State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2018 Class-VIII Held on 5 November, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2018 Class-VIII

Held on 5 November, 2017

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test (GMAT)

Directions-(Q. 1-10) In each of the following questions, a series of numbers is given which follow certain rules. One of the number is missing. Find out the number from the alternatives given below and mark it on  your answer-sheet as directed.

1. 2 – 0 – 4 – 0 – 16 – 0 ……

(A)  32

(B)  64

(C)  168

(D)  256

Answer: (D)

2. 2, 6, 12, 20, …….., 42, 56, 72, 90

(A)  28

(B)  30

(C)  35

(D)  39

Answer: (B)

3. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, ……

(A)  45

(B)  50

(C)  65

(D)  63

Answer: (C)

4. 6, 9, 15, 27, …….99

(A)  77

(B)  51

(C)  67

(D)  81

Answer: (B)

5. 121, 112, ……, 97, 91, 86

(A)  104

(B)  102

(C)  107

(D)  105

Answer: (A)

6. 8, 4, 12, 6, 18, ……… 27

(A)  22

(B)  15

(C)  9

(D)  11

Answer: (C)

7. 4, 7, 12, …….., 28, 39

(A)  21

(B)  19

(C)  23

(D)  25

Answer: (B)

8. b, e, d, f, ?, h, j, ?, l

(A)  i. m

(B)  m, i

(C)  I, n

(D)  j, m

Answer: (A)

9. U, Q, ?, L

(A)  I

(B)  K

(C)  M

(D)  N

Answer: (D)

10. Y, S, U, Q, Q, ?, ?

(A)  O, M

(B)  N, J

(C)  J, R

(D)  M, L

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. 11-20) Study the pattern of numbers in the following questions and select the missing numbers in place of question mark (?). Mark the correct alternative on your answer-sheet as directed.

11. 

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  5

Answer: (C)

12. 

(A)  18

(B)  26

(C)  24

(D)  15

Answer: (B)

13. 

(A)  38

(B)  37

(C)  36

(D)  35

Answer: (A)

14. 

(A)  7

(B)  12

(C)  8

(D)  6

Answer: (D)

15. 

(A)  7

(B)  12

(C)  9

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

16. 

(A)  7

(B)  11

(C)  12

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

17. 

(A)  9

(B)  11

(C)  6

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

18. 

(A)  88

(B)  64

(C)  72

(D)  68

Answer: (B)

19. 

(A)  6

(B)  5

(C)  7

(D)  8

Answer: (A)

20. 

(A)  39

(B)  37

(C)  32

(D)  44

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 21-25) Study the following figure and answer the questions given below.

21. How many doctors are neither artists nor players?

(A)  17

(B)  22

(C)  30

(D)  25

Answer: (A)

22. How many doctors are both players and artists?

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  8

(D)  17

Answer: (B)

23. How many artists are players?

(A)  17

(B)  25

(C)  30

(D)  22

Answer: (D)

24. How many players are neither artists nor doctors?

(A)  17

(B)  30

(C)  25

(D)  22

Answer: (C)

25. How many artists are neither players nor doctors?

(A)  25

(B)  30

(C)  8

(D)  22

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. 26-40) In each of the following questions, find the figure from the answer-set (i.e., 1, 2, 3, 4) which will complete the figure given in the problem set (i.e., X)

26. 

Answer: (B)

27. 

Answer: (A)

28. 

Answer: (C)

29. 

Answer: (C)

30. 

Answer: (C)

31. 

Answer: (D)

32. 

Answer: (D)

33. 

Answer: (B)

34. 

Answer: (A)

35. 

Answer: (B)

36. 

Answer: (B)

37. 

Answer: (C)

38. 

Answer: (C)

39. 

Answer: (C)

40. 

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 41-50) In each of the following questions four groups of letters are given. Three of them are alike in some manner, while one is different. Find the odd-man-out and mark it on your answer-sheet directed.

41.

(A)  QPO

(B)  DCA

(C)  KJI

(D)  NML

Answer: (B)

42.

(A)  JAK

(B)  KBL

(C)  LCM

(D)  NDM

Answer: (D)

43.

(A)  ELFA

(B)  GLHA

(C)  ILJA

(D)  MLNA

Answer: (D)

44.

(A)  KPD

(B)  LOE

(C)  MQF

(D)  NMG

Answer: (B)

45.

(A)  AXUP

(B)  ONKN

(C)  GFKD

(D)  VSPM

Answer: (B)

46.

(A)  RAB

(B)  SCD

(C)  TEF

(D)  UHI

Answer: (B)

47.

(A)  ACEG

(B)  MOQS

(C)  GHJL

(D)  RTUX

Answer: (C)

48.

(A)  CYWZ

(B)  EYYZ

(C)  GYBZ

(D)  IYCZ

Answer: (B)

49.

(A)  MRNS

(B)  ORPS

(C)  QRRS

(D)  SYTZ

Answer: (C)

50.

(A)  P3C

(B)  R5F

(C)  T8I

(D)  V12L

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 51-60) In each of the following questions there is a certain relation between two numbers given on the left side of ::, Choose the correct alternative in place of ‘?’ So that the same relationship is maintained on the right side of ::. Mark the correct alternative on your answer-sheet as directed.

51. 3 : 11 :: 7 : ?

(A)  25

(B)  51

(C)  48

(D)  28

Answer: (B)

52. 1 : 1 :: 25 : ?

(A)  26

(B)  125

(C)  240

(D)  625

Answer: (D)

53. 49 : 81 :: 100 : ?

(A)  64

(B)  144

(C)  169

(D)  188

Answer: (B)

54. 121 : 12 :: 25 : ?

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  6

(D)  7

Answer: (C)

55. 18 : 30 :: 36 : ?

(A)  33

(B)  45

(C)  67

(D)  66

Answer: (D)

56. 25 : 125 :: 36 : ?

(A)  180

(B)  206

(C)  216

(D)  196

Answer: (C)

57. 17 : 52 :: 1 : ?

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  5

(D)  51

Answer: (B)

58. 9 : 80 :: 100 : ?

(A)  901

(B)  1009

(C)  9889

(D)  9999

Answer: (D)

59. 25 : 37 :: 49 : ?

(A)  65

(B)  56

(C)  60

(D)  41

Answer: (A)

60. 5 : 36 :: 6 : ?

(A)  48

(B)  49

(C)  50

(D)  56

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 61-70) In the given questions below, A dice has been shown in more than one form. One which 1 to 6 numbers or A to F alphabets are printed on its sides. Study the different forms carefully in the given questions and answer them accordingly.

61. One the dice given below, Number 5 is at the bottom. Which number will appear on its upper surface?

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

62. Below two positions of dice are shown. If there is ‘B’ in the bottom, then which alphabet will be on the top?

(A)  D

(B)  B

(C)  E

(D)  F

Answer: (C)

63. Two positions of a dice with its surfaces are shown below. When the surface ‘D’ touch the bottom, what surface will be on top?

(A)  D

(B)  A

(C)  E

(D)  F

Answer: (B)

64. Two positions of a dice are shown. When ‘E’ is at the top which alphabet will be at bottom?

(A)  D

(B)  C

(C)  E

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

65. On the dice given below, mention the number which appears on the opposite side of number 4?

(A)  1

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  5

Answer: (A)

66. From the positions of a dice which are shown below, which letter will be on the face opposite to face with ‘1’?

(A)  5

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  6

Answer: (B)

67. Below four positions of a Dice is shown. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to face with symbol ‘C’?

(A)  F

(B)  E

(C)  B

(D)  D

Answer: (A)

68. Two positions of dice are shown below. What number will appear on the face opposite to the face with ‘5’?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

69. On the dice given below, mention the number which appears on the opposite side of number 2?

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  5

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

70. From the positions of a dice given below. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to face with ‘1’?

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  5

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. 71-80) In each of the following questions, four words are given. Three of them are alike in some manner, while one is different. Find the odd-man-out and mark it on your answer-

71.

(A)  India

(B)  Asia

(C)  Antarctica

(D)  Australia

Answer: (B)

72.

(A)  Hard disk

(B)  RAM

(C)  Monitor

(D)  Windows XP

Answer: (D)

73.

(A)  Tyre

(B)  Speed

(C)  Clutch

(D)  Brake

Answer: (B)

74.

(A)  Cricket

(B)  Volleyball

(C)  Billiards

(D)  Fencing

Answer: (D)

75.

(A)  Teacher

(B)  Student

(C)  Principal

(D)  Lecturer

Answer: (B)

76.

(A)  Lion

(B)  Fox

(C)  Deer

(D)  Tiger

Answer: (C)

77.

(A)  Banana

(B)  Apple

(C)  Papaya

(D)  Mango

Answer: (D)

78.

(A)  Run

(B)  Jump

(C)  Hear

(D)  Walk

Answer: (C)

79.

(A)  Nail

(B)  Pin

(C)  Hammer

(D)  Screw

Answer: (A)

80.

(A)  Butterfly

(B)  Cockroach

(C)  Housefly

(D)  Spider

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 81-90) Study the following questions and answer accordingly.

81. If – means ×, × means +, + means ÷ and ÷ means -, then 40 × 12 + 3 – 6 ÷ 60 = ?

(A)  4

(B)  8

(C)  10

(D)  32

Answer: (A)

82. If + means ÷, − means ×, ÷ means + and × means −, then 36 + 12 – 3 ÷ 5 × 2 = ?

(A)  4

(B)  12

(C)  16

(D)  24

Answer: (B)

83. If + means ÷, × means −, ÷ means × and – means +, then 8 + 6 × 4 ÷ 3 – 4 = ?

(A)  40/5

(B)  20/3

(C)  30/4

(D)  15/4

Answer: (B)

84. If × means ÷, − means ×, ÷ means + and + means −, then (3 – 15 ÷ 19) × 8 + 6 = ?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  8

(D)  7

Answer: (B)

85. If + means ×, ÷ means −, × means ÷ and – means +, then 4 + 11 ÷ 5 – 55 = ?

(A)  72

(B)  84

(C)  94

(D)  67

Answer: (C)

86. If ‘p’ means ‘−’, ‘q’ means ‘+’, ‘r’ means ‘÷’ and ‘s’ means ‘×’, then 16 p 4 q 5 s 8 r 2 = ?

(A)  −8

(B)  32

(C)  20

(D)  12

Answer: (B)

87. If ‘P’ means ‘÷’, ‘Q’ means ‘−’, ‘R’ means ‘×’ and ‘T’ means ‘+’, then

24T16Q32P8R4

(A)  4

(B)  32

(C)  40

(D)  24

Answer: (D)

88. If ‘M’ means ‘÷’, ‘R’ means ‘+’, ‘T’ means ‘−’ and ‘K’ means ‘×’, then

20R16K5M10T8 = ?

(A)  20

(B)  36

(C)  12

(D)  28

Answer: (A)

89. If ‘Q’ means ‘−’, ‘B’ means ‘×’, ‘A’ means ‘÷’ and ‘F’ means ‘+’, then

12B20A4Q10F30 = ?

(A)  60

(B)  70

(C)  80

(D)  90

Answer: (C)

90. If 1 = 1, 2 = 4, 3 = 10 and 4 = 22, then 5 = ?

(A)  46

(B)  32

(C)  34

(D)  42

Answer: (D)

Part-II

Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

Physics

1. A 9 kg mass and a 4 k mass have same kinetic energies. The ratio of their linear momentum is :

(A)  3 : 2

(B)  2 : 3

(C)  9 : 4

(D)  4 : 9

Answer: (A)

2. Find the frequency and wavelength of a wave whose time-period is 0.05 s and speed is 200 m/s.

(A)  5 Hz, 40 m

(B)  2 Hz. 400 m

(C)  20 Hz, 10 m

(D)  20 Hz, 4000 m

Answer: (C)

3. Supersonic planes fly with speed-

(A)  Less than the speed of sound

(B)  Equal to the speed of sound

(C)  Greater than the speed of sound

(D)  Double the speed of sound

Answer: (C)

4. A man walks 8 m towards East and then 6 m towards North. His magnitude of displacement is-

(A)  10 m

(B)  14 m

(C)  2 m

(D)  zero

Answer: (A)

5. The light from sun takes 500 s to reach the earth. Taking speed of light to be 3 × 108 m/s, the sun-earth distance is-

(A)  100 million km

(B)  100 million km

(C)  200 million km

(D)  300 million km

Answer: (B)

6. Which of the following does not exist?

(A)  Single charge

(B)  Single magnetic pole

(C)  Bar magnet

(D)  Electric dipole

Answer: (B)

7. 100 nano second is-

(A)  100 s

(B)  109 s

(C)  1011 s

(D)  107 s

Answer: (D)

8. Ultrasonic waves are those waves-

(A)  which a man can hear

(B)  which a man cannot hear

(C)  which have velocity greater than the velocity of sound

(D)  which have very high intensity

Answer: (C)

9. The force of gravitation between two spheres is x, when the distance between their centres is y . If the two are immersed in water, gravitational force will be-

(A)  x/1.5           

(B)  1.5 x

(C)  x

(D)  Zero

Answer: (C)

10. At what common temperature would a piece of wood and a piece of iron appear to be equally hot or cold, when touched?

(A)  0°C

(B)  100°C

(C)  273°C

(D)  At body temperature

Answer: (D)

11. Wavelength of light is maximum for which colour?

(A)  Violet

(B)  Red

(C)  orange

(D)  Yellow

Answer: (B)

Chemistry

12. Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment led to the conclusion that-

(A)  Mass and energy are related

(B)  Mass and the positive charge of an atom are concentrated in the nucleus

(C)  Neutrons are present in the nucleus

(D)  Atoms are electrically neutral

Answer: (B)

13. In the following reaction Phosphorous will be-

P4 + 3KOH + 3H2O → 3KH2PO2 + PH3

(A)  Only oxidized

(B)  Only reduced

(C)  Oxidized as well as reduced

(D)  Neither oxidized nor reduced

Answer: (C)

14. Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

(A)  Benzene

(B)  Ethane

(C)  Neopentane

(D)  All of these

Answer: (B)

15. NiO adopts NaCl structure. The coordination number of the Ni2+ ion is-

(A)  Six

(B)  Four

(C)  Two

(D)  One

Answer: (A)

16. Matte contains (in copper metallurgy)-

(A)  Cu2S, FeS and Silica

(B)  Cu2S, FeO and Silica

(C)  Cu2S, CuO and Silica

(D)  Cu2S, Cu2O and Silica

Answer: (A)

17. Glycerol can be purified by-

(A)  Steam distillation

(B)  Simple distillation

(C)  Vacuum distillation

(D)  Extraction with a solvent

Answer: (A)

18. Assertion-Reason Questions-

(a) If the assertion as well as reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If the assertion as well as reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) If the assertion is correct but reason is not

(d) If the reason is correct but assertion is not

Assertion : HF has low volatility.

Reason : There is a extensive hydrogen bonding in HF.

Choose the appropriate answer-

(A)  (a)

(B)  (b)

(C)  (c)

(D)  (d)

Answer: (A)

19. Which of the following properties of carbon is mainly responsible for its ability to form a large number of compounds?

(A)  Quadri-covalency

(B)  Ability to form multiple bonds

(C)  Ability to form ring compounds

(D)  Strong catenation property

Answer: (D)

20. The pH of 1010 M H2SO4 will be almost-

(A)  4

(B)  7

(C)  6

(D)  10

Answer: (D)

21. The metal atoms presents in the vitamin B12 and chlorophyll respectively are-

(A)  Fe and Co

(B)  Fe and Mg

(C)  Co and Mg

(D)  Fe and Zn

Answer: (C)

22. The first law of thermodynamics introduces the concepts of-

(A)  Heat (q)

(B)  Energy and equivalence of heat and work

(C)  Work

(D)  Energy and equivalence of temperature and work

Answer: (D)

Biology

23. Which of the following groups of plants are known as ‘Amphibians’ in the Plant Kingdom.

(A)  Bryophytes

(B)  Pteridophytes

(C)  Algae

(D)  Planktons

Answer: (A)

24. Inside the uterus, the embryo is protected by the-

(A)  umbilical cord

(B)  fallopian tube

(C)  amniotic sac

(D)  placenta

Answer: (C)

25. Habitat destruction is usually the main cause for the loss of-

(A)  Community

(B)  Species

(C)  Ecosystem

(D)  Biodiversity

Answer: (D)

26. Group of organisms capable of interbreeding are known as-

(A)  Genus

(B)  Species

(C)  Community

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

27. Which of the following pairs of vegetables represent the correct homologous structure.

(A)  Sweet Potato and Potato

(B)  Potato and Tomato

(C)  Radish and Carrot

(D)  Carrot and Potato

Answer: (C)

28. Our body produces specialized chemicals to fight against infection and diseases. They are known as-

(A)  Antibiotics

(B)  Antigens

(C)  Antibodies

(D)  Enzyme

Answer: (C)

29. Animals which gives birth to young ones which are similar to their parents are known as

(A)  Viviparous

(B)  Oviparous

(C)  Fissiparous

(D)  Domesticus

Answer: (A)

30. Which of the following is regarded as a link between bacteria and viruses?

(A)  Actinomycetes

(B)  Mycoplasma

(C)  Vibrio

(D)  Lysosomes

Answer: (B)

31. In the agriculture of paddy, one of the following is used as bio-fertilizer.

(A)  Green Algae

(B)  Brown Algae

(C)  Cyanobacteria

(D)  Earthworm

Answer: (A)

32. The plants, animals, microbes, soil, climate, water in place collectively refers to-

(A)  Biological Kingdom

(B)  Forest

(C)  Ecosystem

(D)  Biosphere

Answer: (C)

33. Plants growing on sand are known as-

(A)  Lithophytes

(B)  Xerophytes

(C)  Chasmophytes

(D)  Psamophytes

Answer: (D)

34. Which of the vitamin deficiency causes the cracking of lips in human-

(A)  Vitamin A

(B)  Vitamin K

(C)  Vitamin C

(D)  Vitamin B

Answer: (D)

35. The ability of organism to develop whole body from its fragment is known as-

(A)  Binary fission

(B)  Budding

(C)  Regeneration

(D)  Grafting

Answer: (C)

History

36. Vasco da Gama reached Calicut, India on-

(A)  1398

(B)  1495

(C)  1496

(D)  1498

Answer: (D)

37. Diu was the colony of the-

(A)  Portuguese

(B)  English

(C)  Dutch

(D)  French

Answer: (A)

38. In 1612 ………. established a trading post in Gujarat.

(A)  British

(B)  French

(C)  Spainish

(D)  Dutch

Answer: (A)

39. In 1661 the company obtained …. from Charles II.

(A)  Bombay

(B)  Madras

(C)  Kanpur

(D)  Calcutta

Answer: (A)

40. Warren Hastings was appointed as the Governor of …. in 1772.

(A)  Bengal

(B)  Madras

(C)  Bombay

(D)  Delhi

Answer: (A)

41. Regulating Act was in the year of-

(A)  1573

(B)  1673

(C)  1773

(D)  1873

Answer: (C)

42. Hyder Ali was the ruler of-

(A)  Hyderabad

(B)  Mysore

(C)  Cochi

(D)  Bengal

Answer: (B)

43. The Treaty of Mangalore was in the year-

(A)  1484

(B)  1584

(C)  1684

(D)  1784

Answer: (D)

44. Who among the following leaders joined Gandhiji in the Champaran Satyagraha held on April 10, 1917?

(A)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(B)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(C)  Rajendra Prasad

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

45. In which year, first census was conducted in India?

(A)  1884

(B)  1872

(C)  1881

(D)  1856

Answer: (B)

46. What was elected the President of Indian National Congress in the Surat Session 1907 famous for Surat Split?

(A)  Dr. Rash Bihari Ghosh

(B)  Lala Lajpat Rai

(C)  Dadabhai Naoroji

(D)  Pherozeshah Mehta

Answer: (A)

47. Who among the following was the first Indian woman president to chair the Indian National Congress at Kanpur session of 1925?

(A)  Sarojini Naidu

(B)  Annie Besant

(C)  Nellie Sengupta

(D)  Indira Gandhi

Answer: (A)

Geography

48. Which of the following is not a factor of soil formation?

(A)  Climate

(B)  Organic matter

(C)  Time

(D)  Soil Texture

Answer: (C)

49. Which of the following is also called ‘Black Gold’?

(A)  Diamond

(B)  Petroleum

(C)  Coal

(D)  Graphite

Answer: (B)

50. The deposit of which of the following is found in Dead Sea?

(A)  Gypsum

(B)  Limestone

(C)  Potash

(D)  Bromine

Answer: (B)

51. Kaziranga National Park is located in-

(A)  Kashmir

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Assam

(D)  Manipur

Answer: (C)

52. Terrace farming is practised in-

(A)  Plain area

(B)  Desert area

(C)  Hilly area

(D)  Coastal area

Answer: (C)

53. Which of the following is known as Sunrise industry?

(A)  Iron and Steel

(B)  Cotton Textile

(C)  Information Technology

(D)  Sugar Industry

Answer: (C)

54. Which country is a leading producer of copper in the world?

(A)  Bolivia

(B)  Chile

(C)  Ghana

(D)  Zimbabwe

Answer: (B)

55. The population pyramid represents-

(A)  Age Composition of population

(B)  Sex Composition of population

(C)  (A) and (B) Both

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

56. Salal hydroelectric Project is located in-

(A)  Karnataka

(B)  Uttarakhand

(C)  Assam

(D)  Jammu and Kashmir

Answer: (D)

57. The Canal joining Lake Superior and Lake Huron is-

(A)  Panama Canal

(B)  Soo Canal

(C)  Suez Canal

(D)  Kiel Canal

Answer: (B)

58. Which of the following is a plantation crop?

(A)  Rice

(B)  Maize

(C)  Wheat

(D)  Tea

Answer: (D)

Civics

59. Who is the Constitutional Head of the State Government-

(A)  President

(B)  Prime Minister

(C)  Governor

(D)  Speaker of Legislative Assembly

Answer: (C)

60. The Indian Constitutional mandates that India is-

(A)  Secular

(B)  Socialist

(C)  Democratic

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

61. Adult suffrage is the basis of-

(A)  Democracy

(B)  Dictatorship

(C)  Autocracy

(D)  Communism

Answer: (A)

62. The rights guaranteed by the Constitution are called-

(A)  Government Rights

(B)  Optional Rights

(C)  Economic Rights

(D)  Fundamental Rights

Answer: (D)

63. Who convenes the joint session of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?

(A)  The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B)  The Chairman of Rajay Sabha

(C)  President

(D)  The Minister of Parliamentary affairs

Answer: (C)

64. By which of the following words, democracy is derived-

(A)  Status

(B)  Polis

(C)  Demos and Kratos

(D)  Civitas

Answer: (C)

65. Writs can be issued by-

(A)  The Supreme Court only

(B)  The High Court only

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  All the courts

Answer: (C)

66. Which of the following is not an organ of Government-

(A)  Legislature

(B)  Executive

(C)  Judiciary

(D)  Election Commission of India

Answer: (D)

67. Which of the following is not a tool of direct democracy-

(A)  Recall

(B)  Initiation

(C)  Referendum

(D)  Impeachment

Answer: (D)

68. A set of fundamental rules according to which the country functions, is called-

(A)  A Law

(B)  An Amendment

(C)  A Constitution

(D)  A Preamble

Answer: (C)

69. A Judge of the Supreme Court of India retires on a attaining the age of-

(A)  60 years

(B)  62 years

(C)  65 years

(D)  70 years

Answer: (C)

70. A Unitary Government has-

(A)  single citizenship

(B)  dual citizenship

(C)  independent judiciary

(D)  division of powers

Answer: (A)

Mathematics

71. ax3 + 3x2 – 3 and 2x3 – 5x + a when divided by x – 4 leave the same remainder then a = ……

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

72. If n be the positive integer then the last two digits of 212n – 64n are-

(A)  10

(B)  01

(C)  00

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

73. If x be real then the minimum value of 2x2 – 5x – 3 is-

(A)  1.25

(B)  1.5

(C)  1.75

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

74. 

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

75. 713 + 1 is divided by 6, the remainder is-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  5

Answer: (A)

76. If the sides of a square are increased by 10% the per cent increase in area is-

(A)  65%

(B)  67%

(C)  68%

(D)  69%

Answer: (B)

77. The average of 11 results is 30, that of first five in 25 and that of last five is 28. The value of 6th number is-

(A)  63

(B)  65

(C)  67

(D)  70

Answer: (B)

78. A persons sells an article at a profit of 10%. If he had bought it at 10% less and sold it for Rs 3 more, he would have gained 25%. The cost price is-

(A)  Rs 120

(B)  Rs 125

(C)  Rs 130

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

79. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on a certain sum of money at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs 1.50. The sum is-

(A)  Rs 600

(B)  Rs 650

(C)  Rs 675

(D)  Rs 700

Answer: (A)

80. 300 gms. of sugar solution has 40% sugar in it. The amount of sugar to be added to make it 50% in the solution is-

(A)  25 gms.

(B)  35 gms.

(C)  55 gms.

(D)  60 gms.

Answer: (D)

81. 

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

82. 

(A)  42

(B)  48

(C)  52

(D)  54

Answer: (C)

83. AB and CD are two parallel line segments. A and D are joined and a point E is taken on AD. If ∠ADC = 48°, ∠ABE = 63°, then ∠BEA = ……

(A)  65°

(B)  67°

(C)  69°

(D)  71°

Answer: (C)

84. The radius of a circle is 10 cm and the length of a chord is 16 cm. The distance of the chord from the centre is-

(A)  8 cm

(B)  6 cm

(C)  4 cm

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

85. The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 6b cm. The area of the triangle is-

(A)  3b2 cm2

(B)    

(C)  

(D)    

Answer: (B)

86. If f(x) + f(1 – x) = 2, then the value of  is –

(A)  2000

(B)  2001

(C)  1998

(D)  1999

Answer: (A)

87. If a3b = abc = 180 where a, b, c are positive integers then c = …….

(A)  110

(B)  15

(C)  25

(D)  1

Answer: (D)

88. Four bells first begin to toll together and then at intervals of 6, 7, 8 and 9 secs. respectively. The number of times the bells toll together in two hours is-

(A)  10

(B)  12

(C)  14

(D)  15

Answer: (C)

89. The price of cars rises by 30% while the sales of the cars goes down by 20%. The percentage change in total revenue is-

(A)  decrease of 4%

(B)  increase of 4%

(C)  decrease of 3%

(D)  increase of 3%

Answer: (B)

90. A school has only four classes that contain 10, 20, 30 and 40 students respectively. The pass percentage of these classes are 20%, 30%, 60% and 100% respectively. The pass percentage of the entire school is-

(A)  56%

(B)  76%

(C)  34%

(D)  66%

Answer: (D)

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2012 Question Paper With Answer Key

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2012
Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2012 Question Paper With Answer Key

Air Force Common Admission Test

(AFCAT) -1/2012

Directions (Qs. 1-5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

Pablo Picasso showed his truly exceptional talent from a very young age. His first word was lapis (Spanish for pencil) and he  learnt to draw before he could talk. He was the only son in the family and very good-looking, so he was thoroughly spoilt. He hated school and often refused to go unless his doting parents allowed him to take one of his father’s pet pigeons with him.

   Apart from pigeons, his great love was art and when in 1891 his father, who was an amateur artist, got a job as a drawing teacher at a college, Pablo went with him to the college. He often watched his father paint and sometimes was allowed to help. One evening his father was painting a picture of their pigeons when he had to leave the room. He returned to find that Pablo had completed and picture, and it was so amazingly beautiful and lifelike that he gave his son his own palette and brushes and never painted again. Pablo was just thirteen.

1. As a boy Pablo Picasso was

(A)  Ordinary looking but talented.

(B)  Handsome and talented.

(C)  Handsome and studious.

(D)  Handsome and hardworking.

Answer: (B)

2. He was spoilt mostly because he was

(A)  A smart boy.

(B)  Loved by one and all.

(C)  The only son in the family.

(D)  Always surrounded by notorious boys.

Answer: (C)

3. Picasso went to school only when

(A)  His friends accompanied him.

(B)  His father went with him.

(C)  He was allowed to paint at school.

(D)  He was allowed to carry a pet with him.

Answer: (D)

4. When his father painted in the college, Pablo

(A)  Occasionally helped him.

(B)  Rarely helped him.

(C)  Always helped him.

(D)  Invariably helped him.

Answer: (A)

5. Pablo’s father gave up painting because he

(A)  Did not like the job.

(B)  Retired from the college.

(C)  Was impressed by his son’s talent.

(D)  Lost interest in painting.

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 6-10): In each of the following questions, find out which part has an error.

6. The boss was irritated (A)/by him neglecting (B)/the duties and (C)/ not listening to his advice (D).

Answer: (B)

7. Each of the three (A)/beggars were (B)/asking for more (C)/ food to eat (D).

Answer: (B)

8. My brother sent (A)/two pairs (B)/of shoe (C)/from America (D).

Answer: (C)

9. The young boy said (A)/that he (B)/neither liked me (C)/nor my wife (D).

Answer: (C)

10. He was (A)/congratulated for (B)/ his success in (C)/ the 100 m race (D).

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 11-15): Pick up the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. Sanjay was _____ with divine vision to see the great battle.

(A)  Demure

(B)  Authorized

(C)  Endowed

(D)  Uttered

Answer: (C)

12. There was so much _____ material in the essay that it was difficult to get the author’s message.

(A)  Variegated

(B)  Superficial

(C)  Extraneous

(D)  Exemplary

Answer: (C)

13. The world is so constructed that if you wish to enjoy its pleasures, you must also _____ its pains.

(A)  Deny

(B)  Neglect

(C)  Ignore

(D)  Endure

Answer: (D)

14. Indian press did not give _____ to the British publicity.

(A)  Credence

(B)  Scion

(C)  Augury

(D)  Opportunity

Answer: (A)

15. Travellers _______ their reservations well in advance if they want to travel during the Diwali holidays.

(A)  has better to get

(B)  has better get

(C)  has to get better

(D)  had better got

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 16-18): In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals.

16. EMANCIPATE

(A)  Set free

(B)  Exist

(C)  Correct morally

(D)  Restrain

Answer: (A)

17. DECEIT

(A)  Simplicity

(B)  Gentility

(C)  Sincerity

(D)  Dishonesty

Answer: (D)

18. ADMONITION

(A)  Thrash

(B)  Hindrance

(C)  Warning

(D)  Exhort

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 19-20): In each of the following, choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.

19. VOCIFEROUS

(A)  Laudable

(B)  Quiet

(C)  Dangerous

(D)  Powerful

Answer: (B)

20. IMPLICATE

(A)  Involve

(B)  Exonerate

(C)  Corrupt

(D)  Accuse

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 21-40): Choose the correct answer.

21. The person who is regarded as the greatest law giver of ancient India is

(A)  Panini

(B)  Kautilya

(C)  Manu

(D)  Patanjali

Answer: (C)

22. The immortal fame of Ashoka largely rests upon

(A)  His conversion to Buddhism and its propagation.

(B)  His policy for the welfare of his subjects.

(C)  His work in the sphere of politics and moral teaching.

(D)  His extensive conquests.

Answer: (B)

23. Gandhiji started Dandi March

(A)  The demonstrate against the British Empire.

(B)  To break the salt law.

(C)  To boycott foreign goods.

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

24. The first war of Indian Independence began on 10 May 1857 at

(A)  Meerut

(B)  Jhansi

(C)  Barrackpore

(D)  Delhi

Answer: (A)

25. The sun rises in Arunachal Pradesh two hours before it does in Dwaraka in Gujarat. This is because the former is

(A)  Higher in elevation than Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East.

(B)  Situated further North than Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East.

(C)  Situated further East (about 30° Longitude) than Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East.

(D)  Situated about 30° East of Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East.

Answer: (C)

26. Srinagar is situated on the banks of the river

(A)  Ravi

(B)  Sutlej

(C)  Jhelum

(D)  Chenab

Answer: (C)

27. The areas in India that receive approximately an average of more than 200 cms of rainfall annually are

(A)  Meghalaya, Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh.

(B)  Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra

(C)  Meghalaya, Assam, Rajasthan, Jammu & Kashmir

(D)  Meghalaya, Delhi, Punjab, Rajasthan

Answer: (A)

28. Isotherms are imaginary lines drawn on a map which connect places of equal

(A)  Atmospheric pressure

(B)  Humidity

(C)  Rainfall

(D)  Temperature

Answer: (D)

29. Jim Corbett National Park is situated in which state?

(A)  Arunachal Pradesh

(B)  Himachal Pradesh

(C)  Andhra Pradesh

(D)  Uttarakhand

Answer: (D)

30. Which one of the following statement regarding the sun is correct?

(A)  The sun is composed mainly of hydrogen.

(B)  Its energy is generated by nuclear collision in its interior.

(C)  It is calculated that the sun consumes about a trillion pounds of hydrogen every second.

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

31. Supersonic speed is speed greater than the speed of sound (in air at sea level) that is to say around ______ miles/hour.

(A)  760

(B)  860

(C)  960

(D)  1060

Answer: (A)

32. Yoga Sutra was written by

(A)  Vatsyayana

(B)  Patanjali

(C)  Bhratrihari

(D)  Maharshi Mahesh

Answer: (B)

33. The National Institute of Oceanography is located at

(A)  Trivandrum

(B)  Panaji

(C)  Cochin

(D)  Mangalore

Answer: (B)

34. An aeroplance rises because

(A)  Of upward reaction of air.

(B)  The density of air above the plane is less than below it.

(C)  The pressure above its wings is less than the pressure below them.

(D)  Its nose points upwards.

Answer: (C)

35. Rocks formed on the solidification of molten matter are called

(A)  Metamorphic rocks

(B)  Sedimentary rocks

(C)  Volcanic rocks

(D)  Igneous rocks

Answer: (D)

36. The pioneer of Atomic energy in India is

(A)  Homi J. Bhabha

(B)  Vikram Sarabhai

(C)  C. V. Raman

(D)  C. K. Naidu

Answer: (A)

37. Which one of the following statements regarding FIFA World Cup 2010 is not correct?

(A)  South Africa became the first host nation to fail to qualify for the tournament’s second round.

(B)  The tournament was the culmination of a qualification process that began in August 2007.

(C)  This is the first time that the tournament was hosted by an African nation.

(D)  Zakumi, the official mascot for the FIFA World Cup, 2010 is an African bush elephant.

Answer: (A)

38. The first Indian to win the World Amateur Snooker Championship is

(A)  Om Agarwal

(B)  Geet Sethi

(C)  Michael Ferreira

(D)  Wilson Jones

Answer: (A)

39. The first person to win the Arjuna award for badminton is

(A)  Pullela Gopichand

(B)  Prakash Padukone

(C)  Nandu Natekar

(D)  Farook Engineer

Answer: (C)

40. The sport which requires the largest field is

(A)  Football

(B)  Cricket

(C)  Hockey

(D)  Polo

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 41-45): Find the odd one out.

41.

(A)  Advice

(B)  Counsel

(C)  Direct

(D)  Suggest

Answer: (C)

42.

(A)  Tumble

(B)  Topple

(C)  Crumble

(D)  Sprain

Answer: (D)

43.

(A)  Sobriquet

(B)  Alias

(C)  Pseudonym

(D)  Anonymous

Answer: (A)

44.

(A)  Mumbai

(B)  Goa

(C)  Visakhapatnam

(D)  Thiruvananthapuram

Answer: (D)

45.

(A)  Petrol

(B)  Acetone

(C)  Mercury

(D)  Kerosene

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 46-55): In the following questions, the words given bear a certain relationship. Your task is to find out from the choices the words with the same relationship.

46. Hope : Despair

(A)  Work : Failure

(B)  Worship : Adore

(C)  Cow : Milk

(D)  Encourage : Dishearten

Answer: (D)

47. Army : Logistics

(A)  War : Logic

(B)  Soldiers : Students

(C)  Business : Strategy

(D)  Team : Individual  

Answer: (C)

48. Bouquet : Flower

(A)  Skin : Body

(B)  Chain : Link

(C)  Product : Factory

(D)  Page : Book

Answer: (B)

49. Revenge : Vendetta

(A)  Sleep : Dream

(B)  Sun: Moon

(C)  Envy : Jealousy

(D)  Heaven : God

Answer: (C)

50. Refine : Style

(A)  Retouch : Photograph

(B)  Paint : Wall

(C)  Compose : Song

(D)  Author : Book

Answer: (A)

51. Fear : Tremble

(A)  Hand : Shake

(B)  Heat : Perspire

(C)  Distance : Walk

(D)  Evening : Star

Answer: (B)

52. Condone : Offence

(A)  Punish : Criminal

(B)  Mitigate : Penitence

(C)  Overlook : Aberration

(D)  Ignore : Loyalty

Answer: (C)

53. Plant : Flower

(A)  Face : Eye

(B)  Stem : Tree

(C)  Chair : Sofa

(D)  Blades : Grass

Answer: (A)

54. Protoplasm : Cell

(A)  Fibre : Plastic         

(B)  Coin : Money

(C)  Chemistry : Elements

(D)  Chain : Link

Answer: (B)

55. Nalanda : Takshshila

(A)  Venus : Mars

(B)  University : College

(C)  Office : Department

(D)  Ship : Cargo

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 51-60): In the following questions, the first word is related to the second in the same way as the third word is related to the fourth. Either the third or the fourth word is missing and is left blank. You have to choose the correct word to fill in the blank.

56. Foot is to Man as Hoof is to _______.

(A)  Dog

(B)  Cow

(C)  Cat

(D)  Rabbit

Answer: (B)

57. Broad is to Narrow as _______ is to Lane.

(A)  Footpath

(B)  Field

(C)  Pavement

(D)  Road

Answer: (D)

58. Back is to Backbone as Belly is to ______.

(A)  Throat

(B)  Ribs

(C)  Heart

(D)  Navel

Answer: (B)

59. Ankle is to Knee as Wrist is to ______.

(A)  Elbow

(B)  Finger

(C)  Hand

(D)  Foot

Answer: (A)

60. Sting is to Bee as _____ is to Snake.

(A)  Slithering

(B)  Rats

(C)  Poison

(D)  Fangs

Answer: (D)

61. Hari’s income is 20% more than Madhu’s income. Madhu’s income is less than Hari’s income by

(A)  15%

(B)  16.66%

(C)  20%

(D)  22.25%

Answer: (B)

62. A sum of money lent out at simple interest doubled itself in 20 years. In how many yeas wil it triple itself?

(A)  28  years

(B)  30 years

(C)  40 years

(D)  35 years

Answer: (C)

63. Which of the following fractions are in ascending order?

(A)  2/3, 3/5, 7/9, 9/11, 8/9

(B)  3/5, 2/3, 9/11, 7/9, 8/9

(C)  3/5, 2/3, 7/9, 9/11, 8/9

(D)  8/9, 9/11, 7/9, 2/3, 3/5

Answer: (C)

64. 337.62 + 8.591 + 34.4 = ?

(A)  370.611

(B)  380.511

(C)  380.611

(D)  426.97

Answer: (C)

65. Find the sum of : 

(A)  3/5

(B)  3/2

(C)  3/8

(D)  4/7

Answer: (C)

66. Find the average of all the numbers between 6 and 34 which are divisible by five.

(A)  18

(B)  20

(C)  24

(D)  30

Answer: (B)

67. The average of first 80 natural numbers is

(A)  40

(B)  41

(C)  40.5

(D)  142

Answer: (C)

68. If the sum of a few numbers is 450 and their mean is 50 and if another number 100 is included, the mean would become

(A)  55

(B)  60

(C)  75

(D)  150

Answer: (A)

69. ?% of 932 + 30 = 309.6

(A)  25

(B)  30

(C)  35

(D)  40

Answer: (B)

70. The difference between a number and its two-fifth is 510. What is 10% of that number?

(A)  12.75

(B)  85

(C)  204

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

71. One litre of water is evaporated from 6 litres of a solution containing 5% salt. The percentage of salt in the remaining solution is

(A)  16%

(B)  5%

(C)  4%

(D)  6%

Answer: (D)

72. A shopkeeper professes to sell all things at a discount of 10% but increases the Selling Price of each article by 20%. His gain on each article is

(A)  6%

(B)  8%

(C)  10%

(D)  12%

Answer: (B)

73. If the selling price of an article is 4/3rd of its cost price, the profit in transaction is

(A)  16.75%

(B)  20.50%

(C)  25.50%

(D)  33.33%

Answer: (D)

74. If the selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit per cent.

(A)  66.66

(B)  100

(C)  105.33

(D)  120

Answer: (B)

75. If 4/5th of an estate is worth Rs 16,800, then the value of 3/7th of the estate is

(A)  Rs 9000

(B)  Rs 21000

(C)  Rs 72000

(D)  Rs 90000

Answer: (A)

76. If  and 8a + 5b = 22, then the value of ‘a’ is

(A)  1

(B)  1/2

(C)  3/2

(D)  3/4

Answer: (C)

77. If (a – b) is 6 more than (c + d) and (a + b) is 3 less than (c – d), then the value of (a – c) is

(A)  0.5

(B)  1.0

(C)  1.5

(D)  2.0

Answer: (C)

78. Two numbers are in the ratio 7 : 8. If 3 is added to each of them their ratio becomes 8 : 9. The numbers are

(A)  14, 16

(B)  24, 27

(C)  21, 24

(D)  16, 18

Answer: (C)

79. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first to the second is 2 : 3 and that of the second to the third is 5 : 8, then the second number is

(A)  20

(B)  30

(C)  48

(D)  58

Answer: (B)

80. A certain amount was divided between Sita and Gita in the ratio 9 : 8. If Sita’s share was Rs 4500 then the amount is

(A)  Rs 9000

(B)  Rs 8500

(C)  Rs 6750

(D)  Rs 9025

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 81-84): Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in figure (X).

81. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

82. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

83. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

84. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

85. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 86-90): In reach of the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.

86. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

87. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

88. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

89. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

90. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 91-95): In each of the following questions, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains Fig. (X) as its part.

91. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

92. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

93. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

94. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

95. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 96-100): In each of the following questions, find out which of the answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) completes the figures matrix.

96. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

97. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

98. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

99. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

100. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2013 Question Paper With Answer Key

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2013
Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2013 Question Paper With Answer Key

Air Force Common Admission Test

(AFCAT) -1/2013

Directions (Qs. 1 to 5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

   We shall go on to the end, we shall fight in France, we shall fight on the seas and oceans, we shall fight with the growing confidence and strength in the air, we shall defend our island whatever the cost may be, we shall fight on the beaches, we shall fight on the landing grounds, we shall fight in the fields and in the streets, we shall fight in the hills. We shall never surrender, and even if this island or a large part of it were subjugated and starving, then our empire beyond the seas would carry on the struggle, until the New World steps forth to the rescue and the liberation of the Old.

1. On the basis of the passage which of the following statements may be said to be correct?

(A)  The speaker is encouraging his men for the conquest of France

(B)  The speaker is an aggressive and maniacal war-monger

(C)  The speaker is not satisfied with the conquest of the island

(D)  The speaker is a patriot urging the defence of his motherland

Answer: (D)

2. The speaker in the passage wants to go on fighting because:

(A)  He is a raving lunatic

(B)  He is in a state of utter despair

(C)  He expects help from other quarters

(D)  He is the leader of a suicide squad

Answer: (B)

3. Which of the following pair of the phrases helps best to bring out the intention of the speaker?

(A)  “Go on the end”, “shall never surrender”

(B)  “Growing confidence”, “subjugated and starving”

(C)  “Subjugated and starving”, “fighting on the landing ground”

(D)  “Fighting in the streets”, subjugated and starving”

Answer: (A)

4. The passage consists of repetitive patterns in syntax and vocabulary. The effect of th is style is that it:

(A)  Reveals the speaker’s defects in giving a speech

(B)  Produces the impression of bad poetry

(C)  Conveys the speaker’s helpless situation

(D)  Reinforces the speaker’s basic intention

Answer: (D)

5. The tone of the speaker is:

(A)  Pleading and urging

(B)  Inspiring and encouraging

(C)  Discouraging and gloomy

(D)  Menacing and bullying

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 6 to 8):  In each of the following, choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals.

6. MEDDLE

(A)  Disregard

(B)  Overlook

(C)  Interfere

(D)  Free

Answer: (C)

7. ABJURE

(A)  Renounce

(B)  Run off secretly

(C)  Abide

(D)  Discuss

Answer: (A)

8. Estrange

(A)  Endanger

(B)  To become puzzling

(C)  Miscalculate

(D)  Alienate

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 9 and 10): In each of the following, choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals:

9. DEROGATORY

(A)  Conferred

(B)  Immediate

(C)  Praising

(D)  Private

Answer: (C)

10. WANE

(A)  Widen

(B)  Poor

(C)  Swell

(D)  Tight

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 11 to 15): In each of the following questions, find out which part has an error.

11. The police has (A)/ arrested the thief (B)/ who broke into my house (C)/ last night (D).

Answer: (A)

12. The man who (A)/ they thought to be (B)/ a gentleman turned out (C)/ to be a rogue (D).

Answer: (D)

13. I told him on his face (A)/ that he could not hope (B)/ to pass the stringent (C)/ Medical examination of the Services Selection Board (D).

Answer: (B)

14. Mohan is one of those boys (A)/ who has expressed (B)/ willingness for joining (C)/ the educational tour (D).

Answer: (B)

15. I may spend (A)/this summer vacations (B)/with one of my friends (C)/in the back waters of Kerala (D).

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 16 to 20): Pick up the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

16. According to the weather ______ it is going to be cloudy today.

(A)  Announcement

(B)  Indication

(C)  Prediction

(D)  Forecast

Answer: (D)

17. The villagers ________ the murder of their leader by burning the police van.

(A)  Protested

(B)  Avenged

(C)  Mourned

(D)  Consoled

Answer: (A)

18. While on a routine flight, the aircraft was hit by a missile and _______ into flames.

(A)  Fired

(B)  Burst

(C)  Caught

(D)  Engulfed

Answer: (D)

19. Hari got the company car for a ______ price as he was the senior most employee in the company.

(A)  Reduced

(B)  Discounted

(C)  Fixed

(D)  Nominal

Answer: (B)

20. The unruly behavior of the soldiers _____ their commander.

(A)  Clashed

(B)  Aggrieved

(C)  Incensed

(D)  Impeached

Answer: (C)

21. Who accorded the title ‘Mahatma’ to MK Gandhi?

(A)  Sardar Patel

(B)  Jawaharlal Nehru

(C)  Sarojini Naidu

(D)  Rabindranath Tagore

Answer: (D)

22. The Non Co-operation Movement started in which year?

(A)  1900

(B)  1921

(C)  1940

(D)  1935

Answer: (B)

23. During the Middle Ages education was confined only to:

(A)  Kshatriyas

(B)  Brahmins

(C)  Peasants

(D)  Shudras

Answer: (B)

24. Who among the following was responsible for the spread of Buddhism in Sri Lanka?

(A)  Ashoka

(B)  Mahavira

(C)  Parsavanath

(D)  Chandra Gupta Maurya

Answer: (A)

25. The elements which have low value of ionization potential are strong:

(A)  Oxidising agents

(B)  Reducing agents

(C)  Oxidising and Reducing agents depending upon the reactants    

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

26. Wayne Rooney, the famous footballer, hails from which country?

(A)  Italy

(B)  Brazil

(C)  Argentina

(D)  England

Answer: (D)

27. The official song ‘WakaWaka’ of FIFA World Cup held in the year 2010 at South Africa was sung by which popular singer?

(A)  Madonna

(B)  Destiny Child

(C)  Shakira

(D)  Rehanna

Answer: (C)

28. In the year 2011, the ace badminton player Saina Nehwal was honoured with which sports award?

(A)  Dronacharya Award

(B)  Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award

(C)  Arjun Award

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

29. Term ‘Visible Horizon’ in astronomy is defined as:

(A)  The circle of contact of the earth and the cone of visual rays passing through the meridian of the place.

(B)  The circle of contact of the earth and the cone of visual rays not passing through the meridian of the place.

(C)  The circle of contact of the earth and the cone of visual rays passing through the point of observation.

(D)  The circle of contact of the earth and the cone of visual rays not passing through the point of observation.

Answer: (C)

30. NREGA stands for:

(A)  National Revenue Engagement Guarantee Association

(B)  National Revenue Employment Guarantee Act

(C)  National Rural Employment Guarantee Association

(D)  National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

Answer: (D)

31. River Satluj originates from:

(A)  Northern slopes of the Kailash range

(B)  Spring at Verinag

(C)  Rakas Lake

(D)  Amarkantak plateau

Answer: (C)

32. Limonitic ore is the ore of which metal?

(A)  Iron

(B)  Aluminium

(C)  Zinc

(D)  Cobalt

Answer: (A)

33. Black revolution relates to which of the following?

(A)  Self-dependence in foodgrains production

(B)  Self-dependence in milk production

(C)  Self-dependence in petroleum/crude oil

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

34. Karrar is the unmanned bomber aircraft of

(A)  Iraq

(B)  Iran

(C)  Turkey

(D)  Pakistan

Answer: (B)

35. Who is the author of book ‘Keeping the Faith: Memoirs of a Parliamentarian?

(A)  David Omand        

(B)  Raja Shehadeh

(C)  Raghav Bahl

(D)  Somnath Chatterjee

Answer: (D)

36. _______ is a thyroid hormone which controls the balance of calcium in the body.

(A)  Calcitonin

(B)  Thyroxine

(C)  Calmodulin

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

37. The cell wall in plants is interrupted by narrow pores carrying fine strands of cytoplasm which interlink the contents of the cells. These strands are called:

(A)  Plasmahole

(B)  Microvilli

(C)  Plasmodesmata

(D)  Plasmalemma

Answer: (C)

38. Who is the cricketer bestowed with an honorary commission in the Territorial Army?

(A)  Sachin Tendulkar

(B)  Kapil Dev

(C)  Virendra Sehwag

(D)  Harbhajan Singh

Answer: (B)

39. The transport phenomenon occurs only in ______ state of a gas and is ______.

(A)  Non-equilibrium, irreversible

(B)  Non-equilibrium, reversible

(C)  Equilibrium, irreversible

(D)  Equilibrium, reversible

Answer: (B)

40. Which of the following compounds form nitrites with nitrous acid?

(A)  Primary amines

(B)  Secondary amines

(C)  Tertiary amines

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

41. The number whose square is equal to the difference of the squares of 37 and 23 is:

(A)  45.09

(B)  28.98

(C)  47.09

(D)  28

Answer: (B)

42. The average age of 8 men is increased by 4 years when one of them whose ages is 30 years is replaced by a new man. What is the age of new man?

(A)  55  years

(B)  62 years

(C)  42 years

(D)  69 years

Answer: (B)

43. A vessel, full of water, weighs 24 kg. When the vessel is ¼ full, it weights 9 kg. Find the weight of empty vessel.

(A)  4 kg

(B)  5 kg

(C)  8 kg

(D)  3 kg

Answer: (A)

44. If a – b = 4 and ab = 45, find the value of a3 – b3.

(A)  604

(B)  370

(C)  253

(D)  199

Answer: (A)

45. If a/(a + b) = 15/21, what is (a + b)/(a – b) equal to?

(A)  13/9

(B)  23/11

(C)  14/5

(D)  21/9

Answer: (D)

46. 

(A)  2

(B)  6

(C)  4

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

47. A man’s average monthly expenditure for the first four months of the year was Rs 231.25. For the next five months, the average monthly expenditure was Rs 22.75 more than what is was during the first four months. If the person spent Rs 605 in all during the remaining three months of the year, find what percentage of his annual income of Rs 3500 did he save in the year?

(A)  10%

(B)  15%

(C)  20%

(D)  25%

Answer: (C)

48. The average age of students of a class is 15.8 years. The average age of boys in the class is 16.4 years and that of the girls is 15.4 years. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls in the class is:

(A)  1 : 2

(B)  2 : 3

(C)  3 : 4

(D)  3 : 5

Answer: (B)

49. 18 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 18 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank, if the capacity of the bucket is 12 litres?

(A)  12

(B)  13.5

(C)  24

(D)  Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Answer: (A)

50. Srinivasan invests two equal amounts in two banks giving 8% and 12% rate of interest respectively. At the end of year, the interest earned is Rs 1500. Find the sum invested in each.

(A)  Rs 8500

(B)  Rs 15000

(C)  Rs 7500

(D)  Rs 17000

Answer: (C)

51. The simple interest accrued on a sum of money at the end of four years is 1/5th of its principal. What is the rate of interest per annum?

(A)  4%

(B)  5%

(C)  6%

(D)  Inadequate data

Answer: (B)

52. A sum of Rs 2600 is lent out into parts, one at 9% and another at 7%. If the total annual income is Rs 206, find the money lent at 7%.

(A)  Rs 1400

(B)  Rs 900

(C)  Rs 1600

(D)  Rs 1200

Answer: (D)

53. In an election between two candidates, 70% of the voters cast their votes. Out of which 2% of the votes were declared invalid. A candidate got 7203 votes which was 60% of the total valid votes. Find the total number of voters enrolled in that election.

(A)  18050

(B)  17500

(C)  17000

(D)  7203

Answer: (B)

54. If the price of kerosene be raised by 11%, find by how much per cent a house holder must reduce his consumption of kerosene so as not to increase his expenditure?

(A)  11%

(B)  9.9%

(C)  11.09%

(D)  8.25%

Answer: (B)

55. 75 pupils from a school appeared for an examination and 80% of them passed. Another school entered 10 more pupils than the first school and five pupils less than the first school passed. The pass % of in the second school was:

(A)  75%

(B)  84%

(C)  72%

(D)  64.7%

Answer: (D)

56. Divide Rs 80 in the proportion of 3 : 6 : 7.

(A)  Rs 10, Rs 35, Rs 40

(B)  Rs 15, Rs 30, Rs 35           

(C)  Rs 15, Rs 35, Rs 30

(D)  Rs 10, Rs 40, Rs 35

Answer: (B)

57. Calculate the amount on Rs 1875 for 2 years at 4% per annum, compounded yearly.

(A)  Rs 676

(B)  Rs 776

(C)  Rs 1778

(D)  Rs 2028

Answer: (D)

58. If x varies as y and x = 8 when y = 15, then the value of x when y = 10 is :

(A)  5

(B)  15/8

(C)  8/15

(D)  16/3

Answer: (D)

59. In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 2 : 1. What amount of water must be added to make the ratio of milk and water as 1 : 2?

(A)  42 Litres

(B)  56 Litres

(C)  60 Litres

(D)  77 Litres

Answer: (C)

60. A sum of Rs 10,000 is lent partly at 6% and the remaining at 10% p.a. If the yearly interest on the average is 9.2%, the money lent at 10% is:

(A)  Rs 8000

(B)  Rs 8500

(C)  Rs 5000

(D)  Rs 2000

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 61 to 65): Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group

61.

(A)  Garo

(B)  Khasi

(C)  Kangra

(D)  Jayantia

Answer: (C)

62.

(A)  Vigro

(B)  Pisces

(C)  Cancer

(D)  Orion

Answer: (D)

63.

(A)  Shoulder

(B)  Foot

(C)  Finger

(D)  Elbow

Answer: (C)

64.

(A)  Canoe

(B)  Dingy

(C)  Yacht

(D)  Igloo

Answer: (D)

65.

(A)  Inn

(B)  Club

(C)  Motel

(D)  Hostel

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 66 to 70): The following questions consist of two words that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four alternatives. Select the best alternative that has the same relationship as the original pair of words

66. Liquor : Drink

(A)  Bread : Butter

(B)  Tea : Beverage

(C)  Sniff : Inhale

(D)  Water : Sip

Answer: (D)

67. Evaporation : Cloud

(A)  Mountain : Snow

(B)  Book : Pages

(C)  Pressure : Atmosphere

(D)  Tension : Breakdown

Answer: (D)

68. Barrel : Vial

(A)  Book : Pamphlet

(B)  Book : Reader

(C)  Brochure : Compiler

(D)  Length : Height

Answer: (A)

69. Cream : Cosmetics

(A)  Tiger : Forest

(B)  Mountain : Valley

(C)  Magazine : Editor

(D)  Teak : Wood

Answer: (D)

70. Carnivore : Herbivore

(A)  Flesh : Plant

(B)  Horse : Lion

(C)  Camel : Giraffe

(D)  Animal : Bird

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 71 to 80): Three words in bold letters are given in each question, which have something in common among themselves. Out of the four given alternatives, choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

71. Hamlet : Macbeth : Faustus

(A)  They were Princes.

(B)  They are plays by Shakespeare.

(C)  They are characters from various dramas.

(D)  They were romantic heroes.

Answer: (C)

72. Vesuvius : Etna : Kilimanjaro

(A)  These are sites of volcanoes.

(B)  These are island countries.

(C)  These are hills of Italy.

(D)  These lie in polar region.

Answer: (A)

73. Knot : Watt : Fathom

(A)  The terms are used by sailors.

(B)  The terms are used for installing electricity.

(C)  The terms are connected with rope.

(D)  They are units of measurement.

Answer: (D)

74. Barauni : Digboi : Ankleshwar

(A)  They are famous for oil fields

(B)  They are famous religious places.

(C)  They are tourist places of South India.

(D)  They are famous for handlooms.

Answer: (A)

75. Knight : Rook : Bishop

(A)  These are missionaries

(B)  These are churchmen.

(C)  These are chessmen.

(D)  These are ranks of military.

Answer: (C)

76. Abhi Bhattacharya : Utpal Dutt : Satyajit Ray

(A)  They are character actors.

(B)  They are directors of Bengali movies.

(C)  They are famous poets and writers.

(D)  These personalities belong to Bengal.

Answer: (D)

77. Voodoo : Sorcery : Necromancy

(A)  They are ancient arts found in sculptures.

(B)  They are terms connected with black magic.

(C)  They are ancient scripts.

(D)  They are means of communication of prehistoric age.

Answer: (B)

78. Rourkela : Bokaro : Durgapur

(A)  They are steel plants.

(B)  They have coal mines.

(C)  They have atomic power plants.

(D)  They are on the sea coast.

Answer: (A)

79. Spinach : Fenugreek : Celery

(A)  These are cactus plants.

(B)  These are wild plants.

(C)  These are wild flowers.

(D)  These are leafy vegetables.

Answer: (D)

80. Yeats : Ghalib : Kabir

(A)  They were social reformers.

(B)  They were famous poets.

(C)  They were saints.

(D)  They were yoga instructors.

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 81 to 85): There are two sets of figures namely the Problem figures containing five figures 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and answer figures A, B, C, D. You have to select one figure from the Answer figures which will continue the same series as given in the Problem figures.

81. 

Answer: (A)

82. 

Answer: (D)

83. 

Answer: (D)

84. 

Answer: (B)

85. 

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 86 to 90): The following situations involve a cluster of three or more geometrical figures, having one or more dots placed at any point inside the cluster. This cluster is followed by a set of four alternative figures each composed of a cluster of the same type of figures. Now, for each dot we have to observe the region in which it is enclosed i.e., in which of the geometrical figure this region is common.

   From amongst the figures marked A, B, C and D, select the figure which satisfied the same conditions of placement of the dot as in Fig. (X)

86. 

Answer: (D)

87. 

Answer: (C)

88. 

Answer: (C)

89. 

Answer: (A)

90. 

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 91 to 95): In this portion a figure is given as an original figure (X) followed by four answer figures. The original figure is embedded or hidden in one of the answer figures (A, B, C & D). Select the alternative that carries the correct figure which clearly shows the embedded portion of the original figure.

91. 

Answer: (D)

92. 

Answer: (D)

93. 

Answer: (B)

94. 

Answer: (D)

95. 

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 96 to 100): In each of the following questions, a part of the figure is missing. Find out from the given options A, B, C or D, the right figure to fit in the missing figure (X).

96. 

Answer: (C)

97. 

Answer: (D)

98. 

Answer: (B)

99. 

Answer: (B)

100. 

Answer: (A)

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2014 Question Paper With Answer Key

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2014
Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2014 Question Paper With Answer Key

Air Force Common Admission Test

(AFCAT) -1/2014

Directions (Qs. 1 to 4): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

   And then Gandhi came. He was like a powerful current of fresh air that made us stretch ourselves and take deep breaths, like a beam of light that pierced the darkness and removed the scales from our eyes, like a whirlwind that upset many things but most of all the working of people’s minds. He did not descend from the top; he seemed to emerge from the millions of India, speaking their language and incessantly drawing attention to them and their appalling condition. Get off the back of these peasants and workers, he told us, all of you who live b their exploitation; get rid of the system that produces this poverty and misery.

1. Gandhi came like a powerful current of fresh air and ……

(A)  awakened us to the plight of the masses in the grip of oppressors

(B)  made us patriotic

(C)  emboldened us to attack and destroy the oppressors

(D)  praised our culture

Answer: (A)

2. The rise of Gandhi ………

(A)  shocked people

(B)  made India powerful

(C)  made the condemnation of the exploiter final

(D)  made women feel secure

Answer: (C)

3. Gandhi fought the ………..

(A)  rich

(B)  oppressor

(C)  apathetic masses

(D)  unjust system

Answer: (D)

4. The conspicuous role of Gandhi is that of a ……..

(A)  father

(B)  reformer

(C)  teacher

(D)  liberator

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 5 to 10): Select the most appropriate word from the options against each number:

   Those living in the slums are 5 and tough because they are totally 6 to the vagaries and hardships of life. The rising sun 7 the day and the setting sun closes the day for them. It is like a drama where the curtain 8 up in the morning and comes down in the evening. They don’t 9 hypertension and heart attacks because there is, after all 10 to worry about.

5.

(A)  Poor

(B)  Sick

(C)  Hardy

(D)  Weak

Answer: (A)

6.

(A)  Dependent

(B)  Independent

(C)  Exposed

(D)  Tried

Answer: (C)

7.

(A)  Heralds

(B)  Herald

(C)  Bring

(D)  Brings

Answer: (A)

8.

(A)  Hangs

(B)  Hand

(C)  Goes

(D)  Shines

Answer: (C)

9.

(A)  Know

(B)  Get

(C)  Think

(D)  Have

Answer: (D)

10.

(A)  Everything

(B)  Something

(C)  Somewhere

(D)  Nothing

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 11 to 12): Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the given word.

11. ‘TRANSGRESSOR’

(A)  Passenger

(B)  Law-breaker

(C)  Protector

(D)  Comrade

Answer: (B)

12. ‘EGREGIOUS’

(A)  Common

(B)  Social

(C)  Plain

(D)  Atrocious

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 13 to 15): Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word.

13. ‘PREDILECTION’

(A)  Oblivion

(B)  Objectivity

(C)  Aversion

(D)  Defeat

Answer: (C)

14. ‘CACOPHONOUS’

(A)  Tamed

(B)  Harmonius

(C)  Domestic

(D)  Silent

Answer: (B)

15. ‘CALUMNY’

(A)  Apology

(B)  Eulogy

(C)  Enjoyment

(D)  Reservation

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 16 to 20): Choose the word that best defines the given phrase.

16. ‘Able to use both hands alike’

(A)  Dexterous

(B)  Ambidextrous

(C)  Skilful

(D)  Expert

Answer: (B)

17. ‘A written account of the life of an individual’

(A)  Autobiography

(B)  Epigraph

(C)  Biography

(D)  Novel

Answer: (C)

18. ‘The identification of a disease by its symptoms’

(A)  Prescription

(B)  Prognosis

(C)  Diagnosis

(D)  Biopsy

Answer: (C)

19. ‘Prolonged inability to sleep’

(A)  Amnesia

(B)  Utopia

(C)  Nausea

(D)  Insomnia

Answer: (D)

20. ‘A style in which a writer makes a display of his knowledge’

(A)  Verbose

(B)  Pedantic

(C)  Ornate

(D)  Pompous

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 21 to 25): Choose the correctly spelt word.

21. The school alumni gathering put us in a _______ mood.

(A)  Remniscent

(B)  Reminisent

(C)  Reminiscent

(D)  Reminicent

Answer: (C)

22. ‘God is a Dead’ is a ________ statement.

(A)  Blasphemus

(B)  Blaphemous           

(C)  Blasphemous

(D)  Blosphemos

Answer: (C)

23. The threat of an epidemic caused great alarm and ________.

(A)  Trepidation

(B)  Terpidation

(C)  Trepidition

(D)  Trepidattion

Answer: (A)

24. The din caused by the children howling is enough to ______ the dead.

(A)  Ressurect

(B)  Resurrect

(C)  Resurect

(D)  Resurecct

Answer: (B)

25. Can you ______ the car into that parking spot?

(A)  Manuer

(B)  Manever

(C)  Manoeuvre

(D)  Manuver

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 26 to 47): Choose the appropriate answer.

26. Who was the Governor-General of India during the ‘Sepoy Mutiny’?

(A)  Lord Dalhousie

(B)  Lord Harding

(C)  Lord Canning

(D)  Lord Lytton.

Answer: (C)

27. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A)  Goa attained full statehood in 1987

(B)  Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat

(C)  Daman & Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India

(D)  Dadar & Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954.

Answer: (D)

28. On which river is Washington DC situated?

(A)  Potomac

(B)  Irrawaddy

(C)  Mississippi

(D)  Hudson

Answer: (A)

29. When body is accelerated ………

(A)  Its velocity never changes

(B)  Its speed will always changes

(C)  Its direction always changes

(D)  Its speed may or may not change

Answer: (B)

30. Which of the following is not an agency of UN?

(A)  World Bank

(B)  International Atomic Energy Agency

(C)  Universal Postal Union

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (D)

31. Which kind of missile of BRAHMOS?

(A)  Medium range ballistic missile

(B)  Supersonic cruise missile

(C)  Short range tactical missile

(D)  Ultrasonic cruise missile

Answer: (B)

32. Which of the following is not a unit of energy?

(A)  Calorie

(B)  Joule

(C)  Electron volt

(D)  Watt

Answer: (C)

33. Who among the following has been called the ‘Napoleon of India’?

(A)  Ashoka

(B)  Samudragupta

(C)  Chandragupta

(D)  Harshavardhana

Answer: (B)

34. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old man of India’?

(A)  Dadabhai Naoroji

(B)  Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(C)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(D)  A. O. Hume

Answer: (A)

35. Which amongst t he following has the power to regulate the right of citizenship in India?

(A)  Union Cabinet

(B)  Parliament

(C)  Supreme Court

(D)  Law Commission

Answer: (B)

36. The Baglihar Hydroelectric power project in J & K is built across the river ……….

(A)  Beas

(B)  Chenab

(C)  Jhelum

(D)  Sutlej

Answer: (B)

37. Which Indian sportsperson was appointed ‘Messenger of Peace’ in 2001 by the UN?

(A)  Prakash Padukone

(B)  Vishwanathan Anand

(C)  Sachin Tendulkar

(D)  Vijay Amritraj

Answer: (D)

38. Indian Women’s hockey team secured which of the following position in Asian Champions Trophy, 2013?

(A)  First

(B)  Second

(C)  Third

(D)  Fourth

Answer: (C)

39. Which is the longest bone in the human body?

(A)  Fibula

(B)  Radius

(C)  Stapes

(D)  Femur

Answer: (D)

40. A US team of scientist has found that the mechanism responsible for the ageing process is located ………..

(A)  Inside the face

(B)  Inside the skin

(C)  Inside the brain

(D)  Inside the heart

Answer: (C)

41. The outer most layer of the Sun is known as ……….

(A)  Corona

(B)  Photosphere

(C)  Chromosphere

(D)  Granule

Answer: (A)

42. Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore was founded by …….

(A)  CV Raman

(B)  Jamshedji Tata

(C)  Vikram Sarabhai

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

43. Which among the following is not a gallantry medal?

(A)  Ashoka Chakra

(B)  Arjuna Award

(C)  Param Vir Chakra

(D)  Shaurya Chakra

Answer: (B)

44. Which one of the following pairs of water bodies are connected by the Suez Canal?

(A)  Indian Ocean – Pacific Ocean

(B)  Mediterranean Sea – Black Sea

(C)  Mediterranean Sea – Red Sea

(D)  Atlantic Ocean – Pacific Ocean

Answer: (C)

45. Kalhana’s ‘Rajatarangini’ is a history of …..

(A)  Kashmir

(B)  Harsha’s reign

(C)  Rajasthan

(D)  Chandragupta’s reign

Answer: (A)

46. The Constitution of India was promulgated on January 26, 1950 because …….

(A)  This day was being celebrated as the Independence Day since 1929

(B)  This was desired by the farmers of India

(C)  The British did not want to leave India earlier than this date

(D)  It was an auspicious day

Answer: (A)

47. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A)  Indonesia – Jakarta

(B)  Maldives – Male

(C)  North Korea – Seoul

(D)  Zimbabwe – Harare

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs.48 to 50): Complete the seires.

48. A, B, D, G, ?, P

(A)  I

(B)  J

(C)  K

(D)  L

Answer: (C)

49. Z, S, W, O, T, K, Q, G, ?, ?

(A)  N, D

(B)  N, C

(C)  O, C

(D)  O, D

Answer: (B)

50. BCD, RQP, LMN, TS?

(A)  U

(B)  V

(C)  R

(D)  T

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 51): If A = C, B – D, C = E and so on code the following.

51. ‘STUDENT’

(A)  VWVFGPV

(B)  UUWFGPV

(C)  UVWFGPV

(D)  UVVFGPV

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 52): If A = Z, B -= Y and so on, code the following.

52. ‘EDITOR’

(A)  VWRGLI

(B)  VWRGVI

(C)  VWVGLI

(D)  VWRLLI

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 53 to 55): Choose the most appropriate word.

53. ‘RUSTLE’ is to ‘LEAVES’ as ‘PATTER’ is to _______

(A)  Snow

(B)  Wind

(C)  Rain

(D)  Storm

Answer: (C)

54. ‘INDISCREET’ is to ‘IMPRUDENT’ as ‘INDISPOSED’ is to _______

(A)  Concerned

(B)  Reluctant

(C)  Crucial

(D)  Clear

Answer: (B)

55. ‘ACCIDENT’ is to ‘CAREFULNESS’ as ‘DISEASE’ is to _______

(A)  Sanitation

(B)  Treatment

(C)  Medicine

(D)  Doctor

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 56 to 58): Each of the following questions has four statements. Three are logically correct Some of which may look factually absurd. Ignore this absurdity and look to the logical corrections. Choose the statement which is wrong or doubtful.

56.

(A)  Birds fly in the air. Trees are birds. Therefore, trees fly in the air.

(B)  Some boys steal. All who steal are naughty. All naughty are honest. Therefore, some boys are honest

(C)  All girls like dance. Some girls are Indian. All Indians are artists. Therefore, some artists like dance.

(D)  All liars are not thieves. All thieves are criminals. Therefore, all liars are criminals.

Answer: (D)

57.

(A)  Ramesh is tall. Ramesh is a boy. Therefore, boys are tall.

(B)  All who can fly are animals. Some birds can fly. Therefore, some birds are animals.

(C)  Men live in houses. Houses grow on trees. Trees float in water. Therefore, men float in water.

(D)  All living things are mobile. Some non-living things are mobile. Therefore, some mobile are living and some non-living.

Answer: (A)

58.

(A)  All books can read. Some pencils are books. All pencils are clever. Therefore, all clever cannot read.

(B)  Some who fail are stupid. Some criminals are stupid. Therefore, all criminals fail.

(C)  Some liar are thieves. All thieves are criminals. Therefore, some liars are criminals.

(D)  All that is given is black. Trees are green. Therefore, trees are black.

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 59 to 60): Consider the statement and assumptions that follow. Which of these assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

59. Statement: “You won’t get sweets at any cost. I will not let you eat things that are not good for your teeth” – a mother tells her child

Assumptions:

(i) The mother cares for her child.

(ii) Sweets are not good for her child.

(iii) The mother has the authority to decide what her child is to eat.

(A)  (i) & (ii) are implicit.

(B)  (ii) & (iii) are implicit

(C)  (i) & (iii) are implicit

(D)  All are implicit

Answer: (A)

60. Statement: “Clearly, the judiciary cannot provide all answers. But it seems the public, weary of an inactive Executive, is turning to the Supreme Court as a last resort” – an article.

Assumptions:

(i) The Supreme Court is above the Executive.

(ii) The Supreme Court is more active than the Executive.

(iii) The Executive does not have sufficient powers.

(A)  (i) & (ii) are implicit

(B)  (ii) & (iii) are implicit

(C)  (i) & (iii) are implicit

(D)  Only (ii) is implicit

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 61 to 62): Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.

61.

(A)  Tsangpo

(B)  Hazaribagh

(C)  Kanha

(D)  Bandipur

Answer: (A)

62.

(A)  Wheat

(B)  Rice

(C)  Mustard

(D)  Gram

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 63 to 67): The following questions consist of two words that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four alternatives. Select the best alternative that has same relationship as the original pair of words.

63. Creche : Infants

(A)  School : Pupils

(B)  Deck : Sailors

(C)  Cottage : Guests

(D)  Aircraft : Crew

Answer: (C)

64. Pesticide : Plant

(A)  Injection : Disease

(B)  Vaccination : Body

(C)  Medicine : Cure

(D)  Teacher : Student

Answer: (B)

65. Stare : Glance

(A)  Gulp : Sip

(B)  Confide : tell

(C)  Hunt : Stalk

(D)  Step : Walk

Answer: (A)

66. Ecstasy : Pleasure

(A)  Hatred : Affection

(B)  Rage : Anger

(C)  Joy : Grief

(D)  Mumble : Speak

Answer: (B)

67. Necromancy : Ghosts

(A)  Romance : Stories

(B)  Magic : Amulets

(C)  Alchemy : Gold

(D)  Sorcery : Spirit

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 68 to 70): There is certain relationship between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given on another side of : : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the pair has. Select the best alternative/relationship.

68. Firm : Flabby : : Piquant : ?

(A)  Salty

(B)  Pleasant

(C)  Bland

(D)  Smell

Answer: (C)

69. Funk : Vitamins : : Curie : ?

(A)  Uranium

(B)  Radioactivity

(C)  Photography

(D)  Radium

Answer: (B)

70. Contamination : Food : : Infection : ?

(A)  Diseases

(B)  Body

(C)  Germs

(D)  Microbes

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 71 to 85): Choose the most appropriate answer.

71. An article costs Rs 50 presently. The rate of inflation is 300%. What will be cost of this article after two years?

(A)  Rs 200

(B)  Rs 600

(C)  Rs 800

(D)  Rs 1000

Answer: (C)

72. A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell his groceries at his cost price, but uses a false weight of 900 grams for each kilogram. Find his again percentage.

(A)  91/9%

(B)  100/9%

(C)  100/11%

(D)  95/9%

Answer: (B)

73. A man purchased a bullock and a cart for Rs 1800. He sold the bullock at a profit of 20% and the cart at a profit of 30%. His total profit was 155/6 %. Find the cost price of bullock.

(A)  Rs 650

(B)  Rs 750

(C)  Rs 900

(D)  Rs 800

Answer: (B)

74. There were 35 students in a hostel. If the number of students be increased by 7, the expenditure on food increases by Rs 42 per day while the average expenditure of students is reduced by Rs 1. What was the initial expenditure on food per day?

(A)  Rs 432

(B)  Rs 442

(C)  Rs 420

(D)  Rs 400

Answer: (C)

75. There were 24 students in a class. One of them, who was 18 years old, left the class and his place was filled up by a new comer. If the average of the class was thereby lowered by 1 month, the ago of new comer is

(A)  14 years

(B)  15 years

(C)  16 years

(D)  17 years

Answer: (C)

76. Find two natural numbers whose sun is 85 and the least common multiple is 102.

(A)  30 & 55

(B)  17 & 68

(C)  35 & 55

(D)  51 & 34

Answer: (D)

77. In a fort there was sufficient food for 200 soldiers for 31 days. After 27 days, 120 soldiers left the fort. For how many extra days will the rest of the food last for the remaining soldiers?

(A)  12 days

(B)  10 days

(C)  8 days

(D)  6 days

Answer: (D)

78. 10 is added to certain number, the sum is multiplied by 7, the product is divided by 5 and 5 is subtracted from the quotient. The remainder left is half of 88. What is the number?

(A)  21

(B)  20

(C)  25

(D)  30

Answer: (C)

79. 19 persons went to a hotel for a combined dinner party. 13 of them spent Rs 79 ach one their dinner and the rest spent Rs 4 more than the average expenditure of all the 19. What was the total money spent by them?

(A)  1628.4

(B)  1534

(C)  1492

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

80. Two typists of varying skills can do a typing job in 6 minutes if they work together. If the first typist typed alone for 4 minutes and then the second typist typed alone for 6 minutes, they would be left with 1/5 of the whole work. How many minutes would it take the slower typist to complete the typing job working alone?

(A)  10 minutes

(B)  15 minutes

(C)  12 minutes

(D)  20 minutes

Answer: (B)

81. A bag contains 25 paise, 50 paise and 1 Rs coins. There are 220 coins in all and the total amount in the bag is Rs 160. If there are thrice as many 1 Rs coins as there are 25 paise coins, then what is the number of 50 paise coins?

(A)  60

(B)  40

(C)  120

(D)  80

Answer: (A)

82. The sum of two numbers is equal to thrice their difference. If the smaller of the numbers is 10 find the other number.

(A)  15

(B)  30

(C)  40

(D)  None of thes

Answer: (D)

83. If a person repaid Rs 22500 after 10 years of borrowing a loan, at 10% per annum simple interest find out what amount did he take as a loan?

(A)  11,225

(B)  11,250

(C)  10,000

(D)  7,500

Answer: (B)

84. A sum of money invested at simple interest triples itself in 8 years. How many times will it become in 20 years time?

(A)  8 times

(B)  7 times

(C)  6 times

(D)  9 times

Answer: (C)

85. 

(A)  1

(B)  4

(C)  0.216

(D)  0.164

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 86 to 89): In these tests you will find an Incomplete Figure and four Answer Figures. You have to select one diagram from the Answer Figures which fits into the blank column in Incomplete figure in order to complete it:

86. 

Answer: (A)

87. 

Answer: (B)

88. 

Answer: (B)

89. 

Answer: (D)

90. 

(A)  LS

(B)  RQ

(C)  LM

(D)  LQ

Answer: (D)

91. 

(A)  SN

(B)  DZ

(C)  SM

(D)  SZ

Answer: (C)

92. 

(A)  PR

(B)  JR

(C)  GS

(D)  JK

Answer: (B)

93. 

(A)  BF

(B)  GB

(C)  BG

(D)  CG

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 94 to 97): In these tests find the odd figure out.

94. 

Answer: (D)

95. 

Answer: (B)

96. 

Answer: (B)

97. 

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 98 to 100): In these tests Figure X is Hidden in the option figures. Find the Correct option.

98. 

Answer: (B)

99. 

Answer: (C)

100. 

Answer: (A)

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2015 Question Paper with Answer Key

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2015
Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2015 Question Paper with Answer Key

Previous Paper

Airforce Common Admission Test

(AFCAT)-1/2015

Directions (Qs. No. 1-4): Which word or words explains the meaning of the following idioms:

1. In a jiffy

(A)  Outstanding

(B)  Suddenly

(C)  In a fix

(D)  Appropriate

Answer: (B)

2. Upto the hilt

(A)  Completely

(B)  Upto the mark

(C)  Upto the final decision

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

3. Man of Letters

(A)  Who writes too many letters

(B)  An important person

(C)  A politician

(D)  A literary person

Answer: (D)

4. Sangfroid

(A)  Composure

(B)  Go on leave

(C)  Changed Suddenly

(D)  Make an attempt

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. No. 5-10): Select the most appropriate word from the options against each number:

   As home entertainment, television is rapidly becoming more …(5)… than any other form. A news broadcast becomes more immediate when people …(6)… actually see the scene …(7)… question and the movement of the figures. Films could be viewed in the …(8)… of the home and a variety of shows are also available. One of the advantages of travel programmes is the …(9)… of far away places which many viewers would not …()… see.

5.

(A)  interesting

(B)  popular

(C)  powerful

(D)  purposeful

Answer: (B)

6.

(A)  could

(B)  would

(C)  might

(D)  shall

Answer: (A)

7.

(A)  of

(B)  with

(C)  as

(D)  in

Answer: (D)

8.

(A)  surroundings

(B)  assistance

(C)  comfort

(D)  privilege

Answer: (C)

9.

(A)  glimpses

(B)  image

(C)  portrait

(D)  picture

Answer: (A)

10.

(A)  possible

(B)  rather

(C)  else

(D)  otherwise

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. No. 11-14): Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the given word:

11. Sporadic

(A)  Epidemic

(B)  Whirling

(C)  Occasional

(D)  Stagnant

Answer: (C)

12. Genesis

(A)  Style

(B)  Beginning

(C)  Movement

(D)  Relevant

Answer: (B)

13. Intransigent

(A)  Authoritative

(B)  Impersonal

(C)  Strenuous

(D)  Unbending

Answer: (D)

14. Intimidate

(A)  Mislead

(B)  Misplace

(C)  Frighten

(D)  Demoralise

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. No. 15-18): Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word:

15. Clemency

(A)  Corporal

(B)  Intolerance

(C)  Compromise

(D)  Sensibility

Answer: (B)

16. Cajole

(A)  Nestle

(B)  Secede

(C)  Bully

(D)  Moisten

Answer: (C)

17. Malevolent

(A)  Kindly

(B)  Vacuous

(C)  Ambivalent

(D)  Primitive

Answer: (A)

18. Purgatory

(A)  Reward

(B)  Celestial

(C)  Flawless

(D)  Proximity

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 19-21): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it:

   In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three months old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young from demanding full access to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal at the expense of others. The smallest of the cubs forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing polar bears, I have only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn.

19. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

(I) Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non availability of prey.

(II) Polar bears always give birth no triplets.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are true?

(A)  I only

(B)  II only

(C)  Both I and II

(D)  Neither I nor II

Answer: (A)

20. Female polar bears given birth during

(A)  Spring

(B)  Summer

(C)  Autumn

(D)  Winter

Answer: (D)

21. Mother bear

(A)  Takes sides over cubs

(B)  Lets the cubs fend for themselves

(C)  Feeds only their favourites

(D)  Sees that all cubs get an equal share

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 22-25): Choose the word that best defines the given phrases:

22. A Curtain Lecture

(A)  To speak plainly

(B)  Vulgar Ideas

(C)  Private scolding of a husband by his wife

(D)  Hate others

Answer: (C)

23. Square pegs in round holes

(A)  A genuinely helpful person

(B)  A Clever person

(C)  People in the wrong jobs

(D)  To be perplexed

Answer: (C)

24. In weal and woe

(A)  By hook or crook

(B)  During illness

(C)  In prosperity and adversity

(D)  During the operation

Answer: (C)

25. Globetrotters

(A)  People against global philosophy

(B)  People indulging in treachery

(C)  Intelligent minds

(D)  Travellers around the world

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. No. 26-29): Choose the correctly spelt word:

26.

(A)  Konnoisseur

(B)  Conoisseur

(C)  Connoisseur

(D)  Konoisseur

Answer: (C)

27.

(A)  Munifisent

(B)  Muneficent

(C)  Munificent

(D)  Munificient

Answer: (C)

28.

(A)  Equanimity

(B)  Equannimity

(C)  Equanimmisty

(D)  Equinimity

Answer: (A)

29.

(A)  Vetarinary

(B)  Veteninary

(C)  Veterinary

(D)  Vetniary

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. No. 30-65): Choose the most appropriate answer:

30. A, B and C can do a piece of word in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?

(A)  12 days

(B)  15 days

(C)  16 days

(D)  18 days

Answer: (B)

31. A man can row  in still water and finds that it takes him thrice as much time to row up than to row down the same distance in the river. The speed of the current is

(A)    

(B)    

(C)    

(D)   

Answer: (C)

32. The speed of a boat in still water is 10 kmph. If it can travel 26 km downstream and 14 km upstream in the same time, the speed of the stream is

(A)  2 kmph

(B)  2.5 kmph

(C)  3 kmph

(D)  4 kmph

Answer: (C)

33. If a sum becomes double in 16 years, how many times will it be in 8 years?

(A)    

(B)   

(C)    

(D)   

Answer: (A)

34. In how many years will a sum of Rs 800 at 10% per annum compounded semi-annually become Rs 926.10?

(A)    

(B)   

(C)   

(D)    

Answer: (B)

35. A sells 2 TV sets, one at a loss of 15% and another at a profit of 15%. Find the loss/again percentage in the overall transaction?

(A)  2.25%

(B)  3%

(C)  4%

(D)  No profit, no loss

Answer: (D)

36. A man travelled from a point A to B at the rate of 25 kmph and walked back at the rate of 4 kmph. If the whole journey took 5 hrs 48 minutes, the distance between A and B is

(A)  30 km

(B)  24 km

(C)  20 km

(D)  51.6 km

Answer: (C)

37. A Train travelling at a uniform speed clears a platform 200 m long in 10 seconds and passes a telegraph post in 5 seconds. The speed of the train is

(A)  36 km/h

(B)  39 km/h

(C)  144 km/h

(D)  78 km/h

Answer: (C)

38. The price of sugar increases by 20% due to the festive season. By what percentage should a family reduce the consumption of sugar so that there is no change in the expenditure?

(A)  20%

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (C)

39. A’s salary is 20% lower than B’s salary, which is 15% lower than C’s salary. By how much per cent is C’s salary more than A’s salary?

(A)  44.05%

(B)  45.05%

(C)  46.05%

(D)  47.05%

Answer: (D)

40. The average weight of 5 men is increased by 2 kg when one of the men whose weight is 60 kg is replaced by a new man. The weight of the new man is

(A)  50 kg

(B)  65 kg

(C)  68 kg

(D)  70 kg

Answer: (D)

41. A and B can do a piece of work in 18 days; B and C can do it in 24 days, A and C can do it in 36 days. In how many days B alone can finish the work?

(A)  48 days

(B)  45 days

(C)   

(D)  144 days

Answer: (C)

42. The opposition party status is accorded to a political party in the Lok Sabha only if it captures at least

(A)  5% Seats

(B)  10% Seats

(C)  15% Seats

(D)  20% Seats

Answer: (B)

43. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘A Bend in the River’?

(A)  Chetan Bhagat

(B)  V. S. Naipaul

(C)  Kiran Desai

(D)  Anita Desai

Answer: (B)

44. ‘Long Walk to Freedom’ is a book written by

(A)  Sonia Gandhi

(B)  L. K. Advani

(C)  Nelson Mandela

(D)  Benazir Bhutto

Answer: (C)

45. Which sports personality has been awarded the honoarary rank of Group Captain by the IAF?

(A)  Kapil Dev

(B)  Sania Mirza

(C)  Saina Nehwal

(D)  Sachin Tendulkar

Answer: (D)

46. Which country among the following has been declared Ebola-free by WHO?

(A)  Sierra Leone

(B)  Liberia

(C)  Nigeria

(D)  Guinea

Answer: (C)

47. How many Gold Medals did India win in the Incheon Asian Games held in October 2014?

(A)  10

(B)  11

(C)  12

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

48. Who has been appointed as the new Finance Secretary of India?

(A)  Arvind Mayaram

(B)  Rajiv Mehrishi

(C)  Kaushik Basu

(D)  Dinesh Gupta

Answer: (B)

49. Which among the following is India’s first long range subsonic cruise missile?

(A)  Agni II

(B)  Prithvi

(C)  Dhanush

(D)  Nirbhay

Answer: (D)

50. The branch of science that studies cells is called

(A)  Cytology

(B)  Entomology

(C)  Homoplastic

(D)  Hormonology

Answer: (A)

51. How many Vice Presidents are elected at the start of its each regular session of UN General Assembly?

(A)  Nine

(B)  Fifteen

(C)  Two

(D)  Twenty one

Answer: (D)

52. The highest civilian award of India ‘Bharat Ratna’ has been awarded to only two foreigners so far. One of them is Nelson Mandela. The other is

(A)  Marshal Tito

(B)  Mikhail Gorbachev

(C)  Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

(D)  Abdul Wali Khan

Answer: (C)

53. Sir C.V. Raman was awarded Nobel Prize for his work connected with which of the following phenomenon of radiation?

(A)  Scattering

(B)  Diffracting

(C)  Interference

(D)  Polarisation

Answer: (A)

54. In which city is headquarters of Asian Development Bank located?

(A)  Manila

(B)  Singapore

(C)  Bangkok

(D)  Jakarta

Answer: (A)

55. K-15 missile is

(A)  Submarine launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM)

(B)  Inter Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM)

(C)  Medium Range Ballistic Missile (MRBM)

(D)  Short Range Ballistic Missile (SRBM)

Answer: (A)

56. India agreed to UN Chief Ban Ki-Moon’s offer to remain as a member of the advisory board of one of the following recently

(A)  UNCCT

(B)  UNICEF

(C)  UNEP

(D)  UNCTAD

Answer: (A)

57. Kaziranga National Park is famous for

(A)  One-horned Rhinos

(B)  Tigers

(C)  Swamp Dears (Barasingha)

(D)  Elephants

Answer: (A)

58. Who was the first Indian to win an individual medal in Olympics?

(A)  Milkha Singh

(B)  P. T. Usha

(C)  Karnam Malleshwari

(D)  K. D. Jadhav

Answer: (D)

59. Who among the following was the Congress President at Madras Session of 1927 when it boycotted the Simon Commission?

(A)  Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

(B)  M. A. Ansari

(C)  Lala Lajpat Rai

(D)  Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer: (B)

60. Why did Kalinga prove to be a turning point in the life of Ashoka?

(A)  Ashoka annexed Kalinga

(B)  It was the starting point of the expansion of his empire

(C)  Ashoka became a zealous Buddhist

(D)  It enabled Mauryan Empire to reach its climax

Answer: (C)

61. Which of the following wings was not part of the espionage system described by Kautilya?

(A)  Crime Branch

(B)  Special Branch

(C)  Political Branch

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

62. Alauddin Khalji did not build

(A)  Siri fort

(B)  Tomb of Jalauddin

(C)  Hauz-i-Alai

(D)  Jamaat Khana Masjid

Answer: (D)

63. Which of the following dynasties was ruling over North India at the time of Alexander’s invasion?

(A)  Nanda

(B)  Maurya

(C)  Sunga

(D)  Kanva

Answer: (A)

64. Which of the following Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs) is under development in India?

(A)  Agni-I

(B)  Agni-II

(C)  Agni-IV

(D)  Agni-VI

Answer: (D)

65. Who among the following was adjudged as the Most Valuable Player of the 17th Asian Games held at Incheon, South Korea?

(A)  Mary Kom of India

(B)  Kosuke Hagino of Japan

(C)  Ning Zetao of China

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 66-70): In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

66. East : Orient :: ? : ?

(A)  North : Polar

(B)  North : Tropic

(C)  South : Capricorn

(D)  West : Occident

Answer: (D)

67. Ignominy : Disloyalty : : ? : ?

(A)  Death : Victory

(B)  Martyr  : Man

(C)  Fame : Heroism

(D)  Destruction : Victory

Answer: (C)

68. Loath : Coercion : : ? : ?

(A)  Detest : Caressing

(B)  Irritate : Caressing

(C)  Irate : Antagonism

(D)  Reluctant : Persuasion

Answer: (D)

69. Trilogy : Novel : : ? : ?

(A)  Rice : Husk

(B)  Milk : Cream

(C)  Serial : Episode

(D)  Gun : Cartridge

Answer: (C)

70. Wife : Marriage : : ? : ?

(A)  Bank : Money

(B)  Nationality : Citizenship

(C)  Service : Qualification

(D)  Attendance : Register

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 71-75): Each of these questions given below contains three elements. These elements may or may not have some inter-linkage. Each group of elements may fit into one of these diagrams at A, B, C or D. You have to indicate the group of elements which correctly fits into the diagrams.

71. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Doctors, Human Beings and Married People?

Answer: (D)

72. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Children, Naughty and Studious?

Answer: (C)

73. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Thief, Criminal and Police?

Answer: (A)

74. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Man, Worker and Garden?

Answer: (D)

75. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Males, Cousins and Nephews?

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. No. 76-80): In each of the following questions, select a figure fro amongst the four alternative, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.

76. 

Answer: (B)

77. 

Answer: (D)

78. 

Answer: (D)

79. 

      

Answer: (C)

80. 

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. No. 81-85): Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked 1, 2, 3 4 and 5 called the Problem Figures followed by four other figures marked A, B, C and D called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

81. 

Answer: (D)

82. 

Answer: (C)

83. 

       

Answer: (C)

84. 

Answer: (C)

85. 

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. No. 86-90): In each of the following questions, four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is different. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

86. 

(A)  Othello

(B)  King Lear

(C)  Oliver Twist

(D)  Macbeth

Answer: (C)

87. 

(A)  Nimitz

(B)  Yamamoto

(C)  Nelson

(D)  Montgomery

Answer: (D)

88.

(A)  Blaze

(B)  Glint

(C)  Simmer

(D)  Shimmer

Answer: (C)

89.

(A)  Aravalli hills

(B)  Shivalik hills

(C)  Mole hills

(D)  Satpura hills

Answer: (C)

90.

(A)  Beaver

(B)  Alpaca

(C)  Walrus

(D)  Koala

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. No. 91-95): In each problem, out of the four figures marked A, B, C and D three are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other three. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

91. 

Answer: (C)

92. 

 

Answer: (D)

93. 

Answer: (D)

94. 

Answer: (A)

95. 

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. No. 96-100): Each of the following questions consist of two sets of figures. Figures 1, 2, 3 and 4 constitute the Problem Set while figures A, B C and D constitute the Answer Set. There is a definite relationship between figures 1 and 2. Establish a similar relationship between figures 3 and 4 by selecting a suitable figure from the Answer set that would replace the question mark (?) in fig. 4.

96. 

Answer: (A)

97. 

Answer: (D)

98.

Answer: (C)

99. 

Answer: (C)

100. 

Answer: (C)

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2017 Question Paper With Anwer Key

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2017
Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2017 Question Paper With Anwer Key

Previous Paper (Solved)

Air Force Common Admission Test

(AFCAT)-1 2017

1. Which religion was founded by Akbar?

(A)  Mahjan

(B)  Din-i-Ilahi

(C)  Aiwan-i-Khalsa

(D)  Din Panah

Answer: (B)

2. Who was army chief in October 2016?

(A)  Dalbir Singh Suhag

(B)  Bipin Rawat

(C)  J. J. Singh

(D)  Ramnath Goel

Answer: (A)

3. Who was navy chief in October 2016?

(A)  Ashok Malhotra

(B)  Vipin Tyagi

(C)  Sunil Lanba

(D)  Dalbir Sirohi

Answer: (C)

4. Yarlung Zangbo river in India is known as ……

(A)  Ganga

(B)  Gomati

(C)  Narmada

(D)  Brahamputra

Answer: (D)

5. Which is the highest tower of the world?

(A)  Sky tree

(B)  Big Ben Tower

(C)  Burj Khalifa

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

6. Who became prime minster after death of Rajiv Gandhi?

(A)  V. P. Singh

(B)  Chandra Shekhar

(C)  P.V. Narsimha Rao

(D)  H. D. Deve Gauda

Answer: (C)

7. Who defeated P.V. Sindhu in final in Rio Olympic?

(A)  Carolina Marin

(B)  Pornpawee Chochuwong

(C)  Saina Nehwal

(D)  Gregoria Mariska

Answer: (A)

8. In which city Asian Games 2014 was held?

(A)  New Delhi

(B)  Beijing

(C)  Incheon

(D)  Shanghai

Answer: (C)

9. Who was the first governor general of India after independence?

(A)  Rajagopalachari

(B)  William Jones

(C)  Lord Mountbatten

(D)  Curzon

Answer: (C)

10. What was the score of Dipa Karmakar in the final round in Rio Olympic?

(A)  52.698 point

(B)  42.538 point

(C)  68.285 point

(D)  48.358 point

Answer: (A)

11. Salal Project is located on which river?

(A)  Sutlej

(B)  Chenab

(C)  Ravi

(D)  Jhelum

Answer: (B)

12. Name the port made by India in Iran.

(A)  Chabahar Port

(B)  Tehran Port

(C)  Aaska Port

(D)  Hallar Port

Answer: (A)

13. Name the port made by China in Pakistan.

(A)  Lahore Port

(B)  Islamabad Port

(C)  Karachi Port

(D)  Gwadar Port

Answer: (D)

14. Who was given out first time by a third umpire in Test?

(A)  Rahul Dravid

(B)  James Simth

(C)  Sachin Tendulkar

(D)  Bravo

Answer: (C)

15. Which is classical dance of Kerala?

(A)  Kathakali

(B)  Bihu

(C)  Bhangra

(D)  Yakshagana

Answer: (A)

16. Which state produce more banana?

(A)  Kerala

(B)  Tamil Nadu

(C)  Maharashtra

(D)  Karnataka

Answer: (B)

17. Who was the first tirthankar of Jainism?

(A)  Rishabhanath

(B)  Parshvanath

(C)  Mahavir

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

18. Who was the 23rd tirthankar of Jainism?

(A)  Mahavir

(B)  Pashupatinath

(C)  Rishabhanath

(D)  Parshvanath

Answer: (D)

19. Who wrote Padmavat?

(A)  Surdas

(B)  Premchand

(C)  Malik Muhammad Jayasi

(D)  Mullah Daud

Answer: (C)

20. Who was the first governor general of India?

(A)  Curzon

(B)  William Bentick

(C)  Lord Mountbatten

(D)  Rajagopalchari

Answer: (B)

21. Mount Stromboli, which is one of the active volcanoes in the world, is in which country?

(A)  Argentina

(B)  China

(C)  Italy

(D)  Mexico

Answer: (C)

22. Which is the oldest refinery in India?

(A)  Mathura

(B)  Digboi

(C)  Hassan

(D)  Vijaynagar

Answer: (B)

23. Which among the following is a noble gas?

(A)  Nitrogen

(B)  Oxygen

(C)  Hydrogen

(D)  Helium

Answer: (D)

24. The character of Aladdin belongs to which book?

(A)  The Arabian Nights

(B)  One thousand and One Nights

(C)  Culprit

(D)  The Somalian Village

Answer: (B)

25. Which Indian sports person has been appointed as a member of the International Olympic Committee’s (IOC) Athletes’ Commission?

(A)  Devendra Jhajharia

(B)  Saina Nehwal

(C)  Abhinav Bindra

(D)  Sakshi Malik

Answer: (B)

26. If A/B = 4/3 then what is the value of 

(A)  3/5

(B)  2/5

(C)  1/5

(D)  4/5

Answer: (A)

27. The speed of a boat in river is 8 km/hr in still water, rate of river is 2 km/hr. If boat takes 3 hr 12 minutes to back and fro to a place then what is distance?

(A)  15 km

(B)  12 km

(C)  16 km

(D)  10 km

Answer: (B)

28. A train 110 m long running at the speed of 60 km/hr, how long it will take to cross a man running in the opposite direction at the speed if 10 km/hr.

(A)    

(B)    

(C)    

(D)    

Answer: (C)

29. If a sun doubles in 4 year, how long it will take to become 4 times of sum on compound interest.

(A)  8 years

(B)  6 years

(C)  10 years

(D)  12 years

Answer: (A)

30. 240 chocolates were brought at 9 per dozen, and was sold at 1 re each, find the % loss or gain?

(A)    

(B)    

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (B)

31. 10 years ago the average age of a family of 4 member was 24, In mean time two child born by a gap of two yrs, what is the age of younger child if the average age family is same as it was 10 years ago.

(A)  2 years

(B)  4 years

(C)  3 years

(D)  5 years

Answer: (C)

32. A shopkeeper sold one tablet and one smartphone of 12000, on smartphone he lost 25%, and gained 20% on the price of tablet. What is its total loss and gain.

(A)  Gain Rs 1500

(B)  Loss Rs 1500

(C)  Gain Rs 2000

(D)  Loss Rs 2000

Answer: (D)

33. If one student got  in various subjects, what is the percentage average?

(A)  56.8%

(B)  51.5%

(C)  52.8%

(D)  55.4%

Answer: (A)

34. Biku and Mahre fought election, Bikhu got 55% vote and 25% vote were declared invalid. Population of village is 6000. Find the vote given to Mahtre.

(A)  Rs 1600

(B)  Rs 1200

(C)  Rs 1300

(D)  Rs 1500

Answer: (B)

35. If 21% of a number is subtracted from 91 gives the same number, find the number.

(A)  50.8

(B)  75.2

(C)  68.3

(D)  72.5

Answer: (B)

36. If 50% of a number is added to 84 gives the number, what is number?

(A)  158

(B)  178

(C)  168

(D)  188

Answer: (C)

37. XXXA is divisible by 9, what is the least natural number at ?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  6

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

38. A shopkeeper sell a TV 3000 on gain of 15%, he sells a different TV at loss of 10%. Over all he neither gain of loss. What is cost price or SP of second TV.

(A)  Rs 3521

(B)  Rs 3621

(C)  Rs 3221

(D)  Rs 3021

Answer: (A)

39. If 445 boys and 356 has to be divided in section of same no of students either boy or girl alone then total no of section.

(A)  6

(B)  9

(C)  8

(D)  5

Answer: (B)

40. If  then the value of n is:

(A)  3

(B)  2

(C)  0

(D)  1

Answer: (B)

41. Raman’s salary was decreased by 50% and subsequently increased by 50%. How much per cent does he loss?

(A)  20%

(B)  30%

(C)  25%

(D)  15%

Answer: (C)

42. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio  and its perimeter is 104 cm. The length of the longest side is:

(A)  52 cm

(B)  48 cm

(C)  32 cm

(D)  26 cm

Answer: (B)

43. A, B and C enter into partnership. A invests 3 times as much as B invests and B invests two-third of what C invests. At the end of the year, the profit earned is Rs 6600. What is the share of B?

(A)  1000

(B)  1500

(C)  1100

(D)  1200

Answer: (D)

44. If 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work in 19 days, then in how many days will 3 men and 6 women do the same work?

(A)  12

(B)  15

(C)  18

(D)  21

Answer: (B)

45. A man took a loan from a bank at the rate of 12% p.a. Simple interest. After 3 years, he had to pay Rs 5400 interest only for the period. The principal amount borrowed by him was:

(A)  Rs 2000

(B)  Rs 10000

(C)  Rs 15000

(D)  Rs 20000

Answer: (C)

46. The price of an item is decreased by 25%. What per cent increase must be done in new price to get the original price?

(A)    

(B)   

(C)   

(D)    

Answer: (A)

47. A sum was invested for 3 years at simple interest at a certain rate. Had it been invested at 4% higher rate of interest, it would have fetched Rs 600 more. The sum is

(A)  Rs 4000

(B)  Rs 4950

(C)  Rs 5000

(D)  Rs 5150

Answer: (C)

48. A’s salary is 20% lower than B’s salary, which is 15% lower than C’s salary. By how much per cent is C’s salary more than A’s salary?

(A)  44.05%

(B)  45.05%

(C)  46.05%

(D)  47.05%

Answer: (D)

49. A and B can do a piece of work in 18 days; B and C can do it in 24 days, A and C can do it in 36 days. In how many days B alone can finish the work?

(A)  48 days

(B)  45 days

(C)   

(D)  144 days

Answer: (C)

50. How many digits will be there to the right of the decimal point in the product of 95.75 and 0.02554 ?

(A)  5

(B)  6

(C)  7

(D)  Insufficient data

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 51-55): Which word or words explain the meaning of the following idioms:

51. To hit the nail and head

(A)  to hit on the head

(B)  to understand

(C)  to be precise

(D)  to forget

Answer: (C)

52. To eat one’s word

(A)  to eat everything

(B)  to retract what one has said

(C)  to eat leisurely

(D)  not to eat anything

Answer: (B)

53. Halcyon days

(A)  bright future

(B)  dark future

(C)  past dark period

(D)  past happy and peaceful days

Answer: (D)

54. To keep the wolf from door

(A)  to scare away a wolf

(B)  to survive

(C)  to hunt a wolf

(D)  to shut the door tightly

Answer: (B)

55. To tug of war

(A)  the cause of discord

(B)  the hardest part of any undertaking

(C)  the basis of discrimination

(D)  the rules and conditions of a game

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 56 to 59): Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word:

56. FLAGITIOUS

(A)  Innocent

(B)  Vapid

(C)  Ignorant

(D)  Frivolous

Answer: (A)

57. LIABILITY

(A)  Property

(B)  Assets

(C)  Debt

(D)  Teasure

Answer: (B)

58. VIRTUOUS

(A)  Wicked

(B)  Corrupt

(C)  Vicious

(D)  Scandalous

Answer: (C)

59. ENCOURAGE

(A)  Dampen

(B)  Disapprove

(C)  Discourage

(D)  Warn

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 60-64): Select the most appropriate word from the options against each number:

Inspired to create a mobile-tracking solution …(60)… his 16-year-old son lost his cellphone, P. Sekhar, chairman of Micro Technologies, began work on a program to …(61)… phones. The code –downloadable at Rs 200-300 a year on most handsets from Micro’s website – allows the owner to track the exact location …(62)… his phone and the number of the new SIM card that …(63)… inserted. As of now, the only action a subscriber can take is to frantically call the service …(64)… and block his card.

60.

(A)  of

(B)  for

(C)  while

(D)  after

Answer: (D)

61.

(A)  look

(B)  guide

(C)  track

(D)  buy

Answer: (C)

62.

(A)  inside

(B)  for

(C)  in

(D)  of

Answer: (D)

63.

(A)  had been

(B)  were

(C)  was

(D)  has been

Answer: (D)

64.

(A)  owner

(B)  provider

(C)  subscriber

(D)  giver

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 65-67): Choose the correctly spelt word.

65.

(A)  Acredition

(B)  Accredition

(C)  Accreditation

(D)  Accrediton

Answer: (C)

66.

(A)  Vicarous

(B)  Vicerious

(C)  Vicourious

(D)  Vicarious

Answer: (D)

67.

(A)  Schezophrenia

(B)  Schizaphrenia

(C)  Schizophrenia

(D)  Schizophrania

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 68-72): Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the given word:

68. Silence

(A)  cacophony

(B)  clamour

(C)  verbosity

(D)  taciturnity

Answer: (D)

69. Idiocy

(A)  acumen

(B)  sagacity

(C)  fatuity

(D)  sanity

Answer: (C)

70. Applaud

(A)  censure

(B)  extol

(C)  decry

(D)  deprecate

Answer: (B)

71. Harbinger

(A)  herald

(B)  robust

(C)  agile

(D)  gallant

Answer: (A)

72. Passe

(A)  modern

(B)  prevalent

(C)  obsolete

(D)  voguish

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 73-75): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it:

How would you feel if the nation’s biggest superstar is your fan? Well, there’s bound to be no end to your joy and that’s exactly what’s been happening to India’s new cricket wonder boy Mahinder Singh Dhoni when he realized Amitabh Bachchan, who has been his childhood idol, turned out to be his die-hard fan. The two of them met on a film’s set in Mumbai. Dhoni was shooting in Mumbai’s Film city for a commercial, while the big B was also shooting in the same place. When big B learnt to Dhoni presence, he sent in a word to the sporting superstar asking him if they could meet. “At first Dhoni couldn’t believe his luck. He thought someone was pulling a fast one on him, but when he realized the truth, he sent a message saying it wouldn’t be polite for Mr. Bachchan to come and see him instead, after his shoot he himself would come and meet him. And, of course, Dhoni finished his shoot and rushed to the nearby set to meet his idol, “says a unit member Talk of mutual admiration societies”.

73. When Bacchan learnt Dhoni’s presence what did he do?

(A)  he continued his shooting

(B)  he asked for a meeting with him

(C)  he asked Dhoni to meet him

(D)  he went to meet him

Answer: (B)

74. Who are the mutual admiration societies referred above?

(A)  Cricket and Film

(B)  Filmstar and Cricket Star

(C)  Commercial shoot and Film shoot

(D)  Amitabh and Dhoni

Answer: (C)

75. Upon hearing Bachchan’s message what happened?

(A)  Dhoni rushed to him           

(B)  Dhoni thought someone was playing prank

(C)  He called him up

(D)  Dhoni thought it was a joke

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 76-80): Each of these questions given below contains three elements. These elements may or may not have some inter-linkage. Each group of elements may fit into one of these diagrams at (A), (B), (C) or (D). You have to indicate the group of elements which correctly fits into the diagrams:

76. Which of the following diagrams correctly represents Elephants, Wolves, Animals?

Answer: (A)

77. Select from the given diagrams, the one that illustrates the relationship among the given three classes : Carrot, Food, Vegetable

Answer: (A)

78. Select from the given diagrams, the one that illustrates the relationship among the given three classes: Judge, Thief, Criminal.

Answer: (C)

79. Choose from the four diagrams given below, the one that illustrates the relationship among Languages, French, German.

Answer: (C)

80. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the relationship among the classes:

Tennis fans, Cricket players, Students?

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 81-85): In each of the following questions, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one.

81.

(A)  Kiwi

(B)  Eagle

(C)  Emu

(D)  Penguin

Answer: (B)

82.

(A)  Lake

(B)  Sea

(C)  River

(D)  Pool

Answer: (C)

83.

(A)  Arrow

(B)  Axe

(C)  Knife

(D)  Dagger

Answer: (A)

84.

(A)  Sun

(B)  Moon

(C)  Mars

(D)  Universe

Answer: (D)

85.

(A)  House

(B)  Cottage

(C)  School

(D)  Palace

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 86-90): In each of the following questions, choose the alternative figure which is embedded in the given figure (X).

86. 

Answer: (A)

87. 

Answer: (C)

88. 

Answer: (A)

89. 

Answer: (D)

90. 

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 91-95): Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 called the Problem Figures followed by four other figures marked A, B, C, D and E called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures:

91. 

Answer: (C)

92.

Answer: (A)

93. 

Answer: (B)

94.

Answer: (A)

95. 

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 96 to 100): In each of the following questions a group of three inter related words are given. Choose a word from the given alternatives which is similar to the given three words.

96. Stem : Leaf : Branch

(A)  Wood

(B)  Tree

(C)  Teak

(D)  Fertiliser

Answer: (B)

97. Cytology : Botany : Taxonomy

(A)  Biology

(B)  Physics

(C)  Seismology

(D)  Morphology

Answer: (A)

98. Dbase : Lotus : C+

(A)  Cyclotron

(B)  Software Packages

(C)  Electronics

(D)  Computer

Answer: (B)

99. Everest : K2 : Nandadevi

(A)  Zaskar

(B)  Blue Mountain

(C)  Elagiri

(D)  Anaimudi

Answer: (D)

100. Coal : Night Sky : Soot

(A)  Raven

(B)  Brink

(C)  Colours

(D)  White

Answer: (A)

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2018 Question Paper With Answer Key

Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2018
Airforce Common Admission Test (AFCAT)-1 2018 Question Paper With Answer Key

Previous Paper (Solved)

Airforce Common Admission Test

(AFCAT)-1 2018

1. Who invented Fountain Pen?

(A)  Petrache Poenaru

(B)  Walter Hunt

(C)  J. L. Beared

(D)  Williams Gs

Answer: (A)

2. What is the size of Cricket Stump?

(A)  26 inches

(B)  28 inches

(C)  23 inches

(D)  18 inches

Answer: (B)

3. Who minted the coin of Laxmi Type?

(A)  Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(B)  Skandagupta

(C)  Chandragupta-II

(D)  Mohammad Gauri

Answer: (D)

4. Which country hosted Asian Games maximum number of times?

(A)  Japan

(B)  China

(C)  Thailand

(D)  Belgium

Answer: (C)

5. Places of Buddha Enlightenment?

(A)  Bodhgaya

(B)  Vaishali

(C)  Rajagriha

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

6. What is the dance of Gujarat?

(A)  Bihu

(B)  Lavani

(C)  Garbha

(D)  Ghumara

Answer: (C)

7. Tulsidas was contemporary of which Mughal Emperor?

(A)  Jahangir

(B)  Akbar

(C)  Shahjahan

(D)  Humayun

Answer: (B)

8. Asian Games 2018 will be held in which country?

(A)  Hangzhou (China)

(B)  Incheon (South Korea)

(C)  Doha (Qatar)

(D)  Jakarta (Indonesia)

Answer: (D)

9. FIFA World Cup 2018 venue?

(A)  Russia

(B)  Brazil

(C)  South Africa

(D)  Germany

Answer: (A)

10. Indian Standard Time (IST) passes through?

(A)  Bhopal

(B)  Ranchi

(C)  Allahabad

(D)  Raipur

Answer: (C)

11. Gulf of Mannar is situated at:

(A)  Gujarat

(B)  Tamilnadu

(C)  J & K

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

12. Main reason of Indian Monsoon:

(A)  Seasonal reversal of winds

(B)  Retreating monsoon

(C)  Cyclonic depression

(D)  All of these

Answer: (A)

13. From which country, India brought transport aircraft?

(A)  Russia

(B)  Israel

(C)  France

(D)  United Stated of America (USA)

Answer: (D)

14. India’s Youngest Grandmaster:

(A)  Parimarjan Negi

(B)  Himanshu Sharma

(C)  Srinath Narayanan

(D)  Abhijeet Gupta

Answer: (A)

15. Uber Cup is related to which game?

(A)  Tennis

(B)  Badminton

(C)  Football

(D)  Hockey

Answer: (B)

16. Term used for stamp collection:

(A)  Numismatics

(B)  Stamping

(C)  Philately

(D)  Ticketing

Answer: (C)

17. Mahatma Gandhi entered in politics from which movement?

(A)  Dandi March

(B)  Champaran Satyagraha

(C)  Khilafat Movement

(D)  Non-cooperation Movement

Answer: (B)

18. Cricket Pitch length:

(A)  22 yards

(B)  18 yards

(C)  25 yards

(D)  29 yards

Answer: (A)

19. ICC Headquarter is situated in:

(A)  Singpore

(B)  London

(C)  Vienna

(D)  Dubai

Answer: (D)

20. First Women wrestler to win Commonwealth Medal:

(A)  Babita Kumari

(B)  Kavita Devi

(C)  Geeta Phogat

(D)  Shakshi Malik

Answer: (C)

21. Yerevan is the capital of:

(A)  Armenia

(B)  Tirana

(C)  Baku

(D)  Minsk

Answer: (A)

22. Hoober Shot is related to which sports?

(A)  Football

(B)  Badminton

(C)  Cricket

(D)  Golf

Answer: (C)

23. Book “Two Years Eight Months and Twenty-Eight Nights” is written by:

(A)  Maria Sharapova

(B)  Salman Rushdie

(C)  Deepti Naval

(D)  Taslima Nasreen

Answer: (B)

24. Indian Economy (1950-1990) is:

(A)  Conservative

(B)  Mixed

(C)  Both Conservative & Mixed

(D)  Liberal

Answer: (A)

25. Strait of Hormuz is situated in:

(A)  Persina Gulf

(B)  Argolic Gulf

(C)  Gulf of Aden

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

26. A seller increases the cost price of an article by 30% and fixed the marked price as Rs 286. But during sale he gave 10% discount to the purchaser. Percentage of Profit will be:

(A)  15

(B)  20

(C)  17

(D)  10

Answer: (C)

27. A plane can cover 6000 km in 8 hours. If the speed is increased by 250 kmph, then the time taken by the plane to cover 9000 km is:

(A)  5 hours

(B)  8 hours

(C)  6 hours

(D)  9 hours

Answer: (D)

28. A sum of Rs 800 becomes Rs 956 in 3 years at a certain rate of simple interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 4%, what amount will the same sum become in 3 years?

(A)  Rs 1052

(B)  Rs 1042

(C)  Rs 1024

(D)  Rs 1025

Answer: (A)

29. The average age of 35 students in class is 16 years. Out of these students the average age of 21 students is 14 years. The average age of remaining students is:

(A)  15 years

(B)  17 years

(C)  20 years

(D)  19 years

Answer: D

30. The difference between the cost price and sale price is Rs 240. If the profit is 20%, the selling price is:

(A)  Rs 1200

(B)  Rs 1440

(C)  Rs 1800

(D)  Rs 2440

Answer: (B)

31. Rs 800 becomes Rs 956 in 3 years at a certain rate of interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 4% what amount will Rs 800 become in 3 years?

(A)  Rs 1020

(B)  Rs 1052

(C)  Rs 1282

(D)  Rs 1080