OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2007 With Answer Key

2007 O.U.A.T Question with Answer

Physics

1. Two bodies of masses m1, m2 have equal kinetic energies. If p1, p2 are their momenta, the ratio p 1/p2 is equal to

(a)   

(b)  m1/m2

(c)  m2/m1

(d)   

Answer: (a)

2. At what angle to the horizon a body must be projected so that the vertical height attained and the horizontal range are equal.

(a)  tan1 1

(b)  tan1 2

(c)  tan1 3

(d)  tan1 4

Answer: (d)

3. The energy of electron in H-atom is given by En = (−6/n2)eV. Then, the energy required to send the electron from the first orbit to the second is

(a)  10.2 eV

(b)  13.6 eV

(c)  12.1 eV

(d)  3.4 eV

Answer: (a)

4. Equal number of identical cells, each of emf e and internal resistance r are joined in series and parallel. If R be the external resistance of the circuit, then the condition for equal current in two case is

(a)  er = R

(b)  R = r/e

(c)  r = R

(d)  R = r/2

Answer: (c)

5. An engine moves along a straight line such that s ∝ t2 where s is the distance traversed by the engine in time t. The power of the engine is proportional to

(a)  t2

(b)  t

(c)  t1/2

(d)  t4

Answer: (b)

6. When ultraviolet radiation is incident on a metallic surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. Another beam of radiation however causes photoemission from the same surface. The second beam must consist of

(a)  radio waves

(b)  infrared rays

(c)  visible radiation

(d)  X-rays

Answer: (d)

7. The current in a coil of inductance 20μH increases uniformly from zero to 1 ampere in 0.1 second. The magnitude of the induced emf in volt is given by

(a)  2 × 104

(b)  2

(c)  2 × 105

(d)  2 × 106

Answer: (a)

8. A certain radioactive element  transform into  In the process, how many α and β particles are emitted?

(a)  6, 8

(b)  7, 4

(c)  4, 7

(d)  8, 6

Answer: (b)

9. The image of an object formed by a convex mirror is 1/n times the size of the object. The focal length of the mirror is f. The object distance is

(a)  (n – 1)f

(b)  f/n

(c)  (n + 1)f

(d)  nf

Answer: (a)

10. The refractive angle of a prism is 60° and  there refractive index of the prismatic material is   If a ray of emergent light grazes the second surface of refraction, the angle of incidence would be

(a)  45°

(b)  60°

(c)  30°

(d)  0°

Answer: (d)

11. The path difference between the two waves

y1 =  a1sin(ωt – 2πx/λ) and

y2 = a2 cos(ωt – 2πx/λ + ϕ) is given by

(a)  (λ/2π)ϕ

(b)  (2π/λ)ϕ

(c)  (λ/2π)(ϕ + π/2)

(d)  (2π/λ) (ϕ + π/2)

Answer: (a)

12. An equiconvex lens of focal length 2 m is symmetrically cut into two pieces to obtained two plano-convex lenses. The focal length of each piece is

(a)  4 m

(b)  2 m

(c)  1 m

(d)  8 m

Answer: (a)

13. With what velocity should a source of sound approach a stationary observer so that the apparent frequency be double the actual? (Velocity of sound = 332 m/s)

(a)  83 m/s

(b)  166 m/s

(c)  332 m/s

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

14. In a capillary glass tube, water rises to a height h. The cross-sectional area of the tube is next reduced to one-fourth of the previous value. The water will now rise to a height

(a)  4h

(b)  h/4

(c)  2h

(d)  h/2

Answer: (c)

15. A proton of mass m moves with a velocity v parallel to a magnetic field of flux density B. The force experienced by proton is

(a)  Bv

(b)  zero

(c)  Bmv

(d)  None of these   

Answer: (b)

16. A D.C. voltage supply has an internal resistance of rΩ. A resistive load R is connected across the terminals of the supply. the power developed in R is maximum when the value of R is

(a)  1Ω

(b)  √2Ω

(c)  r2Ω

(d)  rΩ

Answer: (d)

17. The susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is

(a)  0

(b)  grater than 1

(c)  negative

(d)  less than 1

Answer: (c)

18. The saturation current of a diode valve is governed by

(a)  Ampere’s law

(b)  Kirchoff’s law

(c)  Chirld’s law

(d)  Richardson’s law

Answer: (d)

19. In a vacuum tube, the principal effect of negative space charge is to

(a)  increase electron emission from cathode

(b)  decrease the grid current

(c)  increase the plate voltage

(d)  decrease the plate current

Answer: (d)

20. A triode valve has a resistance 5 × 103 ohm and its mutual conductance is 1.5 × 103/volt. The valve has an amplification factor

(a)  7.5

(b)  3 × 105

(c)  3 × 106

(d)  75

Answer: (a)

21. A charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic field at right angles to the direction of the field. Which of the following would change?

(a)  Charge of the particle

(b)  Speed of the particle

(c)  Energy of the particle

(d)  Trajectory of particle

Answer: (d)

22. How much electricity should be passed through an electrolyte solution for one second to liberate one gram-equivalent weight of the substance at the electrode.

(a)  1 C

(b)  96500 C

(c)  1 Faraday

(d)  Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (d)

23. A p article moves such that the velocity in m/sec is given by 

The acceleration of the body at the instant t = 2s given by

(a)  1 ms−2

(b)  2 ms−2

(c)  4 ms−2

(d)  6 ms−2

Answer: (d)

24. The sum of the absorptance, reflectance and transmittance of a body is always

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  between 0 and 1

(d)  infinite

Answer: (b)

25. A liquid flows through a tube. If α, β be the cross-sections of the portions of the tube at two places 1 and 2, then the ratio of the speeds v1/v2 at the two places will be

(a)  α/β

(b)  β/α

(c)  α22

(d)   

Answer: (b)

26. The turn-ratio in a step-up transformer is 1 : 3. A Lechlance cell of emf 1.5V is connected across the primary. The volt age across the secondary will be

(a)  4.5 V

(b)  0.5 V

(c)  0 V

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

27. In n-p-n transistor, the collector current is

(a)  equal to emitter current

(b)  slightly less than emitter current

(c)  greater than emitter current

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

28. The nuclei suitable for fusion process are

(a)  light nuclei

(b)  heavy nuclei

(c)  intermediate nuclei in periodic table

(d)  any nuclei

Answer: (a)

29. In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation and having a refractive index μ. If c be the velocity of light in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is

(a)  unchanged

(b)  halved

(c)  Doubled

(d)  quadrupied

Answer: (d)

30. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness and having a refractive index μ. If c be the velocity light in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is

(a)  t/μc

(b)  tμc

(c)  tμ/c

(d)  tc/μ

Answer: (c)

31. The angular momentum of the electron in H-atom can possibly be

(a)  h/4π

(b)  h/2π

(c)  2π /h

(d)  h/π

Answer: (b)

32. If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 were not allowed in nature, the number of possible elements would be

(a)  60

(b)  32

(c)  4

(d)  64

Answer: (a)

33. If the main A.C. supply is 220V, the maximum voltage of the supply will be

(a)  220V

(b)  440V

(c)  311V

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

34. The average power in a pure inductive circuit is given by

(a)  Irms × Vrms

(b)  Imax × V­max

(c)  1

(d)  zero

Answer: (d)

35. A capacitor of 0.052 F after being charged to 600 V is connected across another capacitor of 0.1F. the voltage across the capacitor changes from 600 V to

(a)  100 V

(b)  120 V

(c)  300 V

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

36. In the decay equation, a neutron can be considered as nucleus of (A = mass number, Z = atomic number)

(a)  A = 0, Z = 0

(b)  A = 1, Z = 0

(c)  A = 0, Z = 1

(d)  A = 0, Z = −1

Answer: (b)

37. Ne nucleus, after absorbing energy, decays into two α-particles and an unknown nucleus. The unknown nucleus is

(a)  nitrogen

(b)  carbon

(c)  boron

(d)  oxygen

Answer: (b)

38. The potential energy of an electron in the first Bhor orbit in an H-atom is

(a)  13.6 eV

(b)  −13.6 eV

(c)  27.2 eV

(d)  −27.2 eV

Answer: (d)

39. The astronaut in a satellite moving in a circular orbit somewhat expels out one fifth of the mass of the satellite. Now the satellite will be

(a)  go to an orbit of smaller radius

(b)  go to an orbit of larger radius

(c)  go to an orbit elliptic radius

(d)  remain in the same orbit.

Answer: (d)

40. The potential difference between A and B is 23 V. The potential difference in volt across the 3 μF capacitor is given by

(a)  7

(b)  8

(c)  23

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

41. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process  , where a, b are constants. When V = b, the temperature of the gas is

(a)  a/27Rb

(b)  ab/R

(c)  ab/2R

(d)  ab/5R

Answer: (c)

42. A tank containing water has two orifices at depths 40 cm and 90 cm below the free surface of water. The ratio of discharges through orifices is

(a)  4 : 9

(b)  2 : 3

(c)  5 : 9

(d)  1 : 1

Answer: (b)

43. A liquid of refractive index 1.5 is poured into a beaker such that the height of the liquid is 6 cm. The apparent depth of the liquid will be

(a)  3 cm

(b)  5 cm

(c)  9 cm

(d)  None of these

Answer: ()

44. A photon behave as if it had a mass equal to

(a)  hγ/c

(b)  hγ/c2

(c)  c/hγ

(d)  c2/hγ

Answer: ()

45. In the circuit shown in the figure, the heat produced in the 5 Ω resistor, due to current flowing through it, is 10 calories/s. The heat generated in the 4 Ω resistor is given by

(a)  1 cal/s

(b)  2 cal/s

(c)  3 cal/s

(d)  4 cal/s

Answer: ()

46. In Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity of light at the central fringe is I0. The intensity of light at the same spot, when one of the slits is closed is

(a)  (1/2)I0

(b)  I0

(c)  (1/4)I0

(d)  None of these

Answer: ()

47. A sphere has numerically equal volume and surface area. Such a sphere has a radius

(a)  9 unit

(b)  6 unit

(c)  3 unit

(d)  None of these

Answer: ()

48. A physical quantity P is given by the relation 

The quantity that brings in the maximum percentage error is

(a)  B

(b)  A

(c)  D

(d)  C

Answer: ()

49. A closed vessel of volume V contains helium at a pressure P and temperature T. Another closed vessel of same volume V contains oxygen at pressure 2P and temperature T/2. The ratio of mHe : mO2 is

(a)  1 : 8

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  4 : 1

(d)  1 : 16

Answer: ()

50. A mixture of two gases A and B is enclosed at constant temperature. The ratio of the molecular weights A (diatomic) and B(monatomic) is 8. The ratio of the r.m.s. speed of molecules of B to that of the molecules of A is

(a)  8

(b)  4

(c)  16

(d)  2√2

Answer: ()

51. The Newtonian constant of gravitation G has the dimensional formula

(a)  MLT3

(b)  ML2T3

(c)  ML3T2

(d)  None of these

Answer: ()

52. Two vectors  are such that . Then the angle between the vectors is

(a)  0°

(b)  90°

(c)  120°

(d)  180°

Answer: (b)

53. A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of mass 3 kg and 6 kg. If the velocity of the smaller piece be 16 m/sec, then kinetic energy of the larger piece is

(a)  96 J

(b)  384 J

(c)  192 J

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

54. A machine gun fires n bullets a second. If the mass and speed of each bullet be m and v respectively, then the force acting on the machine gun is

(a)  mn/v

(b)  mnv

(c)  mv/n

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

55. What is the total current in the circuit shown in the adjacent diagram?

(a)  1 A

(b)  2 A

(c)  3 A

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

56. A certain radioactive element disintegrates for an interval of time equal to its mean life. What fraction of element is left?

(a)  e1

(b)  √e

(c)  1 – e1

(d)  1 – √e

Answer: (a)

57. The frequency f light falling on a photosensitive material is doubled. Then the kinetic energy of the photelectron

(a)  is also doubled

(b)  is less than double

(c)  more than double

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

58. A convex lens has maximum focal length for

(a)  yellow rays

(b)  green rays

(c)  violet rays

(d)  red rays

Answer: (d)

59. In a simple harmonic motion, it is found that the maximum acceleration is α and the maximum velocity is β. The period of the S.H.M is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)  T = 2πβ/α

(d)  T = β2

Answer: (c)

60. Two satellites of masses m1, m2 (m1 > m2) revolve around the earth in circular orbits of radii r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. If their speeds be v1 and v2 respectively then

(a)  v1 = v2

(b)  v1 < v2

(c)  v1/r1 = v2/r2

(d)  v1 > v2

Answer: (d)

61. If the densities of two gases are in the ratio 25 : 9, then the velocities of sound in the two gases will be in the ratio of

(a)  9 : 25

(b)  3 : 5

(c)  5 : 3

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

62. The ratio of the radius of planet P to that of plant Q is r. The ratio of the g-values on the planets is x. Then, the ratio of the escape velocities corresponding to the two planets is

(a)  xr

(b)    

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

63. There are two charges +1 μC and +5 μC, separated by a distance d. The ratio of the forces acing on them is

(a)  1 : 5

(b)  5 : 1

(c)  1 : 25

(d)  1 : 1

Answer: (d)

64. The Young’s modulus of a material in the form of a wire is numerically equal that stress which will increase the length L0 of the wire to

(a)   

(b)  2L0

(c)   

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

65. Which of the following is an ohmic conductor

(a)  Transistor

(b)  Thermionic valve

(c)  Constantan

(d)  Electrolyte

Answer: (c)

66. When light travels from one medium to another, separated by a sharp boundary, the characteristic that does not change is

(a)  velocity

(b)  wavelength

(c)  amplitude

(d)  frequency

Answer: (d)

Chemistry

1. Bohr’s model can explain

(a)  the spectrum of hydrogen only

(b)  the spectrum of atom or ion containing one electron only

(c)  the spectrum of hydrogen molecule

(d)  the solar spectrum

Answer: (b)

2. The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative atom is

(a)  ns2 np3

(b)  ns2 np4

(c)  ns2 np5

(d)  ns2 np6

Answer: (c)

3. Diagonal relationship exists between

(a)  Li and Mg

(b)  Na and Mg

(c)  K and Mg

(d)  Al and Mg

Answer: (a)

4. The energy required to remove an electron of a gaseous atom from its ground state is called

(a)  potential energy

(b)  ionization energy

(c)  electrode potential

(d)  activation energy

Answer: (b)

5. Amongst the following, the molecule that is linear is

(a)  CO2

(b)  NO2

(c)  SO2

(d)  SiO2

Answer: (a)

6. Which has the least bond angle?

(a)  NH3

(b)  BeF2

(c)  H2O

(d)  CH4

Answer: (c)

7. Amongst the following molecules, the one with the largest distance between the two adjacent carbon atoms is

(a)  ethane

(b)  ethene

(c)  ethyne

(d)  benzene

Answer: (a)

8. Graphite is used in nuclear reactors

(a)  as a fuel

(b)  for lining inside of the reactor as an insulator

(c)  as a lubricant

(d)  for reducing the velocity of neutrons

Answer: (d)

9. Which of the following elements is most metallic?

(a)  P

(b)  As

(c)  Bi

(d)  Sb

Answer: (a)

10. Oxygen molecule exhibits

(a)  paramagpetism

(b)  diamagnetism

(c)  ferromagnetism

(d)  ferrimagnetism

Answer: (a)

11. Mark the element which displaces other halogens from their compounds.

(a)  F

(b)  Cl

(c)  Br

(d)  I

Answer: (a)

12. Which of the following series contain only nucleophiles?

(a)  H2O, SO3, H3O+

(b)  NH3, H2O, ROH

(c)  NH3, H2O, AlCl3

(d)  CN, SO3, OH

Answer: (b)

13. Which of the following exerts +I effect ?

(a)  CH3

(b)  Cl

(c)  −NH2

(d)  −NO2

Answer: (a)

14. Which of the following shows geometrical isomerism

(a)  but-1-ene

(b)  but-2-ene

(c)  propene

(d)  1, 1-dichlorobutane

Answer: (b)

15. . The compound is 

(a)  acetic acid

(b)  acetaldehyde

(c)  acetone

(d)  ethanol

Answer: (b)

16. Chloroform is slowly oxidized by air in presence of sunlight to form

(a)  formyl chloride

(b)  phosgene

(c)  trichloroacetic acid

(d)  formic acid

Answer: (b)

17. The change in internal energy of a system depends on

(a)  initial and final states of the system

(b)  whether the path is reversible

(c)  whether the path is irreversible

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

18. In exothermal reactions

(a)  ∆E = 0

(b)  ∆H is negative

(c)  S = 0

(d)  H is positive

Answer: (b)

19. If the equilibrium constant of the reaction 2HI ⇌ H2 + I2 is 0.25, the equilibrium constant of the reaction H2 + I3 ⇌ 2HI would be

(a)  4

(b)  3

(c)  2

(d)  1

Answer: (a)

20. For the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 + heat

(a)  Kp = Ke

(b)  Kp = KcRT

(c)  Kp = Kc(RT)1

(d)  Kp = Kc(RT)1

Answer: (c)

21. Diazonium salt decomposes as C6H5N2 + Cl → C6H2Cl + N2

At 0℃, the evolution of N2 becomes 2 times faster when the initial concentration of the salt is doubled. So it is

(a)  a first order reaction

(b)  a second order reaction

(c)  independent of the initial concentration of the salt

(d)  a zero order reaction

Answer: (a)

22. If the concentration is expressed in moles litre, the unit of the rate constant of a first order reaction is

(a)  Mole litre1 sec1

(b)  sec1

(c)  Mole litre1

(d)  Mole1

Answer: (c)

23. The number of Faradays needed to reduce 4 gm equivalents of Cu2+ to Cu metal will be

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  1/2

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

24. The radionucleide  undergoes two successive β-decays followed by one α-decay. The atomic number and mass number respectively of the resulting radionucleide are :

(a)  92 and 234

(b)  94 and 230

(c)  90 and 230

(d)  92 and 230

Answer: (c)

25. Half-life of a radioelement X is twice that of another radioelement Y. Initially the number of X and Y atoms are Nx and Ny If after 3 h alf lives of X, the number of atoms of X and Y become equal. then the ratio of Nx : Ny is

(a) 1 : 2

(b)  1 : 3

(c)  1 : 6

(d)  1 : 8

Answer: ()

26. A solution of potassium ferrocyanide would contain

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5 ions

Answer: (d)

27. In the complexes [Fe(CN)6]3 & [Cr(C2O4)]3 the respective coordination number of iron and chromium are

(a)  6 and 3

(b)  3 and 3

(c)  6 and 6

(d)  3 and 6

Answer: (c)

28. Which of the following metal is obtained by leaching its ore with dilute cyanide solution?

(a)  Silver

(b)  Titanium

(c)  Vanadium

(d)  Zinc

Answer: (a)

29. Which one of the following metals forms a volatile compound and this property is taken advantage for its extractioq?

(a)  Iron

(b)  Nickel

(c)  Cobalt

(d)  Tungsten

Answer: (b)

30. Alkali metals give colour in Bunsen flame due to

(a)  ionization potential

(b)  low melting point

(c)  softness

(d)  one electron in outermost orbit

Answer: (a)

31. Glauber’s salt is

(a)  Na2CO3, 10H2O

(b)  Na2SO4, 10H2O

(c)  CuSO4, 5H2O

(d)  FeSO4, 7H2O

Answer: (c)

32. The geometry and type of hybrid orbital present about the central atom in BF3 is

(a)  linear; sp

(b)  trigonal, sp2

(c)  tetrahedral, sp3

(d)  pyramidal, sp3

Answer: (b)

33. Transition metal are coloured due to

(a)  small size

(b)  metallic nature

(c)  unpaired d electrons

(d)  all

Answer: (c)

34. Cr has which of the following electronic configuration?

(a)  3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2

(b)  3s2 3P6 3d5 4s1

(c)  3s2 3P6 3d6

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

35. Cinnabar is an ore of

(a)  Hg

(b)  Cu

(c)  Pb

(d)  Zn

Answer: (a)

36. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling’s solution, it gives a precipitate of

(a)  Cu

(b)  CuO

(c)  Cup

(d)  Cu + CuO +Cu2O

Answer: (b)

37. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of

(a)  electrophilic addition

(b)  nucleophilic addition

(c)  nucleophilic substitution

(d)  electrophilic substitution

Answer: (b)

38. Cannizzaro reaction is not responded by

(a)  trimethylacetaldehyde

(b)  benzaldehyde

(c)  acetaldehyde

(d)  fonnaldehyde

Answer: (c)

39. Which compound would liberate CO2 from, NaHCO3 solution ?

(a)  CH3CONH2

(b)  CH3NH2

(c)  (CH3)4N+OH

(d)  [CH3NH3]+ Cl

Answer: ()

40. Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly alkaline medium gives

(a)  diphenyl ether

(b)  para hydroxyazobenzene

(c)  chlorobenzene

(d)  benzene

Answer: (b)

41. Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic due to the presence of

(a)  6 π electrons

(b)  10 π electrons

(c)  4 π electrons

(d)  12 π electrons

Answer: (b)

42. The reaction of tolune with chlorine in presence of FeCl3 gives predominantly

(a)  benzoyl chloride

(b)  m-chlorotoluene

(c)  benzyl chloride

(d)  o-and p-chlorotoluenes

Answer: (d)

43. Which of the following does not react with Fehling’s solution?

(a)  Acetaldehyde

(b)  Glucose

(c)  Benzaldehyde

(d)  Formaldehyde

Answer: (b)

44. Benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzaldehyde by

(a)  Wurtz reaction

(b)  Cannizzaro reaction

(c)  Perkin reaction

(d)  Claisen reaction

Answer: (b)

45. Which of the following is responsible for depletion of stratospheric ozone?

(a)  Polyhalogens

(b)  Ferrocene

(c)  Fullerenes

(d)  Chlorofluorocarbons

Answer: (d)

46. A greenhouse gas is

(a)  H2S

(b)  H2O vapour

(c)  SO2

(d)  NO2

Answer: (c)

47. Natural rubber is a polymer of

(a)  neoprene

(b)  chloroprene

(c)  isoprene

(d)  butadiene

Answer: (c)

48. Which of the following is an antibiotic?

(a)  Chloroamphenicol

(b)  Aspirin

(c)  Paracetamol

(d)  Chloroquine

Answer: (a)

49. Which one of the following is a conducting polymer?

(a)  PVC

(b)  Bakelite

(c)  Polyaniline

(d)  Polyethylene

Answer: (c)

50. An atom is 10 times heavier than 1/12th mass of a carbon atom (C-12). The mass of the atom in a.m.u. is

(a)  10

(b)  120

(c)  1.2

(d)  12

Answer: (a)

51. Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by mass. The molecular mass of haemoglobin is approximately 67200. the number of iron atoms (at. mass 56) in one molecule of haemoglobin is

(a)  6

(b)  1

(c)  4

(d)  2

Answer: (c)

52. Analysis shows that a binary compound of x(at. mass = 10) and y(at. mass = 20) contains 50% x. The formula of the compound is

(a)  xy

(b)  x2y

(c)  xy2

(d)  x2­y3

Answer: (b)

53. The maximum number of molecules is present in

(a)  15 L of H2 gas at STP

(b)  5L of N2 gas at STP

(c)  .5 g of H2 gas

(d)  10 g of O2 gas

Answer: (a)

54. Equal weights of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25℃. The fraction of the total pressure exerted by hydrogen is

(a)  1 : 2

(b)  1 : 1

(c)  1 : 16

(d)  15 : 16

Answer: (d)

55. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular weight of X is

(a)  64

(b)  32

(c)  4

(d)  8

Answer: (a)

56. In Vander Waal’s equation of state for a real gas, the term that accounts for intermolecular forces is

(a)  (v – b)

(b)  RT

(c)   

(d)  (RT)1

Answer: (c)

57. Which of the following is not a coligative property?

(a)  Osmotic pressure

(b)  Elevation of b.p.

(c)  Vapour pressure

(d)  Depression of f.p.

Answer: (a)

58. Blood and the solution in which blood cells retain their normal forms are

(a)  isotonic

(b)  hypertonic

(c)  isoosmotic

(d)  equinormal

Answer: (a)

59. Milk is an example of

(a)  pure solution

(b)  emulsion

(c)  gel

(d)  suspension

Answer: (b)

60. Gold number represents

(a)  quantity of gold in alloys

(b)  percentage of gold in gold biscuits

(c)  colloid protective power

(d)  percentage of gold in colloidal gold

Answer: (c)

61. The sky appears blue due to

(a)  dispersion

(b)  reflection

(c)  transmission

(d)  scattering

Answer: (d)

62. How many Cl are there around Na+ ion in NaCl crystal?

(a)  3

(b)  4

(c)  6

(d)  8

Answer: (c)

63. In a crystal, the atoms are located at the position of

(a)  maximum P.E.

(b)  minimum P.E.

(c)  zero P. E.

(d)  infinite P.E.

Answer: (b)

64. The number of d-electron retained in Fe2 ion (at, no. of Fe = 26) is

(a)  6

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (a)

65. For principal quantum number n= 4, the total number of orbitals having t = 3 is

(a)  3

(b)  7

(c)  5

(d)  9

Answer: ()

66. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of a particles showed for the first time that the atom has

(a)  electrons

(b)  protons

(c)  nucleus

(d)  neutrons

Answer: (c)

Biology

1. The last five vertebral in the human vertebral column is fused and called

(a)  Pygostyle

(b)  Coccyx

(c)  Sacrum

(d)  Urostyle

Answer: (c)

2. Thoracic ribs have two heads which articulate with

(a)  the sternum and the neural arch of the stenum

(b)  the neural arch and the transverse process of the vertebra

(c)  the sternum and transverse process of vertebra

(d)  the sternum and the neural spine of vertebra

Answer: (c)

3. During muscle contraction which filaments of a myofibril move?

(a)  Myosin filaments

(b)  Actin filaments

(c)  Both myosin and actin filaments

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

4. At the time of swallowing food the nasal passage is blocked by

(a)  terminal part of the soft palate

(b)  the epiglottis

(c)  the tongue

(d)  the turbinates

Answer: (b)

5. Normal quite breathing of either the costal or abdominal type is known as

(a)  Apnea

(b)  Dyspnea

(c)  Orthopnea

(d)  Eupnea

Answer: (d)

6. Breathing rate is controlled by coordination centres in

(a)  the medulla oblongata

(b)  the hypothalamus

(c)  the cerebral hemisphere

(d)  the cerebellum

Answer: (a)

7. Wall of the stomach is not damaged/digested by the gastric juice, because

(a)  Stomach lining secretes antacid

(b)  Stomach cells produce some antienzymes

(c)  Stomach lining is covered with thick mucus

(d)  Gastric juice is diluted with water in food

Answer: (c)

8. Lacteals are

(a)  the ducts of mammary gland

(b)  blood vessels draining the small intestine

(c)  lymph vessels in the villi of intestine

(d)  blood vessels in the kidney

Answer: (a)

9. Parathormone tends to increase blood concentration of calcium, the reverse effect is produced by

(a)  Glucocorticoides

(b)  Thyrocalcitonin

(c)  Aldosterone

(d)  Thyroxine

Answer: (b)

10. Granular leukocyte are produced in

(a)  the red bone narrow

(b)  the lymphatic tissue

(c)  the liver

(d)  the spleen

Answer: (a)

11. Which of the following constituents are essential for normal blood clotting?

(a)  Vitamin B12 and Na+

(b)  Vitamin B12 and Ca++

(c)  Vitamin K and Ca++

(d)  Vitamin K and Na+

Answer: (c)

12. Bundle of His is situated in

(a)  the wall of the interauricular spetum

(b)  the interventricular septum

(c)  the wall of the pulmonary aorta

(d)  the wall of the superior vencava

Answer: (b)

13. Nissl bodies consist of

(a)  groups of flat, membranous sacs and RNA

(b)  membranous sacs containing mitochondria

(c)  vesicles secreting acetylcholine

(d)  vesicles secreting cholinesterase

Answer: (a)

14. A nerve impulse is

(a)  the depolarization of the nerve fibre

(b)  the repolarization of the nerve fibre

(c)  the self propagating wave of negativity

(d)  a wave of positivity

Answer: (c)

15. The appetite centre is located in

(a)  the cerebral cortex

(b)  the lateral part of the hypothalamus

(c)  the middle part of the  hypothalamus

(d)  medulla oblongata

Answer: (c)

16. The blood group of a child is AB, and that of one of the parents is B; the blood group of other parent may be

(a)  A, AB

(b)  B, AB

(c)  A, B, AB

(d)  O, B

Answer: (a)

17. The blood plasma of a person of blood group AB is transfused into person of group ‘O’ the recipient will

(a)  die

(b)  suffer from agglutination

(c)  suffer from hemorrhage

(d)  remain normal

Answer: (b)

18. The cause of Down’s syndrome is

(a)  loss of one chromosome

(b)  trisomy of 21st chromosome

(c)  an XXY condition

(d)  and XO condition

Answer: (b)

19. Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is

(a)  Trophozoite stage

(b)  Quadrinucleated cysts

(c)  Octanucleated cysts

(d)  Minuta stage

Answer: (a)

20. Exflagellationis the process found in the formation of

(a)  Sporozoites in Plasmodium vivax

(b)  Female garnets of Plasmodium vivax

(c)  Male garnets of Plasmodium vivax

(d)  Ookinete of Plasmodium vivax

Answer: (d)

21. Digestion of food in Hydra is

(a)  extracellular

(b)  intracellular

(c)  both extracellular and intracellular

(d)  some times extracellular, sometimes intracellular

Answer: (a)

22. Gonads of Obelia are placed in the

(a)  Blastostyle

(b)  Feeding Zooid

(c)  Medusa

(d)  Hydrorhyza

Answer: (c)

23. Physalia is a

(a)  Solitary Zooid

(b)  Polymorphic Colony

(c)  Dimorphic Colony

(d)  Trimorphic Colony

Answer: ()

24. During copulation of earthworms sperms are transferred into

(a)  Oviducts

(b)  Spermathecae

(c)  Seminal vesicles

(d)  Sperm ducts

Answer: (b)

25. The elongated body with two pairs of legs in each body segments is found in

(a)  Scorpion

(b)  Millipede

(c)  Mites

(d)  Prawn

Answer: (b)

26. The fish with placoid scales and heterocercal tail is

(a)  Jelly fish

(b)  Cuttle fish

(c)  Dogfish

(d)  Cat fish

Answer: (c)

27. A mammal that lays egg is

(a)  The scaly ant eater (pangolin)

(b)  Kangaroo

(c)  Whale

(d)  Platypus

Answer: (d)

28. The adult chordaic without persistent notochord is

(a)  the ascidian

(b)  the amphioxus

(c)  the scoliodon

(d)  Hagfish

Answer: ()

29. The best non-renewable energy resource for mankind is

(a)  Nuclear energy

(b)  Hydroelectricity

(c)  Solar energy

(d)  Thermal power

Answer: (a)

30. Excretory organs in Cockroach are

(a)  Green gland

(b)  Nephridia

(c)  Malpighian tubules

(d)  Coxal gland

Answer: (c)

31. Osphradium is present in the mantle cavity near

(a)  ctenidium

(b)  right nuchal lobe

(c)  over the buccal mass

(d)  left nuchal lobe

Answer: (a)

32. The last moulting of Ascar larva takes place in

(a)  Lung of man

(b)  Intestine of man

(c)  Liver of man

(d)  Heart of man

Answer: ()

33. The smallest unit of a rom pound eye in Periplaneta is

(a)  Ommatidium

(b)  Rod cells

(c)  Cone cells

(d)  Rhabdome

Answer: ()

34. Primitive streak develops during

(a)  Cleavage

(b)  Blastulation

(c)  Gastrulation

(d)  Implantation

Answer: (a)

35. Slight yellow colour of normal urine is due to the presence of

(a)  Billirubin

(b)  Billivardin

(c)  Ketone bodies

(d)  Urochrome

Answer: (d)

36. Rate of glomerular filtration and the power of nitrogen retention of kidney decreases and insomnia is found in

(a)  Grave’s disease

(b)  Addison’s disease

(c)  Cushing’s syndrome

(d)  Diabetes mellitus

Answer: (a)

37. The plants do not store carbohydrates as glucose, because it

(a)  would replace ribose in DNA synthesis

(b)  is an unstable molecule

(c)  attracts insects harbivores

(d)  dissolves in water, thereby altering the  osmotic balance

Answer: (d)

38. The spindle fibres formed during mitosis connect to the

(a)  Nucleoli

(b)  Sugar-phosphate strands

(c)  Kinetochores

(d)  Nuclear membrane

Answer: (c)

39. The carbohydrates in cell membrane participates in

(a)  cell to cell recognition

(b)  transporting substances across the  membrane

(c)  attaching the membrane to the cytoskeleton

(d)  cell adhesion

Answer: (a)

40. The two strands of a double-helix model DNA are held together hydrogen bond between

(a)  sugar and phosphate group

(b)  sugar and nitrogenous bases

(c)  phosphate groups and nitrogenous bases

(d)  nitrogenous bases

Answer: (d)

41. In the synthesis of a new strand for a DNA molecule by linking nucleotides to the developing strand which enzyme catalyzes?

(a)  DNA ligase

(b)  DNA polymerase

(c)  Tupoisomerase

(d)  Endonuclease

Answer: (a)

42. A Barr-body is a

(a)  extranuclear molecular DNA

(b)  connection between two X-chromosome.

(c)  coiled, inert X-chromosome

(d)  Supernumerary Y-chromosome

Answer: (c)

43. Most of the fossils are found in

(a)  Granite rock

(b)  Lava flows

(c)  Black soil

(d)  Sedimentary rock

Answer: (d)

44. The ‘Natural selection’ is best defined as occurring when the environment causes

(a)  differ initial success in reproduction

(b)  differential mortality

(c)  assertive mating

(d)  a reduced gene pool

Answer: (c)

45. Presence of Cnidoblast cell is the characteristic feature of

(a)  Physalia

(b)  Beroe

(c)  Poterion

(d)  Trypanosoma

Answer: (c)

46. The Hybrid disease in man is caused by the larvae of

(a)  Echinococcus granulosus

(b)  Taenia solium

(c)  Ancylostoma duodenale

(d)  Fasciola hepatica

Answer: (a)

47. Microfilaria bancroffii is the embryo of

(a)  Ascaris lumbricoides

(b)  Ancylostoma duodenale

(c)  Fasciola hepatica

(d)  Wuchereria sp

Answer: (d)

48. The enzymes of Lysosomes are capable of

(a)  Aerobic cellular respiration

(b)  Synthesizing proteins

(c)  Digesting part of cells

(d)  Synthesizing lipids

Answer: (c)

49. Which one of the following is a crop pest?

(a)  Tse-tse fly

(b)  Drosophila

(c)  Aphid

(d)  Pediculus

Answer: (c)

50. SO2 of the atmosphere combines with water to form H2SO4 and this when reaches to soil it

(a)  increases pH of soil

(b)  decreases pH of soil

(c)  pH remains unchanged

(d)  Soil eroded easily

Answer: (b)

51. Dependance of host cell nucleic add for multiplication is found in

(a)  Bacteria

(b)  Mycoplasma

(c)  Virus

(d)  Eukaryotes

Answer: (c)

52. Fixation of atmospheric Nitrogen to the soil is known as

(a)  Nitrogen fixation

(b)  Denitrification

(c)  Ammonification

(d)  Decomposition

Answer: (a)

53. Azygospores is produced in spirogyra by

(a)  Conjugation

(b)  Parthenogenesis

(c)  Syngamy

(d)  Fertilization

Answer: (c)

54. Which of the following is a development for pterdophytes over Bryophytes?

(a)  Formation of spores

(b)  Alternation of generation

(c)  Vascular system

(d)  Presence of ovator

Answer: (c)

55. All of the following features are shown by Monocotyledonous plants except

(a)  Bears only one Cotyledon in their embryo

(b)  Radicle on germination produces adventitious roots

(c)  Leaves show parallel venation

(d)  Vascular bundles are open in stem

Answer: (d)

56. Which of the following is true in exalbuminous seed?

(a)  Only nucellus is consumed

(b)  None of the endosperm and nucellus are consumed.

(c)  Only endosperm is consumed

(d)  Both endosperm and nucellus are consumed.

Answer: (a)

57. Tuberous modification of roots is for

(a)  mechanical support

(b)  vital function

(c)  storage of food

(d)  reproduction

Answer: (c)

58. Which of the following pair of words are appropriately matched?

(a)  Tuber-Ginger

(b)  Rhzome-Onion

(c)  Cladode-Asparagus

(d)  Phyllode-Hugonia

Answer: (c)

59. When rachis contains more than three leaflets in a compound pinnate leaf, it is called

(a)  Peripinnate

(b)  Quadrifoliate

(c)  Imparipinnate

(d)  Decompound

Answer: (c)

60. In which of the following Hypanthodium type of inflorescence is seen?

(a)  Euphorbia

(b)  Ficus

(c)  Dorstenia

(d)  Sibricus

Answer: (b)

61. Which of the following combination of Chromosomal pattern is produced by double fertilization and triple fusion?

(a)  n and n

(b)  2n and 3n

(c)  n and 2n

(d)  2n and 2n

Answer: (b)

62. Which of the following diseases is most likely to occur due to noise pollution?

(a)  Hypertension

(b)  Diabetes

(c)  Lung cancer

(d)  Renal failure

Answer: (a)

63. Chlorophyll is found to be concentrated in which part of plastid?

(a)  Grana

(b)  Lamellae

(c)  Stroma

(d)  Sap

Answer: (a)

64. Which of the following phenomenon contradicts Mendels’ Law of Independent Assortment?

(a)  Linkage

(b)  Testcross

(c)  Back cross

(d)  Abberation

Answer: (a)

65. Which one of the following enzymes is used in genetic Engineering?

(a)  Lipoprotein lipase

(b)  Endonuclease

(c)  Enterokinase    

(d)  Amylase

Answer: (b)

66. All of the following are end products in light reaction of photosynthesis except

(a)  Adenosine triphosphate

(b)  NADPW

(c)  Oxygen

(d)  Phosphoglyceric acid

Answer: (d)

67. How many molecules of ATP are produced in anaerobic glycolysis?

(a)  Two

(b)  Three

(c)  Four

(d)  Five

Answer: (a)

68. Which of the following hormones helps in blooming of flowers?

(a)  Auxin

(b)  Cytokinin

(c)  Gibberelin

(d)  Florigen

Answer: (d)

 

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2008 With Answer Key

2008 O.U.A.T. Question with Answer

Physics

 

1. A mass attached to a spring oscillates with frequency f1. The spring is cut into two halves and the same mass when attached to one of the halves oscillates with frequency f2. The ratio f1/f2 is equal to

(a)  1

(b)  1/2

(c)  5/4

(d)  none of these

Answer: (d)

2. Two boxes of identical shape but of different masses are dropped from the same height. The heavier one will reach the ground (assume the presence of air)

(a)  earlier

(b)  later

(c)  simultaneously with the lighter one

(d)  earlier or later depending on air pressure

Answer: (c)

3. Photoelectrons from a photosensitive surface are obtained by irradiating it with light of 3000 A0. In order to obtain electrons with higher kinetic energy.

(a)  intensity of the radiation should be increased.

(b)  wavelength of the radiation should be increased.

(c)  wavelength of the radiation should be decreased.

(d)  both intensity and wavelength should be increased.

Answer: (a)

4. According to Kepler’s Law of planetary motion, the squares of the periods of the planets are proportional to

(a)  their mean distance from the Sun

(b)  the square of masses of the planets

(c)  the square of masses of the planets

(d)  the cube of their mean distance from the Sun.

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

5. Benoulli’s principle is based on the principle of conservation of

(a)  mass

(b)  momentum

(c)  annual momentum

(d)  energy

(e)  none of these

Answer: (d)

6. When a large bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to the surface, its radius doubles. The atmospheric pressure is equal to that of a column of water of height H. The depth of the lake is

(a)  7H

(b)  2H

(c)  4H

(d)  8H

Answer: (a)

7. A gymnast sits on a rotating stool, with his arms out stretched. Suddenly he lowers his arms. Then

(a)  the angular momentum increases

(b)  the angular momentum decreases

(c)  the moment of inertia decreases

(d)  the angular velocity remains constant

Answer: (c)

8. In a heat reservoir, when a certain amount of heat is withdrawn, the temperature of the reservoir.

(a)  decreases

(b)  increases

(c)  becomes zero

(d)  remains constant

Answer: (d)

9. The specific resistance of a wire

(a)  varies with its mass

(b)  varies with its length

(c)  varies with its cross-section

(d)  varies with length and cross-section

(e)  is independent of mass, length and cross-section

Answer: (e)

10. You are provided with three “60W-220V” bulbs to be used in household supply. To get the maximum light these are to be connected across the supply

(a)  all in parallel

(b)  two in parallel and one in series

(c)  one in parallel and two in series

(d)  all in series

Answer: (a)

11. A photon and an electron have the same wavelength.

(a)  The photen has grater momentum

(b)  They have the same momentum

(c)  The electron has greater momentum.

(d)  None of the above conclusion can be uniquely drawn.

Answer: (b)

12. An electric charge e moves with a constant velocity v parallel to the lines of force of a uniform magnetic field B. The force experienced by the charge is

(a)  evB

(b)  e/Bv

(c)  ev/B

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

13. A boat, with a number of bricks on it, floats in the water of a tank. The bricks are then placed into the water of the tank. What will happen to the water level of the tank?

(a)  The level will remain the same.

(b)  The water level will rise.

(c)  The water level will fall.

(d)  Level may rise or fall.

Answer: (c)

14. You are required to measure a temperature of about 400℃. What type of thermometer do

(a)  A mercury thermometer

(b)  A resistance thermometer

(c)  A gas thermometer

(d)  A wet bulb thermometer

Answer: (b)

15. Ammonia can be liquefied at ordinary temperature while oxygen cannot be so liquefied, because.

(a)  Ammonia is a compound

(b)  Oxygen is diatomic

(c)  Oxygen has a lower critical temperature

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

16. Two straight copper wires are suspended vertically such that their bottom ends dip into a through containing mercury. The top ends are then connected to a battery through a resistance. When the current is passing through the circuit, the copper wires will

(a)  attract each other

(b)  repel each other

(c)  remain vertical

(d)  vibrate

Answer: (a)

17. You have two bulbs of 60 watt each when connected to 250 volts main. One bulb is made of tungsten filament while the filament of the other is made of carbon. If the two bulbs are joined in series and 250 volts are applied to the assembly

(a)  the bulb with tungsten filament will glow brighter

(b)  the bulb with carbon filament will glow brighter

(c)  the bulbs will glow equally

(d)  Inconclusive

Answer: (a)

18. Musical instruments having strings are accompanied with a hollow enclosure because it

(a)  produces harmonies

(b)  increases amplitude of vibration

(c)  increases frequency of vibration

(d)  produces resonance

Answer: (b)

19. The specific gravity of sea water is 1.125 and that of ice is 0.9. The fraction of an iceberg that will be seen above the sea level will be

(a)  0.2

(b)  0.15

(c)  0.09

(d)  0.32

Answer: (a)

20. When several light nuclei fuse together to form a heavier nucleus, the mass of the heavier nucleus formed is ——–the sum of the masses of constituent nuclei.

(a)  equal to

(b)  slightly higher than

(c)  slightly less than

(d)  much higher than

(e)  much less than

Answer: (c)

21. Five resistances are connected as shown in the figure. The equivalent resistance when measured at points A and C will be

(a)  30 ohm

(b)  3.33 ohm

(c)  12 ohm

(d)  10 ohm

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

22. The needle of a tangent galvanometer produces a deflection of 45° when a current of 10 ampere is passed through it. To produce a deflection of 30°, the current has to be changed to

(a)  5.77 A

(b)  6.33 A

(c)  4.80 A

(d)  3.33 A

Answer: (a)

23. An ideal monatomic gas is taken round the cycle ABCDA as shown in the figure. The work done during the cycle is

(a)  pV

(b)  2pV

(c)  4pV

(d)  zero

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

24. Ferromagnetic substance lose their special

(a)  semi-diamagnetic

(b)  diamagnetic

(c)  paramagnetic

(d)  orthomagnetic

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

25. In a lift, a man feels his real weight when

(a)  the lift is at rest

(b)  the lift moves with an uniform velocity

(c)  the lift moves up with an acceleration

(d)  Both (a) and (b) occur

Answer: (a)

26. The velocity of escape for a body on the earth depends

(a)  on the mass of the body

(b)  on the square root of the mass of the body

(c)  on the square of the m ass of the body

(d)  not on the mass of the body

Answer: (d)

27. Which one of the following statements is not true?

(a)  A body possesses energy but has no momentum

(b)  A body possesses momentum but has no energy.

(c)  Two bodies may have the same kinetic energy but different momenta.

(d)  None of the above.

Answer: (c)

28. An audio-oscillator is tuned to a tuning fork of nominal value 512 Hz. The oscillator is accurately calibrated and when it reads 514 Hz, a beat frequency of 2 Hz is heard. When it reads 510 Hz, another beat frequency of 6 GHz is heard. The actual frequency of the fork is

(a)  518

(b)  516

(c)  512

(d)  510

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

29. A car travels one third of the total distance with velocity 10 km/h. next one-third with 20 km/h and the last one-third with 60 km/h. The average velocity in the whole journey is

(a)  30 km/h

(b)  18 km/h

(c)  37.5 km/h

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

30. A particle is moving in a circular path with a constant speed v. The change in its velocity after it has moved an angle of 120° is

(a)  zero

(b)  2v

(c)  v√2

(d)  v√3

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

31. The kinetic energy of a body is increased 300%. The percentage increase in its momentum is

(a)  300

(b)  200

(c)  150

(d)  100

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

32. The inductance and resistance are denoted by L and R respectively. The dimensional formula of L/R is

(a)  M0L0T

(b)  M0L0T0

(c)  M2L0T0

(d)  MLT2

Answer: (a)

33. A graph is plotted with the activity of a radioactive sample against the number of atoms present in it at different times. The graph is

(a)  a parabola

(b)  a hyperbola

(c)  a straight line

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

34. The Young’s modulus of a material is equal to that stress which increase the length l of a wire to

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (d)

35. Two vectors  satisfy the condition that  The angle between  is

(a)  0°

(b)  60°

(c)  90°

(d)  120°

(e) None of these

Answer: (b)

36. An astronaut while orbiting the earth in a circle 200 km above the earth’s surface releases out his spacecraft a packet. The packet will

(a)  follow the spacecraft

(b)  fall vertically downward to the earth

(c)  move irregularly to have a final fall to the earth

(d)  do none of the above

Answer: (a)

37. Ultrasound may be generated by

(a)  Peltier effect

(b)  Doppler effect

(c)  Piezoelectric effect

(d)  Faraday effect

Answer: (b)

38. Decibel is

(a)  a musical note

(b)  a musical instrument

(c)  the wavelength of noise

(d)  the itch of a musical sound

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

39. When light travels from one medium to another separated by a sharp boundary, the characteristic that remains unchanged is

(a)  velocity

(b)  wavelength

(c)  frequency

(d)  amplitude

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

40. Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

(a)  Infrared rays have more heating power than visible rays.

(b)  Infrared rays travel with the same velocity as visible rays.

(c)  Ultraviolet rays have a wavelength longer than infrared rays.

(d)  Infrared rays can be focused by a lens and reflected by a mirror.

Answer: (c)

41. 1g of steam at 100℃ can melt an amount m of ice at 0℃. The value of m is

(a)  8 g

(b)  8 kg

(c)  6.75 g

(d)  (80/540)g

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

42. N similar conductors, each of resistance R, when connected in parallel give an equivalent

(a)  r/N2

(b)  N2r

(c)  Nr

(d)  r/N

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

43. A current is passed through a closed circuit of two dissimilar metals. It is found that heat is generated in one junction and absorbed at the other. The phenomenon is called

(a)  Joule effect

(b)  Thomson effect

(c)  Seeback effect

(d)  Peltier effect

Answer: (d)

44. The ratio of the specific charge of a proton to that of an α-particle is

(a)  1 : 2

(b)  4 : 1

(c)  1 : 4

(d)  2 : 1

Answer: (d)

45. A body is projected at 30° to the horizontal having kinetic energy E. What will be the kinetic energy at the top most point of the trajectory?

(a)  Zero

(b)

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

46. The unit of nuclear radius is

(a)  Micron

(b)  Angstrom

(c)  Curie

(d)  Fermi

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

47. The molecular weight of heavy water is

(a)  18

(b)  20

(c)  36

(d)  40

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

48. What is the angle between 

(a)  0

(b)  π/2

(c)  π

(d)  2π

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

49. Which of the following effects is shown by a.c. ?

(a)  Magnetic effect

(b)  Chemical effect

(c)  Electro-chemical effect

(d)  Heating effect

Answer: (d)

50. Which of the following pairs are identical in respect to units or dimensions?

(a)  Force and Work

(b)  Pressure and Density

(c)  Momentum and Impulse

(d)  Moment and Impulse

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

51. Two musical instruments are sounds together the frequencies of sound emitted by them are

n1 and n2(n1 > n2). The heat frequency is

(a)  2(n1 – n2)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

52. The energy of monochromatic X-rays of wavelength 1 A0 is about

(a)  2 × 1015 J

(b)  2 × 1010 J

(c)  2 × 1017 J

(d)  2 × 1018 J

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

53. A red postage stamp is viewed in green light. It would appear

(a)  black

(b)  orange

(c)  deep yellow

(d)  reddish green

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

54. The device that converts heat to electrical energy is

(a)  electric cell

(b)  steam engine

(c)  thermocouple

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

55. A lorry and a car moving with the same kinetic energy are brought to rest by the application of brakes that provide equal retarding forces. Which of them will come to rest in a shorter distance?

(a)  Lorry

(b)  Car

(c)  Both in equal distance

(d)  Cannot be said unless their masses are known

Answer: (c)

56. Therminoic emission is a process in which

(a)  photons are emitted

(b)  heat radiation is given off

(c)  light is emitted

(d)  electrons are emitted

(e)  None of the above is true

Answer: (d)

57. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for sometime after which it decelerates at a constant rate β to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, the maximum velocity acquired by the car is given by

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

58. A block can slide on a smooth inclined plane of inclination θ kept on the floor of a lift. When the lift is descending with a retardation a, the acceleration of the block relative to the incline is

(a)  (g – a) sin θ

(b)  (g + a) sin θ

(c)  g sin θ

(d)  (g – a)

Answer: (b)

59. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface, the gain in the potential energy of an object of mass m, raised from the earth’s surface to a height equal to the radius R of the earth is

(a) 

(b)  2mgR

(c)  mgR

(d) 

Answer: (a)

60. A laser beam is different from an ordinary beam of light because

(a)  their frequencies are different

(b)  laser beam has greater amplitude than that of ordinary light

(c)  waves in the laser beam are in phase whereas the waves in ordinary light are not

(d)  wavelength of laser is smaller thall that of ordinary light

Answer: (c)

61. When the cold junction of a thermocouple is at 0℃, the neutral temperature (max emf) is 200℃. When the cold junction is raised to a temperature of 40℃, the neutral temperature

(a)  becomes 220℃

(b)  remains the same

(c)  decreases

(d)  becomes 240℃

Answer: (a)

62. A proton moving with constant velocity passes through a region of space without any change in its velocity. If E and B represent the electric and magnetic fields respectively, this region of space may have

(a)  E = 0, B = 0

(b)  E = 0, B ≠ 0

(c)  E ≠ 0, B = 0

(d)  E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0

Answer: (a)

63. Two vectors are acting at a point. If one of them is reversed in direction, their resultant turns through an angle of 90°. This happens due to which one of the following reasons?

(a)  Two vectors are of unequal magnitude.

(b)  Two vectors are of equal magnitude.

(c)  The magnitude of one vector is double the other.

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

64. A siphon works under atmospheric pressure. What will happen to the efficiency of the siphon when the pressure is increased?

(a)  It will work as before

(b)  The efficiency will increase

(c)  The efficiency will decrease.

(d)  Efficiency may decrease or increase depending on other factors.

Answer: (b)

65. A beaker filled partly with water is placed on one pan of a balance. it is balanced by putting weights on the other p an and in this condition a piece of stone tied to a string is immersed in the water of the beaker such that no part of the stone or thread touches the beaker or the balance. What will happen to the equilibrium condition of the balance ?

(a)  The pan with the beaker will move upwards.

(b)  The pan with beaker will go down.

(c)  The balance will remain in equilibrium as before.

(d)  Information is insufficient for any conclusion..

Answer: (c)

66. A boy drops a coin outside a train running with a constant velocity. The trajectory of the coin as seen by another boy sitting in a second train moving in the opposite direction is

(a)  a vertical line

(b)  a parabolic curve

(c)  an arc of a circle

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

Chemistry

 

67. Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to give

(a)  Formamide

(b)  Methylamine

(c)  Hexamethylene tetramine

(d)  Formalin

(e)  Formic acid

Answer: (c)

68. In a reversible reaction, a catalyst influences

(a)  only the equilibrium constant of the reaction

(b)  only the backward reaction rate

(c)  only the forward reaction rate

(d)  the rates of both the forward and backward reactions

Answer: (d)

69. A solution of a weak monobasic acid and one of its salts will have the maximum buffer efficiency when

(a)  the concentrations of acid and salt are equal

(b)  the pH is 7.0

(c)  the pka is equal to the pH of a solution of the salt

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

70. Oxidation of isopropanol with acidic dichromate solution gives

(a)  acetone

(b)  acetic acid

(c)  acetaldehyde

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

71. Types of valence bonds in the formation of NH4Cl are

(a)  electrovalent only

(b)  covalent only

(c)  electrovalent and covalent

(d)  electrovalent, covalent and coordinate covalent

Answer: (d)

72. Bragg equation correlates

(a)  lattice spacing in terms of wavelength

(b)  order of reflection against crystal forms

(c)  glancing angle against axial angles

(d)  electron velocity against wavelength

Answer: (b)

73. Internal energy of an ideal gas at constant temperature

(a)  is independent of pressure

(b)  is independent of volume

(c)  is independent of both pressure and volume

(d)  changes with pressure and volume

Answer: (c)

74. During an adiabatic process, the entropy of the system

(a)  increases

(b)  decreases

(c)  remains constant

(d)  cannot be predicted

Answer: (c)

75. The hardness of a sample of water containing 0.001 mole of MgSO4 in a litre of water in ppm is

[Assume ca = 40, c = 12 and O = 16]

(a)  1000

(b)  100

(c)  10

(d)  1

(e)  0.001

Answer: (b)

76. Which of the following can absorb CO the most?

(a)  P2O5

(b)  NH3

(c)  NaOH

(d)  CuCl2

(e)  NH3 and CuCl2 in solution

Answer: (e)

77. Which is the most powerful nucleophile among the following?

(a)  HO

(b)  CH3COO

(c)  Cl

(d)  HSO−4

(e)  Br

Answer: (b)

78. Which of the following products is obtained when Cl2 gas is passed over heated alumina and coke?

(a)  AlCl3

(b)  CHCl3

(c)  COCl­2

(d)  CCl4

(e)  Al4C3 and HCl

Answer: (a)

79. Sea-weeds are important commercial source of

(a)  Methane

(b)  Ozone

(c)  Bromine

(d)  Iodine

Answer: (d)

80. Which of the following pairs of reactant generate H2 gas?

(a)  Zn and cold dilute HNO3

(b)  Mg and cold dilute HNO3

(c)  Cu and conc. H2SO4

(d)  Fe and cold dilute HNO3

Answer: (a)

81. When CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2 reacts with HBr, the product is

(a)  CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2Br

(b)  Br – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2Br

(c)   

 

(d)  CH3.CH2.CH3 and CH3Br

Answer: (c)

82. While aqueous solution of AlCl3 is acidic towards litmus, that of NaCl is not. This is because of

(a)  hydrolysis

(b)  oxidation

(c)  reduction

(d)  oxidation and reduction

(e)  solubility

Answer: (d)

83. The solubility of iodine in water is greatly increased by

(a)  adding an acid solution

(b)  adding KI solution

(c)  boiling the solution

(d)  cooling the solution

(e)  boiling, followed by cooling the solution

Answer: (d)

84. 1 gram of Zn liberates 224 ml of H2 at N. T.P. from 98 grams of H2SO4 and 0.35 gram of Zn is left unreacted. The data determines the equivalent weight of

(a)  Zn

(b)  H2SO4

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

85. Acetate ions in solution behave as

(a)  base

(b)  acid

(c)  both acid and base

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

86. Which of the following compound has different equivalent weight in different media?

(a)  Na2CO3

(b)  FeSO4

(c)  KMnO4

(d)  Oxalic acid

Answer: (c)

87. 50 volumes of hydrogen takes 20 minutes to diffuse out of a vessel. 40 volumes of oxygen will diffuse out from the same vessel under the same condition in

(a)  4 minutes

(b)  8 minutes

(c)  16 minutes

(d)  64 minutes

Answer: (d)

88. An unbalanced chemical equation is against the law of

(a)  mass action

(b)  definite proportion

(c)  conservation of mass

(d)  gaseous volume

Answer: (a)

89. Which one of the following law is represented by the statement – “The same elements combined together in the same proportion always given the same compound.”

(a)  Law of constant proportion

(b)  Law of multiple proportion

(c)  Law of reciprocal proportion

(d)  Law of reciprocal proportion

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

90. The chloride of an element contains 77.43% chlorine. The vaopur density of the compound being 68.69, molecular formula of the compound is

(a)  MCl

(b)  MCl2

(c)  MCl3

(d)  MCl4

Answer: (c)

91. The value of the universal gas constant is

(a)  1.987 litre atmosphere degree1mole1

(b)  0.082 calories degree1 mole1

(c)  8.03197 joule degree1 mole1

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

92. Paamagnetism often found among the transition metals is because of

(a)  the existence of vacant orbitals

(b)  the presence of one or more unpaired electrons in the system

(c)  lower electropositivity

(d)  variable valency

Answer: (b)

93. Radon is a

(a)  semi conductor

(b)  rare gas

(c)  radar component

(d)  metal detecting device

Answer: (b)

94. In the nuclear reaction 7N14 + 2He148O17 + X, the term X represents

(a)  1H3

(b)  1H1

(c)  2He4

(d)  γ-rays

Answer: (b)

95. According to Bohr the motion of an electron is restricted in such a manner that its angular momentum is an integral multiple of

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

96. Find from the electronic configuration, the element that belongs to the 5th group in the periodic table.

(a)  1S2. 2S2. 2p6 . 3S2 . 3p3

(b)  1S2. 2S2 . 2p6 . 3S2 . 3p5

(c)  1S2 . 2S2 . 2p6. 3S2 . 3p4

(d)  1S2 . 2S2 . 2p6 . 3S2 . 3p6 . 4S1

Answer: (a)

97.  An atom of chlorine contains in its nucleus

(a)  17 neutrons

(b)  17 protons

(c)  18 neutrons

(d)  17 protons and 18 neutrons

Answer: (d)

98. Phosphine is produce by the action of while phosphorus on

(a)  HNO3

(b)  H2SO4

(c)  NaOH

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

99. Which of the following contains fluorine ?

(a)  Phloroglucinol

(b)  Fluorene

(c)  Freon

(d)  Phorone

Answer: (c)

100. A slurry of gypsum in water is treated with ammonia and carbon-dioxide to manufacture

(a)  Ca(OH)2

(b)  (NH4)2 CO3

(c)  (NH4)2 SO4

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

101. When bi-valent thiosulphate ion is convened to bi-valent tetrathionate ion there is

(a)  no exchange of electrons

(b)  liberation of two electrons per thiosulphate ion

(c)  acceptance of two electrons by one thiosulphate ion

(d)  each thiosulphate ion donates one electron

Answer: ()

102. Compound, A is quantitatively converted to a compound P which undergoes further conversion to a third compound B. q­1­ calory of heat is evolved in the first reaction and q2­ calory is absorbed in course of the second. Now, the compound B can be reconverted to A directly during which Q calory, heat is absorbed. Then

(a)  Q > q1 + q2

(b)  Q < q1 + q2

(c)  Q – q1 + q2 = 0

(d)  Q = q1 + q2

Answer: (c)

103. In dilute solution

(a)  vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of the solute

(b)  vapour pressure of the solution is the product of the vapour pressure of the pure solvent and the mole fraction of the solvent

(c)  relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the mole fraction of the solute

(d)  the vapor pressure of the solution is less than that of the pure solvent by an amount equal to the molality of the solute

Answer: (c)

104. Which of the following metals is used in storage battery ?

(a)  Copper

(b)  Lead

(c)  Tin

(d)  Nickel

Answer: (b)

105. Which of the following statements is according to Hess’s law?

(a)  Heat change in a particular reaction is constant.

(b)  Heat change in a particular reaction is independent of the manner in which the reaction takes place.

(c)  Heat change in a particular reaction is the same regardless of the path by which the change occurs.

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

106. Tyndall effect is

(a)  an electro Binetic phenomenon observed in colloidal system

(b)  a magnetic field effect on the transition elements

(c)  an optical property of colloids

(d)  a characteristic property of olifinic compounds

Answer: (d)

107. Brownian movement is characteristic of

(a)  crystalloids

(b)  colloid

(c)  true solution

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

108. Which of the following pairs of the solutions will cause the same depression [∆T] of the freezing point of the solvents?

(a)  0.01 Molal solutions of naphthalene and anthraune in benzene

(b)  0.05 Molar solution of urea in water and naphthalene in benzene

(c)  0.02 Molar solution of common salt and urea in water

(d)  0.02 Molar solution of cane sugar and 0.04 Molal solution of glucose

Answer: ()

109. A solution of KCl has a specific conductivity of 0.01119 mhos cm1. Its equivalent conductivity is

(a)  111.9 units

(b)  0.0001119 units

(c)  11.19 units

(d)  1119 units

Answer: (c)

110. Nitrobenzene on reduction with Zn dust and ammonium chloride solution gives mainly

(a)  Aniline

(b)  Phenyl hydrazene

(c)  Phenyl hdyroxylamine

(d)  Azobenzene

Answer: (c)

111. One example of thermoplastic is

(a)  Area-Formaldehyde

(b)  Phenol-Formaldehyde

(c)  Formica

(d)  P.V.C

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

112. When does a real gas behave almost as an ideal gas?

(a)  When the temperature is low

(b)  When both the temperature and pressure are low

(c)  When both the temperature and pressure are high

(d)  When the temperature is high but pressure is low

(e)  When the temperature is low but pressure is high

Answer: (d)

113. Atomic weight determination by Dulong-Petit’s law is not applicable for the metal

(a)  Al

(b)  Mg

(c)  Be

(d)  Cu

(e)  Zn

Answer: (c)

114. Which one of the following sets may be cited as an example to illustrate the law of multiple proportions ?

(a)  NO and K2O

(b)  Al2O3 and Fe2O3

(c)  CO2 and SO2

(d)  CO and CO2

(e)  HCl, HOCl, HClO3

Answer: (d)

115. The equivalent conductance of a solution of an electrolyte increases as

(a)  dilution increases

(b)  dilution decreases

(c)  temperature decreases

(d)  cell constant increases

(e)  cell constant decreases

Answer: (a)

116. Which one of the following is a Lewis acid ?

(a)  NaCl

(b)  CaCl2

(c)  AlCl2

(d)  CCl4

(e)  NH4Cl

Answer: (c)

117. The velocity of any chemical reaction at any instant at a given temperature is dependent on

(a)  states of rectants and products

(b)  molal concentration of reactants and products

(c)  active mass of the reactants and products

(d)  thermal stabilities of each of the reactants

(e)  the states of aggregation of the reactants

Answer: (b)

118. The nature of a chemical bond of a binary compound is decided approximately from the

(a)  difference of electronegativity between the two elements

(b)  difference of ionization potential of the two elements

(c)  difference in relative position of elements in the periodic table

(d)  the number of outermost electrons in respective atoms

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

119. Alkali hydrolysis of glycerides of fatty acids is known as

(a)  Saponification

(b)  Esterification

(c)  Isomerism

(d)  Recemisation

(e)  Epimerisation

Answer: (a)

120. Electrons ejected in β-emission come from

(a)  the orbital electrons of the atom

(b)  the nucleus of the atom

(c)  the proton of the nucleus

(d)  the neutron of the nucleus

(e)  surrounding ionized air

Answer: (d)

121. Lucas reagent is a mixture of

(a)  Conc. HCl and hydrated ZnCl2

(b)  Conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2

(c)  Conc. HNO and hydrated ZnCl2

(d)  Conc. HNO3 and anhydrous ZnCl2

(e)  Conc. H2SO4 and anhydrous ZnCl2

Answer: (b)

122. The shape of BeF2 molecule is

(a)  tetrahedral

(b)  angular

(c)  linear

(d)  trigonal

Answer: (c)

123. If two solutions have the same osmotic pressure, they are said to be

(a)  isomeric

(b)  isotonic

(c)  isobaric

(d)  isomorphic

(e)  Isotropic

Answer: (d)

124. The group which does not enter directly in the benzene ring is

(a)  (CH3)2 CH −

(b)  −NO2

(c)  −C2H5

(d)  −NH2

(e)  Cl

Answer: (a)

125. Maximum number of electrons in an orbit with a definite principal quantum number is ultimately decided by

(a)  Uncertainty principle

(b)  Aufbau principle

(c)  Pauli’s exclusion principle

(d)  Soddy’s rule

Answer: (c)

126. Formaldehyde can be distinguished from acetaldehyde by their reaction with

(a)  Fehlings solution

(b)  Tollens reagent

(c)  NaHSO3

(d)  50% NaOH

(e)  N2H4

Answer: (d)

127. The middle oil fraction (170 − 230℃) of coal tar serves as a source for

(a)  benzene and toluene

(b)  phenol and napthalene

(c)  napthalene and anthracene

(d)  phenol and anthracene

(e)  benzene and anthracene

Answer: (b)

128. Bakelite is a polymer of

(a)  urea and formaldehyde

(b)  phenol and formaldehyde

(c)  phenol and formaldehyde

(d)  hexamethylene diamine and acetic acid

(e)  styrene and ethanol

Answer: (b)

129. In the gaseous reaction system

A2(g) + 2B2(g)         2AB2(g) + Q cal

a high yield of AB2(g) will be obtained at

(a)  high pressure and low temperature

(b)  high pressure and high temperature

(c)  low pressure and low temperature

(d)  low pressure and high temperature

(e)  high pressure and any temperature

Answer: (a)

130. Phenol is known to b acidic. The p-Nitrophenol should be

(a)  a stronger acid

(b)  a weaker acid

(c)  a neutral compound

(d)  weakly basic

(e)  equally strong as acid as phenol

Answer: (a)

131. Introduction of an I group in benzene ring may be carried by

(a)  Friedel Craft reaction

(b)  Cannizaro reaction

(c)  Sandmeyer reaction

(d)  Diazo reaction

(e)  Hell- Volhard’s method

Answer: (d)

132. Which of the following reagents is used in the transformation CH3COCH3 CH3CH2CH2 ?

(a)  Zn-amalgam + HCl

(b)  Sodium ethoxide

(c)  LiAlH4

(d)  H2/Pd

Answer: (a)

Biology

 

133. Consider the following

(1)  structural gene

(2)  messenger RNA

(3)  ribosome

(4)  transcription

(5)  translation

Which one of the following is the correct sequence for protein synthesis ?

(a)  1    4        3        2        5

(b)  1    4        2        3        5

(c)  2    1        3        5        4

(d)  3    2        5        4        1

(e)  3    2        1        5        4

Answer: (b)

134. Which one of the following factors is the most effective in accelerating the rate of breathing in a mammal?

(a)  A lack of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs

(b)  An excess of carbon-dioxide in the lungs

(c)  A lack of oxygen in the blood

(d)  An excess of carbon-dioxide in the blood

(e)  A lack of oxygen in the tissues

Answer: (d)

135. In the Embden-Meyerhof Pathways

(a)  glucose breaks down to pyruvate

(b)  glucose breaks down to CO2 and H2O

(c)  pyruvic acid breaks down to Acetyl COH

(d)  pyruvic acid breaks down to CO2 + H2O

(e)  glucose breaks down to succinic acid

Answer: (a)

136. Why do we dig for fossils and study them?

(a)  To find out new fossils that have not yet been recorded.

(b)  Fossil finding gives occupation for scientists.

(c)  Fossils fill the gaps in evolutionary records of animals

(d)  Fossils throw light an evolution of animals of the past.

(e)  For the sake of curiosity.

Answer: (d)

137. During muscle contraction which one of the following doesn’t show any change in their length?

(a)  Sarcomere

(b)  Isotropic band

(c)  H-zone

(d)  Anisotropic band

(e)  Cross-bridges

Answer: (d)

138. Which of the following p arts of the eye is characteristic of birds ?

(a)  Lens

(b)  Retina

(c)  Pecten

(d)  Iris

(e)  Conjuntiva

Answer: (c)

139. Provitamins are

(a)  organic substances which are used as raw material for synthesis of vitamin in animal body

(b)  substance which have got structural similarity to the vitamins but without similarity in physiological action

(c)  substance which have got structural and chemical similarity but without having any physiological effect

(d)  organic compounds cannot be synthesized by the organism

(e)  vitamin deficiencies leading to obvious pathological changes in tissues and organs

Answer: (a)

140. Small pieces of autonomous, extrachromosomal, circular DNA found in some bacterial cells is called

(a)  Prokaryote

(b)  Plasmid

(c)  Peroxisome

(d)  Polysome

(e)  Vector

Answer: (b)

141. Copper containing blood pigment commonly noticed among molluscs is

(a)  Haemerythrin

(b)  Haemoglobin

(c)  Chlorocruorin

(d)  Haemocyanin

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

142. Cretinism is a diseased condition which occurs due to the deficiency of which one of the following hormones ?

(a)  Thyroxin

(b)  Pituitary hormone

(c)  Adrenaline

(d)  SH and LH

(e)  Corticotrophin

Answer: (a)

143. Down’s syndrome is caused due to

(a)  Trisomy of 7th chromosome

(b)  Polyploidy of chromosome No. 20

(c)  Monosomy of No. 16 chromosome

(d)  Trisomy of chromosome No. 21

(e)  Trisomy of chromosome No. 11

Answer: (d)

144. The allantois in chick is the

(a)  protective membrane surrounding the embryo

(b)  embryonic reservoir of metabolic wastes

(c)  embryonic nutritive organ

(d)  embryonic respiratory organ

(e)  embryonic food reservoir

Answer:(c)

145. In man 2n = 46. In a primary spermatocyte how many chromosomes will be found ?

(a)  23

(b)  46

(c)  92

(d)  22

(e)  69

Answer: (b)

146. Carnassial teeth are present in

(a)  Bat

(b)  Rat

(c)  Human

(d)  Guineapig

(e)  Dog

Answer: (e)

147. The most common chlorofluorocarbons (CFCI3) which is used primarily as a propellent is aerosol spray cans and CF2Cl2 which is used as a refrigerant (commonly known as Freon) is now banned because chlorofluorocarbons in the atmosphere destroy large quantities of ozone (O3) by photolytic process. ozone is necessary as

(a)  Ozone screens out most of the damaging  portion of the ultraviolet radiation

(b)  Ozone supplies most of the O2 necessary for plants and animals

(c)  Ozone damages the ultraviolet light necessary for plants and animals

(d)  Ozone retards the growth of microorganisms

(e)  Ozone damages the cellular level

Answer: (a)

148. The sodium-potassium pump transports

(a)  Na+ and K+ out of the neuron

(b)  Na+ into the neuron and K+ out

(c)  K+ into the neuron and Na+ out

(d)  Na+ and K+ into the neuron

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

149. The membrane of endoplasmic reticulum consists of

(a)  three layers – protein – lipid – protein

(b)  three layers – carbohydrate – protein – lipid

(c)  four layers –  protein – lipid – lipid – protein

(d)  two layers – protein –lipid

(e) two layers – lipid – protein

Answer: (c)

150. A bacterium differs from a virus in

(a)  presence of nucleic acid in virus

(b)  presence of cell wall in bacterium

(c)  presence of nucleoid in virus

(d)  disease producing ability in virus

(e)  presence of plasma membrane in virus

Answer: (b)

151. The giraffe has a long neck because according to Darwin

(a)  its ancestors stretched their necks to get food

(b)  the creator designed in that way

(c)  catastrophes eliminated short-necked forms

(d)  ancestral giraffes with slightly longer necks than others

(e)  getting more food the ancestral giraffes gave birth to such

Answer: (d)

152. Pyrenoid granules are

(a)  protein covered by starch in spyrogyra

(b)  starch covered by protein in spyrogyra

(c)  fat covered by protein in spyrogyra

(d)  starch and protein covered by lipid layer in fungi

(e)  nucleoprotein present in cytoplasm of algae

Answer: (a)

153. The significance of meiosis is

(a)  duplication of somatic cells

(b)  multiplication of germ cells

(c)  reduction of chromosome numbers to facilitate recombination with other genetic constituent

(d)  duplication of chromosomes and helping in propagation

(e)  growth of the body as well as gonads

Answer: (c)

154. The phloem is responsible for

(a)  transfer of food prepared in leaves to different parts of body

(b)  transfer of water absorbed by the roots

(c)  transfer food material absorbed by the roots

(d)  transfer of both food and water in plant body

(e)  storage of food in plant body

Answer: (a)

155. The Nissl’s granules are

(a)  granular substances found in the cardiac muscle acting as stimulating agent

(b)  granular structures found in neurone acting as catalysts during  transmission of impulse

(c)  granular substances found in the epithelial cells and secretory in function

(d)  vesicular structure enclosing different enzymes

(e)  found in glial cells and secretes neurosecretory substances

Answer: (b)

156. In the Watson and Crick model, DNA molecule is formed by two polydeoxyribonucleotide strand coiling clockwise. The length of a complete cooling is

(a)  3.4° A

(b)  4.5° A

(c)  10° A

(d)  3.2° A

(e)  5.4° A

Answer: (a)

157. In a Mendelian dihyrbid cross of sweet pea taking seed coat character you got 1000 offsprings with the following ratio of character after crossing pollens of yellow (Y) and round (R) seed coat character with eggs of green (g) and wrinkled (w) seed coat character.

Yellow Round – 250

Yellow Wrinkled – 250

Green Round – 250

Green Wrinkled -250

From the above result you can conclude that this result is due to “

(a)  incomplete dominance

(b)  independent assortment

(c)  segregation

(d)  yellow round plant was hybrid for both yellow and round character

(e)  green wrinkled plant was hybrid for both green and wrinkled character

Answer: (d)

158. During cell division, the maximum DNA synthesis occurs in phase

(a)  G1

(b)  G2

(c)  S

(d)  P

(E) M

Answer: (c)

159. A phase of cell division where chromatids gradually coiled, nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear, and spindle formed, is called

(a)  Synthesis phase

(b)  Metaphase

(c)  Anaphase

(d)  Telophase

(e)  Prophase

Answer: (e)

160. The chromosome in the salivary gland of Drosophila is a bigger one with different banding patterns. it is called

(a)  lampbrush chromosome

(b)  giant chromosome

(c)  puff chromosome.

(d)  polytene chromosome

(e)  autosome

Answer: (d)

161. In a flower the thalamus is hollow and cupshaped, and completely fuses with the lower part of the ovary. The ovary is inferior. The stemens, petals and sepals are placed above the pistil. The flower is called

(a)  Hypogynous

(b)  Epigynous

(c)  Perigynous

(d)  Gamosepalous

(e)  Polysepalous

Answer: (b)

162. During fertilization in gourd one of the sperm nuclei fuses. with

(a)  synergids to form zygote

(b)  antipodal cells to form zygote

(c)  tube nucleus to form zygote

(d)  definitive nucleus to form zygote

(e)  egg to form zygote

Answer: (e)

163. During protein synthesis,, the polyribosomes are produced by

(a)  tRNA

(b)  mRNA

(c)  rRNA

(d)  DNA

(e)  Informosomes

Answer: (b)

164. Which of the following plants belong to Labiatae?

(a)  Ocimum

(b)  Gossiplum

(c)  Cinchona

(d)  Coffea

(e)  Cocos

Answer: (a)

165. Due to transpiration from leaf surface water is drawn upwards. This is termed as

(a)  water current

(b)  transpiration current

(c)  ascent of sap

(d)  guttation

(e)  imbibitional force

Answer: (e)

166. The prosthetic group of an enzyme is

(a)  non-protein group attached to the protein

(b)  protein portion attached to the non-protein parts

(c)  phosphate group attached to the enzyme

(d)  isomer of non-protein substances

(e)  −COOH group attached with the proteins parts

Answer: (c)

167. In the light phase of photosynthesis, which one of the following is produced ?

(a)  NADPH

(b)  Phosphoglyceric acid

(c)  Diphosphoglyceric acid

(d)  Ribulose diphosphate

(e)  Diphosphoribital

Answer: (a)

168. The liver abscess may be formed due to the infection by which one of the following?

(a)  Entamoeba hystolytica

(b)  Giardia intertinalis

(c)  Plasmodium vivax

(d)  Paramoecium caudatum

(e)  Euglena viridis

Answer: (a)

169. Incomplete, metamorphosis is evident in

(a)  mosquito

(b)  silk moth

(c)  honey bee

(d)  prawn

(e)  cockroach

Answer: (e)

170. Which one of the following is a major paddy pest?

(a)  Millipede

(b)  Oryctes

(c)  Crab

(d)  Leptocoryza

(e)  Scorpion

Answer: (b)

171. Which of the followings is capable taking advantages of both aerial and aquatic respiration ?

(a)  Pila

(b)  Pearl Oyster

(c)  Mytilus

(d)  Sepia

(e)  Lamellideus

Answer: (a)

172. All vertebrates are chordate but all chordates are not vertebrates because

(a)  all vertebrates posses notochord in any of its life stage but many chordates do not have vertebral column

(b)  all chordates posses vertebral column but  some vertebrates may not have notochord

(c)  chordates have gills for respiration but vertebrates have lungs

(d)  vertebrates have closed blood circulation but some chordates lack it

(e)  all vertebrates have post anal tail but lower chrodates lack it

Answer: (a)

173. In man Ancyclostoma harbour in

(a)  stomach

(b)  intestinal wall

(c)  intestinal lumen

(d)  liver lobule

(e)  lungs

Answer: (b)

174. One of the main characteristics of reptiles which is present in on other animal is

(a)  Homodont dentition

(b)  Tympanic membrane

(c)  Scales

(d)  Nails

(e)  Neck

Answer: (c)

175. The transfer of food energy from the source in plants through a series of organisms with repeated eating and being eaten is called

(a)  energy flow

(b)  food chain

(c)  food web

(d)  pyramid of energy

(e)  ecosystem

Answer: (b)

176. In a pond ecosystem, trophic status of lata fish is

(a)  producer

(b)  primary consumer

(c)  secondary consumer

(d)  decomposer

(e)  detritus feeder

Answer: (c)

177. The pinnate compound leaves are found in

(a)  Tamarind

(b)  Hingon

(c)  Mango

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

178. Sweet potato is a modified

(a)  shoot as like potato

(b)  adventitious root

(c)  tap root

(d)  prop root

(e)  fibrous root

Answer: (b)

179. The chloroplast usually contains two types of pigments

(a)  chlorophylls and carotnoids

(b)  chlorophylls and xanthophylls.

(c)  xanthophylls and carotene

(d)  lycopene and luteal

(e)  chlorophyll and lycopene

Answer: (a)

180. Acrosome Cap of sperm head is formed by

(a)  mitochondria

(b)  golgi bodies

(c)  lisosomes

(d)  endoplasmic reticulum

(e)  nucleus

Answer: (b)

181. A centrosphere is

(a)  drum like body with two open ends

(b)  cytoplasmic portion surrounding the centriole

(c)  nuclear body forming chromosomes

(d)  ciliated structure within centrosome

(e)  made up of chromatin thread

Answer: (b)

182. Deoxycytidylic acid is formed by

(a)  phosphoric acid + deoxyribose sugar + cytosine

(b)  phosphoric acid + deoxyribose sugar + guanine

(c)  phosphoric  acid + deoxyribose sugar + adenine

(d)  phosphoric acid + deoxyribose sugar + thymine

(e)  phosphoric acid + eoxyribose sugar + uracil

Answer: (a)

183. The opening or closure of the stomatal pore during transpiration i entirely dependent

(a)  on the osmotic pressure (turgidity) of the guard cells

(b)  on sunlight

(c)  on the absorption rate and water pressure of the plant

(d)  on the stomatal march

(e)  upon atmospheric temperature

Answer: (a)

184. In the model of Watson and Crick, DNA molecule is formed by two polydeoxyribonucleotide strands coiling clockwise. In each coiling the number of deoxyribonucleotide is

(a)  twelve

(b)  five

(c)  ten

(d)  fifteen

(e)  twenty

Answer: (c)

185. Flower is a modified shoot because

(a)  its sepals are green

(b)  its petals are colourful

(c)  nodes and internodes are present

(d)  stem nature of stamens and carpels

(e)  it is produced from buds

Answer: (c)

186. In angiosperms the process of double fertilization means

(a)  one of the two nuclei of the male gametes fuses with the egg nucleus and another nucleus fuses with the definitive nucleus of embryosac.

(b)  both the nuclei fuses with ovum one after another

(c)  one nucleus fuses with antipodal cells

(d)  only single nucleus travels through the pollen tube and the other is lost

(e)  pollen grains fall on the stigma at first, then nucleus of pollen grain fuses with the nucleus of ovum

Answer: (a)

187. ‘Phosphorus’ in plant body is the

(a)  tracer element

(b)  macrometabolic element

(c)  micrometabolic element

(d)  derived element

(e)  non-essential element

Answer: (b)

188. The pearl is the

(a)  secretion of mantle of pearl oyster

(b)  parasitic action on the pearl oyster

(c)  secretion product of shell of pearl oyster

(d)  gland within the foot of pearl oyster

(e)  accumulated product from the sea water in the gills of pearl oyster

Answer: (a)

189. The leech can suck blood inclot because it can secrete

(a)  sodium citrate

(b)  potassium citrate

(c)  an anticoagulant enzyme

(d)  hirudin

(e)  toxic substance

Answer: (d)

190. As fowl is not a running bird, it possesses

(a)  well developed wings

(b)  nopygostyle

(c)  feathers without bards

(d)  well developed sternum with midventral keel

(e)  absence of furcula

Answer: (b)

191. In vertebrates, the neural plate is developed from

(a)  ectodermis

(b)  endodermis

(c)  mesoderm

(d)  ectoderm and mesoderm

(e)  ectoderm and endoderm

Answer: (a)

192. Which one of the following does not take place during the first nuclear division of meiosis ?

(a)  Pairing of homologous chromosomes

(b)  complete separation of the chromatids of each chromosome

(c)  Crossing over the chromatids

(d)  Reduction of the chromosome number

Answer: (b)

193. In the life cycle of any sexually reproducing organism, two essential events are nuclear fusion. and meiosis, but the position of these events may vary so that several distinct types of life cycle are possible. Which one of the following life cycles occurs in nature?

(a)  Diploid organism, meiosis, haploid gametes, nuclear fusion, haploid zygote, diploid organism

(b)  Haploid organism, haploid gametes, nuclear fusion, diploid zygote, meiosis, diploid organism

(c)  Diploid organism, haploid gametes, nuclear fusion, diploid zygote, meiosis, diploid organism.

(d)  Haploid organism, meiosis, haploid gametes,  nuclear fusion, diploid zygotes, haploid organism

(e)  Diploid organism, meiosis, haploid organism, nuclear fusion, diploid organism, haploid gametes.

Ans: (a)

194. The ultrastructure of cross-section of a centriole shows

(a)  ten double microtubules

(b)  nine triple microtubules

(c)  five triple microtubules

(d)  four triple microtubules

(e)  six double microtubules

Answer: (b)

195. Under the influence of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary, the

(a)  primary follicles of the ovary begin to grow

(b)  follicle cells are converted into a corpus luteum

(c)  corpus luteum is stimulated to begin secreting oestrogen

(d)  uterus changes in preparation for the fertilized ovum

(e)  placenta is formed

Answer: (c)

196. The mammal that possess small marsupiesm and also lay eggs is

(a)  bat

(b)  kangaroo

(c)  platypus

(d)  ant-eater

(e)  whale

Answer: (c)

197. The placenta develops in

(a)  pigeon

(b)  guinea-pig

(c)  crocodile

(d)  hen

(e)  lizard

Answer: (b)

198. Agar, a complex carbohydrate is extracted from

(a)  green algae

(b)  brown algae

(c)  red algae

(d)  blue green algae

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

199. Moulting in insects will result in the production of a nymphal or larval stage only if a certain hormone is present. This hormone is produced by

(a)  supra-oesophageal ganglion

(b)  sub-oesophageal ganglion

(c)  prothoracic gland

(d)  corpus allatum

(e)  ventral nerve cord

Answer: (c)

200. The leaves of Mimosa pudica droop down when they are touched. This movement is called

(a)  seismonasty

(b)  nyctinasty

(c)  photonasty

(d)  epinasty

(e)  chemonasty

Answer: (a)

Mathematics

 

1. The mean of marks of 300 students in an examination is 45. The mean of the top 100 students is 70 while the mean of the last 100 is 25. The mean of the other 100 students is

(a)  29

(b)  38

(c)  40

(d)  47

(e)  50

Answer: (c)

2. The first of the two samples has 100 items with the man 15 and standard deviation 3. If the whole group has 250 items with mean 15.6 and standard deviation  the standard deviation of the reminder of the group is

(a)  3.2

(b)  3.5

(c)  4

(d)  4.5

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

3. How m any optimal solutions the following problem has ?

Maximize z = 6x1 + 10x2

subject to  3x1 + 5x2 ≤ 10

5x1 + 3x2 ≤ 15

and x1, x2 ≥ 0

(a)  None

(b)  1

(c)  3

(d)  4

(e)  Infinitely many

Answer: ()

4.  exists then

(a)  derivative of f(x) with respect to x exists at x = 0

(b)  differential co-efficient f(x) with respect to x exists at the point x

(c)  f(x) is differentiable with respect to x everywhere

(d)  f(x) continuous at x = 0

(e)  f(x) is continuous and differentiable every where

Answer: (e)

5. The roots of the equation  are

(a)  (−3, −2, 0)

(b)  (1, 3, 6)

(c)  (0, 2, 4)

(d)  (−2, 0, 1)

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

6. Which of the following is NOT necessarily a symmetric matrix ?

(a)  Diagonal matrix

(b)  Identity matrix

(c)  Null matrix

(d)  Orthogonal matrix

(e)  Transpose of diagonal matrix

Answer: (d)

7. The value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  1/2

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

8. The area in the first quadrant bounded by the curves y2 = 4x and (x – 4)2 + y2 = 16 is

(a) 

(b) 

(c)  28/3

(d)  64/3

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

9. The solution of the differential equation is

(a)  2x + 3y = tan1(cex)

(b)

(c) 

(d) 

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

10. (1, 2, 3) and (3, 0, 5) are two points on a sphere whose centre lies on the straight line  Then the radius of the sphere is

(a)   

(b)   

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (b)

11. If the letters of the word RANDOM be arranged in a row at random, the probability that there are exactly two letters between A and O is

(a)  1/2

(b)  1/3

(c)  1/4

(d)  1/5

(e)  None of these   

Answer: (d)

12. The probability of a man hitting a target is 2/7. In order that the probability of hitting the target at least is greater than 3/4, he must fire at least n times where n is equal to

(a)  5

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  8

(e)  none of these

Answer: ()

13. If nP5 is equal to 20 nP3, then n is equal to

(a)  8

(b)  9

(c)  10

(d)  1

(e)  6

Answer: (a)

14. The most general value of θ which satisfies  is

(a)  

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  120°

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

15.  is equal to

(a)  

(b)  

(c)   

(d)   

(e)   

Answer: (c)

16. The function of f : A → B, where  and A = {x : x ∈ R, −1 ≤x ≤ x} defined by f(x) sin x is

(a)  one – one an onto

(b)  one – one and into

(c)  many – one and onto

(d)  many – one and into

(e)  Into

Answer: (a)

17. Differential coefficient of a sin1 x with respect to sin1 x is

(a)  asin1 x

(b)  asin1 x loge a

(c)  asin1 x loga e

(d)  

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

18. nCr + n – 1Cr + …..xrCr is equal to

(a)  n+1Cr

(b)  n+1Cr+1

(c)  n+2Cr

(d)  2n

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

19. If  then cos 80° cos 40° cos 20° is

(a)  1/2

(b)  −1/8

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

20. If f : R → R is defined by f(x) = x2 + 1, x ≥ 0, then which of the following is true?

(a)  f1(17) = 4

(b)  f1(17) = −4

(c)  f1(+3) = 0

(d)  f1 (0) = 0

(e)  f1(1) = −1

Answer: (a)

21. The two circles x2 + y2 + ax – by + c = 0 and x2 + y2 + bx + ay – c = 0

(a)  cannot cut orthogonally

(b)  cut orthogonally whatever values, a, b, c may have

(c)  touch one another

(d)  can cut orthogonally only if c = 0

Answer: (b)

22. The value of the indefinite integral  is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

23. The two straight line represented by the equation 4x2 – 12xy + 9y2 + 12x – 18y + 10 = 0

(a)  are perpendicular to each other

(b)  make an angle 45° to one another

(c)  are parallel

(d)  make an angle 60° to one another

Answer: (c)

24. The slope of a curve at any point (x, y) is 2x – 3. The curves passes through (3, 2). The area bounded by the curve, the x-axis and x = 2 and x = 4 is

(a)  4 sq. units

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

25. If a variable line makes on the x-axis and y-axis intercepts a and b such that 1/a + 1/b = 1/3. Then the line must p ass through the point

(a)  (3, 0)

(b)  (0, 3)

(c)  (3, 3)

(d)  (a, b)

Answer: (c)

26. The circles (x – 1)2 + λ(x + 1)2 + (1 + λ)y2 = 0 and (x – 1)2 + μ(x + 1)2 + (1 + μ)y2 = 0 will cut orthogonally if

(a)  λ = 0, μ ≠ 0

(b)  μ = 0, λ ≠ 0

(c)  μ  + λ = 0

(d)  λ – μ = 0

Answer: (c)

27. The rank of the matrix  is

(a)  3

(b)  2

(c)  1

(d)  0

Answer: (c)

28. A square matrix A of the order n × n has how many minors of order 1?

(a)  n

(b)  n2

(c)  n(n2 – 1)

(d)  n!

(e)   

Answer: (b)

29. The degree of the polynomial in t represented by the determinant of the matrix  is

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  6

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

30. Find the determinant of the matrix X such that 

(a)  10/9

(b)  2

(c)  18

(d)  10

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

31. Value of k for which the following three equations are consistent is

4x + 5y – 9 = 0

11x – 4y – k = 0

x + 2y – 3 = 0

(a)  6

(b)  7

(c)  3

(d)  4

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

32. Given 2x + y + z = 1, x – 2y – 3z = 1 and 3x + 2y + 4z = 5, value of y is given by

(a)   

(b)  

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (a)

33. Consider the following problems :

Maximise      z = 3x1 + 4x2

Subject to      x1 – x2 ≥ 0

                      −x1 + 3x2 ≤ 3

and x1, x2 ≥ 0. The optimum solution in this case

(a)  is the point of intersection of the lines x1 =  x2 and 3x2 – x1 = 3

(b)  does not exist

(c)  is x1 = x2 = 0

(d)  is unbounded

Answer: (b)

34. cos 80° + cos 40° is equal to

(a)  cos 20°

(b)  cos 120°

(c)  1/2

(d)  √3/2

Answer: (a)

35. If in a triangle, cos 3A + cos 3B + cos 3C = 1 then one angle

(a)  must be 90°

(b)  must be 120°

(c)  must be 45°

(d)  cannot be said.

Answer: (b)

36. Distance of the point (2, 5) from the line 3x + y + 4 = 0 measured parallel to the line 3x – 4y + 8 = 0 is

(a)  5

(b)  7.5

(c)  6/5

(d)  1

Answer: (a)

37. If the equation ax2 + by2 + 2hxy = 0 represent pair of straight lines passing through the origin then the two straight lines will be perpendicular if

(a)  a = b

(b)  a + b = 0

(c)  a + b = h

(d)  They can never be perpendicular to each other

Answer: (b)

38. Consider the circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 12 = 0 and the straight line 3x + 4y + 7 = 0. Which of the following is true ?

(a)  The line cuts the circle in two different points.

(b)  The line touches the circle at a point.

(c)  The line and the circle have no common points.

(d)  The line passes through the centre of the circle.

Answer: (b)

39. 

(a)   

(b)   

(c)  −sin x

(d)  N one of these

Answer: (b)

40. Probability that a teacher will give an unannounced test during any class meeting is 1/5. If a student is absent twice, probability that he will miss at least one test is

(a)  2/5

(b)  4/5

(c)  9/25

(d)  16/25

Answer: (c)

41. The number of words that can be formed with 15 consonant and 2 vowels out of 21 consonants and 5 vowels is

(a)  785

(b)  43584

(c)  542640

(d)  101080

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

42. There are 25 books in a cupboard, namely 13 books of Physics, 4 books of Chemistry, 3 volumes of Mathematics and 5 books of Statistics. Then, the number of possible ways in which some or all of these books may be taken out is

(a)  1679

(b)  1800

(c)  3204

(d)  5400

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

43. If cot1 x + cot1 y + cot1 z = π/2 then

(a)  xyz = x + y + z

(b)  xy + yz + xz = 1

(c)  xy + yz + xz = x + y + z

(d)  xyz = 1

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

44. The greatest distance from the origin of coordinates to the point z for which   is

(a)   

(b)  

(c)   

(d)  

(e)   

Answer: ()

45. The equation to the circle which touches the axis of x at a directed distance + 10 from the origin and cuts off an intercept 4√11 from the axis of y is given by

(a)  x2 + y2 – 10x ± 24y + 100 = 0

(b)  x2 + y2 – 20x ± 24y + 100 = 0

(c)  x2 + y2 + 10x ± 24y + 100 = 0

(d)  x2 + y2 + 200x ± 24y + 100 = 0

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

46. The equations of the tangent and normal to a circle at the point (2, 3) are x + y = 5 and y – x = 1 respectively. Then the equation of the circle is given by

(a)  x2 + y2 – 2x + 4y – 21 = 0

(b)  x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y + 3 = 0

(c)  x2 + y2 + 2x – 4y – 5 = 0

(d)  x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y – 29 = 0

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

47. Let a set W = {0, 2, 5, 9, 11} and let a function f : W → R(where R is the set of real numbers) be defined such that f(x) = x2 – x – 2. Then the range of f is

(a)  {–2, 0, 18, 70, 108}

(b)  {–2, 0, 18, 70, 100}

(c)  {–2, 0, 18, 70, 121}

(d)  {–2, 0, 18, 70, 144}

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

48. The function  for x > 0 is

(a)  monotonically increasing    

(b)  monotonically decreasing

(c)  partly increasing and partly decreasing

(d)  a straight line

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

49. 1 is the value of

(a)   

(b)  

(c)   

(d)   

(e) 

Answer: (e)

50. If x = a(θ – sin θ), y = a(1 + cos θ), then 

(a)  cot θ

(b)  −cot θ

(c)  cot (1/2) θ

(d)  −cot(1/2) θ

(e)  tan θ + cot θ

Answer: (d)

51. A function f(x) is defined as follows :

Then the function is discontinuous at

(a)  x = 0

(b)  x = −4/5

(c)  x = 4/5

(d)  x = 16/5

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

52. The value of   for 0 is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

(e)   

Answer: (e)

53. The maximum value of x1/x is

(a)  ee

(b)  e

(c)  1/ee

(d)  e1

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

54. The value of integral  is given by

(a) 

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

55. The differential equation of all circles touching the y-axis at the origin is given by

(a)  (x2 – y2)dy – 2xy  dx = 0

(b)  (x2 – y2)dx – 2xy  dy = 0

(c)  (x2 + y2)dy – 2xy  dx = 0

(d)  (y2 – x2)dy – 2xy  dx = 0

(e)  (y2 – x2)dy – 2xy  dy = 0

Answer: (e)

56. A curve satisfies the different equation  and passes through the point (3, 2). The equation of the curve is given by

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

57. Area of the segment of the curve y = (1 – x) (x – 4) cut off by the x-axis is

(a)   

(b)  5

(c)   

(d)   

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

58.  then the values of x, y and z are respectively

(a)  –1, 2 and –3

(b)  –1, –2 and –3

(c)  –1, 3 and –3

(d)  –1, –4 and –3

(e)  none of these

Answer: (a)

59. The co-ordinates of two vertives of a triangle are (2, 3) and (1, 4). Then the equation to the locus of the third vertex if the area of the triangle is 5 square units is given by

(a)  x + y + 5 = 0, x + y + 15 = 0

(b)  x + y + 5 = 0, x + y – 10 = 10

(c)  x + y + 5 = 0, x + y – 15 = 0

(d)  x + y + 5 = 0, x + y – 5 = 0

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

60. The cosine of the angle between the vectors 4i + 3j + 5k and –i + 2j – 3k is

(a) 

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

61. Let  Then [AB]1 is equal to

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

62. The following linear equations

2x + 3y – 17 = 0

x – 2y + k = 0

3x + y – 1 = 0

are consistent if k has the value of

(a)  –15

(b)  4

(c)  16

(d)  –16

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

63. The matrix  is

I : Singular

II : Non-Singular

III : Idempotent i.e. A2 = A

(a)  Only I is true

(b)  Only II is true

(c)  Both I and III are true

(d)  Both II and III are true

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

64. Given a matrix 

It can be uniquely represented as the sum of symmetric and a skew symmetric matrix which are respectively

(a)    

(b) 

(c)  

(d)   

Answer: (c)

65. a = i + 2j + 3k, b = −i + j – k and c = i + 4j + 6k are three vectors. Then the vector d which is both perpendicular to a and b and satisfies the relation d.c = 25 is

(a)  (25, 10, 15)

(b)  (25, –10, 15)

(c)  (–25, –10, 15)

(d)  (–25, –10, –15)

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

66. Let A and B be two events. Then P(A ∩ B) = P(A) P(B) indicates that A and B are two

(a)  exhaustive events

(b)  mutually exclusive events

(c)  independent events

(d)  mutually exhaustive and independent

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

67. The probability of getting a total of 10 points with 4 dice is

(a)  0.723

(b)  0.5

(c)  0.127

(d)  0.061

(e)  None of these

Answer: ()

68. a, b, c are three real variables satisfying 2a + 3b + 5c = 0. The variable lines ax + by + c = 0 always passes through the point whose coordinates are

(a)    

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: ()

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2009 With Answer Key

2009 O.U.A.T Question with Answer

Physics

 

1. One Fermi is equal to

(a)  1019 m

(b)  1012 m

(c)  1015 m

(d)  1018 m

Answer: (c)

2. One Angstrom is equal to

(a)  1010 m

(b)  109 m

(c)  108 m

(d)  106 m

Answer: (a)

3. Velocity of light is

(a)  3 × 108 ms1

(b)  3 × 108 ms1

(c)  3 × 1010 ms1

(d)  3 × 1012 ms1

Answer: (a)

4. Which of the following is not a unit of length ?

(a)  Angstrom

(b)  Light year

(c)  Micro second

(d)  Metre

Answer: (c)

5. Motion of gas molecules in a room is a case of

(a)  one dimension

(b)  two dimensions

(c)  three dimensions

(d)  four dimensions

Answer: (c)

6. An insect crawling on the floor of a room is case of

(a)  one dimension

(b)  two dimensions

(c)  three dimensions

(d)  four dimensions

Answer: (b)

7. A body covered a distance of 5 metre along a semicircular path. The ratio of distance to displacement is

(a)  11 : 7

(b)  12 : 5

(c)  8 : 3

(d)  7 : 5

Answer: (a)

8. The area of acceleration time curve gives

(a)  displacement of the body

(b)  velocity

(c)  change of velocity of acceleration

(d)  rate of change of acceleration

Answer: (c)

9. Time is a scalar because

(a)  it has no magnitude

(b)  it has no direction

(c)  it cannot be resolved into compounds

(d)  it has no magnitude as well as direction

Answer: (b)

10. Identify the vector quantity

(a)  Time

(b)  Current density

(c)  Work

(d)  Electric current

Answer: (b)

11. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

(a)  Infinitesimally small rotation

(b)  Current

(c)  Pressure

(d)  Work

Answer: (a)

12. The rectangular components of a force of 13 N are

(a)  5 N, 12 N

(b)  10 N, 11 N

(c)  6.5 N, 6.5 N

(d)  9 N, 12 N

Answer: (a)

13. When the angle between the force and displacement obtuse, the work done is

(a)  unity

(b)  zero

(c)  positive

(d)  negative

Answer: (d)

14. Work is measured in

(a)  newton

(b)  newton – cm

(c)  joule

(d)  watt

Answer: (c)

15. Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body because of

(a)  Motion

(b)  position

(c)  mass

(d)  Gravity

Answer: (a)

16. Kinetic energy is measured in

(a)  joules

(b)  newton

(c)  watt

(d)  dyne

Answer: (a)

17. The motion of our earth is a case of

(a)  translator motion

(b)  rotator motion

(c)  both translational and rotational

(d)  oscillatory

Answer: (c)

18. A cracker explodes in air, the path followed by the C.M. after explosion is

(a)  parabolic

(b)  hyperbola

(c)  ellipse

(d)  straight

Answer: (a)

19. The equivalent of torque in linear motion is

(a)  momentum

(b)  impulse

(c)  acceleration

(d)  force

Answer: (d)

20. Torque depends upon

(a)  only force

(b)  only the point of application of force

(c)  only on the mass of the object

(d)  None of the statements is correct

Answer: (d)

21. The value of Gravitational Constant was first of all determined in the laboratory by

(a)  Newton

(b)  Boys

(c)  Galileo

(d)  Cavendish

Answer: (c)

22. On the surface of the earth, the value of g is maximum at

(a)  the equator

(b)  the poles

(c)  45° latitude

(d)  60° latitude

Answer: (b)

23. The minimum velocity projection to go out from earth’s gravitational pull is called

(a)  orbital velocity

(b)  escape velocity

(c)  terminal velocity

(d)  uniform velocity

Answer: (b)

24. The orbital speed of mercury planet is

(a)  greater than that of earth

(b)  less than that of earth

(c)  equal to that of earth

(d)  less than that of pluto

Answer: (a)

25. Who said that the motion along a horizontal plane is perpetual?

(a)  Rutherford

(b)  Bohr

(c)  Galileo

(d)  Aristotle

Answer: (c)

26. Newton’s second law relates force and

(a)  velocity

(b)  density

(c)  impulse

(d)  Acceleration

Answer: (d)

27. One kilogram force is equal to

(a)  9.8 N

(b)  980 N

(c)  980 dynes

(d)  105 dynes

Answer: (a)

28. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of

(a)  momentum

(b)  mass

(c)  energy

(d)  angular momentum

Answer: (a)

29. Pascal is the unit of

(a)  force

(b)  momentum

(c)  impulse

(d)  pressure

Answer: (d)

30. The atmospheric pressure is about

(a)  107 Nm2

(b)  105 Nm2

(c)  103 Nm2

(d)  109 Nm2

Answer: (b)

31. Heat is

(a)  orderly motion

(b)  degree of hotness

(c)  disorderly motion

(d)  degree of coldness

Answer: (c)

32. The unit of modulus of elasticity is

(a)  dyne/cm

(b)  dyne/cm2

(c)  Nm1

(d)  dynes

Answer: (b)

33. The temperature of a body on Rankine scale is 510°. The temperature of the body on Celsius will be

(a)  20°

(b)  30°

(c)  40°

(d)  10°

Answer: (d)

34. The common temperature for Celsius and Kelvin scale is

(a)  −100°

(b)  −273°

(c)  zero

(d)  No common temperature

Answer: (d)

35. Very low temperatures are measured by

(a)  gas thermometers

(b)  pyrometers

(c)  thermocouple thermometers

(d)  vapour pressure thermometers

Answer: (c)

36. The triple point temperature in the case of water is

(a)  273.15°C

(b)  273.15 K

(c)  237.16°C

(d)  273.16 K

Answer: (d)

37. Frequency is measured in

(a)  cycles

(b)  cycles per second

(c)  hertz per second

(d)  meter per second

Answer: (b)

38. The heart beat of a person is 90 per minute. The frequency is

(a)  90 Hz

(b)  60 Hz

(c)  1.33 Hz

(d)  1.5 Hz

Answer: (d)

39. Fourier was primarily a

(a)  Mathematician

(b)  Astronomer

(c)  Botanist

(d)  Geologist

Answer: (a)

40. A spring is replaced by another spring of stiffer material. Its time period will

(a)  remain same

(b)  increase

(c)  decrease

(d)  fluctuate

Answer: (b)

41. Sound is

(a)  an electromagnetic wave

(b)  a transverse wave

(c)  a longitudinal wave

(d)  not a wave

Answer: (a)

42. The formula for the speed of sound waves was first obtained by

(a)  Galileo

(b)  Newton

(c)  Einstein

(d)  Huygen

Answer: (b)

43. In the case of sound waves the pressure is

(a)  more at the condensation

(b)  more at the rarefaction

(c)  same everywhere

(d)  zero

Answer: (a)

44. In which medium will the speed of sound be maximum ?

(a)  Air

(b)  Hydrogen

(c)  Water

(d)  Steel

Answer: (d)

45. The positive and negative names of electricity were given by

(a)  Faraday

(b)  Lenz

(c)  Benjanium Frankein

(d)  Galileo

Answer: (a)

46. The charge on the electron is

(a)  1.6 × 1016 C

(b)  1.6 × 1017 C

(c)  1.6 × 108 C

(d)  1.6 × 1019 C

Answer: (d)

47. A proton is composed of which of the following quarks?

(a)  1U + 1d

(b)  2U + 2d

(c)  1U + 2d

(d)  2U + 1d

Answer: (d)

48. The dielectric constant K of an insulator can be

(a)  0.4

(b)  Zero

(c)  −2

(d)  6

Answer: (b)

49. The e.m.f. of a Leclanche cell is of the order of

(a)  1.1 V

(b)  1.08 V

(c)  1.45 V

(d)  1.12 V

Answer: (c)

50. The internal resistance of a secondary cell is

(a)  very low

(b)  very high

(c)  equal to that of primary cell

(d)  more than that of primary cell

Answer: (d)

51. Which of the following cells gives fairly steady current ?

(a)  Voltaic cell

(b)  Daniel cell

(c)  Leclanche cell

(d)  Fuel cell

Answer: (b)

52. The capacity o f a cell is expressed in

(a)  Ah

(b)  farad

(c)  ohm

(d)  Vh

Answer: (a)

53. One kilowatt hour is equal to

(a)  3.6 × 102 J

(b)  3.6 × 104 J

(c)  3.6 × 106 J

(d)  3.6 × 107 J

Answer: (c)

54. Standard resistance coils are made of

(a)  silver

(b)  gold

(c)  copper

(d)  manganin

Answer: (d)

55. Nichrome is

(a)  a metal

(b)  non-metal

(c)  amalgams

(d)  alloy

Answer: (d)

56. Fuse wire is made of

(a)  constantan

(b)  Cu

(c)  lead-tin alloy

(d)  tungsten

Answer: (c)

57. The magnetic field is measured in

(a)  newton

(b)  faraday

(c)  rutherford

(d)  tesla

Answer: (d)

58. One tesla is defined as

(a)  weber-m

(b)  weber m1

(c)  weber m2

(d)  weber m2

Answer: (d)

59. A charged particle enters at 30° to the magnetic field. Its path becomes

(a)  circular

(b)  helical

(c)  elliptical

(d)  straight line

Answer: (b)

60. Pole strength is measured in

(a)  Am1

(b)  Am2

(c)  Am

(d)  Am2

Answer: (c)

61. Susceptibility has the units of

(a)  tesla

(b)  Am2

(c)  Am2

(d)  No units

Answer: (d)

62. Magnetic moment is a

(a)  vector

(b)  scalar

(c)  flux

(d)  unit

Answer: (a)

63. The laws of electromagnetic induction are the contribution of

(a)  Faraday

(b)  Maxwell

(c)  Lawrence

(d)  Hall

Answer: (a)

64. Eddy currents are also known as

(a)  Focault currents

(b)  Faraday currents

(c)  Huygen currents

(d)  Franklin currents

Answer: (a)

65. The frequency of a.c. used in India is

(a)  50 Hz

(b)  50 KHz

(c)  100 Hz

(d)  60 Hz

Answer: (a)

66. The output of a dynamo using a split ring commutator is

(a)  D.C.

(b)  A.C.

(c)  fluctuating D.C.

(d)  half-wave rectified D.C.

Answer: (a)

Chemistry

1. Rutheford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of the

(a)  nucleus

(b)  atom

(c)  electron

(d)  neutron

Answer: (a)

2. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum wave-length is

(a)  ultraviolet

(b)  radiowave

(c)  x-ray

(d)  infrared

Answer: (b)

3. The heaviest particle is

(a)  α

(b)  electron

(c)  proton

(d)  neutron

Answer: (a)

4. Which of the following elements occur free in nature?

(a)  Nitrogen

(b)  Phosphorus

(c)  Arsenic

(d)  Antimony

Answer: (a)

5. The number of electrons in Al3+ is

(a)  13

(b)  16

(c)  10

(d)  9

Answer: (c)

6. AP- orbital can accommodate

(a)  4 electrons

(b)  6 electrons

(c)  2 electrons with parallel spins

(d)  2 electrons with opposite spins

Answer: (d)

7. Which of the following does (do) not consist of particles of matter?

(a)  Alpha rays

(b)  Beta rays

(c)  Gamma rays

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

8. Isotone of 32Ge76 is (are)

(a)  32Ge77

(b)  33As77

(c)  34Se77

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

9. Which of the following species has a trigonal planar shape ?

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

10. Which of the following is not an electrophile ?

(a)  NH3

(b)  BF3

(c)  AlCl3

(d)  Hg2+

Answer: (a)

11. Which of the following is not a nulceophile?

(a)  OH

(b)  NH3

(c)  BF3

(d)  HSO3

Answer: (c)

12. In CH3­CH2OH, the bond that undergoes heterolytic cleavage most readily is

(a)  C−C

(b)  C−O

(c)  C−H

(d)  O−H

Answer: (d)

13. Ammonical silver nitrate reacts with

(a)  Ethyne

(b)  Ethylene

(c)  Butyne-2

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

14. Acetylene is

(a)  red coloured gas

(b)  useful in polymer industry

(c)  alkaline permanganate solution

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

15. Benzene can undergo

(a)  substitution

(b)  decarboxylation

(c)  elimination

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

16. Amongst the following the compound that is nitrated with difficulty is

(a)  Benzene

(b)  Nitrobenzene

(c)  Toluene

(d)  Phenol

Answer: (b)

17. Which of the following decolourizes alkaline KMnO4?

(a)  C8H3

(b)  C3H4

(c)  CH4

(d)  CCl4

Answer: (b)

18. Nuclides having the same atomic and mass numbers are known as

(a)  isomers

(b)  isotopes

(c)  isotones

(d)  isobars

Answer: (a)

19. Which of the following nuclei is unstable?

(a)  5B10

(b)  4Be10

(c)  7N14

(d)  8O16

Answer: (b)

20. The larges stable nucleus is

(a)  U-238

(b)  U-235

(c)  Pb-206

(d)  Bi-209

Answer: (b)

21. The rate of reaction of substances is proportional to their

(a)  stability

(b)  molecular weight

(c)  equivalent weight

(d)  active mass

Answer: (d)

22. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

(a)  same

(b)  different

(c)  one side more

(d)  not definite

Answer: (a)

23. The number of gram molecules of a substance present in unit volume is termed as

(a)  activity

(b)  normal solution

(c)  molar concentration

(d)  active mass

Answer: (d)

24. The law of mass action was enunciated by

(a)  Guldberg and Waage

(b)  Bodenstein

(c)  Berthelot

(d)  Graham

Answer: (a)

25. In reversible reaction both side rates of a reaction are

(a)  same

(b)  different

(c)  one side more

(d)  reactant rates less

Answer: (a)

26. The rate of reaction does not depend upon

(a)  pressure

(b)  temperature

(c)  concentration

(d)  catalyst

Answer: (d)

27. The rate constant of a reaction depends on

(a)  temperature

(b)  mass

(c)  weight

(d)  time

Answer: (a)

28. In which of the following cases, does the reaction go farthest to completion?

(a)  K = 102

(b)  K = 102

(c)  K = 10

(d)  K = 1

Answer: (a)

29. The temperature coefficient of most of the reactions lies between

(a)  1 and 3

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  1 and 4

(d)  2 and 4

Answer: (b)

30. The minimum energy necessary to permit a reaction is

(a)  internal energy

(b)  threshold energy

(c)  activation energy

(d)  free energy

Answer: (b)

31. In the hydrogenation of oils the catalyst used is

(a)  iron

(b)  platinum

(c)  nickel

(d)  molybdenum

Answer: (c)

32. Theory of ionization was given by

(a)  Rutherford

(b)  Faraday

(c)  Graham

(d)  Arrhenius

Answer: (d)

33. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of

(a)  free electrons

(b)  free ions

(c)  free molecules

(d)  atoms of sodium and chlorine

Answer: (b)

34. 1 litre of water contains 107 moles of H+ .Degree of ionization of water is

(a)  1.8 × 107

(b)  1 × 10−9

(c)  3.6 × 107

(d)  3.6 × 109

Answer: (a)

35. The pH of an aqueous solution is 4.0. Its pOH will be

(a)  4.0

(b)  6.0

(c)  8.0

(d)  10.0

Answer: (d)

36. Which one of the following has highest pH ?

(a)  Distilled water

(b)  1 M NH3

(c)  1 M NaOH

(d)  water saturated with chlorine

Answer: (c)

37. The pH of distilled water is

(a)  0.0

(b)  14

(c)  7

(d)  9

Answer: (c)

38. The pH of pure water at 25℃ is close to

(a)  0.0

(b)  14.0

(c)  7.0

(d)  9.0

Answer: (c)

39. An electrolyte is one

(a)  which conducts electric current

(b)  which is capable of ionization by passing electric current

(c)  which dissociated into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

40. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to

(a)  dilution

(b)  number of ions

(c)  current density

(d)  volume of the solution

Answer: (b)

41. The one that is a good conductor of electricity in the following list of solids is

(a)  sodium chloride

(b)  graphite

(c)  diamond

(d)  sodium

Answer: (b)

42. The electrolytic conductance is a direct measure of

(a)  resistance

(b)  potential

(c)  concentration

(d)  dissociation

Answer: (d)

43. Electrolysis of molten NaCl leads to the formation of

(a)  sodium and hydrogen

(b)  sodium and oxygen

(c)  hydrogen and oxygen

(d)  sodium and chlorine

Answer: (d)

44. On the electrolysis of aqueous solution of sodium sulphate, on cathode we get

(a)  Na

(b)  Hz

(c)  SO1

(d)  SO3

Answer: (b)

45. Law of electrolysis was given by

(a)  Lamark

(b)  Ostwald

(c)  Faraday

(d)  Arrhenius

Answer: (c)

46. Phosphorus pentachloride reacts with

(a)  klater

(b)  ethers

(c)  amines

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

47. Phenol is

(a)  a base weaker than ammonia

(b)  an acid stronger than carbonic acid

(c)  an acid weaker than carbonic acid

(d)  a neutral compound

Answer: (c)

48. Hydrogen bonding is possible in

(a)  ethers

(b)  hydrocarbons

(c)  water

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

49. Which of the following compounds can’t be used as acetylating agent?

(a)  Acetyl Chloride

(b)  Acetic anhydride

(c)  Acetic acid

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

50. Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali?

(a)  Acetophenone

(b)  Methyl acetate

(c)  Acetamide

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

51. Acetamide reacts with NaOBr in alkaline medium to form

(a)  NH3

(b)  CH3NH2

(c)  CH3CN

(d)  CH3CH2NH­2

Answer: (b)

52. On strong heating ammonium acetate gives

(a)  acetamide

(b)  methyl cyanide

(c)  urea

(d)  formamide

Answer: (a)

53. How many primary amines are possible for the formula C4H11N?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

54. Amongst the following, the most basic compound is

(a)  Benzylamine

(b)  Aniline

(c)  Acetanilide

(d)  P-Nitroaniline

Answer: (a)

55. 5 grams each of the following gases at 87℃ and 750 mm pressure are taken. Which of them will have the least volume?

(a)  HF

(b)  HCl

(c)  HBr

(d)  HI

Answer: (d)

56. The largest number of molecules is in

(a)  54 gm of N2O5

(b)  28 gm of CO

(c)  36 gm of H2O

(d)  46 gm of C­12H5OH

Answer: (c)

57. The value of R in calorie/degree/mole is

(a)  0.0831

(b)  8.31

(c)  8.31 × 107

(d)  1.987

Answer: (d)

58. The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by 11.2 gm of the gas at N.T.P. is

(a)  1 litre

(b)  11.2 litre

(c)  22.4 litre.

(d)  44.8 litre

Answer: (b)

59. The rates of diffusion of SO2 and O2 (S = 32, O = 16) are in the ratio

(a)  1 : 1√2

(b)  1 : 32

(c)  1 : 2

(d)  1 : 4

Answer: (a)

60. In solids the constituent particles may be

(a)  Atoms

(b)  ions

(c)  molecules

(d)  Either of the above three

Answer: (d)

61. In square close packing pattern in one layer, the available space filled by the spheres is

(a)  40%

(b)  50%

(c)  52.4%

(d)  60%

Answer: (b)

62. The available space filled in hexagonal close packing pattern in one layer is

(a)  40%

(b)  2.4%

(c)  60.4%

(d)  70%

Answer: (c)

63. Which of the following does not adopt hcp structure?

(a)  Be

(b)  Mg

(c)  Fe

(d)  Mo

Answer: (c)

64. Which of the following is the smallest cation?

(a)  Na+

(b)  Mg2+

(c)  Ca2+

(d)  Al3+

Answer: (d)

65. Which of the following element occurs in free state?

(a)  C

(b)  Si

(c)  Ge

(d)  Sn

Answer: (b)

66. The ability of a substance to assume two or more crystalline structure is called

(a)  isomerism

(b)  polymorphism

(c)  isomorphism

(d)  amorphism

Answer: (b)

Biology

1. Palaeontology is the study of

(a)  Bones

(b)  Fossils

(c)  Primates

(d)  Birds

Answer: (b)

2. Which of the following deals with the plants an environmental relationship?

(a)  Ecology

(b)  Phytogeography

(c)  Plant morphology

(d)  Palaeobotany

Answer: (a)

3. Study of disease of different plants is

(a)  Pathology

(b)  Plant physiology

(c)  Anatomy

(d)  Phycology

Answer: (a)

4. The science of vegetable culture is called as

(a)  Floriculture

(b)  Agriculture

(c)  Olericulture

(d)  Horticulture

Answer: (c)

5. Pedology is the science of

(a)  Disease

(b)  Pollution

(c)  Soil

(d)  Rocks

Answer: (c)

6. The basic unit of classification is

(a)  Genes

(b)  Species

(c)  Family

(d)  Order

Answer: (b)

7. Who is the father of taxonomy ?

(a)  Engler

(b)  Aristotle

(c)  Linnaeus

(d)  Eichler

Answer: (c)

8. Which spreads the cy&ts of Entamoeba histolytica

(a)  Mosquito

(b)  Bed bug

(c)  Mouse

(d)  House fly

Answer: (d)

9. Shuffner’s granules are found in malaria patient in the cells of

(a)  liver

(b)  red blood cells

(c)  signet ring trophozoite

(d)  gametocytes of plasmodium

Answer: (b)

10. Plasmodium is

(a)  Monogenetic

(b)  Digenetic

(c)  Polygenetic

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

11. Regulation of water in the body is called

(a)  Homoeostasis

(b)  Excretion

(c)  Paedogenesis

(d)  Osmoregulation

Answer: (d)

12. The tail of tadpole larva, is lost in adult Herdmania due to

(a)  Parasitism

(b)  Ptedatism

(c)  Commensalism

(d)  Phagocytosis

Answer: (b)

13. Most characteristic feature of plant’s cell is

(a)  chlorophyll present

(b)  cell wall present

(c)  only one vacuole

(d)  plastids present

Answer: (d)

14. ATP transport is the function of

(a)  Golgi body

(b)  Mitochondria

(c)  Nucleus

(d)  ER

Answer: (b)

15. Mitochondria are activated by

(a)  Golgi body

(b)  Plasma

(c)  Nucleus

(d)  ER

Answer: (c)

16. Peroxisomes were discovered by

(a)  De Duve

(b)  Golgi

(c)  Rhodin

(d)  Hexley

Answer: (a)

17. The activities of all living cells are controlled by

(a)  Chloroplast

(b)  Tonoplast

(c)  Nucleus

(d)  Auxins

Answer: (c)

18. The site of respiration within cell is

(a)  Ribosome

(b)  Mitochondria

(c)  Golgi body

(d)  Nucleus

Answer: (b)

19. Animal cell is limited by

(a)  Plasma membrane

(b)  Cell wall

(c)  Basement membrane

(d)  cell membrane

Answer: (a)

20. Which of the following is described as “Energy currency of the cell”?

(a)  DNA

(b)  RNA

(c)  ATP

(d)  Vitamins

Answer: (c)

21. The acrosome of human sperm is formed by

(a)  Mitochondria

(b)  Centrioles

(c)  Golgi bodies

(d)  Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: (c)

22. Crossing over of chromosomes takes place during

(a)  Amitosis

(b)  Meiosis

(c)  Mitosis

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

23. Genetic crossing usually takes place during

(a)  Mitosis

(b)  Meiosis I

(c)  Meiosis II

(d)  Mitosis and Meiosis

Answer: (b)

24. During meiosis, the chromosome number is

(a)  halved

(b)  unchanged

(c)  doubled

(d)  tripled

Answer: (a)

25. In plant cells, cell plate formation is

(a)  Acropetal

(b)  Centripetal

(c)  Centrifugal

(d)  Basipetal

Answer: (c)

26. A transformed cell of the body which has lost control over its division is called

(a)  Mast cell

(b)  Leukocyte

(c)  Cancer cell

(d)  Connective cell

Answer: (c)

27. Viruses which cause cancers are known as

(a)  Virion

(b)  Virioids

(c)  RNA viruses

(d)  Oncogenic viruses

Answer: (d)

28. The chromosomes are made up of

(a)  DNA

(b)  DNA + Proteins

(c)  RNA

(d)  RNA + Proteins

Answer: (a)

29. Centromeres are found is

(a)  primary constrictions

(b)  secondary constrictions

(c)  Both (A) and (B)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

30. A hybrid has

(a)  both nuclei of the two fusing cells.

(b)  only cytoplasm of two fusing cells.

(c)  cytoplasm of two fusing cells and one nucleus.

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

31. Genes are arranged on

(a)  Ribosomes

(b)  Centrosomes

(c)  Chromosomes

(d)  Lysosomes

Answer: (c)

32. RNA is found only in

(a)  Cytoplasm

(b)  Nucleoplasm

(c)  Cytoplasm and Nucleoplasm

(d)  Chromosome

Answer: (a)

33. RNA has which of the following sugar ?

(a)  Ribose

(b)  Hexose

(c)  Fructose

(d)  Glucose

Answer: (a)

34. The amino acid proline is coded by

(a)  CCU

(b)  CCA

(c)  CCC

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

35. Mendel was born at

(a)  Heinzendorf

(b)  Vienna

(c)  Prague

(d)  Paris

Answer: (b)

36. The A, B, AB and O types of human blood groups were discovered by

(a)  Londsteiner

(b)  De Vries

(c)  Careens

(d)  Weiner

Answer: (a)

37. AB blood group is an example for

(a)  total dominance

(b)  partial dominance

(c)  co-dominance

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

38. Antigens are also called

(a)  Agglutinogens

(b)  Immuno globulins

(c)  Agglutinins

(d)  Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (a)

39. The antigen present in blood group A is

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  AB

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

40. Water is lost from the plant body by

(a)  Transpiration

(b)  Guttation

(c)  Both (A) and (B)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

41. The rate of transpiration is measured by

(a)  Photometer

(b)  Hygrometer

(c)  Auxanometer

(d)  Potometer

Answer: (d)

42. Dilution of milk with water involves

(a)  osmosis

(b)  diffusion

(c)  filtration

(d)  imbibition

Answer: (b)

43. DPD stands for

(a)  Diffusion Pressure Deficit

(b)  Diffusion Potential Deficit

(c)  Daily Phosphate Demand

(d)  Daily Photosynthetic Depression

Answer: (a)

44. Diffusion pressure of pure water is

(a)  zero

(b)  100 atm

(c)  1000 atm

(d)  1236 atm

Answer: (a)

45. A primary carnivore is also called a

(a)  Producer

(b)  Autotroph

(c)  Secondary consumer

(d)  Tertiary consumer

Answer: (c)

46. Chipko movement is associated with

(a)  H. N. Bahuguna

(b)  S. I. Bahuguna

(c)  R. Mishra

(d)  Kamal Nath

Answer: (b)

47. The national headquarters of NEERI is at

(a)  Mumbai

(b)  Bengaluru

(c)  Nagpur

(d)  Chennai

Answer: (c)

48. DDT is a

(a)  bio-degradable pollutant

(b)  bio-nondegradale pollutant

(c)  non-polluting chemical

(d)  (a) or (b) depending upon its concentration

Answer: (b)

49. Two wheelers can become environmental hazards mainly because of

(a)  their noise

(b)  their numbers

(c)  their speed

(d)  their exhaust fumes

Answer: (d)

50. We can find which of these birds only in the jungle?

(a)  Bulbul

(b)  Crow

(c)  Sparrow

(d)  Hombill

Answer: (d)

51. In pond ecosystem the food chain begins with

(a)  Aquatic animals

(b)  Small fishes

(c)  Phytoplankton

(d)  Zooplankton

Answer: (c)

52. A food chain starts with

(a)  Nitrogen fixation

(b)  Decay

(c)  Respiration

(d)  Photosynthesis

Answer: (d)

53. The interconnected food chains are called

(a)  Food web

(b)  Parasitic food chain

(c)  Detritous food chain

(d)  Predator food chain

Answer: (a)

54. The theory of panspermia was proposed by

(a)  Richter

(b)  Aristotle

(c)  Redi

(d)  Oparin

Answer: (d)

55. The theory of biogenesis was proposed by

(a)  Aristotle

(b)  Francisco Redi

(c)  A. I. Oparin

(d)  Louis Pasteur

Answer: (d)

56. Theory of chemical evolution was hypothesized by A.I. Oparin in

(a)  1900

(b)  1914

(c)  1964

(d)  1984

Answer: (b)

57. Archaeopteryx is a link between

(a)  amphibians and fishes

(b)  fishes and reptiles

(c)  reptiles and birds

(d)  birds and mammals

Answer: (c)

58. Mutation theory was proposed by

(a)  Gregor Mendel

(b)  Hugo de Vries

(c)  J. B. S. Haldane

(d)  H. J. Muller

Answer: (b)

59. The first life on earth was

(a)  animals life

(b)  plant life

(c)  animals and plant life

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

60. Paratonic movements are

(a)  Phototropism

(b)  Geotropism

(c)  Thigmotropism

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

61. Which of the following is known as the age of mammals?

(a)  Palaeozoic era

(b)  Mesozoic era

(c)  Conozoic era

(d)  Precambian era

Answer: (a)

62. Growth in a plant organ involves

(a)  Cell division

(b)  Cell elongation

(c)  Karyokinesis

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

63. IAA plays a role in

(a)  Phototropism

(b)  Cell elongation

(c)  Karyokinesis

(d)  Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (d)

64. GA was first obtained in crystalline form by

(a)  Yabuta

(b)  Sumiki

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  Sawada

Answer: ()

65. The naturally occurring gaseous hormone is

(a)  Ethylene

(b)  GA

(c)  ABA

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

66. ABA has the ability of influence

(a)  Thigmotropism

(b)  Thigmonasty

(c)  Geotropism

(d)  All of these

Answer: (c)

67. Movement of roots towards gravity is in the case of

(a)  positive geotropism

(b)  negative geotropism

(c)  positive  phototropism

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

68. The dropping movement of leaves of Mimosa plant when touched is

(a)  Nyctinasty

(b)  Thigmonasty

(c)  Photonasty

(d)  Seismonasty

Answer: (b)

Mathematics

1. If a, b, c are in A.P. , b, c, d are in G.P. and c, d, e are in H.P. then

(a)  a, c, e are in A.P.

(b)  a, c, e are in G.P.

(c)  a, c, e are in H.P.

(d)  a = d = e

Answer: (b)

2. If  are in A.P. then a, b, c are in

(a)  A. P.

(b)  G.P.

(c)  H.P.

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

3. If log12 18 = m, log24 54 = n, then mn + 5(m – n + 1) = ?

(a)  −6

(b)  −3

(c)  3

(d)  6

Answer: (d)

4. If ω be a complex cube root of unity, then the value of (a + b) (aω + bω2) (aω2 + bω) is

(a)  a3 + b3

(b)  a3 – b3

(c)  0

(d)  3(a3 + b3)

Answer: (a)

5. If the roots of the equation x2 – 2(a + b)x + a(a + 2b + c) = 0 are equal, then

(a)  a = b = c

(b)  a, b, c are in A.P.

(c)  a, b, c are in G.P.

(d)  a, b, c are in H.P.

Answer: (c)

6. There are 18 points in a plane. Out of which 5 are collinear. The number of triangles that can be formed by joining the points is

(a)  816

(b)  810

(c)  806

(d)  800

Answer: (c)

7. A candidate has to secure the minimum marks in each of the six subjects to pass in an examination. In how many ways can he fail?

(a)  62

(b)  26

(c)  62 – 1

(d)  26 – 1

Answer: (b)

8. If x is real, then the maximum value of 1 – 2x – x2 is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  5

Answer: (b)

9. Log2 e – log4 e + log8 e …… to ∞ = ?

(a)  log 2

(b)  e

(c)  1/e

(d)  1

Answer: (d)

10. If sin x = 3/5, cos y = −12/13, where  , then tan (x – y) = ?

(a)  15/64

(b)  16/65

(c)  16/63

(d)  15/68

Answer: (c)

11. The simplest value of  is

(a) 

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

12. If in a ∆ ABC, (a + b + c) (b + c – a) = 3 bc, then A =

(a)   

(b)   

(c)  

(d)   

Answer: (c)

13. If f(x) = cos2x + sec2x, then

(a)  f(x) < 1

(b)  f(x) = 1

(c)  1 < f(x) < 2

(d)  f(x) ≥ 2

Answer: (d)

14. If  then x = ?

(a)   

(b)  

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (a)

15. If the parametric co-ordinates of a point P be [3(cot θ + tan θ), 4(cot θ – tan θ)], θ = parameter, then the locus of P will be

(a)  straight line

(b)  circle

(c)  ellipse

(d)  hyperbola

Answer: (d)

16. If the area of the triangle formed by the points (−1, m), (m – 2, 1), (m – 2, m) be 25/2 sq. units, then m = ?

(a)  2 or –4

(b)  6 or –4

(c)  6 or –2

(d)  4 or –2

Answer: (b)

17. The radius of the circle passing through the point (0, 0), (3, 0) and (0, 4) is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)  

(d)   

Answer: (a)

18. If the equation of diretrix of the parabola y2 – kx + 8 = 0 is x = 1, then the value of k is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

19. The eccentric angle of a point on the ellipse x2 + 3y2 = 6 at a distance 2 units from the centre is

(a)   

(b)  

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

20. The eccentricity of the geometric locus represented by the equation 16x2 – 9y2 = 144 is

(a)  5/2

(b)  3/2

(c)  5/3

(d)  4/3

Answer: (c)

21. If f(x) = |x| − [x], where [x] is the greatest integer not greater than x, then f(−5) = ?

(a)  0.5

(b)  4.5

(c)  7.5

(d)  0.7

Answer: (c)

22. If the function  when x ≠ 0 is continuous at x = 0, then f(0) = ?

(a)  1   

(b)  2/3

(c)  3/2

(d)  0

Answer: (a)

23. 

(a)  0

(b)  2/3

(c)  1/3

(d)  Does not exist

Answer: (d)

24. If f(x) = x – [x], x < 2 and f(x) 3x – 5, x > 2 then 

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  Does not exist

Answer: (b)

25. 

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

26. 

(a)  

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

27. If  then   

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)   

Answer: (b)

28. If y = tan1 x and  then p = ?

(a)  −1

(b)  1

(c)  −2

(d)  2

Answer: (d)

29. 

(a)  1/2

(b)  2

(c)  1

(d)  √2

Answer: (a)

30. 

(a)    

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

31. 

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

32.  is solution of the differential equation

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

33. A particle is moving in a straight line such that its distance at any time t is given by , then acceleration is minimum for t = ?

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (a)

34. The point on the curve y2 – x, at which the tangent makes an angle 45° with X-axis is

(a)  (4, 2)

(b)  (1/4, 1/2)

(c)  (1, 1)

(d)  (1, −1)

Answer: (b)

35. The normal to a curve y = f(x) is parallel to X-axis if

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

36. The area of the parabola y2 = 4x bounded by the latus rectum (in sq. units) is

(a)  2/3

(b)  4/3

(c)  8/3

(d)  16/3

Answer: (b)

37. If the nth term of an AP is P, then the sum of its first (2n – 1) terms is

(a)  nP

(b)  (n – 1)P

(c)  (2n + 1)P

(d)  (2n – 1)P

Answer: (d)

38. If x, 2x + 1, 4x + 5, …. are in GP, then its sixth term is

(a)  18

(b)  27

(c)  243

(d)  729

Answer: (b)

39. If log10 x = a and log100 y = b then the value of 10a +2b – 2 in terms of x, y is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

40. If  and r2 = er, then 

(a)  1

(b)   

(c)  

(d)  rr1

Answer: (c)

41. The path of a particle moving in a straight line is given by s = t3 – 6t2 + 9t + 4. Its velocity increases for

(a)  t > 2

(b)  t < 3

(c)  2 < t < 3

(d)  t > 3

Answer: (d)

42. The complex numbers z + x + iy which satisfy the equation  is

(a)  the X-axis

(b)  the Y-axis

(c)  the straight lines x = 5

(d)  the circle x2 + y2 = 25

Answer: (a)

43. If the roots of the equation a(b – c)x2 + b(c – a)x + c(a – b) = 0 are equal, the a, b, c are in

(a)  AP

(b)  GP

(c)  HP

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

44. If the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 be in the ratio m n, then (m + n)2/mn = ?

(a)  

(b)  

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

45. A polygon has 54 diagonals. Then the number of sides of the polygon is

(a)  9

(b)  12

(c)  15

(d)  18

Answer: (b)

46. A five digit number divisible by 3 is to be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetition. The total number of ways this can be done is

(a)  96

(b)  120

(c)  216

(d)  240

Answer: (b)

47. If Un + 1 = 3Un – 2Un – 1 and U0 = 0, U1 = 1 then Un = ?

(a)  n + 1

(b)  2n – 1

(c)  2n – 1

(d)  2n – 1  + 1

Answer: (d)

48. If (1 – x + x2)n = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ……+a2nx2n, then a0­ + a1 + a2 + …… + a2n = ?

(a)  3n – 1

(b)  3n + P

(c)  (3n – 1)/2

(d)  (3n + 1)/2

Answer: (d)

49. The sum of the infinite series  is

(a)  log 3

(b)   

(c)  log 2

(d)   

Answer: (c)

50. In a third order determinant, if the cofactor of the element in the second row and third column is K times the corresponding minor, then K = ?

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  −1

(d)  cannot be determined

Answer: (c)

51. Among 52 guests 16 drink tea but not coffee and 33 drink tea. The number of guests who drink coffee but not tea is

(a)  17

(b)  36

(c)  19

(d)  34

Answer: (c)

52. If A and B are two events and  then P(Ac ∩ Bc) = ?

(a)  3/20

(b)  17/20

(c)  13/20

(d)  7/20

Answer: (a)

53. The simplest value of cosec 10° − 4 sin 70° is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  4

Answer: (c)

54. If y = a log x + bx2 + x has its extreme values at x = −1 and x = 2, then

(a)  a = 2, b = −1

(b)  a = 2, b = −1/2

(c)  a = −2, b = 1/2

(d)  a = 1/2, b = −1

Answer: (b)

55. The simplest value of (sin2 240 – sin2 60) (sin2 420 – sin2 120) is

(a)  1

(b)  1/4

(c)  1/16

(d)  1/64

Answer: (c)

56. The simplest value of  is

(a)  a/b

(b)  2a/b

(c)  b/a

(d)  2b/a

Answer: (b)

57. The number of all possible triplets (a1, a2, a3) such that a1 + a2cos 2x + a3 sin2 x = 1 is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (d)

58. The parameteric co-ordinates of a point P is  then the locus of P is

(a)  circle

(b)  an ellipse

(c)  a hyperbola

(d)  a rectangular hyperbola

Answer: (*)

59. A ray of light coming from the point (1, 2) passes through the point (3, 5) after reflexion at the point A on X-axis. The abscissa of the point A is

(a)  9/5

(b)  13/5

(c)  17/5

(d)  21/5

Answer: (*)

60. If one end of a focal chord of y2 = 4ax is (at2, 2at) then the length of the focal chord is

(a)    

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

61. Eccentricity of a hyperbola of which the coordinates of the foci are (±5, 0) and the length of the latus rectum 9/2 is

(a)  3/2

(b)  4/3

(c)  5/4

(d)  6/5

Answer: (c)

62. Which of the following function reaches its maximum at x = 0?

(a)  y = x5 – x3

(b)  y = x1/3

(c)   

(d)  y = 1 – x2

Answer: ()

63. 

(a)  1/2

(b)  1/3

(c)  1/6

(d)  1

Answer: (b)

64. If  is to be continuous at x = 0, then f(0) = ?

(a)  3

(b)  5

(c)  7

(d)  0

Answer: (c)

65. If  then f ‘ = 0 ?

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (d)

66. The particular solution of the differential equation (1 + y2)dx + (1 + x2)dy = 0, with y = 1 for x = 0 is

(a)  (x + 1) (y + 1) = 2

(b)  (x + 1) (y + 1) = 4

(c)  xy = 2

(d)  xy = 4

Answer: (a)

67. The area bounded by the curve x2 = y, the X-axis and the ordinates x = 1 and x = k(>1) is  then K = ?

(a)  2

(b)  3/2

(c)  3

(d)  5/2

Answer: (c)

68. The angle that the normal to the parabola x = at2, y = 2at at t = 1, makes with the X-axis is

(a)  45°

(b)  90°

(c)  135°

(d)  180°

Answer: (c)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2010 With Answer Key

2010 O.A.U.T Question with Answer

Physics

 

1. Two thin lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and −30 cm are placed in contact with each other. The combination has a focal length

(a)  −10 cm

(b)  50 cm

(c)  60 cm

(d)  10 cm

Answer: (c)

2. A film projector magnifies a 100 cm2 film strip on a screen. If the linear magnification is 4, the area of the magnified film on the screen is

(a)  1600 cm2

(b)  400 cm2

(c)  800 cm2

(d)  200 cm2

Answer: (a)

3. The objective of a small telescope has focal length of 120 cm and diameter 5 cm. The focal length of the eye piece is 2 cm. The magnifying power of the telescope for distant object is

(a)  12

(b)  24

(c)  60

(d)  300

Answer: (c)

4. If a bar magnet of magnetic moment 80 unit be cut into two halves of equal lengths, the magnetic moment of the each half of the will be

(a)  80 unit

(b)  40 unit

(c)  60 unit

(d)  20 unit

Answer: (a)

5. A device which converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is

(a)  dynamo

(b)  induction coil

(c)  electric motor

(d)  generator

Answer: (c)

6. The magnetic field at a distance d from a short bar magnet in longitudinal and transverse positions are in the ratio

(a)  1 : 1

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  2 : 1

(d)  3 : 1

Answer: (c)

7. Soft iron is used to manufacture electromagnets because their

(a)  magnetic saturation limit it high and retentivity and coercive force are small

(b)  retentivity is high

(c)  coercive force is high

(d)  area of hysteresis curve is large

Answer: (b)

8. A dip needle in a plane perpendicular to magnetic meridian will remain

(a)  vertical

(b)  horizontal

(c)  in any direction

(d)  at angle of dip to the horizontal

Answer: (d)

9. A sensitive magnetic instrument can be shielded very effectively from outside fields by placing it inside a box of

(a)  teak wood

(b)  plastic material

(c)  soft iron of high permeability

(d)  a metal of high conductivity

Answer: (c)

10. Which one of the following is the unit of electric charge?

(a)  coulomb

(b)  newton

(c)  volt

(d)  coulomb/volt

Answer: (a)

11. An electric field can deflect

(a)  X-rays

(b)  neutrons

(c)  α-particles

(d)  γ-rays

Answer: (c)

12. Of the following groups which one contains good conductors of electricity?

(a)  Iron nickel and cobalt

(b)  Copper, silver sand aluminium

(c)  Mica, distilled water and ceramics

(d)  Diamond, ebonite and wood

Answer: (b)

13. Unit electric field in volt/m is equal to

(a)  1 N/C

(b)  3 × 1010 N/C

(c)  107 N/C

(d)  1010 N/C

Answer: (a)

14. The canal rays are

(a)  a steam of electrons

(b)  a stream of positively charged particles

(c)  light rays

(d)  a stream of uncharged particles

Answer: (b)

15. According to classical theory Rutherford atom was

(a)  stable

(b)  unstable

(c)  semistable

(d)  metastable

Answer: (b)

16. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to second excited states is

(a)  1/4

(b)  4/9

(c)  9/4

(d)  4

Answer: (a)

17. X-rays were discovered by

(a)  Becquerel

(b)  Roentgen

(c)  Marie Curie

(d)  Von Laue

Answer: (b)

18. Two radiations containing photons of energy twice and five times the work functions of a metal are incident successfully on the metal sur3face. The rates of the maximum velocities of the emitted electrons in the two cases will be

(a)  1 : 3

(b)  1 : 4

(c)  1 : 2

(d)  1 : 1

Answer: (c)

19. If R be the Rydberg constant for hydrogen, the wave number of the first line in the Lyman series is

(a)  R/2

(b)  2R

(c)  R/4

(d)  3R/4

Answer: (d)

20. An electric kettle has two heating elements. One brings at to boil in 10 minutes and other in 15 minutes. If the two heating filaments be connected in parallel, the water in the kettle will boil in

(a)  6 min.

(b)  8 min.

(c)  25 min.

(d)  5 min.

Answer: (a)

21. Radio waves and visible light in vacuum have

(a)  different velocity and different wavelength

(b)  same velocity and same wavelength

(c)  same wavelength but different velocity

(d)  same velocity but different wavelength

Answer: (a)

22. Sound source is moving towards a stationary listener with 1/10th of the speed of sound. The ratio of apparent o real frequency is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

23. The diffraction effects are easier to notice in the case of sound waves than in the case of light waves because

(a)  sound waves are of longer wavelength

(b)  sound waves are mechanical waves

(c)  sound is perceived by the car

(d)  sound waves are longitudinal

Answer: (d)

24. An example of diamagnetic substance is

(a)  nickel

(b)  aluminium

(c)  copper

(d)  iron

Answer: (d)

25. Device used to measure very high temperature is

(a)  calorimeter

(b)  bolometer

(c)  thermometer

(d)  pyrometer

Answer: (d)

26. The number of degrees of freedom for molecules of a monoatomic gas is

(a)  6

(b)  5

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (c)

27. Percentage of the original number of atoms in a radioactive sample remaining at the end of one mean life is

(a)  37

(b)  63

(c)  60

(d)  50

Answer: (a)

28. Choke used to limit high frequency A.C. has

(a)  iron core

(b)  air core

(c)  a diamagnetic core

(d)  a paramagnetic core

Answer: (c)

29. Kirchoff’s voltage law is based on the law of conservation of

(a)  energy

(b)  mass

(c)  charge

(d)  momentum

Answer: (a)

30. When a proton in a radioactive nucleus becomes a neutron the emitted particle is

(a)  positron

(b)  electron

(c)  π-meson

(d)  neutrino

Answer: (b)

31. An electric bulb marked 40 W, 220 V, is used in a circuit of supply voltage 100 V. Its power now is

(a)  100 W

(b)  40 W

(c)  10 W

(d)  20 W

Answer: (c)

32. Phenomenon of diffraction of light was discovered by

(a)  Fresnel

(b)  Grimaldi

(c)  Huygens

(d)  Newton

Answer: (c)

33. In a longitudinal stationary wave produced in a gas, pressure changes are maximum

(a)  at the nodes

(b)  at the antinodes

(c)  at all points

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

34. The unit of power is

(a)  kilowatt

(b)  kilowatt-hour

(c)  dyne

(d)  joule

Answer: (a)

35. The surface tension of a liquid is 70 dyne/cm. It may be expressed in MKS system as

(a)  7 × 102 N/m

(b)  7 × 102 N/m

(c)  7 × 103 N/m

(d)  70 N/m

Answer: (a)

36. A cube has numerically equal volume and surface area. The volume of such cube is

(a)  216 units

(b)  1000 units

(c)  2000 units

(d)  3000 units

Answer: (a)

37. Identify the vector quantity

(a)  Time

(b)  Work

(c)  Heat

(d)  Angular momentum

Answer: (d)

38. A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of 5 m/min. A man on the south bank of the river, capable of swimming at 10m/min. in still water, wants to swim across the river in shortest time. he should swim in a direction

(a)  due north

(b)  30° west of north

(c)  30° east of north

(d)  60° east of north

Answer: (b)

39. A pendulum is suspended from five of a train moving with acceleration a. The inclination θ to the vertical is given by

(a)  0°

(b)  tan1 (a/g)

(c)  tan1 (g/a)

(d)  sin1 (a/g)

Answer: (b)

40. A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of mass 3 kg and 6 kg. The velocity of the mass of 3 kg is 16 m/sec. The kinetic energy of mass 6 kg is

(a)  96 J

(b)  192 J

(c)  384 J

(d)  768 J

Answer: (b)

41. The acceleration of body which is performing uniform circular motion is

(a)  v2r

(b)  v2/r

(c)  v/r

(d)  vr

Answer: (b)

42. The M.I. of a circular ring with mass M and radius R about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

43. The value of Universal Gravitational Constant G in MKS system of units is

(a)  6.66 × 103

(b)  6.66 × 106

(c)  6.66 × 1011

(d)  6.66 × 105

Answer: (c)

44. The temperature of a block of iron is 140℉. Its temperature on the Celsius scale is

(a)  108°

(b)  32°

(c)  60°

(d)  140°

Answer: (c)

45. A Celsius is a unit

(a)  of electric potential difference

(b)  of trigonometric angle

(c)  equivalent to degree kelvin

(d)  equivalent to degree centigrade

Answer: (d)

46. When water is heated from 0℃ to 10℃, its volume

(a)  increases

(b)  decreases

(c)  does not change

(d)  first decreases and then increases

Answer: (d)

47. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1℃ is called

(a)  kilocarloric

(b)  Calorie

(c)  B. Th. U.

(d)  Calorie/℃

Answer: (a)

48. 1 g of ice is mixed with 1 g of steam. After thermal equilibrium, the temperature of the mixture is

(a)  0℃

(b)  100℃

(c)  55℃

(d)  80℃

Answer: (b)

49. Melting point of ice is

(a)  increases with increasing pressure

(b)  decreases with increasing pressure

(c)  is independent of pressure

(d)  is proportional to pressure

Answer: (b)

50. Some quantity of tap water is place in an open pan and allowed to evaporate. After sometime the temperature of the water

(a)  decreases slightly

(b)  increases slightly

(c)  remains the same

(d)  increases considerably

Answer: (a)

51. A jar has a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen gases in the ratio 1 : 5. The ratio of mean kinetic energies of hydrogen and oxygen molecules is

(a)  1 : 16

(b)  1 : 4

(c)  1 : 5

(d)  1 : 1

Answer: (c)

52. If the pressure in a closed vessel be reduced by drawing some gas, the mean free path of the molecules

(a)  decreases

(b)  increases

(c)  remains unchanged

(d)  first increases and then decreases

Answer: (b)

53. Avagadro’s number is the number of molecules present in

(a)  one litre of the gas at NTP

(b)  22.4 litre of the gas at NTP

(c)  22.4 ml of the gas at NTP

(d)  44.8 litre of the gas at NTP

Answer: (b)

54. A cold cake bottle is left open on the pan of a balance and its weight observed from time to time. The weight

(a)  increases

(b)  decreases

(c)  increases, reaches a maximum and then starts decreasing

(d)  remains stationary

Answer: (c)

55. A sound wave has frequency 500 Hz and velocity 350 m/ sec. What is the distance between the two particle having phase difference of 60°?

(a)  0.7 cm

(b)  12.0 cm

(c)  70 cm

(d)  120 cm

Answer: (b)

56. The velocity of sound in air at 4 atmosphere and at 1 atmosphere pressure would be

(a)  1 : 1

(b)  4 : 1

(c)  1 : 4

(d)  3 : 1

Answer: (d)

57. The wavelength of sound from a tuning fork of frequency 330 Hz is nearly

(a)  100 cm

(b)  10 cm

(c)  1 cm

(d)  330 cm

Answer: (b)

58. The intensity of a sound gets reduced by 20% on passing through a slab. The reduction in intensity of passage through two consecutive slab is

(a)  40%

(b)  36%

(c)  30%

(d)  60%

Answer: (b)

59. A light bulb is placed between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of 60°

(a)  6

(b)  2

(c)  5

(d)  4

Answer: (a)

60. A plane mirror is approaching you at 10 cm/sec. You can see your image in it. At what speed will your image approach you?

(a)  10 cm/sec

(b)  5 cm/sec

(c)  20 cm/sec

(d)  15 cm/sec

Answer: (c)

61. A bird flying high up in the air does not cast shadow on the ground because

(a)  size of the bird is smaller than sun

(b)  layers of atmosphere are dense

(c)  the light rays are not falling on it

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

62. The image formed by a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm is a quarter of the size of the object. Then the distance of the object from the mirror is

(a)  30 cm

(b)  90 cm

(c)  120 cm

(d)  60 cm

Answer: (b)

63. A diminished virtual image can be obtained only in a

(a)  plane mirror

(b)  concave mirror

(c)  convex mirror

(d)  parabolic mirror

Answer: (c)

64. The refractive index of a given piece of transparent quartz is greatest for

(a)  red light

(b)  violet light

(c)  green light

(d)  yellow light

Answer: (a)

65. A cut diamond sparkles because of its

(a)  hardness

(b)  high of light by the diamond

(c)  emission of light by the diamond

(d)  absorption of light by the diamond

Answer: (d)

66. A lens behaves as converging lens in air and as a diverging lens in water. The refractive index of materials is

(a)  equal to unity

(b)  equal to 1.33

(c)  between unity and 1.33

(d)  greater than 1.33

Answer: (c)

Chemistry

 

1. When ethyl hydrogen sulphate is heated at 140℃ with excess of alcohol, the product formed is

(a)  ethane

(b)  ethylene

(c)  diethyl ether

(d)  diethyl sulphate

Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is not a common air pollutant?

(a)  N2O

(b)  NO

(c)  NO2

(d)  N2O5

Answer: (c)

3. Man made chemical responsible for the depletion of ozone layer is

(a)  ethylene

(b)  acetylene

(c)  teflon

(d)  CFC

Answer: (d)

4. Aspirin is a/an

(a)  antibiotic

(b)  antipyretic

(c)  antiseptic

(d)  pyretic

Answer: (b)

5. SLV-3 uses propellants

(a)  solid

(b)  liquid

(c)  solid-liquid

(d)  biliquid

Answer: (c)

6. Rutherford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of the

(a)  nucleus

(b)  atom

(c)  electron

(d)  neutron

Answer: (a)

7. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum wavelength is

(a)  ultraviolet

(b)  radiowave

(c)  X-ray

(d)  infrared

Answer: (b)

8. The lightest particle is

(a)  electron

(b)  proton

(c)  neutron

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

9. Oleum is

(a)  castor oil

(b)  oil of vitriol

(c)  fuming H2SO4

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

10. Which one is known as oleum?

(a)  H2SO3

(b)  H2SO4

(c)  H2S2O8

(d)  H2S2O7

Answer: (d)

11. Peroxo acid of sulphur is

(a)  H2SO3

(b)  H2SO5

(c)  H2S2O7

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

12. The element which liberates O2 from water is

(a)  P

(b)  Na

(c)  F

(d)  I

Answer: (c)

13. Freon is

(a)  CCl2F2

(b)  CF4

(c)  CClF3

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

14. Chlorine gas dried over

(a)  CaO

(b)  NaOH

(c)  KOH

(d)  Conc. H2SO4

Answer: (d)

15. P. and M.P. of inert gases are

(a)  high

(b)  low

(c)  very high

(d)  very low

Answer: (d)

16. Percentage of Ar in air is about

(a)  1%

(b)  2%

(c)  3%

(d)  4%

Answer: (a)

17. Which of the following fluorides of xenon is impossible?

(a)  XeF2

(b)  XeF3

(c)  XeF4

(d)  XeF6

Answer: (a)

18. An isomer of ethanol is

(a)  methanol

(b)  diethyl ether

(c)  acetone

(d)  dimethyl ether

Answer: (d)

19. How many chain isomer can be obtained from the alkane C6H14 ?

(a)  4

(b)  5

(c)  6

(d)  7

Answer: (b)

20. The compound C4H10O can show

(a)  metamerism

(b)  functional isomerism

(c)  positional isomerism

(d)  All types

Answer: (d)

21. One Faraday of electricity will liberate one gram atom of the metal from a solution of

(a)  AuCl3

(b)  BaCl2

(c)  CuSO4

(d)  NaCl

Answer: (d)

22. Law of electrolysis was given by

(a)  Lamark

(b)  Ostwald

(c)  Faraday

(d)  Arrhenius

Answer: (c)

23. Al galvanic cells do not contain

(a)  a cathode

(b)  an anode

(c)  ions

(d)  a porous plate

Answer: (d)

24. The rate of reaction of substances is proportional to their

(a)  stability

(b)  molecular weight

(c)  equivalent weight

(d)  active mass

Answer: (d)

25. The law of mass action was enunciated by

(a)  Guldberg and Waage

(b)  Bodenstein

(c)  Berthelot

(d)  Graham

Answer: (a)

26. In which of the following gaseous equilibria Kp is less than Kc ?

(a)  N2SO4 ⇌ 2NO2

(b)  2HI ⇌ H2 + I2

(c)  2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3

(d)  N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO

Answer: (c)

27. The pH of a 0.005 molar aqueous solution of sulphuric acid is approximately

(a)  0.005

(b)  2

(c)  1

(d)  0.01

Answer: (b)

28. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

(a)  8

(b)  1 × 107

(c)  7

(d)  1

Answer: (b)

29. The pH of normal KOH is

(a)  1

(b)  0

(c)  14

(d)  7

Answer: (c)

30. How many primary amines are possible for the formula C4H11N?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

31. Which alkane would have only the primary and tertiary carbon ?

(a)  Pentane

(b)  2-Methylbutane

(c)  2, 2-Dimethylpropane

(d)  2, 2-Dimethylbutane

Answer: (d)

32. How many oxygen atoms are present in 0.5 mole of sulphur dioxide ?

(a)  6.02 × 1023

(b)  3.01 × 1023

(c)  9.03 × 1023

(d)  12.04 × 1023

Answer: (a)

33. Volume occupied by 4g CO2 is

(a)  2.24 litres

(b)  22.4 litres

(c)  224 litres

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

34. Which of the following sub-shell is not possible ?

(a)  2d

(b)  4f

(c)  6p

(d)  3s

Answer: (a)

35. Maximum electron in a d-orbital are

(a)  2

(b)  10

(c)  6

(d)  14

Answer: (b)

36. Number of elements present in 5th period is

(a)  8

(b)  18

(c)  32

(d)  24

Answer: (b)

37. Element with highest electron affinity is

(a)  F

(b)  Cl

(c)  Br

(d)  I

Answer: (a)

38. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?

(a)  CHCl3

(b)  CHCl2

(c)  CH2Cl

(d)  CCl4

Answer: (d)

39. Which of the following has the smallest bond angle ?

(a)  NH3

(b)  BeF2

(c)  H2O

(d)  CH4

Answer: (c)

40. The density of neon will be highest at

(a)  S.T.P.

(b)  0℃, 2 atm

(c)  273℃, 1 atm

(d)  273℃, 2 atm

Answer: (c)

41. The pressure at which one mole of a gas at 0℃ occupies a volume of al litre is

(a)  2.24 atm

(b)  4.48 atm

(c)  11.2 atm

(d)  22.4 atm

Answer: (d)

42. Which of the following is not a colloidal system ?

(a)  Milk

(b)  Blood

(c)  Ice Cream

(d)  urea dissolved in water

Answer: (d)

43. Which of the following substances is not used for preparing lyophilic sols?

(a)  Starch

(b)  Gum

(c)  Gelatin

(d)  Metal sulphide

Answer: (d)

44. Order of reaction is decided by

(a)  molecularity

(b)  Pressure

(c)  Temperature

(d)  mechanism of reaction as well as relative concentration of reactants

Answer: (d)

45. Rate constant depends on

(a)  temperature

(b)  time

(c)  initial concentration

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

46. Which one is used as an air purifier in spacecraft?

(a)  Quick lime

(b)  Slacked lime

(c)  Potassium superoxide

(d)  Anhydrous CaCl2

Answer: (c)

47. Melting point is lowest for

(a)  Be

(b)  Mg

(c)  Ca

(d)  Sr

Answer: (a)

48. Sea weeds are important source of

(a)  Fluorine

(b)  Chlorine

(c)  Bromine

(d)  Iodine

Answer: (d)

49. Which one of the following halogens exhibit only one oxidation state in its compounds?

(a)  Bromine

(b)  Chlorine

(c)  Fluorine

(d)  Iodine

Answer: (c)

50. Transition elements

(a)  do not act as catalysts

(b)  have low melting point

(c)  exhibit variable valency

(d)  exhibit inert pair effect

Answer: (c)

51. Percentage of silver in Germanium silver is

(a)  0%

(b)  1%

(c)  5%

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

52. The alloy of steel that is used for making automobile parts and utensils is

(a)  Stainless steel

(b)  Nickel steel

(c)  Tungsten steel

(d)  Chromium steel

Answer: (d)

53. Galvanization of iron denotes coating with

(a)  Al

(b)  Sn

(c)  Cd

(d)  Zn

Answer: (d)

54. Among the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state.

(a)  MnO4

(b)  Cr(CN)3/6

(c)  NiF2/6

(d)  CrO2Cl2

Answer: (d)

55. For decolourisation of 1 mole of KMnO4, the moles of H2O2 required is

(a)  1/2

(b)  3/2

(c)  5/2

(d)  7/2

Answer: (c)

56. The metal which forms a bicarbonate is

(a)  Zn

(b)  Sr

(c)  Na

(d)  Al

Answer: (c)

57. The by-product of Solvay ammonia process is

(a)  Carbon dioxide

(b)  Ammonia

(c)  Calcium chloride

(d)  Calcium carbonate

Answer: (c)

58. The easiest and the quickest way to purify camphor is by

(a)  sublimation

(b)  distillation

(c)  chromatography

(d)  differential extraction

Answer: (a)

59. Dumas method involves the determination of nitrogen content in the organic compound in the form of

(a)  NH3

(b)  N2

(c)  NaCN

(d)  (NH4)2SO4

Answer: (c)

60. The isomers of a substance must have same

(a)  chemical properties

(b)  structural formula

(c)  molecular formula

(d)  functional groups

Answer: (c)

61. Bond length is shortest in

(a)  methane

(b)  ethane

(c)  ethylene

(d)  acetylene

Answer: (d)

62. LPG mainly contains

(a)  methane

(b)  butane

(c)  ethane

(d)  ethyne

Answer: (b)

63. Which one of the following compounds cannot be prepared by Wurtz reaction?

(a)  CH4

(b)  C2H6

(c)  C3H8

(d)  C4H10

Answer: (a)

64. When chloroform is boiled with NaOH, it gives

(a)  formic acid

(b)  trihydroxy methane

(c)  acetylene

(d)  sodium formate

Answer: (d)

65. Allyl Chloride on dehydrochlorination gives

(a)  propadiene

(b)  propylene

(c)  allyl alcohol

(d)  acetone

Answer: (b)

66. Ann alcohol produced in the manufacture of soap is

(a)  butanol

(b)  glycerol

(c)  ethanol

(d)  ethylene glycol

Answer: (b)

Mathematics

1. is discontinuous when

(a)  x > 3

(b)  x < −3

(c)  −3 < x < 3

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

2. is discontinuous at x = ?

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  −1

(d)  Both (b) and (c)

Answer (d)

3.  is equal to

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (c)

4. If   is

(a)  2

(b) 

(c)  

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

5. If y = a cos x + b sin x then  is equal to

(a)  y

(b)  −y

(c)  aby

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

6. The probability of a sure event is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  1/2

(d)  unlimited

Answer (b)

7. If y = aex + be−x then  is

(a)  y

(b)  −y

(c)  aby

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

8. If y = cot x, then  is

(a)  −cosec2 x

(b)  2cosec2x cot x

(c)  cosec2x cot x

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

9. If y = log x2, then the value of  is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (b)

10. If  is

(a)  −cosec2x

(b)  −cosec x cot x

(c)  cos2 x

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

11. 

(a) 

(b)  2 sin x cos x +c

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

12. 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (b)

13.  is equal to

(a)  cot x – tan x + c

(b)  tan x – cot x + c

(c)  tan x + cot x + c

(d)  None of these

Answer (d)

14.  is equal to

(a)  2 tan x + c

(b) 

(c)  sec x – x + c

(d)  tan x – x + c

Answer (d)

15. The value of  is

(a)  π/2

(b)  −π/2

(c)  0

(d)  None of these

Answer (d)

16. The value of  is

(a)  2

(b)  1/2

(c)  3/2

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

17. 

(a)  0

(b) 1

(c)  2

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

18.  is equal to

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (c)

19. If n(A) = 3 and n(B) = 6 and A ⊆ B, then the number of elements in A ∪ B is equal to

(a)  3

(b)  9

(c)  6

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

20. A relation R on a set A is called an equivalence relation if

(a)  it is reflexive

(b)  it is symmetric

(c)  it is transitive

(d)  it is reflexive, symmetric and transitive

Answer (d)

21. The number log2 7 is

(a)  an integer

(b)  a rational number

(c)  an irrational number

(d)  a prime number

Answer (c)

22. 

(a)  a rational number

(b)  an irrational number

(c)  an imaginary number

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

23. The sum of the series  is

(a)  log 2

(b)  e1

(c)  √e

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

24. An approximate value of log 3 correct to one place of decimal is

(a)  0.5

(b)  1.2

(c)  1.1

(d)  1.0

Answer (c)

25. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?

(a)  Mean

(b)  Median

(c)  Mode

(d)  Range

Answer (d)

26. The mean of first n natural numbers is

(a) 

(b)  n(n + 1)

(c) 

(d)  (n + 1)

Answer (c)

27. If the mode of a data is 18 and the mean is 24, then median is

(a)  18

(b)  24

(c)  22

(d)  21

Answer (c)

28. 49n + 16n – 1 is divisible by

(a)  3

(b)  64

(c)  19

(d)  29

Answer (b)

29. The value of 13C2 + 13C3 + …….+ 13C13 is

(a)  213 – 13

(b)  213 – 14

(c)  an odd number ≠ 213 – 12

(d)  an even number of ≠ 213 – 14

Answer (b)

30. The 4th term in the expansion of  is

(for x > 0)

(a)  independent of x

(b)  positive

(c)  negative

(d)  the only middle term

Answer (a)

31. Angle between vectors  is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (d)

32. The area of the parallelogram of which  are adjacent is

(a)  2

(b)  1/2

(c)  1

(d)  √2

Answer (c)

33. The unit vector perpendicular to vectors  forming a right-handed system is

(a)

(b)

(c)  

(d) 

Answer (a)

34. The value of n, when nP2 = 20 is

(a)  3

(b)  4

(c)  6

(d)  5

Answer (d)

35. If 2 + i√5is a root of a quadratic equation then the other root is

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (c)

36. If 3 − √7 is a root of a quadratic equation then the other root of it is

(a)  3 + √7

(b)  √3 + 7

(c)  √7 – 3

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

37. If the roots of the equation x2 – ax + b = 0 are reciprocal to each other then

(a)  b = 0

(b)  b = 1

(c)  b = a

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

38. If sum of the two roots of a quadratic equation is 8 and product of the two roots is 9 then the quadratic equation is

(a)  x2 – 8x + 9 = 0

(b)  x2 + 8x + 9 = 0

(c)  x2 + 9x + 8 = 0

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

39. If x + iy = 0 then

(a)  x = 0, y = 1

(b)  x = y = 0

(c)  x = y = 1

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

40. The value of  is

(a)  −1

(b)  +1

(c)  i

(d)  −i

Answer (b)

41. The value of  where  is

(a)  2i

(b)  0

(c)  √2

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

42. The complex conjugate of 2 + 5i is

(a)  2 – 5i

(b)  5 + 2i

(c)  5 – 2i

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

43. If tan x tan 3x = 1 then tan x is

(a)  1

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer (d)

44. Given that,  and θ lies in the 4th quadrant, then the value of cos θ is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (c)

45. The number of solutions of the equation  lying between 0 to 2π is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer (c)

46. If sin θ = 1, the value of θ (0 ≤ θ < 360°) is

(a)  270°

(b)  180°

(c)  0°

(d)  90°

Answer (d)

47. The point (−3, 6) lies in the

(a)  1st quadrant

(b)  2nd quadrant

(c)  3rd quadrant

(d)  4th quadrant

Answer (b)

48. Which one is polar co-ordinate?

(a)  (2, 3)

(b)  (3, π/3)

(c)  (5, 9)

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

49. The cartesian co-ordinates of the point whose polar co-ordinates are (3, π/6), are

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (b)

50. The distance between two points (3, 5) and (8, 10) is

(a)  2√5

(b)  5

(c)  5√2

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

51. The slop of the line 2x + 3y – 5 is

(a)  2/3

(b)  −2/3

(c)  3/2

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

52. The equation of the line parallel to X-axis and at a distance of 5 units from it is

(a)  x = 5

(b)  x + y = 5

(c)  y = 5

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

53. The angle made by the straight line y = −x with the positive direction of X-axis is

(a)  −45°

(b)  45°

(c)  135°

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

54. The distance between the lines 3x + 4y = 9 and 6x + 8y = 15 is

(a)  3/2

(b)  3/10

(c)  6

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

55. The equation of the circle whose centre is (0, 0) and radius is 5, is

(a)  x2  + y2 = 25

(b)  (x – 5)2 + (y – 5)2 = 52

(c)  x2 + (y – 5)2 = 52

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

56. The equation k(x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y – 1) = 0 where k ≠ 0 represents

(a)  a circle

(b)  a parabola

(c)  an ellipse

(d)  a pair of straight lines

Answer (a)

57. The latus rectum of the parabola y2 = −48x is

(a)  −48

(b)  −12

(c)  48

(d)  12

Answer (b)

58. The length of the radius of the circle x2 + y2 + 4x – 7y – t = 0 is 9/2, then value of t is

(a)  8

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

59. The co-ordinates of the locus of the parabola y2 = 2ax which passes through the point of intersection of the straight lines  are

(a)  (3, 10)

(b)

(c)  (10, 3)

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

60. The length of the latus rectum of the parabola y2 = 25x is

(a)  6

(b)  25

(c)  25/2

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

61. The value of |x| when x = −3, is

(a)  −3

(b)  3

(c)  ±3

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

62. √3 is a

(a)  rational number

(b)  irrational number

(c)  real number

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

63. If f(x) = loge x and g(x) = ex, then g{f(x)} is

(a)  ex

(b)  loge x

(c)  x

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

64. If f(x) = |x| – 2x, then the value of f(−4) is

(a)  4

(b)  −12

(c)  12

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

65. If  then  is

(a)  1

(b)  −1

(c)  1/2

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

66. 

(a)  2

(b)  1/2

(c)  1

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

67. 

(a)  1/2

(b)  2

(c)  0

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

68. The value of  is

(a)  loge 2/loge 3

(b)  loge(2/3)

(c)  loge(3/2)

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

Biology

1. Which one of the following is not a fish

(a)  Lung fish

(b)  Whale

(c)  Saw fish

(d)  Dog fish

Answer (a)

2. Phylloclade is a modification of

(a)  root

(b)  stem

(c)  leaf

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

3. Prickles in rose are

(a)  modified leaves

(b)  accessory buds

(c)  exogenous in origin

(d)  endogenous in origin

Answer (d)

4. As a tree grows older, which increases rapidly in thickness ?

(a)  its heart wood

(b)  its sap wood

(c)  its cortex

(d)  Phloem

Answer (a)

5. Annual rings are distinct in plants growing in

(a)  Tropics

(b)  Artic zones

(c)  Grass land

(d)  Temperate

Answer (a)

6. Winter sleep is known as

(a)  Hibernation

(b)  Aestivation

(c)  Nocturnal

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

7. The efferent process of neuron is known as

(a)  Axon

(b)  Dendrite

(c)  Cyton

(d)  Neurofibrillae

Answer (b)

8. Cilia are formed by

(a)  Dictyosome

(b)  Centrioles

(c)  Peroxisome

(d)  Lysosome

Answer (b)

9. Who proved that plant cells are totipotent?

(a)  Steward

(b)  Haberlandt

(c)  Muir

(d)  Maheshwari

Answer (b)

10. The two strands of DNA are held together by

(a)  Nitrogen

(b)  Carbon

(c)  Oxygen

(d)  Hydrogen

Answer (d)

11. The smallest RNA is

(a)  m-RNA

(b)  t-RNA     

(c)  r-RNA

(d)  Chromosomal RNA

Answer (c)

12. In mitosis, nuclear envelop and nucleolus disappear during

(a)  Prophase

(b)  Interphase

(c)  Metaphase

(d)  Telophase

Answer (a)

13. Colchicine influences

(a)  DNA replication

(b)  organization of spindle

(c)  chromosome condensation

(d)  chromosome division

Answer (a)

14. Gurad cells differ from epidermal cells in having

(a)  mitochondria

(b)  vacuoles

(c)  cell wall  

(d)  chloroplast

Answer (d)

15. Plasmolysis occurs due to

(a)  Absorption

(b)  Osmosis

(c)  Endosmosis

(d)  Exosmosis

Answer (c)

16. Die-back disease of citrus is caused by

(a)  B

(b)  Mn

(c)  Cu

(d)  Zn

Answer (c)

17. Lack of which element has made some plants insectivorous?

(a)  Iron

(b)  Sodium

(c)  Nitrogen

(d)  Magnesium

Answer (b)

18. Chloroplast fix

(a)  O2

(b)  H2

(c)  CO2

(d)  N2

Answer (b)

19. Carbon-dioxide acceptor in C3 plants is

(a)  PEP

(b)  PGA

(c)  RMP

(d)  RuBP

Answer (b)

20. Fermentation is performed by

(a)  all microorganisms

(b)  some fungi & some bacteria

(c)  all bacteria

(d)  all fungi

Answer (c)

21. Total ATP produced during EMP pathway is

(a)  6

(b)  7

(c)  24

(d)  36

Answer (a)

22. Hormone responsible for apical dominance is

(a)  IAA

(b)  GA

(c)  ABA

(d)  Florigen

Answer (d)

23. Movement of auxin is

(a)  Acropetal

(b)  Basipetal

(c)  Centripetal

(d)  Both (b) & (c)

Answer (a)

24. The first permanent teeth develops at the age of

(a)  3 years

(b)  5 years

(c)  4 years

(d)  6 years

Answer (a)

25. Vermiform appendix is a part of

(a)  Intestine

(b)  Liver

(c)  Stomach

(d)  Rectum

Answer (b)

26. Percentage of O2 present in inhaled air in man is about

(a)  21%

(b)  1%

(c)  78%

(d)  43%

Answer (b)

27. Blood contains CO2 in which of the following forms?

(a)  NaHCO3

(b)  Carbonic acid

(c)  Hb-CO2

(d)  Hb-CO2 and CO

Answer (d)

28. Chordae tendineae in the heart are found in

(a)  ventricle

(b)  left auricle

(c)  right auricle

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

29. Human spleen

(a)  controls pulse rate

(b)  secretes hormones

(c)  regulates heart beat     

(d)  controls blood volume

Answer (a)

30. Mark the odd one

(a)  Ammonotelism

(b)  Micturition

(c)  Ureotelism

(d)  Uricotelism

Answer (b)

31. Which one of the following are not filtered in the glomerulus?

(a)  Urea

(b)  Blood cells

(c)  Water

(d)  Glucose

Answer (d)

32. In human body, the number of bones is

(a)  106

(b)  426

(c)  306

(d)  None of these

Answer (d)

33. The tissue with highest total glycogen content is

(a)  kidney

(b)  Muscle

(c)  Liver

(d)  Nerve

Answer (c)

34. Iris is a part of

(a)  sclerotic

(b)  choroid

(c)  choroid and retina

(d)  sclerotic & choroid

Answer (b)

35. Which one of the following called false fruit ?

(a)  Apple

(b)  Mango

(c)  Orange

(d)  Guava

Answer (c)

36. How many cells does a pollen grain have ?

(a)  One

(b)  Two

(c)  Three

(d)  Four

Answer (d)

37. How many spermatozoa are produced from five secondary spermatocytes ?

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  8

(d)  10

Answer (b)

38. The spermatogonia of an animal contains 32 chromosomes. What will be the number of spermatids chromosomes in it?

(a)  16

(b)  18

(c)  20

(d)  22

Answer (a)

39. How many chromosomes are present in the nucleus of a human sperm?

(a)  21

(b)  22

(c)  23

(d)  24

Answer (a)

40. What percentage of sperms are there in an ejaculate vigorous motility, for normal fertility?

(a)  40% of the sperms

(b)  50% of  the sperms

(c)  30% of the sperms

(d)  10% of the sperms

Answer (b)

41. How many eggs do you think were released by the ovary of a female dog which gave birth of 6 puppies ?

(a)  5

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  12

Answer (d)

42. How many eggs are released by a human ovary in a month ?

(a)  One egg

(b)  Two eggs

(c)  Three eggs

(d)  Four eggs

Answer (a)

43. Humans are

(a)  oviparous

(b)  viviparous

(c)  ovoviviparous

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

44. STDS are also called

(a)  Venereal diseases (VDS)

(b)  Reproductive tract infections (RTI)

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  Medical termination of pregnancy

Answer (a)

45. A body has blood group AB. What is true of the inheritance of this blood group in his case?

(a)  His parents should be one with O group and the other with B group

(b)  His parents should be one with O group and the other with A group

(c)  Both his parents should be with B group

(d)  His parents should e with A group and mother with B group

Answer (d)

46. Mention the age group where STDS are reported to be very high occurrence

(a)  10-12 years

(b)  12-14 years

(c)  15-24 years

(d)  20-24 years

Answer (d)

47. How many types of gametes are produced by an individual with genotype Aa Bb?

(a)  4

(b)  5

(c)  6

(d)  7

Answer (b)

48. How many different phenotypes are formed in the 16-squares in a Punnet square as a result of dihybrid cross?

(a)  2

(b)  4

(c)  6

(d)  8

Answer (b)

49. The egg of an animal contains 10 chromosomes, of which one is X-chromosome. How many autosomes would be there in the karyotype of this animal?

(a)  2 pairs

(b)  3 pairs

(c)  9 pairs

(d)  18 pairs

Answer (a)

50. How many autosomes are found in a single mature human sperm?

(a)  22

(b)  24

(c)  26

(d)  28

Answer (b)

51. Which of the following changes is the cause for sickle cell anaemia ?

(a)  Glutamic acid to valine

(b)  Glutamic acid to methionine

(c)  Glutamic acid to alanine

(d)  Glutamic acid to tyrosine

Answer (c)

52. Which one of the following disorders appears more in human males than in females ?

(a)  Phenylketonuria

(b)  Sickle-cell anaemia

(c)  Red-green colour blindness

(d)  Albinism

Answer (a)

53. Down’s syndrome is caused due to

(a)  Monosomy of 21st chromosome

(b)  Trisomy of 21st chromosome

(c)  an extra Y-chromosome in male

(d)  an extra X-chromosome in female

Answer (d)

54. A hemophilic man marries a normal homozygous woman. What is the probability that their daughter will be hemophilic?

(a)  100%

(b)  75%

(c)  50%

(d)  0%

Answer (d)

55. If a double standed DNA has 20 percent of cytosine, calculate the percentage of adenine in that DNA.

(a)  30%

(b)  35%

(c)  40%

(d)  60%

Answer (a)

56. The complementary strand of a DNA synthesized on a template of DNA with the codons TAGCATACT is

(a)  ATCGTATGA

(b)  AUCGGATTGA

(c)  ATGGUATGA

(d)  ATCGTATCA

Answer (c)

57. How many base pairs are present in one full turn of DNA helix ?

(a)  5

(b)  10

(c)  15

(d)  20

Answer (b)

58. What is the length of the pitch of the helix ?

(a)  3.4 nm

(b)  4.3 nm

(c)  34 nm

(d)  43 nm

Answer (b)

59. What is the distance between two base pairs in a strand of DNA ?

(a)  3.4 nm

(b)  0.34 nm

(c)  0.04 nm

(d)  0.24 nm

Answer (a)

60. What is approximate length of DNA in a typical mammalian cell ?

(a)  2.2 m

(b)  2.4 m

(c)  2.8 m

(d)  3.0 m

Answer (b)

61. The smallest unit of classification is

(a)  Family

(b)  Order

(c)  Genus

(d)  Species

Answer (c)

62. The largest herbarium of the world is located at

(a)  Geneva

(b)  Berlin

(c)  New York

(d)  Kew

Answer (d)

63. Red tides are produced by

(a)  Red algae

(b)  Dinoflagellates

(c)  Diatoms

(d)  Phaeophyceae

Answer (d)

64. The cell wall of diatoms is formed of

(a)  cellulose

(b)  pectin

(c)  cellulose and silica

(d)  cellulose and chitin

Answer (a)

65. Venter is the part of

(a)  Sporogonium

(b)  Sporangium

(c)  Antheridium

(d)  Archegonium

Answer (b)

66. Which of the following is least likely to occur along the sea coast ?

(a)  Green algae

(b)  Brown algae

(c)  Red algae

(d)  Mosses

Answer (d)

67. Continued secretion of milk is maintained by

(a)  Aldsterone

(b)  Progesterone

(c)  Oestrogen

(d)  Prolactin

Answer (a)

68. Macropus is

(a)  Prototherian

(b)  Marsupian

(c)  Eutherian

(d)  Amphibian

Answer (a)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2011 With Answer Key

2011 O.U.A.T Question with Answer

Physics

 

1. Ohm’s law is valid when the temperature of the conductor is

(a)  constant

(b)  very high

(c)  very low

(d)  varying

Answer: (a)

2. According to the Kirchhoff’s law the sum of the products of current and resistance as well as emfs in a closed loop is

(a)  greater than zero

(b)  less than zero

(c)  zero

(d)  determined by the emf.

Answer: (b)

3. What happens during the charging of acid cell?

(a)  Voltage increases.

(b)  Energy is given out.

(c)  Relative density of electrolyte decreases.

(d)  Cathode becomes chocolate brown.

Answer: (b)

4. The relative density of the electrolyte of acid accumulator should not be allowed to fall below

(a)  1.80

(b)  1.50

(c)  1.28

(d)  1.18

Answer: (d)

5. The electric cell is a device that obtains

(a)  electrons

(b)  electric-charge

(c)  electric energy from chemical energy

(d)  electric force

Answer: (c)

6. What is the nature of graph between temperature and thermo emf?

(a)  Hyperbola

(b)  Straight line

(c)  Parabola

(d)  Some other curve

Answer: (c)

7. Two bulbs, one of 50 watt and another 25 watt are connected series to the mains. The current flowing through them will be in the ratio

(a)  2 : 1

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  1

(d)  2 : 3

Answer: (c)

8. Electric current is passed through the following solutions. In which case hydrogen will be liberated at the cathode?

(a)  Sugar

(b)  Sodium hydroxide

(c)  Sulphuric acid

(d)  Copper & Sulphate

Answer: (c)

9. An electric kettle is rated at 500 w. The time taken to heat 0.5 litre of water from 30℃ to 100℃ in this kettle is

(a)  7.9 minutes

(b)  3.9 minutes

(c)  4.9 minutes

(d)  5.9 minutes

Answer: (c)

10. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is

(a)  zero

(b)  high

(c)  infinite

(d)  low

Answer: (c)

11. Of the following an ideal voltmeter is

(a)  moving coil voltmeter

(b)  voltameter

(c)  an electrometer

(d)  hot wire voltmeter

Answer: (d)

12. A copper rod moves parallel to the horizontal direction. The induced e.m.f. developed across its ends due to earth’s magnetic field will be maximum at the

(a)  equator

(b)  latitude 30°

(c)  latitude 60°

(d)  poles

Answer: (d)

13. Dynamo is designed on the principle of

(a)  electromagnetic induction

(b)  self induction

(c)  mutual induction

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

14. What does a dynamo generate ?

(a)  Electrons

(b)  Charge

(c)  emf

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

15. A choke coil should have

(a)  high resistance low inductance

(b)  high resistance high inductance

(c)  low resistance high inductance

(d)  low resistance low inductance

Answer: (c)

16. An AC. series circuit contains 8 ohm of resistance and 6 ohm of inductive reactance.

(a)  14 ohm

(b)  2 ohm

(c)  10 ohm

(d)  14.2 ohm

Answer: (c)

17. What is the nature of path of an electron when it moves in a transverse electric field?

(a)  Straight line

(b)  Ellipse

(c)  Parabola

(d)  Circle

Answer: (d)

18. The seconds hand of a clock is 2.0 cm long. Displacement of the tip of the hand in 15 seconds is

(a)  2.0 cm.

(b)  2√2 cm.

(c)  1.0 cm.

(d)  0.5 cm.

Answer: (b)

19. A bus travels the first one-third distance at a speed of 10 km/hr., the next one-third distance at 20 km/hr. and the last one third distance at 60 km/hr. The average speed of the bus is

(a)  16 km/hr.

(b)  18 km/hr.

(c)  2√2 km/hr.

(d)  √2 km/hr.

Answer: (b)

20. A shell following a parabolic path explodes somewhere in its flight. The centre of mass of fragments will continue to move in

(a)  vertical direction

(b)  any direction

(c)  horizontal direction

(d)  same parabolic path

Answer: (a)

21. If the earth would have been of iron of density 8 × 103 kg/m3, then the value of acceleration due to gravity (g) would be

(a)  zero

(b)  equal to g

(c)  less than

(d)  greater than g

Answer: (d)

22. If the diameter of the earth becomes two times of its present value and its mass remains unchanged, then how would the weight of an object on the surface of the earth be effected?

(a)  It will become half

(b)  It will become one-fourth.

(c)  It will become double.

(d)  It will become four times.

Answer: (b)

23. The compressibility of water is 4 × 105 per unit at mospheric pressure. The decrease in volume of 10 cm3 of water under a pressure of 100 atmosphere will be

(a)  0.004 cm3

(b)  0.025 cm3

(c)  0.4 cm3

(d)  4 × 105 cm3

Answer: (c)

24. A wooden cube first floats inside water when a 200 g mass is placed on it. When the mass is removed, the cube is 2 cm above water level. The size of cube is

(a)  5 cm

(b)  10 cm

(c)  15 cm

(d)  20 cm

Answer: (b)

25. A boat having a length of 3 metres and breadth 2 metres is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a man gets on it. The mass of the man is

(a)  60 kg

(b)  62 kg

(c)  72 kg

(d)  28 kg

Answer: (a)

26. No other thermometer is suitable as a platinum resistance thermometer to measure temperatures in the entire range of

(a)  −50℃ to + 350℃

(b)  −200℃ to + 600℃

(c)  0℃ to 100℃

(d)  100℃ to 1500℃

Answer: (b)

27. The temperature of the sun is measured with

(a)  platinum thermometer

(b)  gas thermometer

(c)  pyrometer

(d)  vapour pressure thermometer

Answer: (c)

28. Absolute scale of temperature is reproduced in the laboratory by making use of a

(a)  radiation pyrometer

(b)  platinum resistance thermometer

(c)  constant volume helium gas thermometer

(d)  constant pressure ideal gas thermometer

Answer: (d)

29. 336 g of ice at 0℃ is mixed with 336g of water at – 80℃. The final temperature of

(a)  80℃

(b)  40℃

(c)  60℃

(d)  0℃

Answer: (d)

30. NTP corresponds to a temperature of

(a)  0 K

(b)  −273 K

(c)  273 K

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

31. An isochoric process is one which takes place at

(a)  constant internal energy

(b)  constant entropy

(c)  constant volume

(d)  constant pressure

Answer: (c)

32. If the temperature of black body raised by 5%, the heat energy radiated would increase by

(a)  6%

(b)  20%

(c)  21.51%

(d)  41.61%

Answer: (c)

33. On a cold morning a metal surface will fell colder to touch than a wooden surface, because metal has

(a)  high specific heat

(b)  low specific heat

(c)  high thermal conductivity

(d)  low thermal conductivity

Answer: (b)

34. A body of mass 5 gram is executing S.H.M. about a fixed point O with an amplitude of 10 cm. Its maximum velocity is 100 cm/s. Its velocity will be 50 cm/s at a distance (in cm)

(a)  5

(b)  5√2

(c)  5√3

(d)  10√2

Answer: (c)

35. A tunnel has been dug through centre of the earth and a ball is released in it. It executes S.H.M. with time period

(a)  42 minutes

(b)  1 day

(c)  1 hour

(d)  84.6 minutes

Answer: (d)

36. A stone is dropped into a lake from a tower 500 metre high. The sound of splash will be heard by the man approximately after

(a)  11.5 sec.

(b)  21 sec.

(c)  10 sec.

(d)  14 sec.

Answer: (c)

37. In case of the longitudinal mechanical wave in air what is the phase difference between the pressure wave and the displacement wave?

(a)  0°

(b)  45°

(c)  90°

(d)  180°

Answer: (c)

38. At what temperature the velocity of sound in air is 1.5 times the velocity at 7℃?

(a)  357℃

(b)  476°

(c)  588℃

(d)  819℃

Answer: (a)

39. To hear a clear echo, the reflecting surface must be at a minimum distance of

(a)  10 m

(b)  16.5 m

(c)  33 m

(d)  66 cm

Answer: (c)

40. The distance between any two successive compression zones in medium in which a sound wave of 50 cm wave-length is travelling is

(a)  12.5 cm

(b)  25 cm

(c)  37.5 cm

(d)  50 cm

Answer: (d)

41. When a wave passes from one medium to another, there is change in

(a)  frequency and velocity

(b)  frequency and wavelength

(c)  wavelength and velocity

(d)  frequency, wavelength and velocity

Answer: (c)

42. A fork gives 5 beats with a 40 cm length of sonometer wire. If the length of the wire is shortened by 1 cm, the number of beats is still the same. he frequency o f the fork is

(a)  385 Hz

(b)  600 Hz

(c)  395 Hz

(d)  400 Hz

Answer: (c)

43. A pipe closed at one end and open at the other end, resonates with sound waves of frequency 135 Hz and also 165 Hz, but not with any wave of frequency intermediate between these two. Then the frequency of the fundamental note is

(a)  30 Hz

(b)  15 Hz

(c)  60 Hz

(d)  7.5 Hz

Answer: (a)

44. The penetration of light into the region of geometrical shadow is called

(a)  Polarisation

(b)  Interference

(c)  Diffraction

(d)  Refraction

Answer: (c)

45. When light is transmitted from air to glass, its

(a)  wave-length increases

(b)  wave-length decreases

(c)  frequency increases

(d)  There occurs no change.

Answer: (b)

46. Which of the following is not the case with the image formed by a plane mirror?

(a)  It is erect.

(b)  It is virtual.

(c)  It is diminished.

(d)  It is at the same distance as the object.

Answer: (c)

47. The low, generally negative D.C. voltage applied to the grid is called

(a)  bias

(b)  signal

(c)  cut off voltage

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

48. When a compact disc is illuminated by a source of white light, coloured lines are observed. This is due to

(a)  dispersion

(b)  diffraction

(c)  interference

(d)  refraction

Answer: (a)

49. A beam of monochromatic light is refracted from vacuum into a medium of refractive index 1.5. The wavelength of refracted light will be

(a)  dependent on intensity of refracted light

(b)  same

(c)  smaller

(d)  larger

Answer: (c)

50. A convex lens of focal length 30 cm forms an image of height 2 cm for an object situated at infinity. If a concave lens of focal length 20 cm is placed coaxially at a distance of 26 cm in front of convex lens, then size of final image would be

(a)  1.5 cm

(b)  2 cm

(c)  2.5 cm

(d)  4 cm

Answer: (c)

51. A form of electromagnetic radiation with wave-lengths intermediate between those of visible light and those of micro-wave is known as

(a)  infra-red radiation

(b)  ultraviolet radiation

(c)  visible-spectrum

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

52. The focal length of a lens for red and violet colours are 16.4 cm and 16 cm. What is the dispersive power?

(a)  0.050

(b)  0.025

(c)  0.012

(d)  0.006

Answer: (b)

53. Which of the following provides warmth in sunlight?

(a)  X-rays

(b)  Ultraviolet rays

(c)  Visible light

(d)  Infrared rays

Answer: (d)

54. What causes chromatic aberration ?

(a)  None paraxial rays

(b)  Paraxial rays

(c)  Variation of focal length with colour.

(d)  Difference in radii of curvature of the bonding surfaces of the lens

Answer: (d)

55. Diameter of objective of telescope is large for

(a)  greater magnification

(b)  greater resolution

(c)  greater ease in handling.

(d)  greater magnifying power

Answer: (d)

56. A person cannot see object clearly beyond 50 cm. The power of the lens to correct the vision is

(a)  +5 diopter

(b)  −0.5 diopter

(c)  −2 diopter

(d)  +2 diopter

Answer: (d)

57. A large magnet is broken into two pieces so that their lengths are in the ratio 2 : 1. The pole strengths of the two pieces will have ratio

(a)  2 : 1

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  4 : 1

(d)  1 : 1

Answer: (d)

58. The ratio of magnetic fields due to a small bar magnet at a given distance in the end on position to broad side on position is

(a)  1/4

(b)  1/2

(c)  1

(d)  2

Answer: (d)

59. When magnetizing field on a bar of steel is increased, its magnetization given on

(a)  decreasing

(b)  increasing

(c)  increasing first and then decreases

(d)  increasing till it becomes constant

Answer: (d)

60. The hysteresis cycle for the material of a transformer core is

(a)  short and wide

(b)  tall and narrow

(c)  tall and wide

(d)  short and narrow

Answer: (b)

61. In a cassette player, materials used for coating magnetic tapes are

(a)  cobalt

(b)  CoFe2O4

(c)  NiFe2O4

(d)  Nickel

Answer: (b)

62. Water is

(a)  diamagnetic

(b)  paramagnetic

(c)  ferromagnetic

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

63. DEBYE is the unit of

(a)  Electric dipole moment

(b)  Electric flux

(c)  Electric potential

(d)  Electric field

Answer: (a)

64. A hollow metallic sphere qf radius 10 cm is changes such that potential of its surface is 80 volt. The potential at the centre of the sphere would be

(a)  zero

(b)  8 V

(c)  80 V

(d)  800 V

Answer: (c)

65. When a dielectric material is introduced between the plates of a changed condenser then electric field between the plates

(a)  decreases

(b)  increases

(c)  remains constant

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

66. The electric field between the two spheres of a charges spherical condenser

(a)  is zero

(b)  is constant

(c)  increases with distance from the centre

(d)  decreases with distance from the centre

Answer: (b)

Chemistry

 

1. Acetylene reacts with HCN to produce

(a)  CH4

(b)  CH2 = CH.CN

(c)  C2H5CN

(d)  CH3CN

Answer: (b)

2. Among the following compounds, the strongest acid is

(a)  HC ≡ CH

(b)  C6H6

(c)  C2H6

(d)  CH3OH

Answer: (a)

3. The product(s) obtained via oxymercuration (HgSO4 + H2SO4) of 1-butyne would give

(a) 

(b)  CH3CH2CH2CHO

(c)  CH3CH2CHO + HCHO

(d)  CH3CH2COOH + HCOOH

Answer: (a)

4. Propyne and propene can be distinguished by

(a)  Conc. H2SO4

(b)  Br2 in CCl4

(c)  dil H2SO4

(d)  AgNO3 in ammonia

Answer: (b)

5. When propyne is treated with HgSO4/H2SO4 product is

(a)  propanol

(b)  propenal

(c)  propanone

(d)  propanoic acid

Answer: (d)

6. Which of the following will form sodium salt?

(a)  CH3 – CH3

(b)  CH3-C = C-CH3

(c)  CH3-CH2-C ≡ CH

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

7. KMnO4 will oxidize acetylene to

(a)  ethylene glycol

(b)  ethyl alcohol

(c)  oxalic acid

(d)  acetic acid

Answer: (c & d)

8. Octane number can be changed by

(a)  isomerisation

(b)  alkylation

(c)  cyclisation

(d)  All of these

Answer: (b)

9. Anti-Markownikov addition of HBr is not observed in

(a)  Propene

(b)  -Butene

(c)  But-2-ene

(d)  Pent-2-ene

Answer: (c)

10. 2-hexyne gives trans-2-hexane on treatment with

(a)  Li-NH3/C2H5OH

(b)  Pd/BaSO4

(c)  LiAlH4

(d)  Pt/H2

Answer: (b)

11. Out of the following compounds, which one will have a zero dipole moment?

(a)  1, 1-dichloroethylene

(b)  cis-1, 2-dichloroethylene

(c)  trans-1, 2-dichloroethylene

(d)  None of these compounds

Answer: (c)

12. n-propyl bromide on treatment with ethanolic potassium hydroxide produces

(a)  propane

(b)  propene

(c)  propyne

(d)  propanal

Answer: (b)

13. 1-chlorobutane on reaction with alcoholic potash gives

(a)  1-Butene

(b)  1-Butanol

(c)  2-Butene

(d)  2-Butanol

Answer: (a)

14. The produce formed on reaction of ethyl alcohol with bleaching powder is

(a)  CH3OH

(b)  CH3-CH2-OH

(c)  CHCl3

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (c)

15. Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity ?

(a)  F

(b)  OH

(c)  CH3

(d)  NH2

Answer: (a)

16. Among the following the molecule with highest dipole moment is

(a)  CH3Cl

(b)  CH2Cl2

(c)  CHCl3

(d)  CCl­4

Answer: (a)

17. When chloroform is boiled with NaOH, it gives

(a)  formic acid

(b)  trihydroxy methene

(c)  acetylene

(d)  sodium formate

Answer: (d)

18. The colour of CoCl2 . 5NH3, H2O is

(a)  orange yellow

(b)  orange

(c)  green

(d)  pink

Answer: (d)

19. Which one of the following is an example of non-typical transition elements?

(a)  Li, K, Na

(b)  Be, Al, Pb

(c)  Zn, Cd, Hg

(d)  Ba, Ca, Sr

Answer: (c)

20. Which of the following does not have valence electron in 3d-subshell?

(a)  Fe(III)

(b)  Mn(II)

(c)  Cr(I)

(d)  P(0)

Answer: (b)

21. Effective magnetic moment of Sc3+ ion is

(a)  1.73

(b)  0

(c)  5.92

(d)  2.83

Answer: (d)

22. The pair of compounds having metals in their highest oxidation state is

(a)  MnO2, FeCl3

(b)  [MnO4]CrO2, Cl2

(c)  [Fe(CN)6]3, [Co(CN)3]

(d)  [NICl4]2, [CoCl4]

Answer: (b)

23. Which one of the following are prepared by electrolytic method ?

I. Mg   II. Sn   III. Sulphur   IV. F2

(a)  I and II

(b)  II and III

(c)  III and IV

(d)  I and IV

Answer: (d)

24. Refactory materials are used in furnace because they

(a)  posses great structural strength

(b)  can withstand high temperature

(c)  are chemically inert

(d)  do not require replacement

Answer: (b)

25. An important ore of Magnesium is

(a)  Malachite

(b)  Cassiterite

(c)  Carnallite

(d)  Galena

Answer: (c)

26. Red hot iron absorbs SO2 giving the products

(a)  FeS + O2

(b)  Fe2O3 + FeS

(c)  FeO + FeS

(d)  FeO + S

Answer: (b)

27. All ores are minerals, while al minerals are not ores. because

(a)  the metal can’t be extracted economically from al the minerals

(b)  minerals are complex compounds

(c)  the minerals are obtained from mines

(d)  All of these are correct.

Answer: (a)

28. Which of the following process is used in the extractive metallurgy of magnesium?

(a)  Fused salt electrolysis

(b)  Self-reduction

(c)  Aqueous solution electrolysis

(d)  Thermite reduction

Answer: (a)

29. The ore which contains copper and iron both is

(a)  cuprite

(b)  chalcocite

(c)  chalcopyrite

(d)  malachite

Answer: (c)

30. White phosphorus reacts with caustic soda. The products are PH3 and NaH2PO2. This reaction is an example of

(a)  oxidation

(b)  reduction

(c)  oxidation and reduction

(d)  neutralization

Answer: (c)

31. HBr and HI reduce sulphuric acid, HCl can reduce KMnO4 and HF can reduce

(a)  H2SO4

(b)  KMnO4

(c)  K2Cr2O7

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

32. Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent only in the presence of

(a)  dry air

(b)  moisture

(c)  sunlight

(d)  pure oxygen

Answer: (b)

33. HNO3 reacts with iodine to give

(a)  HI

(b)  HOI

(c)  HOIO3

(d)  HOIO3

Answer: (a)

34. When I2 is dissolved in CCl4, the colour that result is

(a)  brown

(b)  violet

(c)  colour less

(d)  bluish green

Answer: (a)

35. The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, S2F2 . H2S respectively are

(a)  0, +1 and −2

(b)  +2, +1 and −2.

(c)  0, +1, and +2

(d)  −2, +1 and −2

Answer: (a)

36. Among the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state,

(a)  MnO4

(b)  Cr(CN)63

(c)  NiF62

(d)  CrO2Cl2

Answer: (d)

37. The reaction : 3ClO(aq) → ClO3(aq) + 2Cl(aq) is an example of

(a)  oxidation reaction

(b)  reduction reaction

(c)  disproportionation reaction

(d)  decomposition reaction

Answer: (c)

38. Oxidation state of Osmium (Os) in OsO4 is

(a)  +7

(b)  +6

(c)  +4

(d)  +8

Answer: (d)

39. How many isomers of C5H11OH will be primary alcohols?

(a)  5

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (d)

40. When CO2 is passed through solution of calcium hydroxide, which one of the following compound is precipitated?

(a)  Ca(HCO3)2

(b)  CaO

(c)  CaCO3

(d)  Ca(OH)2

Answer: (a)

41. Oleum is chemically known as

(a)  H2SO3

(b)  H2SO5

(c)  H2S2O7

(d)  H2S2O8

Answer: (c)

42. Ferric alum has the composition (NH4)2SO4, Fe2(SO4)3, xH2 The value of x is

(a)  7

(b)  24

(c)  6

(d)  15

Answer: (b)

43. The IUPAC name of the compound  is

(a)  2-ethyl butanamide

(b)  2-methylbutanamide

(c)  1-amino-2-methylpropane

(d)  1-amino-3-methylpropane

Answer: (b)

44. The compound is known by which of the following names ?

(a)  Bicyclo [2, 2, 2] octane

(b)  Bicyclo [2, 2, 1] octane

(c)  Bicyclo [1, 2, 1] octane

(d)  Bicyclo [1, 1, 1] octane

Answer: (a)

45. IUPAC name of  is

 

(a)  2-cyano, 3-methyl hexane

(b)  3-methyl, 5-cyanohexane

(c)  2, 2-dimethyl-4-cyanopentane

(d)  2-cyano, 3-methyl hexane

Answer: (c)

46. IUPAC name of the compound  is

 

(a)  4-methylpentane-2-ol

(b)  2-methylpentanol-4

(c)  4, 4-dimethylbutan-2-ol

(d)  4-methylpentan-2-ol

Answer: (a)

47. Successive alkanes differ by

(a)  > CH2

(b)  -C-H

(c)  -CH3

(d)  C2H4

Answer: (a)

48. The IUPAC name of n-butyl chloride is

(a)  1-chlorobutane

(b)  n-chlorobutane

(c)  ter-butylchloride

(d)  2-methylbutane

Answer: (a)

49. How many methyl groups are present in 2, 5-dimethyl-4-ethy name?

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (b)

50. A fractionation column is used in

(a)  Sublimation

(b)  Distillation

(c)  Fractional distillation

(d)  Chromatography

Answer: (c)

51. Copper wire test of halogens is known as

(a)  Beilstein’s test

(b)  Liebig’s test

(c)  Fusion test

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

52. Nitrogen is an organic compound can be estimated by

(a)  Kjeldahl’s method only

(b)  Duma’s method only

(c)  Both the methods

(d)  None of these methods

Answer: (c)

53. The Beilstein test for organic compounds is used to detect

(a)  Nitrogen

(b)  Sulphur

(c)  Carbon

(d)  Halogens

Answer: (d)

54. The density of air is 0.00130 g/ml. The vapour density of air will be

(a)  0.00065

(b)  0.65

(c)  14.4816

(d)  14.56

Answer: (a)

55. Which of the following is not a nucleophile?

(a)  CN

(b)  H2O

(c)  BF3

(d)  Carbanion

Answer: (c)

56. Of the following compounds, the one having linear structure is

(a)  Methane

(b)  Ethylene

(c)  Acetylene

(d)  Water

Answer: (c)

57. The Cl-C-Cl angle in 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrachloroethene and tetrachloromethane will be about

(a)  120° and 109.5°

(b)  90° and 109.5°

(c)  109.5° and 90°

(d)  109.5° and 120°

Answer: (a)

58. Which of the following is an electrophile?

(a)  H2O

(b)  NH3

(c)  AlCl3

(d)  C2H5NH3

Answer: (c)

59. The most common type reaction in aromatic compounds is

(a)  elimination reaction

(b)  addition reaction

(c)  electrophilic substitution reaction

(d)  rearrangement reaction

Answer: (c)

60. Among the following is strongest nucleophile is

(a)  C2H5SH

(b)  CH3COO

(c)  CH3NH2

(d)  NC-CH2

Answer: (c)

61. Cetane number of diesel fuel increases with the addition of

(a)  Decane

(b)  Hexadecane

(c)  Pentane

(d)  Methyl napthalene

Answer: (a)

62. Petroleum is a mixture of

(a)  alkanes

(b)  alkenes

(c)  alkynes

(d)  alkyl halides

Answer: (a)

63. Ethyl iodide when heated with sodium in dry ether gives pure

(a)  C4H10

(b)  C2H6

(c)  C3H8

(d)  C2H5OH

Answer: (a)

64. Which one of the following compounds cannot be prepared by Wurtz reaction?

(a)  CH4

(b)  C2H6

(c)  C3H8

(d)  C410

Answer: (a)

65. Which of the following alkenes will react fastest with H2 under catalytic conditions ?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

66. Which of the following is the most stable?

(a)  1-butene

(b)  2-butene

(c)  1-pentene

(d)  2-pentene

Answer: (d)

Mathematics

1. A single letter is selected at random from the word ‘PROBABILITY’. The probability that it is a vowel is

(a)  3/11

(b)  4/11

(c)  2/11

(d)  0

Answer: (a)

2. Two cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of these being queens is

(a)  1/26

(b)  1/2

(c)  1/221

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

3. If 

(a)  x = f(y)

(b)  f(1) = 3

(c)  y increases with x for x < 1

(d)  f is not a rational function of %

Answer: (a)

4. If log10 x = y, then log10 3x2 equals

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

5. 

(a)  1/3

(b)  −1/3

(c)  1/5

(d)  −1/6

Answer: (d)

6. If 

= 0, [x] = 0

Where [x] denotes the greatest integer ≤ x, then  equals

(a)  1

(b)  0

(c)  −1

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

7. If  is

(a) 

(b)

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

8. 

(a)  1/2

(b)  2/3

(c)  3

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

9. The maximum value of sin x + cos x =

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  √2

(d)  1/√2

Answer: (c)

10. 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

11. 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

12. 

(a) 

(b)  log 2

(c)  log 3

(d)  log √3

Answer: (d)

13. The value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (c)

14. The area between the curve y = 1 – |x| and X-axis is

(a)  1

(b)  1/2

(c)  2

(d)  1/3

Answer: (a)

15. The degree of the differential equation  is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (b)

16. The solution set of the inequaiton 2x + y > 5 is

(a)  half plane that contains the origin

(b)  open half plane not containing the origin

(c)  whole XY-plane except the points lying on the line 2x + y = 5

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

17. The maximum value of the objective function P = 5x + 3y, subject to the constraints x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 and 5x + 2y ≤ 10 is

(a)  6

(b)  10

(c)  15

(d)  25

Answer: (c)

18. If A = {2, 4, 5}, B = {7, 8, 9} then n(A × B) =

(a)  6

(b)  9

(c)  3

(d)  0

Answer: (b)

19. If A & B are sets, then A ∩ (B – A) is

(a)  ϕ

(b)  A

(c)  B

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

20. If a set A has a n elements, then the total number of subsets of A is

(a)  n

(b)  n2

(c)  2n

(d)  2n

Answer: (c)

21. 

(a)  a rational number

(b)  an irrational number

(c)  an imaginary number

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

22. If x and y are real positive numbers, then

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

23. If  then z69 is equal to

(a)  −i

(b)  i

(c)  1

(d)  −1

Answer: (a)

24. The number  is equal to

(a)  i

(b)  −1

(c)  1

(d)  0

Answer: (d)

25. The value of 

(a)  2

(b)  −2

(c)  1

(d)  0

Answer: (c)

26. If P and P’ be perpendicular from the origin upon the straight lines,

x sec θ + y cosec θ = a and x cos θ – y sin θ = a cos 2θ, then the value of the expression 4P2 + P’2 is

(a)  a2

(b)  3a2

(c)  2a2

(d)  4a2

Answer: (a)

27. The lines x + (a – 1)y + 1 = 0 & 2x + a2y – 1 = 0 are perpendicular if

(a)  |a| = 2

(b)  0 < a < 1

(c)  −1 < a < 0

(d)  a = −1

Answer: (d)

28. The equation of the line parallel to x-axis bisecting the joint of (1, 4) and (−2, 6) is

(a)  y = 5

(b)  y = 3

(c)  y + 1 = 0

(d)  x = 5

Answer: (a)

29. The circle x2 + y2 + 4x – 7y + 12 = 0 cuts an intercept on y-axis equal to

(a)  1

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  7

Answer: (a)

30.  The equation of chord of the circle x2 + y2 – 4x = 0 whose midpoint is (1, 0) is

(a)  y = 2

(b)  y = 1

(c)  x = 2

(d)  x = 1

Answer: (d)

31. The equation of the circle passing through the origin is x2 + y2 – 6x + 3y = 0. The equation of one of its diameter is

(a)  x + 3y = 0

(b)  x + y = 0

(c)  x = y

(d)  3x + y = 0

Answer: (a)

32. The slope of a chord of the parabola y2 = 4ax, which is normal at one end and which subtends a right angle at the origin is

(a)

(b) 

(c)  ±2

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

33. The eccentric angle of a point on the ellipse  whose distances from the centre of the ellipse is 2, is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

34. The number of values of c such that the straight line y = 4x + c touches the curve  is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  Infinite

Answer: (c)

35. If the major axis of an ellipse is thrice the minor axis, then its eccentricity is equal to

(a)  1/3

(b)  1/√3

(c)  1/√2

(d)  2√2/3

Answer: (d)

36. For m ≠ n, if tan mθ = tan nθ, then the different values of θ are in

(a)  NO particular sequence

(b)  G.P.

(c)  H.P.

(d)  A.P.

Answer: (d)

37. tan 20° + tan 40° + √3 tan 20° tan 40° is equal to

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

38. Let sin x+ sin y = a and cos x + cos y = b then sin(x + y) is equal to

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

39. If sin A = sin B, cos A = cos B, then the value of A in terms of B is

(a)  nπ + B

(b)  nπ + (−1)n B

(c)  2nπ + B

(d)  2nπ − B

Answer: (a)

40. The number of real solutions of  is

(a)  zero

(b)  one

(c)  two

(d)  infinite

Answer: (b)

41. 

(a)  π

(b)  π/2

(c)  π/3

(d)  π/4

Answer: (c)

42. The value of   is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

43. If sin1 x + sin1 y + sin1 z = π then x4 + y4 + z4 + 4x2y2z2 = k(x2y2 + y2z2 + z2x2) where k = ?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

44. A triangle ABC is right-angled at B. Then the diameter of the incircle of the triangle is

(a)  2(c + a – b)

(b)  c + a – 2b

(c)  c + a – b

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

45. If the angles of triangle are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, he corresponding sides are in the ratio

(a)  2 : 3 : 1

(b)  √3 : 2 : 1

(c)  2 : √3 : 1

(d)  1: √3 : 1

Answer: (d)

46. The maximum number of real roots of the equation x2n – 1 = 0 is

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  n

(d)  2n

Answer: (a)

47. We are given b, c & sin B such that B is acute and b < c sin B, then

(a)  No triangle is possible

(b)  One triangle is possible

(c)  Two triangles are possible

(d)  A right-angled triangle is possible

Answer: (b)

48. The expression ax2 + bx + c, a > 0 is positive for all real x only if

(a)  b2 – 4ac = 0

(b)  b2 – 4ac ≠ 0

(c)  b2 – 4ac < 0

(d)  b2 – 4ac > 0

Answer: (d)

49. If α, β are the roots of quadratic equation x2 + bx – c = 0 then the equation whose roots are b & c is

(a)  x2 + αx – β = 0

(b)  x2 – [(α + β) + αβ] x – αβ (α + β) = 0

(c)  x2 + [(α + β) + αβ] x + αβ (α + β) = 0

(d)  x2 + (αβ + α + β) x – αβ(α + β) = 0

Answer: (c)

50. If the ratio of the roots of the equation x2 + bx + c = 0 is the ratio of the roots of the equation x2 + qx + r = 0 then

(a)  r2b = qc2

(b)  r2c = qb2

(c)  c2r = q2b

(d)  b2r = q2c

Answer: ()

51. The roots of the equation 4x – 3 . 2x + 3 + 128 = 0 are

(a)  1 and 2

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  3 and 4

(d)  4 and 5

Answer: (c)

52. If ax = bx = cz and a, b, c are in GP. then x, y, z are in

(a)  A.P.

(b)  G.P.

(c)  H.P.

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

53. If  , the value of n is

(a)  35

(b)  36

(c)  37

(d)  38

Answer: (a)

54. If the sum of n terms of the series 23 + 43 + 63 + …….. ∞ is 3528, then n equals

(a)  6

(b)  7

(c)  8

(d)  9

Answer: (a)

55. The 99th term of the series 2 + 7 + 14 + 23 + 34 + , ……. is

(a)  9999

(b)  9998

(c)  10000

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

56. The letters of the word RANDOM are written in all possible orders and these words are written out as in a dictionary. Then the rank of the word RANDOM is

(a)  614

(b)  615

(c)  613

(d)  616

Answer: (b)

57. How many numbers of five digits can be formed from the digits 2, 0, 4, 3, 8 when repetition of digits is not allowed ?

(a)  96

(b)  120

(c)  144

(d)  14

Answer: (a)

58. If the co-efficient of mth, (m + 1)th and (m + 2)th terms in the expansion of (1 + x)n are in A.P. then

(a)  n2 + 4(4m + 1) + 4m2 – 2 = 0

(b)  n2 + n(4m + 1) + 4m2 + 2 = 0

(c)  (n – 2)m2 = n + 2

(d)  (n + 2m)2 = n + 2

Answer: (c)

59. The middle term in the expansion of  is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

60. The value of the determinant  is

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

61. The inverse of the matrix  is

(a)  A

(b)  Aʹ

(c)

(d) 

Answer: (a)

62. If A and B are any 2 × 2 matrices, then det(A + B) = 0 implies

(a)  det A + det B = 0

(b)  det A = 0 or det B = 0

(c)  det A = 0 and det B = 0

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

63. Value of a for which  are coplanar

(a)  2

(b)  4

(c)  −4

(d)  3

Answer: (c)

64. If  the vector form of the component of   is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

65. The point which divides the line joining the points (2, 4, 5) & (3, 5, −4) in the ratio −2 : 3 lies on

(a)  ZOX plane

(b)  XOY plane

(c)  YOZ plane

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

66. If θ is an angle given by  where α, β & γ are the angles made by a line with the positive directions of the axes of reference, then the measure of θ is

(a)  π/3

(b)  π/6

(c)  π/2

(d)  π/4

Answer: (a)

67. Weighted mean is computed by the formula

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

68. The mean and S.D. of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 is

(a) 

(b)

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

Biology

1. Excess of the white corpuseles in blood is called

(a)  anaemia

(b)  leukaemia

(c)  anoxia

(d)  septicemia

Answer: (b)

2. Which of the following organs develops first?

(a)  Liver

(b)  Heart

(c)  Notochord

(d)  Kidney

Answer: (b)

3. Which one of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?

(a)  Chicken pox

(b)  Poliomyelitis

(c)  Influenza

(d)  Tuberculosis

Answer: (d)

4. Which of the following micro-organisms can use molecular nitrogen as nutrient?

(a)  Methanomonas

(b)  Mucor

(c)  Rhizobium

(d)  All of these

Answer: (c)

5. A dry fruit is dispersed by

(a)  wind

(b)  Both (A) and (B)

(c)  body surfaces of animals

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

6. The term ‘anaerobic’ means

(a)  with glucose

(b)  with oxygen

(c)  without glucose

(d)  without oxygen

Answer: (d)

7. Xylem is primarily instrumental for

(a)  conduction of water

(b)  conduction of solute

(c)  mechanical support

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

8. Which of the following absorbs part of the isolation and preserves earth is radiated heat?

(a)  Nitrogen

(b)  Oxygen

(c)  Water vapour

(d)  Carbon dioxide

Answer: (d)

9. The condition in which there are more than two complete sets of chromosomes is called

(a)  Monoploidy

(b)  Polyploidy

(c)  Aneuploidy

(d)  Polytene

Answer: (b)

10. The hardest substances in human body is

(a)  chondrin

(b)  dentine

(c)  enamel

(d)  keratin

Answer: (c)

11. Cell was discovered by

(a)  Robert Hooke

(b)  Leeuwenhock

(c)  Robert Brown

(d)  Dujardin

Answer: (a)

12. Cell was discovered in the year

(a)  1652

(b)  1656

(c)  1665

(d)  1674

Answer: (c)

13. Nucleolus was discovered by

(a)  Oken

(b)  Wagner

(c)  Robert Brown

(d)  Frontana

Answer: (d)

14. Cell theory was proposed by

(a)  Schwann

(b)  Schleiden

(c)  Galeleo

(d)  None them

Answer: (b)

15. Father of genetics is

(a)  Devries

(b)  Correns

(c)  Mendel

(d)  Tschermuk

Answer: (c)

16. TMV is a full name of

(a)  Termie Maselte Virus

(b)  Taretic Mosaic Virus

(c)  Taitric Mosaic Virus

(d)  Tobacco Mosaic Virus

Answer: (d)

17. The hormone insulin which is used in treating diabetes was discovered by

(a)  F. G. Banting

(b)  Louis Pasteur

(c)  J. E. Salk

(d)  J. F. Enders

Answer: (a)

18. Colour of blood is red due to

(a)  Haemoglobin

(b)  WBC

(c)  Hormone

(d)  Protein

Answer: (a)

19. Cancer caused by

(a)  Bacteria

(b)  Virus

(c)  Fungles

(d)  Protozoa

Answer: (a & b)

20. The main constituent of chlorofil is

(a)  Mg

(b)  Fe

(c)  Zn

(d)  Cu

Answer: (a)

21. Photosynthesis take place at

(a)  fungy

(b)  stem

(c)  green leaves

(d)  roots

Answer: (c)

22. Rickets is caused by the deficiency of

(a)  Vitamin A

(b)  Vitamin C

(c)  Vitamin D

(d)  Vitamin B

Answer: (c)

23. The main respiratory substrate of human is

(a)  glucose

(b)  food

(c)  meat

(d)  milk

Answer: (a)

24. Example of monosaccharide is

(a)  Fructose

(b)  Maltose

(c)  Lactose

(d)  Glucose

Answer: (a & d)

25. Which one of the following is complete flower?

(a)  Chinarose

(b)  Night queen

(c)  Rose

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

26. Raphides is

(a)  Calcium sulphate

(b)  Calcium carbonate

(c)  Calcium oxalate

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

27. Excretory organs of planaria is

(a)  flame cell

(b)  Gills

(c)  green glands

(d)  Liver

Answer: (a)

28. Example of Beneficial Bacteria is

(a)  Rhizobium

(b)  Basilas subtilis

(c)  Lactobasilus

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

29. Cholera is caused by

(a)  Vibrio cholerae

(b)  Clostridium tetani

(c)  Tuberculosis

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

30. Cotton fibre is obtained from the

(a)  stem

(b)  seed

(c)  Leaf

(d)  Fruit       

Answer: (b)

31. The adult human skeleton consist of

(a)  204 bones

(b)  201 bones

(c)  206 bones

(d)  208 bones

Answer: (c)

32. Gene the basic unit of heredity, was first synthesized in the laboratory by

(a)  Hargobind Khorana

(b)  Watson and Crick

(c)  Gregor Mendel

(d)  Arthur Kornberg

Answer: (a)

33. The Central Drug Research Institute of India is located at

(a)  Bengaluru

(b)  Lucknow

(c)  Chennai

(d)  Delhi

Answer: (b)

34. The acid present in lemons and oranges is

(a)  acetic acid

(b)  hydrochloric acid

(c)  citric acid

(d)  oxalic acid

Answer: (c)

35. The most abundant source of iron is

(a)  milk

(b)  green vegetables

(c)  eggs

(d)  beans

Answer: (b)

36. While cooking food, the compounds lost to the maximum extent are

(a)  fats

(b)  carbohydrates

(c)  vitamins.

(d)  proteins

Answer: (c)

37. Cholesterol is

(a)  type of chlorophyll

(b)  derivative of chloroform

(c)  fatty alcohol found in animal fats

(d)  chromium salt

Answer: (c)

38. Antibodies is the name given to

(a)  harmful bacteria

(b)  poisonous substances

(c)  viruses that cause infection

(d)  substances formed in the blood that arrest or destroy harmful bacteria attacks

Answer: (d)

39. Haemoglobin is

(a)  the colouring matter of leaves of plants

(b)  colouring matter of blood

(c)  a compound present in milk

(d)  a compound transmitting signals to the brain

Answer: (b)

40. Sweat contains

(a)  pure water

(b)  phosphoric acid

(c)  calcium phosphate and water

(d)  water, salt and waste matter

Answer: (d)

41. The main use of salt in the diet is to

(a)  make the taste of food better

(b)  produce in small amount the hydrochloric acid that is needed to digest food

(c)  ease the process of cooking.

(d)  increase the solubility o f food particles in water

Answer: (b)

42. Absolute alcohol is prepared by

(a)  Kolbe’s method

(b)  Vacuum distillation

(c)  Azeotropic distillation

(d)  Fractional distillation

Answer: (d)

43. The chromosome number in a bacterium is

(a)  2

(b)  1

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

44. In a plant cell, DNA is found in

(a)  chloroplast

(b)  mitochondria

(c)  nucleus

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

45. Blood is formed in the human adult by the

(a)  heart

(b)  spleen

(c)  yellow bone marrow

(d)  red bone marrow

Answer: (d)

46. Which of the following sugars are components of cane sugar?

(a)  Glucose and fructose

(b)  Glucose and galactose

(c)  Glucose and mannose

(d)  Glucose and ribose

Answer: (a)

47. Which of the following compounds found in all living organisms are rich in phosphorus?

(a)  Carbohydrates

(b)  Nucleic acids

(c)  Fats

(d)  Proteins

Answer: (b)

48. The largest part of most human diets is made up of

(a)  proteins

(b)  nucleic acids

(c)  carbohydrates

(d)  lipids

Answer: (c)

49. The microscope built by

(a)  Galileo

(b)  Newton

(c)  Jan Swammerdam

(d)  Robert Hooke

Answer: (d)

50. Which of the following propagates through leaf tip?

(a)  Moss

(b)  Marchantia

(c)  Walking ferm

(d)  Sprout leaf plant

Answer: (a)

51. Which of the following is a living fossil?

(a)  Spirogyra

(b)  Cycas

(c)  Saccharomyces

(d)  Moss

Answer: (b)

52. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(a)  Vitamin B2 – Pellagra

(b)  Vitamin B1 – Beri-Beri

(c)  Vitamin B6 – Loss of appetite

(d)  Vitamin B12– Pernicious anaemia

Answer: (b)

53. Hormones are chemically

(a)  steroids only

(b)  proteins only

(c)  biogenetic amines only

(d)  proteins, steroids and bio-genetic amines

Answer: (d)

54. The maximum growth rate occurs in

(a)  Lag phase

(b)  Exponential phase

(c)  Senescent phase

(d)  Stationary phase

Answer: (b)

55. Maize grain is a/an

(a)  Fruit

(b)  Ovule

(c)  Seed

(d)  Embryo

Answer: (c)

56. Guttation occurs through

(a)  Periderm

(b)  Hydathodes

(c)  Stomata

(d)  Lenticels

Answer: (b)

57. Match List-I (Endocrine glands) with List-II (Hormones secreted) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I                      List-II

(a) Gonads.             1. Insulin

(b) pituitary            2. Progesterone

(c) Pancreas            3. Growth hormones

(d) Adrenal             4. Cortisone

(a)  (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – (1)

(b)  (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 4

(c)  (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1

(d)  (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2

Answer: (b)

58. Uricotelism is found in