JIPMER
JIPMER Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2009 With Answer Key
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2009
Physics
1. In radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted β-particles are
(a) the electrons present inside the nucleus
(b) the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
(c) the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms
(d) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
2. The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young’s double-slit experiment, is
(a) infinite
(b) five
(c) three
(d) zero
3. Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having same radius as that of B but uncharged, is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is
(a) F/4
(b) 3F/4
(c) F/8
(d) 3F/8
4. In gamma ray emission from a nucleus
(a) both the neutron number and the proton number change
(b) there is no change in the proton number and the neutron number
(c) only the neutron number changes
(d) only the proton number changes
5. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates at a later time are (√3, 3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 0°
6. A wheel has angular acceleration of 30 rad/s2 and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/s. In a time of 2 s it has rotated through the angle (in radian) of
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 4
7. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 Ω and its scale is graduated for a current upto 100 A. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents upto 750 A by this meter. The value of shunt resistance is
(a) 20 Ω
(b) 2 Ω
(c) 0.2 Ω
(d) 2 kΩ
8. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed v. The time period of the motion
(a) depends on v and not on R
(b) depends on both R and v
(c) is independent of both R and v
(d) depends on R and not on v
9. The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux ϕ linked with the primary coil is given by ϕ0 + 4t, where ϕ is in weber, t is time in second and ϕ0 is constant, the o utput voltage across the secondary coil is
(a) 90 V
(b) 120 V
(c) 220 V
(d) 30 V
10. The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 104 Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The refractive index of material will be
(a) 1.40
(b) 1.50
(c) 3.00
(d) 1.33
11. A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu and returns to Y with a uniform speed vd. The average speed for this round trip is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
12. A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is
(a) T/4
(b) T/8
(c) T/12
(d) T/2
13. A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity v. If μ is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time
(a) v/gμ
(b) gμ/v
(c) g/v
(d) v/g
14. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those of B will be (1/e)2 after a time interval
(a) 1/4λ
(b) 4λ
(c) 2λ
(d) 1/2λ
15. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately
(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 90%
(d) 10%
16. A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic moment μ is given by
(a) qvR/2
(b) qvR2
(c) qvR2/2
(d) qvR
17. A steady current of 1.5 A flows through a copper voltameter for 10 min. If the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30 × 10−5 gC−1, the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be
(a) 0.40 g
(b) 0.50 g
(c) 0.67 g
(d) 0.27 g
18. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular paths of radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio 
will be proportional to
(a) 1/R
(b) 1/R2
(c) R2
(d) R
19. Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2 Ω and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone’s bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6 Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 3 Ω
(c) 6 Ω
(d) 1 Ω
20. Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2, are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times the mass of S2. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) The time period of S1 is four times that of S2
(b) The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal
(c) S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed
(d) The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal
21. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency?
(a) Zero
(b) 0.5%
(c) 5%
(d) 20%
22. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2 Ω is connected to a source of voltage 2 V. The current reaches half of its steady state value in
(a) 0.05 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 0.15 s
(d) 0.3 s
23. The refractive index of glass is 1.520 for red light and 1.525 for blue light. Let D1 and D2 be angles of minimum deviation for red and blue light respectively in a prism of this glass, then
(a) D1 < D2
(b) D1 = D2
(c) D1 can be less than or greater than D2 depending upon the angle of prism
(d) D1 > D2
24. A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5 m/s. The work done by the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is
(a) −0.5 J
(b) −1.25 J
(c) 1.25 J
(d) 0.5 J
25. A mass of M kg is suspended by a weight less string. The horizontal force that s required to displace it until the string makes an angle of 45° with the initial vertical direction is
(a) Mg(√2 + 1)
(b) Mg√2
(c) Mg/√2
(d) Mg(√2 – 1)
26. A force of 
acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point (1, −1) is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
27. If MO is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8O17, Mp and Mn are the masses of a proton and a neutron, respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the isotope is
(a) (MO – 8Mp) c2
(b) (MO – 8Mp – 9Mn) c2
(c) MOc2
(d) (MO – 17Mn) c2
28. A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20 dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of
(a) 1000
(b) 10000
(c) 10
(d) 100
29. Which of the following parameters does not characterize the thermodynamic state of matter ?
(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Work
(d) Volume
30. A charged oil drop is suspended in uniform m field of 3 × 104 V/m so that it neither falls nor rises. The charge on the drop will be (Take the mass of charge = 9.9 × 10−15 kg and g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 3.3 × 10−18 C
(b) 3.2 × 10−18 C
(c) 1.6 × 10−18 C
(d) 4.8 × 10−18 C
31. Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of time T and of current I, would be
(a) [ML2T−3T−1]
(b) [ML2T−2]
(c) [ML2T−1I−1]
(d) [ML2T−3I−2]
32. An alpha nucleus of energy 
bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to
(a) v2
(b) 1/m
(c) 1/v4
(d) 1/Ze
33. The work of 146 kJ is performed in order to compress on kilo mole of a gas adiabatically and in this process the temperature of the gas increases by 7°C. The gas is
(R = 8.3 J mol−1 K−1)
(a) diatomic
(b) triatomic
(c) a mixture of monoatomic and diatomic
(d) monoatomic
34. Diwali rocket is ejecting 50 g of gases/s at a velocity of 400 m/s. The accelerating force on the rocket will be
(a) 22 dyne
(b) 20 N
(c) 20 dyne
(d) 100 N
35. A frame made of metallic wire enclosing a surface area A is covered with a soap film. If the area of the frame of metallic wire is reduced by 50%, the energy of the soap film will be changed by
(a) 100%
(b) 75%
(c) 50%
(d) 25%
36. Mercury boils at 367°C. However, mercury thermometers are made such that they can measure temperature upto 500°C. This is done by
(a) maintaining vacuum above mercury column in the stem of the thermometer
(b) filling nitrogen gas at high pressure above the mercury column
(c) filling oxygen gas at high pressure above the mercury column
(d) filling nitrogen gas at low pressure above the mercury column
37. In a laboratory four convex lenses L1, L2, L3 and L4 of focal lengths 2, 4, 6 and 8 cm, respectively are available. Two of these lenses form a telescope of length 10 cm and magnifying power 4. The objective and eye lenses are respectively
(a) L2, L3
(b) L1, L4
(c) L1, L2
(d) L4, L1
38. A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane perpendicular to the principal axis. If the power of the original lens is 4D, the power of a cut lens will be
(a) 2D
(b) 3D
(c) 4D
(d) 5D
39. For a metallic wire, the ratio V/i (V = applied potential difference and i = current flowing) is
(a) independent of temperature
(b) increases as the temperature rises
(c) decreases as the temperature rises
(d) increases or decreases as temperature rises depending upon the metal
40. The potential energy of a molecule on the surface of a liquid compared to one inside the liquid is
(a) zero
(b) lesser
(c) equal
(d) greater
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2009
CHEMISTRY
1. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Hydrolysis of NCl3 gives NH3 and HOCl
(b) NH3 is less stable than PH3
(c) NH3 is a weak reducing reagent compared to PH3
(d) Nitric oxide in solid state exhibits diamagnetic property
2. SiO2 is reacted with sodium carbonate. What is the gas liberated?
(a) CO
(b) O2
(c) CO2
(d) O3
3. The compound formed at anode in the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of potassium acetate, are
(a) C2H6 and CO2
(b) C2H4 and CO2
(c) CH4 and H2
(d) CH4 and CO2
4. Which of the following is not correct regarding the elecolytic preparation of H2O2?
(a) Lead is used as cathode
(b) 50% of H2SO4 is used
(c) Hydrogen is liberated at anode
(d) Sulphuric acid undergoes oxidation
5. Which of the following is correct?
(a) The pH of one litre solution containing 0.49 g of H2SO4 is 2.0
(b) The conjugate base of H2S is S2−
(c) BF3 is a Lewis base
(d) Phenolphthalein is colourless in basic medium
6. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Catalyst undergoes permanent chemical change
(b) Particle size of solute in true solution is 10−3 m
(c) Starch solution is a hydrosol
(d) Hydrolysis of liquid ester in the presence of mineral acid is an example of heterogeneous catalysis reactions
7. In an oxidation-reduction reaction, MnO4− ion is converted to Mn2+. What is the number of equivalents of KMnO4 (mol. wt. = 158) present in 250 mL of 0.04 M KMnO4 solution ?
(a) 0.02
(b) 0.05
(c) 0.04
(d) 0.07
8. Which of the following reagents converts both acetaldehyde and acetone to alkanes?
(a) Ni/H2
(b) LiAlH4
(c) I2/NaOH
(d) Zn-Hg/conc. HCl
9. The heat of formation of CO(g) and CO2(g) are ∆H = −110 and ∆H = −393 kJ mol−1 What is the heat of reaction (∆H) (in kJ mol−1) for the following reaction ?
(a) −504
(b) −142.5
(c) −283
(d) 504
10. What is the wavelength (in m) of a particle of mass 6.62 × 10−29 g moving with a velocity o f 103 ms−1 ?
(a) 6.62 × 10−4
(b) 6.62 × 10−3
(c) 10−5
(d) 105
11. What is the electrode potential (in V) of the following electrode at 25°C?
Ni2+ (0.1 M) | Ni(s)
(Standard reaction potential of Ni2+ |Ni is 
(a) −0.28 V
(b) −0.34 V
(c) −0.82 V
(d) −0.22 V
12. What is the equation for the equilibrium constant (Kc) for the following reaction?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
13. Which of the following can give a Grignard reagent when reacted with magnesium in dry ether?
(a) C2H6
(b) C2H5Cl
(c) C2H5OH
(d) C2H5CN
14. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Al reacts with NaOH and liberate H2
(b) AlCl3 is a Lewis acid
(c) Al is used in the manufacture of electrical cables
(d) NaOH is used during Hall’s process of purification of bauxite
15. A 0.5 g/L solution of glucose is found to be isotonic with a 2.5 g/L solution of an organic compound. What will be the molecular weight of that organic compound ?
(a) 300
(b) 600
(c) 900
(d) 200
16. t-butyl chloride preferably undergo hydrolysis by
(a) SN1 mechanism
(b) SN2 mechanism
(c) Any of (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
17. Oxidation state of oxygen in F2O is
(a) +1
(b) −1
(c) +2
(d) −2
18. To dissolve argentite ore which of the following is used?
(a) Na[Ag(CN)2]
(b) NaCN
(c) NaCl
(d) HCl
19. If 50% of a radioactive substance dissociates in 15 min, then the time taken by substance to dissociate 99% will be
(a) 50 min
(b) 100 min
(c) 99 min
(d) 150 min
20. H – O – H bond angle in H2O is 104.5° and not 109° 28’ because of
(a) lone pair-lone pair repulsion
(b) lone pair-bond pair repulsion
(c) bond pair-bond pair repulsion
(d) high electronegativity of oxygen
21. The reaction,
C6H5CHO + CH3COOC2H5 → C6H5CH = CHCOOC2H5, is called
(a) Benzoin condensation
(b) Claisen condensation
(c) Cannizaro’s reaction
(d) Perkin reaction
22. The best method to separate the mixture of ortho and para nitrophenol (1 : 1) is
(a) vaporization
(b) colour spectrum
(c) distillation
(d) crystallization
23. Iodofrom gives a precipitate with AgNO3 on heating but chloroform does not because
(a) C – I bond in iodoform is weak and C – Cl bond in chloroform is strong
(b) chloroform is covalent
(c) iodoform is ionic
(d) None of the above
24. What are the values of n1 and n2 respectively for Hβ line in the Lyman series of hydrogen atomic spectrum 44 ?
(a) 3 and 5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
25. The homologue of ethyne is
(a) C2H2
(b) C2H6
(c) C3H8
(d) C3H4
26. A 0.1 aqueous solution of a weak acid is 2% ionized. If the ionic product of water is 1 × 10−4, the [OH−] is
(a) 5 × 10−12 M
(b) 2 × 10−3 M
(c) 1 × 10−14 M
(d) None of these
27. Which of the following does not have coordinate bond?
(a) SO2
(b) HNO3
(c) H2SO3
(d) HNO2
28. The total number of orbitals in the fifth energy level is
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 18
(d) 25
29. The most probable velocity (in cm/s) of hydrogen molecule at 27°C will be
(a) 19.3 × 104
(b) 17.8 × 104
(c) 24.93 × 109
(d) 17.8× 108
30. In III group precipitation, NH4Cl is added before adding NH4OH to
(a) decrease conc. of OH−
(b) prevent interference of PO43−
(c) increase conc. of Cl−
(d) increase conc. of OH− ion
31. Steel is heated to below red heat and then cooled slowly. The process refers to
(a) hardening
(b) annealing
(c) tempering
(d) nitriding
32. What is the wave number of 4th line in Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum?
(R = 1,09,677 cm−1)
(a) 24, 630 cm−1
(b) 24,360 cm−1
(c) 24,730 cm−1
(d) 24,372 cm−1
33. 2 g N2O4 is heated in a 1 L vessel till equilibrium state is established
N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)
In equilibrium state 50% N2O4 was dissociated, equilibrium constant will be
(mol. wt. of N2O4 = 92)
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.3
(d) 0.2
34. Disperse phase and dispersion medium in butter are respectively
(a) solid and liquid
(b) liquid and solid
(c) liquid and liquid
(d) solid and solid
35. Which of the following carbonates decomposes readily at low temperatures?
(a) Na2CO3
(b) K2CO3
(c) Li2CO3
(d) Rb2CO3
36. The atomic number of an element ‘M’ is 26. How many electrons are present in M-shell of the element in its M3+ state ?
(a) 11
(b) 15
(c) 14
(d) 13
37. In which of the following pairs, both molecules possess dipole moment?
(a) CO2, SO2
(b) BCl3, PCl3
(c) H2O, SO2
(d) CO2, CS2
38. Which one of the following reactions is called Rosenmund reaction?
(a) Aldehydes are reduced to alcohols
(b) Acids are converted to acid chlorides
(c) Alcohols are reduced to hydrocabons
(d) Acid chlorides are reduced to aldehydes
39. During, acetylation of amines, what is replace by acetyle group ?
(a) Hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom
(b) One or more hydrogen atoms attached to carbon atom
(c) One or more hydrogen atoms attached to nitrogen atom
(d) Hydrogen atoms attached to either carbon atom or nitrogen atom
40. Which is used in alcoholic beverages?
(a) Methanol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Phenol
(d) Glycerol
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2009
ZOOLOGY
1. The trisomy for 21st chromosome is called
(a) Down’s syndrome
(b) Turner’s syndrome
(c) Sickle cell anaemia
(d) Klinefelter’s syndrome
2. Which of the following is the largest gland in an adult man ?
(a) Thymus
(b) Liver
(c) Thyroid
(d) Pancreas
3. In Pheretima, septa are absent between which segments?
(a) 3/4 and 9/10
(b) 4/5 and 8/9
(c) 5/6 and 7/8
(d) 7/8 and 6/7
4. During emergency which of the following hormone is secreted?
(a) Aldosterone
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Adrenalin
(d) Calcitonin
5. In cockroach, larval and nymphal characters are maintained by
(a) ecdysone
(b) salivary glands
(c) parotid gland
(d) juvenile hormone
6. Which of the following is a transparent tissue?
(a) Tendon
(b) Fibrous cartilage
(c) Hyaline cartilage
(d) All of these
7. Rh factor is present in
(a) all vertebrates
(b) all mammals
(c) all reptiles
(d) man and rhesus monkey only
8. In rabbit, end of a long bone is connected in another by
(a) tendon
(b) ligaments
(c) muscle
(d) cartilage
9. Which of the following cell type is capable of giving rise to other cell types in sponges ?
(a) Thesocytes
(b) Pinacocytes
(c) Cnidocytes
(d) Archaeocytes
10. Thigmotaxis is not shown by
(a) Paramecium
(b) Amoeba
(c) Ascaris
(d) Hydra
11. Which is correctly matched?
(a) Apiculture – Honey bee
(b) Pisciculture – Silk moth
(c) Sericulture – Fish
(d) Aquaculture – Mosquito
12. Animals having a built in thermostat to maintain constant body temperature are known as
(a) biothermic
(b) poikilothermic
(c) oligothermic
(d) homeothermic
13. The intermediate host of Schistosoma is
(a) snail
(b) mosquito
(c) housefly
(d) sheep
14. The vitamin which is essential for blood clotting is
(a) vitamin-A
(b) vitamin-B
(c) vitamin-C
(d) vitamin-K
15. The female genital pore of Pheretima posthuma located upon the segment
(a) 14th
(b) 16th
(c) 18th
(d) 15th
16. Polyp phase is absent in
(a) Hydra
(b) Aurelia
(c) Physalia
(d) Obelia
17. In frong heart, there are cardiac muscles which consists of fibres called
(a) Purkinje fibres
(b) myonemes
(c) telodendria
(d) columnae carnae
18. Malpighian tubules are
(a) excretory organs of insects
(b) excretory organs of frog
(c) respiratory organs of insects
(d) endocrine glands of insects
19. LH and FSH are collectively called
(a) oxytocin
(b) somatotropins
(c) luteotropic
(d) gonadotropins
20. Which of the following provides most evident proof evolution?
(a) Fossils
(b) Morphology
(c) Embryo
(d) Vestigial organs
21. In Mollusca, eye is present over a stalk, called
(a) ostracum
(b) operculum
(c) ommatophores
(d) osphradium
22. Turbellarians are free living
(a) nematodes
(b) cestodes
(c) flat worms
(d) trematodes
23. The characteristic larva of phylum-‘Coelenterata’ is
(a) planula
(b) cysticercus
(c) rhabdiform
(d) wriggler
24. In rabbit, head of epididymis present at the head of the testis is called
(a) vas deferens
(b) cauda epididymis
(c) gubernaculum
(d) caput epididymis
25. In blood,CO2 in transported majorly as
(a) sodium carbonate
(b) carboxyhaemoglobin
(c) bicarbonate
(d) CO2 as such
26. Animals undergoes inactive stage during winter, is known as
(a) aestivation
(b) hibernation
(c) adaptation
(d) acclimatization
27. Kupffer cells are present in
(a) liver
(b) small intestine
(c) pancreas
(d) thyroid gland
28. The embryo at 16 celled stage is known as
(a) morula
(b) gastrula
(c) blastula
(d) blastomere
29. Contractile vacuole in protozoan Amoeba is meant for
(a) respiration
(b) excretion
(c) locomotion
(d) osmoregulation
30. Which of the following is important for muscle contraction and nerve impulse transmission?
(a) Ca2+ ions
(b) Mg2+ ions
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Fe2+ ions
31. Which one is component of Ornithine cycle?
(a) Ornithine, citrulline and alanine
(b) Ornithine, citruline and arginine
(c) Amino acid are not used
(d) Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid
32. Chromosome complement with 2n – 1 is called
(a) monosomy
(b) nullisomy
(c) trisomy
(d) tetrasomy
33. Which of the following is not vestigial in man?
(a) Tail vertebrae
(b) Nails
(c) Nictitating membrane
(d) Vermiform appendix
34. Small fish get stuck near the bottom of a shark and derives its nutrition from it. This kind of association is called as
(a) antibiosis
(b) commensalism
(c) predation
(d) parasitism
35. The group of Anamniota includes
(a) reptiles and birds
(b) birds and mammals
(c) fishes an amphibians
(d) reptiles and mammals
36. The excretory material of bony fish is
(a) urea
(b) protein
(c) ammonia
(d) amino acid
37. The leucocytes contain which of the following in large quantity?
(a) Basophils
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Eosinophils
(d) Monocytes
38. During inspiration, the diaphragm
(a) expands
(b) shows no change
(c) contracts and flattens
(d) relaxes to become dome-shaped
39. The function of pineal body is to
(a) lighten the skin colours
(b) control sexual behaviour
(c) regulates the period of puberty
(d) All of the above
40. Synsacrum of flowl consists of about
(a) 29 vertebrae
(b) 3 vertebrae
(c) 16 vertebrae
(d) single vertebrae
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2009
BOTANY
1. Jumping genes in maize were discovered by
(a) Hugo de Vries
(b) Barbara McClintock
(c) T H Morgan
(d) Mendel
2. Streptomycin is obtained from
(a) Streptomyces griseus
(b) S. aureofaciens
(c) S. venezuelae
(d) S. ramosus
3. Indusium is found in
(a) algae
(b) ferns
(c) moss
(d) Cycas
4. The vacuole is lined by a membrane called
(a) tonoplast
(b) jacket
(c) cell membrane
(d) tonoplasm
5. Agar-agar is obtained from
(a) Chlorella
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Ulothrix
(d) Gelidium
6. DNA element with ability to change position is called
(a) cistron
(b) transposon
(c) intron
(d) recon
7. Initiation codon is
(a) UUU
(b) UGA
(c) AUG
(d) UAG
8. DNA multiplication is called
(a) translation
(b) replication
(c) transduction
(d) transcription
9. Duramen is present in
(a) inner region of secondary wood
(b) part of sap wood
(c) outer region of secondary wood
(d) region of pericycle
10. In plants, water supply is due to
(a) osmosis
(b) imbibition
(c) guttation
(d) adhesion force
11. Most of the economically important fibre yielding plants belong to family
(a) Malvaceae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Cruciferae
(d) Poaceae
12. Paraffin wax is
(a) ester
(b) acid
(c) monohydric alcohol
(d) cholesterol
13. Which is always present in photochemical smog?
(a) O3
(b) CO2
(c) SO2
(d) CH4
14. In cell cycle, during which phase, chromosomes are arranged in equatorial plate?
(a) Metaphase
(b) Anaphase
(c) Telophase
(d) Prophase
15. The soil which is transported by wind is known as
(a) colluvial
(b) eolian
(c) aluvial
(d) glacial soil
16. Spindle fibre is made up of
(a) tubulin
(b) humulin
(c) intermediate filament
(d) flagellin
17. Lichen is the pioneer vegetation on which succession?
(a) Hydrosere
(b) Lithosere
(c) Psammosere
(d) Xerosere
18. In Pinus, male cone bears a large number of
(a) ligules
(b) anthers
(c) micro-sporophylls
(d) mega-sporophylls
19. Induction of flowering by low temperature treatment is
(a) vernalization
(b) cryobiology
(c) photoperiodism
(d) prunning
20. Decomposers are
(a) autotrophs
(b) autoheterotrophs
(c) organotrophs
(d) heterotrophs
21. Cleavage polyembryony occurs in
(a) Pinus
(b) Mini Cycas
(c) Cycas
(d) Ephedra
22. Edible part of mushroom is
(a) basidiocarp
(b) secondary mycelium
(c) primary mycelium
(d) tertiary mycelium
23. Calyptra is derived from
(a) archegonia
(b) capsule
(c) antheridia
(d) columella
24. ‘Clamp connections’ are observed in
(a) Basidiomycetes
(b) Zygomycetes
(c) Ascomycetes
(d) Oomycetes
25. What is the main cause for the extinction of some species in tropical forest?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Afforestation
(c) Pollution
(d) Soil erosin
26. Most accepted theory for ascent of sap is
(a) capillarity theory
(b) root pressure theory
(c) pulsation theory
(d) transpiration pull
27. Which of the following is not the feature of gymnosperms?
(a) Parallel venation
(b) Perennial plants
(c) Distinct branches (long and short branches)
(d) Xylem with vessels
28. The presence of diversity at the junction of territories of two different habitats is known as
(a) bottle neck effect
(b) edge effect
(c) junction effect
(d) Pasteur effect
29. In which form does the food transported in plants?
(a) Sucrose
(b) Fructose
(c) Glucose
(d) Lactose
30. In Cycas, pollination takes place in
(a) 3 celled stage
(b) 4 celled stage
(c) 2 celled stage
(d) 1 celled stage
31. The bioassay of auxin is
(a) avena curvature test
(b) callus formation
(c) culture of fungus
(d) seed dormancy
32. A eukaryotic gene contains two kinds of base sequences. Which of these plays an important role in protein synthesis?
(a) Introns
(b) Exons
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
33. L-shaped chromosomes are also called
(a) acrocentric
(b) telocentric
(c) sub-metacentric
(d) None of these
34. Which of the following is/are grouped under phanerogams?
(a) Angiosperms
(b) Gymnosperms
(c) Pteridophytes
(d) Both (a) and (b)
35. A bacterium divides after every 35 min., if a culture containing 105 cells per mL is grown, then cell concentration per mL after 175 min. will be
(a) 175 × 105
(b) 125 × 105
(c) 48 × 105
(d) 32 × 105
36. Which of the following theory gives the latest explanation for the closure of stomata?
(a) ABA theory
(b) Munch theory
(c) Starch glucose theory
(d) Active K+ transport theory
37. Biological concept of species is mainly based on
(a) reproductive isolation
(b) morphological features only
(c) methods of reproduction only
(d) morphology and methods of reproduction
38. In the treatment of waste water discharge, which treatment stage involves biological treatment?
(a) Primary treatment
(b) Secondary treatment
(c) Tertiary treatment
(d) Reverse osmosis stage
39. Nucellus forms which of the following part of fruit?
(a) Seed coat
(b) Perisperm
(c) Seed
(d) Raphe
40. If root of a flowering plant has 24 chromosomes, then its gamete has how many chromosomes?
(a) 24
(b) 12
(c) 4
(d) 8
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2009
GENERAL ENGLISH
Directions (Q. 1-5) : In each of the following questions, chose the alternative which best express the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
1. A pipe dream
(a) A pleasant dream
(b) A bad dream
(c) An impracticable plan
(d) A foolish idea
2. To give up the ghost
(a) To die
(b) To make false appearance
(c) To terrify others by acting in suspicious manner
(d) To leave useless pursuits
3. To disabuse one’s mind
(a) To conceal something
(b) To remove a misapprehension
(c) To banish from one’s mind a thought
(d) To proceed cautiously so as to avoid risks and dangers
4. To wrangle over an ass’s shadow
(a) To act in a foolish way
(b) To quarrel over trifles
(c) To waste time fron petty things
(d) To do something funny
5. To be at daggers drawn
(a) To be frightened
(b) To be ready to face danger
(c) To threaten one
(d) To be bitter enemy
Directions (Q. 6-10) : Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank
6. According to corporate circles, Datta is pushing through the merger to create a financially ________ company in the processed foods business, the group’s thrust area for the 1990s.
(a) straight
(b) powerful
(c) leading
(d) acceptable
7. A man who is well-bred and honourable in-variably shows ____ for the feelings of other people.
(a) complacence
(b) concern
(c) consideration
(d) contempt
8. You will have to face some practical problems when you start _____ this plan.
(a) prosecuting
(b) projecting
(c) prescribing
(d) proscribing
9. Speeding and blocking are traffic offences which lead to _____ accidents.
(a) winsome
(b) urban
(c) gruesome
(d) minor
10. The more your action and thought are allied and ______, the happier you grow.
(a) invincible
(b) divergent
(c) integrated
(d) unravelled
Directions (Q. 11-15) : In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.
11. Around the world, painful terminal diseases/(P), the question of human death/(Q), people are wrestling with /(R), especially in the face of/(S)
(a) R S Q P
(b) P Q R S
(c) R Q S P
(d) P S Q R
12. The specific, ability requirements of the job/(P), depend on the /(Q), required for adequate job performance/(R), intellectual or physical abilities/(S)
(a) P Q R S
(b) S R Q P
(c) P R Q S
(d) S Q R P
13. Freedom is the restricted kind in the sense/(P) , the rich and poor woman/(Q), that a wide gulf separates /(R), which a modern woman enjoys/(S)
(a) P S R Q
(b) S R Q P
(c) R Q P S
(d) S P R Q
14. In life, some rules are /(P), as in business / (Q), they seem almost instinctive / (R), learnt so early that/ (S)
(a) R S P Q
(b) Q P S R
(c) R P S Q
(d) Q S P R
15. Kapil, left in an aeroplane/ (P), after reading a sailing magazine/ (Q), had decided / (R), to build his own boat nine years earlier/ (S)
(a) P R Q S
(b) R S Q P
(c) R Q P S
(d) P S R Q
Directions (Q. 16-20) : In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is italicized. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the italicized part are given. Choose the one which improves the italicized part. If none of the substitutions improves the italicized part, your answer is (d).
16. I would gladly accompany your sister if you had asked me.
(a) would have gladly accompanied
(b) was to have gladly accompanied
(c) will gladly accompany
(d) No improvement
17. The indecisive man was readily persuaded to change his mind again.
(a) was persuaded ready
(b) was ready to persuade
(c) was ready persuaded
(d) No improvement
18. He enjoys to tell stories to children.
(a) how to tell stories
(b) telling stories
(c) to narrate stories
(d) No improvement
19. It is unreasonable to distort the statement of a man simply because he does not agree with your opinions.
(a) discourage
(b) denounce
(c) bend
(d) No improvement
20. Would you find me absent, please don’t forget to leave a message behind.
(a) As
(b) Should
(c) Unless
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q. 21-25) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in italics in the sentence.
21. The rancous shouts of the audience forced the management to call off the show.
(a) unpleasant
(b) loud
(c) harsh
(d) harmful
22. At the Hardy house there was great consternation when Aunt Gertrude saw Joe helping Frank up the stairs.
(a) surprise
(b) panic
(c) gaity
(d) anxiety
23. Methods of spreading the family planning message have been as fecund as they have been abortive.
(a) fruitful
(b) failing
(c) peculiar
(d) false
24. Now the fury of the demonstrators turned against the machines.
(a) asperity
(b) passion
(c) rage
(d) acrimony
25. Everyone who has worked for him hammers home that point because they feel that it is widely unappreciated.
(a) hints
(b) stresses
(c) strikes
(d) directs
Directions (Q. 26-30) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in italics in the sentence.
26. Here debonair manners were noticed by everyone present in the city.
(a) stiff
(b) cheerless
(c) courteous
(d) pleasant
27. Like poverty, affluence can sometimes create its own problems.
(a) sorrow
(b) indigence
(c) exuberance
(d) opulence
28. It is surprising to find her condoning such an act.
(a) disparaging
(b) condemning
(c) disliking
(d) forbidding
29. He proved utterly capricious in his dealings with his friends.
(a) helpful
(b) steadfast
(c) understanding
(d) obstinate
30. As long as he remained in that office, he maintained his
(a) predominance
(b) poverty
(c) subordination
(d) chaos
Directions (Q. 31-35) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
31. Medical study of the skin and its diseases
(a) Dermatology
(b) Orthopaedics
(c) Venereology
(d) Homeopathy
32. Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence
(a) Formalism
(b) Statesmanship
(c) Protocol
(d) Hierachy
33. The branch of medical science which deals with the problems of the old
(a) Oncology
(b) Geriatric
(c) Obsertics
(d) Endocrinol
34. One who promotes the idea of absence of government of any kind, when every man should be a law unto himself
(a) Anarchist
(b) Belligerent
(c) Iconoclast
(d) Agnostic
35. Design made by putting together coloured pieces of glass of stones
(a) Oleograph
(b) Mosaic
(c) Tracery
(d) Relief
Directions (Q. 36-40) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Most of us use the products of science-railways, aeroplanes, electricity, wireless and thousands of others-without thinking how they came into existence. We taken them for granted, as if we were entitled to them as a matter of right. And we are very proud of the fact that we live in an advanced age and are ourselves so very ‘advanced’. Now, there is no doubt that our age is a very different one from previous ages and I think it is perfectly correct to say that it is far more advanced. But that is a different thing from saying that we as individuals or groups are more advanced. It would be the height of absurdity to say that because an engine-driver can run an engine and Plato or Socrates could not, the engine-driver is more advanced than, or is superior to Plato or Socrates. But it would be perfectly correct to say that the engine itself is a more advanced method of locomotion than Plato’s chariot was.
36. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) An engine-driver is cleverer than Plato or Socrates.
(b) Plato or Socrates is in way inferior to the engine-driver.
(c) Plato and Socrates surpassed the engine-driver in every respect.
(d) The engine-driver cannot be compared to Plato or Aristotle.
37. In this passage the author mentions Plato and/or Socrates to emphasise that
(a) they are/were men of great scholarship.
(b) people as individuals in the modern age are not more advanced than their predecessors.
(c) the engine is a better mode of locomotion than Plato’s chariot.
(d) Plato and Aristotle had greater respect for learning
38. According to the author, the present age is far more advanced than
(a) all the previous ages in some respect.
(b) the age of Socrates and Aristotle in some respects.
(c) some of the previous ages in all respects.
(d) all the previous ages in all respects.
39. Many of us make use of machines
(a) with very little knowledge of their mechanism
(b) without any knowledge of their historical significance.
(c) with full knowing of their genesis.
(d) without knowing how they were invented.
40. People today are very proud because they live
(a) in a philosophically advanced age.
(b) in a materially advanced age.
(c) in a scientifically advanced age.
(d) in a spiritually advanced age.
JIPMER Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2008 With Answer Key
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008
PHYSICS
1. For inelastic collision between two spherical rigid bodies
(a) the total kinetic energy is conserved
(b) the total mechanical energy is not conserved
(c) the linear momentum is not conserved
(d) the linear momentum is conserved
2. We consider a thermodynamic system. If ∆U represents the increase in its internal energy and W the work done by the system, which of the following statements is true ?
(a) ∆U = −W in an adiabatic process
(b) ∆U = W in an isothermal process
(c) ∆U = −W in an isothermal process
(d) ∆U = W in an adiabatic process
3. Aerofils are so designed that the speed of air
(a) on top side is more than on lower side
(b) on top side is less than on lower side
(c) is same on both sides
(d) is turbulent
4. The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What will be the time (in seconds) of reverberation of a room, having all the dimensions double of those of room A ?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1/2
(d) 1
5. In refraction, light waves are bent on passing from one medium to the second medium, because, in the second medium
(a) the frequency is different
(b) the coefficient of elasticity is different
(c) the speed is different
(d) the amplitude is smaller
6. Which of the following circular rods, (given radius r and length l) each made of the same material and whose ends are maintained at the same temperature will conduct most heat?
(a) r = 2r0; l = 2l0
(b) r = 2r0; l = l0
(c) r = r0; l = l0
(d) r = r0; l = 2l0
7. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is
(a) 2
(b) 1/2
(c) 1/√2
(d) √2
8. 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined plane of height 10 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, work done against friction is
(a) 200 J
(b) 100 J
(c) zero
(d) 1000 J
9. Interference was observed in an interference chamber when air was present. Now, the chamber is evacuated and if the same light is used, a careful observation will show
(a) no interference
(b) interference with bright band
(c) interference with dark bands
(d) interference in which breadth of the fringe will be slightly increased
10. When a charged particle moving with velocity 
is subjected to a magnetic field of induction 
the force on it is non-zero. This implies that
(a) angle between 
is necessarily 90°
(b) angle between can have any value other than 90°
(c) angle between can have any value other than zero and 180°
(d) angle between is either zero or 180°
11. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in second) the distance x (in metre) of the particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3
How long would the particle travel before coming to rest?
(a) 24 m
(b) 40 m
(c) 56 m
(d) 16 m
12. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) Both light and sound waves in air are transverse
(b) The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse
(c) Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal
(d) Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum
13. When power is drawn from the secondary coil of the transformer, the dynamic resistance
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unchanged
(d) changes erratically
14. Pressure of an ideal gas is increased by keeping temperature constant. What is the effect on kinetic energy of molecules?
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) No change
(d) Can’t be determined
15. What maximum frequency can be reflected from ionosphere?
(a) 5 MHz
(b) 6 GHz
(c) 5 kHz
(d) 500 MHz
16. A telescope has focal length of objective and eye-piece as 200 cm and 5 cm respectively. What is magnification of telescope?
(a) 40
(b) 80
(c) 50
(d) 0.01
17. A small disc of radius 2 cm is cut from a disc of radius 6 cm. If the distance between their centres is 3.2 cm, what is the shift in the centre of mass of the disc?
(a) 0.4 cm
(b) 2.4 cm
(c) 1.8 cm
(d) 1.2 cm
18. Hydrogen bomb is based upon
(a) fission
(b) fusion
(c) chemical reaction
(d) transmutation
19. What is not true for equipotential surface for uniform electric field?
(a) Equipotential surface is flat
(b) Equipotential surface is spherical
(c) Electric lines are perpendicular to equipotential surface
(d) Work done is zero
20. A closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is sounded with tuning fork in resonance. What is the frequency of tuning fork? (v = 332 m/s)
(a) 300 Hz
(b) 350 Hz
(c) 375 Hz
(d) 415 Hz
21. The displacement of particle is given by
What is its acceleration?
(a) 2a2/3
(b) −2a2/3
(c) a2
(d) Zero
22. The area of the acceleration-displacement curve of a body gives
(a) impulse
(b) change in momentum per unit mass
(c) change in KE per unit mass
(d) total change in energy
23. The speed of earth’s rotation about its axis is ω. Its speed is increased to x times to make the effective acceleration due to gravity equal to zero at the equator. Then x is
(a) 1
(b) 8.5
(c) 17
(d) 34
24. Hard X-rays for the study of fractures in bones should have a minimum wavelength of 10−11 The accelerating voltage for electrons in X-ray machine should be
(a) < 124 kV
(b) > 124 kV
(c) between 60 kV and 70 kV
(d) = 100 kV
25. In photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from metals if the incident light has a certain minimum
(a) wavelength
(b) frequency
(c) amplitude
(d) angle of incidence
26. A capacitor having capacitance 1 μF with air, is filled with two dielectrics as shown. How m any times capacitance will increase?
(a) 12
(b) 6
(c) 8/3
(d) 3
27. A leaf which contains only green pigments, is illuminated by a laser light of wavelength 0.6328 μm. It would appear to be
(a) brown
(b) black
(c) red
(d) green
28. The operation of a nuclear reactor is said to be critical, if the multiplication factor (k) has a value
(a) 1
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.1
(d) 2.5
29. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 Ω is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 Ω. If the total currents is 1 A, the part of it passing through the shunt will be
(a) 0.25 A
(b) 0.8 A
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 0.5 A
30. Flash light equipped with a new set of batteries, produces bright white light. As the batteries wear out
(a) the light intensity gets reduced with no change in its colour
(b) light colour changes first to yellow and then red with no change in intensity
(c) it stops working suddenly while giving white light
(d) colour changes to red and also intensity gets reduced
31. If alpha, beta and gamma rays carry same momentum, which has the longest wavelength?
(a) Alpha rays
(b) Beta rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) None, all have same wavelength
32. When you make ice cubes, the entropy of water
(a) does not change
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) may either increase or decrease depending on the process used
33. Half-lives of two radioactive substances A and B are respectively 20 min and 40 min. Initially the samples of A and B have equal number of nuclei. After 80 min the ratio of remaining number of A and B nuclei is
(a) 1 : 16
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 1
34. Given that 
where y and x are measured in metre. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) The unit of λ is same as that of x and A
(b) The unit of λ is same as that of x but not of A
(c) The unit of c is same as that of 2π/λ
(d) The unit(ct – x) is same as that of 2π/λ
35. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction with a velocity of 147 ms−1. Then the time after which its inclination with the horizontal is 45°, is
(a) 15 s
(b) 10.98 s
(c) 5.49 s
(d) 2.745 s
36. A motor cycle is going on an overbridge of radius R. The driver maintains a constant speed. As the motor cycle is ascending on the overbridge, the normal force on it
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) fluctuates erratically
37. If we throw a body upwards with velocity of 4 m/s, at what height does its kinetic energy reduce to half of the initial value?
(Take g = 10 ms−2)
(a) 4 m
(b) 2 m
(c) 1 m
(d) 0.4 m
38. Two glass plates are separated by water. If surface tension of water is 75 dyne/cm and area of each plate wetted by water is 8 cm2 and the distance between the plates is 0.12 mm, then the force applied to separated the two plates is
(a) 102 dyne
(b) 104 dyne
(c) 105 dyne
(d) 106 dyne
39. Which of the following is true for rays coming from infinity?
(a) Two images are formed
(b) Continuous image is formed between focal points of upper and lower lens
(c) One image is formed
(d) None of the above
40. The north pole of a long horizontal bar magnet is being brought closer to a vertical conducting plane along the perpendicular direction. The direction of the induced current in the conducting plane will be
(a) horizontal
(b) vertical
(c) clockwise
(d) anticlockwise
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008
Chemistry
1. Plaster of paris is
(a) 
(b) CaSO4 ∙ 2H2O
(c) CaSO4 ∙ H2O
(d) CaSO4 ∙ 4H2O
2. The most stable compound is
(a) LiF
(b) LiCl
(c) LiBr
(d) LiI
3. Heavy water is
(a) CaSO4
(b) water contain CaSO4, MgSO4
(c) D2O
(d) water contain CaCO3
4. When copper reacts with hot and conc.H2SO4, gives
(a) H2
(b) N2
(c) O2
(d) SO2
5. BaO2 and ozone react to produce
(a) Ba
(b) Ba2O3
(c) BaO
(d) Ba(OH)3
6. Heisenberg uncertainty principle can be explained as
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
7. A gas mixture contains O2 and N2 in the ratio of 1 : 4by weight. The ratio of their number of molecules is
(a) 1 : 8
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 3 : 16
(d) 7 : 32
8. Bleaching powder is obtained by treating Cl2 with
(a) Ca(OH)2
(b) CaO
(c) CaCO3
(d) CaCl2
9. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass 1 kg and velocity 100 m/s is
(a) 6.6 × 10−33 m
(b) 6.6 × 10−36 m
(c) 3.3 × 10+33 m
(d) 3.3 × 10−36 m
10. The volume of a gas measured at 27°C and 1 atm pressure is 10 L. To reduce the volume to 2 L at 1 atm pressure, the temperature required is
(a) 60 K
(b) 75 K
(c) 150 K
(d) 225 K
11. The number of moles of oxygen obtained by the electrolytic decomposition of 108 g water is
(a) 2.5
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7.5
12. The change in entropy for the fusion of 1 mole of ice [mp of ice = 273 K, molar enthalpy of fusion for ice = 6.0 kJ mol−1]
(a) 11.73 JK−1 mol−1
(b) 18.84 JK−1 mol−1
(c) 21.97 JK−1 mol−1
(d) 24.47 JK−1 mol−1
13. Which does not give a precipitate with AgNO3 solution ?
(a) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(b) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(c) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(d) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
14. Total volume of atoms present in a face centred cubic unit cell of a metal is (r is atomic radius)
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
15. Pure silicon doped with phosphorus is a metallic conductor
(a) metallic conductor
(b) insulator
(c) n-type semiconductor
(d) p-type semiconductor
16. Neutron is discovered by
(a) Chadwick
(b) Rutherford
(c) Yukawa
(d) Dalton
17. What is X in the following nuclear reaction?
7N14 + 1H1 → 8O15 + X
(a) 0n1
(b) −1e0
(c) +1e0
(d) γ
18. Solubility product PbCl2 at 298 K is 1 × 10−6. At this temperature solubility of PbCl2 in mol/L is
(a) (1 × 10−6)1/2
(b) (1 × 10−6)1/3
(c) (0.25 × 10−6)1/3
(d) (2.5 × 10−6)1/2
19. The pH of a 0.001 M solution of HCl is
(a) 0
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 10
20. Gold number is associated with
(a) amount of gold
(b) protective colloids
(c) purple cassius
(d) electrophoresis
21. Noble gases are used in discharge tubes to give different colours. Reddish-orange glow is due to
(a) Ar
(b) Ne
(c) Xe
(d) Kr
22. The set representing the correct order for first ionization potential is
(a) K > Na > Li
(b) Be > Mg > Ca
(c) B > C > N
(d) Ge > Si > C
23. Dry ice is
(a) solid CO2
(b) solid camphor
(c) solid SO2
(d) solid NO2
24. Methanol and ethanol are miscible in water due to
(a) covalent character
(b) hydrogen bonding character
(c) oxygen bonding character
(d) None of the above
25. Stereoisomers differ in
(a) configuration
(b) conformation
(c) they do not differ
(d) None of the above
26. IUPAC name of the following compound
(a) N, N-dimethylcyclopropane caboxamide
(b) N-methylcyclopropanamide
(c) cyclopropionamide
(d) None of the above
27. The product of the following reaction is
2CH3MgBr + CH2O →
(a) CH3OH
(b) C2H5OH
(c) CH4
(d) C2H6
28. Freon used as refrigerant is
(a) CF2 = CF2
(b) CH2F2
(c) CH4
(d) C2H6
29. Lucas reagent is
(a) anhy. ZnCl2 and NH3
(b) anhy. ZnCl2 and CaCl2
(c) anhy. ZnCl2 and conc. HCl
(d) anhy. ZnCl2 and HCl gas
30. The enzyme which can catalyze the conversion of glucose to ethanol is
(a) zymase
(b) invertase
(c) maltase
(d) diastase
31. When dihydroxy acetone reacts with HIO4, the product is/are
(a) HCHO
(b) HCOOH
(c) HCHO and HCOOH
(d) HCHO and CO2
32. Which of the following does not reduce Fehling’s solution?
(a) Benzaldehyde
(b) Formic acid
(c) Glucose
(d) Fructose
33. Sodium formate on heating gives
(a) oxalic acid and H2
(b) sodium oxalate and H2
(c) sodium oxalate
(d) CO2 and caustic soda
34. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MgI followed by hydrolysis gives
(a) n-propyl alcohol
(b) isopropyl alcohol
(c) acetaldehyde
(d) acetone
35. Hydrolysis of phenyl isocyanide forms
(a) benzoic acid
(b) formic acid
(c) acetic acid
(d) None of these
36. Styrene can be purified by
(a) simple distillation
(b) fractional distillation
(c) steam distillation
(d) vacuum distillation
37. Which of the following is not reducing sugar?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Lactose
(d) Sucrose
38. The monomer of Teflon is
(a) CHF = CH2
(b) CF2 = CF2
(c) CHCl = CHCl
(d) CHF = CHCl
39. The hybridization state of carbon in fullerene is
(a) sp
(b) sp2
(c) sp3
(d) sp3d
40. A fruity smell is produced by the reaction of C2H5OH with
(a) CH3COCH3
(b) CH3COOH
(c) PCl5
(d) CH3CHO
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008
Zoology
1. Moulting hormone is secreted by
(a) corpora cardiacum
(b) corpora allata
(c) neurosecretory hormone
(d) prothoracic gland
2. Movements by pseudopodia of Amoeba are due to change in
(a) Pressure
(b) atmosphere
(c) temperature
(d) viscosity
3. From outer to inside the sequence of three bones present in the middle ear of mammals is
(a) malleus, stapes and incus
(b) stapes, malleus and incus
(c) malleus, incus and stapes
(d) incus, malleus and stapes
4. The reabsorption of water in the kidney is under the control of
(a) LH
(b) ADH
(c) STH
(d) ACTH
5. Yersinia pestis is responsible for
(a) syphilis
(b) whooping cough
(c) plague
(d) leprosy
6. Protein present in silk fibre is
(a) casein
(b) keratin
(c) elastin
(d) fibroin
7. Ovulation takes place in a month between
(a) 11-14 day
(b) 14-16 day
(c) 15-28 day
(d) 21-26 day
8. In sea anemone, the symmetry is
(a) radial
(b) bilateral
(c) spherical
(d) absent
9. Compound squamous epithelium is found in
(a) stomach
(b) intestine
(c) trachea
(d) pharynx
10. Solenocytes are associated with
(a) respiration
(b) digestion
(c) excretion
(d) nutrition
11. The cavity of diencephalon is known as
(a) I ventricle
(b) II ventricle
(c) III ventricle
(d) iter
12. Which vitamin should not be stored?
(a) Calciferol
(b) Retinol
(c) Niacin
(d) Ascorbic acid
13. Connecting link between annelids and molluscs is
(a) Neophilina
(b) Peripatus
(c) Periplaneta
(d) Limulus
14. Shell of mollusks is derived from
(a) foot
(b) mantle
(c) ctenidia
(d) placoid
15. Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in
(a) house lizard
(b) flying fish
(c) pigeon
(d) tadpole of frog
16. A man of ‘A’ blood group marries a woman of ‘AB’ blood group. Which type of progeny would indicate that man is heterozygous?
(a) O
(b) B
(c) A
(d) AB
17. Balbiani rings are the structural features of
(a) allosomes
(b) polytene chromosomes
(c) autosomes
(d) Lampbrush chromosomes
18. Presence of tail in a child is an example of
(a) atavism
(b) divergent evolution
(c) convergent evolution
(d) mutation
19. Action potential is generated by
(a) Na+
(b) K+
(c) Ca+
(d) Cl−
20. Aqueous and vitreous humour are divided by
(a) lens
(b) iris
(c) retina
(d) optic nerve
21. Indian rhinoceros are protected in
(a) Gir Forest
(b) Kaziranga National Park
(c) Bandipur National Park
(d) Ranthambore National Park
22. Mitotic spindle have main protein
(a) tubulin
(b) myosin
(c) tropomyocin
(d) dynein
23. Accessory sexual character in female is promoted by
(a) androgen
(b) progesterone
(c) estrogen
(d) testosterone
24. X-linked recessive gene is
(a) always expressed in male
(b) always expressed in female
(c) lethal
(d) sub lethal
25. Ligament is mainly made up of
(a) reticulin
(b) elastin
(c) myosin
(d) collagen
26. Secretion of pancreatic juice is stimulated by
(a) gastrin
(b) secretin
(c) enterogasteron
(d) enterokinase
27. Crossing over occurs in
(a) zygotene
(b) leptotene
(c) pachytene
(d) diplotene
28. Mesozoic era is Golden period of
(a) reptiles
(b) Mollusca
(c) fishes
(d) amphibians
29. Hamburger shift is also known as
(a) bicarbonate shift
(b) chloride shift
(c) potassium shift
(d) All of the above
30. “Bundle of His” are
(a) nervous tissue supplied to ventricles
(b) nervous tissue supplied to heart
(c) muscular tissue supplied to ventricle
(d) muscular tissue supplied to heart
31. Cell theory was proposed by
(a) Virchow
(b) Schleiden and Schwann
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) B McClintock
32. Who for the first time developed electron microscope?
(a) Knoll and Ruska
(b) Rudolf and Kolliker
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Swanson
33. Repressor protein is produced by
(a) regulator gene
(b) operator gene
(c) structural gene
(d) promoter gene
34. Autonomic nervous system affects
(a) reflex actions
(b) sensory organs
(c) internal organ
(d) None of these
35. Schizogony occurs in
(a) RBC of human
(b) intestine of parasite
(c) liver of human
(d) liver of parasite
36. Gases found in primitive atmosphere are
(a) CH4, NH3, H2, H2O (vapour form)
(b) CH4, NH3, CO2, H2O
(c) CH4, H2O, CO2
(d) CH4, O2, CO2
37. Sertoli cells are found in testis. These cells are
(a) nurse cell
(b) reproductive cell
(c) receptor cell
(d) None of the above
38. After a deep inspiration and maximum expiration, the capacity of lungs is known as
(a) vital capacity
(b) tidal volume
(c) IRV
(d) ERV
39. Which one is the sweetest sugar ?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Maltose
40. Species can be identified on the basis of
(a) interbreed
(b) species diversity
(c) reproductive isolation
(d) None of the above
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008
Botany
1. In Whittaker’s system of classification, prokaryotes belong to the kingdom
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Animalia
(d) Fungi
2. Water bloom is generally caused by
(a) green algae
(b) blue-green algae
(c) bacteria
(d) Hydrilla
3. Which one of the following is a saprophytic bryophyte?
(a) Riccia fluitans
(b) Buxbaumia aphylla
(c) Funaria hygrometrica
(d) Sphagnum
4. A genophore is made up of
(a) a single double stranded DNA
(b) a single stranded DNA
(c) RNA and histones
(d) histones and non-histones
5. Iodine is obtained from
(a) Laminaria
(b) Chlorella
(c) Polysiphonia
(d) Porphyra
6. Covered smut of barley is caused by
(a) Ustilago hordei
(b) Tilletia caries
(c) Ustilago nuda
(d) Colletotrichum falcatum
7. Root hair absorbs water from soil through
(a) turgor pressure
(b) ion exchange
(c) osmosis
(d) DPD
8. In CAM plants, CO2 acceptor is
(a) RuBP
(b) PEP
(c) OAA
(d) PGA
9. Which one of the following is a natural growth inhibitor?
(a) NAA
(b) ABA
(c) IAA
(d) GA
10. Apical dominance is caused by
(a) auxin
(b) gibberellin
(c) kinetin
(d) ABA
11. Growth of pollen tube towards emryo sac is
(a) geotropism
(b) thigmotaxis
(c) chemotaxis
(d) All of these
12. Ozone depletion in stratosphere would result in
(a) forest fires
(b) global warming
(c) skin cancer incidence
(d) None of the above
13. Which of the following is a test cross ?
(a) Tt × tt
(b) TT × tt
(c) Tt × Tt
(d) tt × tt
14. 1 : 2 : 1 phenotypic and genotypic ratio is found in
(a) complementary genes
(b) blending inheritance
(c) multiple alleles
(d) pseudo alleles
15. The back bone of RNA consists of which of the following sugar?
(a) Deoxyribose
(b) Ribose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Maltose
16. Stop codons are
(a) AUG, GUG
(b) UAA, UGA, UAG
(c) UAC, UGG
(d) AGU, AGA, UAC
17. A lake with nutrients is called
(a) trophic
(b) euphotic
(c) oligotrophic
(d) eutrophic
18. Which of the following is not caused by deficiency of mineral?
(a) Chlorosis
(b) Etiolation
(c) Shortening of internodes
(d) Necrosis
19. Retrovirus have genetic material
(a) DNA only
(b) RNA only
(c) DNA or RNA only
(d) either DNA or RNA only
20. DCMU
(a) inhibits PS-I
(b) inhibits PS-II
(c) destroy chloroplast
(d) inhibits oxidative phosphorylation
21. According to Kyoto protocol the major nations abide to reduce concentration of green house gases by
(a) 2008
(b) 2010
(c) 2012
(d) 2018
22. Ginger is an underground stem. It is distinguished from root because
(a) it lacks chlorophyll
(b) it stores food
(c) it has nodes and internodes
(d) it has xylem and vessels
23. During DNA replication in prokaryotes DNA is anchored to
(a) chromosome
(b) mesosome
(c) nucleolus
(d) ribosome
24. The mineral present in cell wall is
(a) Na
(b) Ca
(c) K
(d) Mg
25. Male gamete in angiosperm is produced by
(a) generative cell
(b) microspore cell
(c) vegetative cell
(d) tube cell
26. Meristematic tissue in vascular bundle is
(a) phellem
(b) procambium
(c) interfascicular cambium
(d) fascicular cambium
27. Study of Ecology of population is called
(a) Autecology
(b) Synecology
(c) Ecotype
(d) Demecology
28. Which of the following plant is LDP?
(a) Xanthium
(b) Soybean
(c) Wheat
(d) Tobacco
29. Which of the following is used as a best genetic vector in plants?
(a) Bacillus thurengiensis
(b) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(c) Pseudomonas putida
(d) All of the above
30. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis of Beadle and Tatum was experimentally proved on
(a) Saccharomyces
(b) Neurospora crassa
(c) Lathyrus odoratus
(d) Claviceps
31. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
(a) Thymine
(b) Uracil
(c) Guanine
(d) Cytosine
32. Which organelle is present in higher number in secretory cells?
(a) Dictyosome
(b) ER
(c) Lysosome
(d) Vacuole
33. Bio-indicators are used for
(a) oxygen demand
(b) air pollution
(c) mineral present
(d) All of the above
34. What happened when we inoculated Rhizobium in wheat field?
(a) No increase in production (nitrogen content of soil remains same)
(b) A lot of increase in production (nitrogen content of soil increases)
(c) Fertility of soil decreases
(d) Fertility of soil increases
35. Nitrifying bacteria are able to
(a) convert atmospheric nitrogen into soluble forms
(b) convert ammonia to nitrate
(c) ammonia to nitrogen
(d) nitrate to nitrogen
36. RNA is not found in
(a) chromosome
(b) plasmalemma
(c) nucleolus
(d) ribosome
37. Systema Naturae was written by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Aristotle
(c) Hippocrates
(d) Darwin
38. Number of chromosomes in an angiospermic plant is 14, then the number of chromosomes in synergid cells will be
(a) 14
(b) 7
(c) 28
(d) 21
39. Phytochrome is present in
(a) vascular cryptogam
(b) prokaryotes
(c) flowering plants
(d) algae
40. Vessels and companion cells are found in
(a) angiosperm
(b) pteridophytes
(c) bryophytes
(d) thallophytes
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008
General English
Directions (Q. 1-5) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
1. To throw dust in one’s eyes
(a) To show false things
(b) To make blind
(c) To harm someone
(d) To deceive
2. To be rolling in money
(a) Wasting a lot of money
(b) Very rich
(c) Borrowing money liberally
(d) Spending more than his income
3. To get into hot waters
(a) To be impatient
(b) To suffer a huge financial loss
(c) To get into trouble
(d) To be in a confused state of mind
4. To save one’s face
(a) To hide oneself
(b) To oppose
(c) To evade disgrace
(d) To say plainly
5. To wash one’s dirty linen in public
(a) To criticize one’s nature in public
(b) To quarrel in the open
(c) To do some ugly work in public
(d) To discuss dirty and scandalous matters of personal nature in the presence of strangers
Directions (Q. 6-10) : Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.
6. There was so much ………. material in the speech that it was difficult to know what the speaker wanted to say.
(a) banal
(b) extraneous
(c) superficial
(d) variegated
7. Our flight was ……….. from Jaipur to Agra airport.
(a) deflected
(b) shifted
(c) diverted
(d) reverted
8. His ……….. handling resulted in all that destruction and damage.
(a) inept
(b) skilful
(c) sophisticated
(d) uncouth
9. Rabindranath Tagore was a ……… writer of his times.
(a) true
(b) fantastic
(c) profound
(d) prolific
10. The manager tried hard to ………….. his men to return to work before declaring a lockout.
(a) motivate
(b) persuade
(c) encourage
(d) permit
Directions (Q. 11-15) : In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.
11. Little
(P) that he had been let down
(Q) stood by all these years
(R) did he realize
(S) by a colleague whom he had
(a) QSPR
(b) QPSR
(c) RPSQ
(d) RSQP
12. It has been established that
(P) Einstein was
(Q) although a great scientist
(R) Weak in arithmetic
(S) right from his school days
(a) QPRS
(b) QPSR
(c) RQPS
(d) SRPQ
13. The statement
(P) therefore you must listen carefully
(Q) what the speaker has said
(R) in order to understand
(S) will be made just once
(a) RSPQ
(b) SPQR
(c) SPRQ
(d) SRQP
14. Towards midnight
(P) so that the sky was lighted with
(Q) and the clouds drifted away
(R) the rain ceased
(S) the incredible lamp of stars
(a) RPQS
(b) RQPS
(c) SPQR
(d) SQPR
15. Without books
(P) no cultured society is possible
(Q) no fresh ideas are possible
(R) and
(S) without fresh ideas
(a) PRSQ
(b) QRSP
(c) RSPQ
(d) RSQP
Directions (Q. 16-20) : In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is italicized. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the italicized part are given. Choose the one which improves the italicized part. If none of the substitutions improves the italicized part, your answer is (d)
16. Tell your leader that I grant him permission of stay in my kingdom.
(a) for stay
(b) about staying
(c) to stay
(d) No improvement
17. I was delighted to see him fully recover.
(a) he full recovered
(b) him fully recovered
(c) his fully recovery
(d) No improvement
18. While we would like that all Indian children to go to school, we need to ponder why they do not.
(a) all Indian children
(b) that all the Indian children
(c) if all the children of India
(d) No improvement
19. Scarcely had he left when his friend came.
(a) He had scarcely left
(b) He had left scarcely
(c) He scarcely had left
(d) No improvement
20. Dewan has driven almost thrice so far as Mr. Gupta has.
(a) as far
(b) as far as
(c) as much as
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q. 21-25) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in italics in the sentence.
21. The prisoner has been languishing in the jail for the last many years.
(a) enjoying
(b) avoiding
(c) suffering
(d) convicted
22. Some people adopt excellent manners only to camouflage their real character.
(a) project
(b) hide
(c) misrepresent
(d) reveal
23. The venerated the old teacher.
(a) humiliated
(b) teased
(c) respected
(d) let go
24. Nobody has yet seen the peregrination of heavenly beings on earth.
(a) visit
(b) arrival
(c) travelling
(d) casting glance on
25. He did not make any attempt to placate
(a) please
(b) pacify
(c) serve
(d) satisfy
Directions (Q. 26-30) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in italics in the sentence.
26. My uncle is very wealthy, but rather parsimonious in his habits.
(a) extravagant
(b) generous
(c) careless
(d) strict
27. I am somewhat skeptical about his claim.
(a) optimistic
(b) convinced
(c) credulous
(d) hopeful
28. His writings have been much eulogised by Indian scholars.
(a) condemned
(b) flouted
(c) disapproved
(d) disparaged
29. The boy was accused of theft.
(a) liberated
(b) impeached
(c) exonerated
(d) sentenced
30. This is not ideology but pragmatic language teaching.
(a) impractical
(b) improper
(c) imperfect
(d) impossible
Directions (Q. 31-35) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
31. A man who is having the qualities of woman
(a) Loquacious
(b) Celibate
(c) Effeminate
(d) Epicurean
32. A word no longer in use
(a) Exotic
(b) Primitive
(c) Obsolete
(d) Ancient
33. A person who enters without any invitation
(a) Burglar
(b) Intruder
(c) Thief
(d) Vandal
34. The period between two reigns
(a) Lapse
(b) Interregnum
(c) Anachronism
(d) Intermission
35. Poem in short stanzas narrating a popular story
(a) Ballet
(b) Epic
(c) Ballad
(d) Sonnet
Directions (Q. 36-40) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Journalism combines writing with news gathering and interpretation. While the journalist’s work obviously varies from newspaper to newspaper and from magazine to magazine, all journalists are as much research workers, as they are writers. They cannot write their news or feature stories, unless they locate it and research them first. They must be able to read the in-between lines of the main source-news and interpret that. A great many stories hunt the journalist, who rejects most of them. he carefully sorts and sifts those, taking only a relatively very small proportion of news, may be, coming from an unexpected source. A successful journalist may gather news to the tune of 100 percent but he can use them for his profession only 3-5 percent. He must be able to see or forecast to himself, the news of tomorrow or the day after, from the news of tomorrow or the day after, from the news of today; because newspapers want advance news or advance warning to give a good, exclusive and exhaustive coverage to anything of interest. But a real ‘scoop’ is a very rare event. And bogus scoops also bring disrepute to the newspaper.
36. According to the passage, a journalist’s work includes
(a) writing
(b) news gathering
(c) sorting out the news
(d) All of the above
37. What, according to the passage, is the common characteristic of all journalists?
(a) They all write for the newspapers
(b) They all have to first probe into the news they gather
(c) They all make an adventure to find a worthy news
(d) They all can forecast future news
38. What is most important for a journalist?
(a) He must be able to interpret the news correctly
(b) He must know how to sort out the news
(c) He must be able to write effectively
(d) He must know how to gather the right news
39. What does the passage say about successful journalists?
(a) They reject a major portion of the gathered news
(b) They can use a relatively small portion of the news
(c) Their news come from unexpected sources
(d) They present advance news
40. What is the basic requisite for exclusive and exhaustive coverage of newspaper?
(a) Forecast of tomorrow’s news from today’s news
(b) Collecting the news of a ‘real scoop’
(c) Selection of a small portion of the gathered news
(d) Effective style of writing
JIPMER Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2016 With Answer Key
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2016
Physics
1. The displacement x of a particle varies with time t as x = ae−αt + beβt, where a, a, b, α and β are positive constants. The velocity of the particle will
(a) decrease with time
(b) be independent of α and β
(c) drop to zero when α − β
(d) increase with time
2. A transformer having efficiency of 75% is working on 220 V and 4.4 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 5A. What will be the voltage across secondary coil and the current in primary coil?
(a) VS = 220 V, iP = 20 A
(b) VS = 660 V, iP = 15 A
(c) VS = 660 V, iP = 20 A
(d) VS = 220 V, iP = 15 A
3. A fish rising vertically to the surface of water in a lake uniformly at the rate of 2 m/s observes a kingfisher diving vertically towards the water at a rate of 10 m/s. If refractive index of water n = 4/3, what will be the actual velocity o f the kingfisher
(a) 10 m/s
(b) 8 m/s
(c) 6 m/s
(d) 9 m/s
4. One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas undergoes the process A → B in the given p-V diagram. The molar heat capacity for this process is
(a) 3R/2
(b) 13R/6
(c) 5R/2
(d) 2R
5. A pan with a set of weights is attached to a light spring. The period of vertical oscillation is 0.5s. When some additional weights are put in pan, then the period of oscillations increases by 0.1s. The extension caused by the additional weight is
(a) 5.5 cm
(b) 3.8 cm
(c) 2.7 cm
(d) 1.3 cm
6. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field E parallel to the cylinder axis. The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is given by
(a) 2πR2E
(b) πR2/E
(c) R/E
(d) zero
7. If A + B = C and that C is perpendicular to What is the angle between A and B, if |A| = |C|
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) π rad
8. A beam of light travelling along X-axis is described by the electric field 
the maximum magnetic force on a charge q = 2e, moving along Y-axis with the speed of 3 × 108 m/s is
(a) 19.2 × 10−17 N
(b) 1.92 × 10−17 N
(c) 0.192 N
(d) None of these
9. A body is whirled in a horizontal circle of radius 25 cm. It has an angular velocity of 13 rad/s. What is its linear velocity at any point on circular path?
(a) 2 m/s
(b) 3 m/s
(c) 3.25 m/s
(d) 4.25 m/s
10. In the given figure, potential difference between A and B is
(a) 0
(b) 5 V
(c) 10 V
(d) 15 V
11. A block having 12g of element is placed in a room. This element is a radioactive element with half-life of 15 yr. After how many years will there be just 1.5 g of the element in the box?
(a) 40 yr
(b) 45 yr
(c) 20 yr
(d) 15 yr
12. In the given figure what will be the coefficient of mutual inductance
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
13. An L-C-R series circuit with a resistance of 100 Ω is connected to 200 V (AC source) and angular frequency 300 rad/s. When only the capacitor is removed, then the current lags behind the voltage by 60°. The average power dissipated in original L-C-R circuit is
(a) 50 W
(b) 100 W
(c) 200 W
(d) 400 W
14. The intensity of each of the two slits in Young’s double slit experiment is I0. Calculate the minimum separation between the points on the screen, where intensities are 2I0 and I0. If fringe width is b
(a) b/5
(b) b/8
(c) b/12
(d) b/4
15. A metal rod at a temperature of 145°C, radiates energy at a rate of 17 W. If its temperature is increased to 273°C, then it will radiate at the rate of
(a) 49.6 W
(b) 17.5 W
(c) 50.3 W
(d) 67.5 W
16. Two wires are stretched through same distance. The force constant of second wire is half as that of the first wire. The ratio of work done to stretch first wire and second wire will be
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 1 : 3
17. A square wire of side 2.0 c is placed 20 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm with its centre on the axis of the mirror and its plane normal to the axis. The area enclosed by the image of wire is
(a) 7.5 cm2
(b) 6 cm2
(c) 2 cm2
(d) 4 cm2
18. A lead bullet penetrates into a solid object and melts. Assuming that 50% of kinetic energy was used to heat it, the initial speed of the bullet is (the initial temperature of the bullet is 25°C and its melting point is 300°C). Latent heat of fusion of lead = 2.5 × 104 J/kg and specific heat capacity of lead = 125 J/kg-K
(a) 100 m/s
(b) ≈ 490 m/s
(c) 520 m/s
(d) 360 m/s
19. A quarter cylinder of radius R and refractive index 1.5 is placed on a table. A point object P is kept at a distance of mR from it as shown in figure. For water value of m for which a ray from P will emerge parallel to the table?
(a) 2/3
(b) 3/2
(c) 4/3
(d) 3/4
20. The graph 1/λ and stopping potential (V) of three metals having work function ϕ1, ϕ2 and ϕ3 in an experiment of photoelectric effect is plotted as shown in figure. Which one of the following statement is/are correct? [Here λ is the wavelength of the incident ray]
(i) Ratio of work functions ϕ1 : ϕ2 : ϕ3 = 1: 2 : 4
(ii) Ratio of work functions ϕ1 : ϕ2 : ϕ3 = 4 : 2 : 1
(iii) 
, where h = Planck’s constant, c = speed of light
(iv) The violet colour-light can eject photoelectrons from metals 2 and 3
(a) (i), (iii)
(b) (i), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
21. The concentric, conducting spherical shells X, Y and Z with radii r, 2r and 3r, respectively. X and Z are connected by a conducting wire and Y is uniformly charged to charge Q as shown in figure. Charges on shells X and Z will be
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
22. The temperature of gas is raised from 27°C to 927°C. The root mean square speed
(a) gets halved
(b) gets doubled
(c) is 
the earlier value
(d) remains the same
23. A particles slides down on a smooth incline of inclination 30°, fixed in an elevator going up with an acceleration 2 m/s2. The box of incline has a length 4m. The time taken by the particle to reach the bottom will be
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
24. A stone projected with a velocity u at an angle θ with the horizontal reaches maximum height H1. When it is projected with velocity u at an angle 
with the horizontal, it reaches maximum height H2. The relation between the horizontal range R of the projectile, H1 and H2 is
(a) 
(b) R = 4(H1 – H2)
(c) R = 4(H1 + H2)
(d) 
25. Two batteries of emf 3V and 6V with internal resistances 2Ω and 4Ω are connected in a circuit with resistance of 10Ω as shown in figure. The current and potential difference between the points P and Q are
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
26. A light string passes over a frictionless pulley. To one of its ends a mass of 8 kg is attached. To its other end two masses of 7 kg each are attached. The acceleration of the system will be
(a) 10.2 g
(b) 5.10 g
(c) 20.36 g
(d) 0.27 g
27. A capillary tube of length L and radius r is connected with another capillary tube of the same length but half the radius in series. The rate of steady volume flow of water through first capillary tube under a pressure difference of p is V. The rate of steady volume flow through the combination will be (the pressure difference across the combination is p)
(a) 17 V
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
28. A system consist of a cylinder surrounded by a cylindrical shell. A cylinder is a radius R and is made of material of thermal conductivity K, whereas a cylindrical shell has inner radius R and outer radius 2R and is made of material of thermal conductivity twice as that of cylinder. Assuming the system in steady state and negligible heat loss across the cylindrical surface, find the effective thermal conductivity of the system, if the two ends of the combined system are maintained at two different temperatures.
(a) 3K
(b) 
(c) 7K/4
(d) 5K/4
29. An isotropic point source emits light with wavelength 500 nm. The radiation power of source is P = 10 W. Find the number of photons passing through unit area per second at a distance of 3 m from the source.
(a) 5.92 × 1017/m2 s
(b) 2.23 × 1017/m2 s
(c) 2.23 × 1018/m2 s
(d) 5.92 × 1018/m2 s
30. If a proton and anti-proton come close to each other and annihilate, how much energy will be released?
(a) 1.5 × 10−10 J
(b) 3 × 10−10 J
(c) 4.5 × 10−10 J
(d) 2 × 10−10 J
31. A body a rest slides down a 30° inclined plane. The time taken by it to slide down is twice the time it takes when it slides down the same distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient of friction between the body and the inclined plane is
(a) 0.43
(b) 0.37
(c) 0.64
(d) 0.75
32. A bat emitting an ultrasonic wave of frequency 4.5 × 104 Hz at speed of 6 m/s between two parallel walls. The two frequencies heared by the bat will be
(a) 4.67 × 104 Hz, 4.34 × 104 Hz
(b) 4.34 × 104 Hz, 4.67 × 104 Hz
(c) 4.5 × 104 Hz, 5.4 × 104 Hz
(d) 4.67 × 103 Hz, 4.34 × 104 Hz
33. The charges on two spheres are +7 μC and −5 μC respectively. They experience of force F. If each of them is given an additional charge of −2μC, then the new force of attraction will be
(a) F
(b) F/2
(c) F/√3
(d) 2F
34. A rod made up of metal is 1.2 m long and 0.8 cm diameter. Its resistance is 3.5 × 10−3 Ω. Another disc made of the same metal is 2.0 cm in diameter and 1.25 mm thick. What is the resistance between the round faces of the disc?
(a) 1.35 × 10−8 Ω
(b) 2.70 × 10−7 Ω
(c) 5.82 × 10−7 Ω
(d) 8.10 × 10−5 Ω
35. A body is moving along a rough horizontal surface with an initial velocity of 10 ms−1. If the body comes to rest after travelling a distance of 12 m, then the coefficient of sliding friction will be
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.6
36. The magnification produced by a astronomical telescope for normal adjustment is 10 and the length of the telescope is 1.1 m. The magnification, when the image is formed atleast distance of distinct vision is
(a) 6
(b) 18
(c) 16
(d) 14
37. A circular current carrying coil has a radius R. The distance from the centre of the coil, on the axis, where B will be 1/8 of its value at the centre of the coil is
(a) R/√3
(b) √3 R
(c) 2√3 R
(d) 2R/√3
38. Angular width of central maximum in the Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern of a slit is measured. The slit is illuminated by light of wavelength 6000 Å. When the slit is illuminated by light of another wavelength, then the angular width decreases by 30%. The same decrease in angular width of central maximum is obtained when the original apparatus is immersed in a liquid. The refractive index of the liquid will be
(a) 1.25
(b) 1.42
(c) 1.67
(d) 1.5
39. An energy of 68.0 eV is required to excite a hydrogen-like atom in its second Bohr energy level to third energy level the charge of nucleus is Ze. The wavelength of a radiation required to eject the electron from first orbit to infinity is
(a) 2.2 nm
(b) 2.85 nm
(c) 3.2 nm
(d) 2.5 nm
40. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field in four different orientations I, II, III and IV as shown in figure. Arrange them in decreasing order of potential energy.
(a) I > III > II > IV
(b) I > II > III > IV
(c) I > IV > II > III
(d) III > IV > I > II
41. Two different isotherms representing the relationship between pressure p and volume V at a given temperature of the same ideal gas are shown for masses m1 and m2, then
(a) Nothing can be predicted
(b) m1 < m2
(c) m1 = m2
(d) m1 > m2
42. A7 Li target is bombarded with a proton beam current of 10−4 A for one hour to produce 7Be of activity 1.8 × 108 disintegrations per second. Assuming that one 7Be radioactive nuclei is produced by bombarding 1000 protons, its half-life is
(a) 0.87 × 107 s
(b) 0.2 × 107 s
(c) 0.67 × 108 s
(d) 0.87 × 106 s
43. In the given figure, the capacitors C1, C3, C4, C5 have a capacitance 4 μF each. If the capacitor C2 has a capacitance 10 μF, then effective capacitance between A and B will be
(a) 2 μF
(b) 6 μF
(c) 4 μF
(d) 8 μF
44. The truth table for the following logic circuit is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
45. A sphere of mass m moving with velocity v hits inelastically with another stationary sphere of same mass. The ratio of their final velocities will be (in terms of e)
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
46. A small spherical drop fall from rest in viscous liquid. Due to friction, heat is produced. The correct relation between the rate of production of heat and the radius of the spherical drop at terminal velocity will be
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
47. A galvanometer of resistance 25 Ω shows a deflection of 5 divisions when a current of 2 mA is passed through it. If a shunt of 4Ω is connected and there are 20 divisions on the scale, then the range of the galvanometer is
(a) 1 A
(b) 58 A
(c) 58 mA
(d) 30 mA
48. The total charge induced in a conducting loop when it is moved in magnetic field depends on
(a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
(b) initial magnetic flux only
(c) the total change in magnetic flux
(d) final magnetic flux only
49. Particles of masses m, 2,, 3, …, nm are placed on the same line at distances L, 2L, 3L, …, nL from O. The distance of centre of mass from O is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
50. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 150%. Due to consequent decrease in diameter the change in the resistance of the wire will be
(a) 200%
(b) 525%
(c) 300%
(d) 400%
51. An ideal solenoid having 5000 turns/m has an aluminium core and carries a current of 5A. If χAl = 2.3 × 10−5, then the magnetic field developed at centre will be
(a) 0.031 T
(b) 0.048 T
(c) 0.027 T
(d) 0.050 T
52. A ball of radius R rolls without slipping. Find the fraction of total energy associated with its rotational energy, if the radius of the gyration of the ball about an axis passing through its centre of mass is K.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
53. A capacitor is charged and then made to discharge through a resistance. The time constant is τ. In what time will be potential difference across the capacitor decrease by 10%?
(a) τ ln 0.1
(b) τ ln 0.9
(c) 
(d) 
54. A body of mass 2 m is placed on earth’s surface. Calculate the change in gravitational potential energy, if this body is taken from earth’s surface to a height of h, where h = 4R.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
55. The slope of isothermal and adiabatic curves are related as
(a) isothermal curve slope = adiabatic curve slope
(b) isothermal curve slope = γ × adiabatic curve slope
(c) adiabatic curve slope = γ × isothermal curve slope
(d) adiabatic curve slope = 1/2 × isotherma curve slope
56. A solid sphere of mass M and radius 2R rolls down an inclined plane of height h without slipping. The speed of its centre of mass when it reaches the bottom is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
57. A liquid of density 800 kg/m3 is filled in a cylindrical vessel upto a height of 3 m. This cylindrical vessel stands on a horizontal plane. There is circular hole on the side of the vessel. What should be the minimum diameter of the hole to move the vessel on the floor, if plug is removed. Take the coefficient of friction between the bottom of the vessel and the p lane as 0.5 and total mass of vessel plus vessel as 95 kg.
(a) 0.107 m
(b) 0.053 m
(c) 0.206 m
(d) 0.535 m
58. The transfer ratio β of a transistor is 50. The input resistance of the transistor when used in the common emitter configuration is 2 kΩ. The peak value of the collector AC current for and AC input voltage of 0.02 V peak is
(a) 200 μA
(b) 0.01 mA
(c) 0.25 mA
(d) 500 μA
59. The volume of an ideal gas is doubled in an isothermal process. Then, which of the following is true?
(a) Work done by the gas is positive
(b) Work done by the gas in negative
(c) Internal energy of the system decreases
(d) Internal energy of the system increases
60. A prism of a certain angle deviates the red and blue rays by 8 and 12, respectively. Another prism of the same angle deviates the red and blue rays by 10 and 14, respectively. The prism are small angled and made of different materials. The dispersive power of the materials of the prisms are in the ratio
(a) 5 : 6
(b) 9 : 11
(c) 6 : 5
(d) 11 : 9
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2016
Chemistry
1. Temperature of a gas is t K. What would be the temperature at which volume and pressure, both will reduced to half of the initial values?
(a) t/2
(b) t/4
(c) t/3
(d) t/8
2. What will be the number of waves formed by a Bohr electron in one complete revolution in its second orbit?
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Zero
3. When 2-methyl butyl bromide is treated with sodium ethoxide in ethanol, what will be the major product?
(a) 2-methyl but-2-ene
(b) 3-methyl but-1-ene
(c) 2-methyl but-1-ene
(d) 2-methyl sodium-butoxide
4. Solid NaHCO3 will be neutralized by 40.0 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 What would be the weight of solid NaHCO3 in gram?
(a) 0.672 g
(b) 6.07 g
(c) 17 g
(d) 20 g
5. The pair of boiling point and compound are given as,
Which will show lowest vapor pressure at room temperature?
(a) C6H6
(b) CH3OH
(c) C6H5NO2
(d) C6H5NH2
6. In the following conversion,
Identify ‘A’ from the following option
(a) NaBD4
(b) LiAlD4
(c) Mg, ether/D2O
(d) BH3, D2O
7. Ethers like ROR can be cleaved by concentrated HI but not by HCl because
(a) I− is a weaker nucleophile than Cl−
(b) I− is stronger nucleophile than Cl−
(c) SN1 mechanism carried out in this reaction is rapidly in presence of HI.
(d) None of the above
8. In the reaction,
How many electron donating groups are attached with the carbon atom of unsaturated part of the product ‘B’?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) None of these
9. At 27°C one mole of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 2 atm to 10 atm.
Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) Change in internal energy is positive
(b) Heat is negative
(c) Work done is −965.84 cal
(d) All are incorrect
10. Which of the following hydrocarbons is the most reactive towards addition of H2SO4?
(a) Ethene
(b) Propylene
(c) 3-methyl but-1-ene
(d) 1-butene
11. Choose the incorrect statement about noble gas?
(a) Boiling point increases with increasing atomic mass
(b) Helium has least tendency to form compound
(c) Noble gases have some value of electron affinity
(d) Xenon has maximum number of compounds
12. For the cell reaction
Pb + Sn2+ → Pb2+ + Sn
Given that, Pb → Pb2+, E° = 0.13 V
Sn2+ + 2e− → Sn; E° = −0.14 V
What would be the ratio of cation concentration for which E = O?
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/2
(c) 1/3
(d) 1/1
13. [CuCl4]2− exists while [Cul4]2− does not exist, because
(a) I− is stronger reductant than Cl−
(b) I− is weaker reductant than Cl−
(c) I− is stronger oxidant than Cl−
(d) None of the above
14. In the reaction,
X + I2 + 2HCl → SnCl4 + 2HI
The correct option regarding X is /are
(a) It is an strong reducing agent
(b) It is an angular molecule
(c) It is used as a reagent in test of Hg2+ radical
(d) All of the above
15. If oxide ions are arranged in hcp and the aluminium ions occupy two thirds of octahedral voids. What will be the formula of the compound?
(a) AlO3
(b) Al2O3
(c) (Al2O3)
(d) Al3O4
16. Actinides exhibit larger number of oxidation state than that of corresponding lanthanides. The reason behind this aspect is
(a) lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d-orbitals than between 4f and 5d-orbitals
(b) larger atomic size of actinides than the lanthanides
(c) more energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than between 4f and 5d-orbitals
(d) greater reactive nature of the actinides than the lanthanides
17. Aqueous solution of AlCl3 is acidic towards litmus while of NaCl is not. The correct reason behind this is
(a) AlCl3 furnishes OH− ion in the solution
(b) AlCl3 furnishes H+ ion in the solution
(c) AlCl3 furnishes both H+ well as OH− ion in the solution
(d) AlCl3 is the salt of strong base and strong acid
18. The melting point of solid substances is directly proportional to pressure acting on them. However, ice-melts at a temperature lower than its usual melting point, when the pressure increases. This is because
(a) ice is not a true solid
(b) the bonds break under pressure
(c) ice is loss dense than water
(d) pressure generates heat
19. The E° values for Mn and Zn are more negative than expected because negative than expected because
(a) they have either half-filled and fully-filled configurations
(b) they can easily donate electrons
(c) it is Quite easy to remove electrons from their orbitals
(d) None of the above
20. For the formation of Cr2O3 and Al2O3, values of ∆fG° are 540 kJ mol−1 and −827 kJ mol−1 What will be the possibility for reaction of Cr2O3 by Al?
(a) Reduction of Cr2O3 by Al will take place
(b) Oxidation of Cr2O3 by Al will take place
(c) Neither oxidation nor reduction will take place
(d) Reaction is not feasible
21. Work is being performed, when a weight lifter lifts a base ball off a weight rack. This is due to
(a) magnetic attraction
(b) gravity
(c) electrostatic repulsion
(d) mechanical force
22. Magnetic moment of [Ti(H2O)6]4+, [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [Cr(H2O)6]3+ can be represented as X, Y and Z.
They are in order of
(a) X < Z < Y
(b) Z < Y < X
(c) X < Y < Z
(d) Z < Y < X
23. Beryllium differs in properties from other elements of its own group but shows resemblance with aluminium because of
(a) relatively bigger ionic radius and high polarizing power of Be
(b) relatively smaller ionic radius and high polarizing power of Be
(c) relatively bigger ionic radius is the only reason behind this
(d) None of the above
24. Two similar reactions have the same rate constant at 25°C but at 35°C, one of the reaction has a higher rate constant than the other. The appropriate reason for this is
(a) due to effective collisions
(b) due to different activation energies
(c) due to different threshold energies
(d) due to higher population of molecules
25. In [CO(H2O)6]2+, there are three unpaired electrons present. The μexperimental of 4.40 BM.
This is because of
(a) increase in number of unpaired electrons
(b) some contribution of the orbital motion of the electron to the magnetic moment
(c) change in orbital spin of the electron
(d) d-d transition
26. When excess of NaOH solution is added to aqueous solution of iodine, the colour of solution becomes
(a) blue
(b) yellow
(c) colourless
(d) pale green
27. Look at the graph,
Choose the correct equation from the following which best suited to the above graph
(a) [At] = [A]0 – Kt
(b) [At] = [A]0 + Kt
(c) [At] = [A0]e−Kt
(d) [At] = Kt2 + [A0]
28. Choose the correct statement from the following
(a) NH4+ and CH4 are not isoelectronic species
(b) BF3 does not have dipole moment
(c) O – Cl – O obeys octet rule
(d) O− in O3 is sp3-hybridized
29. Lauryl alcohol on treatment with H2SO4 followed by neutralization forms a product which is
(a) cationic detergent
(b) anionic detergent
(c) neutral detergent
(d) antidepressant
30. When an iron object is plated with tin, tin does not act as sacrificial anode in protecting against corrosion, because
(a) tin is more reactive than iron
(b) tin is less reactive than iron
(c) reactivity of tin and iron is same
(d) tin is oxidizing agent while iron is not so
31. Which of the following pair of compounds will have three sp2-hybride orbitals?
(a) SO2, CH4
(b) SO3, C2H4
(c) BF3, SF4
(d) I3−, SF4
32. Consider the reaction,
H2 + X2 → 2HX, where X is halogen. The reactivity of halogens decrease in the order of
(a) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
(b) I2 > Br2 > F2 > Cl2
(c) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(d) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
33. Choose the correct statement from the following.
(a) The greater positive value of E°OP indicates greater reactivity of metal
(b) F− is strong oxidant while Cu2+ is weak reductant
(c) The metals placed above Mg in the electrochemical series do not decompose water at ordinary temperature
(d) Oxides of Hg do not decompose on heating
34. 100 mL of a solution contains 2 g of acetic acid and 3g of sodium acetate providing Ka = 1.8 × 10−5, then choose the correct option.
(a) This solution is basic in nature
(b) This solution is acidic in nature
(c) This solution is amphoteric in nature
(d) This solution is neutral in nature
35. Consider the following structures.
Choose the correct statement regarding the above structures.
(a) Dipole moment varies as II > III > I
(b) II is more stable than I
(c) I is the most reactive among three
(d) All of the above
36. On the basis of Langmuir adsorption isotherm the amount of gas adsorbed at very high pressure.
(a) Reaches a constant limiting value
(b) Goes on increasing with pressure
(c) Goes on decreasing with pressure
(d) First increasing and then decreasing with pressure
37. Both Mg and Fe metal can reduce copper from a solution having Cu2+ ion, according to equilibria.
Mg(s) + Cu2+ ⇌ Mg2+ + Cu(s); K1 = 6 × 1090
Fe(s) + Cu2+ ⇌ Fe2+ + Cu(s); K2 = 3 × 1026
Choose the correct option regarding above equilibrium
(a) Mg removes more Cu2+ from solution
(b) Fe removes more Cu2+ from solution
(c) Both will equally remove Cu2+ from solution
(d) Both metals cannot remove Cu2+ from solution
38. Consider the following reaction sequence
Choose the correct option regarding the different products obtained in the above reaction sequence.
(a) ‘D’ is an alcohol consisting one carbon more than the starting alcohol
(b) Product ‘B’ is formed via SN2-pathway
(c) ‘C’ is an amine
(d) All of the above
39. Which of the following is crossed aldol product in the reaction?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
40. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the reaction?
(a) The equivalent weight of CH3CHO is 2
(b) Three moles of OH− are required in the above reaction
(c) CH3CHO is an oxidizing agent
(d) Reduction of [Ag(NH3)2]⨁ occurs
41. Consider the following compounds.
Cl3C – COOH Br3C – COOH I3C – COOH
(I) (II) (III)
The decreasing order of decarboxylation is
(a) I > II > III
(b) III > II > I
(c) III > I > II
(d) II > I > III
42. Which of the following is an example of carbylamines reaction?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) Ph2 – NH + HONO → Ph2 – N – N = O + H2O
43. C3H9N reacts with Hinsberg reagent and the product is insoluble in alkali but soluble in ether. This nitrogen containing compound is
(a) primary amine
(b) secondary amine
(c) tertiary amine
(d) methyl isocyanide
44. 
Product ‘Q’ is
(a) an amide
(b) an amine
(c) nitro compound
(d) nitrile compound
45. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Polypropylene is a thermoplastic polymer
(b) Melamine-formaldehyde is a thermosetting polymer
(c) Mixture of styrene and methyl methacrylate can form ionic addition polymer
(d) Low-density polythene is a poor conductor of electricity
46. Match the particle with its characteristic.
(a) A – p; B – r; C – q; D – s
(b) A – p; B – q; C – r; D – s
(c) A – r; B – s; C – p; D – q
(d) A – s; B – r; C – p; D – q
47. The magnitude of screening effect depends upon the number of
(a) inner electrons
(b) outer electrons
(c) bond order
(d) Both (a) and (b)
48. Highest energy will be absorbed to eject out the electron in the configuration.
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p1
(b) 1s2 2s2 2p3
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p2
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p4
49. Sugars are separated by using the solvent BAW (n-butanol acetic acid – H2O) and detected by spraying the plate with
(a) aniline hydrogen phthalate solution
(b) hydrogen peroxide solution
(c) crystals of I2
(d) cupric oxide
50. Duma’s method involves the determination of nitrogen content in the organic compound in the form of
(a) NH3
(b) N2
(c) NaCN
(d) (NH4)2SO4
51. Which of the following statement(s) is not correct?
(a) Suspended particulate matter is an important pollutant released by diesel vehicles
(b) Soot particles (size < 5μ) cause fibrosis of the lung living
(c) H2SO4 particulates have size of 500 – 1000 nm
(d) Photochemical smog is formed by oxides of sulphur, smoke and dust particles
52. At radioactive equilibrium, the ratio between two atoms a radioactive elements A and B is 3.1 ×109 : 1. If the half-life period of A is 2 × 1010 yrs, then the half-life of B is
(a) 9.54 yrs
(b) 2.14 yrs
(c) 3.29 yrs
(d) 6.45 yrs
53. The effective neutron capture radius of a nucleus having a cross-section of 1.0 barr is [ Given, 1 barr = 1.0 × 10−24 cm2]
(a) 5.6 × 10−13 cm
(b) 4.3 × 10−13 cm
(c) 2.3 × 10−11 cm
(d) 5.6 × 10−24 cm
54. Lime stone is added in the extraction of lead from galena why?
(a) It prevents the formati Con of PbSO4
(b) It remove the impurity of silica as fusible slag
(c) It converts lead silicate to lead oxide
(d) All of the above
55. A hypothetical reaction A → 2B proceeds through the following sequence of steps
(I) A → C; ∆rH = q1
(II) C → D; ∆rH = q2
The heat of hypothetical reaction is
(a) q1 + q2 – 2q3
(b) q1 + q2 + 2q3
(c) q1 + 2q2 – 2q3
(d) q1 – q2 + 2q3
56. Anhydrous mixture of KF and HF contain which types of ions?
(a) K+, H+, F−
(b) {KF+, (HF−)}
(c) KH+, F−
(d) K+, HF2−
57. Polypropylene can be obtained by polymerization of
(a) CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl
(b) CH2 = CH – Cl
(c) CH3 – Cl
(d) CH3 – CHCl2
58. 
(X), (X) formed in the above reaction is
(a) 
(b) (C6H5)2NOH
(c) 
(d) 
59. 2 L of gas at STP Weight 14g.
The gas would be
(a) H2
(b) CO
(c) B2H6
(d) All of these
60. The value of n in
MnO4− + 8H+ + ne− → Mn2+ + 4H2O is
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 3
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2016
Biology
1. ‘GIFT’ refers to
(a) Gamete ln vitro Fertilization Technique
(b) Gamete Inter Fallopian Tube
(c) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
(d) Gamete ln vitro Fertilization Transfer
2. Consider the following statements and Choose correct ones from given options.
(I) Shark do not have any bone in its body.
(II) Water snake and salamander belongs to same class and have largest RBC.
(III) Silver fish is a true fish while cuttle and star fishes are mollusks and echinoderms respectively.
(IV) Ornithorhynchus is a connecting link between reptiles and mammals.
(a) I, II and IV
(b) I and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) III and IV
3. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Diphtheria – Corynebacerium
(b) Elephantiasis – Wuchereria
(c) Plague – Paramyxo
(d) Lockjaw – Clostridium
4. The largest muscle in the human is
(a) biceps
(b) gluteus maximus
(c) stapedius
(d) masseter
5. The best description on natural selection is
(a) the reproductive success of the members of a population best adapted to environment
(b) it acts when the resources are unlimited
(c) a change in the proportion of variations within a population
(d) it follows Hardy-Weinberg principle
6. The chromosome of cell duplicate during the
(a) S-phase of cell cycle
(b) G1-phase of cell cycle
(c) G2-phase of cell cycle
(d) prophase of cell division
7. Adenosine triphosphate was discovered by
(a) Jack Lipman
(b) A Bloor
(c) Karl Lohmann
(d) Emil Fisher
8. Lens of eyes is derived from
(a) ectoderm
(b) mesoderm
(c) endoderm
(d) Both (b) and (c)
9. Schneiderian and tympanic membrane respectively belongs to
(a) ear and nose
(b) ear and eye
(c) ear and ear
(d) nose and ear
10. Due to alcohol abuse brain related disease Korsakkoff’s syndrome occurs. Which nutrient is responsible for this syndrome?
(a) Vitamin-B12
(b) Fat
(c) Protein
(d) Vitamin-B1
11. Who received Nobel Prize in 2008 for the discovery of HIV?
(a) Harald Zur Hausen
(b) Luc Montagnier
(c) Jack Szostak
(d) Carol Greider
12. Which one of the following is a reorganization site for restriction enzyme Bam HI?
(a) 5ʹ– GAATTC – 3ʹ 3ʹ – CTTAAG – 5ʹ
(b) 5ʹ – GGATCC – 3ʹ 5ʹ – CCATGG – 3ʹ
(c) 5ʹ – GGATCC -– 3ʹ 3ʹ – CCTAGG – 5ʹ
(d) 5ʹ– GAATTC – 3ʹ 5ʹ– GTTAAC – 3ʹ
13. Golden ages of reptiles and fishes are respectively
(a) Mesozoic and Devonian
(b) Jurassic and Permian
(c) Triassic and Silurian
(d) Palaeozoic and Mesozoic
14. Match the following Columns.
(a) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2
(b) A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1
(c) A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1
(d) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2
15. Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched?
(a) Almond-Drupe
(b) Brinjal-Berry
(c) Guava-Pepo
(d) Loquat-Pome
16.The powerhouse of cells is first discovered by
(a) C Benda in 1897
(b) Kolliker in 1850
(c) Claude in 1880
(d) Kingsburg in 1882
17. During chloride shift or Hamburger phenomenon, when the whole blood is saturated with CO2, following changes occurs. Which one of them is not correct?
(a) Bicarbonate content of plasma and corpuscles increase
(b) Chloride content of plasma diminished and that of the cell is increased
(c) Total base of blood remain unchanged
(d) Water content and volume of corpuscles decrease
18. Which one of the following elements is activator for both ribulose biphosphate, carboxylase oxygenase and phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase in photosynthetic carbon fixation?
(a) Mg2+
(b) Zn2+
(c) Mn2+
(d) Cl− and K+
19. Common phase in aerobic and anaerobic respiration is
(a) Kreb’s cycle
(b) glycolysis
(c) glycogenolysis
(d) ETS
20. ‘Treponema pallidum’ pathogen is a cause of
(a) leprosy
(b) plague
(c) syphilis
(d) pertussis
21. Which one of the following pair is not correct?
(a) Mangolian idiocy – 21st chromosome
(b) Patau syndrome – 13th chromosome
(c) Cri-Du-Chat – 11th chromosome
(d) Edward syndrome – 18th chromosome
22. Which one of the following pair is not correct?
(a) single-stranded DNA
(b) single-stranded RNA
(c) double-stranded DNA
(d) None of the above
23. An irregular mode of reproduction resulting in the development of an embryo without fertilization is called
(I) parthenogenesis
(II) apogamy
(III) sporophytic budding
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III
24. In which one of the family formation of endosperm doesn’t take place?
(a) Orchidaceae
(b) Cactaceae
(c) Ranunculaceae
(d) Malvaceae
25. In cardiac cycle maximum time is taken by
(a) atria systole
(b) atria diastole
(c) ventricle systole
(d) ventricle diastole
26. A horse and a donkey can breed to produce mule which is an infertile animal. The infertility is because horse and donkey belong to different
(a) class
(b) order
(c) species
(d) genus
27. Source of commercial chewing gum latex is
(a) Hevea brasiliensis
(b) Carica papaya
(c) Ficus elastica
(d) Achras sapota
28. Compare the statement I and II and choose the correct option.
Statement I In the flowering plants due to higher accumulation of auxins dormancy of lateral buds occurs.
Statement II In Maryland Mammoth (a tobacco variety) flowering occurred at different time at different latitude due to gibberellins concentration.
(a) Statement I is true, but II is false
(b) Statement I is false, but II is true
(c) Both statements are true
(d) Both statements are false
29. Which one of the given pollination technique/adaptation is different than others?
(a) Herkogamy
(b) Geitonogamy
(c) Dichogamy
(d) Heterostyly
30. The phenotypic ratio of trihybrid cross in F2-generation is
(a) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
(b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1
(d) 27 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 9 : 1 : 2 : 1
31. A point mutation where guanine is replaced by cytosine is also called
(a) frame shift mutation
(b) transition mutation
(c) translocation mutation
(d) transversion mutation
32. Match the following Columns.
(a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1
(b) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4
(c) A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4
(d) A – 4; B – 2; C – 1; D – 3
33. Match the following Columns.
(a) A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3
(b) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2
(c) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4
(d) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2
34. Which one of the following antibodies plays an important role as mediator in allergic response?
(a) IgE
(b) IgG
(c) IgD
(d) IgA
35. Which one of the following human ancestors is known as tool maker?
(a) Homo erectus
(b) Java man
(c) Homo habilis
(d) Heidelberg man
36. Which one of the following is a matching pair of vector and the disease?
(a) Culex – Filariasis
(b) Housefly – Leprosy
(c) Aedes aegypti – Chickenpox
(d) Sandfly – Cholera
37. Consider these following sentences and choose the correct ones.
(I) Each gene contains a specific promoter region and a leader sequence for guiding the beginning of transcription.
(II) Only one strand of DNA, called template strand is copied by RNA polymerase this strand runs in 3ʹ → 5ʹ direction.
(III) RNA polymerase adds complementary nucleotides forming single strand mRNA in 3ʹ → 5ʹ direction.
(IV) Section of DNA that has been transcribed is rewound into its original configuration.
(a) II, III and IV
(b) II and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I, II, and IV
38. Which one of the following is not correct pair of type of cancer and origin place?
(a) Benign tumour – Non-cancerous tumour
(b) Carcinomas – Cancer of epithelial tissues
(c) Lymphomas – Haematopoietic cells tumour
(d) Sarcomas – Cancer of glands (secretory tissues)
39. In animals normally which organism has maximum number of chromosomes?
(a) Butterfly
(b) Elephant
(c) Hermit crab
(d) Chimpanzee
40. During meiosis-I, the bivalent chromosomes clearly appear as tetrads during
(a) diakinesis
(b) diplotene
(c) pachytene
(d) zygotene
41. Snapdragon flower is an exception of Mendel’s laws. It is a good example of
(a) law of dominance
(b) complementary gene
(c) codominance
(d) incomplete dominance
42. Consider these sentences regarding to the structure and nature of DNA.
(I) DNA has tow pyrmidine bases which contain single ring structure.
(II) In DNA, composition of bases should be 
(III) Each base pair of DNA is 3.4Å apart from othes base pair.
(IV) The nucleosome model DNA packaging was proposed by Kornberg and Thomas.
Choose the correct statements from given options.
(a) I and III
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, III and IV
43. The term ‘prebiotic’ soup’ for organic water containing mixture of simple organic compounds was given by
(a) Richter
(b) Haldane
(c) Arrhenius
(d) Miller
44. Number of Barr body which will found in case of Turner’s syndrome will be
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) Can’t be determine by given data
45. Which one of the following options is not a sexually transmitted disease?
(a) AIDS
(b) Hepatitis-B
(c) Pertussis
(d) Syphilis
46. The Sub-units of 80S ribosome will be
(a) 40S, 40S
(b) 60S, 40S
(c) 60S, 20S
(d) 55S, 25S
47. Pyloric sphincter guards the opening between
(a) stomach and duodenum
(b) cardia and fundus
(c) oesophagus and stomach
(d) fundus and pylorus
48. Vegetative propagation of Bryophyllus takes place through
(a) bulbil
(b) corms
(c) leaf buds
(d) eyes
49. Pappus helps in dispersal of pollen in
(a) Asteraceae
(b) Brassicaceae
(c) Malvaceae
(d) Solanaceae
50. Diphtheria is caused by
(a) poison released by living bacterial cell into the host
(b) poison released from dead bacterial cell into the host
(c) poison released by virus into the host
(d) excessive immune response by the body of host
51. Which one of the following microbes is the source for vitamin-C?
(a) Pseudomonas sp.
(b) Acetobacter sp.
(c) Aspergillus sp.
(d) Chlorella
52. The fact that DNA is a genetic material was established by the experiment of
(a) Meselson and Stahl
(b) Hershey and Chase
(c) Avery, Macleod and McCarty
(d) Rosalind Franklin and Kornberg
53. Match the following Columns.
(a) A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4
(b) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3
(c) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1
(d) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4
54. Which one of the following hormones is released by posterior lobe of pituitary gland?
(a) FSH
(b) ADH
(c) ACTH
(d) MSH
55. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the innerside of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
(a) First negative then positive and again back to negative
(b) First positive then negative and continue to be negative
(c) First negative then positive and continue to be positive
(d) First positive then negative and again back to positive
56. Uric acid is the excretory waste of
(a) adult amphibians
(b) birds
(c) amphibians larvae
(d) mammals
57. In case of pregnancy the heartbeat of embryo starts at
(a) 4th week
(b) 7th week
(c) 6th week
(d) 5th week