State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2018 Class-VIII Held on 5 November, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2018 Class-VIII

Held on 5 November, 2017

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test (GMAT)

Directions-(Q. 1-10) In each of the following questions, a series of numbers is given which follow certain rules. One of the number is missing. Find out the number from the alternatives given below and mark it on  your answer-sheet as directed.

1. 2 – 0 – 4 – 0 – 16 – 0 ……

(A)  32

(B)  64

(C)  168

(D)  256

Answer: (D)

2. 2, 6, 12, 20, …….., 42, 56, 72, 90

(A)  28

(B)  30

(C)  35

(D)  39

Answer: (B)

3. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, ……

(A)  45

(B)  50

(C)  65

(D)  63

Answer: (C)

4. 6, 9, 15, 27, …….99

(A)  77

(B)  51

(C)  67

(D)  81

Answer: (B)

5. 121, 112, ……, 97, 91, 86

(A)  104

(B)  102

(C)  107

(D)  105

Answer: (A)

6. 8, 4, 12, 6, 18, ……… 27

(A)  22

(B)  15

(C)  9

(D)  11

Answer: (C)

7. 4, 7, 12, …….., 28, 39

(A)  21

(B)  19

(C)  23

(D)  25

Answer: (B)

8. b, e, d, f, ?, h, j, ?, l

(A)  i. m

(B)  m, i

(C)  I, n

(D)  j, m

Answer: (A)

9. U, Q, ?, L

(A)  I

(B)  K

(C)  M

(D)  N

Answer: (D)

10. Y, S, U, Q, Q, ?, ?

(A)  O, M

(B)  N, J

(C)  J, R

(D)  M, L

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. 11-20) Study the pattern of numbers in the following questions and select the missing numbers in place of question mark (?). Mark the correct alternative on your answer-sheet as directed.

11. 

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  5

Answer: (C)

12. 

(A)  18

(B)  26

(C)  24

(D)  15

Answer: (B)

13. 

(A)  38

(B)  37

(C)  36

(D)  35

Answer: (A)

14. 

(A)  7

(B)  12

(C)  8

(D)  6

Answer: (D)

15. 

(A)  7

(B)  12

(C)  9

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

16. 

(A)  7

(B)  11

(C)  12

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

17. 

(A)  9

(B)  11

(C)  6

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

18. 

(A)  88

(B)  64

(C)  72

(D)  68

Answer: (B)

19. 

(A)  6

(B)  5

(C)  7

(D)  8

Answer: (A)

20. 

(A)  39

(B)  37

(C)  32

(D)  44

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 21-25) Study the following figure and answer the questions given below.

21. How many doctors are neither artists nor players?

(A)  17

(B)  22

(C)  30

(D)  25

Answer: (A)

22. How many doctors are both players and artists?

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  8

(D)  17

Answer: (B)

23. How many artists are players?

(A)  17

(B)  25

(C)  30

(D)  22

Answer: (D)

24. How many players are neither artists nor doctors?

(A)  17

(B)  30

(C)  25

(D)  22

Answer: (C)

25. How many artists are neither players nor doctors?

(A)  25

(B)  30

(C)  8

(D)  22

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. 26-40) In each of the following questions, find the figure from the answer-set (i.e., 1, 2, 3, 4) which will complete the figure given in the problem set (i.e., X)

26. 

Answer: (B)

27. 

Answer: (A)

28. 

Answer: (C)

29. 

Answer: (C)

30. 

Answer: (C)

31. 

Answer: (D)

32. 

Answer: (D)

33. 

Answer: (B)

34. 

Answer: (A)

35. 

Answer: (B)

36. 

Answer: (B)

37. 

Answer: (C)

38. 

Answer: (C)

39. 

Answer: (C)

40. 

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 41-50) In each of the following questions four groups of letters are given. Three of them are alike in some manner, while one is different. Find the odd-man-out and mark it on your answer-sheet directed.

41.

(A)  QPO

(B)  DCA

(C)  KJI

(D)  NML

Answer: (B)

42.

(A)  JAK

(B)  KBL

(C)  LCM

(D)  NDM

Answer: (D)

43.

(A)  ELFA

(B)  GLHA

(C)  ILJA

(D)  MLNA

Answer: (D)

44.

(A)  KPD

(B)  LOE

(C)  MQF

(D)  NMG

Answer: (B)

45.

(A)  AXUP

(B)  ONKN

(C)  GFKD

(D)  VSPM

Answer: (B)

46.

(A)  RAB

(B)  SCD

(C)  TEF

(D)  UHI

Answer: (B)

47.

(A)  ACEG

(B)  MOQS

(C)  GHJL

(D)  RTUX

Answer: (C)

48.

(A)  CYWZ

(B)  EYYZ

(C)  GYBZ

(D)  IYCZ

Answer: (B)

49.

(A)  MRNS

(B)  ORPS

(C)  QRRS

(D)  SYTZ

Answer: (C)

50.

(A)  P3C

(B)  R5F

(C)  T8I

(D)  V12L

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 51-60) In each of the following questions there is a certain relation between two numbers given on the left side of ::, Choose the correct alternative in place of ‘?’ So that the same relationship is maintained on the right side of ::. Mark the correct alternative on your answer-sheet as directed.

51. 3 : 11 :: 7 : ?

(A)  25

(B)  51

(C)  48

(D)  28

Answer: (B)

52. 1 : 1 :: 25 : ?

(A)  26

(B)  125

(C)  240

(D)  625

Answer: (D)

53. 49 : 81 :: 100 : ?

(A)  64

(B)  144

(C)  169

(D)  188

Answer: (B)

54. 121 : 12 :: 25 : ?

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  6

(D)  7

Answer: (C)

55. 18 : 30 :: 36 : ?

(A)  33

(B)  45

(C)  67

(D)  66

Answer: (D)

56. 25 : 125 :: 36 : ?

(A)  180

(B)  206

(C)  216

(D)  196

Answer: (C)

57. 17 : 52 :: 1 : ?

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  5

(D)  51

Answer: (B)

58. 9 : 80 :: 100 : ?

(A)  901

(B)  1009

(C)  9889

(D)  9999

Answer: (D)

59. 25 : 37 :: 49 : ?

(A)  65

(B)  56

(C)  60

(D)  41

Answer: (A)

60. 5 : 36 :: 6 : ?

(A)  48

(B)  49

(C)  50

(D)  56

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 61-70) In the given questions below, A dice has been shown in more than one form. One which 1 to 6 numbers or A to F alphabets are printed on its sides. Study the different forms carefully in the given questions and answer them accordingly.

61. One the dice given below, Number 5 is at the bottom. Which number will appear on its upper surface?

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

62. Below two positions of dice are shown. If there is ‘B’ in the bottom, then which alphabet will be on the top?

(A)  D

(B)  B

(C)  E

(D)  F

Answer: (C)

63. Two positions of a dice with its surfaces are shown below. When the surface ‘D’ touch the bottom, what surface will be on top?

(A)  D

(B)  A

(C)  E

(D)  F

Answer: (B)

64. Two positions of a dice are shown. When ‘E’ is at the top which alphabet will be at bottom?

(A)  D

(B)  C

(C)  E

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

65. On the dice given below, mention the number which appears on the opposite side of number 4?

(A)  1

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  5

Answer: (A)

66. From the positions of a dice which are shown below, which letter will be on the face opposite to face with ‘1’?

(A)  5

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  6

Answer: (B)

67. Below four positions of a Dice is shown. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to face with symbol ‘C’?

(A)  F

(B)  E

(C)  B

(D)  D

Answer: (A)

68. Two positions of dice are shown below. What number will appear on the face opposite to the face with ‘5’?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

69. On the dice given below, mention the number which appears on the opposite side of number 2?

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  5

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

70. From the positions of a dice given below. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to face with ‘1’?

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  5

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. 71-80) In each of the following questions, four words are given. Three of them are alike in some manner, while one is different. Find the odd-man-out and mark it on your answer-

71.

(A)  India

(B)  Asia

(C)  Antarctica

(D)  Australia

Answer: (B)

72.

(A)  Hard disk

(B)  RAM

(C)  Monitor

(D)  Windows XP

Answer: (D)

73.

(A)  Tyre

(B)  Speed

(C)  Clutch

(D)  Brake

Answer: (B)

74.

(A)  Cricket

(B)  Volleyball

(C)  Billiards

(D)  Fencing

Answer: (D)

75.

(A)  Teacher

(B)  Student

(C)  Principal

(D)  Lecturer

Answer: (B)

76.

(A)  Lion

(B)  Fox

(C)  Deer

(D)  Tiger

Answer: (C)

77.

(A)  Banana

(B)  Apple

(C)  Papaya

(D)  Mango

Answer: (D)

78.

(A)  Run

(B)  Jump

(C)  Hear

(D)  Walk

Answer: (C)

79.

(A)  Nail

(B)  Pin

(C)  Hammer

(D)  Screw

Answer: (A)

80.

(A)  Butterfly

(B)  Cockroach

(C)  Housefly

(D)  Spider

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 81-90) Study the following questions and answer accordingly.

81. If – means ×, × means +, + means ÷ and ÷ means -, then 40 × 12 + 3 – 6 ÷ 60 = ?

(A)  4

(B)  8

(C)  10

(D)  32

Answer: (A)

82. If + means ÷, − means ×, ÷ means + and × means −, then 36 + 12 – 3 ÷ 5 × 2 = ?

(A)  4

(B)  12

(C)  16

(D)  24

Answer: (B)

83. If + means ÷, × means −, ÷ means × and – means +, then 8 + 6 × 4 ÷ 3 – 4 = ?

(A)  40/5

(B)  20/3

(C)  30/4

(D)  15/4

Answer: (B)

84. If × means ÷, − means ×, ÷ means + and + means −, then (3 – 15 ÷ 19) × 8 + 6 = ?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  8

(D)  7

Answer: (B)

85. If + means ×, ÷ means −, × means ÷ and – means +, then 4 + 11 ÷ 5 – 55 = ?

(A)  72

(B)  84

(C)  94

(D)  67

Answer: (C)

86. If ‘p’ means ‘−’, ‘q’ means ‘+’, ‘r’ means ‘÷’ and ‘s’ means ‘×’, then 16 p 4 q 5 s 8 r 2 = ?

(A)  −8

(B)  32

(C)  20

(D)  12

Answer: (B)

87. If ‘P’ means ‘÷’, ‘Q’ means ‘−’, ‘R’ means ‘×’ and ‘T’ means ‘+’, then

24T16Q32P8R4

(A)  4

(B)  32

(C)  40

(D)  24

Answer: (D)

88. If ‘M’ means ‘÷’, ‘R’ means ‘+’, ‘T’ means ‘−’ and ‘K’ means ‘×’, then

20R16K5M10T8 = ?

(A)  20

(B)  36

(C)  12

(D)  28

Answer: (A)

89. If ‘Q’ means ‘−’, ‘B’ means ‘×’, ‘A’ means ‘÷’ and ‘F’ means ‘+’, then

12B20A4Q10F30 = ?

(A)  60

(B)  70

(C)  80

(D)  90

Answer: (C)

90. If 1 = 1, 2 = 4, 3 = 10 and 4 = 22, then 5 = ?

(A)  46

(B)  32

(C)  34

(D)  42

Answer: (D)

Part-II

Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

Physics

1. A 9 kg mass and a 4 k mass have same kinetic energies. The ratio of their linear momentum is :

(A)  3 : 2

(B)  2 : 3

(C)  9 : 4

(D)  4 : 9

Answer: (A)

2. Find the frequency and wavelength of a wave whose time-period is 0.05 s and speed is 200 m/s.

(A)  5 Hz, 40 m

(B)  2 Hz. 400 m

(C)  20 Hz, 10 m

(D)  20 Hz, 4000 m

Answer: (C)

3. Supersonic planes fly with speed-

(A)  Less than the speed of sound

(B)  Equal to the speed of sound

(C)  Greater than the speed of sound

(D)  Double the speed of sound

Answer: (C)

4. A man walks 8 m towards East and then 6 m towards North. His magnitude of displacement is-

(A)  10 m

(B)  14 m

(C)  2 m

(D)  zero

Answer: (A)

5. The light from sun takes 500 s to reach the earth. Taking speed of light to be 3 × 108 m/s, the sun-earth distance is-

(A)  100 million km

(B)  100 million km

(C)  200 million km

(D)  300 million km

Answer: (B)

6. Which of the following does not exist?

(A)  Single charge

(B)  Single magnetic pole

(C)  Bar magnet

(D)  Electric dipole

Answer: (B)

7. 100 nano second is-

(A)  100 s

(B)  109 s

(C)  1011 s

(D)  107 s

Answer: (D)

8. Ultrasonic waves are those waves-

(A)  which a man can hear

(B)  which a man cannot hear

(C)  which have velocity greater than the velocity of sound

(D)  which have very high intensity

Answer: (C)

9. The force of gravitation between two spheres is x, when the distance between their centres is y . If the two are immersed in water, gravitational force will be-

(A)  x/1.5           

(B)  1.5 x

(C)  x

(D)  Zero

Answer: (C)

10. At what common temperature would a piece of wood and a piece of iron appear to be equally hot or cold, when touched?

(A)  0°C

(B)  100°C

(C)  273°C

(D)  At body temperature

Answer: (D)

11. Wavelength of light is maximum for which colour?

(A)  Violet

(B)  Red

(C)  orange

(D)  Yellow

Answer: (B)

Chemistry

12. Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment led to the conclusion that-

(A)  Mass and energy are related

(B)  Mass and the positive charge of an atom are concentrated in the nucleus

(C)  Neutrons are present in the nucleus

(D)  Atoms are electrically neutral

Answer: (B)

13. In the following reaction Phosphorous will be-

P4 + 3KOH + 3H2O → 3KH2PO2 + PH3

(A)  Only oxidized

(B)  Only reduced

(C)  Oxidized as well as reduced

(D)  Neither oxidized nor reduced

Answer: (C)

14. Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

(A)  Benzene

(B)  Ethane

(C)  Neopentane

(D)  All of these

Answer: (B)

15. NiO adopts NaCl structure. The coordination number of the Ni2+ ion is-

(A)  Six

(B)  Four

(C)  Two

(D)  One

Answer: (A)

16. Matte contains (in copper metallurgy)-

(A)  Cu2S, FeS and Silica

(B)  Cu2S, FeO and Silica

(C)  Cu2S, CuO and Silica

(D)  Cu2S, Cu2O and Silica

Answer: (A)

17. Glycerol can be purified by-

(A)  Steam distillation

(B)  Simple distillation

(C)  Vacuum distillation

(D)  Extraction with a solvent

Answer: (A)

18. Assertion-Reason Questions-

(a) If the assertion as well as reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If the assertion as well as reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) If the assertion is correct but reason is not

(d) If the reason is correct but assertion is not

Assertion : HF has low volatility.

Reason : There is a extensive hydrogen bonding in HF.

Choose the appropriate answer-

(A)  (a)

(B)  (b)

(C)  (c)

(D)  (d)

Answer: (A)

19. Which of the following properties of carbon is mainly responsible for its ability to form a large number of compounds?

(A)  Quadri-covalency

(B)  Ability to form multiple bonds

(C)  Ability to form ring compounds

(D)  Strong catenation property

Answer: (D)

20. The pH of 1010 M H2SO4 will be almost-

(A)  4

(B)  7

(C)  6

(D)  10

Answer: (D)

21. The metal atoms presents in the vitamin B12 and chlorophyll respectively are-

(A)  Fe and Co

(B)  Fe and Mg

(C)  Co and Mg

(D)  Fe and Zn

Answer: (C)

22. The first law of thermodynamics introduces the concepts of-

(A)  Heat (q)

(B)  Energy and equivalence of heat and work

(C)  Work

(D)  Energy and equivalence of temperature and work

Answer: (D)

Biology

23. Which of the following groups of plants are known as ‘Amphibians’ in the Plant Kingdom.

(A)  Bryophytes

(B)  Pteridophytes

(C)  Algae

(D)  Planktons

Answer: (A)

24. Inside the uterus, the embryo is protected by the-

(A)  umbilical cord

(B)  fallopian tube

(C)  amniotic sac

(D)  placenta

Answer: (C)

25. Habitat destruction is usually the main cause for the loss of-

(A)  Community

(B)  Species

(C)  Ecosystem

(D)  Biodiversity

Answer: (D)

26. Group of organisms capable of interbreeding are known as-

(A)  Genus

(B)  Species

(C)  Community

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

27. Which of the following pairs of vegetables represent the correct homologous structure.

(A)  Sweet Potato and Potato

(B)  Potato and Tomato

(C)  Radish and Carrot

(D)  Carrot and Potato

Answer: (C)

28. Our body produces specialized chemicals to fight against infection and diseases. They are known as-

(A)  Antibiotics

(B)  Antigens

(C)  Antibodies

(D)  Enzyme

Answer: (C)

29. Animals which gives birth to young ones which are similar to their parents are known as

(A)  Viviparous

(B)  Oviparous

(C)  Fissiparous

(D)  Domesticus

Answer: (A)

30. Which of the following is regarded as a link between bacteria and viruses?

(A)  Actinomycetes

(B)  Mycoplasma

(C)  Vibrio

(D)  Lysosomes

Answer: (B)

31. In the agriculture of paddy, one of the following is used as bio-fertilizer.

(A)  Green Algae

(B)  Brown Algae

(C)  Cyanobacteria

(D)  Earthworm

Answer: (A)

32. The plants, animals, microbes, soil, climate, water in place collectively refers to-

(A)  Biological Kingdom

(B)  Forest

(C)  Ecosystem

(D)  Biosphere

Answer: (C)

33. Plants growing on sand are known as-

(A)  Lithophytes

(B)  Xerophytes

(C)  Chasmophytes

(D)  Psamophytes

Answer: (D)

34. Which of the vitamin deficiency causes the cracking of lips in human-

(A)  Vitamin A

(B)  Vitamin K

(C)  Vitamin C

(D)  Vitamin B

Answer: (D)

35. The ability of organism to develop whole body from its fragment is known as-

(A)  Binary fission

(B)  Budding

(C)  Regeneration

(D)  Grafting

Answer: (C)

History

36. Vasco da Gama reached Calicut, India on-

(A)  1398

(B)  1495

(C)  1496

(D)  1498

Answer: (D)

37. Diu was the colony of the-

(A)  Portuguese

(B)  English

(C)  Dutch

(D)  French

Answer: (A)

38. In 1612 ………. established a trading post in Gujarat.

(A)  British

(B)  French

(C)  Spainish

(D)  Dutch

Answer: (A)

39. In 1661 the company obtained …. from Charles II.

(A)  Bombay

(B)  Madras

(C)  Kanpur

(D)  Calcutta

Answer: (A)

40. Warren Hastings was appointed as the Governor of …. in 1772.

(A)  Bengal

(B)  Madras

(C)  Bombay

(D)  Delhi

Answer: (A)

41. Regulating Act was in the year of-

(A)  1573

(B)  1673

(C)  1773

(D)  1873

Answer: (C)

42. Hyder Ali was the ruler of-

(A)  Hyderabad

(B)  Mysore

(C)  Cochi

(D)  Bengal

Answer: (B)

43. The Treaty of Mangalore was in the year-

(A)  1484

(B)  1584

(C)  1684

(D)  1784

Answer: (D)

44. Who among the following leaders joined Gandhiji in the Champaran Satyagraha held on April 10, 1917?

(A)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(B)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(C)  Rajendra Prasad

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

45. In which year, first census was conducted in India?

(A)  1884

(B)  1872

(C)  1881

(D)  1856

Answer: (B)

46. What was elected the President of Indian National Congress in the Surat Session 1907 famous for Surat Split?

(A)  Dr. Rash Bihari Ghosh

(B)  Lala Lajpat Rai

(C)  Dadabhai Naoroji

(D)  Pherozeshah Mehta

Answer: (A)

47. Who among the following was the first Indian woman president to chair the Indian National Congress at Kanpur session of 1925?

(A)  Sarojini Naidu

(B)  Annie Besant

(C)  Nellie Sengupta

(D)  Indira Gandhi

Answer: (A)

Geography

48. Which of the following is not a factor of soil formation?

(A)  Climate

(B)  Organic matter

(C)  Time

(D)  Soil Texture

Answer: (C)

49. Which of the following is also called ‘Black Gold’?

(A)  Diamond

(B)  Petroleum

(C)  Coal

(D)  Graphite

Answer: (B)

50. The deposit of which of the following is found in Dead Sea?

(A)  Gypsum

(B)  Limestone

(C)  Potash

(D)  Bromine

Answer: (B)

51. Kaziranga National Park is located in-

(A)  Kashmir

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Assam

(D)  Manipur

Answer: (C)

52. Terrace farming is practised in-

(A)  Plain area

(B)  Desert area

(C)  Hilly area

(D)  Coastal area

Answer: (C)

53. Which of the following is known as Sunrise industry?

(A)  Iron and Steel

(B)  Cotton Textile

(C)  Information Technology

(D)  Sugar Industry

Answer: (C)

54. Which country is a leading producer of copper in the world?

(A)  Bolivia

(B)  Chile

(C)  Ghana

(D)  Zimbabwe

Answer: (B)

55. The population pyramid represents-

(A)  Age Composition of population

(B)  Sex Composition of population

(C)  (A) and (B) Both

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

56. Salal hydroelectric Project is located in-

(A)  Karnataka

(B)  Uttarakhand

(C)  Assam

(D)  Jammu and Kashmir

Answer: (D)

57. The Canal joining Lake Superior and Lake Huron is-

(A)  Panama Canal

(B)  Soo Canal

(C)  Suez Canal

(D)  Kiel Canal

Answer: (B)

58. Which of the following is a plantation crop?

(A)  Rice

(B)  Maize

(C)  Wheat

(D)  Tea

Answer: (D)

Civics

59. Who is the Constitutional Head of the State Government-

(A)  President

(B)  Prime Minister

(C)  Governor

(D)  Speaker of Legislative Assembly

Answer: (C)

60. The Indian Constitutional mandates that India is-

(A)  Secular

(B)  Socialist

(C)  Democratic

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

61. Adult suffrage is the basis of-

(A)  Democracy

(B)  Dictatorship

(C)  Autocracy

(D)  Communism

Answer: (A)

62. The rights guaranteed by the Constitution are called-

(A)  Government Rights

(B)  Optional Rights

(C)  Economic Rights

(D)  Fundamental Rights

Answer: (D)

63. Who convenes the joint session of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?

(A)  The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B)  The Chairman of Rajay Sabha

(C)  President

(D)  The Minister of Parliamentary affairs

Answer: (C)

64. By which of the following words, democracy is derived-

(A)  Status

(B)  Polis

(C)  Demos and Kratos

(D)  Civitas

Answer: (C)

65. Writs can be issued by-

(A)  The Supreme Court only

(B)  The High Court only

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  All the courts

Answer: (C)

66. Which of the following is not an organ of Government-

(A)  Legislature

(B)  Executive

(C)  Judiciary

(D)  Election Commission of India

Answer: (D)

67. Which of the following is not a tool of direct democracy-

(A)  Recall

(B)  Initiation

(C)  Referendum

(D)  Impeachment

Answer: (D)

68. A set of fundamental rules according to which the country functions, is called-

(A)  A Law

(B)  An Amendment

(C)  A Constitution

(D)  A Preamble

Answer: (C)

69. A Judge of the Supreme Court of India retires on a attaining the age of-

(A)  60 years

(B)  62 years

(C)  65 years

(D)  70 years

Answer: (C)

70. A Unitary Government has-

(A)  single citizenship

(B)  dual citizenship

(C)  independent judiciary

(D)  division of powers

Answer: (A)

Mathematics

71. ax3 + 3x2 – 3 and 2x3 – 5x + a when divided by x – 4 leave the same remainder then a = ……

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

72. If n be the positive integer then the last two digits of 212n – 64n are-

(A)  10

(B)  01

(C)  00

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

73. If x be real then the minimum value of 2x2 – 5x – 3 is-

(A)  1.25

(B)  1.5

(C)  1.75

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

74. 

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

75. 713 + 1 is divided by 6, the remainder is-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  5

Answer: (A)

76. If the sides of a square are increased by 10% the per cent increase in area is-

(A)  65%

(B)  67%

(C)  68%

(D)  69%

Answer: (B)

77. The average of 11 results is 30, that of first five in 25 and that of last five is 28. The value of 6th number is-

(A)  63

(B)  65

(C)  67

(D)  70

Answer: (B)

78. A persons sells an article at a profit of 10%. If he had bought it at 10% less and sold it for Rs 3 more, he would have gained 25%. The cost price is-

(A)  Rs 120

(B)  Rs 125

(C)  Rs 130

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

79. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on a certain sum of money at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs 1.50. The sum is-

(A)  Rs 600

(B)  Rs 650

(C)  Rs 675

(D)  Rs 700

Answer: (A)

80. 300 gms. of sugar solution has 40% sugar in it. The amount of sugar to be added to make it 50% in the solution is-

(A)  25 gms.

(B)  35 gms.

(C)  55 gms.

(D)  60 gms.

Answer: (D)

81. 

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

82. 

(A)  42

(B)  48

(C)  52

(D)  54

Answer: (C)

83. AB and CD are two parallel line segments. A and D are joined and a point E is taken on AD. If ∠ADC = 48°, ∠ABE = 63°, then ∠BEA = ……

(A)  65°

(B)  67°

(C)  69°

(D)  71°

Answer: (C)

84. The radius of a circle is 10 cm and the length of a chord is 16 cm. The distance of the chord from the centre is-

(A)  8 cm

(B)  6 cm

(C)  4 cm

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

85. The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 6b cm. The area of the triangle is-

(A)  3b2 cm2

(B)    

(C)  

(D)    

Answer: (B)

86. If f(x) + f(1 – x) = 2, then the value of  is –

(A)  2000

(B)  2001

(C)  1998

(D)  1999

Answer: (A)

87. If a3b = abc = 180 where a, b, c are positive integers then c = …….

(A)  110

(B)  15

(C)  25

(D)  1

Answer: (D)

88. Four bells first begin to toll together and then at intervals of 6, 7, 8 and 9 secs. respectively. The number of times the bells toll together in two hours is-

(A)  10

(B)  12

(C)  14

(D)  15

Answer: (C)

89. The price of cars rises by 30% while the sales of the cars goes down by 20%. The percentage change in total revenue is-

(A)  decrease of 4%

(B)  increase of 4%

(C)  decrease of 3%

(D)  increase of 3%

Answer: (B)

90. A school has only four classes that contain 10, 20, 30 and 40 students respectively. The pass percentage of these classes are 20%, 30%, 60% and 100% respectively. The pass percentage of the entire school is-

(A)  56%

(B)  76%

(C)  34%

(D)  66%

Answer: (D)

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