UGC NET Exam January 2017 Women’s Studies Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

WOMEN’S STUDIES

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which one of the following Universities first started a course on Women’s Studies ?

(1) San Diego State University

(2) Cornell University

(3) S.N.D.T. University

(4) Oxford University

Answer: (2)

2. Gender sensitive curriculum refers to that type of curriculum which

(1) has separate provision for women students.

(2) excludes Boys not to learn gender issues.

(3) attempts to challenge the gender stereotypes.

(4) includes only women’s issues.

Answer: (3)

3. Dual systems feminism suggests that women’s oppression is linked to a mixture of which of the following ?

(1) Gender and Sex

(2) Capitalism and Biology

(3) Culture and Patriarchy

(4) Capitalism and Patriarchy

Answer: (4)

4. Which of the feminist ideology attempts to revalidate ‘female nature or female essence’ ?

(1) Radical feminism

(2) Liberal feminism

(3) Cultural feminism

(4) Subaltern feminism

Answer: (3)

5. Who coined the slogan “The personal is Political, “Which became synonymous with the Second Wave Feminism ?

(1) Gamal Abdel Nasser

(2) Simon de Beauvoir

(3) Carol Hanisch

(4) Susan B. Anthony

Answer: (3)

6. Which of the following variable is most critical for those who focus on gender oppression theory ?

(1) Power

(2) Money

(3) Mothering

(4) Culture

Answer: (1)

7. Which of the following women have featured in the postage stamp issued by US to commemorate the centennial celebrations of Seneccafalls convention.

I. Elizabeth Cady Stanton

II. Carrie Chapman Catt

III. Lucretia Mott

IV. Frederick Douglass

Codes :

(1) I, II, III and IV are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) I, II and III are correct.

(4) I, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (3)

8. Which one of the following feminist theorists said, regarding human growth and development, “Women organize their sense identity, find existential meaning, achieve a sense of coherence and continuity, and are motivated in the context of a relationship.”  

(1) Carol Gilligan

(2) J.V. Jordan and J.L. Surrey

(3) Elizabeth Cady and Susan B. Anthony

(4) Alison M. Jaggar

Answer: (2)

9. Which of the following perspectives acknowledges that women experience oppression in the variety of ways according to class, race, ethnicity, religion and sexual preference ?

(1) Cultural materialism

(2) Intersectionality theory

(3) Socialist feminism

(4) Liberal feminism

Answer: (2)

10. Which is included in the concept of ‘Culture’ ?

I. House of mud

II. Clothes

III. Democracy

IV. Furniture

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV

(2) III only

(3) I, II, III, IV

(4) I, II

Answer: (3)

11. Which of the following is not an exposure of androcentric bias in the academic discipline of Women’s Studies ?

(1) Using the image of man for humanbeings.

(2) Regarding the experience of men as more important.

(3) Women are not given the chance to build theories or create knowledge.

(4) Considering what applies to females as equally applicable to males.

Answer: (4)

12. Which of the following is not an action proposed by radical feminism as a means to defeat patriarchy ?

I. Women coming to recognise their own values and strengths.

II. Women uniting across their differences and forming a sisterhood of trust.

III. Women withdrawing from female networks in the workplace.

IV. Women uniting across classes to overthrown the capitalist system.

Codes :

(1) I is correct

(2) II and III are correct

(3) IV is correct

(4) I, II and IV are correct

Answer: (2)

13. Who said the following ?

“Educate your women first and leave them to themselves, then they will tell you what reforms are necessary for them”.

(1) Mahatma Gandhi

(2) Swami Vivekananda

(3) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(4) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: (2)

14. Which of the following statements is an example of the Ascribed status ?

I. Person born in a wealthy family.

II. Gender of the person.

III. Caste and creed of a person.

IV. Person born in a educated family.

Codes :

(1) I is correct.

(2) II and III are correct.

(3) I and IV are correct.

(4) I, II, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (4)

15. Post-modern feminists believe that

I. Knowledge is completely objective.

II. It is possible to deconstruct gender.

III. Social Scientists have the authority to define social reality for everyone.

IV. Essentialist and Universal Categories liberate people.

Code :

(1) I is correct.

(2) I, II and III are correct.

(3) I, II and IV are correct.

(4) III and IV are correct.

Answer: (All)

16. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ? 

(1) “Of Woman Born : Motherhood as Experience and Institution” – Adrienne Rich

(2) “The Dialectic of Sex” – Shulamith Firestone

(3) “The Origin of the Family, Private Property and State” – Karl Marx

(4) “Feminist Politics and Human Nature” – Alison Jaggar

Answer: (3)

17. Match List-I with List-II.

Answer: (3)

18. Which one of the International Conferences brought together the values and ideas of 1500 women from the North and the South and recognized women’s integral role in environmental Management and outlined ways to achieve a sustainable world with the help of women. 

(1) Beijing Conference

(2) Rio-de-Janerio Conference

(3) Stockholm Conference

(4) Paris Agreement

Answer: (2)

19. Which of the following are the component indicators of “The Global Hunger Index” ?

I. The proportion of children under the age of five suffering from Vitamin A deficiency.

II. The proportion of children under the age of five suffering from wasting.

III. The proportion of children under the age of five suffering from stunting.

IV. The mortality rate of children under the age of five.

Codes :

(1) I, II, III and IV are correct.

(2) I, II and III are correct.

(3) I and IV are correct.

(4) II, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (4)

20. Match List-I with List-II.

Answer: (2)

21. Among the following feminists who believed that the biologists, psychologists and Marxists have to say about the causes and reasons for woman’s condition, but none of them truly explain, why women not man is the other.

(1) Simone de Beauvoir

(2) Harriyet Taylor

(3) Nancy Chowdrow

(4) Shulamith Firestone

Answer: (1)

22. Gap between urban/rural female literacy rate in India as per 2011 census is

(1) 20.17 per cent

(2) 21.07 per cent

(3) 21.17 per cent

(4) 22.4 per cent

Answer: (3)

23. Which of the following suits or proceedings come under the Jurisdiction of the Family Courts Act, 1984 ?

I. For declaration as to the validity of a marriage or as to matrimonial status of a person.

II. Between the parties to a marriage with respect to the property of the parties or of either of them.

III. For a declaration as to the illegitimacy of any person.

IV. For maintenance.

Codes :

(1) I, II and IV

(2) I, II and III

(3) II, III and IV

(4) I, II, III and IV

Answer: (1)

24. Match the List-I with List-II according to the Census of India 2011.

Answer: (2)

25. In which research technique, there is more involvement of the researcher with the researched ?

(1) Questionnaire

(2) Participant observation

(3) Interview method

(4) Interview guide

Answer: (2)

26. Which Article of the Constitution of India requires the state to endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code ?

(1) Article 42

(2) Article 44

(3) Article 45

(4) Article 46

Answer: (2)

27. Assertion (A) : Gender equality means accepting and valuing equally the differences between women and men and the diverse roles they play in the society.

Reason (R) : Gender sensitization programme has not brought positive changes to achieve gender equality in the society.

Which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

28. Match the List-I with List-II of following :

Answer: (4)

29. Who was the Minister of Women and Child Development when the National Policy on Empowerment of Women was framed ?

(1) Renuka Choudhary

(2) Krishna Tirath

(3) Menaka Sanjay Gandhi

(4) Sumitra Mahajan

Answer: (4)

30. As per ‘Sukanya Samridhi Yojana’, the parents of girl children can open an account for a girl child up to the age of

(1) 5 years

(2) 10 years

(3) 15 years

(4) 18 years

Answer: (2)

31. Who among the following set up a radio transmitter called “The Voice of Freedom” to disseminate Gandhiji’s message during Quit India Movement ?

(1) Aruna Asaf Ali

(2) Usha Mehta

(3) Sarojini Naidu

(4) Annie Besant

Answer: (2)

32. Find out the correct sequence concerning various steps to conduct research effectively :

I. Developing hypothesis

II. Data analysis

III. Preparation of report

IV. Formulating research problem

Codes :

(1) III, II, I, IV

(2) I, II, III, IV

(3) II, IV, I, III

(4) IV, I, II, III

Answer: (4)

33. Which of the following International Conference was marked by a growth of networks linking women’s activism at the local and global levels ?

(1) Mexico City Conference

(2) Copenhagen Conference

(3) Nairobi Conference

(4) Beijing Conference

Answer: (4)

34. The 2016 Women Economic Forum (WEF) has been hosted by which of the following countries ?

(1) Brazil

(2) India

(3) South Africa

(4) Russia

Answer: (2)

35. Which of the following terminology is correct according to the “Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act”, 1986 ?

I. An “advertisement” include any notice, circular label, wrapper or other document.

II. “Distribution” includes distribution by way of material sold only.

III. An “advertisement” include any visible representation made by means of any light, sound, smoke or gas.

IV. “Package” includes a box, carton, tin or any container.

Codes :

(1) I,II, III and IV

(2) I, II and III

(3) I, II and IV

(4) I, III and IV

Answer: (4)

36. Which of the following is correct that during the ancient Olympic Games ?

(1) Only the married women could participate in or watch the games.

(2) Only unmarried women could watch the games.

(3) Women were not allowed to watch the games.

(4) Women with their husbands alone were allowed to watch the games.

Answer: (2)

37. Which research design aims at finding out the possibility of conducting research and formulation of hypothesis ?

(1) Diagnostic

(2) Descriptive

(3) Experimental

(4) Exploratory

Answer: (4)

38. Assertion (A) : Sexual harassment at work place is a personal problem of women. 

Reason (R) : Women keep silent about sexual harassment to protect the perpetrator.

Which of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (4)

39. In which year the Global Gender Gap Index was first introduced ?

(1) 2002

(2) 2004

(3) 2006

(4) 2007

Answer: (3)

40. Which of the following was a significant event in the bay Rights moment ?

(1) Seneca falls

(2) Stonewall Riots

(3) Declaration of Sentiments

(4) Beaumont Race Riots

Answer: (2)

41. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched ?

Answer: (2)

42. Which of the following is not a function of the National Commission for Women ?

(1) Advice on the planning process of socio economic development of women.

(2) Functions like a civil court.

(3) Examination of all matters related to safeguards provided for women under the constitution and other laws.

(4) Fund the litigation involving issues affecting a large body of women.

Answer: (2)

43. Arrange chronologically the Schemes/Acts according to the year of establishment :

I. Juvenile Justice Act

II. Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act

III. Integrated child protection scheme.

IV. The protection of children from sexual offences.

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, II, IV, III

(3) II, I, IV, III

(4) I, III, II, IV

Answer: (1)

44. Who has been named as the most powerful woman in technology on the Forbes’ 100 most powerful women list ?

(1) Indra Nooyi

(2) Sheryl Sandberg

(3) Chanda Kochhar

(4) Ginni Rometty

Answer: (2)

45. What does formation of an All India Group by the name of National Federation of Dalit Women Symbolize ?

I. Invisibility of Dalit Women.

II. Dalit Women’s perception of exclusion from the main stream.

III. Legal inequalities.

IV. Caste-based inequalities.

Codes :

(1) I, II, IV

(2) II, III, IV

(3) I, II, III, IV

(4) I, III, IV

Answer: (1)

46. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Match the List-I with List-II.

Answer: (1)

47. Which of the following schemes encourage parents to build a fund for the feature education and marriage expenses for their girl children.

(1) Kishori Samriddhi Yojana

(2) Janani Surakha Yojana

(3) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana

(4) Sabala Samriddhi Yojana

Answer: (3)

48. Who said that men’s relationship with nature was predatory from the beginning and in his lust for power, man establishes a similar relationship with women who seemed to be like nature ?

(1) Maria Mies

(2) Simon de Beauvoir

(3) Medha Patkar

(4) Robin Morgan

Answer: (1)

49. R.W. Connell’s theory of the gender hierarchy identifies many expressions of Femininity and Masculinity. Which one sets at the top of the hierarchy ?

(1) Complicit Masculinity

(2) Hegemonic Masculinity

(3) Emphasised Femininity

(4) Complicit Femininity

Answer: (3)

50. Which of the following is an approach/strategy for Women In Development (WID).

I. An approach which views women’s lack of participation of the problem.

II. Integrate women into existing structures.

III. Increase women’s ability to manage the household.

IV. Address unequal relations between women and men for equitable development.

Codes :

(1) I, II, III and IV are correct.

(2) I, II and IV are correct.

(3) I and II are correct.

(4) I, II and III are correct.

Answer: (4)

 

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Comparative Literature Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

COMPARATIVE LITERATURE

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which was “Melic” poetry for the Greeks ?

(1) The monodic

(2) The elegiac

(3) The choric

(4) The Pastoral

Answer: (1)

2. Who among the following are associated with the theorization of “Polysystem” ?

I. Itamar Evan – Zohar

II. Jonathan Culler

III. Paul Van Tieghem

IV. Jose Lambert

The right combination according to the code is

(1) I & III

(2) II & III

(3) I & IV

(4) III & IV

Answer: (3)

3. The German equivalent of the term, ‘thematology’ is _____.

(1) Gestalt

(2) Stoffgeschichte

(3) Wissenschaft

(4) Geistesgeschicht

Answer: (2)

4. The Sanskrit short poem was called

(1) Campu

(2) Rupaka

(3) Muktaka

(4) Nibaddha

Answer: (3)

5. The first novel in Odia is titled

(1) Chamana Aathaguntha

(2) Bibasini

(3) Padmamali

(4) Lachhama

Answer: (3)

6. Which of the following statements is true of Baroque and Mannerism ?

(1) They are proper designations for literary period styles.

(2) They are related only to German literature.

(3) They mean to vindicate Aristotle’s theories.

(4) They are not proper definitions.

Answer: (1)

7. In _______, an author suggests for an artistic purpose another literary work, or even the style of an entire period by a combination of style and materials.

(1) adaptation

(2) stylization

(3) creative treason

(4) parody

Answer: (2)

8. The first Malayalam novel to be adapted into film was

(1) T. Shivashankar Pillai’s Coir

(2) O. Chandu Menon’s Induleka

(3) Rajasekhara Pillai’s Marthandaverma

(4) Basheer’s My Grandfather had An Elephant

Answer: (3)

9. Who is the editor of the book Poisoned Bread : Translations from Modern Marathi Dalit literature ?

(1) Vilas Sarang

(2) Arjun Dangle

(3) Kiran Nagarkar

(4) Maya Pandit

Answer: (2)

10. Which of the following is not a contribution to the newly founded cultural studies field in England ?

(1) Uses of literacy

(2) Culture and Society

(3) Notes Toward a Definition of Culture

(4) The Long Revolution

Answer: (3)

11. Who makes the statement, “the period as a mode of classification, corresponds to the concept in philosophy, and to the class in natural science” ? 

(1) Rene Wellek

(2) R.M. Meyer

(3) Benedetto Croce

(4) Claudio Guillen

Answer: (2)

12. Grounds for Comparison was written by

(1) Rene Wellek

(2) H.M. Posnett

(3) Harry Levin

(4) Anna Balakian

Answer: (3)

13. Who is the author of Repossessing the World : Reading Memoirs by Contemporary Women ?

(1) Margaret Atwood

(2) Helen Buss

(3) Alice Munro

(4) Susanna Moodie

Answer: (2)

14. Who among the following is not one of Sharatchandra’s heroines ?

(1) Kiranmayi

(2) Achala

(3) Charulata

(4) Abhaya

Answer: (3)

15. The author of the book, The Myth of Sisyphus is

(1) Salvador Dali

(2) Albert Camus

(3) Andre Breton

(4) Max Jacob

Answer: (2)

16. The translation of the Tamil work Thiruvachakam done by G.V. Pope appeared in the year :

(1) 1910

(2) 1900

(3) 1890

(4) 1880

Answer: (2)

17. In Teesing’s view, generation is the spearhead of a/an

(1) Era

(2) Period

(3) Epoch

(4) Movement

Answer: (2)

18. Identify the novel where music plays an important role :

(1) The Magic Fountain

(2) Dr. Faustus

(3) Jane Eyre

(4) Scarlet and Black

Answer: (2)

19. The film version of Alice Walker’s novel The Colour Purple is directed by

(1) Steven Spillberg

(2) Woody Allen

(3) Francis Ford Coppola

(4) Quentin Tarantino

Answer: (1)

20. Horst Frenz in his essay on translation refers to the translation of Bhagavad Gita done by

(1) Friedrich Gundalf

(2) Swami Prabhavanananda and Christopher Isherwood

(3) G.V. Pope

(4) George Sampson

Answer: (2)

21. Who among the following talks about “The heresy of paraphrase” ?

(1) I.A. Richards

(2) T.S. Eliot

(3) William Empson

(4) Cleanth Brooks

Answer: (4)

22. Who is the author of Languages and Literatures of India ?

(1) Shishir Kumar Das

(2) Suniti Kumar Chatterjee

(3) Indra Nath Choudhari

(4) G.N. Devy

Answer: (2)

23. Tripuraneni Ramasamy’s work _______ in 4 cantos was an attack on the ancient puranas.

(1) Sutapuranam

(2) Kooni

(3) Kuppusamy Satakam

(4) Sambukavadha

Answer: (1)

24. Race is a problematical idea in cultural studies because

(1) it divides humanity into separate blocks.

(2) it creates cycles of violence and episodes of international terror.

(3) it is associated with biological discourses of intrinsic and inevitable superiority and subordination involving power, control and domination.

(4) it obstructs the realization of world peace by exacerbating the feelings of hate or hostility.

Answer: (3)

25. Who among the following underlines the difficulty of defining comparative literature, holding the field to be “fragmented and pluralistic” ?

(1) Henry Remak

(2) Paul Van Tieghem

(3) Oscar James Campbell

(4) Steven Totosy de Zepetnek

Answer: (4)

26. Paradise Lost shows an influence of

(1) Paganism

(2) Pre-Christian theology

(3) Christianity and the Renaissance

(4) Greek nihilism

Answer: (3)

27. Apart from reflecting on specific literary features Horace’s Ars Poetica touches upon

(1) Music

(2) Painting

(3) Sculpture

(4) Architecture

Answer: (1)

28. The Kavyamimansa that follows Dhvanyaloka is a work by

(1) Jagannatha

(2) Bhoja

(3) Rajasekhara

(4) Mahimabhatta

Answer: (3)

29. Getthold Ephraim Lessing in his classical essay. “Laocoon” observes that time is the element of _____ and pace the element of the _____.

(1) poetry, drama

(2) poetry, plastic arts

(3) prose, poetry

(4) novel, visual arts

Answer: (2)

30. Trousson calls the “Hundred Years War” a _____ but “Joan of Arc a” _____.

(1) Motif, Stoff

(2) Motif, subject

(3) Theme, subject

(4) Period, characters

Answer: (1)

31. _____ provides the materials or the basic part of materials for the plot of the work.

(1) Source

(2) Imitation

(3) Analogy

(4) Mannerism

Answer: (1)

32. Which of the following theorists objected to a study of thematology as it slights continuity and thus completeness ?

(1) Max Koch and Karl Goedeke

(2) Raymond Trousson and Georges Polti

(3) Goethe and Curtius

(4) Elizabeth Frenzel and Harry Levin

Answer: (1)

33. Identify the author of the book Literary Origins of Surrealism :

(1) Alois Hofman

(2) Anna Balakian

(3) H. Root

(4) Mark Spilka

Answer: (2)

34. In the case of _____ studies there can be no question of influence in proper sense, but only affinities.

(1) Source

(2) Imitation

(3) Parallel

(4) Genre

Answer: (3)

35. Gustav Flaubert’s Salammbô is a

(1) Bildungsroman

(2) Historical novel

(3) Diary novel

(4) Picaresque novel

Answer: (2)

36. Identify the work of the poet Tenali Ramakrishna :

(1) Mahaprastham

(2) Panduranga Mahatmyanmu

(3) Kappalu

(4) Yenki Paatalu

Answer: (2)

37. Baudelaire’s translation of _____ is an instance of translation by a poet.

(1) Robert Frost

(2) Edgar Allan Poe

(3) Rita Dove

(4) Emily Dickinson

Answer: (2)

38. Identify the author of the essay, “Contemporary cultural studies : An Approach to the study of Literature and Society.”

(1) Louis Althusser

(2) Terry Eagleton

(3) T.S. Eliot

(4) Richard Hoggart

Answer: (4)

39. Which of these statements is true ?

(1) Karukku is translated by Lakshmi Holmstrom.

(2) Karukku is translated by Ambai.

(3) Karukku is translated by Bama.

(4) Karukku is translated by Gayatri Spivak.

Answer: (1)

40. Which novel of Amitava Ghosh has become a “Key text for postcolonial eco-critics” ?

(1) Shadow Lines

(2) Sea of Poppies

(3) The Hungry Tide

(4) The Calcutta Chromosome

Answer: (3)

41. Who speaks of periodization as at once “notional” and “real” ?

(1) H.H. Remak

(2) Horst Frenz

(3) Ulrich Weisstein

(4) S.S. Prawer

Answer: (3)

42. Who among the following does not exert an influence on literary works ?

(1) Translators

(2) Reviewers

(3) Travellers

(4) Printers

Answer: (4)

43. Sethumadhavan’s “Velutha Koodarangal” is a _______.

(1) Short story

(2) Essay

(3) Poem

(4) Drama

Answer: (1)

44. Which report on professional standards recommends that comparative literature departments “actively recruit faculty from non-European literature departments and from allied disciplines” ?

(1) The Saussy report

(2) The Levin report

(3) The Bernheimer report

(4) The Greene report

Answer: (3)

45. Which of the following terms, as used by Aristotle, means a reversal ?

(1) Anagnorisis

(2) Nemesis

(3) Peripeteia

(4) Hamartia

Answer: (3)

46. After Bable is a book by

(1) Eugene Nida

(2) Maria Vargas Llosa

(3) George Steiner

(4) Jose Lambert

Answer: (3)

47. That the essential difference between two genres of literature, according to Weisstein, is observed by the presence of terms that are similarly spelt or pronounced is an instance of 

(1) Contamination

(2) Linguistic parallelism

(3) Voice Over

(4) Defamiliarization

Answer: (1)

48. A study of the Oedipal theme from the classical age to the present is an instance of

(1) Historical study

(2) Anachronic study

(3) Diachronic study

(4) Synchronic study

Answer: (3)

49. A study of the history of literatures of all nations regardless of their scope and aesthetic and historical significance would be called

(1) National Literature

(2) World Literature

(3) Regional Literature

(4) General Literature

Answer: (2)

50. Who among the following figures in the Lake school of poetry ?

(1) Keats

(2) Shelley

(3) Byron

(4) Wordsworth

Answer: (4)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Folk Literature Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

FOLK LITERATURE

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. The synchronic perspective is the study of expressive behaviour

(1) over a chronological time and space.

(2) at a point of time and space.

(3) over a period of time and space.

(4) at different points of time and space.

Answer: (2)

2. ‘Culture provided as a buffer against natural selection’ is the assumption of the followers of the school of thought of

(1) Devolutionists

(2) Diffusionists

(3) Evolutionists

(4) Functionalists

Answer: (3)

3. Who attempted to reconstruct the nature of the parent and sub-parent Indo-European languages and cultures using the tools of historical and comparative linguistics ?

(1) Prephologists

(2) Pragmatic Linguistics

(3) Semasiologists

(4) Philologists

Answer: (4)

4. The concept of ‘Urform’ in folk tale scholarship was proposed by

(1) Kaarle Krohn

(2) Vladimir Propp

(3) Wilhelm Grimm

(4) Theodor Benfey

Answer: (1)

5. Who stated ‘Folklore reveals man’s escape into fantasy from the conditions of his geographical environment and from his own biological limitations’ ?

(1) Sigmund Freud

(2) William Bascom

(3) Bronislaw Malinowski

(4) Franz Boas

Answer: (2)

6. The research method that facilitates validation of data through cross verification from two or more sources is known as

(1) Correlation method

(2) Modeling method

(3) Triangulation method

(4) Sampling method

Answer: (3)

7. The type of marriage in which the status of the wife was higher than that of the husband

(1) Hypergamy

(2) Hypogamy

(3) Endogamy

(4) Exogamy

Answer: (2)

8. Alan Dundes considers meta-folklore as a source for the study of

(1) Material culture

(2) Oral traditions

(3) Oral literary criticism

(4) Textual criticism

Answer: (3)

9. ‘Fixed phrase genres’ are also identified by

(1) Ethnic genres

(2) Verse genres

(3) Conversational genres

(4) Song genres

Answer: (3)

10. William Thomas introduced the term ‘folklore’ to replace the term

(1) Folk literature

(2) Popular antiquities

(3) Volkskunde

(4) Tradition

Answer: (2)

11. Ballad is a

(1) Story with religious context

(2) Song with dance

(3) Poetic tale

(4) Prose tale

Answer: (3)

12. Performer and audience relations is more closer in

(1) Religious performances

(2) Non-religious dance

(3) Ritualistic songs

(4) Non-ritualistic performances

Answer: (4)

13. Alan Dunde’s theory of motifeme developed in his work on ‘The Morphology of North American Indian folktales’ was influenced by the concepts of

I. Stith Thompson

II. Vladimir Propp

III. Kenneth Pike

IV. Sigmund Freud

Codes :

(1) III and IV are correct.

(2) II and IV are correct.

(3) II and III are correct.

(4) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (3)

14. According to Charles Sander Pierce’s semiotics, the ‘triadic model’ or three part model of the sign constitute

I. Representation

II. Object

III. Interpretant

IV. Significant

Codes :

(1) I, II and III are correct.

(2) I, II and IV are correct.

(3) II and III are correct.

(4) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (1)

15. Identify the scholars who opined that myths have explanatory and etiological functions :

I. Julius Krohn

II. William Bascom

III. Milman Parry

IV. Joseph Cambell

Codes :

(1) I and II are correct.

(2) II and III are correct.

(3) II and IV are correct

(4) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (3)

16. According to Roman Jakobson ‘aphasia’ i.e., impairment of the power to understand and to use speech is connected to two major disorders which are strikingly related to the two basic rhetorical figures :

I. Metaphor

II. Allegory

III. Hyperbole

IV. Metonymy

Codes :

(1) I and II are correct.

(2) II and III are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (4)

17. The Prague school contributed in bringing innovation to the development of linguistics and it is known for

I. Articulatory phonology

II. Functional phonology

III. Semiotic structuralism

IV. Syntagmatic structuralism

Codes :

(1) I and II are correct.

(2) II and III are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (2)

18. The spreading of people from one original country to other countries are commonly identified with the terms :

I. Asylum seekers

II. Immigrants

III. Commuters

IV. Descendants

Codes :

(1) I and II are correct.

(2) II and IV are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and III are correct.

Answer: (1)

19. The genre of folklore which follows a traditional pattern in metaphorical language for passionate expression of grief is called

I. Songs of Jubilation

II. Chants of Exorcism

III. Lamentations

IV. Songs of Mourning

Codes :

(1) II and III are correct.

(2) I and IV are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and III are correct.

Answer: (3)

20. In the structural analysis of fairy tales by propp, the number of major dramatis personae and the functions are fixed as

I. thirty two

II. thirty one

III. eight

IV. eleven

Codes :

(1) I and IV are correct.

(2) I and II are correct.

(3) I and III are correct.

(4) II and III are correct.

Answer: (4)

21. In folkloristics, the concept of ‘structure’ is an arrangement of entities which embodies the following fundamental ideas :

I. The idea of wholeness

II. The idea of hybridity

III. The idea of self-regulation

IV. The idea of non-automated

Codes :

(1) I and II are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) II and IV are correct.

(4) III and IV are correct.

Answer: (2)

22. Philosophy and moral precepts about how and why the universe came into being is the subject matter of

I. World view

II. Eschatology

III. Cosmology

IV. Geneology

Codes :

(1) I and IV are correct.

(2) I and II are correct.

(3) I and III are correct.

(4) II and III are correct.

Answer: (3)

23. Assertion (A) : A signifier is the concept that represents the sign.

Reason (R) : The ‘signified’ is the form which the sign takes.

Codes :

(1) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(2) (A) and (R) are false.

(3) (A) true and (R) is false.

(4) (A) and (R) are true.

Answer: (2)

24. Assertion (A) : Positivistic approaches are founded on a belief that the study of folklore should be conducted in the same way as studies conducted in the natural sciences.

Reason (R) : Human motivation is shaped by factors that are not always observable such as inner thought processes and a detached approach to research in folklore is not desirable.

Codes :

(1) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(2) (A) and (R) are false.

(3) (A) is true and (R) is not correct explanation.

(4) (A) and (R) are true.

Answer: (4)

25. Assertion (A) : In folk religion, ‘Revenant’ is a home-wanderer, a deceased person believed to appear to the people of his or her own community after death.

Reason (R) : People usually express their encounters with revenants in memorates and legends as folklore.

Codes :

(1) (A) is true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(2) (A) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation.

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (1)

26. Assertion (A) : Public folklore is the application of folk traditions in new contours and contexts within and beyond the communities in which they originated.  

Reason (R) : The academic programmes in folklore and folklore do not provide public sector experience or reflection as a formal part of their curricula. 

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(3) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(4) (A) is true and (R) is false.

Answer: (2)

27. Assertion (A) : ‘Tradition’ has the connotation of the past but inseparable from the present while being in practice.

Reason (R) : Construction of social conflict is one of the functions of ‘Tradition’.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (3)

28. Assertion (A) : The distinctive folklore that are learned, transmitted and performed by children on their own is termed as children’s folklore.

Reason (R) : Researchers do not regard those materials that adults teach to children as children’s folklore.

Codes :

(1) (A) is false and (R) is not correct explanation.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation.

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

Answer: (4)

29. Assertion (A) : The concept of ‘bricolage’ refers to the rearrangement and juxtaposition of previously unconnected signifying objects to produce new meanings. 

Reason (R) : Levi-Strauss deployed bricolage method to interpret myths of the primitives.

Codes :

(1) (A) is false and (R) is not correct explanation.

(2) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (2)

30. Assertion (A) : Richard Dorson coined the term folklore and ideological manipulation of folklore as its emergent factor.

Reason (R) : Under globalisation, given the pervasive of consumer culture, the concept of “Folklore” is eventually loosing its connotation.

Codes :

(1) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(2) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true.

Answer: (All)

31. Identify the correct group of concepts associated with the theory of performance.

(1) Ethno aesthetics, Stereotype, Ethnography of Art, Theatre Analogy

(2) Ethno poetics, Stimulus and responses, Ethnography of music, Ritual Analogy

(3) Ethno poetics, Verbal art, Ethnography of speaking, Drama Analogy

(4) Ethno poetics, Invented tradition, Ethnography of Listening, Game Analogy

Answer: (3)

32. Identify the correct group of scholars associated with the theory of oral composition.

(1) Albert B. Lord, Milman Parry, Roger Abrahams, Edmund Leach, John Miles Foley

(2) Albert B. Lord, Milman Parry, Roman Jakobson, C.M. Bowra, John Miles Foley

(3) Albert B. Lord, Milman Parry, Linda Degh, Edmund Leach, Bruce Jackson

(4) Albert B. Lord, Milman Parry, C.M. Bowra, Kenneth Goldstein, John Miles Foley

Answer: (2)

33. Sequence of the speech Acts – Asserting, commanding, repudiating and commending with the following meaning :

I. Authoritatively expressive

II. Suitable for approval

III. Refuse to accept

IV. Confident articulation

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, IV, III, I

(3) IV, I, III, II

(4) IV, II, III, I

Answer: (3)

34. Sequence the scholars – Roger Abrahams, Felix Oinas, Y. Sokolov and Simon Bronner with their Books below :

I. African Folktales

II. American Children’s Folklore

III. Folklore and Politics in the Soviet Union

IV. Russian Folklore

Codes :

(1) I, III, II, IV

(2) I, III, IV, II

(3) II, IV, III, I

(4) IV, II, III, I

Answer: (2)

35. Sequence the folklore terms – Syntagmatic, Formula, Motifeme, Cantometrics with the following meaning :

I. Unit of PhraseologyII.

Units of Measurement of song

III. Abstract Units of actions

IV. Linear Linguistic units

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, IV, III, II

(3) IV, I, III, II

(4) IV, II, III, I

Answer: (3)

36. Identify the correct group of concepts associated with Mikhail Bakthin.

(1) Hegemony, Circuit of Culture, Anti-essentialism, Hybridity

(2) Chronotope, Polyphony, Heteroglossia, Dialogism

(3) Commodification, Hyperreality, Monologism, Simulacrum

(4) Deconstruction, Polysemy, Polyglossic, Narrative Identity

Answer: (2)

37. Identify the profounder of the concepts – Derrida, Foucault, Ricoeur and Barthes in the order of sequence :

I. Iterability

II. Studium and Punctum meaning

III. Panopticism

IV. Symbolism of Evil

Codes :

(1) I, III, II, IV

(2) IV, III, II, I

(3) I, III, IV, II

(4) IV, II, III, I

Answer: (3)

38. Sequence the Literary devices used in Ballad tradition – Rhetoric, Refrain, Rhapsodoi and Retraction – with the following meaning : 

I. Regular repeated lines

II. To pull back

III. Homeric wandering poet – singers

IV. Persuasive argument

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, IV, III, I

(3) IV, II, III, I

(4) IV, I, III, II

Answer: (4)

39. Sequence the meaning of – Axiology, Gerontology, Theomantia and Eschatology – used in performance studies

I. Philosophy of values

II. Study of End things

III. Art of Oracle

IV. Study of Aging

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, IV, III, II

(3) IV, I, III, II

(4) IV, II, III, I

Answer: (2)

40. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(1) Lauri Honko – Folkore Process

(2) Alan Dundes – Allomotifs

(3) Raymond Firth – Narrative and Identity

(4) Levi Strauss – Culinary practices

Answer: (3)

41. Match the following :

Answer: (3)

42. Match the following :

Answer: (2)

43. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

44. Match the following :

Answer: (3)

45. Match the following :

Answer: (2)

46. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

47. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

Answer: (2)

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on the passage (48-50)

There are only two basic steps in the study of folklore in literature and in culture. The first step is objective and empirical; the second is subjective and speculative. The first might be termed identification and the second interpretation. Identification essentially consists of a search for similarities; interpretation depends upon the delineation of differences. The first task in studying an item is to show how it is like previously reported items, whereas the second is to show how it differs from previously reported items-and, hopefully, why it differs.

Professional folklorists who are usually skilled in the mechanics of identification are apt to criticize literary critics and cultural anthropologists for failing to properly identify folkloristic materials before commenting upon their use. And folklorists are quite right to do so. Naïve analyses can result from inadequate or inaccurate identification. Plots of traditional tale types might be falsely attributed to individual writers; European themes in a European tale told by American Indians might be mistakenly considered to be aboriginal elements. However, folklorists themselves might be criticized for doing no more than identifying.

48. Inaccurate identification of folklore can emerge due to

(1) Naïve interpretation

(2) Non-objective identification

(3) Unsophisticated analysis

(4) Delineating speculations

Answer: (3)

49. The basic steps in the study of folklore in literature involve :

I. Objective empiricism

II. Search for similarities

III. Delineation of differences

IV. Objective interpretation

Codes :

(1) I and II are correct.

(2) III and IV are correct.

(3) I and III are correct.

(4) II and III are correct.

Answer: (4)

50. The critique of skilled folklorists on cultural anthropologists is mainly due to

(1) erroneous linkage of the authors

(2) inapt identification of folklore material

(3) mistaken consideration of aboriginal elements

(4) inadequate proof of evidence for folk themes

Answer: (2)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Tribal and Regional Languages/Literature Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

TRIBAL & REGIONAL LANGUAGES/LITERATURE

Paper – II 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

Read the passage carefully and answer Question 1 to 5 :

I have committed many mistakes in my life, but mark you, I am sure of this that without everyone of those mistakes I should not be what I am today and so am quite satisfied to have made them. I do not mean that you are to wilfully commit mistakes, do not misunderstand me in that way. But do not mope because of the mistakes you have committed and sit idle. On the other hand think positive and take it for sure that the end would be good.

1. What would be an appropriate title for the passage ?

(1) My Life

(2) Correction of the wrong

(3) Hard work

(4) Character Building

Answer: (1)

2. What lesson a person gets by the mistakes he commits in his life ?

(1) To improve

(2) To sit idle

(3) To stay happy with life

(4) The end fruit will be sweet.

Answer: (1)

3. In the light of the passage given above, which message should be taken ?

(1) Life construction

(2) Character Building

(3) Fresh start

(4) Rethinking

Answer: (1)

4. ‘The end would be good’. What is the essence of this sentence ?

(1) To be satisfied with life

(2) To sit idle

(3) Improvement in life

(4) Occurrence of mistakes

Answer: (1)

5. The correction of mistakes of life is

(1) Correction is very difficult.

(2) Correction is easy.

(3) Correction is essential.

(4) Correction is not essential.

Answer: (3)

6. How many tribes were scheduled in 2003 in Jharkhand in the list of Scheduled Tribe ?

(1) 4

(2) 3

(3) 5

(4) 2

Answer: (4)

7. Who is the author of the book – ‘The Customs and Religion of Oraon’s’ ?

(1) E.T. Dalton

(2) P.O. Bodding

(3) H.H. Risley

(4) S.C. Rai

Answer: (4)

8. Which one among the following tribes is in the most primitive state ?

(1) Onge

(2) Jarwa

(3) Khasi

(4) Birhore

Answer: (2)

9. ‘Pahadiyas’ belong to which of the following races ?

(1) Tibbetan – Burmese

(2) Austro – Asiatic

(3) Dravid

(4) Mangole

Answer: (3)

10. Ethnology is related to which discipline

(1) Anthropology

(2) Psychology

(3) Social Science

(4) Linguistics

Answer: (1)

11. Which among the following is counted in both the streams – Tribes and Sadan ?

(1) Chero-Kharvar

(2) Mahali-Lohara

(3) Asur-Korva

(4) Birhore-Birjia

Answer: (2)

12. Which among the following is the most developed tribe of India ?

(1) Bheel

(2) Naga

(3) Santhal

(4) Meena

Answer: (4)

13. Which script is being developed for ‘Kurukh’ language ?

(1) Ole Chiki

(2) Varang Kshiti

(3) Tolong Siki

(4) Jhar Lipi

Answer: (3)

14. Who among the following is not a supporter of ‘Music Theory’ ?

(1) Max Muller

(2) Darwin

(3) Spencer

(4) Jespersen

Answer: (1)

15. Match List – I with List – II. Use the code given below for right answer :

Answer: (2)

16. ‘The act of presenting an equivalent message from the original language into the target language is called translation.’ Who has said the above ?

(1) Naeda and Tever

(2) Pattanayak

(3) Catford

(4) Newmark

Answer: (1)

17. The nine languages of Jharkhand have been divided into how many language families ?

(1) 04

(2) 05

(3) 02

(4) 03

Answer: (4)

18. Which State is accepted English as it’s state language ?

(1) Tripura

(2) Nagaland

(3) Sikkim

(4) Assam

Answer: (2)

19. Ranchi University was founded on

(1) 12th August, 1962

(2) 11th June, 1961

(3) 12th July, 1960

(4) 10th July, 1960

Answer: (3)

20. Dr. Camil Bulcke worked on ‘Ramkatha : Utpatti Aur Vikas’ for his doctoral thesis.

(1) True

(2) False

(3) Doubtful

(4) Partially true

Answer: (1)

21. ‘Dekhan Mein Chhotan Lage, Ghav Kare Gambheer’ – has been said for which of the following poets ?

(1) Kabir

(2) Rahim

(3) Ghananand

(4) Bihari

Answer: (4)

22. Who’s articles have been compiled in the book ‘Nakhoon Kyon Badhate Hain ?’

(1) Mohan Rakesh

(2) Ram Chandra Shukla

(3) Hazari Prasad Dwivedi

(4) Harishankar Parsai

Answer: (3)

23. The tradition of worshipping God by impersonification of nature is the speciality of

(1) Indian Poets

(2) Indian Drama Writers

(3) Indian Novelists

(4) Indian Story Writers

Answer: (1)

24. Who among the following is a Mundari specialist ?

(1) P.O. Bodding

(2) Father Hoffman

(3) H.S. Biligree

(4) Frank Sidwick

Answer: (2)

25. The magazine ‘Sarna Phool’ is brought out which occasion ?

(1) Holi-Diwali

(2) Magh-Devthan

(3) Manda-Jatra

(4) Karma-Sarhul

Answer: (4)

26. What is the name of the book written by B.P. Keshari ?

(1) Sato Nadi Paar

(2) Jhoomar Sangeet

(3) Nagpuri Kavi Aur Unke Kavya

(4) Vivah Geet

Answer: (3)

27. Which magazine has brought out an special issue on Dr. Ram Dayal Munda ?

(1) Dahar

(2) Rumbul

(3) Spat Bharti

(4) All the three

Answer: (4)

28. The magazine ‘Titaki’ is published in which of the following languages ?

(1) Khortha

(2) Nagpuri

(3) Kurmāli

(4) Panchpargania

Answer: (1)

29. Match List – I with List – II. Use the code given below for right answer :

Answer: (2)

30. Which of the following pairs is a correct one ?

(1) Chir – Purana
     Cheer – Vastra

(2) Pāni – Jal
     Pani – Pair

(3) Bahan – Bahna
      Vahan – Dhona

(4) Giree – Gir Jana
      Giri – Nadi

Answer: (1)


31. Which Rasā has been called Rasa rāj ?

(1) Shant

(2) Karuna

(3) Veer

(4) Shringar

Answer: (4)

32. ‘Shabdartho Sahito Kavyam’ – who among the following has defined Kavya as above ?

(1) Anand Varddhan

(2) Acharya Mammat

(3) Acharya Bhamah

(4) Kuntak

Answer: (3)

33. ‘Tarani Tanuja Tat Tamal Taruvar Bahu Chhaye’ is an example of which Alankara ?

(1) Rupak

(2) Anupras

(3) Shlesh

(4) Yamak

Answer: (2)

34. Match List – I with List – II. Use the code given below for right answer :

Answer: (1)

35. Among the two statements given below, one is called Assertion (A) and the other one is Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : First of all a man learns his behaviour and gets concepts at his home.

Reason (R) : Because family is his first school.

Use the code for right answer :

Codes :

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) (A) and (R) both are false.

(4) (A) and (R) both are true.

Answer: (4)

36. The Hindi translation ‘Poornaprakash Chandraprabha’ of a Marathi Novel has been done by

(1) Pratap Narayan Mishra

(2) Bhartendu Harishchandra

(3) Dharmaveer Bharti

(4) Mohan Rakesh

Answer: (2)

37. ‘Ram Charit Manas’ has been composed mainly in which of the following Chhandas ?

(1) Kavitta – Sawaiya

(2) Sortha – Chhappaya

(3) Doha – Chaupai

(4) B·arve – Harigiteeka

Answer: (3)

38. ‘Kamayani’ is a great book by

(1) Prasad

(2) Mahadevi

(3) Nirala

(4) Pant

Answer: (1)

39. Who has written the short story ‘Poos Ki Raāt’ ?

(1) Sudarshan

(2) Premchand

(3) Yashpal

(4) Jayshankar Prasad

Answer: (2)

40. The language of Kabir was

(1) Brajbhasha

(2) Apbhransha

(3) Awadhi

(4) Sadhukkadi

Answer: (4)

41. Match List – I with List – II. Use the code given below for right answer :

Answer: (1)

42. Bauddha Dharma spread to eastern India in which of the distorted forms ?

(1) Jain Sampradaya

(2) Siddha Sampradaya

(3) Vajrayān Sampradaya

(4) Vaishnav Sampradaya

Answer: (3)

43. According to Hindi grammar the total number of Devnagari consonants is

(1) 33

(2) 37

(3) 35

(4) 43

Answer: (1)

44. Phoole Kāl Sakal Mahi Chhaie …

Janu Barsa Ritu Prakat Budhai ……

The above given lines of Tulsidas are an example of which Alankar ?

(1) Upama

(2) Utpreksha

(3) Rupak

(4) Atishayokti

Answer: (2)

45. Among the two statements given below one is called Assertion (A) and the other one is Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The word ‘Kahani’ has been derived from the art of storytelling.

Reason (R) : Because the purpose is to narrate the event from beginning to end.

Use the code for right answer :

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both are true.

(2) (A) and (R) both are false.

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: (3)

46. ‘Tu Roop Hai Kiran Mein

Saundarya Hai Suman Mein

Tu Prana Hai Pawan Mein

Vistār Hai Gagan Mein’.

This is an example of which Alankara ?

(1) Utpreksha

(2) Virodhabhas

(3) Atishayokti

(4) Ullekh

Answer: (4)

47. According to Chhanda Shashtra the number of main types of Chhandas are

(1) Two

(2) Four

(3) Three

(4) Five

Answer: (1)

48. Who was the author of the famous novel ‘Jhootha Sach’ ?

(1) Prem Chand

(2) Yashpal

(3) Jai Shankar Prasad

(4) Jainendra Kumar

Answer: (2)

49. ‘Aadi Ramayana’ is a work by

(1) Kamban

(2) Kirtivasa

(3) Valmiki

(4) Camil Bulcke

Answer: (3)

50. Shravan Kumar was killed by who’s arrow ?

(1) Ravana

(2) Meghnath

(3) Rām

(4) Dashrath

Answer: (4)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Criminology Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

CRIMINOLOGY

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. How many subjects were there in the study, ‘The English Convict’, by Charles Goring ?

(1) 3000 English Convicts

(2) 4000 Italian Convicts

(3) 5000 American Convicts

(4) 7000 German Convicts

Answer: (1)

2. Indicate using the codes, who among the following one linked to white collar crimes ?

I. Politicians

II. Professionals

III. Office WorkersIV. P

eople with Social Status

Codes :

(1) I is true

(2) II & III are true

(3) II and IV are true

(4) I and III are true

Answer: (3)

3. Which radical criminology view is primarily concerned with restorative justice for communities, victims and offenders ?

(1) Conflict theory

(2) Left realism perspective

(3) Abolitionist criminology

(4) Peace-making criminology

Answer: (4)

4. The physiological or medical removal of toxic substances from a human body is called

(1) Rejuvenation

(2) Retoxification

(3) Detoxification

(4) Restoration

Answer: (3)

5. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Worm – Cyber crime

(2) Insurgency – Tamil Nadu

(3) White collar crime – Professionals

(4) Cannot contest election – Convicted person

Answer: (2)

6. Indicate, using the codes given below, which among the following is linked to cyber crimes ?

I. Worms

II. Virus

III. Foreign exchange

IV. Denial of service

Codes :

(1) I & II are correct

(2) II and III are correct

(3) I, II and III are correct

(4) I, II and IV are correct

Answer: (4)

7. Which of the following practical issues should be considered before doing the criminological research ?

I. Access to information

II. Cost of Research

III. Time required to do research

IV. The availability of the information

Codes :

(1) I, II, III and IV are correct

(2) II, I, III and IV are correct

(3) III, II, I and IV are correct

(4) I, III, II and IV are correct

Answer: (All)

8. Who among the following opined the view that “society is organic body and crime is the disease” ?

(1) Goddard

(2) Sheldon

(3) Kretchmer

(4) Garofalo

Answer: (4)

9. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with that “confession by accused while in custody of police cannot be proved against him ?

(1) Section 26

(2) Section 21

(3) Section 23

(4) Section 22

Answer: (1)

10. Which section defines the ‘Juvenile’ in Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act 2015 ?

(1) Section 2(10)

(2) Section 2(15)

(3) Section 2(25)

(4) Section 2(35)

Answer: (4)

11. How would you classify ‘desertion’ by a husband from his family ?

(1) Violation of contract

(2) Social problem

(3) Crime

(4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

12. Assertion (A) : Differential Reinforcement theory is an attempt to explain crime as a type of learned behavior.

Reason (R) : A number of learning processes shape behavior and direct conditioning occurs when behavior is reinforced by being either rewarded or punished while interacting with others.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

13. Assertion (A) : Crime is considered to be a function of free will and personal choice. Punishment on the other hand, is a deterrent to crime.

Reason (R) : Crime is seen as a function of upbringing, learning, and control Peers, parents and teachers influence behaviour.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

14. Assertion (A) : The combination of cooperative surveillance and willingness to intervene has been called protective neighbouring.

Reason (R) : Protective neighbouring seems to be more common among people with higher incomes, among long term residents and among home owners.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

15. Assertion (A) : Punishment is the defining characteristic of crime and other characteristics such as social harm are corollaries rather than defining traits.

Reason (R) : The law requires a causal connection among criminal intent, criminal conduct and harm to prove the guilty mind then determine the suitable punishment.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

16. The term ‘Status Offence’ is related to

(1) Political Crime

(2) White Collar Crime

(3) Economic Offences

(4) Juvenile Delinquency

Answer: (1, 2, 3)

17. Who among the following is the proponent of “Differential Identification Theory” ?

(1) Simon Dinitz

(2) Paul Tappan

(3) Robert Agnew

(4) Daniel Glacer

Answer: (4)

18. There has been an “Institutionalised racism” against Afro-Americans and hence there is a discriminatory approach by police. Whose view is this ?

(1) Feminist Criminologists

(2) Environmental Criminologists

(3) Positive Criminologists

(4) Critical Criminologists

Answer: (4)

19. How many Central Jails are there in India ?

(1) Between 110 to 120

(2) Between 121 to 130

(3) Between 131 to 140

(4) Between 141 to 150

Answer: (3)

20. A tentative explanation based on theory to predict a causal relationship between two or more variables is called

(1) Reliability

(2) Framework

(3) Internal validity

(4) Hypothesis

Answer: (4)

21. The most frequented score in a statistical distribution is called

(1) Reliability

(2) Dispersion

(3) Mode

(4) Mean

Answer: (3)

22. The collection of information from all units in a defined universe is called

(1) Ceiling

(2) Sample

(3) Census

(4) Case study

Answer: (3)

23. In case of information relating to the cognizable offence, it shall be reduced to writing under section :

(1) 154 of Cr. P.C.

(2) 165 of Cr. P.C.

(3) 149 of Cr. P.C.

(4) 150 of Cr. P.C.

Answer: (1)

24. Which statistical measure indicates the degree to which two or more variables are related with each other ?

(1) Standard Deviation

(2) Correlation coefficient

(3) Central tendency

(4) Discriminant Analysis

Answer: (2)

25. Crimes such as robbery, dacoity, murder and rape are considered as :

(1) Actus delicti

(2) Mala in se

(3) Mala prohibitum

(4) All the above

Answer: (2)

26. During prosecution in a court of law in India the benefit of doubt goes in favour of :

(1) Victim

(2) Prosecutor

(3) Accused

(4) Complainant

Answer: (3)

27. Match List – I with List – II, using the codes given below :

Answer: (1)

28. Which among the following is not a “Graphic representation” ?

(1) Pie Chart

(2) Tables

(3) Bar Chart

(4) Histogram

Answer: (2)

29. Which among the following are offence against human body ?

(1) Culpable Homicide

(2) Murder

(3) Dowry death

(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

30. Who has indicated a correlation between crime and heredity ?

(1) Cesare Beccaria

(2) Enrico Ferri

(3) Cessare Lombroso

(4) Charles Goring

Answer: (3)

31. Who has propounded Social Bonding theory ?

(1) Cessare Lombroso

(2) Walter Reckless

(3) Travis Hirshi

(4) Howard Becker

Answer: (3)

32. Who propounded Institutional Anomic theory ?

(1) Harold E. Pepinsky and Richard Quinney

(2) Sutherland and Cressey

(3) Shaw and Mckay

(4) Messner and Rosenfeld

Answer: (4)

33. Which sampling is best to study habitual drug users ?

(1) Simple Random Sampling

(2) Snow-ball Sampling

(3) Cluster Sampling

(4) Stratified Random Sampling

Answer: (2)

34. Who has introduced the concept of ‘Criminal Saturation’ ?

(1) W. Bonger

(2) R. Garofalo

(3) E. Ferri

(4) G. Tarde

Answer: (3)

35. The idea that humans have mental conflicts because of desires and urges are repressed into the unconscious is propounded by

(1) Henry Goddard

(2) Eysenck

(3) Sigmund Freud

(4) Bandura

Answer: (3)

36. In the process of conducting research “Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

(1) Selection of Research tools

(2) Statement of objectives

(3) Collection of Data

(4) Analysis of Data

Answer: (1)

37. According to The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act (JJ Act) how many woman social workers should be there in Juvenile Justice Board ?

(1) Atleast one

(2) Atleast two

(3) Atleast three

(4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

38. Assertion (A) : Information in regards to a cognizable offence is recorded as an FIR.

Reason (R) : Information with regards to non-cognizable offence is filed as Daily Diary Report. (DDR).

(1) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(2) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

39. Who is competent to grant prisoners admission to open-air jail ?

(1) Police

(2) Judiciary

(3) Jail Authorities

(4) Probation Officer

Answer: (3)

40. Criminal victimization survey in the USA highlights

(1) Reported crimes

(2) Hidden crimes

(3) Victimless crimes

(4) All the above

Answer: (4)

41. ‘Victim Precipitation Theory’ was propounded by

(1) Marvin Wolfgang

(2) Benjamin Mendelsohn

(3) Ronni Netal

(4) Walter Reckless

Answer: (2)

42. ‘Mala-in-se’ means

(1) Insistent wrong

(2) Inherent wrong

(3) Immediate wrong

(4) Indebted wrong

Answer: (2)

43. In Ramamurthy v/s State of Karnataka the Supreme Court of India has given direction for

(1) Juvenile Justice Reforms

(2) Prison Reforms

(3) Judicial Reforms

(4) Police Reforms

Answer: (2)

44. Dealing with victim’s needs, assistance and participation is called

(1) Victim Advocacy

(2) Offender Advocacy

(3) Elders Advocacy

(4) Political Advocacy

Answer: (1)

45. After Independence, welfare state constituted jail reform committees to improve the jail conditions. Indicate the committees constituted chronologically.

I. Justice Krishna Iyer Committee on women prisoners.

II. Dr. W.C. Reckless Committee prison administration in India.

III. All India Jail Manual Committee.

IV. All India Committee on Jail Reform (Mulla Committee)

Codes :

(1) IV, III, II, and I are correct

(2) II, III, IV and I are correct

(3) I, II, III and IV are correct

(4) IV, I, II and III are correct

Answer: (2)

Read the following passage and answer the questions 46 to 50 :
Fear can contribute to crime by undermining community solidarity and weakening informal social control. Fear is not always rationally related to the actual risk of victimization. It causes people to stay at home, restrict their travel and spend money on measures which will protect them from crime. By reducing interpersonal trust, fear can diminish the informal control of behaviour in a community. Informal control of crime is most effective when interaction is common. Those conditions are more common in small towns than in large cities.

46. In your opinion this paragraph speaks about :

(1) Crime prevention

(2) Defensible space

(3) Fear of crime

(4) Housing plans

Answer: (3)

47. What effect does Fear, have on community solidarity ?

(1) Increasing effect

(2) Minimum effect

(3) Routine effect

(4) No effect

Answer: (2)

48. According to the above paragraph, how is fear related to crimes ?

(1) Positively related

(2) Negatively related

(3) Always related

(4) Not related at all

Answer: (4)

49. What causes people to stay at home ?

(1) Fear of solidarity

(2) Fear of spending money

(3) Fear of travel

(4) Fear of crime

Answer: (4)

50. Fear has an inverse relationship with

(1) Interpersonal trust

(2) Crime rates

(3) Victimization rates

(4) Increasing informal control

Answer: (1)

 

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Archaeology Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

ARCHAEOLOGY

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. The longest part of the human past is

(1) Stone Age

(2) Bronze Age

(3) Iron Age

(4) Chalcolithic Age

Answer: (1)

2. Bhimbetka, one of the most magnificent rock art sites in the world, was discovered by

(1) H.D. Sankalia

(2) V.N. Misra

(3) V.S. Wakankar

(4) G.R. Hunter

Answer: (3)

3. Australopithecus anamensis was discovered by which of the following ?

(1) L.B.S. Leakey

(2) Richard Leakey

(3) Meave Leakey

(4) Donald Johnson

Answer: (3)

4. Yediapur is a primary context site of

(1) Lower Palaeolithic

(2) Middle Palaeolithic

(3) Upper Palaeolithic

(4) Mesolithic

Answer: (1)

5. The bone figurine was recovered in upper Palaeolithic period from which of the following regions ?

(1) Sohan Valley

(2) Son Valley

(3) Belan Valley

(4) Mahanadi Valley

Answer: (3)

6. Which of the following Harappan sites has produced a well ?

(1) Kunal

(2) Farmana

(3) Lohat

(4) Banawali

Answer: (4)

7. Which of the following Harappan sites has produced burials ?

(1) Balu

(2) Banawali

(3) Rakhigarhi

(4) Baroor

Answer: (3)

8. The famous Ajanta painting of ‘Mother and Child’ is depicted in which cave ?

(1) No. 1

(2) No. 9

(3) No. 16

(4) No. 17

Answer: (4)

9. It is evident from archaeological remains that the earliest solid stupa made of bricks from base to the top was built at

(1) Amaravati

(2) Bhattiprolu

(3) Ghantasala

(4) Jaggayapeta

Answer: (2)

10. Who among the following was issuer of Karthikeya type gold coins ?

(1) Chandragupta II

(2) Kujula Kadphises

(3) Kumaragupta I

(4) Chandragupta I

Answer: (3)

11. Which of the following sites has revealed the Black and Red Ware for the first time in Neolithic context ?

(1) Chirand

(2) Martand

(3) Kuchai

(4) Daojali Hading

Answer: (1)

12. Which of the following sites has yielded a terracotta plaque depicting a child writing alphabet ?

(1) Atranjikhera

(2) Sugh

(3) Thanesar

(4) Sannati

Answer: (2)

13. Which of the following is the characterizing symbol of the Chola coins ?

(1) Garuda lanchhan

(2) Singha lanchhan

(3) Varaha lanchhan

(4) Vyaghra lanchhan

Answer: (4)

14. Northern Black Polished ware was found for the first time from which of the following sites ?

(1) Bhir Mound Taxila

(2) Hastinapur

(3) Kausambi

(4) Rajaghat

Answer: (1)

15. Depictions at Bhimbetka rock shelters include

a. Elephants

b. Rhinoceros

c. Wild Buffalo

d. Snakes

Codes :

(1) a, b, c

(2) b, c, d

(3) a, c, d

(4) a, b, c, d

Answer: (1)

16. The Neolithic sites of Andhra Pradesh are

a. Hallur

b. Brahmgiri

c. Veerapuram

d. Kesarpalli

Codes :

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) c and d

(4) a and d

Answer: (3)

17. In Africa, pre-Acheulian industries are associated with which of the following homonid remains ?

a. Australopithecines

b. Homo habilis

c. Homo erectus

d. Homo sapians

Codes :

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) a and d

(4) c and d

Answer: (1)

18. Which of the following sites are located in Odisha ?

a. Karur

b. Kuchai

c. Ollaiyur

d. Baidyapur

Codes :

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) b and d

(4) c and d

Answer: (3)

19. Which of the following sites are located on the left bank of the Indus river ?

a. Kile Ghul Muhammad

b. Kot Diji

c. Sanaikhola

d. Chanhudaro

Codes :

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) c and d

(4) d and a

Answer: (2)

20. Which of the following inscriptions refer to Vaisnavism ?

a. Poona Copper Plate Inscription

b. Besnagar Pillar Inscription

c. Hathi Gumpha Inscription

d. Junagarh Inscription of Skandagupta

Codes :

(1) a and c

(2) b and d

(3) b and c

(4) c and d

Answer: (2)

21. Who among the following notable Sanskrit authors were Panegyrists also ?

a. Bharavi

b. Harishena

c. Kubja

d. Vatsabhatti

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(1) a, b and c

(2) b, c and d

(3) a and d only

(4) c and d only

Answer: (2)

22. The dance poses (Karanas) described in the Natyasastra are depicted in which of the following temples ?

a. Brihadishwara temple

b. Chidambaram temple

c. Kailasanatha temple Kanchipuram

d. Narttamalai temple

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) a and b

(4) c and d

Answer: (3)

23. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : Our knowledge of the dwellings and material culture of the Mesolithic people is very limit.

Reason (R) : Items made of organic material hardly survive.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.

Answer: (1)

24. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : There is no unanimity about horse remains from Harappan levels.

Reason (R) : With wild onager still thriving in the region, it is difficult to distinguish it from the horse.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (R).

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.

Answer: (1)

25. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : Robert Bruce Foote was a geologist of the Geological Survey of India.

Reason (R) : He found a handaxe in a gravel pit at Pallavarm in outskirts of Chennai.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is incorrect explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (2)

26. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : Hakraware was discovered from stratified deposits in Bahawalpur region.

Reason (R) : This region was the epicentre of the beginning of Harappan civilization.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is incorrect explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (2)

27. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : The Harappa civilization originated from the early Harappa Culture.

Reason (R) : Several settlements have produced remains of both the phases.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is the incorrect explanation of (A).

Answer: (1)

28. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : The Northern Black Polished ware is frequently available from settlements in the Indo-Gangetic divide.

Reason (R) : The technique to produce this ware was known in this region.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is the incorrect explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(3) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (3)

29. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : Indian inscriptions engraved into stone or other durable materials are an important historical source.

Reason (R) : They also document the development and use of the written language in India.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is incorrect explanation of (A).

Answer: (4)

30. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : Archaeological evidence shows that Buddhism was still lingering in North India in the 12th Century A.D.

Reason (R) : The images of Buddhist gods and goddesses of the Tantric school have been excavated in large numbers at places like Kausambi and Mathura.

In the conext of the above, which of the following is correct ? 

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

31. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : The obverse and reverse of the coins of Indo-Greek king Agathocles bear the images of male figures, Krishna and Balarama.

Reason (R) : This indicates that they were important enough to receive royal recognition.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(3) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Answer: (2)

32. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : The main factor for the rise of Cities in Magadha was wide scale use of iron.

Reason (R) : Because the wide scale use of iron led to surplus production.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and explanation of (R) to (A) is also correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (1)

33. Arrange in correct order the four-phase evolutionary sequence of microlithic :

a. Diminutive microlithic industry with pottery.

b. Geometric microlithic industry.

c. Non-geometric microlithic industry.

d. Geometric microlithic industry with pottery.

Codes :

(1) a, b, c, d

(2) d, c, b, a

(3) c, b, d, a

(4) b, c, a, d

Answer: (3)

34. Arrange the geological formations of Narmada valley in chronological order :

a. Devakachar formation

b. Jhalon formation

c. Shobpur formation

d. Narsinghpur formation

Codes :
(1) a, b, c, d

(2) d, c, b, a

(3) c, d, a, b

(4) b, a, d, c

Answer: (3)

35. Arrange the following prehistoric sites in chronological order :

a. Inamgaon

b. Patpara

c. Tarsang

d. Mahadev Piparia

Codes :

(1) d, a, b, c

(2) b, c, a, d

(3) d, b, a, c

(4) c, b, d, a

Answer: (3)

36. Arrange the following sites in chronological order :

a. Jakhera

b. Balathal

c. Jalilpur

d. Mehrgarh

Codes :

(1) d, b, a, c

(2) b, d, c, a

(3) d, c, b, a

(4) c, a, d, b

Answer: (3)

37. Arrange the following sites in chronological order :

a. Agiabir

b. Bahadrabad

c. Rohina

d. Mahurjhavi

Codes :

(1) b, d, a, c

(2) d, a, c, b

(3) c, a, d, b

(4) c, b, a, d

Answer: (4)

38. Which of the following gold coin-types of Samudragupta bear only his name and no metrical legend ?

a. Archer-type

b. Battle-axe type

c. Lyrist type

d. Tiger-slayer type

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(1) a and b

(2) a and c

(3) b and c

(4) c and d

Answer: (4)

39. Arrange the following parts of Asokan Monolithic Pillars in ascending order.

a. Crowning animals

b. Persepolitan bell

c. Abacus

d. Tapering pillars

Codes :

(1) d, a, c, b

(2) b, a, c, d

(3) d, c, b, a

(4) c, b, a, d

Answer: (3)

40. Arrange the following examples of Jaina art in the chronological order :

a. Jaina Tirthankara images of Mathura.

b. Gajalakshmi depicted in Khandagiri, Odisha.

c. Cave I Udayagiri, Odisha.

d. Meguti temple, Aihole.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(1) a, b, c, d

(2) b, c, d, a

(3) a, c, d, b

(4) d, a, b, c

Answer: (1)

41. Match the items of List-I with those of List-II.

Answer: (4)

42. Match the items of List-I with those of List-II and choose the correct answer from codes given below :

Answer: (3)

43. Match sites of List-I with the excavators of List-II.

Answer: (4)

44. Match sites of List-I with the rivers of List-II.

Answer: (3)

45. Match the sites of List-I with the rivers of List-II.

Answer: (4)

46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (2)

47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (3)

48. Match the books of List-I with authors of List-II.

Answer: (3)

49. Match the items of List-I with those of List-II.

Answer: (2)

50. Match the items of List-I with those of List-II.

Answer: (2, 4)

 

 

 

 

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Museology and Conservation Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

MUSEOLOGY AND CONSERVATION

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. A separate Museum branch in Archaeological Survey of India was established by Mortimer Wheeler in the year
(1) 1936

(2) 1836

(3) 1946

(4) 1846

Answer: (3)

2. The best method of collecting Archaeological material is

(1) Gift

(2) Exchange

(3) Purchasing from dealer

(4) Excavation

Answer: (4)

3. The Journal “Studies in Conservation” is published by

(1) ICCROM

(2) UNESCO

(3) IIC

(4) ICOM

Answer: (3)

4. Pyrite disease occurs in

(1) Wood

(2) Leather

(3) Geological specimen

(4) Textiles

Answer: (3)

5. Solander boxes are used for storage of

(1) Coins

(2) Terracottas

(3) Manuscripts, prints and drawings, etc.

(4) Costumes

Answer: (3)

6. Which of the following is a way of authenticating art objects ?

(1) Scientific Analysis

(2) Historical Analysis

(3) Stylistic Analysis

(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

7. Legal ownership of an artifact offered as gift is transferred when

(1) the deed of gift is signed by the donor and the museum representative

(2) the artifact is assigned an accession number

(3) the artifact is entered in the accession register

(4) when the artifact is brought to the museum and left in custody of the museum for consideration

Answer: (1)

8. Which of the following influence the effect of air-conditioning in moderating temperature and humidity ?

(1) The Climate

(2) Building Envelop

(3) Air Conditioning Equipment

(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

9. An object exposed to 100 Lux for 100 hours will suffer the same damage as an object exposed to

(1) 50 Lux for 200 hours

(2) 50 Lux for 300 hours

(3) 150 Lux for 100 hours

(4) 150 Lux for 50 hours

Answer: (1)

10. Skansen open Air Museum is in

(1) London

(2) Stockholm

(3) Florence

(4) Paris

Answer: (2)

11. The life cycle stages of silver fish does not include

(1) Egg

(2) Larva

(3) Nymph

(4) Adult

Answer: (2)

12. The reason for keeping employees on probation for a certain period of time is

(1) to motivate employees

(2) to assess the abilities and skills

(3) to provide intangible incentives

(4) to divide work

Answer: (2)

13. Public Relations is a conscious effort to

(1) Educate People

(2) Generate Funds

(3) To influence public perception

(4) Propagate Culture

Answer: (3)

14. Which of the following is not a warm colour ?

(1) Red

(2) Yellow

(3) Blue

(4) Orange

Answer: (3)

15. The method of dating associated with the effect of the high energy radiation emitted as a result of the decay or radioactive impurities is called

(1) Thermoluminescene dating

(2) Radiocarbon dating

(3) Dendrochronology

(4) Stratigraphy

Answer: (1)

16. Arrange the basic phases in the record-keeping procedure in order :

I. Marking numbers

II. Temporary acceptance

III. Decision to accept

IV. Record the artifact in accession register and assign a number

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV, I

(2) I, II, III, IV

(3) III, II, I, IV

(4) IV, III, II, I

Answer: (1)

17. Arrange the following stages of Exhibition development in order :

I. Selection of objects

II. Concept

III. Preparing objects for display

IV. Installation

Codes :

(1) III, IV, II, I

(2) I, II, III, IV

(3) II, III, IV, I

(4) II, I, III, IV

Answer: (4)

18. Arrange the following stages of pursuing IPM policy in order :

I. Discouraging pest access

II. Using pesticides

III. Monitoring pest occurrences

IV. Employing non-chemical control methods

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, III, IV, II

(3) II, I, III, IV

(4) IV, II, I, III

Answer: (2)

19. Arrange the following in chronological order :

I. Copper age

II. Iron age

III. Bronze age

IV. Stone age

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) IV, I, III, II

(3) IV, II, I, III

(4) II, III, IV, I

Answer: (2)

20. Arrange the following Museums in order of their establishment :

I. National Science Centre, New Delhi

II. National Museum of Mankind (IGRMS), Bhopal

III. National Museum, New Delhi

IV. National Gallery of Modern Art, New Delhi

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) III, I, IV, II

(3) III, IV, II, I

(4) II, III, IV, I

Answer: (3)

21. Arrange the following Museums in order of their establishment :

I. Ashmolean Museum, Oxford

II. Hermitage, St. Petersburg

III. British Museum, London

IV. Victoria and Albert Museum, London

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, III, IV, I

(3) III, IV, I, II

(4) I, III, II, IV

Answer: (4)

22. Arrange the stages of construction of a traditional painting in order from bottom to top :

I. Paint

II. Ground

III. Support

IV. Coating

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) III, II, I, IV

(3) IV, III, II, I

(4) II, IV, III, I

Answer: (2)

23. Before disposing an art object the museum must ensure that :

I. It is legally free to do so.

II. It has clear title to the art object proposed for disposal.

III. There are no restrictions associated with the art object when it was acquired.

IV. The transaction is not fully approved by the Governing authority.

Codes :

(1) I, II, III

(2) II, III, IV

(3) I, II, III, IV

(4) I, III, IV

Answer: (1)

24. Museums should avoid the acquisition of material :

I. Which is inconsistence with its collecting mandate.

II. Which can be stored or exhibited as per policies.

III. Which cannot be conserved within reasonable period of time.

IV. To which special conditions apply, particularly if these cannot be met in a timely manner.

Codes :

(1) I, III, IV

(2) I, II, III

(3) II, III, IV

(4) I, II, III, IV

Answer: (1)

25. Which of the following personal safety methods should be used while handling works of Arts ?

I. Avoid twisting when lifting

II. Avoid excessive bending of the back

III. Use your back when lifting not your legs.

IV. Keep loads close to your body

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV

(2) I, II, III, IV

(3) I, II, IV

(4) I, II, III

Answer: (3)

26. Which of the following are conducive to mould growth ?

I. Temperature at 20 °C and above

II. RH above 65%

III. Lack of air circulation

IV. Air circulation

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, II

(3) II, III, IV

(4) I, II, III

Answer: (4)

27. Which of the following are autonomous bodies of Ministry of Culture, Govt. of India ?

I. Indian Museum, Kolkata

II. National Council of Science Museums, Kolkata

III. National Culture Fund

IV. Victoria Memorial Hall, Kolkata

Codes :

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, II

(3) I, II, III, IV

(4) I, III, IV

Answer: (3)

28. Which of the following statements are correct ?

I. Mission statements should be understood by all employees.

II. A SWOT analyses looks at the visions of the people in a mission.

III. Best practice museums can be used as bench-marks.

IV. Budgeting is a process of planning income and expenditure for a specific time period.

Codes :

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, III, IV

(3) I, IV

(4) I, III

Answer: (2)

29. Which of the following methods of Pest Control are non-toxic ?

I. Anoxia

II. Freezing

III. Fumigation

IV. Chemical spray

Codes :

(1) I, II

(2) I, II, III

(3) I, II, IV

(4) I, III, IV

Answer: (1)

30. The properties of Lignin include

I. It is unstable.

II. It is light sensitive.

III. It breaks down into acid components.

IV. It contributes to the degradation of paper products.

Codes :

(1) I, II

(2) I, II, III

(3) I, III

(4) I, II, III, IV

Answer: (4)

31. Match the acronyms in List –I with ICOM’s International Committees in List – II :

Answer: (3)

32. Match the Personalities in List – I with the Museums they were associated with in List – II :

Answer: (4

33. Match the objects in List – I with the Museums they are housed in List – II :

Answer: (1)

34. Match the personalities in List – I with their contributions in List – II :

Answer: (3)

35. Match the personalities in the List – I with contributions in List – II :

Answer: (2)

36. Match the Institutes in List – I with their location in List – II :

Answer: (3)

37. Match the Insurance terms in List – I with their meanings in List – II :

Answer: (1)

38. Match the colour in List – I with the feelings or mood they create in List – II :

Answer: (2)

39. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II :

Answer: (4)

40. Match the type of Exhibition in List – I with their focus in List – II :

Answer: (3)

41. Assertion (A) : If a conservator cannot find out by research what the original condition or appearance of an art object was, she/he should conjecture and proceed with conservation.

Reason (R) : Because by conjecture authentic original appearance can be created. 

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (4)

42. Assertion (A) : Light source should be exterior to a showcase.

Reason (R) : Any light sources inside a case, even low power ones, will heat up the air inside cause fluctuations in RH.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

43. Assertion (A) : Preventive conservation does not always require expensive or complex care strategies.

Reason (R) : Because much can be done by applying common sense.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

44. Assertion (A) : Bedspread and quilts should always be stored using the standard technique of rolled storage.

Reason (R) : Because decisions about storage systems are not influenced by the number of visitors who wish to see the collections.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (4)

45. Assertion (A) : The collection storage areas must be systematically arranged, and both the storage rooms and the individual and retrieval storage systems should be coded and clearly labelled.

Reason (R) : So that the exact location of any object in the collection can be described.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

46. Assertion (A) : The collection records should be stored with the same security and conservation safeguards as the collection objects.

Reason (R) : The historical or scientific significance of an object lies not in itself alone, but also in the information relating to it.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

47. Assertion (A) : Potted plants should not be used as decoration in museum’s public areas. 

Reason (R) : Because potted plants often carry unseen pests, and water under plants is a pest attractant.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

48. Assertion (A) : The collection records should not be stored in fireproof filing cabinets equipped with a locking mechanism, and a duplicate set of records should not be kept outside of the museum.

Reason (R) : In the event of a fire, vandalism, or some other kind of disaster, the information in the records will not be lost.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (1)

49. Assertion (A) : IR and UV radiations need to be filtered in museum exhibitions.

Reason (R) : They are harmful and do not contribute to visibility.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

50. Assertion (A) : Colour of moisture indicating silica gel changes from pink to blue as it absorbs moisture.

Reason (R) : Because of the presence of cobalt in silica gel.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (1)

 

 

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Dance Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

DANCE

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Gajje

(2) Ghungaroo

(3) Pajeb

(4) Gharghar

Answer: (3)

2. Assertion (A) : The practice and politics of some of the Indian classical dance styles make palpable both realistic and utopian visions of culture, nation, religion and aesthetics.

Reason (R) : Despite being the soft power and highly visible, these classical forms remain highly understudied and under represented in scholarly works.

Codes :

(1) (A) false (R) true.

(2) (A) true (R) false.

(3) (A) and (R) both false.

(4) (A) and (R) both true.

Answer: (4)

3. Which dance is not from Kashmir ?

(1) Rouf

(2) Hafiza

(3) Bach Nagma

(4) Chhatrari

Answer: (4)

4. Match List-I with List-II.

Answer: (1)

5. Indicate the correct sequence :

I. Mahabhasya

II. Arthashastra

III. Mrichhakatika

IV. Buddhacharita

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, III, I, IV

(3) IV, III, II, I

(4) III, I, IV, II

Answer: (All)

6. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Kurt Joose

(2) Mary Wigman

(3) Pina Bausch

(4) Maurice Be’jart

Answer: (4)

7. Assertion (A) : Folk and Tribal dances of any region show the ethnicity and culture at its best.

Reason (R) : The Ghoomar, Garba, Rasa, Kummi, and all circular dances propagate the principles of equality and justice.

Codes :

(1) (A) true, (R) false.

(2) (A) and (R) both false.

(3) (A) false, (R) true.

(4) (A) and (R) both true.

Answer: (1)

8. ‘Pandawi’ is from

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Jharkhand

(3) Chhattisgarh

(4) Bihar

Answer: (3)

9. Match List-I with List-II :

Answer: (4)

10. As per the sacred Shloka on Shiva, put in the correct sequence :

(1) Angika, Vachika, Aharya, Satvika

(2) Angika, Aharya, Satvika, Vachika

(3) Aharya, Vachika, Angika, Satvika

(4) Vachika, Aharya, Satvika, Angika

Answer: (1)

11. Serimpi is a

(1) Court Dance

(2) Temple Dance

(3) Stage Dance

(4) Street Dance

Answer: (1)

12. Assertion (A) : Thang-Ta, Kalaripayatu and such martial arts are ritualistic and associated with the myths of creation.

Reason (R) : The training is very vigorous and begins late after the body is fully developed.

Codes :

(1) (A) false, (R) true.

(2) (A) true, (R) false.

(3) (A) and (R) both true.

(4) (A) and (R) both false.

Answer: (2)

13. Pick the odd one out :

Folk ornaments are

(1) Jhumaka

(2) Mahawar

(3) Nathani

(4) Nagmori

Answer: (2)

14. Match List-I with List-II :

Answer: (2)

15. Put in the correct sequence of Natyashastra chapters :

(1) Natya Mandapa, Rasa, Kavya, Purva Ranga

(2) Rasa, Kavya, Purva Ranga, Natya Mandapa

(3) Natya Mandapa, Purva Rang, Kavya, Rasa

(4) Purva Rang, Natya Mandap, Rasa, Kavya

Answer: (4)

16. Odette and Odile are characters of the ballet.

(1) Gisselle

(2) The Sleeping Beauty

(3) The Nut Cracker

(4) Swan Lake

Answer: (4)

17. Assertion (A) : The Hasta – Mudra(s) held by an Odissi dancer is very lyrical and has gentle curves.

Reason (R) : “Baddha Musti” mudra of a dancing girl in Udaygiri cave is a common mudra used in Odissi.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both true.

(2) (A) and (R) both false.

(3) (A) true, (R) false.

(4) (A) false, (R) true.

Answer: (3)

18. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Amada

(2) Parana

(3) Kasak Masak

(4) Koutuvam

Answer: (4)

19. Match the items in List-I with List-II :

Answer: (1)

20. Identify the correct sequence :

(1) Joan Erdman, Anne-Marie Gaston, Janet O’shea, Andree Grew

(2) Joan Erdman, Anne-Marie Gaston, Andree Grew, Janet O’shea

(3) Anne-Marie Gaston, Andree Grew, Janet O’shea, Joan Erdman

(4) Joan Erdman, Andree Grew, Anne-Marie Gaston, Janet O’shea

Answer: (1)

21. One administrator cum scholar who has encouraged the creative enthusiasm in dance is 

(1) Smt. Manjari Sinha

(2) Smt. Lila Vyankatraman

(3) Smt. Shanta Sarbhjeet Singh

(4) Smt. Nandini Ramani

Answer: (3)

22. Assertion (A) : The four Dev-dasis Tilammal, Ammani, Rangam and Sundaram was the first professional Indian dance group who performed in the west in 1848.

Reason (R) : After the writing of Victor Hugo and Victor Jacquemout, the French were ready to receive the original temple dancers.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both true.

(2) (A) true, (R) false.

(3) (A) and (R) both false.

(4) (A) false, (R) true.

Answer: (4)

23. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Chali

(2) Longlai

(3) Vrindavan Pareng

(4) Gati

Answer: (4)

24. Match the List-I with List-II :

Answer: (2)

25. Identify the correct sequence of dances from North to South :

(1) Peking Opera, Nat Pwe, Komedya, Bangsawan

(2) Nat Pwe, Komedya, Peking Opera, Bangsawan

(3) Peking Opera, Komedya, Nat Pwe, Bangsawan

(4) Komedya, Peking Opera, Bangsawan, Nat Pwe

Answer: (1)

26. “Going beyond tradition” is one of the best coined phrases for 

(1) Free dance

(2) Contemporary dance

(3) Bharatanatyam

(4) Modern dance

Answer: (1, 2, 4)

27. Assertion (A) : The Margam of Bharatanatyam is so constructed to give equal emphasis on Nritta and Nritya.

Reason (R) : The Tanjavur quartet were expert practioners of both Nritta and Nritya.

Codes :

(1) (A) false, (R) true.

(2) (A) true, (R) false.

(3) (A) and (R) both false.

(4) (A) and (R) both true.

Answer: (4)

28. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Bighnaraj Puja

(2) Sthai

(3) Abhinaya

(4) Tirmanam

Answer: (4)

29. Match the List-I with List-II :

Answer: (2)

30. Indicate the correct sequence of folk instruments from South to North :

(1) Rabab, Chenda, Khanjeri, Muraj

(2) Chenda, Khanjeri, Muraj, Rabab

(3) Muraj, Khanjeri, Rabab, Chenda

(4) Chenda, Muraj, Khanjeri, Rabab

Answer: (2)

31. Assertion (A) : In the study of Natyashastra, one faces the issue of the identity of the author, that of the date or the period of composition.

Reason (R) : Bharat was a mythical on historical author.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both true.

(2) (A) true, (R) false.

(3) (A) and (R) both false.

(4) (A) false, (R) true.

Answer: (2)

32. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Dheera

(2) Dheera Adhira

(3) Adhira

(4) Dheera Dheera

Answer: (2)

33. Who was the most recently awarded “the Fellow” of SNA award by the President of India ?

(1) Smt. Uma Dogra

(2) Prof. Mohan Khokar

(3) Dr. Kapila Vatsyayan

(4) Prof. C.V. Chandrashekhar

Answer: (4)

34. Identify the correct sequence :

I. Paran

II. That

III. Bhajan

IV. Amad

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, IV, I, III

(3) IV, III, II, I

(4) III, II, I, IV

Answer: (2)

35. Match the List-I with List-II :

Answer: (2)

36. Assertion (A) : The British colonizers and Indian nationalist provided a similar set of contexts within which the place and position of Indian classical dance should be viewed.

Reason (R) : Social reformers and revivalists engaged simultaneously in both the prohibition and rescue of the same art form.

(1) (A) and (R) both true.

(2) (A) false (R) true.

(3) (A) and (R) both false.

(4) (R) false, (A) true.

Answer: (1)

37. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Kalidas

(2) Rajshekar

(3) Sagarnandi

(4) Bhavbhuti

Answer: (3)

38. Whose recent choreography of “Giselle” is seeing the real meeting of dance of East & West ?

(1) Bharati Shivaji

(2) Marius Petipa

(3) Akram Khan

(4) Jean-Wen Yu

Answer: (3)

39. Match the items in List I with List II :

Answer: (1)

40. Indicate the correct sequence of ornaments in Bharatanatyam :

I. Mangeimala

II. Rakudi

III. Mattal

IV. Jhumki

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV, I

(2) I, II, III, IV

(3) III, IV, II, I

(4) IV, I, III, II

Answer: (1)

41. Match the items in List-I with List-II :

Answer: (1)

42. Assertion (A) : Some of the ritualistic features in the performances of South East Asian countries reflect ancient animistic belief going back even further in time and even today the performances can have both spiritual and symbolic meanings.

Reason (R) : Theatrical Dance in South East Asia registers the living history of the region. 

Codes :

(1) (A) is true (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false (R) is true.

(3) (A) and (R) both true.

(4) (A) and (R) both false.

Answer: (3)

43. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Mayuri Upadhya

(2) Preethi Athreya

(3) Anuj Mishra

(4) Anusha Lal

Answer: (3)

44. Match the items in List-I with List-II :

Answer: (1)

45. Identify the correct sequence according to age :

I. Shaswati Sen

II. Kumudini Lakhia

III. Vishal Krishna

IV. Shovana Narayan

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, IV, III, I

(3) IV, III, II, I

(4) II, IV, I, III

Answer: (4)

46. Match List-I with List-II :

Answer: (3)

47. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Dristikon

(2) Bhukham

(3) Yagna

(4) Falling Angels

Answer: (1)

48. Identify the correct sequence of the dances from West to East :

(1) Thang-ta, Kandyan, Moro-moro, Hat-boi

(2) Kandyan, Thang-ta, Hat-boi, Moro-moro

(3) Hat-boi, Moro-moro, Kandyan, Thang-ta

(4) Moro-moro, Hat-boi, Thang-ta, Kandyan

Answer: (2)

49. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Lucinda childs

(2) John Martin

(3) Alastair Macaulay

(4) Clive Barnes

Answer: (1)

50. Match the List I with List II :

Answer: (2)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Mass Communication and Journalism Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

MASS COMMUNICATION AND JOURNALISM

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. According to critics, effects models are problematic as they are

(1) Real

(2) Hypothetical

(3) Traditional

(4) Normative

Answer: (2)

2. In communication, relational information is

(1) non-interpretative

(2) uncritical

(3) non-transferable

(4) emotional

Answer: (4)

3. Media of the third degree contain _______ processed forms of representation .

(1) personally

(2) impersonally

(3) digitally

(4) conventionally

Answer: (3)

4. Media texts are considered as

(1) passive

(2) static

(3) dynamic

(4) negative

Answer: (3)

5. The theory of frame analysis was developed by

(1) Erving Goffman

(2) Samuel Huntington

(3) F. Inglis

(4) Carl Hovland

Answer: (1)

6. Identify the researcher who distinguished the functions of mass media as manifest and latent.

(1) Robert Merton

(2) Charles W. Wright

(3) P.J. Tichenor

(4) G. Tuchman

Answer: (1)

7. One of the barriers to persuasive communication is

(1) Income

(2) Level of education

(3) Age

(4) Religion

Answer: (2)

8. The most important limitation of information-flow theory is

(1) Message-centric

(2) Source-dominance

(3) Channel problem

(4) Receiver-specific

Answer: (2)

9. The organization, International Freedom of Expression Exchange, is located in

(1) the USA

(2) the UK

(3) Australia

(4) Canada

Answer: (4)

10. Section 499 of Indian Penal Code (IPC) contains the criminal liability of

(1) copyright

(2) contempt of court

(3) defamation

(4) sedition

Answer: (3)

11. In cases of copyright violation, the interlocutory injunction is considered as a ______ remedy.

(1) Final

(2) Constitutional

(3) Non-conforming

(4) Discretionary

Answer: (4)

12. The object of the Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867, is merely to regulate ______ for preservation of copies of books and newspapers.

(1) Printing presses

(2) Publishers

(3) Printers

(4) Authors

Answer: (1)

13. The memorandum to control the selection of newspapers for ______ by the Indian government was challenged in the Calcutta High Court by print media during the period of internal emergency (1975-76).

(1) Public advertisements

(2) Newsprint quota

(3) Accreditation

(4) Government benefits

Answer: (1)

14. The major strategy of participatory communication is

(1) Government scheme

(2) Top-down approach

(3) Information dissemination

(4) Dialogue

Answer: (4)

15. Los Banos School is associated with

(1) Cultural communication

(2) Development communication

(3) Risk communication

(4) International communication

Answer: (2)

16. A quantitative aggregation of findings of many research efforts will result in

(1) Meta analysis

(2) Gatekeeping and unit analysis

(3) Output analysis

(4) Input analysis

Answer: (1)

17. A construct is

(1) Incomplete in presentation

(2) A false statement

(3) A personal statement

(4) An abstract statement

Answer: (4)

18. A discreet variable cannot be divided into

(1) values

(2) phenomena

(3) groups

(4) sub-parts

Answer: (4)

19. The difference between sample and population values will show

(1) the range

(2) the statistical significance

(3) the sampling error

(4) the stratified deviation

Answer: (3)

20. Which document describes your needed camera set-ups ?

(1) Shot list

(2) Rule of Thirds

(3) Script

(4) Synopsis

Answer: (1)

21. The button at the top of the camera used to take the picture is called

(1) Shutter Speed

(2) Shutter Release

(3) Camera Body

(4) Lens

Answer: (2)

22. A text matter that accompanies a photograph is ______ :

(1) Headline

(2) By-line

(3) Date-line

(4) Cut-line

Answer: (4)

23. A premium rate for a special position to advertise is known as

(1) Make-good rate

(2) Impact rate

(3) Mandatory rate

(4) Loading rate

Answer: (4)

24. Communication audit is commonly employed in the field of

(1) Advertising

(2) Public relations

(3) Newspaper publishing

(4) Broadcasting

Answer: (2)

25. Gravure printing method is

(1) Black and white only

(2) Intaglio printing

(3) Thermal printing

(4) Flexographic printing

Answer: (2)

26. RGB colour model is known as ______ colour model.

(1) Additive

(2) Subtractive

(3) Restrictive

(4) Non-active

Answer: (1)

27. Robert Gunning’s readability formula attempts to identify the level of ______ in a piece of text.

(1) Fog

(2) Excellence

(3) Codification

(4) Abstraction

Answer: (1)

28. Assertion (A) : In the practice of his or her professional activities, a public relations practitioner should respect the collective dignity of the publics, but not of individuals.

Reason (R) : It is his/her responsibility to deal properly with everyone around that includes colleagues, employer, media and public at large.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

29. Assertion (A) : A public relations practitioner should maintain the highest level of professionalism to achieve the specific targets identified.

Reason (R) : For this, he or she should manage and manipulate the media outlets.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

30. Assertion (A) : The impact of paid sales message is an additional worry for marketing communicators.

Reason (R) : The increased commercial contents in mass media make the audience tune them out because of their noise level.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

31. Assertion (A) : The concept of linear modernisation is still popular among power elites across the globe.

Reason (R) : It helps them expand and sustain their hold on power by their control of capitalistic means.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

32. Assertion (A) : RTI has become a new source of news and information.

Reason (R) : Earlier government officers were not allowed to provide information to journalists.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

33. Assertion (A) : Single screen cinemas are disappearing fast in India.

Reason (R) : Because malls are being constructed in their place. 

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

34. Assertion (A) : Radio plays are different from TV plays because radio plays have no actors in them.

Reason (R) : Because radio is a blind medium.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (4)

35. Assertion (A) : Citizen journalism is different from professional journalism.

Reason (R) : Professional journalists do not use social media to disseminate their stories.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

36. Identify the chronological sequence of following AIR broadcasts :

(1) Vividh Bharathi, School broadcasts, External services, Rural broadcasts

(2) School broadcasts, Rural broadcasts, Vividh Bharathi, External services

(3) External services, Vividh Bharathi, Rural broadcasts, School broadcasts

(4) Rural broadcasts, External services, School broadcasts, Vividh Bharathi

Answer: (4)

37. Identify the correct sequence of the following codes :

(1) Hays Code, Fairness Doctrine, Code of Athens, ASCI Code

(2) ASCI Code, Hays Code, Fairness Doctrine, Code of Athens

(3) Fairness Doctrine, Code of Athens, ASCI Code, Hays Code

(4) Code of Athens, ASCI Code, Hays Code, Fairness Doctrine

Answer: (1)

38. Identify the correct sequence of feminist media perception advocates :

(1) Margaret Gallagher, A.N. Valdivia, G. Tuchman, Betty Friedan

(2) A.N. Valdivia, G. Tuchman, Betty Friedan, Margaret Gallagher

(3) G. Tuchman, Betty Friedan, Margaret Gallagher, A.N. Valdivia

(4) Betty Friedan, G. Tuchman, Margaret Gallagher, A.N. Valdivia

Answer: (4)

39. Identify the correct sequence of following news agencies that operated in India :

(1) Free Press, Reuters, Associated Press of India, United Press of India

(2) Reuters, Associated Press of India, Free Press, United Press of India

(3) Associated Press of India, United Press of India, Reuters, Free Press

(4) United Press of India, Reuters, Associated Press of India, Free Press

Answer: (2)

40. Write the correct chronological order of the following social media platforms :

(1) Linkedin, facebook, youtube, twitter

(2) facebook, youtube, twitter, Linkedin

(3) youtube, twitter, Linkedin, facebook

(4) twitter, Linkedin, facebook, youtube

Answer: (1)

41. Match List – I with List – II :

Answer: (2)

42. Match List – I with List – II :

Answer: (1)

43. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

44. Match the following tag line :

Answer: (1)

45. Match List – I with List – II :

Answer: (3)

Read the following passage and answer questions from 46 to 50 :

    Brands have been around since ancient times. In 3000 BC, in Ancient Egypt, symbols were used to identify the bricks leading to pharaoh tombs; in 2000 BC, in ancient Palestine, signs were employed to distinguish pottery. The word brand comes from the Old Norse word brandr (North Germanic language of the Scandinavian peoples prior to 1350 AD) which means ‘to burn’ or, more specifically, to mark livestock. According to a widely accepted definition, a brand is a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of these elements intended to identify and differentiate a product in the minds of concerned subjects. According to this definition, there are four ingredients which characterize a brand. Firstly, a brand consists of names, symbols, designs, or any other feature, which constitute its brand elements. These brand elements refer to the logotype, packaging and other tangible constituent parts of a product. Secondly, brands identify and differentiate a branded product, both roles being the fundamental functions of a brand. A brand identifies the goods and services of a seller and attests the product’s source. dentification is objective; it relies only on the capacity of names, symbols, designs and any other external cue to describe or insinuate where the offering comes from. Other than the purpose of identification, a brand differentiates the seller’s offering from that of competitors. Contrary to identification, differentiation is subjective and depends on consumers’ perceptions, attitudes and behaviour towards the brand. Differentiation does not occur just because the name or logotype on a product is distinct from that of competitors; differentiation implies that consumers perceive differences among brands in a product category. Therefore, it is possible that a brand name or logotype identifies a product but does not differentiate it from competitors. For example, brand name mentions product categories such as writing pads, rubbers, felt tip pens, markers and photocopy paper, where brands, despite having distinctive brand elements, do not differentiate. Hence, brand elements per se do not differentiate. In short, both functions are necessary and only when a brand identifies and differentiates a product is it possible to talk about a branded product. Thirdly, brands involve products. Products, in a wide sense, refer not only to physical goods and services, but also to experiences, retailers and distributors, events, people, geographical locations, properties, organizations, information and ideas. Hence, almost everything can be branded, as some well-known branding cases confirm. For example, a number of physical goods, once considered commodities, have been successfully branded in recent years. Also ‘products’ such as sports, political candidates and religions are actively branded today. Lastly, a brand’s identification and differentiation functions occur in the minds of the subjects concerned. A brand is thus ultimately something that resides in the subject’s memory.

46. What is the intended use of a brand ?

(1) To burn every product

(2) To purchase livestock

(3) To employ distinguished potters

(4) To differentiate the product in the minds of consumers

Answer: (4)

47. What purpose does the brand serve ?

(1) To identify the product’s source

(2) To create more brands in the market.

(3) To increase more marketing channels.

(4) To give good names to products.

Answer: (1)

48. What can brands do other than identification ?

(1) They offer free gifts.

(2) They are an attractive logotypes.

(3) They solicit frequent sellers.

(4) They differentiate the selling price of one brand to another.

Answer: (4)

49. What is the advantage of a brand ?

(1) Provides information and ideas.

(2) Provides disinformation about a product.

(3) Encourages relationship between sellers and retailers.

(4) Prompts impulsive buying.

Answer: (1)

50. What is the ultimate purpose of a brand ?

(1) It resides in subject’s memory.

(2) It encourages creative ideas.

(3) It decides the future of political candidates.

(4) It drives people into depression.

Answer: (1)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Comparative Study of Religions Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

COMPARATIVE STUDY OF RELIGIONS

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(1) Sikhism – Imam

(2) Hinduism – Risi

(3) Buddhism – Bhikkhu

(4) Jainism – Muni

Answer: (1)

2. Identify the correct statement in respect of primitive society ?

(1) Animation and Editing

(2) Animism and Manaism

(3) Monotheism and Pantheism

(4) Musical Instruments and Scriptures

Answer: (2)

3. Upanishads expound

(1) Literature

(2) Geography

(3) Spiritualism

(4) History

Answer: (3)

4. Atheists believe in

(1) One God

(2) Several Gods

(3) No God

(4) Only Rituals

Answer: (3)

5. Which of the following scriptures is found written in the script other than Devanagri ?

(1) Tripitakas

(2) Vedas

(3) Prakrit Āgamas

(4) Guru Granth Sahib

Answer: (4)

6. The concept of the ‘Unity of All Beings’ was propounded by

(1) Ibn al-Arabi

(2) Al-Ghazzali

(3) Ibn Sina

(4) Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi

Answer: (1)

7. Which of the following is not a modern concept ?

(1) Secularism

(2) Rationalism

(3) Manaism

(4) Materialism

Answer: (3)

8. The concept of ‘Perfect man’ in India was propounded by which poet ?

(1) Mir

(2) Hali

(3) Dr. Sir Mohd. Iqbal

(4) Ghalib

Answer: (3)

9. ‘Vedo-a-Khilo Dharmamoolam’ is mentioned in the following scripture :

(1) Manu-Smriti

(2) Yoga-Sūtra

(3) Rāmāyana

(4) Atharva Veda

Answer: (1)

10. According to the Vedic culture the Vedas are recognised

(1) Apaurusheya

(2) Epic

(3) Pratishakhya

(4) Ayurvedic texts

Answer: (1)

11. Śatpath Brāhman is an explanatory text of

(1) Rigveda

(2) Sāmveda

(3) Atharv veda

(4) Yajurveda

Answer: (4)

12. The concept of Jñan, Karm and Bhakti for salvation has great role in

(1) Vaishnavism

(2) Tantrism

(3) Chārvakism

(4) Lingāyatism

Answer: (1)

13. Select the correct term which is used for the soul in Sānkhya-philosophy

(1) Purusa

(2) Jiva

(3) Prāna

(4) Ātmā

Answer: (1)

14. Idol worship was strongly opposed in his social reform and Bhakti movement by

(1) Surdās

(2) Kabirdās

(3) Ravidās

(4) Rāmānuj

Answer: (2)

15. The founder of Arya Samaj Movement was

(1) Rājā Rām Mohan Roy

(2) Vidyā Sāgar

(3) Swāmi Dayānand Saraswati

(4) Devendra Thākur

Answer: (3)

16. Of the following which one is the main teaching of Lord Mahāvira

(1) Aparigrahavāda

(2) Satkāryavāda

(3) Śunyavāda

(4) Ekāntavāda

Answer: (1)

17. The ‘Upāsakadaśāngasūtra’ mainly deal with

(1) Spiritual saying of Tirthankara

(2) Ten type of Religions

(3) The concept of Karma theory

(4) Vows of Householder

Answer: (4)

18. Which of the following are the main sects of Jainism ?

(1) Siya-Sunni

(2) Digambara-Śvetāmbara

(3) Heenyana-Mahāyāna

(4) Akāli-Khālsā

Answer: (2)

19. According to Jainism the dispenser of the fruits of actions is

(1) Earlier virtuous acts

(2) Parmātma

(3) Dharmāchārya

(4) One who control one’s senses

Answer: (4)

20. The meaning of Syādavāda in Jainism is

(1) Many sideness of reality

(2) Final judgement about reality

(3) Explanation of seven aspects of the thing

(4) Doubtfulness about thing

Answer: (3)

21. The Jaina Monuments of Devagarha are specially famous for

(1) Paintings

(2) Stūpas

(3) Iconography

(4) Illustrated Manuscripts

Answer: (3)

22. The Khandagiri-Udaigiri Jain caves are situated in the state of

(1) Karnataka

(2) Uttar Pradesh

(3) Rajasthan

(4) Odisha

Answer: (4)

23. Siddharha’s Titular name was

(1) Dipankara Buddha

(2) Kakusandha Buddha

(3) Gotama (Gautama) Buddha

(4) Nārada Buddha

Answer: (3)

24. According to the Sinhalese tradition, the number of texts included in the Khuddaka-Nikāya is

(1) 17 (seventeen)

(2) 16 (sixteen)

(3) 15 (fifteen)

(4) 14 (fourteen)

Answer: (3)

25. The Paticcasamuppāda (Pratityasamutpāda) is explained in terms of twelve Nidānas. The second Nidāna among them happens to be

(1) Nāmarūpa

(2) Viñña a (Vijñana)

(3) Sa khāra (Samsakāra)

(4) Avijjā (Avidyā)

Answer: (3)

26. The texts of the Buddhist Scripture (words of the Buddha) originally in one of the Indian languages is lost, but is available in its Chinese translation. The name of that scripture is

(1) Tipitaka

(2) Vaipulya Sūtra_s

(3) Sarvāstivāda Āgama

(4) Mahāvastu

Answer: (3)

27. In history of Buddhist philosophy, the philosopher who established Śūnyavāda was

(1) Vasubandhu

(2) Asanga

(3) Maitreyanātha

(4) Nāgārjuna

Answer: (4)

28. The Ajanta Caves are located in the State known as

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Maharashtra

(3) Chhattisgarh

(4) Odisha

Answer: (2)

29. The Mahabodhi Society of India was founded by

(1) Devapriya Valisimha

(2) Anagarika Dharmapal

(3) B.R. Ambedkar

(4) Bhikkhu Sangharatana

Answer: (2)

30. Identify the correct statement :

The main Christian Churches are

(1) Catholic, Judaic and Protestant

(2) Catholic, Protestant and Orthodox

(3) Catholic, Protestant and Shia

(4) Catholic, Protestant and Sunni

Answer: (2)

31. Among the following, who is the Prophet of the Old Testament ?

(1) St. Paul

(2) St. Thomas

(3) Jeremiah

(4) Jesus

Answer: (3)

32. Abraham of the Old Testament is the forefather of

(1) Egyptians

(2) Romans

(3) Persians

(4) Jews

Answer: (4)

33. The ancient city of Jerusalem is important for the following group of religions :

(1) Christians, Muslims and Hindus

(2) Christians, Jews and Muslims

(3) Christians, Muslims and Sikhs

(4) Christians, Muslims and Jains

Answer: (2)

34. Jesus Christ was crucified at

(1) Rome

(2) Jerusalem

(3) Antioch

(4) Galilee

Answer: (2)

35. The last book of the New Testament is

(1) Book of Revelation

(2) Gospel of St. Mark

(3) Gospel of St. Mathew

(4) Genesis

Answer: (1)

36. Easter Sunday is the day of

(1) Death of Jesus

(2) Ascension of Jesus

(3) Apparition of Jesus

(4) Resurrection of Jesus

Answer: (4)

37. Which event is regarded as a turning point in the history of Islam ?

(1) Hulagu’s attack on Baghdad

(2) Migration to Madina

(3) Conquest of Constantinople

(4) Modernisation of Egypt under Mohammad Ali

Answer: (2)

38. The 24 chapters of the Quran which were revealed upon Prophet Muhammad at Madina deal with

(1) Ibadat

(2) Muamlat

(3) Uqubat

(4) Ibadat, Muamlat and Uqubat

Answer: (4)

39. The title of the ‘Philosopher of the Arabs’ was given to

(1) Al-Kindi

(2) Al-Farabi

(3) Al-Ghazzali

(4) Ibn Rushd

Answer: (1)

40. To raise the scientific standard of the medical profession at Baghdad, the first hospital ever established in the history of Islam was

(1) Dar al-Shifa

(2) Bimaristan

(3) Dar al-Hikma

(4) Al-Maristan al-Mansuri

Answer: (2)

41. A clear conception of pulmonary circulation of the blood, three centuries before the Portuguese servetus, was presented by which medieval Muslim physician ?

(1) Ali Al-Tabari

(2) Abu al-Hasan Ali ibn al-Nafis

(3) Al-Razi

(4) Al-Majusi

Answer: (2)

42. Match the following. Identify the correct answer and mark the same in the code given below :

Answer: (1)

43. Identify the correct statement :

(1) Sanusi mystic order worked in India

(2) Islam is the youngest of all the revealed religions

(3) Mustafa Kamal Ataturk belongs to Egypt

(4) Mohd. Abduh was a philosopher

Answer: (2)

44. Author of the book Sachi Sakhi is

(1) Bhai Miharban

(2) Bhai Balaji

(3) Bhai Vir Singh

(4) S. Kapur Singh

Answer: (4)

45. Gurugaddi to Guru Granth was awarded at

(1) Amritsar

(2) Nauder

(3) Talwandi Sabo

(4) Anandpur Sahib

Answer: (2)

46. Baba Farid belonged to the Sufi Silsilah

(1) Naqashbandi

(2) Suharawardi

(3) Chishti

(4) Qadri

Answer: (3)

47. Which of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) Shiromani Akali Dal was founded by Kartar Singh Jhhabar

(2) Paira Mokha wrote Janamsakhi

(3) Baba Gurbachan Singh founded Nirankari movement

(4) Emperor Bahadur Shah paid all respects to Guru Gobind Singh

Answer: (3)

48. First amongst 31 ragas of Guru Granth is

(1) Sri Rag

(2) Asa Rag

(3) Tukhari Rag

(4) Vadahans Rag

Answer: (1)

49. First baani of Sri Dasam Granth is

(1) Bachittar Natak

(2) Jaapu Sahib

(3) Chandi Di Var

(4) Krishan Avtar

Answer: (2)

50. Author of Guru Nanak Chamatkar is

(1) Bhai Santokh Singh

(2) Giani Gian Singh

(3) Koir Singh

(4) Bhai Vir Singh

Answer: (4)