)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(c)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (c)

11. The number of ionisable hydrogens present in the product obtained from a reaction of phosphorus trichloride and phosphonic acid is:

(a)  3

(b)  1

(c)  0

(d) 2

Answer: (d)

12. A certain orbital has no angular nodes and two radial nodes. The orbital is:

(a)  2p

(b)  3p

(c)  2s

(d) 3s

Answer: (d)

13. Consider the above chemical reaction and identity product “A”:

Answer: (c)

14. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: During the boiling of water having a temporary hardness, Mg(HCO3)2 is converted to MgCO3.

Reason R: The solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is greater than that of MgCO3.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(a)  A is false but R is true

(b)  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(c)  Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(d) A is true but R is false

Answer: (a)

15. The chemical is added to reduce the melting point of the reaction mixture during the extraction of aluminium is:

(a)  Cryolite

(b)  Calamine

(c)  Kaolite

(d) Bauxite

Answer: (a)

16. Considering the below chemical reaction, identity the product “X”:

Answer: (c)

17. Considering the below reaction, X and Y respectively are:

Answer: (d)

18. Reaction of Grignard reagent, C2H5MgBr with C8H8O followed by hydrolysis gives compound “A” which reacts instantly with Lucas reagent to give compound B, C10H13 The Compound B is:

Answer: (d)

19. A non-reducing sugar ”A” hydrolyses to give two reducing monosaccharides. Sugar A is:

(a)  Glucose

(b)  Fructose

(c)  Sucrose

(d) Galactose

Answer: (c)

20. Match List-I with List-II:





(a) Deacon’s process (i) ZSM-5
(b) Contact process (ii) CuCl2
(c) Cracking of hydrocarbons (iii) iParticles ’Ni’
(d) Hydrogenation of vegetable oils (iv) V2O5


Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(b)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (c)


21. 2 molal solution of a weak acid HA has a freezing point of 3.885° The degree of dissociation of this acid is _________ × 10–3. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). [Given: Molal depression constant of water = 1.85 K kg mol–1Freezing point of pure water = 0°C]

Answer: (50)

22. The total number of unpaired electrons present in the complex K3[Cr(oxalate)3] is _______.

Answer: (3)

23. AX is a covalent diatomic molecule where A and X are second-row elements of the periodic table. Based on Molecular orbital theory, the bond order of AX is 2.5. The total number of electrons in AX is __________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (15)

24. ___________ grams of 3-Hydroxy propanal (MW = 74) must be dehydrated to produce 7.8 g of acrolein (MW = 56) (C3H4O) if the percentage yield is 64. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given: Atomic masses: C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u]

Answer: (16)

25. A reaction of 0.1 mole of Benzyl amine with bromomethane gave 23 g of Benzyl trimethyl ammonium bromide. The number of moles of bromomethane consumed in this reaction are n × 10–1, when n = ___________ . (Round off to the Nearest Integer). [Given: Atomic masses: C: 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, N : 14.0 u, Br : 80.0 u]

Answer: (3)

26. 2NO (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2 NOCl (s): This reaction was studied at – 10°C and the following data was obtained.

Run           [NO]0              [Cl2]0               r0

1                0.10                 0.10                 0.18

2                0.10                 0.20                 0.35

3                0.20                 0.20                 1.40

[NO]0 and [Cl2]0 are the initial concentrations and r0 is the initial reaction rate. The overall order of the reaction is _________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (3)

27. For the reaction: 2Fe3+ (aq) + 2I (aq) → 2Fe2+ (aq) + I2(s)

The magnitude of the standard molar free energy change, ΔrGm° = – _______ kJ (Round off the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (45 kJ)

28. For the reaction: C2H6→ C2H4 + H2: The reaction enthalpy ΔrH = __________ kJ mol–1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given: Bond enthalpies in kJ mol–1; C – C: 347, C = C : 611; C – H : 414; H – H ; 436]

Answer: (131 kJ/mol)

29. In order to prepare a buffer solution of pH 5.74, sodium acetate is added to acetic acid. If the concentration of acetic acid in the buffer is 1.0 M, the concentration of sodium acetate in the buffer is _________ M. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given: pKa (acetic acid) = 4.74]

Answer: (10)

30. Complete combustion of 3 g of ethane gives x × 1022 molecules of water. The value of x is ________. [Round off to the Nearest Integer].

[Use: NA = 6.023 × 1023; Atomic masses in u : C : 12.0; O : 16.0 : H : 1.0 ]

Given: 18

Answer: (18)



1. If the functions are defined as f(x) = √x and  then what is the common domain of the following functions: f + g, f – g, f / g, g / f, g – f where (f ± g) (x) = f (x) ± g (x), (f / g) (x) =

(a)   0 < x ≤ 1

(b)   0 ≤ x < 1

(c)   0 ≤ x ≤ 1

(d)   0 < x < 1

Answer: (d)

2. Let α, β, γ be the roots of the equations, x3 + ax2 + bx + c = 0, (a, b, c ∈ R and a, b and a, b ≠ 0). The system of the equations (in u, v, w) given by αu + βv + γw = 0; βu + γv + αw = 0; γu + αv + βw = 0 has non-trivial solutions, then the value of a2/b is

(a)   5

(b)   1

(c)   0

(d)   3

Answer: (d)

3. If the equation a  represents a circle where a, d are real constants, then which of the following condition is correct?

(a)   |α|2 − ad ≠ 0

(b)   |α|2 − ad > 0 and a ∈ R − {0}

(c)   α = 0, a, d ∈ R+

(d)   |α|2 − ad ≥ 0 and a ∈ R

Answer: (b)

4. is equal to:

(a)   101/404

(b)   101/408

(c)   99/400

(d)   25/101

Answer: (d)

5. The number of integral values of m so that the abscissa of point of intersection of lines 3x + 4y = 9 and y = mx + 1 is also an integer, is:

(a)   3

(b)   2

(c)   1

(d)   0

Answer: (b)

6. The solutions of the equation  (0 < x < π), are:

(a)   π/6, 5π/6

(b)   7π/12, 11π/12

(c)   5π/12, 7π/12

(d)   π/12, π/6

Answer: (b)

7. If  is differentiable at every point of the domain, then the values of a and b are respectively:

(a)   5/2, −3 / 2

(b)   −1/2, 3/2

(c)   1/2, 1/2

(d)   1/2, −3/2

Answer: (b)

8. A vector a has components 3p and 1 with respect to a rectangular Cartesian system. This system is rotated through a certain angle about the origin in the counterclockwise sense. If with respect to the new system, a has components p + 1 and √10, then a value of p is equal to:

(a)   1

(b)   −1

(c)   4/5

(d)   −5/4

Answer: (b)

9. The sum of all the 4-digit distinct numbers that can be formed with the digits 1, 2, 2 and 3 is:

(a)   26664

(b)   122664

(c)   122234

(d)   22264

Answer: (a)

10. Choose the correct statement about two circles whose equations are given below:

x2 + y2 – 10x – 10y + 41 = 0

x2 + y2 – 22x – 10y + 137 = 0

(a)   circles have no meeting point

(b)   circles have two meeting points

(c)   circles have only one meeting point

(d)   circles have the same centre

Answer: (c)

11. If α, β are natural numbers such that 100α – 199β = (100) (100) + (99) (101) + (98) (102) + …. + (1) (199), then the slope of the line passing through (α, β) and origin is:

(a)   510

(b)   550

(c)   540

(d)   530

Answer: (b)

12. The value of  is equal to:

(a)   3 + 2√3

(b)   4 + √3

(c)   2 + √3

(d)   1.5 + √3

Answer: (d)

13. The integral  is equal to:

(where c is a constant of integration)





Answer: (b)

14. The differential equations satisfied by the system of parabolas y2 = 4a (x + a) is:





Answer: (b)

15. The real-valued function  where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than equal to x, is defined for all x belonging to:

(a)   all non- integers except the interval [–1, 1]

(b)   all integers except 0, –1, 1

(c)   all reals except integers

(d)   all reals except the interval [–1, 1]

Answer: (a)

16. If  is equal to L, then the value of (6L + 1) is :

(a)   1/2

(b)   2

(c)   1/6

(d)   6

Answer: (b)

17. For all four circles M, N, O and P, the following four equations are given:

Circle M : x2 + y2 = 1

Circle N : x2 + y2 – 2x = 0

Circle O : x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0

Circle P : x2 + y2 –2y = 0

If the centre of circle M is joined with the centre of the circle N, further centre of circle N is joined with the centre of the circle O, centre of circle O is joined with the centre of circle P and lastly, the centre of circle P is joined with the centre of circle M, then these lines form the sides of a:

(a)   Rectangle

(b)   Square

(c)   Parallelogram

(d)   Rhombus

Answer: (b)

18. Let (1 + x + 2x2)20 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + …… + a40x40. Then, a1 + a3 +a5 + ….+ a37 is equal to

(a)   220(220 + 21)

(b)   219(220 + 21)

(c)   220(220 – 21)

(d)   219(220 – 21)

Answer: (d)

19. Let  and  If Tr(A) denotes the sum of all diagonal elements of the matrix A, then Tr(A) – Tr(B) has value equal to:

(a)   0

(b)   1

(c)   3

(d)   2

Answer: (d)

20. The equations of one of the straight lines which pass through the point (1, 3) and make an angle tan1 √2 with the straight line, y + 1 = 3√2x is:

(a)   5√2x + 4y − 15 + 4√2 = 0

(b)   4√2x – 5y − 5 + 4√2 = 0

(c)   4√2x + 5y − 4√2 = 0

(d)   4√2x + 5y − (15 + 4√2) = 0

Answer: (d)


21. The number of times digit 3 will be written when listing the integers from 1 to 1000 is ______.

Answer: (300)

22. The equation of the planes parallel to the plane x – 2y + 2z – 3 = 0 which are at unit distance from the point (1, 2, 3) is ax + by + cz + d = 0. If (b – d) = K (c – a), then the positive value of K is ______.

Answer: (4)

23. Let f (x) and g (x) be two functions satisfying f (x2) + g (4 – x) = 4x3 and g (4 –x) + g(x) = 0, then the value of is__________.

Answer: (512)

24. The mean age of 25 teachers in a school is 40 years. A teacher retires at the age of 60 years and a new teacher is appointed in his place. If the mean age of the teachers in this school now is 39 years, then the age (in years) of the newly appointed teacher is ______.

Answer: (35)

25. A square ABCD has all its vertices on the curve x2y2 = 1. The midpoints of its sides also lie on the same curve. Then, the square of the area of ABCD is ______.

Answer: (80)

26. The missing value in the following figure is ______.

Answer: (4)

27. The numbers of solutions of the equation  in the interval [0, 2π] is _______.

Answer: (1)

28. Let z1, z2 be the roots of the equations z2 + az + 12 = 0 and z1, z2 form an equilateral triangle with origin. Then, the value of |a| is ______.

Answer: (6)

29. Let the plane ax + by + cz + d = 0 bisect the line joining the points (4, –3, 1) and (2, 3, –5) at the right angles. If a, b, c, d are integers, then the minimum value of (a2 + b2 + c2 +d2) is ______.

Answer: (28)

30. If  f (0) = 0 and  then the value of K is ________.

Answer: (4)

JEE Main Session 2 March 17th Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key



1. Two identical blocks A and B each of mass m resting on the smooth horizontal floor are connected by a light spring of natural length L and spring constant K. A third block C of mass m moving with a speed v along the line joining A and B collides elastically with A. The maximum compression in the spring is





Answer: (d)

2. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg radius 0.5m is rolling with an initial speed of 1 ms1 goes up an inclined plane which makes an angle of 300 with the horizontal plane, without slipping. How long will the sphere take to return to the starting point A?

(a)  0.80 s

(b)  0.60 s

(c)  0.52 s

(d) 0.57 s

Answer: (d)

3. If one mole of a polyatomic gas has two vibrational modes and β is the ratio of molar specific heats for polyatomic gas β=Cp/ Cv then the value of β is :

(a)  1.35

(b)  1.02

(c)  1.25

(d) 1.2

Answer: (d)

4. Two cells of emf 2E and E with internal resistance r1 and r2 respectively are connected in series to an external resistor R (see figure). The value of R, at which the potential difference across the terminals of the first cell becomes zero is

(a)  r­1 – r2

(b)  r1 + r2



Answer: (d)

5. A sound wave of frequency 245 Hz travels with a speed of 300 ms1 along the positive x-axis. Each point of the medium moves to and fro through a total distance of 6 cm. What will be the mathematical expression of the travelling wave?

(a)  Y (x, t) = 0.03 [ sin 5.1x − (0.2 x 103)t]

(b)  Y (x, t) = 0.06 [ sin 5.1x − (1.5 x 103)t]

(c)  Y (x, t) = 0.06 [ sin 0.8x − (0.5 x 103)t]

(d) Y (x, t) = 0.03 [ sin 5.1x − (1.5 x 103)t]

Answer: (d)

6. A carrier signal C(t) = 25 sin (2.512 × 1010t) is amplitude modulated by a message signal m(t)= 5 sin (1.57 × 108t) and transmitted through an antenna. What will be the bandwidth of the modulated signal?

(a)  1987.5 MHz

(b)  2.01 GHz

(c)  50 MHz

(d) 8 GHz

Answer: (c)

7. Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of spring constants K1 and K2 If the maximum velocities during oscillations are equal, the ratio of the amplitude of A and B is :





Answer: (c)

8. Match List I with List II

List I List II
(a) Phase difference between current and voltage in a purely resistive AC circuit (i) 𝜋/2, current leads voltage
(b) Phase difference between current and voltage in a pure inductive AC circuit (ii) zero
(c) Phase difference between current and voltage in a pure capacitive AC circuit (iii) 𝜋/2, current lags voltage
(d) Phase difference between current and voltage in an LCR series circuit (iv) 

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(a)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(b)  (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (d)

9. A geostationary satellite is orbiting around an arbitrary planet ‘P’ at a height of 11R above the surface of ‘P’, R being the radius of ‘P’. The time period of another satellite in hours at a height of 2R from the surface of ‘P’ is _____. ‘P’ has a time period of rotation of 24 hours.

(a)  6/√2

(b)  3

(c)  6√2

(d) 5

Answer: (d)

10. The velocity of a particle is v=v0 + gt + Ft2. Its position is x = 0 at t = 0; then its displacement after time (t = 1) is :


(b)  v0 + 2g + 3f

(c)  v0 + g + F


Answer: (d)

11. A block of mass 1 kg attached to a spring is made to oscillate with an initial amplitude of 12 cm. After 2 minutes the amplitude decreases to 6 cm. Determine the value of the damping constant for this motion. (take ln 2 = 0.693).

(a)  3.3 × 102 kg s1

(b)  5.7 × 103 kg s−1

(c)  1.16 × 102 kg s−1

(d) 0.69 × 102 kg s−1

Answer: (c)

12. An object is located 2 km beneath the surface of the water. If the fractional compression ∆V/V is 1.36%, the ratio of hydraulic stress to the corresponding hydraulic strain will be ……..

[Given: density of water is 1000 kgm–3 and g= 9.8 ms–2]

(a)  2.26 ×109 Nm2

(b)  1.96 ×109 Nm2

(c)  1.44 ×107 Nm2

(d) 1.44 ×109 Nm2

Answer: (d)

13. Two identical photocathodes receive the light of frequencies f1 and f2 If the velocities of the photo-electrons coming out are v1 and v2 respectively, then





Answer: (d)

14. The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum consisting of various series. Which series of hydrogen atomic spectra lie in the visible region?

(a)  Balmer series

(b)  Lyman series

(c)  Brackett series

(d) Paschen series

Answer: (a)

15. Which one of the following will be the output of the given circuit?

(a)  NAND Gate

(b)  AND Gate

(c)  XOR Gate

(d) NOR Gate

Answer: (c)

16. The four arms of a Wheatstone bridge have resistances as shown in the figure. A galvanometer of 15 resistance is connected across BD. Calculate the current through the galvanometer when a potential difference of 10 V is maintained across AC.

(a)  4.87 mA

(b)  4.87 μA

(c)  2.44 μA

(d) 2.44 mA

Answer: (a)

17. Which one is the correct option depicting the two different thermodynamic processes?

(a)  (c) and (d)

(b)  (b) and (c)

(c)  (a) only

(d) (c) and (a)

Answer: (a)

18. A hairpin-like shape as shown in the figure is made by bending a long current-carrying wire. What is the magnitude of a magnetic field at point P which lies on the centre of the semicircle?





Answer: (b)

19. A rubber ball is released from a height of 5 m above the floor. It bounces back repeatedly, always rising to (81/100) of the height through which it falls. Find the average speed of the ball. (Take g=10 ms2)

(a)  2.50 ms1

(b)  3.50 ms1

(c)  3.0 ms1

(d) 2.0 ms1

Answer: (a)

20. What happens to the inductive reactance and the current in a purely inductive circuit if the frequency is halved?

(a)  Both, including reactance and current, will be doubled

(b)  Both, inductive reactance and current will be halved

(c)  Inductive reactance will be halved and current will be doubled

(d) Inductive reactance will be doubled and current will be halved

Answer: (c)


21. The electric field intensity produced by the radiation coming from a 100 W bulb at a distance of 3 m is E. The electric field intensity produced by the radiation coming from 60 W at the same distance is  Where the value of x = ________

Answer: (3)

22. The image of an object placed in the air formed by a convex refracting surface is at a distance of 10 m behind the surface. The image is real and is at 2nd/3 of the distance of the object from the surface. The wavelength of light inside the surface is 2/3 times the wavelength in air, The radius of the curved surface is x/13 m. The value of ‘x’ is _____

Answer: (30)

23. A 2μF capacitor C1 is first charged to a potential difference of 10V using a battery. Then the battery is removed and the capacitor is connected to an uncharged capacitor C2 of 8 μF. The charge in C2 on equilibrium condition is ________ μC. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (16)

24. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central potential field U(r) =U0r4. If Bohr’s quantization conditions are applied, radii of possible orbital rn vary with n1/α, where α is _____

Answer: (3)

25. The electric field in a region is given by  with  The flux of this field through a rectangular surface are 0.4 m2 parallel to Y-Z plane is _______Nm2C1.

Answer: (640)

26. A body of mass 1 kg rests on a horizontal floor with which it has a coefficient of static friction 1/√3. It is desired to make the body move by applying the minimum possible force F N. The value of F will be __________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

[Take g = 10 ms2]

Answer: (5)

27. Seawater at a frequency f = 9 × 102 Hz, has permittivity ∈ = 80∈0 and resistivity ρ = 0.25 Ωm. Imagine a parallel plate capacitor is immersed in seawater and is driven by an alternating voltage source V(t) = V0 sin(2πft). Then the conduction current density becomes 10x times the displacement current density after time t= 1800. The value of x is __________.

(Given : )

Answer: (6)

28. The disc of mass M with uniform surface mass density σ is shown in the figure. The centre of mass of the quarter disc (the shaded area) is at the position  x is _____(Round off to the Nearest Integer) [a is an area as shown in the figure)

Answer: (4)

29. Suppose you have taken a dilute solution of oleic acid in such a way that its concentration becomes 0.01 cm3 of oleic acid per cm3 of the solution. Then you make a thin film of this solution (monomolecular thickness) of area 4 cm2 by considering 100 spherical drops of radius  Then the thickness of the oleic acid layer will be x × 1014 m where x is _________.

Answer: (25)

30. A boy of mass 4 kg is standing on a piece of wood having mass 5 kg. If the coefficient of friction between the wood and the floor is 0.5, the maximum force that the boy can exert on the rope so that the piece of wood does not move from its place is ________N. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

[Take g = 10 ms2]

Answer: (30)



1. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                                         List-II

Chemical Compound                                Used as

(a) Sucralose                                              (i) Synthetic detergent

(b) Glyceryl ester of stearic acid               (ii) Artificial sweetener

(c) Sodium benzoate                                 (iii) Antiseptic

(d) Bithionol                                             (iv) Food preservative

Choose the correct match:

(a)  (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(b)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(c)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Answer: (b)

2. In the below reactions, enzyme A and enzyme B respectively are:

(a)  Invertase and Amylase

(b)  Amylase and Invertase

(c)  Invertase and Zymase

(d) Zymase and Invertase

Answer: (c)

3. The correct pair(s) of the ambident nucleophiles is (are):



(C) AgNO2/KNO2

(D) AgI/KI

(a)  (A) and (C) only

(b)  (B) only

(c)  (B) and (C) only

(d) (A) only

Answer: (a)

4. During which of the following processes, does entropy decrease?

(A) Freezing of water to ice at 0°C

(B) Freezing of water to ice at -10°C

(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) →2NH3(g)

(D) Adsorption of CO(g) on lead surface.

(E) Dissolution of NaCI in water

(a)  (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

(b)  (A), (C) and (E) only

(c)  (A) and (E) only

(d) (B) and (C) only

Answer: (a)

5. Match List-I with List-II:

List – I                                          List – II

(a) [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6]              (i) Linkage isomerism

(b) [Co(NH3)3 (NO2)3]                  (ii) Solvate isomerism

(c) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3              (iii) Coordination isomerism

(d) cis-[CrCl2(ox)2]3        (iv) Optical isomerism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(b)  (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (a)

6. The common positive oxidation states for an element with atomic number 24, are

(a)  +1 and +3

(b)  +1 to +6

(c)  +1 and +3 to +6

(d) +2 to +6

Answer: (d)

7. The set of elements that differ in a mutual relationship from those of the other sets is:

(a)  Be – Al

(b)  Li – Na

(c)  B – Si

(d) Li – Mg

Answer: (b)

8. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: 2-methyl butane on oxidation with KMnO4 gives 2-methyl butane-2-ol.

Statement II: n-alkanes can be easily oxidized to corresponding alcohols with KMnO4.

Choose the correct option:

(a)  Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(b)  Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(c)  Both statement I and statement II are correct

(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Answer: (b)

9. Amongst the following, the linear species is:

(a)  N3

(b)  Cl2O

(c)  O3

(d) NO2

Answer: (a)

10. For the coagulation of a negative sol, the species below, that has the highest flocculating power is:

(a)  SO42

(b)  Na+

(c)  Ba2+

(d) PO43

Answer: (c)

11. The functional groups that are responsible for the ion-exchange property of cation and anion exchange resins, respectively, are:

(a)  –SO3H and –COOH

(b)  –SO3H and –NH2

(c)  –NH2 and –SO3H

(d) –NH2 and –COOH

Answer: (b)

12. Choose the correct statement regarding the formation of carbocations A and B given.

(a)  Carbocation A is more stable and formed relatively at a faster rate

(b)  Carbocation B is more stable and formed relatively at a faster rate

(c)  Carbocation A is more stable and formed relatively at a slow rate

(d) Carbocation B is more stable and formed relatively at a slow rate

Answer: (b)

13. In the below reaction, the structural formula of (A), “X” and “Y” respectively are:

Answer: (b)

14. Fructose is an example of:

(a)  Heptose

(b)  Aldohexose

(c)  Pyranose

(d) Ketohexose

Answer: (d)

15. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) the incorrect reason for eutrophication?

(A) excess usage of fertilisers

(B) excess usage of detergents

(C) dense plant population in water bodies

(D) lack of nutrients in water bodies that prevent plant growth

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (D) only

(b)  (C) only

(c)  (B) and (D) only

(d) (A) only

Answer: (a)

16. Primary, secondary and tertiary amines can be separated using:

(a)  Para-Toluene sulphonyl chloride

(b)  Chloroform and KOH

(c)  Acetyl amide

(d) Benzene sulphonic acid

Answer: (a)

17. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                 List-II

(a) Haematite                    (i) Al2O3. xH2O

(b) Bauxite                        (ii) Fe2O3

(c) Magnetite                     (iii) CuCO3. Cu(OH)2

(d) Malachite                     (iv) Fe3O4

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(b)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(c)  (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (d)

18. The set that represents the pair of neutral oxides of nitrogen is:

(a)  NO and N2O

(b)  NO and NO2

(c)  N2O and NO2

(d) N2O and N2O3

Answer: (a)

19. Nitrogen can be estimated by Kjeldahl’s method for which of the following compound?

Answer: (d)

20. One of the by-products formed during the recovery of NH3 from Solvay process is:

(a)  NaHCO3

(b)  Ca(OH)2

(c)  CaCl2

(d) NH4Cl

Answer: (c)


21. The reaction 2A + B2→ 2AB is an elementary reaction. For a certain quantity of reactants, if the volume of the reaction vessel is reduced by a factor of 3, the rate of the reaction increases by a factor of ……………. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (27)

22. In the ground state of atomic Fe (Z = 26), the spin-only magnetic moment is ……………..x 101 (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given: √3 = 1.73, √2 = 1.41]

Answer: (49)

23. Consider the below-given reaction. The percentage yield of an amide product is ………………. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). [Given: Atomic mass: C: 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, N : 14.0, O : 16.0 u, Cl : 35.5 u]

Answer: (77)

24. On complete reaction of FeCl3 with oxalic acid in an aqueous solution containing KOH, resulted in the formation of product A. The secondary valency of Fe in the product A is …………..(Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (6)

25. Consider the reaction N2O4 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g). The temperature at which KC = 20.4 and KP = 600.1, is …………………. K. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). [Assume all gases are ideal and R = 0.0831 L bar K1 mol1]

Answer: (354)

26. A KCl solution of conductivity 0.14 S m-1 shows a resistance of 4.19 Ω in a conductivity cell. If the same cell is filled with an HCl solution, the resistance drops 1.03 Ω. The conductivity of the HCl solution is ……………….. × 102 S m1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (56)

27. A 1 molal K4Fe(CN)6 solution has a degree of dissociation of 0.4. Its boiling point is equal to that of another solution which contains 18.1 weight per cent of a nonelectrolyte solute A. The molar mass of A is …………… g/mol. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (85)

28. The number of chlorine atoms in 20 mL of chlorine gas at STP is ………1021. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Assume chlorine is an ideal gas at STP

R=0.083 L bar mol1 K1, NA = 6.023 × 1023]

Answer: (1)

29. KBr is doped with 105 mole per cent of SrBr2. The number of cationic vacancies in 1 g of KBr crystal is ……… 1014. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Atomic Mass: K = 39.1 u, Br = 79.9 u, NA = 6.023 × 1023]

Answer: (5)

30 The total number of C–C sigma bond/s in mesityl oxide (C6H10O) is …… (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (5)



1. If the Boolean expression (p ∧ q) ⍟ (p ⊗ q) is a tautology, then ⍟ and ⊗ are respectively given by :

(a)  ∧, →

(b)  →, →

(c)  ∨, →

(d) ∧, ∨

Answer: (b)

2. Let the tangent to the circle x2 + y2 = 25 at the point R (3, 4) meet the x-axis and y-axis at points P and Q, respectively. If r is the radius of the circle passing through the origin O and having a centre at the incentre of the triangle OPQ, then r2 is equal to:

(a)  625/72

(b)  585/66

(c)  125/72

(d) 529/64

Answer: (a)

3. Let a computer program generate only the digits 0 and 1 to form a string of binary numbers with a probability of occurrence of 0 at even places be 1/2 and probability of occurrence of 0 at the odd place be 1/3. Then the probability that ‘10’ is followed by ‘01’ is equal to :

(a)  1/6

(b)  1/18

(c)  1/9

(d) 1/3

Answer: (c)

4. The number of solutions of the equation x + 2 tan x = π/2 in the interval [0, 2π] is :

(a)  5

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d) 3

Answer: (d)

5. If the equation of the plane passing through the mirror image of a point (2, 3, 1) with respect to line  and containing the line  is ɑx + βy + γz = 24, then, then ɑ + β + γ is equal to:

(a)  21

(b)  19

(c)  18

(d) 20

Answer: (b)

6. Consider the function f : R → R defined by  Then f is

(a)  monotonic on (0, ∞) only

(b)  Not monotonic on (–∞, 0) and (0, ∞)

(c)  monotonic on (–∞, 0) only

(d) monotonic on (–∞, 0) ⋃ (0, ∞)

Answer: (b)

7. Let O be the origin. Let  x, y ∈ R, x > 0, be such that |PQ| = √20 and the vector   is perpendicular to If  z ∈ R, is coplanar with  then the value of x2 + y2 + z2 is equal to:

(a)  2

(b)  9

(c)  1

(d) 7

Answer: (b)

8. Let L be a tangent line to the parabola y2 = 4x – 20 at (6, 2). If L is also a tangent to the ellipse  then the value of b is equal to:

(a)  20

(b)  14

(c)  16

(d) 11

Answer: (b)

9. Let f : R → R be defined as f (x) = e–x sin x. If F : [0,1] R→ is a differentiable function such that  then the value of  lies in the interval

(a)  [330/360, 331/360]

(b)  [327/360, 329/360]

(c)  [331/360, 334/360]

(d) [335/360, 336/360]

Answer: (a)

10. If x, y, z are in arithmetic progression with common difference d, x ≠ 3d, and the determinant of the matrix  is zero, then the value of k2 is :

(a)  6

(b)  36

(c)  72

(d) 12

Answer: (c)

11. If the integral  where ɑ, β, γ are integers and [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, then the value of ɑ + β + γ is equal to:

(a)  20

(b)  0

(c)  25

(d) 10

Answer: (b)

12. Let y = y (x) be the solution of the differential equation cos x (3 sin x + cos x + 3) dy = (1 + y sin x (3 sin x + cos x + 3)) dx, 0 ≤ x ≤ π/2, y(0) = 0. Then, y (π/3) is equal to :





Answer: (a)

13. The value of the limit  is equal to:

(a)  −1/2

(b)  −1/4

(c)  0

(d) 1/4

Answer: (a)

14. If the curve y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation 2 (x2 + x5/4) dy − y (x + x1/4) dx = 2x9/4 dx, x > 0 which passes through the point  then the value of y(16) is equal to:





Answer: (d)

15. Let S1, S2 and S3 be three sets defined as S1 = {z ∈ C : |z – 1| ≤ √2}, S2 = {z ∈ C : Re ((1 – i) z) ≥ 1}, S3 = {z ∈ C : Im (z) ≤ 1}. Then the set S1 ⋂ S2 ⋂ S3

(a)  has infinitely many elements

(b)  has exactly two elements

(c)  has exactly three elements

(d) is a singleton

Answer: (a)

16. If the sides AB, BC, and CA of a triangle ABC have, 3, 5 and 6 interior points respectively, then the total number of triangles that can be constructed using these points as vertices is equal to:

(a)  360

(b)  240

(c)  333

(d) 364

Answer: (c)

17. The value of   where r is a non-zero real number and [r] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to r, is equal to:

(a)  0

(b)  r

(c)  r/2

(d) 2r

Answer: (c)

18. The value of The value of  is equal to:

(a)  1124

(b)  924

(c)  1324

(d) 1024

Answer: (b)

19. Two tangents are drawn from a point P to the circle x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y + 4 = 0, such that the angle between these tangents is If the centre of the circle is denoted by C and these tangents touch the circle at points A and B, then the ratio of the areas of △PAB and △CAB is :

(a)  11 : 4

(b)  9 : 4

(c)  2 : 1

(d) 3 : 1

Answer: (b)

20. The number of solutions of the equation  and [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, is:

(a)  0

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d) Infinite

Answer: (a)


21. Let the coefficients of third, fourth and fifth terms in the expansion of  be in the ratio 12:8:3. Then the term independent of x in the expansion is equal to ………

Answer: (4)

22. Let  such that AB = B and a + d = 2021, then the value of ad-bc is equal to …………….

Answer: (2020)

23. Let f : [–1,1] → R be defined as f (x) = ax2 + bx + c for all x ∈ [–1, 1], where a, b, c ∈ R such that f (–1) = 2, f’ (–1) = 1 and for x ∈ [–1, 1] the maximum value of f’’ (x) is 1/2. If f (x) ≤ ɑ, x ∈ [–1, 1], then the least value of ɑ is equal to …………… .

Answer: (5)

24. Let where n ∈ If (20)I10 = αI9 + βIB, for natural numbers α and β, then α – β equal to ………………… .

Answer: (1)

25. Let f : [−3, 1] → R be given as

If the area bounded by y = f(x) and x-axis is A, then the value of 6A is equal to …………… .

Answer: (41)

26. Let  be a vector in the plane containing vectors  If the vector is perpendicular to   and its projection on  then the value of  is equal to ……………… .

Answer: (486)

27. Consider a set of 3n numbers having variance 4. In this set, the mean of the first 2n numbers is 6 and the mean of the remaining n numbers is 3. A new set is constructed by adding 1 into each of the first 2n numbers and subtracting 1 from each of the remaining n numbers. If the variance of the new set is k, then 9k is equal to ………………..

Answer: (68)

28. If 1, log10(4x – 2) and  are in arithmetic progression for a real number x, then the value of the determinant  is equal to:

Answer: (2)

29. Let P be an arbitrary point having the sum of the squares of the distances from the planes x + y + z = 0, lx – nz = 0 and x – 2y + z = 0, equal to 9. If the locus of the point P is x2 + y2 +z2 = 9, then the value of l – n is equal to ………………

Answer: (0)

30. Let tan α, tan β and tan γ;  be the slopes of three-line segment OA, OB and OC, respectively, where O is the origin. If the circumcentre of ∆ABC coincides with the origin and its orthocentre lies on the y-axis, then the value of  is equal to

Answer: (144)

JEE Main Session 2 March 17th Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key



1. The vernier scale used for measurement has a positive zero error of 0.2 mm. If while taking a measurement it was noted that ‘o’ on the vernier scale lies between 8.5 cm and 8.6 cm, vernier coincidence is 6, then the correct value of the measurement is ……………………. cm. (least count = 0.01 cm)

(a)  8.36 cm

(b)  8.56 cm

(c)  8.58 cm

(d) 8.54 cm

Answer: (d)

2. For what value of displacement do the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillation become equal?

(a)  x = A/2

(b)  x = 0

(c)  x = ±A

(d) x = ± A/√2

Answer: (d)

3. An electron of mass m and a photon have the same energy E. The ratio of the wavelength of an electron to that of the photon is : (c being the velocity of light)

(a)  (E/2m)1/2


(c)  c(2mE)1/2


Answer: (b)

4. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate for some time after which it decelerates at a constant rate to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t seconds, the total distance travelled is :





Answer: (a)

5. A Carnot’s engine working between 400 K and 800 K has a work output of 1200 J per cycle. The amount of heat energy supplied to the engine from the source in each cycle is :

(a)  1800 J

(b)  3200 J

(c)  2400 J

(d) 1600 J

Answer: (c)

6. A mass M hangs on a massless rod of length l which rotates at a constant angular frequency. The mass M moves with the steady speed in a circular path of constant radius. Assume that the system is in a steady circular motion with constant angular velocity ω. The angular momentum of M about point A is LA which lies in the positive z-direction and the angular momentum of M about point B is LB. The correct statement for this system is:

(a)  LA and LB are both constant in magnitude and direction

(b)  LB is constant, both in magnitude and direction

(c)  LA is constant, both in magnitude and direction

(d) LB is constant in direction with varying magnitude

Answer: (c)

7. Two ideal polyatomic gases at temperatures T1 and T2 are mixed so that there is no loss of energy. If F1 and F2, m1 and m2, n1 and n2 be the degrees of freedom, masses, the number of molecules of the first and second gas respectively, the temperature of the mixture of these two gases is :





Answer: (a)

8. The output of the given combination gates represents :

(a)  XOR Gate

(b)  NOR Gate

(c)  NAND Gate

(d) AND Gate

Answer: (c)

9. A triangular plate is as shown. A force is  applied at point P. The torque at point P with respect to point ‘O’ and ‘Q’ are :

(a)  15 – 20√3, 15 + 20√3

(b)  15 + 20√3, 15 – 20√3

(c)  –15 + 20√3, 15 + 20√3

(d) –15–20√3, 15 – 20√3

Answer: (d)

10. A modern grand-prix racing car of mass m is travelling on a flat track in a circular arc of radius R with a speed v. If the coefficient of static friction between the tyres and the track is μs, then the magnitude of negative lift F1acting downwards on the car is : (Assume forces on the four tyres are identical and g = acceleration due to gravity)