# State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2015 Class-VIII Held on 2 November, 2014 Question Paper With Answer Key

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2015 Class-VIII

Held on 2 November, 2014

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test (GMAT)

Direction-(Q. 1-10) Each question has four terms. Three terms are alike in some way. One term is different from others. Find out the correct term and write its number on your answer sheet against the proper question number.

1.

(A)  Patna

(B)  Kolkata

(C)  Mumbai

2.

(A)  Tomato

(B)  Brinjal

3.

(A)  November

(B)  June

(C)  January

(D)  April

4.

(A)  C 9

(B)  H 65

(C)  L 144

(D)  J 100

5.

(A)  C E G I

(B)  J L N P

(C)  R U X Z

(D)  F H J L

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Direction-(Q. 11-20) There are four terms in each question. The terms right to the symbol : : have some relationship as the two terms of the left of the symbol : : Out of the four terms one term is missing, which is one of the four alternatives given below. Find out the correct alternative and write its numbers against the corresponding question on your answer sheet.

11. Watch Time : Thermometer : ?

(A)  Humidity

(B)  Temperature

(C)  Current

(D)  Volt

12. Assam : Dispur : Tripura : ?

(A)  Kohima

(B)  Raipur

(C)  Agartala

(D)  Gangtok

13. CKLP : PLKC : : EPLC : ?

(A)  FLPG

(B)  CMOE

(C)  DLRF

(D)  CLPE

14. EJMR : HMPU : : GKOT : ?

(A)  JNRW

(B)  JMRV

(C)  KNSW

(D)  JNTU

15. Sea : Water : : Glacier : ?

(A)  Cave

(B)  Mountain

(C)  Ice

(D)  Cloud

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Direction-(Q. 21-25) These questions are based on number/letter series. One or two term is missing in each series and indicated by question mark (?) find out the missing term out of the four alternatives given below and write its alternative number against the correct question number on your answer sheet.

21. 1, A, 2, B, 4, ….,….., P, 32―

(A)  C 8

(B)  F 10

(C)  E 12

(D)  D 16

22. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

(A)  30

(B)  36

(C)  39

(D)  42

23. 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?

(A)  131

(B)  115

(C)  92

(D)  127

24. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ?, ?

(A)  19, 23

(B)  13, 17

(C)  19, 17

(D)  13, 23

25. B, A, E, C, H, E, K, G, ?, ?

(A)  H, I

(B)  I, N

(C)  F, J

(D)  N, I

Direction-(Q. 26-30) In these questions problem figures are given at the left hand side consisting four figures in a definite series and the place for firth figure is vacant which has been shown by question mark (?). Four answer figure are given against each problem figures. Find out the correct answer figure and write its alternatives number against the proper question number on your answer sheet.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

Direction-(Q. 31-40) In these questions the equation have become wrong due to incorrect order of sings. Choose the correct order of signs from the four alternatives given below, so that the equation become correct. Write its correct alternative number on your answer sheet against the proper question number.

31. 6 = 8 × 2 × 96

(A)  × = +

(B)  × × =

(C)  × = ×

(D)  × + =

32. 9 + 4 × 17 = 19

(A)  = × +

(B)  + = ×

(C)  = + ×

(D)  × = +

33. 50 – 42 = 12 +4

(A)  = + −

(B)  + = −

(C)  + − =

(D)  − + =

34. 7 + 8 = 29 × 27

(A)  + × =

(B)  × = +

(C)  = + ×

(D)  + = ×

35. 21 × 7 + 3 = 1

(A)  ÷ = ×

(B)  × = ÷

(C)  × ÷ =

(D)  = ÷ ×

36. 104 ÷ 54 – 100 = 2

(A)  = − ÷

(B)  ÷ = −

(C)  − = ÷

(D)  − ÷ =

37. 66 × 27 = 13 – 3

(A)  − = ×

(B)  = − ×

(C)  × − =

(D)  = × −

38. 9 + 2 = 25 × 43

(A)  = + ×

(B)  = × +

(C)  × = +

(D)  × + =

39. 24 = 0 × 35 – 35

(A)  × = −

(B)  = − ×

(C)  × − =

(D)  − = ×

40. 55 = 28 – 17 – 10

(A)  − = −

(B)  + − =

(C)  − − =

(D)  − + =

Direction-(Q. 41-50) These question are based on definite letter series. In given question some letter are missing shown by (−). The missing letter are given in proper sequence as one of the four alternatives given under each question. Find out the correct alternative and write its number on the answer sheet against the corresponding question number.

41. ― ER―F―R―FE―K

(A)  F L E L S

(B)  F K E K R

(C)  G K E L P

(D)  C K E K R

42. ― ― H ―C―HL―PH―

(A)  C P K P C M

(B)  D L P K C M

(C)  C P L P C L

(D)  D P L R C L

43. ―GT ― H ― T ― HG ― M

(A)  H M G M T

(B)  I M G R T

(C)  H N G N T

(D)  M T G N H

44. ― ― K ― E ― KX ― P ― X

(A)  F P X R E K

(B)  G E P X R K

(C)  E R W P E K

(D)  E P X P E K

45. ― CP ― D ― P ― DC ― I

(A)  P I C D P

(B)  C I D P I

(C)  D I C I P

(D)  I C P I C

46. ― ― I ― E ― IM―RI ―

(A)  E S M S E M

(B)  E R M R E M

(C)  F R N R E N

(D)  F R M S E M

47. ―ER ― F ― R ― FE ― K

(A)  G K E L R

(B)  F L E K S

(C)  G K E L S

(D)  F K E K R

48. ― ― I ― C ― IV ― P ― V

(A)  C P V P C I

(B)  P C U P C I

(C)  C R V P D I

(D)  I C R P V C

49. ― U ― DO ― S ― OU ― D

(A)  D S O U S

(B)  R O D U S

(C)  O S U D S

(D)  R U D O R

50. ― V ― EP ― R ― PV ― E

(A)  U R V E S

(B)  P R V E R

(C)  P S U E R

(D)  R E U P S

Direction-(Q. 51-55) In these questions numbers are placed in the figure on the basis of same rules one place in vacant which in indicated as (?). Find out the correct alternative to replace the question mark (?) and write the number against the proper question number on  your answer sheet.

51.

(A)  6

(B)  5

(C)  8

(D)  11

52.

(A)  9

(B)  6

(C)  5

(D)  7

53.

(A)  10

(B)  8

(C)  6

(D)  13

54.

(A)  7

(B)  9

(C)  4

(D)  6

55.

(A)  9

(B)  7

(C)  4

(D)  5

Direction-(Q. 56-65) In these questions given below, four words/numbers are written in every question, four alternative are given below against each question. The words/numbers in the question are related to each other in some way, one word/number from among the four alternative goes best with the word/number in the question. Find out the correct alternative and write its number against the proper question number on  your answer sheet.

56. Dispur, Jaipur, Mumbai, Patna-

(B)  Meerut

(C)  Ranchi

(D)  Ajmer

(A)  Sitapur

(C)  Barabanki

58. Jharkhand, Goa, Maharashtra, Rajasthan-

(A)  Agartala

(C)  Varanasi

(D)  Gujarat

59. 36, 49, 64, 25

(A)  144

(B)  8

(C)  27

(D)  120

60. 8, 125, 64, 27

(A)  121

(B)  144

(C)  216

(D)  100

(A)  Tomato

(B)  Brinjal

(D)  Potato

62. 18, 54, 42, 30

(A)  12

(B)  20

(C)  26

(D)  32

63. 114, 57, 19, 95

(A)  127

(B)  133

(C)  153

(D)  139

64. July, March, January, May-

(A)  November

(B)  April

(C)  August

(D)  September

65. 23, 19, 29, 31

(A)  37

(B)  21

(C)  15

(D)  27

Direction-(Q. 66-75) Each of the following questions to has a group of the three words which are related to each other in some way. This relationship can be represented by one of the four figure alternative given in the beginning. Find out the correct figure alternative and write its number against the corresponding question on your answer sheet.

66. Assam, Gujarat, Jharkhand-

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

67. History, Ancient History, Modern History-

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  3

68. Sanskrit, Biology, English-

(A)  3

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  4

69. Cricket, Mahendra Singh Dhonni, Virat Kohli-

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

70. India, Bihar, Patna-

(A)  3

(B)  1

(C)  4

(D)  2

71. School, Student, Collie-

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

72. U. P., Kanpur, Gorakhpur-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  4

73. Pen, Pencil, Eraser-

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  3

74. Plant, Root, Stem-

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  3

(D)  2

75. Wheat, Gram, Rice-

(A)  3

(B)  1

(C)  4

(D)  2

Direction-(Q. 76-80) The following questions are based on the information given below. Read the information carefully and find out the correct answer from the four alternative and write its alternatives number on your answer sheet against the proper question number.

For being graduate Raju opted English, Sanskrit and Biology. Kamal opted Sanskrit, Economics and Civics, Pankaj opted Sanskrit, Economics and Civics. Naveen opted English, Sanskrit and Economics and Sonu opted English, Sanskrit and Civics.

76. Which subject was opted by the most of the students?

(A)  Economics

(B)  English

(C)  Sanskrit

(D)  Civics

77. Which subject was opted by the least of the student?

(A)  Civics

(B)  Biology

(C)  English

(D)  Economics

78. How many student study Civics subject?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  3

79. How many student study English subject?

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

80. Who do not study the subject Economics?

(A)  Raju – Naveen

(B)  Kamal – Sonu

(C)  Sonu – Raju

(D)  Raju – Pankaj

Direction-(Q. 81-85) The following questions are based on the following information given below. Read the information carefully and find out the correct alternative from the four alternatives and write its alternative number on your answer sheet against the proper question number.

In a family there are five members EFGH and I. G is elder than H, but younger than F. F is elder than E and G but younger than I. E is elder than H but younger than G.

81. Who is the youngest one in the family?

(A)  F

(B)  G

(C)  E

(D)  H

82. Who is at the middle order in the family?

(A)  G

(B)  F

(C)  E

(D)  H

83. Who is the oldest one in the family?

(A)  H

(B)  F

(C)  G

(D)  I

84. Who is at the second youngest in the family?

(A)  I

(B)  E

(C)  G

(D)  H

85. Who is the second eldest in the family?

(A)  H

(B)  I

(C)  F

(D)  G

86. If in any code language ILPT is written as MPTX. How FJNS will be written in the same code language?

(A)  KMRW

(B)  JMSV

(C)  KNSU

(D)  JNRW

87. If in any code language NRUK is written as LPSI. How JOTV will be written in the same code language?

(A)  HMRT

(B)  IMST

(C)  HNRV

(D)  INSU

88. If A is the brother of the B’s son. How A is related with B?

(A)  Son

(B)  Brother

(C)  Cousine

(D)  Grandson

89. In a joint family an old businessman has four sons. Each son has two sons and two daughters. The businessman and his daughter in laws are also in the family. How many members are there in the family?

(A)  20

(B)  26

(C)  25

(D)  17

90. Sonu walked 30 meter towards east took a right turn and walked 20 meter again took right turn and walked 30 meter. How far was he from the starting point?

(A)  30 mts

(B)  20 mts

(C)  50 mts

(D)  40 mts

Part-II

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Science

91. The filament of the bulb is made of-

(A)  Cromium

(B)  Silver

(C)  Tungsten

(D)  Nickel

92. An object oscillate 500 times in 10 second, its frequency will be-

(A)  750 oscillation per second

(B)  80 oscillation per second

(C)  50 oscillation per second

(D)  None of these

93. The natural satellite of earth is-

(A)  Aryabhatt

(B)  Rohini

(C)  Moon

(D)  None of these

94. The speed of the sound is maximum in-

(A)  Gas

(B)  Liquid

(C)  Vacuum

(D)  Solid

95. The motion of pendulum of wall clock is-

(A)  Linear motion

(B)  Circular motion

(C)  Rotatory motion

(D)  Periodic motion

96. The kinetic energy of freely falling body is-

(A)  remain constant

(B)  decreases

(C)  increases

(D)  First decreases then increases

97. A car is heading towards South-East. The force of friction acting on the car is towards-

(A)  South-East

(B)  South-West

(C)  North-East

(D)  North-West

98. Internet Explorer is a-

(A)  Website

(B)  I.S.P.

(C)  Browser

(D)  Hardware

99. The angle between incident and reflected ray of a plane mirror of 80°. The angle of incidence will be-

(A)  80°

(B)  100°

(C)  40°

(D)  50°

100. Scissor is the lever of-

(A)  First type

(B)  Second type

(C)  Third type

(D)  Fourth type

101. The mirror used in Solar Cooker is-

(A)  Plane

(B)  Convex

(C)  Concave

(D)  None of these

102. If the potential difference of any conductor is 12 Volt and 2 ampere current is flowing through it, the resistance of the conductor will be-

(A)  6 Ohm

(B)  24 Ohm

(C)  10 Ohm

(D)  14 Ohm

103. Which one is the non-magnetic substance?

(A)  Nickel

(B)  Iron

(C)  Cobalt

(D)  Gold

104. Boxite is the ore of which metal?

(A)  Sodium

(B)  Aluminium

(C)  Iron

(D)  Copper

105. Which metal has not the property of ductility?

(A)  Zinc

(B)  Iron

(C)  Aluminium

(D)  Silver

106. The crystalline allotrope of carbon is-

(A)  Wood coal

(B)  Coke

(C)  Gold

(D)  Diamond

107. Dry ice is-

(A)  Solid carbon monooxide

(B)  Solid Oxygen

(C)  Solid water

(D)  Solid carbon dioxide

108. Vitamin soluble in water is-

(A)  Vitamin A

(B)  Vitamin B

(C)  Vitamin E

(D)  Vitamin D

109. The Chemical name of calcium hydroxide is-

(A)  CaOH

(B)  Ca2OH

(C)  Ca(OH)3

(D)  Ca(OH)2

110. Which gas is not present in atmosphere?

(A)  Nitrogen

(B)  Helium

(C)  Chlorine

(D)  Argon

111. The main factor of rusting is-

(A)  Hydrogen

(B)  Nitrogen

(C)  Oxygen

(D)  Neon

112. The valency of Phosphorus in P2O5 is-

(A)  3

(B)  5

(C)  2

(D)  7

113. The organic manure is-

(A)  Urea

(B)  Dung manure

(C)  Potassium Nitrate

(D)  Sodium Nitrate

114. Which helps in blood clotting?

(A)  Red blood corpuscles

(B)  White blood corpuscles

(C)  Platelets

(D)  None of these

115. Goitre is caused due to deficiency of-

(A)  Iodine

(B)  Calcium

(C)  Phosphorus

(D)  Chlorine

116. Pseudopodia is found in-

(A)  Ameoba

(B)  Hydra

(C)  Uglena

(D)  Paramecium

117. H.I.V. is related with-

(A)  Maleria

(B)  Hepitietis

(C)  T.B.

(D)  Aids

118. The medicine chlorelin is made by-

(A)  Algae

(B)  Bacteria

(C)  Fungus

(D)  None of these

119. The packet of milk is preserved by-

(A)  Chemical

(B)  Freezing

(C)  Pasteurisation

(D)  Fermentation

120. Sphygmomanometer measure-

(A)  Blood pressure

(B)  Pulse

(C)  Rate of Heart beat

(D)  None of these

121. On Kelvin Scale, 0°C is equal to-

(A)  273 K

(B)  0 K

(C)  100 K

(D)  −273 K

122. The main cause of depletion of ozone layer is the excessive use of-

(A)  CO2

(B)  CFCs

(C)  NO2

(D)  SO2

1. In which form, food is stored in leaves?

(A)  Protein

(B)  Fat

(C)  Mineral

(D)  Starch

124. Which acid is used in battery?

(A)  Sulphuric acid

(B)  Nitric acid

(C)  Hydrochloric acid

(D)  Acetic acid

125. The fundamental particles present in nucleus of an atom is-

(A)  Proton – Neutron

(B)  Proton – Electron

(C)  Neutron – Electron

(D)  Proton – Neutron – Electron

Social Science

126. By Whom ‘Chipko Andolan (Movement) was started?

(A)  Vinoba Bhave

(B)  Rajaram Mohan Rai

(C)  Sunder Lal Bahuguna

127. Where Golden Temple is situated?

(A)  Patna

(B)  Mathura

(C)  Kashi

(D)  Amritsar

128. Who is the author of ‘The Discovery of India’?

(A)  Sardar Patel

(C)  Mahatma Gandhi

(D)  Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

129. Among the following which one is incorrect pair?

(A)  Frontier Gandhi-Maulana Abul Kalam

(B)  Deshbandhu – C.R.Das

(C)  Ironman – Sardar Patel

(D)  Netaji – Subash Chandra Bose

130. Of which state Tipu Sultan was the ruler?

(A)  Mysore

(D)  Ahmednagar

131. Who is not associated with Journalism?

(A)  Arun Shauri

(B)  Subhasni Ali

(C)  Khushwant Singh

132. Who is the founder of ‘Din-Illahi’?

(A)  Mahmood Gajanavi

(B)  Humayun

(C)  Akbar

(D)  Shershah Suri

133. At which place Shivaji was crowned?

(A)  Raigarh

(B)  Pratapgarh

(C)  Satara

(D)  Pune

134. Who is the writer of Abhigyan-Shakuntalam?

(A)  Surdas

(B)  Keshavdas

(C)  Tulsidas

(D)  Kalidas

135. In which language ‘Ramayana’ was written?

(A)  Sanskrit

(B)  Prakrit

(D)  Pali

136. By whom ‘Saka’ era was started?

(A)  Ashoka

(B)  Chandragupta Second

(C)  Kanishka

(D)  Harshbardhan

137. From which commodity among the following India earns maximum foreign exchange?

(A)  Sugar

(B)  Tea

(C)  Chemical

(D)  Jute

138. Where is the headquarter of Oil and Natural Gas Commission?

(A)  Digboi

(B)  Gwalior

(D)  Mumbai

139. Where is Satellite launching centre in India is located?

(A)  Shri Harikota

(B)  Cuttak

(C)  Bangalore

(D)  Thumba

140. What is the instrument to record the intensity of Earthquake?

(A)  Physiograph

(B)  Seismograph

(C)  Cardiograph

(D)  Barograph

141. Which among the following is the city of garden?

(A)  Bangalore

(B)  Mysore

(C)  Udaipur

(D)  Jaipur

142. Among the following what is the moon?

(A)  Comet

(B)  Star

(C)  Planet

(D)  Satellite

143. To which among the following Sahara is associated?

(A)  River

(B)  Desert

(C)  Valley

(D)  Mountain

144. Which of the following is a common capital city of two states?

(A)  Delhi

(B)  Chandigarh

(C)  Jammu

(D)  Bangalore

145. How many days are there in a leap-year?

(A)  365 days

(B)  366 days

(C)  386 days

(D)  327.3 days

146. Which state in India is under Article 370 of the Constitution?

(A)  Sikkim

(B)  Assam

(C)  Punjab

(D)  Jammu and Kashmir

147. Up to what age a judge of Supreme Court of India can serve?

(A)  65 years

(B)  58 years

(C)  62 years

(D)  60 years

148. When the Independence day of Pakistan is celebrated?

(A)  15 August

(B)  14 August

(C)  04 July

(D)  16 August

149. Who was the first President of free India?

(A)  Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

(B)  V. V. Giri

(D)  Fakharuddin Ali Ahmed

150. The Governor of any state in India can be appointed when he is-

(A)  More than 35 years

(B)  More than 40 years

(C)  More than 60 years

(D)  More than 65 years

151. Prime Minister of India is appointed by-

(A)  Lok Sabha

(B)  Rajya Sabha

(C)  Chief Justice of India

(D)  President of India

152. Our Fundamental rights are-

(A)  06

(B)  07

(C)  08

(D)  10

153. Who’s thought is known as Pancsheal?

(A)  A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(B)  Jawahar Lal Nehru

(C)  Indira Gandhi

(D)  B. R. Ambedkar

154. Which President of India is called the ‘Missileman’?

(B)  Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(C)  Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

155. How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?

(A)  07

(B)  08

(C)  10

(D)  12

156. Who signs on Fifty rupee note?

(A)  Governor Reserve Bank of India

(B)  Prime Minister

(C)  Finance Minister

(D)  President

157. Which of the following pair is not matched?

(A)  Sales Tax – State Government

(B)  Income Tax – State Government

(C)  Excise Duty – Central Government

(D)  Octroi – Municipal Corporation

158. Who is the author of ‘Arthashashtra’?

(A)  Kalidas

(B)  Valmiki

(C)  Vedvyas

(D)  Kautilya

159. When was United National Organization was established?

(A)  24 October, 1945 A.D.

(B)  05 September, 1946 A.D.

(C)  10 December, 1950 A.D.

(D)  05 November, 1948 A.D.

160. The permanent office of SAARC is at-

(A)  Kathmandu

(B)  New Delhi

(C)  Dhaka

(D)  Colombo

Mathematics

161. The value of (23)2 will be-

(A)  16

(B)  64

(C)  32

(D)  48

162. The value of (−5) × (−25) will be-

(A)  −125

(B)  −625

(C)  +125

(D)  +225

163. If the 3/8 and 2/7 of a number is 370, then the number will be-

(A)  520

(B)  560

(C)  540

(D)  500

164. If perimeter of a square is (4a + 8), then area of square will be-

(A)  (a + 2) (a + 2)

(B)  (a + 2) (a – 2)

(C)  (2a + 2) (a + 2)

(D)  (4a + 8) (4a + 8)

165. The interior angle of a triangle are 3x0, (2x + 20)° and (5x – 40)° respectively, then the triangle will be-

(A)  Rightangle triangle

(B)  Equilateral triangle

(C)  Isosceles triangle

(D)  Scelene triangle

166. Number of equivalent rational number of any rational number will be-

(A)  One

(B)  Two

(C)  Ten

(D)  Infinite

167. Which of the following is the smallest fraction?

(A)  5/12

(B)  2/3

(C)  5/6

(D)  3/4

168. The highest common factor (H.C.F.) of 15 and 25 is 5. The least common multiple (L.C.M.) of these will be-

(A)  75

(B)  375

(C)  150

(D)  25

169. The natural number which have only one factor, will be-

(A)  7

(B)  11

(C)  17

(D)  1

170. If x1 – 1 is divided by x – 1, then dividend will be-

(A)  1/x – 1

(B)  − 1/x – 1

(C)  −(1/x+1)

(D)  −1/x

171. The length of two adjacent side of a rectangle are 2x and y respectively. The perimeter of a rectangle will be-

(A)  2xy

(B)  2(2x + y)

(C)  4xy

(D)  2(x + 2y)

172. A bus travelled ‘t’ hours at the speed of 40 km/h. Distance travelled by bus will be-

(A)  t/40 km

(B)  40/t km

(C)  40t km

(D)  40 km

173. The difference of complementary angle is 30°, then each angle will be-

(A)  150°, 30°

(B)  60°, 30°

(C)  70°, 20°

(D)  140°, 40°

174. The length of diagonals of rhombus are 15 cm and 20 cm. Area of rhombus will be-

(A)  200 sq. cm

(B)  250 sq. cm

(C)  150 sq. cm

(D)  130 sq. cm

175. If √3n = 81, then the value of n will be-

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  6

(D)  8

176. The ratio of the income of x and y is 2 : 3. If the x’s income is Rs 15,000, then y’s income will be-

(A)  Rs 12,500

(B)  Rs 22,500

(C)  Rs 22,000

(D)  Rs 7,500

177. By selling a washing machine for Rs 11,400, a dealer losses 5%. For how much should he sell this machine to gain 5% ?

(A)  Rs 12,400

(B)  Rs 12,600

(C)  Rs 12,800

(D)  Rs 12,000

178. Each side of a cubical tank is 1 metre. The capacity of tank will be-

(A)  10 litre

(B)  100 litre

(C)  1000 litre

(D)  10,000 litre

179. A train 450 metre long crosses an electric pole in speed of train in km/H will be-

(A)  70 km/H

(B)  20 km/H

(C)  75 km/H

(D)  72 km/H

180. The difference of compound interest and simple interest for Rs 5000 at the rate 8% per annum for two years will be-

(A)  Rs 80

(B)  Rs 32

(C)  Rs 30

(D)  Rs 83