IBPS Specialist Officer (Agriculture) (Pre.) Examination Held on 29-12-2019 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key

IBPS Specialist Officer (Agriculture) (Pre.) Examination Held on 29-12-2019
IBPS Specialist Officer (Agriculture) (Pre.) Examination Held on 29-12-2019 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key

IBPS Specialist Officer (Agriculture) (Pre.) Examination Held on 29-12-2019

Reasoning

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘GENERALIST’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (both in forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(A)  One

(B)  Two

(C)  Three

(D)  Four

(E)   More than four

Answer: (D)

Directions- (Q. 2-6) Read the following information carefully and answer the given question-

     Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G have cleared exams on seven different from Monday and ending on Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order.

     B cleared the exam on Thursday. Only one person cleared the exam between C and D. F cleared the exam after D. Only one person cleared the exam between B and G. The number of people who cleared the exam before A is the same as the number of people who cleared the exam before A is the same as the number of people who cleared the exam after C. A cleared the exam immediately after G.

2. On which of the following days does C cleared the exam?

(A)  Sunday

(B)  Monday

(C)  Tuesday

(D)  Wednesday

(E)   Thursday

Answer: (B)

3. Who among the following has cleared the exam on Saturday?

(A)  B

(B)  G

(C)  A

(D)  F

(E)   E

Answer: (B)

4. If every person cleared the exam in alphabetical order from Monday to Sunday, the day of clearing the exam of how many people will remain unchanged?

(A)  None

(B)  One

(C)  Two

(D)  Three

(E)   Four

Answer: (A)

5. On which of the following days D cleared the exam?

(A)  Monday

(B)  Friday

(C)  Thursday

(D)  Sunday

(E)   Wednesday

Answer: (E)

6. Who among the following has cleared the exam on Tuesday?

(A)  F

(B)  G

(C)  A

(D)  E

(E)   C

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 7-9) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question-

     Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are in a family. There are two married couples. A is the father-in-law of D. B is the grandmother of G. C and G are siblings of different gender. C is a nephew of F. D and F are not siblings. E is a male member in the family. C is child of E. D is a female member.

7. How many female members are in the family?

(A)  Three

(B)  Cannot be determined

(C)  Four

(D)  Five

(E)   None of the above

Answer: (B)

8. How is E related to G?

(A)  Sister

(B)  Brother

(C)  Mother

(D)  Father

(E)   None of the above

Answer: (D)

9. How is A related to F?

(A)  Father

(B)  Mother

(C)  Sister

(D)  Brother

(E)   None of the above

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 10-14)  Study the following information and answer the questions given below-

     Seven persons P, Q< R< S, T, U and V goes for a vacation in seven different days starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. The destination are Shimla, New York, Paris, Delhi, Bali, Kerala and Goa but not necessarily in the same order.

     V is not going to Kerala. R is not going to Delhi. U is going to Goa on Thursday and one person is going between U and S. Two persons are going between U and the one who is going to New York. One person is going between the one who is going to Kerala and the one who is going to New York. No one is going after Q. As many persons are going before the one who are going to Paris is same as the number of persons going after the one who is going to Delhi. The one who is going to Paris is going before the one who is going to Delhi. The one who is going to Bali is going before the one who is going to Shimla. No one is going between P and R. P is going before R. R is not going to Kerala and Shimla. T is going before V.

10. How many persons are going between S and Q?

(A)  Two

(B)  None

(C)  Three

(D)  Four

(E)   One

Answer: (B)

11. How many persons are going between S and the one who is going to Kerala?

(A)  One

(B)  None

(C)  Three

(D)  Two

(E)   Four

Answer: (D)

12. Who among the following person is going to Paris?

(A)  R

(B)  Q

(C)  P

(D)  S

(E)   T

Answer: (A)

13. Who among the following person is going on Friday?

(A)  V

(B)  Q

(C)  T

(D)  S

(E)   P

Answer: (A)

14. Who among the following person is going to Bali?

(A)  The one who is going on Monday

(B)  The one who is going on Saturday

(C)  V

(D)  Q

(E)   None of the above

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 15-19) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below-

     Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around the circular table but not necessarily in the same order. Three of them are facing away from the centre and five of them are facing towards the centre.

     C and F are neighbours, facing the opposite directions. A is not an immediate neighbour of H. D does not sit opposite to . G and H are facing each other. A and B are sitting opposite to each other. The immediate neighbours of G are facing the opposite direction. C and H are not immediate neighbours of each other. C is second to the left of the person who is sitting third to the left of H. D is facing the same directions as A.

15. Who is sitting to the immediate left of E?

(A)  D

(B)  C

(C)  B

(D)  G

(E)   H

Answer: (E)

16. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(A)  F

(B)  D

(C)  G

(D)  E

(E)   A

Answer: (D)

17. Who amongst the following is an immediate neighbour of F?

(A)  E

(B)  A

(C)  G

(D)  B

(E)   D

Answer: (D)

18. Who is facing D?

(A)  F

(B)  C

(C)  E

(D)  A

(E)   H

Answer: (A)

19. What is the position of A with respect to C?

(A)  Third to the right

(B)  Second to the right

(C)  Second to the left

(D)  Immediate right

(E)   Immediate left

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 20-24) Study the following information and answer the question given below.

     A word and a number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers it rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input : 75 floor person room hall 86 35 47 building 58

Step I :  86 building 75 floor person room hall 35 47 58

Step II : 75 floor 86 building person room hall 35 47 58

Step III : 58 hall 75 floor 86 building person room 35 47

Step IV : 47 person 58 hall 75 floor 86 building room 35

Step V : 35 room 47 person 58 hall 75 floor 86 building.

     And step V is the last step of the above arrangement.

     As per the rules followed in the given steps,

     Input : 96 symbol number 85 68 books paper 55 49 laptop.

20. What will be the difference of the numbers which is second from the right end in step II and first from the right end in step IV?

(A)  5

(B)  6

(C)  4

(D)  3

(E)   2

Answer: (B)

21. What will be the sum of the numbers which is third from left end in step III and second from right end in step V?

(A)  181

(B)  155

(C)  154

(D)  167

(E)   150

Answer: (A)

22. Which of the following element will be fifth from the left end in step IV?

(A)  96

(B)  symbol

(C)  85

(D)  number

(E)   laptop

Answer: (C)

23. Which of the following element will be third from the right end in step III?

(A)  symbol

(B)  paper

(C)  85

(D)  68

(E)   None of these

Answer: (B)

24. What will be the difference between the numbers which is sixth from the right end in step I and fifth from left end in step V?

(A)  13

(B)  23

(C)  15

(D)  17

(E)   19

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 25-29) In these questions relationship between different elements is shown in the statement. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer-

(A) If only conclusion I follows

(B) If only conclusion II follows

(C) Either conclusion I or II follows

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

(E) Both conclusions I and II follows

25. Statements: L < K ≤ G > P < V > I ≥ Z = A > B ≥

Conclusion : I. V > C

(II) V ≥ A

Answer: (A)

26. Statements : P > Q ≥ R > S = T < U > V > X ≥

Conclusions: I. P ≥ Y

(II) P > Z

Answer: (D)

27. Statements: D ≤ M > O, K ≥ T, D > T

Conclusions: I. T < M

(II) K = D

Answer: (A)

28. Statements: S < T ≤ U, T > P, I = T ≤ D

Conclusions: I. I > P

(II) S ≤ D

Answer: (A)

29. Statements: A > M > R = F ≥ Z < X < C < V.

Conclusion: I. M < C

(II) R ≥ Z

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 30-34) In this questions, three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the statements disregarding commonly known facts.

(A) If only conclusion I follows

(B) If only conclusion II follows

(C) If either conclusion I or II follows

(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows

(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

30. Statements: All artists are players. All musicians are artists. All players are singers.

Conclusions:

(I) All singers are musician is a possibility.

(II) Some singers which are artists are also a part of musician.

Answer: (E)

31. Statements: All bricks are stones. Some stones are rocks are rocks. All rocks are mountains.

(I) Some mountains which are stones are also a part of bricks.

(II) No rock is brick is a possibility.

Answer: (B)

32. Statements: All six’s are scores. All boundaries are fours. No boundary is score.

Conclusions:

(I) All six’s are fours is a possibility.

(II) All scores which are fours are also a part of boundaries.

Answer: (A)

33. Statements: Some cars are mobiles. All mobiles are phones. All cars are trucks.

Conclusions:

(I) Some cars are not phones.

(II) All trucks are phones is a possibility.

Answer: (B)

34. Statements: Some husbands are fathers. All fathers are parents. Some husbands are not mothers.

Conclusions:

(I) All mothers are father is a possibility

(II) All husbands are parents is a possibility.

Answer: (E)

35. Statements: A sentence in the letter to the candidates called for written examination-‘You have to bear your expenses on travel etc.’

Assumptions:

(I) If not clarified, all the candidates may claim reimbursement of expenses.

(II) Many organizations reimburse expenses on travel to candidates called for written examinations.

(A)  If only assumption I is implicit

(B)  If only assumption II is implicit

(C)  If either I or II is implicit

(D)  If neither I nor II is implicit

(E)   If both I and II are implicit

Answer: (E)

36. Statements: Apart from the entertainment value of television, its educational value cannot be ignored.

Assumptions:

(I) People take television to be a means of entertainment only.

(II) The educational value of television is not realized properly.

(A)  If only assumption I is implicit

(B)  If only assumption II is implicit

(C)  If either I or II is implicit

(D)  If neither I nor II is implicit

(E)   If both I and II are implicit

Answer: (E)

37. Statements: A very large number of students have failed in the final high school examination due to faulty questions in one of the subjects.

Course of Actions:

(I) All the students who have failed in the subject should be allowed to take supplementary examination.

(II) All those who are responsible for the error should be suspended and an enquiry should be initiated to find out the facts.

(A)  Only I follows

(B)  Only II follows

(C)  Either I or II follows

(D)  Both I and II follow

(E)   Neither I nor II follows

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 38-42) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.

Seven players viz., L, M, N, O, P, Q and R of Volleyball were standing on a ground such that L was 10m the north of R, who was 5 m west of Q. M was 6 m south of N, who was 8 m east of R. P was 13 m north of N and 4 m east of O.

     After sometime few of them changed their position, which will be denoted by adding ‘to their names. For example new position of L will be denoted as L’.

     O moved 5 m towards south and then turned left and moved 2 m and stopped.

     L moved 5 m towards north-east and then moved 1 m in north and stopped.

38. In which direction is O’ with respect to N?

(A)  South-east

(B)  North-west

(C)  North

(D)  North-east

(E)   None of these

Answer: (B)

39. What is the shortest distance between O’ and R?

(A)  9 m

(B)  13 m

(C)  10 m

(D)  14 m

(E)   Cannot be determined

Answer: (C)

40. If Q moved 1 m towards west then what is the straight distance between L’ and Q’?

(A)  12 m

(B)  15 m

(C)  17 m

(D)  19 m

(E)   14 m

Answer: (E)

41. Who among the following has the least distance in between?

(I) MN     (II) QR                        (III) NQ

(A)  Only I

(B)  Only II

(C)  Only III

(D)  Both I and II

(E)   Either II or III

Answer: (C)

42. Which of the following statements is false?

(A)  P, N and M standing in a straight vertical line

(B)  R is in south of L’

(C)  Distance between O and L’ is 1 m

(D)  None is false

(E)   All are false

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 43-47) Study the following information carefully to answer the question given below :

     Eight persons were born on two different dates i.e. 8th or 11th in four different months of the same year viz. January, February, March and September but not necessarily in the same order. Only one person was born on one date.

     E was born on even date but not the eldest among all. B was born just before H. Three persons were born between E and H. G was born just before D but not in the same month. B was born after G. F was born in the month which as 30 days. At least one person was born between C and E. A was born on an odd date.

43. How many persons were born after D?

(A)  More than three

(B)  Three

(C)  None

(D)  One

(E)   Two

Answer: (B)

44. How many persons were born between F and G?

(A)  One

(B)  Four

(C)  Two

(D)  None

(E)   Three

Answer: (E)

45. The number of persons born between A and G is same as the number of persons born between H and ………….?

(A)  C

(B)  F

(C)  D

(D)  E

(E)   B

Answer: (C)

46. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?

(A)  C

(B)  A

(C)  G

(D)  B

(E)   F

Answer: (A)

47. Who among the following born on 8th January?

(A)  E

(B)  G

(C)  B

(D)  C

(E)   A

Answer: (D)

48. Pointing to a boy in a photograph Rani said, “His sister’s uncle is the only brother of my mohter’s husband’s only daughter.” How the boy in the photograph is related to Rani?

(A)  Son

(B)  Cousin

(C)  Brother

(D)  Daughter

(E)   Mother

Answer: (A)

49. A person starts from point A goes 4 km towards East then he takes his left and goes 4 km, at last he takes his right and goes 3 km, reached point B, now in which direction point B with respect to point A.

(A)  North-west

(B)  North-east

(C)  North

(D)  West

(E)   East

Answer: (B)

50. If three is added to each even digit and two is added to each odd digit of the number 7145362, then which of the following digits will not appear twice in the new number thus formed?

(A)  Only 3

(B)  Only 9

(C)  Both 3 and 5

(D)  Both 7 and 9

(E)   Only 5

Answer: (A)

IBPS R.R.Bs. Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination Held on 5-11-2016 Reasoning Question Paper and Answer Key

IBPS R.R.Bs. Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination Held on 5-11-2016 Reasoning Questin Paper and Answer Key
IBPS R.R.Bs. Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination Held on 5-11-2016 Reasoning Question Paper and Answer Key

IBPS R.R.Bs. Probationary Officers (Pre.) Exam., 2016

Held on 5-11-2016

Reasoning

1. Among five people – A, B, C, D and E, each scoring different marks, only one person scored less marks than B. D scored more than B but less than A. A did not score the highest. Who scored the second highest ?

(A)  E

(B)  Cannot be determined

(C)  A

(D)  C

(E)  D

Ans: (C)

Directions – Study the given information carefully to answer the given question :

A is 14 m east of B, C is 6 m South of A. P is 4 m West of C. Point C is the midpoint of Points P and H. Such that points P, C and H form a straight line. Q is 6 m South of Point H.

2. Kunal walks 10 m towards North from Point H, takes a left turn and walks for 4 m. How far will he be from Point C ?

(A)  2 m

(B)  10 m

(C)  4 m

(D)  6 m

(E)  7 m

Ans: (B)

3. If A is 2 m to the North of L and R is 4 m West of Q, how far is Point L from Point R ?

(A)  4 m

(B)  10 m

(C)  7 m

(D)  14 m

(E)  9 m

Ans: (B)

4. In which direction is B with respect to H ?

(A)  North-east

(B)  South-east

(C)  North-west

(D)  North

(E)  West

Ans: (C)

Directions – Study the following information and answer the given question :

Nine friends – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X live on nine different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered nine.

T lives on an odd numbered floor below the floor numbered five. Only three people live between T and R. Only one person lives between X and V. V lives above X. Q lives on an odd numbered floor immediately below P. Q does not live on the floor numbered five. The number of persons living between X and P is equal to the number of people living between T and S. W lives on an even numbered floor immediately above R.

5. S is related to the floor numbered six and R is related to the floor numbered eight in a certain way X is related to which of the following floor numbers following the same way ?

(A)  Seven

(B)  Nine

(C)  Five

(D)  Eight

(E)  One

Ans: (C)

6. U lives on which of the following floor numbers ?

(A)  Five

(B)  Four

(C)  Nine

(D)  Three

(E)  Other than those given as options

Ans: (C)

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?

(A)  QU

(B)  VW

(C)  SR

(D)  PX

(E)  XV

Ans: (A)

8. How many persons live below the floor on which W lives ?

(A)  One

(B)  Two

(C)  More than three

(D)  Three

(E)  None of the above

Ans: (C)

9. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement ?

(A)  Only three people live between S and V

(B)  None of the given statements is true

(C)  Q lives immediately above T.

(D)  More than three persons live above R

(E)  U lives on the floor numbered nine

Ans: (E)

10. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 71864392 (Both in forward and backward directions), each of which has as many digits between them as in the arithmetic series ?

(A)  More than three

(B)  None

(C)  Three

(D)  One

(E)  Two

Ans: (A)

11. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on their positions of alphabets in the English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A)  RQT

(B)  NPL

(C)  FHD

(D)  KMI

(E)  WYU

Ans: (A)

Directions – Study the following information to answer the given question :

Nine persons, B, C, D, E, L, M, N, O and P are seated in a straight line facing north, with equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order.

As many people sit to the left of E as to the right of E. Only one person sits between E and O. L sits third to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbor of O. Neither P nor D sits at any of the extreme ends of the line. Only three persons sits between B and C. B is not an immediate neighbor of M. The number of people sitting between B and E is double as that between E and N.

12. Who sits third to the right of B ?

(A)  E

(B)  O

(C)  N

(D)  L

(E)  No one as B sits at one of the extreme ends of the line

Ans: (A)

13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A)  C, E

(B)  M, D

(C)  O, C

(D)  B, L

(E)  D, B

Ans: (E)

14. Which of the following is true with respect to M as per the given arrangement ?

(A)  M sits second to the left of O

(B)  M is an immediate neighbour of L

(C)  More than two people sit between D and M.

(D)  None of the given options is true

(E)  M sits at one of the extreme ends of the line

Ans: (E)

15. Who amongst the following sit exactly between L and P ?

(A)  E, N

(B)  M, O

(C)  B, N

(D)  C, O

(E)  D, E

Ans: (C)

16. In which of the given pairs of people, is odd number of people sitting between them ?

(A)  E, M

(B)  B, M

(C)  L, C

(D)  L, P

(E)  P, O

Ans: (A)

Directions – Study the following information to answer the given question :

Gaurav watches seven movies vis., Gladiator, Braveheart, Titanic Inception, Chinatown, Avatar and Passion on seven different days of the same week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order. Thus on one day the watches only one movie.

Gaurav watches inception on Friday. He watches only one movie between Inception and Titanic. He watches only three movies between Titanic and Gladiator. He watches only two movies between Titanic and Chinatown. Gaurav watches Avatar immediately before the day he watches Titanic. He watches Passion on one of the days after he watches Avatar.

17. How many movies does Gaurav watch between Braveheart and Passion ?

(A)  None

(B)  Three

(C)  One

(D)  Two

(E)  Four

Ans: (D)

18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A)  Wednesday – Avatar

(B)  Friday – Braveheart

(C)  Thursday – Titanic

(D)  Saturday – Inception

(E)  Sunday – Chinatown

Ans: (B)

19. Which of the following is true as per the given arrangement ?

(A)  Gaurav watches inception on the day immediately after the day on which he watches Braveheart

(B)  None of the given statements are true

(C)  Gaurav watches only two movies between Avatar and Chinatown

(D)  Gaurav watches Passion on Wednesday

(E)  Gaurav watches Gladiator on Sunday

Ans: (E)

20. On which day of the week does Gaurav watch Avatar ?

(A)  Saturday

(B)  Sunday

(C)  Tuesday

(D)  Wednesday

(E)  Thursday

Ans: (C)

21. Which movie does Gaurav watch on Monday ?

(A)  Chinatown

(B)  Gladiator

(C)  Titanic

(D)  Braveheart

(E)  Passion

Ans: (D)

Directions- In this question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement(s). The statement(s) are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer and answer as :

(A) Only  conclusion I follows.

(B) Only conclusion II follows.

(C) Either conclusion I or II follows.

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(E) Both conclusion I and II follows.

22. Statement : T = V ≤ R < B, T ≤ D

Conclusions : I. D ≥ R

                         II. B ≤ T

Ans: (D)

23. Statement : R < O ≥ E; Y ≥ O > C.

Conclusions : I. Y > R

                         II. E < C

Ans: (A)

24. Statement : P > R = S ≥ Q; M ≤ R

Conclusions : I. M < P

                         II. Q ≤ M

Ans: (A)

25. Statement : H < M ≥ I > N = C ≥ R

Conclusions : I. C < H

                         II. M > R

Ans: (B)

26. Statement : R < O ≥ E; Y ≥ O > C

Conclusions : I. Y = E

                         II. Y > E

Ans: (C)

27. In a certain code language, ‘give me call’ is coded as ‘jo kl mx’ and ‘call for me’ is coded as ‘mx jo st’. How will ‘for’ be coded as in the given code language ? (Note : all codes are two letter codes only)

(A)  Either ‘mx’ or ‘jo’

(B)  Either ‘jo’ or ‘kj’

(C)  kj

(D)  mx

(E)  st

Ans: (E)

Directions – In this question, two/three statements followed by two conclusions are given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows disregarding commonly known facts and select the appropriate option and answer as :

(A) Only conclusion I follows.

(B) Only conclusion II follows.

(C) Either conclusion I or II follows.

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(E) Both conclusion I and II follows.

28. Statement : No horse is a goat. Some goats are deers.

Conclusions :

I. No horse is a deer.

II. Atleast some horses are deers.

Ans: (C)

29. Statement : Some trees are branches. Some branches are roads. No road is a sky.

Conclusions :

I. No tree is a sky.

II. Some branches are definitely not skies.

Ans: (D)

30. Statement : All plates are spoons. All spoons are glasses. Some glasses are mugs.

Conclusions :

I. All plates being mugs is a possibility.

II. All glasses are plates.

Ans: (D)

31. Statement : All plates are spoons. All spoons are glasses. Some glasses are mugs.

Conclusions :

I. Some mugs are spoons.

II. No mug is a spoon.

Ans: (C)

32. Statement : Some trees are branches. Some branches are roads. No road is a sky.

Conclusions :

I. All roads are trees.

II. All skies are branches.

Ans: (D)

Directions – Study the given information carefully to answer the given question :

K and M are the children of G. G is married to R. S is the sister of G. A is the only son of R. P is the son of K.

33. How is M related to P ?

(A)  Father

(B)  Uncle

(C)  Aunt

(D)  Grandmother

(E)  Brother-in-law

Ans: (C)

34. How is S related to R ?

(A)  Sister-in-law

(B)  Daughter-in-law

(C)  Niece

(D)  Daughter

(E)  Granddaughter

Ans: (A)

35. If S does not have any sister, then how is G related to P ?

(A)  Uncle

(B)  Grandmother

(C)  Father-in-law

(D)  Aunt

(E)  Grandfather

Ans: (E)

Directions – Study the given information carefully to answer the given question :

Eight people – M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a square table (but not necessarily in the same order) in such a way that four of them sit at the corners while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones sitting at the corners are facing the centre and the ones sitting in the middle of the sides are facing outside. (i.e., opposite to the centre)

O sits in the middle of one of ht sides. Only two people sit between O and R. T sits to the immediate right of R. T and S face the same direction. N sits to the immediate left of S. P is an immediate neighbor of N. M sits third to the right of P.

36. What is the position of P with respect to T ?

(A)  Third to the left

(B)  Second to the left

(C)  Immediate left

(D)  Immediate right

(E)  Second to the right

Ans: (E)

37. Which of the following pairs represent the people sitting between O and the one sitting to the immediate right of P, when counted from the left of O ?

(A)  N, S

(B)  R, N

(C)  S, M

(D)  T, Q

(E)  R, T

Ans: (C)

38. How many people sit between T and M when counted from the right of T ?

(A)  More than three

(B)  Two

(C)  One

(D)  Three

(E)  None of the above

Ans: (A)

39. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement ?

(A)  None of the given statements is true

(B)  Q is an immediate neighbor of T

(C)  S sits at one of the corners of the table

(D)  Only two people sit between M and Q

(E)  R and N face opposite directions

Ans: (B)

40. Who sits third to the left of O ?

(A)  R

(B)  M

(C)  P

(D)  N

(E)  S

Ans: (D)

I.B.P.S. Bank Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination, 2015 Question Paper with Answer Key

IBPS PI.B.P.S. Bank PO Pre

I.B.P.S. Bank Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination, 2015 Question Paper with Answer Key

I.B.P.S. Bank Probationary Officers (Pre.) Exam., 2015

Held on 3-10-2015

Quantitative Aptitude

 

 

Directions – (Q. 1- 5) Study the table and answer the given questions :

 

Note – Few values are missing in the table (indicated by). A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value, If it is required to answer the given question on the basis of given data and information.

1. Out of the number of qualified candidates from Sate P in 2008, the respective ratio of male and female candidates is 11 : 7. If the number of female qualified candidates from State P in 2008 is 126, what is the number of appeared candidates (both male and female) from the state P in 2008?

(A)  630

(B)  510

(C)  570

(D)  690

(E)  540

Ans: (E)

2. Number of appeared candidates from state Q increased by 100% from 2006 to 2007. If the total number of qualified candidates from State Q in 2006 and 2007 together is 408, what is the number of appeared candidates from State Q in 2006?

(A)  380

(B)  360

(C)  340

(D)  320

(E)  300

Ans: (C)

3. What is the difference between number of qualified candidates from State P in 2006 and that in 2007?

(A)  12

(B)  22

(C)  14

(D)  24

(E)  16

Ans: (A)

4. If the average number of qualified candidates from State Q in 2008, 2009 and 2010 is 210, what is the number of qualified candidates from State Q in 2010 ?

(A)  191

(B)  195

(C)  183

(D)  187

(E)  179

Ans: (D)

5. If the respective ratio between number of qualified candidates from State P in 2009 and 2010 is 14 : 9, what is the number of qualified candidates from State P in 2010?

(A)  252

(B)  207

(C)  216

(D)  234

(E)  198

Ans: (C)

6. 

(A)  15

(B)  10

(C)  7

(D)  4

(E) 12

Ans: (E)

7. 012 – 19.982 – ? = 21.812

(A)  49

(B)  50

(C)  30

(D)  39

(E)  41

Ans: (*)

8. 15 + 2379.85 + 140.01 × 4.99 = ?

(A)  4400

(B)  3900

(C)  3000

(D)  4000

(E)  4300

Ans: (B)

9. 97% of 649.8 ÷ 13.05 = 45.12 – ?

(A)  40

(B)  15

(C)  25

(D)  10

(E)  30

Ans: (C)

10. (674.87 + 59.98) ÷02 = ?

(A)  29

(B)  27

(C)  19

(D)  21

(E)  11

Ans: (D)

Directions (Q. 11-15) : Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.


11. The number of people who travelled by Train B on Friday is 20% more than the people who travelled by the same train on Thursday. What is the respective ratio between the number of people who travelled on Friday and those who travelled on Saturday by the same train ?

(A)  4 : 5

(B)  3 : 4

(C)  5 : 6

(D)  3 : 5

(E)  1 : 4

Ans: (B)

12. What is the difference between the total number of people who travelled by Train B on Monday and Tuesday together and the total number of people who travelled by Train A on Saturday and Sunday together?

(A)  200

(B)  230

(C)  210

(D)  250

(E)  240

Ans: (D)

13. What is the average number of people travelling by Train A on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday ?

(A)  220

(B)  190

(C)  205

(D)  195

(E)  210

Ans: (C)

14. The number of people who travelled by Train A decreased by what per cent from Saturday to Tuesday ?

(A)  35

(B)  40

(C)  30

(D)  42

(E)  33

Ans: (B)

15. The total number of people who travelled by both the given trains together on Sunday is approximately what per cent more than the total number of people who travelled by both the given trains together on Wednesday?

(A)  128

(B)  123

(C)  142

(D)  118

(E)  135

Ans: (B)

16. 6,100 was partly invested in Scheme A at 10% p.a. compound interest (compounded annually) for 2 years and partly in Scheme B at 10% p.a. simple interest for 4 years. Both schemes equal interests. How much was invested in Scheme A ?

(A)  Rs. 3,750

(B)  Rs. 4,500

(C)  Rs. 4,000

(D)  Rs. 3,250

(E)  Rs. 5,000

Ans: (C)

17. ‘A’ bought a certain quantity of oranges at total cost of Rs. 1200. He sold 1/3rd of those oranges at 20% loss. If A earns an overall profit of 10%, at what per cent profit did A set the rest of the oranges ?

(A)  16%

(B)  15%

(C)  22%

(D)  25%

(E)  20%

Ans: (D)

18. Present ages of Kiran and Shyam are in the ratio of 5 : Three years hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Shyam’s present age in years ?

(A)  28

(B)  27

(C)  26

(D)  24

(E)  30

Ans: (D)

Directions – (Q. 19-23) In these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the questions and mark the appropriate option.

19. 2x2 + 19x + 45 = 0

      2y2 + 11y + 12 = 0

(A)  x > y

(B)  x ≥ y

(C)  x < y

(D)  Relationship between x and y cannot be determined

(E)  x ≤ y

Ans: (C)

20. 3x2 – 13x + 12 = 0

       2y2 – 15y + 28 = 0

(A)  x > y

(B)  x ≥ y

(C)  x < y

(D)  Relationship between x and y cannot be determined

(E)  x ≤ y

Ans: (C)

21. x2 = 16

      2y2 – 17y + 36 = 0

(A)  x > y

(B)  x ≥ y

(C)  x < y

(D)  Relationship between x and y cannot be determined

(E)  x ≤ y

Ans: (E)

22. 6x2 + 19x + 15 = 0

      3y2 + 11y + 10 = 0

(A)  x > y

(B)  x ≥ y

(C)  x < y

(D)  Relationship between x and y cannot be determined

(E)  x ≤ y

Ans: (B)

23. 2x2 – 11x + 15 = 0

      2y2 – 11y + 14 = 0

(A)  x > y

(B)  x ≥ y

(C)  x < y

(D)  Relationship between x and y cannot be determined

(E)  x ≤ y

Ans: (D)

24. A started a business. After 4 months from the start of the business, B and C joined. The respective ratio between the investments of A, B and C was 4 : 6 : 5. If A’s share in annual profit was Rs. 250 more than C’s share, what was the total annual profit earned ?

(A)  Rs. 3740

(B)  Rs. 3910

(C)  Rs. 4250

(D)  Rs. 5000

(E)  None of these

Ans: (C)

25. A person has to travel from point A to point B in certain time. Travelling at a speed of 5 kmph he reaches 48 minutes late and while travelling at a speed of 8 kmph he reaches 15 minutes early. What is the distance from point A to B?

(A)  15 km

(B)  9 km

(C)  12 km

(D)  18 km

(E)  14 km

Ans: (E)

26. 28 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days and 15 women can complete the same piece of work in 24 days. What is the respective ratio between the amount of work done by 30 men in 1 day and the amount of work done by 18 women in 1 day?

(A)  10 : 7

(B)  3 : 7

(C)  4 : 5

(D)  5 : 4

(E)  4 : 1

Ans: (A)

27. 18 litres of pure water was added to a vessel containing 80 litres of pure milk. 49 litres of the resultant mixture was then sold and some more quantity of pure milk and pure water was added to the vessel in the respective ratio of 2 : 1. If the resultant respective ratio of milk and water in the vessel was 4 : 1, what was the quantity of pure milk added in the vessel ? (in litres).

(A)  4

(B)  8

(C)  10

(D)  12

(E)  2

Ans: (A)

28. A certain sum is divided among A, B and C in such a way that A gets Rs. 40 more than the 1/2 of the sum. B get Rs. 120 less than 3/8th of the sum and C gas Rs. 200. What is the total sum.

(A)  Rs. 1100

(B)  Rs. 850

(C)  Rs. 960

(D)  Rs. 1200

(E)  Rs. 1600

Ans: (C)

Directions-(Q. 29-33) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series ?

29. 123    140    106    55 – 13 ?

(A)  214

(B)  139

(C)  −98

(D)  −69

(E)  −74

Ans: (C)

30. 190    94      46      22      ?        4

(A)  19

(B)  15

(C)  10

(D)  8

(E)  16

Ans: (C)

31. 320   320    314    290    230    ?

(A)  114

(B)  110

(C)  50

(D)  98

(E)  142

Ans: (B)

32. 3    4        9        28      113    ?

(A)  782

(B)  424

(C)  646

(D)  384

(E)  566

Ans: (E)

33. 8    4        6        15      ?        25

(A)  64.5

(B)  84

(C)  52.5

(D)  36

(E)  46

Ans: (C)

34. The respective ratio of curved surface area and total surface area of a cylinder is 4 : 5. If the curved surface area of the cylinder is 1232 cm2, what is the height ? (in cm)

(A)  28

(B)  12

(C)  20

(D)  18

(E)  19

Ans: (A)

35. A bag contains 3 red balls, 5 yellow balls and 7 pink balls. If one ball is drawn at random from the bag, what is the probability that it is other pink or red ?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D)    

(E) 

Ans: (B)

IBPS PO Exam Results

IBPS PO 2015 Main exam results are to be declared soon:

          The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) was established in the year 1975 as the Personal Selection Services (PSS) whose recruitment takes place either two tier or three tier process.

IBPS RRB and SO recruitment is a two tier process whereas IBPS PO & Clerk consists of three stages such as Common Written Examination (CWE) followed by an interview and final placement.

About Institute of Banking Personnel Selection:

              The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection is an autonomous body which was set up to implement world class assessment and selection of personnel for various client organizations. It provides its services to many public sector banks like SBI, RBI, NABARD, SIDBI, few co-operative banks, public sector undertakings of non-financial sectors, state owned companies, Government departments and so on.

IBPS exam has become one of the famous tests in the country for being a successful “Personnel Selection Test Conducting Agency”. Its strength and ability lies in conducting multiple choices of objective tests for Lakhs and Lakhs of students across 200 test centres in India and also in few foreign locations.

Also, few major Universities and reputed management institutes engage IBPS regularly for conducting their Admission tests.

 

About IBPSPO exam:

                 Institute of Banking Personnel Selection has conducted preliminary examination on October 3rd, 4th, 10th and 11th, 2015 for the selection of Probationary officer (PO) or Management Trainee (MT) positions.

This was an online computer based test and consisted of multiple choices of questions. The duration of preliminary exam was one hour and total number of questions in the question paper was 100.

The results of the preliminary examination were declared on October 17th 2015.

The results of preliminary examination only serve to shortlist the candidates for the final IBPS PO main examination.

Following this preliminary exam, IBPS PO main exam was conducted on October 31st, 2015. The results of the main exam are expected to be declared soon at the official website of IBPS. Thus, students who wish to check their results please be ready with required details and then click on “IBPS PO/MT Results” which will direct you to the respective page showing your results. Candidates please take a print out of this page for future reference.

The examination pattern for IBPS PO 2015 main comprised of 200 objective types of questions based on Reasoning, Quantitative aptitude, and English language, General awareness with special reference to the banking industry and computer knowledge. Candidates will be finally shortlisted on the basis of the performance in preliminary exam, main exam and personal interview.

The official site of IBPS is http://www.ibps.in