# State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2018 Class-VIII Held on 5 November, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2018 Class-VIII

Held on 5 November, 2017

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test (GMAT)

Directions-(Q. 1-10) In each of the following questions, a series of numbers is given which follow certain rules. One of the number is missing. Find out the number from the alternatives given below and mark it on  your answer-sheet as directed.

1. 2 – 0 – 4 – 0 – 16 – 0 ……

(A)  32

(B)  64

(C)  168

(D)  256

2. 2, 6, 12, 20, …….., 42, 56, 72, 90

(A)  28

(B)  30

(C)  35

(D)  39

3. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, ……

(A)  45

(B)  50

(C)  65

(D)  63

4. 6, 9, 15, 27, …….99

(A)  77

(B)  51

(C)  67

(D)  81

5. 121, 112, ……, 97, 91, 86

(A)  104

(B)  102

(C)  107

(D)  105

6. 8, 4, 12, 6, 18, ……… 27

(A)  22

(B)  15

(C)  9

(D)  11

7. 4, 7, 12, …….., 28, 39

(A)  21

(B)  19

(C)  23

(D)  25

8. b, e, d, f, ?, h, j, ?, l

(A)  i. m

(B)  m, i

(C)  I, n

(D)  j, m

9. U, Q, ?, L

(A)  I

(B)  K

(C)  M

(D)  N

10. Y, S, U, Q, Q, ?, ?

(A)  O, M

(B)  N, J

(C)  J, R

(D)  M, L

Directions (Q. 11-20) Study the pattern of numbers in the following questions and select the missing numbers in place of question mark (?). Mark the correct alternative on your answer-sheet as directed.

11.

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  5

12.

(A)  18

(B)  26

(C)  24

(D)  15

13.

(A)  38

(B)  37

(C)  36

(D)  35

14.

(A)  7

(B)  12

(C)  8

(D)  6

15.

(A)  7

(B)  12

(C)  9

(D)  8

16.

(A)  7

(B)  11

(C)  12

(D)  8

17.

(A)  9

(B)  11

(C)  6

(D)  8

18.

(A)  88

(B)  64

(C)  72

(D)  68

19.

(A)  6

(B)  5

(C)  7

(D)  8

20.

(A)  39

(B)  37

(C)  32

(D)  44

Directions-(Q. 21-25) Study the following figure and answer the questions given below.

21. How many doctors are neither artists nor players?

(A)  17

(B)  22

(C)  30

(D)  25

22. How many doctors are both players and artists?

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  8

(D)  17

23. How many artists are players?

(A)  17

(B)  25

(C)  30

(D)  22

24. How many players are neither artists nor doctors?

(A)  17

(B)  30

(C)  25

(D)  22

25. How many artists are neither players nor doctors?

(A)  25

(B)  30

(C)  8

(D)  22

Directions (Q. 26-40) In each of the following questions, find the figure from the answer-set (i.e., 1, 2, 3, 4) which will complete the figure given in the problem set (i.e., X)

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

Directions-(Q. 41-50) In each of the following questions four groups of letters are given. Three of them are alike in some manner, while one is different. Find the odd-man-out and mark it on your answer-sheet directed.

41.

(A)  QPO

(B)  DCA

(C)  KJI

(D)  NML

42.

(A)  JAK

(B)  KBL

(C)  LCM

(D)  NDM

43.

(A)  ELFA

(B)  GLHA

(C)  ILJA

(D)  MLNA

44.

(A)  KPD

(B)  LOE

(C)  MQF

(D)  NMG

45.

(A)  AXUP

(B)  ONKN

(C)  GFKD

(D)  VSPM

46.

(A)  RAB

(B)  SCD

(C)  TEF

(D)  UHI

47.

(A)  ACEG

(B)  MOQS

(C)  GHJL

(D)  RTUX

48.

(A)  CYWZ

(B)  EYYZ

(C)  GYBZ

(D)  IYCZ

49.

(A)  MRNS

(B)  ORPS

(C)  QRRS

(D)  SYTZ

50.

(A)  P3C

(B)  R5F

(C)  T8I

(D)  V12L

Directions-(Q. 51-60) In each of the following questions there is a certain relation between two numbers given on the left side of ::, Choose the correct alternative in place of ‘?’ So that the same relationship is maintained on the right side of ::. Mark the correct alternative on your answer-sheet as directed.

51. 3 : 11 :: 7 : ?

(A)  25

(B)  51

(C)  48

(D)  28

52. 1 : 1 :: 25 : ?

(A)  26

(B)  125

(C)  240

(D)  625

53. 49 : 81 :: 100 : ?

(A)  64

(B)  144

(C)  169

(D)  188

54. 121 : 12 :: 25 : ?

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  6

(D)  7

55. 18 : 30 :: 36 : ?

(A)  33

(B)  45

(C)  67

(D)  66

56. 25 : 125 :: 36 : ?

(A)  180

(B)  206

(C)  216

(D)  196

57. 17 : 52 :: 1 : ?

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  5

(D)  51

58. 9 : 80 :: 100 : ?

(A)  901

(B)  1009

(C)  9889

(D)  9999

59. 25 : 37 :: 49 : ?

(A)  65

(B)  56

(C)  60

(D)  41

60. 5 : 36 :: 6 : ?

(A)  48

(B)  49

(C)  50

(D)  56

Directions-(Q. 61-70) In the given questions below, A dice has been shown in more than one form. One which 1 to 6 numbers or A to F alphabets are printed on its sides. Study the different forms carefully in the given questions and answer them accordingly.

61. One the dice given below, Number 5 is at the bottom. Which number will appear on its upper surface?

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

62. Below two positions of dice are shown. If there is ‘B’ in the bottom, then which alphabet will be on the top?

(A)  D

(B)  B

(C)  E

(D)  F

63. Two positions of a dice with its surfaces are shown below. When the surface ‘D’ touch the bottom, what surface will be on top?

(A)  D

(B)  A

(C)  E

(D)  F

64. Two positions of a dice are shown. When ‘E’ is at the top which alphabet will be at bottom?

(A)  D

(B)  C

(C)  E

(D)  None of these

65. On the dice given below, mention the number which appears on the opposite side of number 4?

(A)  1

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  5

66. From the positions of a dice which are shown below, which letter will be on the face opposite to face with ‘1’?

(A)  5

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  6

67. Below four positions of a Dice is shown. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to face with symbol ‘C’?

(A)  F

(B)  E

(C)  B

(D)  D

68. Two positions of dice are shown below. What number will appear on the face opposite to the face with ‘5’?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  3

69. On the dice given below, mention the number which appears on the opposite side of number 2?

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  5

(D)  3

70. From the positions of a dice given below. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to face with ‘1’?

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  5

Directions (Q. 71-80) In each of the following questions, four words are given. Three of them are alike in some manner, while one is different. Find the odd-man-out and mark it on your answer-

71.

(A)  India

(B)  Asia

(C)  Antarctica

(D)  Australia

72.

(A)  Hard disk

(B)  RAM

(C)  Monitor

(D)  Windows XP

73.

(A)  Tyre

(B)  Speed

(C)  Clutch

(D)  Brake

74.

(A)  Cricket

(B)  Volleyball

(C)  Billiards

(D)  Fencing

75.

(A)  Teacher

(B)  Student

(C)  Principal

(D)  Lecturer

76.

(A)  Lion

(B)  Fox

(C)  Deer

(D)  Tiger

77.

(A)  Banana

(B)  Apple

(C)  Papaya

(D)  Mango

78.

(A)  Run

(B)  Jump

(C)  Hear

(D)  Walk

79.

(A)  Nail

(B)  Pin

(C)  Hammer

(D)  Screw

80.

(A)  Butterfly

(B)  Cockroach

(C)  Housefly

(D)  Spider

Directions-(Q. 81-90) Study the following questions and answer accordingly.

81. If – means ×, × means +, + means ÷ and ÷ means -, then 40 × 12 + 3 – 6 ÷ 60 = ?

(A)  4

(B)  8

(C)  10

(D)  32

82. If + means ÷, − means ×, ÷ means + and × means −, then 36 + 12 – 3 ÷ 5 × 2 = ?

(A)  4

(B)  12

(C)  16

(D)  24

83. If + means ÷, × means −, ÷ means × and – means +, then 8 + 6 × 4 ÷ 3 – 4 = ?

(A)  40/5

(B)  20/3

(C)  30/4

(D)  15/4

84. If × means ÷, − means ×, ÷ means + and + means −, then (3 – 15 ÷ 19) × 8 + 6 = ?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  8

(D)  7

85. If + means ×, ÷ means −, × means ÷ and – means +, then 4 + 11 ÷ 5 – 55 = ?

(A)  72

(B)  84

(C)  94

(D)  67

86. If ‘p’ means ‘−’, ‘q’ means ‘+’, ‘r’ means ‘÷’ and ‘s’ means ‘×’, then 16 p 4 q 5 s 8 r 2 = ?

(A)  −8

(B)  32

(C)  20

(D)  12

87. If ‘P’ means ‘÷’, ‘Q’ means ‘−’, ‘R’ means ‘×’ and ‘T’ means ‘+’, then

24T16Q32P8R4

(A)  4

(B)  32

(C)  40

(D)  24

88. If ‘M’ means ‘÷’, ‘R’ means ‘+’, ‘T’ means ‘−’ and ‘K’ means ‘×’, then

20R16K5M10T8 = ?

(A)  20

(B)  36

(C)  12

(D)  28

89. If ‘Q’ means ‘−’, ‘B’ means ‘×’, ‘A’ means ‘÷’ and ‘F’ means ‘+’, then

12B20A4Q10F30 = ?

(A)  60

(B)  70

(C)  80

(D)  90

90. If 1 = 1, 2 = 4, 3 = 10 and 4 = 22, then 5 = ?

(A)  46

(B)  32

(C)  34

(D)  42

Part-II

Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

Physics

1. A 9 kg mass and a 4 k mass have same kinetic energies. The ratio of their linear momentum is :

(A)  3 : 2

(B)  2 : 3

(C)  9 : 4

(D)  4 : 9

2. Find the frequency and wavelength of a wave whose time-period is 0.05 s and speed is 200 m/s.

(A)  5 Hz, 40 m

(B)  2 Hz. 400 m

(C)  20 Hz, 10 m

(D)  20 Hz, 4000 m

3. Supersonic planes fly with speed-

(A)  Less than the speed of sound

(B)  Equal to the speed of sound

(C)  Greater than the speed of sound

(D)  Double the speed of sound

4. A man walks 8 m towards East and then 6 m towards North. His magnitude of displacement is-

(A)  10 m

(B)  14 m

(C)  2 m

(D)  zero

5. The light from sun takes 500 s to reach the earth. Taking speed of light to be 3 × 108 m/s, the sun-earth distance is-

(A)  100 million km

(B)  100 million km

(C)  200 million km

(D)  300 million km

6. Which of the following does not exist?

(A)  Single charge

(B)  Single magnetic pole

(C)  Bar magnet

(D)  Electric dipole

7. 100 nano second is-

(A)  100 s

(B)  109 s

(C)  1011 s

(D)  107 s

8. Ultrasonic waves are those waves-

(A)  which a man can hear

(B)  which a man cannot hear

(C)  which have velocity greater than the velocity of sound

(D)  which have very high intensity

9. The force of gravitation between two spheres is x, when the distance between their centres is y . If the two are immersed in water, gravitational force will be-

(A)  x/1.5

(B)  1.5 x

(C)  x

(D)  Zero

10. At what common temperature would a piece of wood and a piece of iron appear to be equally hot or cold, when touched?

(A)  0°C

(B)  100°C

(C)  273°C

(D)  At body temperature

11. Wavelength of light is maximum for which colour?

(A)  Violet

(B)  Red

(C)  orange

(D)  Yellow

Chemistry

12. Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment led to the conclusion that-

(A)  Mass and energy are related

(B)  Mass and the positive charge of an atom are concentrated in the nucleus

(C)  Neutrons are present in the nucleus

(D)  Atoms are electrically neutral

13. In the following reaction Phosphorous will be-

P4 + 3KOH + 3H2O → 3KH2PO2 + PH3

(A)  Only oxidized

(B)  Only reduced

(C)  Oxidized as well as reduced

(D)  Neither oxidized nor reduced

14. Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

(A)  Benzene

(B)  Ethane

(C)  Neopentane

(D)  All of these

15. NiO adopts NaCl structure. The coordination number of the Ni2+ ion is-

(A)  Six

(B)  Four

(C)  Two

(D)  One

16. Matte contains (in copper metallurgy)-

(A)  Cu2S, FeS and Silica

(B)  Cu2S, FeO and Silica

(C)  Cu2S, CuO and Silica

(D)  Cu2S, Cu2O and Silica

17. Glycerol can be purified by-

(A)  Steam distillation

(B)  Simple distillation

(C)  Vacuum distillation

(D)  Extraction with a solvent

18. Assertion-Reason Questions-

(a) If the assertion as well as reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If the assertion as well as reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) If the assertion is correct but reason is not

(d) If the reason is correct but assertion is not

Assertion : HF has low volatility.

Reason : There is a extensive hydrogen bonding in HF.

(A)  (a)

(B)  (b)

(C)  (c)

(D)  (d)

19. Which of the following properties of carbon is mainly responsible for its ability to form a large number of compounds?

(B)  Ability to form multiple bonds

(C)  Ability to form ring compounds

(D)  Strong catenation property

20. The pH of 1010 M H2SO4 will be almost-

(A)  4

(B)  7

(C)  6

(D)  10

21. The metal atoms presents in the vitamin B12 and chlorophyll respectively are-

(A)  Fe and Co

(B)  Fe and Mg

(C)  Co and Mg

(D)  Fe and Zn

22. The first law of thermodynamics introduces the concepts of-

(A)  Heat (q)

(B)  Energy and equivalence of heat and work

(C)  Work

(D)  Energy and equivalence of temperature and work

Biology

23. Which of the following groups of plants are known as ‘Amphibians’ in the Plant Kingdom.

(A)  Bryophytes

(B)  Pteridophytes

(C)  Algae

(D)  Planktons

24. Inside the uterus, the embryo is protected by the-

(A)  umbilical cord

(B)  fallopian tube

(C)  amniotic sac

(D)  placenta

25. Habitat destruction is usually the main cause for the loss of-

(A)  Community

(B)  Species

(C)  Ecosystem

(D)  Biodiversity

26. Group of organisms capable of interbreeding are known as-

(A)  Genus

(B)  Species

(C)  Community

(D)  None of these

27. Which of the following pairs of vegetables represent the correct homologous structure.

(A)  Sweet Potato and Potato

(B)  Potato and Tomato

(D)  Carrot and Potato

28. Our body produces specialized chemicals to fight against infection and diseases. They are known as-

(A)  Antibiotics

(B)  Antigens

(C)  Antibodies

(D)  Enzyme

29. Animals which gives birth to young ones which are similar to their parents are known as

(A)  Viviparous

(B)  Oviparous

(C)  Fissiparous

(D)  Domesticus

30. Which of the following is regarded as a link between bacteria and viruses?

(A)  Actinomycetes

(B)  Mycoplasma

(C)  Vibrio

(D)  Lysosomes

31. In the agriculture of paddy, one of the following is used as bio-fertilizer.

(A)  Green Algae

(B)  Brown Algae

(C)  Cyanobacteria

(D)  Earthworm

32. The plants, animals, microbes, soil, climate, water in place collectively refers to-

(A)  Biological Kingdom

(B)  Forest

(C)  Ecosystem

(D)  Biosphere

33. Plants growing on sand are known as-

(A)  Lithophytes

(B)  Xerophytes

(C)  Chasmophytes

(D)  Psamophytes

34. Which of the vitamin deficiency causes the cracking of lips in human-

(A)  Vitamin A

(B)  Vitamin K

(C)  Vitamin C

(D)  Vitamin B

35. The ability of organism to develop whole body from its fragment is known as-

(A)  Binary fission

(B)  Budding

(C)  Regeneration

(D)  Grafting

History

36. Vasco da Gama reached Calicut, India on-

(A)  1398

(B)  1495

(C)  1496

(D)  1498

37. Diu was the colony of the-

(A)  Portuguese

(B)  English

(C)  Dutch

(D)  French

38. In 1612 ………. established a trading post in Gujarat.

(A)  British

(B)  French

(C)  Spainish

(D)  Dutch

39. In 1661 the company obtained …. from Charles II.

(A)  Bombay

(C)  Kanpur

(D)  Calcutta

40. Warren Hastings was appointed as the Governor of …. in 1772.

(A)  Bengal

(C)  Bombay

(D)  Delhi

41. Regulating Act was in the year of-

(A)  1573

(B)  1673

(C)  1773

(D)  1873

42. Hyder Ali was the ruler of-

(B)  Mysore

(C)  Cochi

(D)  Bengal

43. The Treaty of Mangalore was in the year-

(A)  1484

(B)  1584

(C)  1684

(D)  1784

44. Who among the following leaders joined Gandhiji in the Champaran Satyagraha held on April 10, 1917?

(B)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(D)  None of these

45. In which year, first census was conducted in India?

(A)  1884

(B)  1872

(C)  1881

(D)  1856

46. What was elected the President of Indian National Congress in the Surat Session 1907 famous for Surat Split?

(A)  Dr. Rash Bihari Ghosh

(B)  Lala Lajpat Rai

(D)  Pherozeshah Mehta

47. Who among the following was the first Indian woman president to chair the Indian National Congress at Kanpur session of 1925?

(A)  Sarojini Naidu

(B)  Annie Besant

(C)  Nellie Sengupta

(D)  Indira Gandhi

Geography

48. Which of the following is not a factor of soil formation?

(A)  Climate

(B)  Organic matter

(C)  Time

(D)  Soil Texture

49. Which of the following is also called ‘Black Gold’?

(A)  Diamond

(B)  Petroleum

(C)  Coal

(D)  Graphite

50. The deposit of which of the following is found in Dead Sea?

(A)  Gypsum

(B)  Limestone

(C)  Potash

(D)  Bromine

51. Kaziranga National Park is located in-

(A)  Kashmir

(C)  Assam

(D)  Manipur

52. Terrace farming is practised in-

(A)  Plain area

(B)  Desert area

(C)  Hilly area

(D)  Coastal area

53. Which of the following is known as Sunrise industry?

(A)  Iron and Steel

(B)  Cotton Textile

(C)  Information Technology

(D)  Sugar Industry

54. Which country is a leading producer of copper in the world?

(A)  Bolivia

(B)  Chile

(C)  Ghana

(D)  Zimbabwe

55. The population pyramid represents-

(A)  Age Composition of population

(B)  Sex Composition of population

(C)  (A) and (B) Both

(D)  None of the above

56. Salal hydroelectric Project is located in-

(A)  Karnataka

(B)  Uttarakhand

(C)  Assam

(D)  Jammu and Kashmir

57. The Canal joining Lake Superior and Lake Huron is-

(A)  Panama Canal

(B)  Soo Canal

(C)  Suez Canal

(D)  Kiel Canal

58. Which of the following is a plantation crop?

(A)  Rice

(B)  Maize

(C)  Wheat

(D)  Tea

Civics

59. Who is the Constitutional Head of the State Government-

(A)  President

(B)  Prime Minister

(C)  Governor

(D)  Speaker of Legislative Assembly

60. The Indian Constitutional mandates that India is-

(A)  Secular

(B)  Socialist

(C)  Democratic

(D)  All of these

61. Adult suffrage is the basis of-

(A)  Democracy

(B)  Dictatorship

(C)  Autocracy

(D)  Communism

62. The rights guaranteed by the Constitution are called-

(A)  Government Rights

(B)  Optional Rights

(C)  Economic Rights

(D)  Fundamental Rights

63. Who convenes the joint session of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?

(A)  The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B)  The Chairman of Rajay Sabha

(C)  President

(D)  The Minister of Parliamentary affairs

64. By which of the following words, democracy is derived-

(A)  Status

(B)  Polis

(C)  Demos and Kratos

(D)  Civitas

65. Writs can be issued by-

(A)  The Supreme Court only

(B)  The High Court only

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  All the courts

66. Which of the following is not an organ of Government-

(A)  Legislature

(B)  Executive

(C)  Judiciary

(D)  Election Commission of India

67. Which of the following is not a tool of direct democracy-

(A)  Recall

(B)  Initiation

(C)  Referendum

(D)  Impeachment

68. A set of fundamental rules according to which the country functions, is called-

(A)  A Law

(B)  An Amendment

(C)  A Constitution

(D)  A Preamble

69. A Judge of the Supreme Court of India retires on a attaining the age of-

(A)  60 years

(B)  62 years

(C)  65 years

(D)  70 years

70. A Unitary Government has-

(A)  single citizenship

(B)  dual citizenship

(C)  independent judiciary

(D)  division of powers

Mathematics

71. ax3 + 3x2 – 3 and 2x3 – 5x + a when divided by x – 4 leave the same remainder then a = ……

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

72. If n be the positive integer then the last two digits of 212n – 64n are-

(A)  10

(B)  01

(C)  00

(D)  None of these

73. If x be real then the minimum value of 2x2 – 5x – 3 is-

(A)  1.25

(B)  1.5

(C)  1.75

(D)  2

74.

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

75. 713 + 1 is divided by 6, the remainder is-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  5

76. If the sides of a square are increased by 10% the per cent increase in area is-

(A)  65%

(B)  67%

(C)  68%

(D)  69%

77. The average of 11 results is 30, that of first five in 25 and that of last five is 28. The value of 6th number is-

(A)  63

(B)  65

(C)  67

(D)  70

78. A persons sells an article at a profit of 10%. If he had bought it at 10% less and sold it for Rs 3 more, he would have gained 25%. The cost price is-

(A)  Rs 120

(B)  Rs 125

(C)  Rs 130

(D)  None of these

79. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on a certain sum of money at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs 1.50. The sum is-

(A)  Rs 600

(B)  Rs 650

(C)  Rs 675

(D)  Rs 700

80. 300 gms. of sugar solution has 40% sugar in it. The amount of sugar to be added to make it 50% in the solution is-

(A)  25 gms.

(B)  35 gms.

(C)  55 gms.

(D)  60 gms.

81.

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  None of these

82.

(A)  42

(B)  48

(C)  52

(D)  54

83. AB and CD are two parallel line segments. A and D are joined and a point E is taken on AD. If ∠ADC = 48°, ∠ABE = 63°, then ∠BEA = ……

(A)  65°

(B)  67°

(C)  69°

(D)  71°

84. The radius of a circle is 10 cm and the length of a chord is 16 cm. The distance of the chord from the centre is-

(A)  8 cm

(B)  6 cm

(C)  4 cm

(D)  None of these

85. The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 6b cm. The area of the triangle is-

(A)  3b2 cm2

(B)

(C)

(D)

86. If f(x) + f(1 – x) = 2, then the value of  is –

(A)  2000

(B)  2001

(C)  1998

(D)  1999

87. If a3b = abc = 180 where a, b, c are positive integers then c = …….

(A)  110

(B)  15

(C)  25

(D)  1

88. Four bells first begin to toll together and then at intervals of 6, 7, 8 and 9 secs. respectively. The number of times the bells toll together in two hours is-

(A)  10

(B)  12

(C)  14

(D)  15

89. The price of cars rises by 30% while the sales of the cars goes down by 20%. The percentage change in total revenue is-

(A)  decrease of 4%

(B)  increase of 4%

(C)  decrease of 3%

(D)  increase of 3%

90. A school has only four classes that contain 10, 20, 30 and 40 students respectively. The pass percentage of these classes are 20%, 30%, 60% and 100% respectively. The pass percentage of the entire school is-

(A)  56%

(B)  76%

(C)  34%

(D)  66%