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GATE Exam 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences (XH) Question Paper With Answer Key

August 9, 2023August 9, 2023 by suresh84

GATE-2023

XH : Humanities & Social Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he _______ of watching a film that weekend.

(A) thought

(B) is thinking

(D) was thinking

Answer: (D)

2. Permit : _______ : : Enforce : Relax

(By word meaning)

(A) Allow

(B) Forbid

(D) Reinforce

Answer: (B)

3. Given a fair six-faced dice where the faces are labelled ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, and ‘6’, what is the probability of getting a ‘1’ on the first roll of the dice and a ‘4’ on the second roll?

(A) 1/36

(B) 1/6

(D) 1/3

Answer: (A)

4. A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.

(B) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.

(D) Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

Answer: (B)

5. How many triangles are present in the given figure?

(A) 12

(B) 16

(D) 24

Answer: (C)

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

6. Students of all the departments of a college who have successfully completed the registration process are eligible to vote in the upcoming college elections. However, by the time the due date for registration was over, it was found that suprisingly none of the students from the Department of Human Sciences had completed the registration process.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following sets of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote in the college elections would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) only (iii)

Answer: (D)

7. Which one of the following options represents the given graph?

(A) f(x) = x²2⁻^|x|

(B) f(x) = x 2⁻^|x|

(D) f(x) = x2⁻^x

Answer: (B)

8. Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

We tend to think of cancer as a ‘modern’ illness because its metaphors are so modern. It is a disease of overproduction, of sudden growth, a growth that is unstoppable, tipped into the abyss of no control. Modern cell biology encourages us to imagine the cell as a molecular machine. Cancer is that machine unable to quench its intial command (to grow) and thus transform into an indestructible, self-propelled automaton.

[Adapted from The Emperor of All Maladies by Siddhartha Mukherjee]

(A) It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.

(B) It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.

(D) Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.

Answer: (D)

9. The digit in the unit’s place of the product 3⁹⁹⁹ × 7¹⁰⁰⁰ is ________.

(A) 7

(B) 1

(D) 9

Answer: (A)

10. A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown.

The area of the shaded region is _______ cm².

(A) 6π

(B) 18

(D) 9π

Answer: (B)

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)

XH-B1: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless and Cowardly?

(A) Pusillanimous

(B) Unctuous

(D) Reticent

Answer: (A)

12. Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:

The whole family got together ___ Diwali

(A) of

(B) at

(D) till

Answer: (B)

13. Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

The (i) _______ factor amid this turbulence has been the (ii) ________ of high-octane, action-oriented films such as RRR, K.G.F: Chapter 2 and Pushpa from film industries in the south of the country. Traditionally, films made in the south have done well in their own (iii) _________. But increasingly, their dubbed versions have performed well in the Hindi heartland, with collections (iv) ________ those of their Bollywood counterparts.

(A) (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching

(B) (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing

(D) (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind

Answer: (B)

14. The following passage consists of 6 sentences. The first and sixth sentences of the passage are at their correct positions, while the middle four sentences (represented by 2, 3, 4, and 5) are jumbled up.

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

(1) Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

(2) Much of the social mobility literature regarded society as a uniform surface and failed to register the geographical intersections of region, city and place, with the social categories of class, gender and ethnicity.

(3) The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

(4) Further, I am concerned with the flows of people within, but especially beyond, the territory of each society, and how these flows may relate to many different desires, for work, housing, leisure, religion, family relationships, criminal gain, asylum seeking and so on.

(5) Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

(6) I show that sociology’s recent development of a ‘sociology of objects’ needs to be taken further and that the diverse flows of objects across societal borders and their intersections with the multiple flows of people are hugely significant.

(A) 3, 2, 5, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4, 5

(D) 4, 2, 5, 3

Answer: (B)

15. The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

(A) -0.25%

(B) 0%

(D) 10.25%

Answer: (A)

16. The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

(A) Fat: Plump: Voluptuous

(B) Short: Small: Petite

(D) Fair: Dark: Wheatish

Answer: (A, B)

17. A pandemic like situation hit the country last year, resulting in loss of human life and economic depression. To improve the condition of its citizens, the government made a series of emergency medical interventions and increased spending to revive the economy. In both these efforts, district administration authorities were actively involved.

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

(A) In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.

(B) The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.

(C) The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.

(D) The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.

Answer: (B, C)

XH-B1: Q.18 – Q.26 Carry TWO marks Each

18. Six students, Arif, Balwinder, Chintu, David, Emon and Fulmoni appeared in the GATE-XH exam in 2022. Balwinder scores less than Chintu in XH-B1, but more than Arif in XH-C1. David scores more than Balwinder in XH-C1, and more than Chintu in XH-B1. Emon scores less than David, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Fulmoni scores more than David in XH-C1. Arif scores less than Emon, but more than Fulmoni in XH-B1. Who scores highest in XH-B1?

(A) Fulmoni

(B) Emon

(D) Chintu

Answer: (C)

19. Select the correct relation between E and F.

(A) E > F

(B) E < F

(D) E < -F

Answer: (B)

20. A code language is formulated thus:

Vowels in the original word are replaced by the next vowel from the list of vowels, A-E-I-O-U (For example, E is replaced by I and U is replaced by A). Consonants in the original word are replaced by previous consonant (For example, T is replaced by S and V is replaced by T).

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

(A) HUUFNUSPOPH

(B) FIICLIQMEMF

(D) HEEDATTACRH

Answer: (C)

21. The stranger is by nature no “owner of soil” — soil not only in the physical, but also in the figurative sense of a life-substance, which is fixed, if not in a point in space, at least in an ideal point of the social environment. Although in more intimate relations, he may develop all kinds of charm and significance, as long as he is considered a stranger in the eyes of the other, he is not an “owner of soil.” Restriction to intermediary trade, and often (as though sublimated from it) to pure finance, gives him the specific character of mobility. If mobility takes place within a closed group, it embodies that synthesis of nearness and distance which constitutes the formal position of the stranger. For, the fundamentally mobile person comes in contact, at one time or another, with every individual, but is not organically connected, through established ties of kinship, locality, and occupation, with any single one.

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

(A) The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.

(B) The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.

(D) The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological

Answer: (B)

22. L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related?

Select the possible option(s):

(A) Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather

(B) Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather

(D) Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother

Answer: (B, D)

23. Five segments of a sentence are given below. The first and fifth segments are at their correct positions, while the middle three segments (represented by 2, 3, and 4) are jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the segments so that they form a coherent sentence:

(1) Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

(2) and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

(3) clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame,

(4) I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began,

(5) some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

(A) 2 – 3 – 4

(B) 3 – 2– 4

(D) 4 – 3 – 2

Answer: (A)

24. “I told you the truth,” I say yet again, “Memory’s truth, because memory has its own special kind. It selects, eliminates, alters, exaggerates, minimizes, glorifies, and vilifies also; but in the end it creates its own reality, its heterogeneous but usually coherent versions of events; and no sane human being ever trusts someone else’s version more than his own.”

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

(A) Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.

(B) Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.

(D) Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.

Answer: (C, D)

25. A firm needs both skilled labour and unskilled labour for the production of cloth. The wage of skilled labour is Rs. 40,000 per month, and that of unskilled labour is Rs. 15,000 per month. The total wage bill of the firm for the production of cloth is Rs. 23,75,000 in a month for 100 labour. How many skilled labour are employed by the firm (in Integer)?

Answer: (35 to 35)

26. Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

(1) Lek (2) Zloty (3) Diner (4) Drachma (5) Real

Answer: (3 to 3)

Economics – C1

XH-C1: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. An individual is endowed with income of Rs. 142 and has the utility function U(x₁, x₂) = x₂(x₁ + 1), where x₁ ≥ 0, x₂ ≥ 0. The unit price of x₁ is Rs. 2 and the unit price of x₂ is Rs. 3. The utility maximizing bundle is

(A) x₁ = 35, x₂ = 20

(B) x₁ = 30, x₂ = 24

(D) x₁ = 30, x₂ = 20

Answer: (C)

28. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) began operations in the year

(A) 1942

(B) 1947

(D) 1940

Answer: (MTA)

29. According to the Working Group on Money Supply: Analytics and Methodology of Compilation (1998) constituted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which of the following is NOT a component of the new monetary aggregate NM1 ?

(A) Currency with the public

(B) Demand deposits with the banking system

(D) ‘Other’ deposits with the RBI

Answer: (C)

30. Stagflation is a situation when

(A) both unemployment and inflation are low

(B) both unemployment and inflation are high

(D) unemployment is low but inflation is high

Answer: (B)

31. Consider the Keynesian consumption function C = α + βY, where C is the aggregate consumption, Y is the aggregate income, α is a constant (α > 0), and β is the marginal propensity to consume (0 < β < 1). Then, the average propensity to consume is

(A) α

(B)

(D)

Answer: (B)

32. An analyst regressed Y on X₁ and X₂. If she later noticed that X₁ = 5X₂, then which of the following assumptions of the classical linear regression model was violated?

(A) Homoscedasticity

(B) No Perfect Multicollinearity

(D) Linearity in parameters

Answer: (B)

33. Which of the following is NOT an example of non-tariff barriers?

(A) Voluntary export restraint

(B) A procurement law directing a government to buy domestically made products unless comparable foreign made products are substantially cheaper.

(D) An antidumping law

Answer: (D)

34. Among the following, who first proposed that internal government debt does not create a burden for the future generation?

(A) N. Gregory Mankiw

(B) Martin Feldstein

(D) A. P. Lerner

Answer: (D)

35. Which of the following is an example of direct tax?

(A) Sales tax

(B) Customs duty

(D) Excise tax

Answer: (C)

36. In the context of endogenous growth theory, the Nobel laureate Paul Romer emphasized that “ideas” are

(A) non-rival

(B) rival with medium degree of excludability

(D) rival with low degree of excludability

Answer: (A)

37. In the Human Development Index (HDI), the longevity is measured by

(A) child survival rate

(B) healthy life expectancy

(D) life expectancy at birth

Answer: (D)

38. Which of the following statements is correct about the Fourteenth Finance Commission?

(A) The Commission was chaired by Dr. C. Rangarajan.

(B) The Commission recommended achieving 90 percent metering of electricity by the end of the year 2012.

(D) The Commission was mandated to make recommendations for the period 2010-2015.

Answer: (C)

39. Many scholars consider the study conducted by Dandekar and Rath in the 1960s as the first systematic assessment of poverty in independent India. Which option from the following is NOT correct about the study?

(A) The study used the data on monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) from the 1960-61 round of the National Sample Surveys.

(B) The study used the identical calorie norm for rural and urban areas.

(D) The study used the same poverty line for all states.

Answer: (C)

40. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)?

(A) It has been a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Education.

(B) It was launched in the year 2010.

(D) One of the objectives of PMKVY has been to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training.

Answer: (C, D)

41. Which of the following is/are used for testing the assumption of normality?

(A) Shapiro-Wilk test

(B) Breusch-Godfrey test

(D) Park test

Answer: (A, C)

42. Suppose Amar borrows Rs. 1000 from Ujala. After one year, Ujala wants Rs. 1100 back from Amar. The yield to maturity in percent (%) on this borrowing is _______ (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (10.0 to 10.0)

43. A 250 ml bottle of mango juice costs USD 4 in the United States. If the exchange rate is 0.02 USD per Rupee, then the cost of the same bottle of mango juice in Rupees would be _______ (in integer).

Answer: (200 to 200)

44. The following table provides population information for different age groups in 2010 and 2017.

The percentage change in old-age dependency ratio from 2010 to 2017 is _______ (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (15.00 to 17.00)

XH-C1: Q.45– Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

45. A firm in a market with perfect competition has the following total cost (TC) function: TC(Q) = a + b(Q)

where Q is the quantity produced by the firm, 𝑎 is the fixed cost and b(Q) is the variable cost. What will happen if the fixed cost increases?

(A) In the short-run, the firm’s Average Variable Cost (AVC) curve will shift upwards.

(B) In the short-run, the firm’s Average Total Cost (ATC) curve will shift upwards.

(D) In the short-run, the firm’s Marginal Cost (MC) curve will shift upwards.

Answer: (B)

46. The emission of greenhouse gases is an example of “bads” that are

(A) rival and excludable

(B) non-rival and excludable

(D) non-rival and non-excludable

Answer: (D)

47. Consider a closed-economy IS-LM model. The IS and LM equations are

where Y is the output, C is the consumption (C′ > 0), I is the investment (I′ < 0), z ≡ i – π^e, i is the nominal interest rate, π^e is the expected inflation, is the government purchases, is the fixed real money balances, and k and l are positive constants.

Suppose everyone in the economy suddenly expects the inflation to rise in the future. Assuming that the LM curve remains unchanged, what will happen in the short-run?

(A) Equilibrium Y increases.

(B) Aggregate demand remains unchanged.

(D) Aggregate demand shifts down.

Answer: (A)

48. Consider the following simultaneous equations model:

Y_t = β₁ + β₂X_t + β₃X_{t – 1}+ β₄Z_t + μ₁t (1)

Z_t = δ₁ + δ₂Y_t + δ₃W_t + μ_2t (2)

Before estimating the above model, a researcher performed the test of identification using order and rank conditions, and found that equation (2) is over identified. Then, which of the following methods is appropriate to estimate equation (2) ?

(A) Two-Stage Least Squares

(B) Indirect Least Squares

(D) Ordinary Least Squares

Answer: (A)

49. An income tax system is considered as progressive if the average tax rate rises with income. Consider an income tax schedule: T = p + t Y, where T denotes the tax liability, p is a constant, 𝑡 is the constant marginal tax rate, and Y is the income. For this tax schedule to be progressive, the value of p

(A) must be positive

(B) must be negative

(D) can be any value except zero

Answer: (B)

50. Match the following:

(A) I → P ; II → Q ; III → R ; IV → S

(B) I → P ; II → S ; III → Q ; IV → R

(D) I → S ; II → P ; III → R ; IV → Q

Answer: (B)

51. Consider two countries, India and Bangladesh, and two goods, Glass Bottle and Ceramic Plate, with labour requirements of production for a unit of each good given below:

Which of the following options is/are correct?

(A) India has an absolute advantage in Glass Bottle production and a comparative disadvantage in Glass Bottle production.

(B) India has an absolute advantage in Ceramic Plate production and a comparative disadvantage in Ceramic Plate production.

(C) India has an absolute advantage in Ceramic Plate production and a comparative disadvantage in Glass Bottle production.

(D) India has an absolute advantage in Glass Bottle production and a comparative disadvantage in Ceramic Plate production.

Answer: (A, C)

52. Suppose the own price elasticity of demand and income elasticity of demand are given by e_p and e_I, respectively. The subscript p represents own price of a good and the subscript I represents the income of the consumer. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following.

(A) If 1 < e_p < ∞, the demand is price inelastic.

(B) Luxury goods are more price inelastic and the necessities are price elastic.

(D) If 0 < e_p < 1, the demand is price elastic.

Answer: (C)

53. Let π^e be the expected inflation rate, 𝑖 be the nominal interest rate and r be the real interest rate. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) For small values of r and π^e, r ≈ i – π^e

(B) When real interest rate is low, there are greater incentives to borrow and fewer incentives to lend.

(D) If i = 8% and π^e = 10%, then r is approximately (+) 2%.

Answer: (A, B, C)

54. Which of the following models explain(s) the upward-sloping aggregate supply curve in the short-run?

(A) Sticky-wage model

(B) Worker-misperception model

(D) Solow model

Answer: (A, B, C)

55. Consider a Mundell-Fleming model for a small open economy with perfect capital mobility. The goods market equation is

Y = C(Y) + I(r*) + G + NX(e)

where 𝑌 is the output, 𝐶 is the consumption (C′ > 0), I is the investment (I′ < 0), G is the government purchases, and NX is the net exports (NX′ < 0), r∗ is the fixed world interest rate, and e is the exchange rate.

The money market equation is

where M is the money supply, is the fixed price level, and k and l are positive constants.

Which of the following policies is/are ineffective (i.e., have no impact on income) in the short-run?

(A) Expansionary fiscal policy under floating exchange rate

(B) Expansionary monetary policy under floating exchange rate

(D) Expansionary monetary policy under fixed exchange rate

Answer: (A, D)

56. In the context of Balance of Payments accounting, which of the following transactions is/are NOT recorded under the Current Account?

(A) Merchandise trade

(B) Unilateral transfer payments

(D) Purchase of foreign currency by the central bank

Answer: (C, D)

57. The demand and supply functions for a commodity are given by:

D(p) = 10 – 2p and S(p) = −2 + p

where D(p) and S(p) are the quantity demanded and supplied, respectively, and p (in USD) is the unit price of the good.

If the government sets a price ceiling of USD 3 per unit, then the increase in consumer surplus (in USD) is _______ (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.71 to 0.79)

58. A duopoly faces the inverse market demand function p = 120 − Q, where p is the unit price (in Rs.) of the good being sold by firms A and B, and Q is the total output. Firm A has a constant marginal cost of Rs. 20, which is exactly half of firm B’s constant marginal cost. There is no fixed cost for both the firms. If there exists a Cournot-Nash equilibrium, Q is _______ (in integer).

Answer: (60 to 60)

59. Consider the following short-run cost function:

C(q) = 10q³ – 80q² + 300q + 50

At the minimum average variable cost (AVC), the value of marginal cost (MC) is ______ (in integer).

Answer: (140 to 140)

60. Consider the Keynesian Cross Model with a linear consumption function and a zero tax, where the government purchase is Rs. 100 and the equilibrium income is Rs. 1300. If the government purchase is increased to Rs. 125, the equilibrium income increases to Rs. 1400. Using the given information, the marginal propensity to consume is _______ (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.71 to 0.79)

61. Using the Ordinary Least Squares (OLS) method, a researcher estimated the relationship between initial salary (S) of MBA graduates and their cumulative grade point average (CGPA) as

where The standard errors of are 921.79 and 70.01, respectively.

The t-statistic for testing the null hypothesis β₁ = 0 is ______ (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (9.20 to 9.24)

62. Let X be a random variable with the probability density function f(x) such that

Then, the variance of X is _______ (in integer).

Answer: (1 to 1)

63. Suppose from the estimation of a linear regression model

Y_i = β₀ + β₁X_i + e_i

the residual sum of squares and the total sum of squares are obtained as 44 and 80, respectively. The value of coefficient of determination is _______ (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.43 to 0.47)

64. A labour-augmenting production function is

Y = K^0.33(AL)^0.67

where Y = output, K = capital, L = labour, and A = technology.

Assume that the growth rate of L is 1.2 percent per annum, the growth rate of K is 3 percent per annum, and the growth rate of A is 1.5 percent per annum. Using the growth-accounting approach, the growth rate of Y in percent per annum is _______ (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (2.70 to 2.90)

65. A monopolist is facing the demand function where Q is the quantity demanded and P is the price per unit of the good (P > 1). The average variable cost for the monopolist is 4/√Q and the fixed cost is 10. The profit maximizing price is _______ (in integer).

Answer: (26 to 26)

XH : Humanities & Social Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he _______ of watching a film that weekend.

(A) thought

(B) is thinking

(D) was thinking

Answer: (D)

2. Permit : _______ : : Enforce : Relax

(By word meaning)

(A) Allow

(B) Forbid

(D) Reinforce

Answer: (B)

(A) 1/36

(B) 1/6

(D) 1/3

Answer: (A)

4. A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.

(B) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.

(D) Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

Answer: (B)

5. How many triangles are present in the given figure?

(A) 12

(B) 16

(D) 24

Answer: (C)

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following sets of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote in the college elections would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) only (iii)

Answer: (D)

7. Which one of the following options represents the given graph?

(A) f(x) = x²2⁻^|x|

(B) f(x) = x 2⁻^|x|

(D) f(x) = x2⁻^x

Answer: (B)

8. Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

[Adapted from The Emperor of All Maladies by Siddhartha Mukherjee]

(A) It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.

(B) It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.

(D) Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.

Answer: (D)

9. The digit in the unit’s place of the product 3⁹⁹⁹ × 7¹⁰⁰⁰ is ________.

(A) 7

(B) 1

(D) 9

Answer: (A)

10. A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown.

The area of the shaded region is _______ cm².

(A) 6π

(B) 18

(D) 9π

Answer: (B)

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)

XH-B1: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless and Cowardly?

(A) Pusillanimous

(B) Unctuous

(D) Reticent

Answer: (A)

12. Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:

The whole family got together ___ Diwali

(A) of

(B) at

(D) till

Answer: (B)

13. Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

(A) (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching

(B) (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing

(D) (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind

Answer: (B)

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

(1) Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

(3) The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

(5) Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

(A) 3, 2, 5, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4, 5

(D) 4, 2, 5, 3

Answer: (B)

15. The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

(A) -0.25%

(B) 0%

(D) 10.25%

Answer: (A)

16. The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

(A) Fat: Plump: Voluptuous

(B) Short: Small: Petite

(D) Fair: Dark: Wheatish

Answer: (A, B)

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

(A) In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.

(B) The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.

(C) The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.

(D) The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.

Answer: (B, C)

XH-B1: Q.18 – Q.26 Carry TWO marks Each

(A) Fulmoni

(B) Emon

(D) Chintu

Answer: (C)

19. Select the correct relation between E and F.

(A) E > F

(B) E < F

(D) E < -F

Answer: (B)

20. A code language is formulated thus:

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

(A) HUUFNUSPOPH

(B) FIICLIQMEMF

(D) HEEDATTACRH

Answer: (C)

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

(A) The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.

(B) The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.

(D) The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological

Answer: (B)

22. L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related?

Select the possible option(s):

(A) Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather

(B) Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather

(D) Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother

Answer: (B, D)

(1) Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

(2) and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

(3) clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame,

(4) I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began,

(5) some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

(A) 2 – 3 – 4

(B) 3 – 2– 4

(D) 4 – 3 – 2

Answer: (A)

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

(A) Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.

(B) Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.

(D) Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.

Answer: (C, D)

Answer: (35 to 35)

26. Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

(1) Lek (2) Zloty (3) Diner (4) Drachma (5) Real

Answer: (3 to 3)

English – C2

XH-C2: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. Who published the novel The Bell Jar under the pseudonym Victoria Lucas?

(A) Dorothy Richardson

(B) Virginia Woolf

(D) Alice Walker

Answer: (C)

28. In which collection did Walt Whitman’s poem “Song of Myself” first appear?

(A) Two Rivulets

(B) November Boughs

(D) Leaves of Grass

Answer: (D)

29. Who wrote the introduction to Rabindranath Tagore’s Gitanjali?

(A) T. S. Eliot

(B) Ezra Pound

(D) W. B. Yeats

Answer: (D)

30. Identify the title of the poem in which the following lines appear:

“He was found by the Bureau of Statistics to be

One against whom there was no official complaint,

And all the reports on his conduct agree

That, in the modern sense of an old-fashioned word, he was a saint

For in everything he did he served the greater community.”

(A) “In Memory of W. B. Yeats”

(B) “The Unknown Citizen”

(D) “On this Island”

Answer: (B)

31. Identify the point of view used in the following passage:

“You are not the kind of guy who would be at a place like this at this time of the morning. But here you are, and you cannot say that the terrain is entirely unfamiliar, though the details are fuzzy.”

(A) Third-person point of view

(B) The limited point of view

(D) First-person point of view

Answer: (C)

32. Which of the following is a novel by Charles Dickens?

(A) The Old Curiosity Shop

(B) The Old Wives’ Tale

(D) One Hundred Years of Solitude

Answer: (A)

33. Which linguistic process can be seen in the formation of the following words?

(i) smog, (ii) brunch, (iii) motel (iv) telecast

(A) Borrowing

(B) Compounding

(D) Backformation

Answer: (C)

34. Which writer is credited with the ‘chutneyfication’ of Indian English?

(A) Raja Rao

(B) Salman Rushdie

(D) Arundhati Roy

Answer: (B)

35. Whom would you associate the term ‘simulacra’ with?

(A) Noam Chomsky

(B) Jean Baudrillard

(D) Michel Foucault

Answer: (B)

36. In Plato’s idea of the Republic there is no place for the ___________.

(A) Lawyer

(B) Magistrate

(D) Poet

Answer: (D)

37. What was Aristotle’s definition of hubris?

(A) Tragic flaw in a character

(B) A false sense of pride which eventually causes the character’s downfall

(D) A humble, ascetic quality

Answer: (B)

38. Stephen Dedalus is a recurring character in the works of _________.

(A) James Joyce

(B) H. G. Wells

(D) D. H. Lawrence

Answer: (A)

39. Which of the following novels opens with the sentence, “It is a truth universally acknowledged that a single man in possession of a good fortune must be in want of a wife.”?

(A) Sense and Sensibility

(B) Pride and Prejudice

(D) Emma

Answer: (B)

40. Which of the following novels by Chinua Achebe derives its title from W. B. Yeats’s poem “The Second Coming”?

(A) Arrow of God

(B) No Longer at Ease

(D) Things Fall Apart

Answer: (D)

41. Identify the novels that deal with the trauma of Partition:

(A) Shauna Singh Baldwin’s What the Body Remembers

(B) Amitav Ghosh’s The Shadow Lines

(D) Kamala Markandaya’s Nectar in a Sieve

Answer: (A, B)

42. Which of the following writers are associated with the Theatre of the Absurd?

(A) Harold Pinter

(B) Edward Albee

(D) Eugene O’Neill

Answer: (A, B)

43. Identify the writers who are referred to as ‘metaphysical poets’:

(A) John Donne

(B) Andrew Marvell

(D) T. S. Eliot

Answer: (A, B)

44. What are the sources of Girish Karnad’s Hayavadana?

(A) Thomas Mann’s The Transported Heads

(B) Valmiki’s Ramayana

(D) Franz Kafka’s The Metamorphosis

Answer: (A, C)

XH-C2: Q.45– Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

45. Which of the following terms are used by Samuel Taylor Coleridge in his theory of imagination?

(A) Primary imagination, secondary imagination, and fancy

(B) Negative capability, Hellenism, and impersonality

(D) Unacknowledged legislation, atheism, and anarchy

Answer: (A)

46. Which of the following is the forerunner of the autobiography?

(A) St. Augustine’s Confessions

(B) James Joyce’s Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man

(D) Izaak Walton’s Lives

Answer: (A)

47. Which of the following poems did Robert Browning intend to write as a play?

(A) “Men and Women”

(B) “Dramatis Personae”

(D) “The Ring and the Book”

Answer: (C)

48. The ‘Age of Reason’ in English literary history is popularly known as:

(A) The Medieval Period

(B) The Neo-classical Age

(D) The Victorian Age

Answer: (B)

49. Who first translated Jacques Derrida’s work into English?

(A) Gayatri C. Spivak

(B) Edward Said

(D) Paul de Man

Answer: (A)

50. Identify the ‘Lake Poets’:

(A) Byron, Shelley, Keats

(B) Wordsworth, Coleridge, Byron

(D) Wordsworth, Coleridge, Southey

Answer: (D)

51. Choose from the following options the type of drama that is intended by the author to be read rather than to be performed:

(A) Kitchen Sink Drama

(B) Closet Drama

(D) Folk Drama

Answer: (B)

52. Identify the commonality shared by the authors of Mansfield Park and Middle March:

(A) Both the novels were authored by men who were sent on exile.

(B) Both the novels were authored by political prisoners.

(D) Both the novels were written by women who wrote under pseudonyms.

Answer: (D)

53. Who said, “Poetry makes nothing happen”?

(A) Marianne Moore

(B) Ezra Pound

(D) W. H. Auden

Answer: (D)

54. Which literary device does the following line employ?

“A timorous foe, and a suspicious friend.”

(A) Antithesis

(B) Antistrophe

(D) Apostrophe

Answer: (A)

55. Match the following excerpts with their authors:

(A) (P)-(iii), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(i), (S)-(ii)

(B) (P)-(iv), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(ii), (S)-(i)

(D) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(ii), (S)-(iii)

Answer: (A)

56. The 1667 edition of Paradise Lost had 10 books. How many more were added to the 1674 edition?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 12

Answer: (A)

57. Read the following poem and identify the appropriate options:

And search

for certain thin –

stemmed, bubble-eyed water bugs.

See them perch

on dry capillary legs

weightless

on the ripple skin

of a stream.

No, not only prophets

walk on water. This bug sits

on a landslide of lights

and drowns eye –

deep

into its tiny strip

of sky.

(A) It uses free verse form.

(B) It employs imagery.

(D) It juxtaposes the non-human with the human.

Answer: (A, B, D)

58. Which of the following employ ‘Interior Monologue’?

(A) Alfred Lord Tennyson’s “In Memoriam”

(B) The final chapter of James Joyce’s Ulysses

(D) Robert Browning’s “My Last Duchess”

Answer: (B, C)

59. Which of the following works may be described as novels in verse?

(A) Aurora Leigh by Elizabeth Barrett Browning

(B) The Golden Gate by Vikram Seth

(D) Old Possum’s Book of Practical Cats by T. S. Eliot

Answer: (A, B)

60. Which of the following critics belong to the deconstructionist school?

(A) Jacques Derrida

(B) Paul de Man

(D) Kate Soper

Answer: (A, B, C)

61. Cleanth Brooks’s definition of ‘paradox’ in poetry foregrounds the following qualities:

(A) Wonder and irony

(B) Contradiction and qualification

(D) Omniscience and death of the author

Answer: (A, B)

62. Two examples of magic realist fiction include:

(A) Midnight’s Children

(B) The Tin Drum

(D) Tom Jones

Answer: (A, B)

63. Ferdinand de Saussure differentiates language in terms of:

(A) langue

(B) metaphor

(D) parole

Answer: (A, D)

64. Which of the following are considered to be typical postmodern narratives?

(A) Italo Calvino’s If on a Winter’s Night a Traveller

(B) John Barth’s Lost in the Funhouse

(D) Iris Murdoch’s The Bell

Answer: (A, B, C)

65. What does a green reading of a text aim at?

(A) Analyzing the implications of a text for environmental concerns

(B) Deconstructing human exceptionalism

(D) Marginalizing differently abled people

Answer: (A, B, C)

XH : Humanities & Social Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he _______ of watching a film that weekend.

(A) thought

(B) is thinking

(D) was thinking

Answer: (D)

2. Permit : _______ : : Enforce : Relax

(By word meaning)

(A) Allow

(B) Forbid

(D) Reinforce

Answer: (B)

(A) 1/36

(B) 1/6

(D) 1/3

Answer: (A)

4. A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.

(B) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.

(D) Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

Answer: (B)

5. How many triangles are present in the given figure?

(A) 12

(B) 16

(D) 24

Answer: (C)

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following sets of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote in the college elections would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) only (iii)

Answer: (D)

7. Which one of the following options represents the given graph?

(A) f(x) = x²2⁻^|x|

(B) f(x) = x 2⁻^|x|

(D) f(x) = x2⁻^x

Answer: (B)

8. Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

[Adapted from The Emperor of All Maladies by Siddhartha Mukherjee]

(A) It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.

(B) It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.

(D) Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.

Answer: (D)

9. The digit in the unit’s place of the product 3⁹⁹⁹ × 7¹⁰⁰⁰ is ________.

(A) 7

(B) 1

(D) 9

Answer: (A)

10. A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown.

The area of the shaded region is _______ cm².

(A) 6π

(B) 18

(D) 9π

Answer: (B)

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)

XH-B1: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless and Cowardly?

(A) Pusillanimous

(B) Unctuous

(D) Reticent

Answer: (A)

12. Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:

The whole family got together ___ Diwali

(A) of

(B) at

(D) till

Answer: (B)

13. Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

(A) (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching

(B) (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing

(D) (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind

Answer: (B)

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

(1) Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

(3) The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

(5) Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

(A) 3, 2, 5, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4, 5

(D) 4, 2, 5, 3

Answer: (B)

15. The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

(A) -0.25%

(B) 0%

(D) 10.25%

Answer: (A)

16. The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

(A) Fat: Plump: Voluptuous

(B) Short: Small: Petite

(D) Fair: Dark: Wheatish

Answer: (A, B)

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

(A) In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.

(B) The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.

(C) The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.

(D) The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.

Answer: (B, C)

XH-B1: Q.18 – Q.26 Carry TWO marks Each

(A) Fulmoni

(B) Emon

(D) Chintu

Answer: (C)

19. Select the correct relation between E and F.

(A) E > F

(B) E < F

(D) E < -F

Answer: (B)

20. A code language is formulated thus:

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

(A) HUUFNUSPOPH

(B) FIICLIQMEMF

(D) HEEDATTACRH

Answer: (C)

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

(A) The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.

(B) The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.

(D) The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological

Answer: (B)

22. L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related?

Select the possible option(s):

(A) Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather

(B) Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather

(D) Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother

Answer: (B, D)

(1) Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

(2) and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

(3) clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame,

(4) I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began,

(5) some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

(A) 2 – 3 – 4

(B) 3 – 2– 4

(D) 4 – 3 – 2

Answer: (A)

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

(A) Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.

(B) Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.

(D) Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.

Answer: (C, D)

Answer: (35 to 35)

26. Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

(1) Lek (2) Zloty (3) Diner (4) Drachma (5) Real

Answer: (3 to 3)

Linguistics – C3

XH-C3: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. In a writing system, if each unique grapheme represents a unique morpheme/word, the writing system is known as _____________.

(A) Logographic

(B) Syllabic

(D) Moraic

Answer: (A)

28. If an SOV language allows movement to OSV and VSO word orders, the resulting word order will be known as:

(A) Unmarked

(B) Marked

(D) Default

Answer: (B)

29. The phenomenon where ‘missed hotel’ is pronounced as ‘hissed motel’ is known as _____________.

(A) Agrammatism

(B) Wernicke’s aphasia

(D) Malapropism

Answer: (C)

30. When new information is introduced in a communication, such information is classified as __________.

(A) Focus

(B) Topic

(D) Theme

Answer: (A)

31. What type of morphological process is involved in the expression ‘English-vinglish’

(A) Complete reduplication

(B) Partial reduplication

(D) Suffixation

Answer: (B)

32. Which one of the following is a language isolate?

(A) Burushashki

(B) Mundari

(D) Kalasha

Answer: (A)

33. Which of the following Dravidian language is spoken in Pakistan?

(A) Konda

(B) Kuvi

(D) Brahui

Answer: (D)

34. Which word-order pair is the most common in world’s languages?

(A) SVO-SOV

(B) SOV-VSO

(D) SOV-VOS

Answer: (A)

35. Which type of morphological process is involved in creating catty from cat?

(A) Inflection

(B) Derivation

(D) Reduplication

Answer: (B)

36. Devanagari organizes the consonant graphemes as shown in the image. What is the parameter by which the following two rows differ?

(A) Voicing

(B) Manner of articulation

(D) Aspiration

Answer: (C)

37. Which option is related to Neo-Whorfism?

(A) Language, thought, worldview

(B) Innateness, deep-structure, surface-structure

(D) Signifier, signified, sign

Answer: (A)

38. Which of the following is/are involved in the comparative method for establishing language families and genetic relationship among languages?

(A) Reconstruction of the proto language

(B) Assembling a list of cognates

(D) Setting up sound correspondences

Answer: (A, B, D)

39. Aphasia can be caused by

(A) Open or closed head trauma

(B) Attention deficit

(D) Lack of motivation

Answer: (A, C)

40. In sociolinguistics, the term ‘anti-language’ refers to the language used for

(A) Academic purposes by professional criminologists

(B) Legal proceedings in the court of law

(D) Communication between caregivers and infants

Answer: (C)

41. In language policy making, which of the following steps is/are necessary for an erstwhile minority language, spoken by a sizeable population, to be introduced as a medium of instruction in schools?

(A) Language revival

(B) Corpus planning

(D) Language preservation

Answer: (B, C)

42. Which of the following research methods involve Reaction Time?

(A) Behavioral methods

(B) Experimental methods

(D) Qualitative methods

Answer: (A, B)

43. If [p] and [p^h] are allophones of the same phoneme /p/, which of the following statements is/are true?

(A) [p] and [p^h] are in contrastive distribution

(B) [p] and [p^h] are in complementary distribution

(D) [p] and [p^h] can be used interchangeably

Answer: (B, C)

44. Which of the following show(s) dissociation between cognitive disorder and language abilities?

(A) Autism spectrum disorder

(B) Williams syndrome

(D) Specific Language Impairment (SLI)

Answer: (B, C, D)

XH-C3: Q.45 – Q.65 Carry TWO mark Each

45. Which of the following sound pairs differ from each other in exactly two articulatory parameters?

(A) [p] vs. [b]

(B) [t] vs. [s]

(D) [n] vs. [d]

Answer: (C)

46. The cover term determiner refers to:

(A) Articles, demonstratives, and possessors

(B) Possessors, prepositions, and demonstratives

(D) Articles, prepositions, and possessors

Answer: (A)

47. In ‘John seems to have left’, the subject John has undergone:

(A) Subject-to-Subject lowering

(B) Object-to-Subject raising

(D) Object-to-Object lowering

Answer: (C)

48. The comparative and superlative forms of the adjective ‘good’ are examples of:

(A) Alternation

(B) Syncope

(D) Suppletion

Answer: (D)

49. Consider the following question and determine where was is moved finally, in accordance with the minimalist assumptions:

Was John, who wrote the book, angry?

(A) T to C

(B) C to T

(D) T to V

Answer: (A)

50. Match the following historical sound changes in Column X with the processes in Column Y

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

Answer: (A)

51. Consider the following morphological break-up of pfeifing produced by a simultaneous bilingual child. What phenomenon does this example indicate?

(A) Code-mixing arising out of social bilingualism

(B) Code-switching based on context of the conversation

(D) Mixed language arising out of pedagogical preferences

Answer: (C)

52. Which one of the following is compounding of compounded words?

(A) Lighthouse tower

(B) Skating board

(D) Walkman

Answer: (A)

53. What sociolinguistic phenomenon does the following sentence exemplify?

(A) Code switching

(B) Bilingualism

(D) Mixed language

Answer: (D)

54. Identify the labels for X and Y in the following tree.

(A) X: Verb, Y: Adjective

(B) X: Adjective, Y: Adjective

(D) X: Verb, Y: Verb

Answer: (A)

55. From the following, which is the correct order of animacy hierarchy?

(A) 1st/2nd Person > 3rd Person > Proper Name > Human Noun

(B) 3rd Person > 1st/2nd Person > Proper Name > Human Noun

(D) 1st/2nd Person > 3rd Person > Human Noun > Proper Name

Answer: (A)

56. Look at the adjectives in Column X and match with the types of adjectives in Column Y. Choose the correct option.

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3

(D) P-1, Q-3, R-2

Answer: (A)

57. In a given constraint ranking of *COMPLEX, DEP-IO >> MAX-IO for the input /spun/, which of the following candidates is/are optimal?

(A) [su.pun]

(B) [pun]

(D) [is.pun]

Answer: (B, C)

58. Consider the pattern of stress assignment shown below. Which of the given statements is/are true?

(A) Stress assignment is from left to right

(B) There are/is extrametrical syllable(s)

(D) Stress system is iambic

Answer: (A, B, C)

59. In word processing studies, visual word recognition is affected by:

(A) Proficiency, word length, neighborhood effect

(B) Frequency, age of acquisition (AoA), familiarity

(D) Language family, areal features, phoneme inventory size

Answer: (A, B)

60. Identify the language(s) that belong(s) to the Balkan Sprachbund.

(A) Romanian

(B) Bulgarian

(D) Swedish

Answer: (A, B)

61. Consider the following tree structure, where A and C are co-referential. Similarly, E and H are co-referential. Identify the incorrect statement(s).

(A) A binds C

(B) C binds E

(D) A binds H

Answer: (B, C, D)

62. Which of the following statements is/are true for the pair – bird : cuckoo

(A) Cuckoo is the hyponym of bird

(B) Bird is the hypernym of cuckoo

(D) Bird is the hyponym of cuckoo

Answer: (A, B)

63. In the sentences 1 through 4, in which one(s) a) entails b)?

(A) 1 a) entails 1 b)

(B) 2 a) entails 2 b)

(D) 4 a) entails 4 b)

Answer: (C, D)

64. The following figure depicts a spectrum of a vowel (dashed line), where F0 = 150 Hz and F0 = H1. The harmonics are indicated from H1 to H11. From the figure, the frequency (in Hz) of the second formant (F2) of this vowel is _______.

Answer: (1350 to 1350)

65. The number of core arguments associated with the ditransitive verb ‘give’ is _______.

Answer: (3 to 3)

XH : Humanities & Social Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he _______ of watching a film that weekend.

(A) thought

(B) is thinking

(D) was thinking

Answer: (D)

2. Permit : _______ : : Enforce : Relax

(By word meaning)

(A) Allow

(B) Forbid

(D) Reinforce

Answer: (B)

(A) 1/36

(B) 1/6

(D) 1/3

Answer: (A)

4. A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.

(B) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.

(D) Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

Answer: (B)

5. How many triangles are present in the given figure?

(A) 12

(B) 16

(D) 24

Answer: (C)

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following sets of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote in the college elections would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) only (iii)

Answer: (D)

7. Which one of the following options represents the given graph?

(A) f(x) = x²2⁻^|x|

(B) f(x) = x 2⁻^|x|

(D) f(x) = x2⁻^x

Answer: (B)

8. Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

[Adapted from The Emperor of All Maladies by Siddhartha Mukherjee]

(A) It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.

(B) It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.

(D) Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.

Answer: (D)

9. The digit in the unit’s place of the product 3⁹⁹⁹ × 7¹⁰⁰⁰ is ________.

(A) 7

(B) 1

(D) 9

Answer: (A)

10. A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown.

The area of the shaded region is _______ cm².

(A) 6π

(B) 18

(D) 9π

Answer: (B)

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)

XH-B1: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless and Cowardly?

(A) Pusillanimous

(B) Unctuous

(D) Reticent

Answer: (A)

12. Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:

The whole family got together ___ Diwali

(A) of

(B) at

(D) till

Answer: (B)

13. Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

(A) (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching

(B) (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing

(D) (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind

Answer: (B)

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

(1) Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

(3) The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

(5) Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

(A) 3, 2, 5, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4, 5

(D) 4, 2, 5, 3

Answer: (B)

15. The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

(A) -0.25%

(B) 0%

(D) 10.25%

Answer: (A)

16. The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

(A) Fat: Plump: Voluptuous

(B) Short: Small: Petite

(D) Fair: Dark: Wheatish

Answer: (A, B)

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

(A) In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.

(B) The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.

(C) The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.

(D) The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.

Answer: (B, C)

XH-B1: Q.18 – Q.26 Carry TWO marks Each

(A) Fulmoni

(B) Emon

(D) Chintu

Answer: (C)

19. Select the correct relation between E and F.

(A) E > F

(B) E < F

(D) E < -F

Answer: (B)

20. A code language is formulated thus:

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

(A) HUUFNUSPOPH

(B) FIICLIQMEMF

(D) HEEDATTACRH

Answer: (C)

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

(A) The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.

(B) The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.

(D) The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological

Answer: (B)

22. L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related?

Select the possible option(s):

(A) Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather

(B) Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather

(D) Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother

Answer: (B, D)

(1) Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

(2) and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

(3) clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame,

(4) I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began,

(5) some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

(A) 2 – 3 – 4

(B) 3 – 2– 4

(D) 4 – 3 – 2

Answer: (A)

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

(A) Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.

(B) Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.

(D) Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.

Answer: (C, D)

Answer: (35 to 35)

26. Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

(1) Lek (2) Zloty (3) Diner (4) Drachma (5) Real

Answer: (3 to 3)

Philosophy – C4

XH-C4: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. In Sāṅkhya philosophy ‘mind’ (manas) is an evolute of ______.

(A) Prakṛti

(B) Puruṣa

(D) Puruṣa and Prakṛti

Answer: (A)

28. Which one of the following is the manifestation of the Absolute Spirit in Hegel’s Phenomenology of Spirit?

(A) The devotion of a church congregation

(B) The knowledge of a natural scientist

(D) The mystical insight of an enlightened sage

Answer: (C)

29. The Cārvāka system accepts the following puruṣārthas:

(A) Artha and Kāma

(B) Dharma, Kāma and Mokṣa

(D) Artha, Kāma and Mokṣa

Answer: (A)

30. In Taittirīya Upaniṣad there is a discussion of five sheaths (pañca-koṣa) in which the individual self is encased. Which one of the following is the sheath (koṣa) of knowledge and intelligence?

(A) Vijñānamaya-koṣa

(B) Prāṇamaya-koṣa

(D) Ᾱnandamaya-koṣa

Answer: (A)

31. According to Swami Vivekananda, ‘Universal Religion’ would consist in recognising that there are different ways of approaching the religious object. The watch-word for universal religion is ___________.

(A) Tolerance

(B) Acceptance

(D) Adoration

Answer: (B)

32. In his ‘The Concept of the Absolute and Its Alternative Forms’, K. C. Bhattacharyya says, “… consciousness is of three kinds – knowing, feeling and willing…” Which one of the following is the ‘absolute’ of ‘knowing’?

(A) Truth

(B) Beauty

(D) Bliss

Answer: (A)

33. Which one of the following is NOT considered a pramāṇa by the Prābhākara Mīmāṃsaka?

(A) Anupalabdhi (Non-apprehension)

(B) Anumāna (Inference)

(D) Upamāna (Comparison/ Analogy)

Answer: (A)

34. Marx introduces the concept of ‘commodity fetishism’ in Capital. Which one of the following is a correct description of the concept?

(A) The reflection of human spiritual capacities in the material product

(B) The reflection of human needs in the material product

(D) The reflection of the dignity of human labour in the material product

Answer: (C)

35. W.V. O. Quine famously writes in ‘Two Dogmas of Empiricism’:

(A) No statement is immune to revision

(B) Only analytic statements are immune to revision

(D) Only the statements of empirical sciences are immune to revision

Answer: (A)

36. Comparing the thoughts of Heraclitus and Parmenides, we can say that:

(A) Both assert that only the soul (psuche) truly exists

(B) Heraclitus asserts the unity underlying the plurality of things, whereas Parmenides denies the plurality of things altogether

(D) Heraclitus asserts the incomprehensibility of the plurality of nature, while Parmenides asserts the fundamental comprehensibility of the plurality of nature

Answer: (B)

37. According to Heidegger’s Being and Time, the ontological difference is:

(A) The distinction between Being (Sein) and beings (Seiende)

(B) The distinction between Being (Sein) and Being-there (Dasein)

(D) The difference between Being (Sein) and Non-Being (Nichtsein)

Answer: (A)

38. In Plato’s Republic, the virtue of moderation is present:

(A) Only in the guardians

(B) In the auxiliaries and guardians

(D) Throughout the republic

Answer: (D)

39. In Kāśmīra Śaivism, Śiva is the only reality, the one without a second. Which among the following is/are the other name[s] for Kāśmīra Śaivism?

(A) Pratyabhijñā

(B) Trika

(D) Vīra-śaivism

Answer: (A, B, C)

40. In ‘Democracy’, B. R. Ambedkar lays out certain fundamental assumptions about his conception of democracy. They include:

(A) Adult suffrage and frequent elections are no bar against the governing class reaching places of power and authority

(B) Servile classes volunteering to elect members of the governing class as their rulers is a sign of a thriving democracy

(C) Servile classes in some countries may need other safeguards beside adult suffrage to oust the governing class from the seat of authority

(D) Existence of the governing class is consistent with democracy and self-government

Answer: (A, C)

41. Read the following passage carefully and answer the question:

My uniform experience has convinced me that there is no other God than Truth…That is why my devotion to Truth has drawn me into the field of politics; and I can say without the slightest hesitation, yet in all humility, that those who say that religion has nothing to do with politics do not know what religion means. Identification with everything that lives is impossible without self-purification; without self-purification the observance of the law of Ahimsa must remain an empty dream; God can never be realized by one who is not pure of heart.

– M. K. Gandhi, An Autobiography or the Story of my Experiments with Truth, p. 615

Which among the following are NOT in conformity with the above passage?

(A) God is Truth

(B) Devotion to God, which is Truth, prompted Gandhi to enter politics

(D) Ahimsa and politics do not go hand in hand

Answer: (C, D)

42. Soli likes either logic or biology. If Soli likes logic, then he is not a happy person. Neither Soli nor Rupinder likes biology.

Which among the following can be concluded from the premises given here?

(A) Soli is not a happy person.

(B) Rupinder is not a happy person.

(D) Soli likes logic.

Answer: (A, D)

43. On the basis of Aristotle’s Nicomachean Ethics, we can say the following about virtue:

(A) We can know the virtue of something only if we understand the function (ergon) of that thing

(B) Virtue entails deliberation

(D) Virtue has the nature of a mean between two extremes in most cases

Answer: (A, B, D)

44. According to Hume’s An Inquiry Concerning Human Understanding, the following is/are the principle[s] governing the connection of ideas:

(A) Resemblance

(B) Contiguity in space and time

(D) Cause and Effect

Answer: (A, B, D)

XH-C4: Q.45– Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

45. In his Yogasūtra, Patañjali mentions five kinds of afflictions (kleśas). Which one of the following is NOT among the five afflictions?

(A) Mātsarya (competition/ rivalry)

(B) Avidyā (false knowledge)

(D) Asmitā (egoism)

Answer: (A)

46. According to Jaina philosophy, all substances (dravya) but one have extension in space (astikāya). That one substance which has no extension in space (anastikāya) is ___.

(A) Time (kāla)

(B) Space (ākāśa)

(D) Motion (dharma)

Answer: (A)

47. Husserl’s fifth Cartesian Meditation is founded upon the realization that the reduction to my transcendental sphere of ownness:

(A) Does not fundamentally cut me off from the other

(B) Fatefully cuts me off from the other

(D) Is not necessary to understand the constitution of the objective world

Answer: (A)

48. According to the Nyāya system, the argument “A sparrow is a bird, since it has wings” would have an inferential defect (hetvābhāsa) called _______.

(A) Svarūpāsiddhi (unestablished in respect of itself)

(B) Āśrayāsiddhi (unestablished in respect of abode)

(D) Asādhāraṇa-anaikāntika (uncommon strayer)

Answer: (C)

49. Consider the following sentence: ‘Dhavala is a white cow.’ For the Vaiśeṣika, the meaning (artha) of the sentence consists of the following padārthas:

(A) Action (karma), Substance (dravya) and Unique particular (viśeṣa) only

(B) Substance (dravya), Universal (sāmānya) and Quality (guṇa) only

(D) Action (karma), Substance (dravya), Unique particular (viśeṣa) and Absence (abhāva) only

Answer: (C)

50. According to the theory advocated by G. Frege in his ‘On Sense and Reference’, the expression ‘the largest prime number’ would have ___________.

(A) Both a sense and a reference

(B) Only sense, and no reference

(D) Neither sense, nor reference

Answer: (B)

51. In the Phaedo, Plato’s Socrates develops a novel way of understanding the beauty of things. He tells us:

(A) The beauty of things is caused by nothing other than a combination of the colour, the shape and the size of a thing

(B) The beauty of things is simply the effect of that thing on the eyes of the observer

(D) The beauty of things is simply an illusion; only the beautiful exists in itself by itself (auto kath’ auto)

Answer: (C)

52. Descartes postulates the evil genius in his Meditations to deny the certainty of which statements?

(I) There is a table lamp to the left of the desk at which I am sitting.

(II) The sum of the angles of a triangle is 180 degrees.

(III) Sodium has only one electron in its outermost shell.

(IV) Plants absorb nourishment from the soil by means of their roots.

(V) I wish you were here.

(VI) I can see my friend in the 10th floor window of that building from where I stand on the road here below.

(VII) I am thinking of my dear mother.

(VIII) 2+2=4.

(A) IV, III and V

(B) I, II and III

(D) II and VIII

Answer: (D)

53. Which of the following statement[s] is/are NOT true in relation to Kant’s concept of the will?

(A) Every will, even the divine will is subject to imperatives

(B) Only the human will is subject to imperatives

(C) The human will is subject to the hypothetical imperative, whereas the divine will is subject to the categorical imperative

(D) The human will is subject to the categorical imperative which comes from God

Answer: (A, C, D)

54. We see a bronze statue of Poseidon in the National Archaeological Museum of Athens. Which of the following would be [a] cause[s] of the statue for Aristotle if we read his Physics?

(A) Bronze

(B) The sculptor who produced it

(D) The space in the temple in which the statue is installed

Answer: (A, B, C)

55. In the Buddhist theory of elements (dharmas), dharmas are the ultimate momentary elements of existence. The number of elements varies in different schools of Buddhism. Of the following alternatives, which pair[s] does/do NOT give us the respective number of dharmas accepted in Sautrāntika and Sarvāstivāda (Vaibhāṣika) schools?

(A) 75 and 43

(B) 43 and 75

(D) 0 and 43

Answer: (A, C, D)

56. According to the Advaita of Śaṅkara, the individual self (jīva) is:

(A) Not ontologically different from Brahman

(B) Empirically different from Brahman due to the limiting adjuncts of body, mind, senses etc.

(D) A part of Brahman

Answer: (A, B, C)

57. Mohammad Iqbal’s views on the nature of ‘intuition’ would state:

(A) Intuition is immediate knowledge of the Reality (God)

(B) Intuitive experience is not only subjective but also objective

(D) Intuition is the property of the mind and the intellect

Answer: (A, B, C)

58. Sandra Harding’s Standpoint Epistemology involves:

(A) Adopting a feminist empiricist point of view that critiques the masculine underpinnings of western sciences

(B) Recognizing that science is value free

(D) Grounding distinctive feminist science in strongly objective accounts of the world

Answer: (D)

59. In J. S. Mill’s articulation of utilitarianism which of the following statements about justice are valid?

(A) Standards of justice stand higher in the scale of social utility

(B) The just and the expedient are divided by an imaginary distinction

(D) Utilitarianism prioritises expediency over justice

Answer: (A, C)

60. According to Russell’s ‘On Denoting’, the proposition, ‘The prime number between 7 and 11 is NOT larger than 12’ would be true, if _______.

(A) The proposition, ‘The prime number between 7 and 11 is larger than 12’ is false

(B) The expression ‘the prime number between 7 and 11’ has a primary occurrence in the proposition

(D) There were only one prime number between 7 and 11

Answer: (C, D)

61. (i) p ⊃ (q ∙ r)

(ii) ~(p ⊃ s)

Taking (i) and (ii) as premises, which of the following can be deduced?

(A) q

(B) r

(D) ~p

Answer: (A, B)

62. ~q can be deduced from ~(p ⊃ (q ∨ r)) by using rules of propositional logic in the following sequence[s]:

(A) Material Implication> De Morgan’s Theorem> Commutation> Simplification> De Morgan’s Theorem> Simplification

(B) Conjunction> Addition> Modus Ponens> De Morgan’s Theorem

(C) Transposition> Material Implication> Double Negation> De Morgan’s Theorem> Simplification> De Morgan’s Theorem> Simplification

(D) Modus Tollens> Conjunction> Hypothetical Syllogism> Simplification

Answer: (A, C)

63. Read the passage below from Wittgenstein’s Philosophical Investigations carefully and answer the question.

I can think of no better expression to characterize these similarities than “family resemblances”; for the various resemblances between members of a family – build, features, colour of eyes, gait, temperament, and so on and so forth – overlap and crisscross in the same way. – And I shall say: ‘games’ form a family.

And likewise the kinds of number, for example, form a family. Why do we call something a “number”? Well, perhaps because it has a – direct – affinity with several things that have hitherto been called “number”; and this can be said to give it an indirect affinity with other things that we also call “numbers.” And we extend our concept of number, as in spinning a thread we twist fibre on fibre. And the strength of the thread resides not in the fact that some one fibre runs through its whole length but in the overlapping of many fibres.

But if someone wanted to say, “So there is something common to all these constructions – namely, the disjunction of all their common properties” – I’d reply: Now you are only playing with a word. One might as well say, “There is a Something that runs through the whole thread – namely, the continuous overlapping of these “fibres.”

– Ludwig Wittgenstein, Philosophical Investigations, Investigation No. 67

Which of the following statement[s] does Wittgenstein imply in the above passage?

(A) The one fibre supposed to run through the length of the thread corresponds to what is supposed to be common to all numbers

(B) The overlapping of the fibres corresponds to the family resemblance Wittgenstein is trying to explicate

(D) To describe a family resemblance is another way to describe the common property shared by all the family members

Answer: (A, B, C)

64. In Kant’s Critique of Pure Reason, the equation 7 + 5 = 12 is synthetic a priori and not simply analytic for the following reason[s].

(A) A simple analysis of the concept of 5, the concept of 7 and the concept of addition does not give us the sum 12

(B) With 7 as the starting point, we require an intuition such as 5 fingers or 5 marks on a page to reach upto 12

(D) We arrive at the knowledge of 7 + 5 = 12 by imitating others adding 7 and 5

Answer: (A, B, C)

65. According to Sartre’s Being and Nothingness, which of following statement[s] is/ are true?

(A) Bad faith is human beings’ denial of their own freedom

(B) To assert the existence of nothingness is to deny the existence of human freedom

(D) Being and nothingness self-evidently exclude each other

Answer: (A, C)

XH : Humanities & Social Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he _______ of watching a film that weekend.

(A) thought

(B) is thinking

(D) was thinking

Answer: (D)

2. Permit : _______ : : Enforce : Relax

(By word meaning)

(A) Allow

(B) Forbid

(D) Reinforce

Answer: (B)

(A) 1/36

(B) 1/6

(D) 1/3

Answer: (A)

4. A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.

(B) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.

(D) Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

Answer: (B)

5. How many triangles are present in the given figure?

(A) 12

(B) 16

(D) 24

Answer: (C)

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following sets of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote in the college elections would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) only (iii)

Answer: (D)

7. Which one of the following options represents the given graph?

(A) f(x) = x²2⁻^|x|

(B) f(x) = x 2⁻^|x|

(D) f(x) = x2⁻^x

Answer: (B)

8. Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

[Adapted from The Emperor of All Maladies by Siddhartha Mukherjee]

(A) It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.

(B) It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.

(D) Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.

Answer: (D)

9. The digit in the unit’s place of the product 3⁹⁹⁹ × 7¹⁰⁰⁰ is ________.

(A) 7

(B) 1

(D) 9

Answer: (A)

10. A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown.

The area of the shaded region is _______ cm².

(A) 6π

(B) 18

(D) 9π

Answer: (B)

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)

XH-B1: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless and Cowardly?

(A) Pusillanimous

(B) Unctuous

(D) Reticent

Answer: (A)

12. Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:

The whole family got together ___ Diwali

(A) of

(B) at

(D) till

Answer: (B)

13. Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

(A) (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching

(B) (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing

(D) (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind

Answer: (B)

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

(1) Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

(3) The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

(5) Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

(A) 3, 2, 5, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4, 5

(D) 4, 2, 5, 3

Answer: (B)

15. The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

(A) -0.25%

(B) 0%

(D) 10.25%

Answer: (A)

16. The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

(A) Fat: Plump: Voluptuous

(B) Short: Small: Petite

(D) Fair: Dark: Wheatish

Answer: (A, B)

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

(A) In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.

(B) The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.

(C) The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.

(D) The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.

Answer: (B, C)

XH-B1: Q.18 – Q.26 Carry TWO marks Each

(A) Fulmoni

(B) Emon

(D) Chintu

Answer: (C)

19. Select the correct relation between E and F.

(A) E > F

(B) E < F

(D) E < -F

Answer: (B)

20. A code language is formulated thus:

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

(A) HUUFNUSPOPH

(B) FIICLIQMEMF

(D) HEEDATTACRH

Answer: (C)

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

(A) The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.

(B) The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.

(D) The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological

Answer: (B)

22. L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related?

Select the possible option(s):

(A) Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather

(B) Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather

(D) Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother

Answer: (B, D)

(1) Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

(2) and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

(3) clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame,

(4) I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began,

(5) some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

(A) 2 – 3 – 4

(B) 3 – 2– 4

(D) 4 – 3 – 2

Answer: (A)

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

(A) Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.

(B) Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.

(D) Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.

Answer: (C, D)

Answer: (35 to 35)

26. Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

(1) Lek (2) Zloty (3) Diner (4) Drachma (5) Real

Answer: (3 to 3)

Psychology – C5

XH-C5: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. Blind spot in the retina contains _________.

(A) only rod cells

(B) only cone cells

(D) neither rod nor cone cells

Answer: (D)

28. Taking painkillers eliminates pain, increasing the likelihood that the person will take painkillers again. This is an example of __________.

(A) negative punishment

(B) positive reinforcement

(D) positive punishment

Answer: (C)

29. When learning something new impairs the ability to retrieve information learnt earlier, it is known as ____________.

(A) retroactive interference

(B) proactive interference

(D) recency effect

Answer: (A)

30. Iconic memory is a type of _________.

(A) short term memory

(B) sensory memory

(D) working memory

Answer: (B)

31. Which one of the following components of language has to do with the practical or social aspects of communication with others?

(A) Phonemes

(B) Morphemes

(D) Syntax

Answer: (C)

32. The Yerkes-Dodson law states that _____________.

(A) performance is affected by the level of arousal

(B) frustration leads to aggression

(D) changes in behaviour are a result of experiences that have happened frequently or recently

Answer: (A)

33. Transduction of mechanical energy into nerve impulses in the auditory system takes place in reponse to bending of the ____________.

(A) pinna

(B) hair cells

(D) malleus

Answer: (B)

34. Which one of the following theories states that emotion occurs as a result of physical arousal and labeling of the arousal based on cues from the surrounding environment?

(A) Ekman-Friesen theory

(B) Schachter-Singer theory

(D) Cannon-Bard theory

Answer: (B)

35. Which one of the following is TRUE for the Pain-Gate control theory?

(A) Gate is a physical structure

(B) Activity of gate cannot be closed by non-pain signals

(D) Pain signals must pass through a gate located in the spinal cord

Answer: (D)

36. Being treated with warmth and consideration by others only when one behaves as expected, is called as ___________.

(A) openness to experience

(B) conditional positive regard

(D) zone of proximal development

Answer: (B)

37. Which of the following is/are NOT the factor(s) of the Big Five Personality model?

(A) Conscientiousness

(B) Optimism

(D) Extraversion

Answer: (B, C)

38. Which of the following is/are TRUE for creative individuals?

(A) They are not very good at mental imagery

(B) They are not afraid to be different

(D) They are unconventional in their work

Answer: (B, D)

39. Which of the following is/are included under behavioural genetics studies in humans?

(A) Selective breeding studies

(B) Family studies

(D) Adoption studies

Answer: (B, C, D)

40. Which of the following statements regarding locus of control is/are CORRECT?

(A) It can be internal and/or external

(B) It is associated with self-esteem

(D) Regret has no association with locus of control

Answer: (A, B, C)

41. Which of the following is/are TRUE for nonparametric statistics?

(A) It is often called distribution free statitstics

(B) It is used to analyze interval data

(D) It compares groups in terms of means

Answer: (A, C)

42. According to the review of research on stress and immune system, which of the following statement(s) has/have substantial evidence?

(A) There is a negative relationship between stress and functional immune measures

(B) There is no measurable impact of stress on functional immune measures

(D) There is a positive relationship between long term stressors and functional immune measures

Answer: (A, C)

43. Which of the following influence(s) gender dysphoria?

(A) Prenatal factors

(B) Early childhood experiences

(D) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

Answer: (A, B, C)

44. If the variance of a set of scores is 100, the standard deviation is ________ (in integer).

Answer: (10 to 10)

XH-C5: Q.45– Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

45. Match the structures of the brain in the first column with their respective functions in the second column of the table given below.

(A) P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)

(B) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(D) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

Answer: (D)

46. Which one of the following is established by the replication of research studies?

(A) Validity of the results

(B) Reliability of the results

(D) Mediation effect

Answer: (B)

47. Match the theory/law in the first column with the corresponding explanation in the second column of the table given below.

(A) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

(B) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)

(D) P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(i)

Answer: (C)

48. Match the sleep disorders in the first column with the symptoms in the second column of the table given below.

(A) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

(B) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii)

(D) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

Answer: (B)

49. __________ explains aging as a process of mutual withdrawal of individual and society, whereas _________ assumes positive correlation between activity and successful aging.

(A) Decay theory, Engagement theory

(B) Balance theory, Engagement theory

(D) Withdrawal theory, Activity theory

Answer: (C)

50. Match the biases/effects in the first column with the descriptions in the second column of the table given below.

(A) P-(i), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(iv)

(B) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)

(D) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)

Answer: (B)

51. Match the theories in the first column with the central themes in the second column of the table given below.

(A) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(B) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(ii)

(D) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(iv)

Answer: (A)

52. Which one of the following would resolve the basic dilemma of the social psychologist?

(A) Conducting carefully designed experiments with high internal validity

(B) By replicating experiments and conducting some new experiments that have internal validity and others that have external validity

(D) Conducting applied rather than basic research

Answer: (B)

53. Match the research methods in the first column with their purposes in the second column of the table given below.

(A) P-(i), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(iv)

(B) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i)

(D) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

Answer: (D)

54. Which one of the following statements is TRUE according to Brehm’s reactance theory?

(A) A mild sign prohibitting spitting would be more effective in preventing spitting than a strong sign

(B) A strong sign would be more effective in preventing spitting than a mild one

(D) Signs are irrelevant to spitting behaviour

Answer: (A)

55. According to the overjustifcation effect, which one of the following consequences would be TRUE for students who freely choose to study psychology, if marks are given for attendance?

(A) Increased interest of students in the subject

(B) Decreased interest of students in the subject

(D) Increased interest in other social science subjects

Answer: (B)

56. Large rewards and severe punishments are examples of __________ justification for behaviour and result in _________ changes in attitude.

(A) internal; big

(B) external; big

(D) external; small

Answer: (D)

57. Which of the following therapies is/are based on classical conditioning?

(A) Systematic desensitization

(B) Aversion therapy

(D) Rational emotive behaviour therapy

Answer: (A, B)

58. Which of the following characterize(s) Wernicke’s aphasia?

(A) Inability to comprehend spoken words

(B) Inability to understand the meaning of words

(D) Inability to write and understand the symbols that represent speech sounds

Answer: (A, B, C, D)

59. Which of the following is/are the component(s) of Theory of Mind?

(A) Understanding that people can have false beliefs

(B) Distinguishing faces and smells

(D) Having a vast vocabulary to express one’s thoughts

Answer: (A, C)

60. Which of the following would NOT be effective in minimizing groupthink?

(A) The leader being impartial to all ideas no matter what they are

(B) The leader reminding the team that everyone will be held responsible for the decision of the group

(D) The leader arriving at a consensus quickly

Answer: (C, D)

61. Which of the following describe(s) the standard error of the mean?

(A) It is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean

(B) It reflects the accuracy with which sample means estimate the population mean

(D) It is the standard deviation of a stratified sample

Answer: (A, B)

62. Which of the following describe(s) organizational commitment?

(A) A strong desire to remain a member of the organization

(B) Willingness to exert high level of effort on behalf of the organization

(D) High turnover intention of the employees of the organization

Answer: (A, B, C)

63. Prejudice is supported by the human tendency to categorize into in-groups and out-groups. Prejudice is supported by which of the following processes?

(A) The way we think about others

(B) The way we assign meaning to others behaviour

(D) By working towards a common goal

Answer: (A, B)

64. Which of the following is/are feature(s) of clinical phobia?

(A) The fear must be persistent

(B) The fear must be a source of significant distress

(D) The fear is usually perceived as unwarranted

Answer: (A, B, D)

65. The value of F calculated from the data given in the table below is ________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (3.6 to 3.6)

XH : Humanities & Social Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he _______ of watching a film that weekend.

(A) thought

(B) is thinking

(D) was thinking

Answer: (D)

2. Permit : _______ : : Enforce : Relax

(By word meaning)

(A) Allow

(B) Forbid

(D) Reinforce

Answer: (B)

(A) 1/36

(B) 1/6

(D) 1/3

Answer: (A)

4. A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.

(B) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.

(D) Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.

Answer: (B)

5. How many triangles are present in the given figure?

(A) 12

(B) 16

(D) 24

Answer: (C)

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following sets of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote in the college elections would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) only (iii)

Answer: (D)

7. Which one of the following options represents the given graph?

(A) f(x) = x²2⁻^|x|

(B) f(x) = x 2⁻^|x|

(D) f(x) = x2⁻^x

Answer: (B)

8. Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

[Adapted from The Emperor of All Maladies by Siddhartha Mukherjee]

(A) It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.

(B) It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.

(D) Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.

Answer: (D)

9. The digit in the unit’s place of the product 3⁹⁹⁹ × 7¹⁰⁰⁰ is ________.

(A) 7

(B) 1

(D) 9

Answer: (A)

10. A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown.

The area of the shaded region is _______ cm².

(A) 6π

(B) 18

(D) 9π

Answer: (B)

Reasoning and Comprehension (XH-B1)

XH-B1: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless and Cowardly?

(A) Pusillanimous

(B) Unctuous

(D) Reticent

Answer: (A)

12. Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:

The whole family got together ___ Diwali

(A) of

(B) at

(D) till

Answer: (B)

13. Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

(A) (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching

(B) (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing

(D) (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind

Answer: (B)

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

(1) Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

(3) The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

(5) Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

(A) 3, 2, 5, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4, 5

(D) 4, 2, 5, 3

Answer: (B)

15. The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

(A) -0.25%

(B) 0%

(D) 10.25%

Answer: (A)

16. The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

(A) Fat: Plump: Voluptuous

(B) Short: Small: Petite

(D) Fair: Dark: Wheatish

Answer: (A, B)

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

(A) In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.

(B) The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.

(C) The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.

(D) The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.

Answer: (B, C)

XH-B1: Q.18 – Q.26 Carry TWO marks Each

(A) Fulmoni

(B) Emon

(D) Chintu

Answer: (C)

19. Select the correct relation between E and F.

(A) E > F

(B) E < F

(D) E < -F

Answer: (B)

20. A code language is formulated thus:

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

(A) HUUFNUSPOPH

(B) FIICLIQMEMF

(D) HEEDATTACRH

Answer: (C)

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

(A) The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.

(B) The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.

(D) The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological

Answer: (B)

22. L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related?

Select the possible option(s):

(A) Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather

(B) Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather

(D) Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother

Answer: (B, D)

(1) Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

(2) and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

(3) clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame,

(4) I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began,

(5) some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

(A) 2 – 3 – 4

(B) 3 – 2– 4

(D) 4 – 3 – 2

Answer: (A)

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

(A) Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.

(B) Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.

(D) Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.

Answer: (C, D)

Answer: (35 to 35)

26. Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

(1) Lek (2) Zloty (3) Diner (4) Drachma (5) Real

Answer: (3 to 3)

Sociology – C6

XH-C6: Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each

27. ___________ has given the concept of ‘thick description’.

(A) Emile Durkheim

(B) Clifford Geertz

(D) Talcott Parsons

Answer: (B)

28. Objectivity in social science research as a matter of transpersonal replicability entails ____________.

(A) Merciless elimination of personal biases

(B) Allocation of costs and benefits to parties be made on normative standards

(D) Reproducibility of findings of research under similar conditions and methods

Answer: (D)

29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hypothesis?

(A) A shrewd hunch suggestive of a possible solution to a problem

(B) A causal relationship between two/more variables

(D) A theoretically derived statement that denies refutability

Answer: (D)

30. ___________ theory most appropriately describes a hierarchy of wealthy ‘core’ nations, poor ‘periphery’ nations, and a middle group of ‘semi-periphery’ nations.

(A) Globalization

(B) Stages of growth

(D) Limits to growth

Answer: (C)

31. In Hindu society, marriage of a widow to the husband’s brother is referred to as __________.

(A) Polygyny

(B) Endogamy

(D) Polyandry

Answer: (C)

32. Because of Covid-19 lockdown, a large number of working-class people lost their jobs. Rising price of commodities has also worsened their economic conditions. ___________ concept of Karl Marx most appropriately describes this ‘increasing impoverishment’ of the poor in contemporary times.

(A) Alienation

(B) Commodity fetishism

(D) Embourgeoisement

Answer: (C)

33. ___________ coined the term, ‘ethnocentrism’.

(A) A.R. Radcliffe-Brown

(B) Bronislaw Malinowski

(D) Harold Garfinkel

Answer: (C)

34. Supremacy of science over non-sciences is attributed to ___________.

(A) Postcolonialism

(B) Neo-Kantianism

(D) Verstehen

Answer: (C)

35. Communism, universalism, disinterestedness and ______________ constitute Mertonian ethos of science.

(A) Organized skepticism

(B) Organized dogmatism

(D) Neutrality

Answer: (A)

36. ____________theory postulates that developing economies would eventually catch up with the developed economies if they follow the social and economic models of Western capitalism.

(A) Postmodern

(B) Subaltern

(D) Modernization

Answer: (D)

37. ____________ approach was NOT propounded by B.S. Cohn as one of the approaches to study Indian civilization.

(A) Administrative

(B) Missionary

(D) Historiographical

Answer: (D)

38. If standard deviation is 0.3, then its corresponding variance would be _________.

(A) 0.9

(B) 0.03

(D) 0.3

Answer: (C)

39. Under __________ land tenurial system during the British rule in India, the individual cultivator/peasant had some ownership right over land holding.

(A) Zamindari

(B) Ryotwari

(D) Talukdari

Answer: (B)

40. ____________ introduced the concept of ‘reconstructive science’.

(A) J. Habermas

(B) A. Giddens

(D) M. Foucault

Answer: (A)

41. _____________ theory lies between minor working hypotheses and master conceptual schemes.

(A) Middle-range

(B) Social action

(D) Symbolic interactionist

Answer: (A)

42. __________ is NOT a characteristic feature of M.N. Srinivas’s concept of ‘dominant caste’.

(A) Numerical strength

(B) Economic power through possession of land

(D) Membership in militant organizations

Answer: (D)

43. Max Weber’s instrumental rationality refers to ___________.

(A) Traditional action

(B) Emotive action

(D) Value-rational action

Answer: (C)

44. The stable pattern of ‘modern men’ formulated by Alex Inkeles does not include __________.

(A) Openness to new experiences

(B) Freedom from traditional authority

(D) Belief in science and technology

Answer: (C)

XH-C6: Q.45 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

45. _____________ refers to the careful consideration of the ways in which researchers’ past experiences, points of view, and roles impact these same researchers’ interactions with, and interpretations of, the research scene.

(A) Self-reflexivity

(B) Social interactionism

(D) Participant action research

Answer: (A)

46. __________ introduced the concept of __________ to refer to situations in which people accept, consent to, internalize, and are complicit in reproducing values and norms that are not in their own best interests.

(A) K. Marx, alienation

(B) M. Foucault, governmentality

(D) R. Putnam, social capital

Answer: (C)

47. ___________ is the process by which researchers begin by identifying several participants who fit the study’s criteria and then ask these people to suggest a colleague, a friend, or a family member who also fits the study’s criteria.

(A) Random sampling

(B) Stratified random sampling

(D) Snowball sampling

Answer: (D)

48. Match the following sociologists as given in Column P with their views on religion as given in Column Q.

(A) A-I, B-II, C-V, D-III

(B) A-I, B-III, C-V, D-II

(D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Answer: (D)

49. There are four forms of triangulation, namely data triangulation, __________, theory triangulation and _____________.

(A) Field triangulation, methodological triangulation

(B) Investigator triangulation, methodological triangulation

(D) Investigator triangulation, epistemological triangulation

Answer: (B)

50. ____________ is the process by which groups seek to preserve some advantage by monopolizing resources and restricting access to the group.

(A) Social action

(B) Social construction

(D) Social conflict

Answer: (C)

51. Correlation coefficient lies between __________ and __________, and probability lies between _________ and __________.

(A) – 1 and 1, 0 and 1

(B) 0 and 1, – 1 and 1

(D) – 1 and 1, – 0.5 and 1.5

Answer: (A)

52. Match the following concepts as given in Column P with the Sociologists as given in Column Q:

(A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Answer: (A)

53. Match the following approaches and village study as given in Column P with Sociologists as given in Column Q:

(A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(B) A-II, B-IV, C-III D-I

(D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Answer: (B)

54. According to the World Commission on Environment and Development, ‘sustainable development’ refers to ______________.

(A) Development that meets the needs of the present

(B) Development that meets the needs of the future

(C) Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs

(D) Development that meets the needs of the past

Answer: (C)

55. According to David Pocock, the Indian Jajmani system reflects ___________.

(A) Hierarchical collectivity

(B) Regulated individuality

(D) Anarchic individuality

Answer: (B, C)

56. Which of the following is/are NOT characteristic(s) of class system?

(A) Class systems are fluid and the boundaries between classes are never clear-cut.

(B) Class is a form of stratification in which one’s social position is given for a lifetime.

(D) Class divisions are organized around the purity and pollution.

Answer: (B, D)

57. Which of the following concept(s) is/are NOT propounded by Emile Durkheim?

(A) Collective bargaining

(B) Collective effervescence

(D) Charismatic authority

Answer: (A, D)

58. The example(s) of relations of production is/are ___________.

(A) Labour

(B) Division of labour

(D) Capitalism

Answer: (B, C)

59. While __________ emerges around a charismatic figure, idea or vision, __________ emerges as a breakaway group from a preexisting body of belief, rituals, or believers.

(A) Cult, Sect

(B) Sect, Cult

(D) Religion, Sect

Answer: (A)

60. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for the Forest Rights Act (2006) of India?

(A) Forest dwellers’ right of conserving and protecting community forest resources

(B) Forest dwellers’ right to rehabilitation

(D) Forest dwellers’ absolute right over all the natural resources within the given forest area

Answer: (A, B, C)

61. The Ethnographic Survey of India as part of the Census 1901 was conducted to __________.

(A) Mitigate the racial and cultural issues faced by the British

(B) Make suitable legislations for Indian subjects

(D) Take executive action (welfare and development)

Answer: (A)

62. ____________ and ___________ propounded conflict theory.

(A) Talcott Parsons

(B) Ralf Dahrendorf

(D) Jeffrey C. Alexander

Answer: (B, C)

63. Which of the following is/are NOT aspect(s) of secularization process?

(A) Privatization of religion

(B) Rising level of membership of religious organizations

(D) Belief in magic and supernatural forces

Answer: (B, D)

64. Which of the following pair(s) is/are correct?

M1: Michel Foucault M2: Pierre Bourdieu M3: John Urry

X1: Archaeology of Knowledge X2: Sociological Imagination X3: Practice Theory

(A) M1 – X1

(B) M2 – X2

(D) M2 – X3

Answer: (A, D)

65. Which of the following statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?

(A) Hypergamy is a form of marriage where bride’s family is of superior status to the groom’s family

(B) Hypogamy is a form of marriage where groom’s family is of superior status to the bride’s family

(D) Polygynandry refers to marriage of several men to several women at the same time

Answer: (A, B)

GATE Exam 2023 Engineering Sciences (XE) Question Paper With Answer Key

August 7, 2023 by suresh84

GATE-2023

XE: Engineering Science

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. The village was nestled in a green spot, _______ the ocean and the hills.

(A) through

(B) in

(D) between

Answer: (D)

2. Disagree : Protest : : Agree : _______

(By word meaning)

(A) Refuse

(B) Pretext

(D) Refute

Answer: (C)

3. A ‘frabjous’ number is defined as a 3 digit number with all digits odd, and no two adjacent digits being the same. For example, 137 is a frabjous number, while 133 is not. How many such frabjous numbers exist?

(A) 125

(B) 720

(D) 80

Answer: (D)

4. Which one among the following statements must be TRUE about the mean and the median of the scores of all candidates appearing for GATE 2023?

(A) The median is at least as large as the mean.

(B) The mean is at least as large as the median.

(D) At most half the candidates have a score that is larger than the mean.

Answer: (C)

5. In the given diagram, ovals are marked at different heights (h) of a hill. Which one of the following options P, Q, R, and S depicts the top view of the hill?

(A) P

(B) Q

(D) S

Answer: (B)

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

6. Residency is a famous housing complex with many well-established individuals among its residents. A recent survey conducted among the residents of the complex revealed that all of those residents who are well established in their respective fields happen to be academicians. The survey also revealed that most of these academicians are authors of some best-selling books.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A) Some residents of the complex who are well established in their fields are also authors of some best-selling books.

(B) All academicians residing in the complex are well established in their fields.

(D) Some academicians residing in the complex are well established in their fields.

Answer: (MTA)

7. Ankita has to climb 5 stairs starting at the ground, while respecting the following rules:

(1) At any stage, Ankita can move either one or two stairs up.

(2) At any stage, Ankita cannot move to a lower step.

Let F(N) denote the number of possible ways in which Ankita can reach the 𝑁𝑡ℎ stair. For example, F(1) = 1, F(2) = 2, F(3) = 3.

The value of F(5) is _______.

(A) 8

(B) 7

(D) 5

Answer: (A)

8. The information contained in DNA is used to synthesize proteins that are necessary for the functioning of life. DNA is composed of four nucleotides: Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Cytosine (C), and Guanine (G). The information contained in DNA can then be thought of as a sequence of these four nucleotides: A, T, C, and G. DNA has coding and non-coding regions. Coding regions—where the sequence of these nucleotides are read in groups of three to produce individual amino acids—constitute only about 2% of human DNA. For example, the triplet of nucleotides CCG codes for the amino acid glycine, while the triplet GGA codes for the amino acid proline. Multiple amino acids are then assembled to form a protein.

Based only on the information provided above, which of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) The majority of human DNA has no role in the synthesis of proteins.

(ii) The function of about 98% of human DNA is not understood.

(A) only (i)

(B) only (ii)

(D) neither (i) nor (ii)

Answer: (D)

9. Which one of the given figures P, Q, R and S represents the graph of the following function?

f(x) = | |x + 2| − |x – 1| |

(A) P

(B) Q

(D) S

Answer: (A)

10. An opaque cylinder (shown below) is suspended in the path of a parallel beam of light, such that its shadow is cast on a screen oriented perpendicular to the direction of the light beam. The cylinder can be reoriented in any direction within the light beam. Under these conditions, which one of the shadows P, Q, R, and S is NOT possible?

(A) P

(B) Q

(D) S

Answer: (D)

XE: Engineering Science

Engineering Mathematics: XE-A (Compulsory)

XE-A: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Let A be a 3 × 3 real matrix having eigenvalues 1,2, and 3. If B = A² + 2A + I, where I is the 3 × 3 identity matrix, then the eigenvalues of B are

(A) 4, 9, 16

(B) 1, 2, 3

(D) 4, 16, 25

Answer: (A)

12. Let f : ℝ² → ℝ be a function defined by

Then which one of the following statement is TRUE?

(A) f is NOT continuous at (0, 0)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (A)

13. If the quadrature formula

is exact for all polynomials of degree less than or equal to 2, then

Answer: (A)

14. The second smallest eigenvalue of the eigenvalue problem y(0) = y(π) = 0, is

(A) 4

(B) 3

(D) 9

Answer: (C)

15. Which one of the following functions is differentiable at 𝑧=0 but NOT differentiable at any other point in the complex plane ℂ?

(A) f(z) = z|z|, z ∈ ℂ

(B) f(z) = sin(z), z ∈ ℂ

(D)

Answer: (A)

16. If the polynomial

P(x) = a₀ + a₁x + a₂x(x – 1) + a₃x(x – 1) (x – 2)

interpolates the points (0, 2), (1, 3), (2, 2), and (3,5), then the value of P(5/2) is ______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (2.60 to 2.65)

17. The value of m for which the vector field

is a conservative vector field, is ___________ (in integer).

Answer: (3 to 3)

XE-A: Q.18 – Q.21 Carry TWO marks Each

18. Let and

The eigenvalues of both P and Q are 1,1, and 2. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) Both P and Q are diagonalizable

(B) P is diagonalizable but Q is NOT diagonalizable

(D) Both P and Q are NOT diagonalizable

Answer: (B)

19. The surface area of the portion of the paraboloid

z = x² + y²

that lies between the planes z = 0 and z = 1/4 is

Answer: (A)

20. The probability of a person telling the truth is 4/6. An unbiased die is thrown by the same person twice and the person reports that the numbers appeared in both the throws are same. Then the probability that actually the numbers appeared in both the throws are same is __________ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (0.26 to 0.30)

21. Let u (x, t) be the solution of the initial boundary value problem

u(x, 0) = sin (πx), x ∈ (0, 2)

u(0, t) = u(2, t) = 0.

Then the value of is ________ (in integer).

Answer: (2 to 2)

Fluid Mechanics (XE-B)

XE-B: Q.22 – Q.30 Carry ONE mark Each

22. Match the following measuring instruments with the appropriate figures.

I – Pitot probe

II – Pitot-static probe

III – Piezometer

(A) I – P; II – Q; III – R

(B) I – R; II – Q; III – P

(D) I – Q; II – P; III – R

Answer: (B)

23. Among the following non-dimensional numbers, which one characterizes periodicity present in a transient flow?

(A) Froude number

(B) Strouhal number

(D) Lewis number

Answer: (B)

24. For an incompressible boundary layer flow over a flat plate shown in the figure, the momentum thickness is expressed as

Answer: (C)

25. Among the shear stress versus shear strain rate curves shown in the figure, which one corresponds to a shear thinning fluid?

(A) P

(B) Q

(D) S

Answer: (C)

26. Consider steady incompressible flow over a flat plate, where the dashed line represents the edge of the boundary layer, as shown in the figure. Which one among the following statements is true?

(A) Bernoulli’s equation can be applied in Region I between any two arbitrary points.

(B) Bernoulli’s equation can be applied in Region I only along a streamline.

(D) Bernoulli’s equation cannot be applied in Region I.

Answer: (D)

27. An inviscid steady incompressible flow is formed by combining a uniform flow with velocity U_∞ and a clockwise vortex of strength K at the origin, as shown in the figure. Velocity potential (ϕ) for the combined flow in polar coordinate (r, θ) is

(A)

(B)

(D) ϕ = −K ln r + U_∞r sin θ

Answer: (A)

28. Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Conservation of mass for an unsteady incompressible flow can be represented as denotes velocity vector.

(ii) Circulation is defined as the line integral of vorticity about a closed curve.

(iii) For some fluids, shear stress can be a nonlinear function of the shear strain rate.

(iv) Integration of the Bernoulli’s equation along a streamline under steady-state leads to the Euler’s equation.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (ii) and (iv) only

Answer: (C)

29. For a two-dimensional flow field given as a streamline passes through points (2, 1) and (5, p). The value of p is

(A) 5

(B) 5/2

(D) 2

Answer: (C)

30. A stationary object is fully submerged in a static fluid, as shown in the figure. Here, CG and CB stand for center of gravity and center of buoyancy, respectively. Which one(s) among the following statements is/are true?

(A) The object is in stable equilibrium if y_CG > y_CB.

(B) The object is in stable equilibrium if y_CG < y_CB.

(D) The object is in unstable equilibrium if y_CG > y_CB.

Answer: (A, C)

XE-B: Q.31 – Q.43 Carry TWO marks Each

31. Consider steady fully-developed incompressible flow of a Newtonian fluid between two infinite parallel flat plates. The plates move in the opposite directions, as shown in the figure. In the absence of body force and pressure gradient, the ratio of shear stress at the top surface (y = H) to that at the bottom surface (y = 0) is

(A) 1

(B) U₁/U₂

(D) U₁ + U₂/U₂

Answer: (A)

32. A two-dimensional incompressible flow field is defined as,

where, A and B are constants. The dynamic viscosity of the Newtonian fluid is μ. In the absence of body force, which among the following expressions represents the pressure gradient at the location (5, 0) in the concerned flow field?

Answer: (C)

33. For a potential flow, the fluid velocity is given by The slope of t he potential line at (x, y) is

(A) u/v

(B) v/u

(D) −v/u

Answer: (C)

34. Consider steady incompressible flow of a Newtonian fluid over a horizontal flat plate, as shown in the figure. The boundary layer thickness is proportional to

(A) x^1/4

(B) x^1/2

(D) x²

Answer: (B)

35. In a steady two-dimensional compressible flow, u and v are the x- and y-components of flow velocity, respectively and ρ is the fluid density. Among the following pairs of relations, which one(s) perfectly satisfies/satisfy the definition of stream function, ψ, for this flow?

Answer: (C, D)

36. A water jet (density = 1000 kg/m³) is approaching a vertical plate, having an orifice at the center, as shown in the figure. While a part of the jet passes through the orifice, remainder flows along the plate. Neglect friction and assume both the inlet and exit jets to have circular cross-sections. If V = 5 m/s, 𝐷 = 100 mm and d = 25 mm, magnitude of the horizontal force (in N, rounded off to one decimal place) required to hold the plate in its position is ___________.

Answer: (183.0 to 185.0)

37. Water (density =1000 kg/m³) and alcohol (specific gravity = 0.7) enter a Y-shaped channel at flow rates of 0.2 m³/s and 0.3 m³/s, respectively. Their mixture leaves through the other end of the channel, as shown in the figure. The average density (in kg/m³) of the mixture is _______.

Answer: (820 to 820)

38. The velocity and acceleration of a fluid particle are given as and The magnitude of the component of acceleration (in m/s², rounded off to two decimal places) of the fluid particle along the streamline is _______.

Answer: (2.60 to 2.75)

39. A hydraulic turbine with rotor diameter of 100 mm produces 200 W of power while rotating at 300 rpm. Another dynamically-similar turbine rotates at a speed of 1500 rpm. Consider both turbines to operate with the same fluid (identical density and viscosity), and neglect any gravitational effect. Then the power (in W, rounded off to nearest integer) produced by the second turbine is ___________.

Answer: (430 to 460)

40. Water (density = 1000 kg/m³) flows steadily with a flow rate of 0.05 m³/s through a venturimeter having throat diameter of 100 mm. If the pipe diameter is 200 mm and losses are negligible, the pressure drop (in kPa, rounded off to one decimal place) between an upstream location in the pipe and the throat (both at the same elevation) is _______.

Answer: (18.5 to 19.5)

41. Water flows around a thin flat plate (0.25 m long, 2 m wide) with a free stream velocity (U_∞) of 1 m/s, as shown in the figure. Consider linear velocity profile for which the laminar boundary layer thickness is expressed as For water, density = 1000 kg/m³ and dynamic viscosity = 0.001 kg/m.s. Net drag force (in N, rounded off to two decimal places) acting on the plate, neglecting the end effects, is ________.

Answer: (1.10 to 1.20)

42. Axial velocity profile u(r) for an axisymmetric flow through a circular tube of radius R is given as,

where U is the centerline velocity. If V refers to the area-averaged velocity (volume flow rate per unit area), then the ratio V/U for n = 1 (rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________.

Answer: (0.32 to 0.34)

43. A stationary circular pipe of radius R = 0.5 m is half filled with water (density =1000 kg/m3), whereas the upper half is filled with air at atmospheric pressure, as shown in the figure. Acceleration due to gravity is g = 9.81 m/s². The magnitude of the force per unit length (in kN/m, rounded off to one decimal place) applied by water on the pipe section AB is _______.

Answer: (2.2 to 2.4)

Material Science (XE-C)

XE-C: Q.44 – Q.52 Carry ONE mark Each

44. In age-hardening of an aluminium alloy, the purpose of solution treatment followed by quenching is to

(A) form martensitic structure

(B) increase the size of the precipitates

(D) form precipitates at the grain boundaries

Answer: (C)

45. The magnetization (M) – magnetic field (H) curves for four different materials are given below. Which one of these materials is most suitable for use as a permanent magnet?

Answer: (C)

46. The band gap of a semiconducting material is ~ 2 eV. Which one of the following absorption (A) vs. energy (in eV) curves is correct?

Answer: (D)

47. Figures (i) and (ii) show a binary phase diagram and the corresponding Gibbs free energy (G) vs. composition (X_B) diagram, respectively. Figure (ii) corresponds to which one of the temperatures shown in Figure (i)?

(A) T1

(B) T2

(D) T4

Answer: (C)

48. Aliovalent doping of MgCl₂ in NaCl leads to the formation of defects. Which one of the following is the correct defect reaction?

Answer: (B)

49. A screw dislocation in a FCC crystal has Burgers vector of where a is the lattice constant. The possible slip plane(s) is/are:

Answer: (C, D)

50. The tensile true stress (σ) – true strain (ϵ) curve follows the Hollomon equation:

σ = 500ϵ^0.15 MPa

At the maximum load, the work-hardening rate (dσ/dϵ) is (in MPa): _________ (rounded off to nearest integer)

Answer: (350 to 400)

51. A metal has a certain vacancy fraction at a temperature of 600 K. On increasing the temperature to 900 K, the vacancy fraction increases by a factor of ____________ (rounded off to one decimal place)

Given: Gas constant, R=8.31 J mol⁻¹K⁻¹ and activation energy for vacancy formation, Q =68 kJ mol⁻¹

Answer: (90.0 to 105.0)

52. In a semiconductor, the ratio of electronic mobility to hole mobility is 10. The density of electrons and holes are 1015 m⁻³ and 1016 m⁻³, respectively. If the conductivity of the material is 1.6 Ω⁻¹ m⁻¹, then the mobility of holes is (in m2V⁻¹s⁻¹) : ____________ (rounded off to nearest integer)

Given: Charge of an electron: 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C

Answer: (490 to 510)

XH-C: Q.53 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

53. A student performed X-ray diffraction experiment on a FCC polycrystalline pure metal. The following sin²θ values were calculated from the diffraction peaks.

sin² θ = 0.136, 0.185, 0.504, 0.544

However, the student was negligent and missed noting one of the peaks. Which one of the following Miller indices corresponds to the missing peak?

(A) (200)

(B) (220)

(D) (222)

Answer: (B)

54. Match the lattice planes and directions (in Column I) with the corresponding Miller indices (in Column II):

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Answer: (A)

55. Match the hardness test (in Column I) with its indenter type (in Column II).

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1

(B) P-4, Q-2, R-3

(D) P-4, Q-2, R-1

Answer: (D)

56. TTT diagram of a eutectoid steel is shown below. Match the heat treatment cycle (in Column I) with its microstructure (in Column II).

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-4

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-2

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1

Answer: (C)

57. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for an optical microscope?

(A) Increasing the aperture of the objective lens deteriorates the resolution

(B) Reducing the wavelength of illuminating light improves the resolution

(D) Reducing the wavelength of illuminating light decreases the depth of field

Answer: (B, C, D)

58. Among the 14 Bravais lattices, there is no base centred cubic unit cell. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

(A) The base-centred cubic unit cell is same as the simple tetragonal unit cell

(B) The base-centred cubic unit cell is same as the body centred tetragonal unit cell

(D) The base-centred cubic unit cell does not have any 3-fold rotation axis

Answer: (A, D)

59. Specific heat (C_v) of a material was found to depend on temperature as shown below. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

(A) The material is metallic

(B) The material is insulating

(D) The material is one dimensional

Answer: (A, C)

60. A pure Silicon wafer is doped with Boron by exposing it to B₂O₃ vapour at an elevated temperature. It takes 1000 seconds to reach a Boron concentration of 1020 atoms m⁻³ at a depth of 1 μm. The time taken to reach the same concentration of Boron at a depth of 2 μm is (in seconds): _________ (rounded off to nearest integer)

Given: Boron concentration on the wafer surface remains constant.

Answer: (3840 to 4100)

61. The Young’s modulus of a quartz piezoelectric crystal is 100 GPa. The uniaxial stress required to change its polarization by 1% is (give absolute value in GPa) _________ (rounded off to nearest integer)

Answer: (1 to 1)

62. A one-dimensional nanowire has a linear electron density of 10⁸ electrons cm⁻¹. The Fermi energy of the system is (in eV) ______ (rounded off to two decimal places)

Given : where ‘m’ is the mass of an electron

Answer: (9.20 to 9.60)

63. Two moles of a monoatomic ideal gas at 10 atm and 300 K is expanded isothermally and reversibly to a pressure of 2 atm. The absolute value of work done by the system is (in kJ) ____________ (rounded off to two decimal places)

Given: R=8.31 J mol⁻¹K⁻¹, 1 atm = 101 kPa

Answer: (7.90 to 8.05)

64. An electrochemical cell consists of pure Zn electrode (anode) and a hydrogen electrode (cathode) in a dilute Zn⁺² The overall reaction is:

Zn(s) + 2H⁺ = H₂ + Zn⁺²

If the overall cell potential is +0.690 V, then the value of is _______ (rounded off to two decimal places)

Given: Pressure of hydrogen gas = 1 atm; Temperature = 298 K;

RT/F = 0.0256 V, where R is gas constant and F is Faraday constant

The standard reduction potential of :

Zn⁺² + 2e = Zn(E° = −0.762 V) versus Standard Hydrogen Electrode 2H⁺ + 2e = H₂(E° = 0 V)

Answer: (5.25 to 7.00)

65. In a Raman spectroscopy experiment done at 300 K, a Raman line is observed at 200 cm⁻¹ (~25 meV). The ratio of the intensity of the Stokes line to that of the Anti-Stokes line is ____________ (rounded off to two decimal places)

Given: Boltzmann constant, k = 8.62 × 10⁻⁵ eV K⁻¹

Answer: (2.45 to 2.80)

Solid Mechanics (XE-D)

XE-D: Q.66 – Q.74 Carry ONE mark Each

66. A plane truss is simply supported at P and R as shown. A downward force F is applied at hinge Q. The axial force developed in member PS is

(A)

(B)

(D) √5 F Compressive

Answer: (B)

67. A massless rigid rod OP of length L is hinged frictionlessly at O. A concentrated mass m is attached to end P of the rod. Initially, the rod OP is horizontal. Then, it is released from rest. There is gravity as shown. The rod acquires an angular velocity as it swings. The clockwise angular velocity of the rod, when it first reaches the vertical position as shown, is

Answer: (B)

68. Two equivalent descriptions of the state of stress at a point are shown in the figure. The normal stresses σ₁ and σ₂ as shown on the right must be, respectively,

(A) τ_o and –τ_o

(B) –τ_o and τ_o

(D) –τ_o/√2 and τ_o/√2

Answer: (A)

69. The state of strain at a point in a machine component is given as ε_xx = 2.5 × 10⁻⁴, ε_yy = 2.0 × 10⁻⁴, ε_zz = −5 × 10⁻⁴, ε_xy = 2.5 × 10⁻⁴, ε_yz = −0.5 × 10⁻⁴, ε_zx = −1.0 × 10⁻⁴. The volumetric strain at this point is

(A) 4 × 10⁻⁴

(B) 3 × 10⁻⁴

(D) −3 × 10⁻⁴

Answer: (B)

70. A thin walled, closed cylindrical vessel of inside diameter 𝑑 and wall thickness t contains a fluid under pressure p. The figure below shows a part of the cylindrical vessel; end caps are not shown. Consider the small element shown with sides parallel and perpendicular to the axis of the cylinder. The stresses σ₁ and σ₂ are

Answer: (A)

71. A spring mass system is shown in the figure below. Take the acceleration due to gravity as g = 9.81 m/s². The static deflection due to weight and the time period of oscillations, respectively, are

(A) 0.392 m and 1.26 s

(B) 0.392 m and 3.52 s

(D) 0.626 m and 3.52 s

Answer: (A)

72. A rod is subjected to three forces as shown in the figure on the left. An equivalent force system with forces F₁, F₂ and moment M is shown in the figure on the right. The value of M (in N-m) is______(rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (117.0 to 118.0)

73. A simply supported beam of length 3 m is loaded as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the shear force (in kN) at the mid-point of the beam is ______ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (4.9 to 5.1)

74. For a plane stress problem, the principal stresses are 100 MPa and 50 MPa. The magnitude of maximum shear stress (in MPa) in the material is ______ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (49.5 to 50.5)

XE-D: Q.75 – Q.87 Carry TWO marks Each

75. A solid uniform rigid disk of mass 𝑚 and radius R rolls without slipping along a horizontal surface PQ. The speed of the center of the disk is 𝑣. The disk then strikes a hurdle of height 3R/20 at point S. During the impact, there is no rebound or slip at S and no impulse from the surface PQ. The magnitude of the velocity of the center of the disk immediately after the impact is

(A) 0.1v

(B) 0.3v

(D) 0.9v

Answer: (D)

76. A cylinder made of rubber (length = L and diameter = d) is inserted in a rigid container as shown in the figure. The rubber cylinder fits snugly in the rigid container. There is no wall friction. The modulus of elasticity of the rubber is E and its Poisson’s ratio is v. The cylinder is subjected to a small uniform pressure p as shown in the figure. The resulting axial strain (ε_zz) is

Answer: (C)

77. The state of stress at the critical location in a structure is σ_xx = 420 MPa, σ_yy = 100 MPa, σ_zz= σ_xy = σ_yz= σ_zx= 0. The yield stress of the material in uniaxial tension is 400 MPa. Select the correct statement among the following.

(A) The structure is safe by both Tresca (maximum shear stress) theory and von-Mises (distortion energy) theory.

(B) The structure is safe by Tresca (maximum shear stress) theory and unsafe by von-Mises (distortion energy) theory.

(D) The structure is unsafe by both Tresca (maximum shear stress) theory and von-Mises (distortion energy) theory.

Answer: (C)

78. The figure shows a column of rectangular cross section 100 mm × 80 mm. It carries a load of 60 kN at a point 30 mm from the edge PQ. The values of stress component σ_zz on surfaces PQQ′P′ and SRR′S′, at points far away from both ends of the column, are respectively

(A) 18.75 N/mm² (Compressive) and 3.75 N/mm² (Tensile)

(B) 18.75 N/mm² (Compressive) and 3.75 N/mm² (Compressive)

(D) 13.13 N/mm² (Compressive) and 1.88 N/mm² (Compressive)

Answer: (D)

79. Consider an electric pole with dimensions as shown in the figure. Let the end R be subjected to a vertical force F. The flexural rigidity of both vertical and horizontal bars is EI. Neglect the axial deflection of the vertical bar, and all effects of self-weight. The vertical deflection at end R is

(A) 7FL³/3EI

(B) 10FL³/3EI

(D) 8FL³/3EI

Answer: (A)

80. A uniform cantilever beam has flexural rigidity EI and length L. It is subjected to a concentrated force F and moment M = 2FL at the free end as shown. The deflection (δ) at the free end is

(A) 11FL³/12EI

(B) 8FL³/9EI

(D) 7FL³/6EI

Answer: (C)

81. A steel ball of mass m = 10 kg is suspended from the ceiling of a moving carriage by two inextensible strings making 60° with the horizontal as shown. The carriage has an acceleration a such that the tension in the string on the right is double the tension in the string on the left. Take the acceleration due to gravity (g) as 10 m/s². The acceleration a (in m/s²) is ______ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (1.8 to 2.0)

82. A block of mass m = 10 kg is lying on an inclined plane PQ. The mass is restrained from sliding down the inclined plane by a force F. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inclined plane is 0.3. Take the acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s². The smallest force F (in N) required to prevent the block from sliding down is______(rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (23.0 to 25.0)

83. A spherical rigid ball of mass 10 kg is moving with a speed of 2 m/s in the direction shown. The ball collides with a rigid frictionless wall and rebounds at an angle α with a speed of v, as shown. The coefficient of restitution is 0.9. The angle α (in degrees) is______(rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (57.0 to 58.0)

84. A thin steel plate is loaded in the x-y plane as shown in the figure. Take the Poisson’s ratio of steel to be 0.3 and the modulus of elasticity of steel to be 200 GPa. The strain along the 𝑧-direction is ε_zz = −3 × 10⁻⁴. The value of σ_yy (in MPa) is ______ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (79.5 to 80.5)

85. A composite rod made of steel and copper is fixed immovably at its ends as shown in the figure. The length of each portion of the rod is 1 m as shown. The cross-sections of both portions are the same. The moduli of elasticity of steel and copper are 200 GPa and 100 GPa, respectively. The coefficients of thermal expansion of steel and copper are 12 × 10⁻⁶/℃ and 18 × 10⁻⁶/℃, respectively. The composite rod is initially stress free. Then, the temperature of the composite rod is increased by 100℃. The magnitude of axial stress (in MPa) developed in the steel rod is ______ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (199.0 to 201.0)

86. A slender uniform elastic rod of length 1 m and of solid circular cross-section of diameter 50 mm is originally straight. It is then loaded by equal and opposite end moments as indicated in the figure. The resulting lateral displacement of the mid-point of the rod is 10 mm (displacements are exaggerated in the figure). The maximum longitudinal strain in the rod is p × 10⁻³, where p is ______ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (1.9 to 2.1)

87. Consider a solid cylindrical shaft and a hollow cylindrical shaft. Both shafts are axisymmetric and elastic, and have the same cross-sectional area. The hollow shaft has an outside diameter of 150 mm and an inside diameter of 120 mm. When both the shafts are twisted by the same twisting moment, the ratio of maximum shear stress developed in the hollow shaft (τ_h) to maximum shear stress developed in the solid shaft (τ_s) will be ______ (rounded off to three decimal places).

Answer: (0.350 to 0.380)

Thermodynamics (XE-E)

Q.88 – Q.96 Carry ONE mark Each

88. A : The number of properties required to fix the state of a system is given by ‘state postulate’.

R : The state of a simple compressible system is completely specified by two independent, intensive properties.

About the statements A and R applied to a single-phase system,

(A) A is correct and R is incorrect.

(B) A is incorrect and R is correct.

(D) Both A and R are correct.

Answer: (D)

89. Which of the following is an extensive property of a system?

(A) Density

(B) Pressure

(D) Total mass

Answer: (D)

90. A tank of volume V contains homogeneous mixture of two ideal gases, A and B at a temperature T and a pressure P. The mixture contains n_A moles of gas A and n_B moles of gas B. If P_A and P_B are the partial pressures of gas A and gas B, respectively, then

Answer: (A)

91. If an ideal air-standard Otto cycle and an ideal air-standard Diesel cycle operate on the same compression ratio, then the relation between the thermal efficiencies (ηth) of the cycles is

(A) η_{th, Otto} = η_{th, Diesel} and η_{th, Otto} < 1

(B) η_{th, Otto} > η_{th, DIesel}

(D) η_{th, Otto} = η_{th, Diesel} = 1

Answer: (B)

92. The following statements are given:

(i) The third law of thermodynamics deals with the entropy of a substance at the absolute zero temperature.

(ii) Entropy of any non-crystalline structure is zero at absolute zero temperature.

(iii) At the absolute zero temperature, the crystal structure has maximum degree of order.

(iv) The thermal energy of the substance at absolute zero temperature is maximum.

The correct option describing these statements is

(A) Only (i) is correct

(B) Only (ii) is correct

(D) Both (i) and (iv) are correct

Answer: (C)

93. Adiabatic bulk modulus of a substance is defined as

Answer: (D)

94. An insulated rigid closed tank of 2 m³ internal volume contains saturated liquid-vapor mixture of water at 200 ℃. The quality of the mixture is 0.75. The mass of the mixture in the tank is ____________ kg (rounded off to one decimal place).

Use the following data for water:

At 200 ℃: v_f = 0.001156 m³/kg, v_fg = 0.12620 m³/kg, v_g = 0.12736 m³/kg

Answer: (20.5 to 21.5)

95. A rigid closed tank contains 2 kg of an ideal gas at 500 kPa and 350 K. A valve is opened, and half of the mass of the gas is allowed to escape. Then the valve is closed. If the final pressure in the tank is 300 kPa, the final temperature in the tank is _________ K (in integer).

Answer: (420 to 420)

96. Air at 400 K and 200 kPa is heated at constant pressure to 600 K. Assuming that the internal energy is a function of temperature only, the magnitude of change in internal energy during this process is __________ kJ/kmol (rounded off to one decimal place).

Use the following data:

Molar specific heat of air at constant volume : where T is temperature in K, a = 19.686 kJ/kmol-K, b = 0.002 kJ/kmol-K² and c = 0.5 × 10⁻⁵ kJ/kmol-K³.

Answer: (4389 to 4392)

XE-XE: Q.97 – Q.109 Carry TWO marks Each

97. A rigid closed tank having a volume of 2 m³ contains 0.1 m³ of saturated liquid water and 1.9 m³ of saturated water vapor at 100 kPa. Heat is transferred to the tank until the final tank pressure reaches 2 MPa.

Following data for water is given:

At 100 kPa: v_f = 0.001043 m³/kg, v_g = 1.694 m³/kg

u_f = 417.33 kJ/kg, u_g = 2506.06 kJ/kg

At 2 MPa: v_f = 0.001177 m³/kg, v_g = 0.09963 m³/kg,

u_f = 906.42 kJ/kg, u_g = 2600.26 kJ/kg

The magnitude of heat transfer in this process is

(A) 34670 kJ

(B) 55842 kJ

(D) 77470 kJ

Answer: (D)

98. An ideal Diesel cycle has a compression ratio of 20 and cut-off ratio of 1.5. At the beginning of the compression stroke, air is at 100 kPa, 300 K. Use the cold-air-standard assumptions with property value c_p = 1.005 kJ/kg-K. Assume c_p/c_v = 1.4. For this cycle, the net work output per unit mass is

(A) 335 kJ/kg

(B) 395 kJ/kg

(D) 165 kJ/kg

Answer: (A)

99. A 5 kg metal block (c_p = 0.5 kJ/kg-K) at 373 K is submerged into 10 kg of water (c_p = 4.2 kJ/kg-K) at 293 K in an insulated rigid container without spilling. Assuming thermal equilibrium is reached, the approximate entropy change of the universe is

(A) −0.565 kJ/K

(B) 0.073 kJ/K

(D) 0.963 kJ/K

Answer: (B)

100. Match the following:

(A) A1→B2, A2→B4, A3→B1, A4→B3

(B) A1→B4, A2→B2, A3→B1, A4→B3

(D) A1→B4, A2→B2, A3→B3, A4→B1

Answer: (C)

101. A piston-cylinder device initially contains 1 m³ of air at 200 kPa and 25 ℃. Air expands at constant pressure while a heater of 250 W is switched on for 10 minutes. There is a heat loss of 4 kJ during this process. Assuming air as an ideal gas, the final temperature of air is ____________ ℃ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Use the following data for air: R = 0.287 kJ/kg-K, c_p = 1.005 kJ/kg-K

Answer: (85.0 to 88.0)

102. Steam at 2 MPa and 300 ℃ steadily enters a nozzle of inlet diameter of 20 cm. Steam leaves the nozzle with a velocity of 300 m/s. The mass flow rate of steam through the nozzle is 10 kg/s. Assume no work interaction and no change in potential energy. If the heat loss from the nozzle per kg of steam is 3 kJ, the exit enthalpy per kg of steam is ____________ kJ (rounded off to nearest integer).

Use the following data for steam:

At 2 MPa and 300 ℃: v = 0.12551 m³/kg, h = 3024.2 kJ/kg

Answer: (2975 to 2980)

103. A rigid tank of 2 m³ internal volume contains 5 kg of water as a saturated liquid-vapor mixture at 400 kPa. Half of the mass of the saturated liquid in the tank is drained-off while maintaining constant pressure of 400 kPa in the tank. The final quality of the mixture remaining in the tank is ____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Use the following data for water:

At 400 kPa: v_f = 0.001084 m³/kg, v_fg = 0.46138 m³/kg, v_g = 0.46246 m³/kg

Answer: (0.90 to 0.95)

104. Consider a spark ignition engine which operates on an ideal air-standard Otto cycle. It uses a fuel which produces 44 MJ/kg of heat in the engine. If the engine requires 40 mg of fuel to produce 1 kJ of work output, then the compression ratio of the Otto cycle is ____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

For the entire cycle, use c_p/c_v = 1.4

Answer: (8.00 to 8.30)

105. A refrigerator operates on an ideal vapor compression cycle between the pressure limits of 140 kPa and 800 kPa. The working fluid is the refrigerant R-134a. The refrigerant enters the compressor as saturated vapor at 140 kPa and exits at 800 kPa and 60℃. It leaves the condenser as a saturated liquid at 800 kPa. The coefficient of performance (COP) of the refrigerator is ____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Use the following property data for R-134a:

At 140 kPa: h_f = 27.06 kJ/kg, h_g = 239.19 kJ/kg

At 800 kPa: h_f = 95.48 kJ/kg, h_g = 267.34 kJ/kg

At 800 kPa and 60 ℃: h = 296.82 kJ/kg

Answer: (2.45 to 2.55)

106. A steam power plant operates on a simple ideal Rankine cycle. The condenser pressure is 10 kPa and the boiler pressure is 5 MPa. The steam enters the turbine at 600 ℃. Mass flow rate of the steam is 50 kg/s. Neglecting the pump work, the net power output of the plant is ____________ MW (rounded off to one decimal place).

Use the following property data for water:

At 10 kPa:

h_f = 191.81 kJ/kg, h_fg = 2392.82 kJ/kg, h_g = 2584.63 kJ/kg

s_f = 0.6492 kJ/kg-K, s_fg = 7.5010 kJ/kg-K, s_g = 8.1502 kJ/kg-K

At 5 MPa and 600℃: h = 3666.47 kJ/kg, s = 7.2588 kJ/kg-K

Answer: (67.3 to 69.3)

107. In an air-conditioning system, air enters at 20 ℃ and 30% relative humidity at a steady rate of 30 m³/min in a humidifier and it is conditioned to 25℃ and 60% relative humidity. Assuming entire process takes place at pressure of 100 kPa, the mass flow rate of the steam added to air in the humidifier is ____________ kg/min (rounded off to three decimal places).

Use the following property data:

At 20℃ and 25℃, saturation pressures of water are 2.3392 kPa and 3.1698 kPa, respectively.

For air, R = 0.287 kJ/kg-K

Answer: (0.262 to 0.290)

108. An office uses a heat pump to receive 500 kJ/day heat in winter to maintain its temperature at 300 K. The ambient temperature is 280 K. If the COP of the heat pump is 60% of its theoretical maximum value, the ratio of actual work input to the minimum theoretical work input to the heat pump is _________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (1.6 to 1.8)

109. In a liquid-vapour phase change process, (dP/dT)_sat at 100°C for saturated water is 3750 Pa/K. If the resulting change in specific volume (v_g – v_f) is 1.672 m³/kg, the enthalpy of vaporization (h_fg) will be ______ kJ/kg (in integer).

Answer: (2337 to 2341)

Polymer Science and Engineering (XE-F)

XE-F: Q.110 – Q.118 Carry ONE mark Each

110. Which one of the monomers given is used in the synthesis of cellulose?

(A) Fructose

(B) Lactic acid

(D) Glucose

Answer: (D)

111. A copper wire upon loading instantaneously increases in length to l, and then continues to elongate gradually. Upon unloading, the wire retracts to length l. According to the Maxwell model, which one of the options given correctly relates the total strain E, the applied stress S, the modulus G, the material’s resistance to flow ƞ, and the elapsed time t between loading and unloading?

(A) E = (S/G) – (S/n)t

(B) E = (S/G) × (S/n)t

(D) E = (S/G)/(S/n)t

Answer: (C)

112. Consider the structure of a crosslinked polymer shown in the figure. From the options given, identify the monomers that are used in the synthesis of the polymer.

(A) Melamine and Benzaldehyde

(B) Melamine and Acetone

(D) Melamine and Ethanol

Answer: (C)

113. Among the options given, choose the most suitable compatibilizer for blending Polyvinylidene fluoride (PVDF) and Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene (ABS).

(A) Styrene-acrylonitrile (SAN)

(B) Polybutadiene (PB)

(D) Nylon 6

Answer: (C)

114. A high molecular weight polymer passes through different zones from the hopper to the die in an extruder. Among the options given, identify the correct match between the zones and their key functions.

(A) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1

(B) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2

(D) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4

Answer: (A)

115. Polymer wetting is improved by the addition of fillers with functional groups. In a typical case-study, natural-clay was modified with hydroxyl groups and compounded with Nylon 6 along with an antioxidant. The resulting composite exhibited poor mechanical properties. Which one among the options given explains this observation?

(A) The surface functional groups of the filler reacted with Nylon 6

(B) The antioxidant degraded during the processing

(D) The antioxidant reacted with Nylon 6

Answer: (C)

116. Among the options given, identify the correct match between the polymers and their glass transition temperatures (T_g).

(A) P-2; Q-4; R-3; S-1

(B) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(D) P-4, Q-2; R-1; S-3

Answer: (B)

117. What is the correct order of decreasing crystallinity of the given polymers?

(A) P > R > S > Q

(B) S > Q > P > R

(D) S > R > Q > P

Answer: (D)

118. Choose the correct option that best correlates the graphs with the polymerization methods.

(A) P – living polymerization; Q – chain growth; R – step growth

(B) P – chain growth; Q – living polymerization; R – step growth

(D) P – living polymerization; Q – step growth; R – chain growth

Answer: (B)

XE-F: Q.119 – Q.131 Carry TWO marks Each

119. From the options given, identify the correct match(es) between the polymer products with the most appropriate processing technique.

(A) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2

(B) P-3; Q-2; R-1; S-4

(D) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-1

Answer: (A, D)

120. Among the options given, which agents are used to vulcanize or cure rubbers?

(A) Dicumyl peroxide

(B) Zinc stearate

(D) Dinitrobenzene

Answer: (A, D)

121. Lipase is a natural enzyme, which cleaves carboxylic ester bonds. Among the options given, identify the polymer(s) degraded by lipase.

(A) Polypropylene (PP)

(B) Polycaprolactone (PCL)

(D) Polyethylene terephthalate (PET)

Answer: (B, D)

122. Among the options given, identify the correct pair(s) of catalyst and co-catalyst that form a Ziegler-Natta catalyst.

(A) TiCl₃ and Al(CH₃CH₂)₂Cl

(B) ZnCl₂ and Al(CH₃)₃

(D) VCl₄ and Al(CH₃CH₂)₂Cl

Answer: (A, D)

123. Mechanical stress is applied on a polymer. Identify the correct match(es) between the statements (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) that describe the deformations and the regimes (P, Q, R).

(A) P-2; Q-5; R-1

(B) P-1; Q-5; R-1

(D) P-4; Q-3; R-1

Answer: (A, D)

124. Stress versus elongation profiles for different polymeric materials are shown in the figure. Choose the combination that best describes these profiles.

(A) 1-Nylon fibers; 2-Polyethylene; 3-Vulcanized rubber; 4-Polystyrene

(B) 1-Polyethylene; 2-Vulcanized rubber; 3-Polystyrene; 4-Nylon fibers

(D) 1-Vulcanized rubber; 2-Polyethylene; 3-Nylon fibers; 4-Polystyrene

Answer: (C)

125. Among the options given, which method(s) is/are used for the synthesis of atactic polystyrene?

(A) Free radical polymerization

(B) Ring opening polymerization

(D) Ionic polymerization

Answer: (A, D)

126. A nylon sample of 0.03 m² cross-sectional area is subjected to a creep load of 10 kN. The load is removed after a duration of 60 s. Young’s modulus and the viscosity for nylon are 1 GPa and 300 Giga Poise. The compliance of the specimen is ________×10⁻⁹ m²/N. (Answer in integer)

Answer: (0.8 to 1.0 OR 3.0 to 3.0)

127. Polyvinylidine fluoride (PVDF) was quenched from the melt in one case and in the other case, it was slowly cooled from the melt at 10 °C/min. The percentage crystallinity of the slowly cooled PVDF is 60%. The heat of fusion for the quenched PVDF is 0.5ΔH_m (ΔH_m is the heat of fusion for the slowly cooled PVDF), and the heat of fusion for 100% crystalline PVDF is 100 J/g. The percentage crystallinity of the quenched PVDF is ______%. (Answer in integer)

Answer: (30 to 30)

128. A polymeric material of density 0.9 g/cc and melt volume of 10 cc in an extruder has a residence time of 100 s. The output of the extruder is _____ kg/h. (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Answer: (0.31 to 0.33)

129. A polymer weighing 0.2 g is dissolved in 100 ml of benzene and has a relative viscosity of 1.5. The polymer obeys Mark-Houwink equation with constants a = 0.5 and K = 0.001. The molecular weight of the polymer is _____ × 10¹⁰ g/mol. (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Answer: (6.24 to 6.26)

130. A continuous and aligned glass-fiber reinforced composite consists of 40 vol% of glass-fiber having a modulus of elasticity of 69 GPa and 60 vol% of a polyester resin, which when hardened, displays a modulus of 3.4 GPa. The modulus of elasticity of this composite in the longitudinal direction is _________ GPa. (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Answer: (29.60 to 30.01)

131. The molar mass distribution of a polymer is

The resulting weight average molecular weight of the polymer is _______ g/mol. (Answer in integer)

Answer: (6875 to 6875)

Food Technology (XE-G)

XE-G: Q.132 – Q.140 Carry ONE mark Each

132. Choose the correct group of fat soluble vitamins

(A) Cholecalciferol, α-Tocopherol, Menadione

(B) Thiamine, Cholecalciferol, α-Tocopherol

(D) Biotin, Thiamin, Niacin

Answer: (A)

133. The synthesis of thyroxine T4 in human body requires

(A) Selenium

(B) Iodine

(D) Zinc

Answer: (B)

134. Which among the followings is NOT an essential amino acid?

(A) L-Phenylalanine

(B) L-Valine

(D) L-Arginine

Answer: (D)

135. The time required for stipulated destruction of a microbial population at a given temperature is

(A) D-value

(B) F-value

(D) Q₁₀ value

Answer: (B)

136. Which among the following statements is NOT correct?

(A) Cod fish is a major source of ω-3 fatty acids.

(B) Beetroot is a good source of β-carotene.

(D) Fresh sugarcane juice is a good source of polyphenol oxidase.

Answer: (C)

137. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(A) As the shear rate increases, the apparent viscosity decreases for a pseudoplastic fluid.

(B) As the shear rate increases, the apparent viscosity increases for a dilatant fluid.

(D) Rheopectic and thixotropic are two time independent fluids.

Answer: (D)

138. Calculate the efficiency in percent (rounded off to 1 decimal place) of an oil expeller which yields 37 kg oil containing 5% solid impurities from 100 kg mustard seeds. The oil content of the mustard seed is 38%.

Answer: (92.0 to 93.0)

139. Orange juice is packaged aseptically and stored under ambient conditions. The degradation of vitamin C in the juice occurs during storage and it follows first order reaction kinetics. The degradation rate constant is 5.2 × 10⁻³ day⁻¹. The half-life of vitamin C in days is ____________ (in integer).

Answer: (132 to 134)

140. The weight of 10 kg dried cauliflower containing 5% moisture (wet basis) after rehydration is 60 kg. If the fresh cauliflower contained 87% moisture (wet basis), calculate the coefficient of rehydration _____ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (0.75 to 0.90)

XE-G: Q.141 – Q.153 Carry TWO marks Each

141. Match the industrial product in Column I with fermentative organism in Column II.

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Answer: (A)

142. Match the enzyme in Column I with its application in food processing/reaction given in Column II.

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Answer: (A)

143. Identify the Gram +ve bacteria responsible for causing food borne diseases among the followings

(A) Campylobacter jejuni

(B) Clostridium botulinum

(D) Salmonella typhi

Answer: (B)

144. Extrusion cooking is accomplished in four different stages, which are indicated as I, II, III and IV in the figure given below. Choose the correct option representing the name of each stage.

(A) I – Feeding, II – Cooking, III – Kneading, IV – Expansion

(B) I – Kneading, II – Feeding, III – Cooking, IV – Expansion

(D) I – Cooking, II – Kneading, III – Feeding, IV – Expansion

Answer: (C)

145. Match the method/ value used for measuring lipid characteristics in Column I with the corresponding properties indicated by them, in Column II.

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Answer: (A)

146. Match the peeling technique in Column I with the vegetable, for which it is used in industry, given in Column II.

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Answer: (D)

147. Match the process in Column I with the related food component in Column II.

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Answer: (A)

148. Identify the correct statement(s) related to grain polysaccharides among the followings.

(A) Dextrin are a group of low molecular weight polysaccharides produced by dry hydrolysis of starch.

(B) Amylose is a linear polymer of D-glucose units joined by α (1→6) glycoside linkages.

(D) Retrogradation is a process of reassociation of amylose and formation of crystalline structure by gelatinized starch upon cooling.

Answer: (A, D)

149. Identify the correct pair(s) of governing law with respective process operation.

(A) Stoke’s law – Mass transfer

(B) Kirchhoff’s law – Radiation heat transfer

(D) Fick’s law – Molecular diffusion

Answer: (B, C, D)

150. A hammer mill is used to grind blackgram. The size distribution of the blackgram is such that 80% passes through a 6-mesh (particle size = 3.36 mm) screen. The power requirement to produce a powder, 80% of which passes through a 45-mesh (particle size = 0.354 mm) screen is 4.5 kW. The power in kW required to produce a finer powder 80% of which passes through a 60-mesh (particle size = 0.25 mm) will be ____________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places). Assume the feed rate to the mill is constant in both the cases. Use Bond’s law of size reduction.

Answer: (5.20 to 6.20)

151. If D₁₀ for Salmonella in egg yolk is 0.75 kGy, calculate the radiation dose in kGy (rounded off to 2 decimal places) required for reducing the Salmonella count in egg yolk by 8 log cycles.

Answer: (13.00 to 14.50)

152. The average moisture binding energy of a plant protein based snack at 8% moisture content (dry basis) is 3200 cal.mol-1. If the water activity of the snack at the above moisture content is 0.30 at 30 ℃, the water activity of the sample at 45 ℃ is _________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places). The value of Gas constant R = 1.987 cal.mol⁻¹.K⁻¹.

Answer: (0.32 to 0.41)

153. Cow milk is pasteurized at a flow rate of 1 kg.s-1 in a counter-current heat exchanger using hot water as the heating medium. The milk enters the heat exchanger at 15℃ and exits at 50 ℃. The specific heat of cow milk is 3.5 kJ.kg⁻¹.℃⁻¹ and remains constant at the inlet and exit of the heat exchanger. The inlet and exit temperatures of the hot water are 75℃ and 60 ℃ respectively. If the overall heat transfer coefficient is 1800 W.m⁻².℃⁻¹, the heat transfer surface area in m2 is ______ (rounded off to 2 decimal places). Assume steady state conditions.

Answer: (1.80 to 2.20)

Atmospheric and Ocean Science (XE-H)

XE-H: Q.154 – Q.162 Carry ONE mark Each

154. The net water level elevation near the coast arising due to a tropical-cyclone-induced storm is a combination of the following factors _________.

(A) astronomical tides, and distant cyclonic storm

(B) wind-induced waves, astronomical tides, and distant cyclonic storm

(D) riverine flow, astronomical tides, and distant cyclonic storm

Answer: (B)

155. The typical speeds of a tsunami wave in water depths of 10 m, 100 m, and 1000 m, respectively, are ________.

(A) approximately 100 m s⁻¹, 31 m s⁻¹ and 10 m s⁻¹

(B) approximately 50 m s⁻¹, 75 m s⁻¹ and 100 m s⁻¹

(D) approximately 100 m s⁻¹, 10 m s⁻¹ and 31 m s⁻¹

Answer: (C)

156. Which classification of tides best represents the west coast of India?

(A) Diurnal and Mixed

(B) Semidiurnal and Mixed

(D) only Mixed

Answer: (B)

157. The variation in geostrophic winds with height, in particular, at the atmospheric boundary layer, considering the variation in pressure gradient as a function of height, is referred to as __________.

(A) Isallobaric winds

(B) Gradient winds

(D) Cyclostrophic winds

Answer: (C)

158. Consider the following options and pick out the right choice. The solubility of a gas in sea water increases with ________.

(A) the increase of temperature, salinity and pressure

(B) the decrease of temperature, salinity and pressure

(D) the decrease of temperature and salinity, and the increase of pressure

Answer: (D)

159. From the list given below, identify the organism type in the biological pump that takes up carbon dioxide from the atmosphere into the ocean.

(A) Zooplankton

(B) Fish

(D) Radiolarians

Answer: (C)

160. The amount of CO₂ that can be absorbed _______ when the temperature of seawater decreases.

(A) Remains the same

(B) Increases

(D) Can either increase or decrease

Answer: (B)

161. Which among the following gases has the highest global warming potential?

(A) CO₂

(B) Water vapor

(D) N₂O

Answer: (D)

162. What will happen to the speed of a balanced flow as one moves across the isobar along a particular latitude?

(A) The speed changes for a geostrophic flow and remains constant for a cyclostrophic flow

(B) The speed remains constant for a geostrophic flow and changes for a cyclostrophic flow

(D) The speed changes for both (geostrophic and cyclostrophic) types of flow

Answer: (B)

XE-H: Q.163 – Q.175 Carry TWO marks Each

163. The following illustration depicts the circulation pattern in the North Indian Ocean during the southwest (June-August) monsoon. Identify the markers numbered from 1-5 in the illustration and pick out the right choice.

(A) 1. Great Whirl, 2. East India Coastal Current, 3. East African Coastal Current, 4. Summer (Southwest) Monsoon Current, and 5. West India Coastal Current.

(B) 1. East African Coastal Current, 2. Summer (Southwest) Monsoon Current, 3. Great Whirl, 4. South Equatorial Counter Current, and 5. East India Coastal Current.

(C) 1. Great Whirl, 2. Summer (Southwest) Monsoon Current, 3. West India Coastal Current, 4. Somali Current, and 5. East India Coastal Current.

(D) 1. East African Coastal Current, 2. West India Coastal Current, 3. Somali Current, 4. East India Coastal Current, and 5. South Equatorial Counter Current.

Answer: (A)

164. From the following list identify the region that has low chlorophyll and low nutrients.

(A) Upwelling, anticyclonic eddy

(B) Upwelling, cyclonic eddy

(D) Downwelling, cyclonic eddy

Answer: (C)

165. Match the following physical phenomena from the perspective of monsoonal circulation:

(A) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv

(B) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

(D) a-ii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

Answer: (B)

166. Choose the correct statement(s) in context to Ekman spiral from the following:

(A) The balance of Coriolis force and pressure

(B) The balance of Coriolis force, wind shear, and frictional force

(D) The increase of current velocity with depth

Answer: (B, C)

167. Which of the following is/are associated with winter rainfall over India?

(A) Northeast monsoon

(B) Southwest monsoon

(D) Agulhas Current

Answer: (A, C)

168. If the global albedo is increased from 0.3 to 0.4, the global radiative equilibrium temperature (in K) would decrease by ________.

(consider no greenhouse effect, solar constant = 1360 W m⁻² and Stefan-Boltzmann constant = 5.67 × 10⁻⁸ W m⁻² K⁻⁴, rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (9.5 to 9.7)

169. When a parcel of dry air rises at a rate of 2 cm s⁻¹ vertically, what should be the rate of heating per unit mass in J s⁻¹ kg⁻¹ (due to the radiation, conduction, etc.) in order to maintain the air parcel at a constant temperature?

(consider the acceleration due to gravity as 9.8 m s⁻², rounded off to three decimal places).

Answer: (0.195 to 0.197)

170. Two balls each of 5 cm in diameter are placed 200 m apart on a horizontal frictionless plane at 45º N. The balls are impulsively propelled directly at each other with equal speeds. What must be the speed in m s⁻¹ so that the two balls just miss each other?

(consider the value of Ω as 7.29 × 10⁻⁵ rad s⁻¹, rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (20.6 to 20.9)

171. A parcel of dry air having an initial temperature of 30 ºC at 1000 hPa level is lifted adiabatically. At what pressure (in hPa) its density reduces by half?

(consider the ratio of the specific heat of dry air at a constant pressure to the specific heat of dry air at a constant volume, C_p/C_v = 0.71, rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (611.30 to 611.35)

172. A cylindrical tank containing water is rotating about the z-axis at a constant angular velocity of 10 rad s⁻¹. The schematic of the isobaric surface is shown in the following illustration, where ‘A’ and ‘B’ are two points on the isobaric surface at heights ‘z₁’ and ‘z₂’, respectively. Assuming the atmospheric pressure to be negligible and no transient flow, estimate the elevation difference in m between ‘z₁’ and ‘z₂’.

(consider r₁ = 0.5 m, r₂ = 1.0 m and gravitational acceleration g = 9.8 m s⁻², rounded off to two decimal places)

Answer: (3.82 to 3.83)

173. Consider that there are 295 million vehicles across India and they drive about 12000 km yr⁻¹. Each vehicle consumes about 25 km lit⁻¹ of petrol and the amount of carbon released per litre is 5.5 gm. What is the amount of carbon emitted into the atmosphere in mega ton per year (rounded off to two decimal places)?

Answer: (0.78 to 0.78)

174. Consider the two parallel isobars separated by a spacing of 250 km at 30ºN (air density = 0.70 kg m⁻³, 2Ω = 14.6 × 10⁻⁵ rad s⁻¹) with a pressure gradient of 5 hPa. Calculate the geostrophic velocity in m s⁻¹ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (39.06 to 39.37)

175. Considering a gyre system in the following illustration (where ‘L’ and ‘H’ represent low- and high-pressure regions along 45º N), the average slope between the points ‘A’ and ‘B’ is 2.1 cm km⁻¹ under no wind condition. For a steady southerly wind of 10 m s⁻¹ over these regions, find out the magnitude of the current velocity in m s⁻¹ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (2.10 to 2.11)

GATE Exam 2023 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science (TF) Question Paper With Answer Key

August 7, 2023 by suresh84

GATE-2023

TF: Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. “You are delaying the completion of the task. Send _______ contributions at the earliest.”

(A) you are

(B) your

(D) yore

Answer: (B)