Pharmaceutical Science (PY) Competitive Examination-2011 (GPAT, CET, NIPER etc.) Question Paper With Answer Key

Pharmaceutical Science (PY) Competitive Examination-2011

(GPAT, CET, NIPER etc.)

1. A glycoalkaloid:

(P) Contains sulphur in addition to nitrogen in its molecule

(Q) is glycosidic in nature.

(R) Can be hydrolysed to an alkaloid.

(S) Always contains endocylic nitrogen in its molecule.

(A)  P & R

(B)  Q & S

(C)  Q & R

(D)  P & Q

Answer: (B)

2. Which of the following statements are true for ginseng root?

(P) It is among the most traded plant material of Brazil.

(Q) It is obtained from Panax ginseng and Panax quinquefolium.

(R) It is obtained from young plants of six months to one year age.

(S) It contains derivatives of protopanaxadiol.

(A)  P & Q

(B)  R & S

(C)  Q & R

(D)  Q & S

Answer: (A)

3. Which of the following drugs is a triterpenoid containing root?

(A)  Valerian

(B)  Brahmi

(C)  Satavari

(D)  Adusa

Answer: (B)

4. Which of the following alkaloids is derived from tyrosine?

(A)  Quinine

(B)  Morphine

(C)  Atropine

(D)  Ephedrine

Answer: (D)

5. The following options carry the name of the plant, part used and its family. Find a WRONG combination.

(A)  Aegle marmelos, fruit & Rutaceae

(B)  Conium maculatum, fruit & Umbelliferae

(C)  Glycyrrhiza glabra, root and stolon & Leguminosae

(D)  Strophanthus gratus, seed & Scrophulariaceae

Answer: (D)

6. Anomocytic stomata, trichomes with collapsed cell and absence of calcium oxalate crystals are some of the microscopic features of which plant?

(A)  Digitalis

(B)  Hyoscyamus

(C)  Mentha

(D)  Senna

Answer: (A)

7. Each of the following options lists the name of the drug, its class, pharmacological action and plant source. Choose an option showing a WRONG combination.

(A)  Asafoetida, oleo-gum-resin, anti-flatulence, Ferula foetida

(B)  Benzoin balsam, antiseptic, Styrax benzoin

(C)  Myrrh, gum-resin, antiseptic, Commiphora wightii

(D)  Papaine, enzyme proteolytic, Carica papaya

Answer: (C)

8. Quinoline alkaloids are biosynthesized via which one of the following pathways?

(A)  Shikimic acid-tyrosine

(B)  Shikimic acid-tryptophan

(C)  Shikimic acid-cathinone

(D)  Shikimic acid-phenylalanine

Answer: (B)

9. Which of the following ergot alkaloids is water soluble and shows blue fluorescence?

(A)  Ergosine

(B)  Ergotamine

(C)  Ergocristme

(D)  Ergometrine

Answer: (D)

10. Khellin is an active constituent of which one of the following plants?

(A)  Prunus serona

(B)  Tribulus terrestis

(C)  Ammi visnaga

(D)  Vanilla plamfolia

Answer: (C)

11. Golbeater’s skin test is used to detect the presence of which one of the following classes of compounds?

(A)  Tannins

(B)  Steroids

(C)  Glycerides

(D)  Resins

Answer: (A)

12. Which one of the following compounds is useful for the stimulation of cell division and release of lateral bud dormancy?

(A)  Zeatin

(B)  2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid

(C)  Indoleacetic acid

(D)  Picloram

Answer: (A)

13. Phenylethylisoquinoline is the precursor of which of the following alkaloids?

(A)  Colchicine

(B)  Papaverine

(C)  Emetine

(D)  Cephaline

Answer: (A)

14. A powered drug has the following microscopic characters:

Anther cells, arenchyma, pollen grains, phloem fibers, volatile oil cells and stone cells. The powder is obtained from which of the followings?

(A)  Clove bud powder

(B)  Clove bud powder with stalk

(C)  Mother Clove

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

15. Arrange the following fatty acids in decreasing order of their unsaturation (highest to lowest):

(P) Stearic                      (Q) Oleic acid

(R) Lmolenic acid          (S) Linoleic acid

(A)  P > Q > R > S

(B)  S > R > P > Q

(C)  R > S > Q > P

(D)  Q > P > R > S

Answer: (C)

16. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [A] and the Reason [R]:

Assertion (A) : Tannins are plyphenolic substances occurring in plant cell sap. Hydrolysable and condensed tannins are differentiated by match stick test.

Reason (R) :  The condensed tannins are resistant to acid hydrolysis therefore stain the lignin present in match stick.

(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is a correct reason for (A)

(B)  Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct for (A)

(C)  (A) is true but (R) is NOT the correct reason for (A)

(D)  Both (A) and (R) are false

Answer: (B)

17. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [A] and the Reason [R]:

Assertion (A) :  Castor oil is soluble in alcohol and is used as purgative.

Reason (R) :  The oil contains ricinoleic acid having a hydroxyl group at C-12 position which is responsible for its solubility in alcohol and its purgative action.

(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct reason for (A)

(B)  (A) is true but (R) is NOT the correct reason for (A)

(C)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

(D)  Both (A) and (R) are false

Answer: (C)

18. In acetate mevalonate pathway geranyl pyrophosphate leads to formation of monoterpenes, the major constituents of volatile oils.

(P) Geranyl pyrophosphate contains two isoprene units

(Q) Monoterpenes have 15 carbon atoms

(R) The two isoprene units condense in head to tail fashion to give Monoterpenes

(S) Isoprene unit has molecular formula of C5 Hs.

Which one of the given statements is correct?

(A)  P is true, Q is false, R is true, S is false

(B)  P is false, Q is true, R is true, S is false

(C)  P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true

(D)  P is true, Q is false, R is true, S is true

Answer: (D)

19. Two genetic types of Cannabis i.e., drug type and Hemp types are cultivated.

(P) Drug type cannabis is rich in (−) A9-frarcs-tetrahydrocannabinol.

(Q) Hemp type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol

(R) Drug type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol

(S) Hemp type cannabis contains elongated bast fibres.

Which one of the given statements is correct?

(A)  P is true, Q is true, R is true, S is true

(B)  P is true, Q is false, R is false, S is true

(C)  P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true

(D)  P is false, Q is false, R is true, S is false

Answer: (D)

20. Each of the following options lists a phytoconstituent its phytochemical grouping, pharmacological activity and corresponding semi synthetic analogue. Find a MISMATCHING option :

(A)  Podophyllotoxin, lignin, anticancer, etoposide

(B)  Sennoside, anthraquinone, laxative, sinigrin

(C)  Atropine, alkaloid anticholinergic, homatropine

(D)  THC, terpenophenolic, psychoactive, nabilone

Answer: (B)

21. Inhibition/ induction of which of the following Ctychrome P450 enzyme system is most likely to be involved in important drug-drug interactions?

(A)  CYP3A4

(B)  CYP2D6

(C)  CYP2C9

(D)  CYP1A2

Answer: (A)

22. Which of the following mechanisms is NOT related to platelet aggregation inhibitory action?

(A)  ADP receptor antagonism

(B)  Glycoprotein Ilb/IIIa receptor antagonism

(C)  Phosphodiesterase inhibition

(D)  Prostacyclin inhibition

Answer: (D)

23. Choose the correct statement about the given four diseases?

(P) Cardiomyopathy

(Q) Rheumatoid arthritis

(R) Myasthenia gravis

(S) Ulcerative colitis

(A)  Q & S are autoimmune disorders

(B)  P & Q are autoimmune disorders

(C)  P & R are not autoimmune disorders

(D)  R & S are not autoimmune diorders

Answer: (A)

24. Which of the following species is being inactivated by the enzyme Dipeptidly peptidase-4?

(A)  Oxytocin

(B)  Vasopressin

(C)  Incretins

(D)  Glucagon

Answer: (C)

25. Patients taking isosorbide mononitrate or nitro-glycerine should be advised not take Sildenafil. This drug-drug interaction causes which of the following actions?

(A)  Respiratory failure

(B)  Severe hypotension

(C)  Prolongation of QT interval

(D)  Myocardial ischemia

Answer: (B)

26. Which of the following drugs does not induce mydriasis?

(A)  Atropine

(B)  Ephedrine

(C)  Morphin

(D)  Phentolamine

Answer: (C)

27. Which of the following statements is TRUE for angiotensm-II ?

(A)  Causes myocyte hypertrophy

(B)  Decreases the action of sympathetic nervous system

(C)  Increases force of myocardial contraction

(D)  Decreases the synthesis and release of aldosterone

Answer: (A)

28. Which of the following beta blockers has been shown clinically to reduce mortality in patients of symptomatic heart failure?

(A)  Atenolol

(B)  Carvedilol

(C)  Propranolol

(D)  Esmolol

Answer: (B)

29. All of the given four drugs cause vasodilatation.

Choose the correct statement about them.

(P) Bradykimm              (Q) Minoxidil

(R) Acetylcholine          (S) Hydralazine

(A)  P & Q cause release of nitric oxide

(B)  Q & R do not cause release of nitric oxide

(C)  R & S cause release of nitric oxide

(D)  P & S do not cause release of nitric oxide

Answer: (A)

30. Rhabdomyolysis is the side effect associated with which of the following classes of drugs?

(A)  ACE inhibitors

(B)  Statins

(C)  Calcium channel

(D)  Sodium channel blockers

Answer: (B)

31. Blood level monitoring of HBALC is important in which of the given diseased states?

(A)  Hypercholesterolemia

(B)  Diabetes

(C)  Myocardial infarction

(D)  Congestive heart failure

Answer: (B)

32. Most of the emergency contraceptives have which one of the following active ingredients?

(A)  Estradiol

(B)  Norethindr

(C)  Msoprostol

(D)  Levonorge

Answer: (D)

33. Which of the following antibiotics produces concentration dependent bactericidal action and also possesses post-antibiotic effect ?

(A)  Ceftazidime

(B)  Azithromycin

(C)  Amikacin

(D)  Piperacillin

Answer: (C)

34. Antiretroviral Raltegravir is unique, because of which of its following actions:

(A)  Integrase inhibition

(B)  CCR5 Co-receptor antgonism

(C)  Fusion inhibition

(D)  Reverse transcriptase inhibition

Answer: (A)

35. What is chemotaxis?

(A)  Toxicity of chemicals

(B)  Taxonomy of chemicals

(C)  Inhibition of Inflammation

(D)  Movement of leucocytes in inflammation

Answer: (D)

36. Which one of the following is NOT an example of G-protein coupled receptor?

(A)  Carinic cholinergic receptor

(B)  Alpha adrenoceptor

(C)  Nicotinic chlolinergic receptor

(D)  Beta adrenoceptor

Answer: (C)

37. Which of the following used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is NOT a biologic response modifier?

(A)  Anakinra

(B)  Leflunomide

(C)  Etanercept

(D)  Infliximab

Answer: (B)

38. Which of the following statements is FALSE for artemisinin?

(A)  It is a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide

(B)  It is a drug of choice in prophylaxis of malaria

(C)  It does not cure relapsing malaria

(D)  It is useful in treatment of cerebral falciparum malaria

Answer: (B)

39. Which of the following is a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme reverse transcriptase in HIV?

(A)  Lamivudine

(B)  Nevirapine

(C)  Abacavir

(D)  Tenofovir

Answer: (B)

40. Which of the following is the most effective mono-therapy for raising HDL cholesterol?

(A)  Statins

(B)  Niacin

(C)  Ezetimibe

(D)  to-3-Fatty acids

Answer: (B)

41. Which of the following parameters from plasma concentration time profile study gives indication of the rate of drug absorption?

(A)  Cmax

(B)  Tmax

(C)  AUC

(D)  t1/2

Answer: (B)

42. Which of the following pairs has high binding affinity of 5α-reductase?

(A)  Letrozole and androstenedione

(B)  Finasteride and testolactone

(C)  Finasteride and 5-DHT

(D)  Finasteride and testosterone

Answer: (C)

43. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants acts directly on the contractile mechanism of the muscle fibers?

(A)  Pancuronium

(B)  Baclofen

(C)  Dantrolene

(D)  Chlorzoxazone

Answer: (C)

44. Which is the molecular target for the vinca alkaloids as anticancer agents?

(A)  Tyrosine kinase

(B)  DNA

(C)  Ribosomes

(D)  Tubulin

Answer: (D)

45. Choose the correct pair of neurodegenerative disorders from those given below.

(A)  Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer’s disease

(B)  Schizophrenia and Mania

(C)  Alzheimer’s disease and Schizophrenia

(D)  Parkinson’s disease and Autism

Answer: (A)

46. A 64 year old woman with history of Type II diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the followings would be a POOR choice in controlling her diabetes?

(A)  Metformin

(B)  Pioghtazone

(C)  Glipizide

(D)  Exenatide

Answer: (B)

47. Mifepristone and gemeprost combination is used for medical termination of pregnancy. The action is caused due to which of the following mechanisms?

(A)  Mifepristone is an antiestrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.

(B)  Mifepristone is an antirpgestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.

(C)  Mifepristone is an antinadrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.

(D)  Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor angagonist

Answer: (B)

48. Which one of the following is a beta lactamase inhibitor?

(A)  Penicillanic acid

(B)  Embonic acid

(C)  Cephalosporanic acid

(D)  Clavulanic acid

Answer: (D)

49. All of the followings are indications for use of ACE inhibitors EXCEPT for one. Identify that:

(A)  Hypertension

(B)  Myocardial infarction

(C)  Left ventricular dysfunction

(D)  Pheochromocytoma

Answer: (D)

50. Neural tube defects may occur by the which one of the following anti-seizure drugs?

(A)  Ethosuximide

(B)  Vigabatnn

(C)  Valproic acid

(D)  Primidone

Answer: (C)

51. Which water is used for hand washing in a change room of pharmaceutical manufacturing plant?

(A)  Potable water

(B)  Purified water

(C)  Disinfectant water

(D)  Soap water

Answer: (A)

52. Which one of the following drying methods is commonly used in Pharma industry for drying of soft shell capsules?

(A)  Truck drying

(B)  Fluid bed drying

(C)  Vacuum drying

(D)  Microwave drying

Answer: (C)

53. Which one of the following does NOT afford a macromolecular inclusion compound?

(A)  Zeolites

(B)  Dextrins

(C)  Silica gels

(D)  Cyclodextrins

Answer: (D)

54. If C is the concentration of dissolved drug and Cs is the saturation concentration. In which case the sink conditions are said to be maintained?

(A)  C < 20% of Cs

(B)  C > 20% of Cs

(C)  C < 10% of Cs

(D)  C > 10% of Cs

Answer: (C)

55. Which condition does not apply as per Indian law while conducting single dose bioavailability study of an immediate release product?

(A)  Sampling period should be at least three t12 el

(B)  Sampling should represent pre-exposure, peak exposure and post-exposure phases

(C)  There should be at least four sampling points during elimination phase

(D)  Sampling should be continued till measured AUC is at least equal to 80% of AUC

Answer: (D)

56. Upon standing sometimes gel system shrinks a bit and little liquid is pressed out. What is this phenomenon known as?

(A)  Oozing

(B)  Syneresis

(C)  Shrinking

(D)  Desolvation

Answer: (B)

57. Which of the following routes of administration of drugs is associated with Phlebitis?

(A)  Subcutaneous

(B)  Intravenous

(C)  Intraspinal

(D)  Intradural

Answer: (B)

58. Study the following two statements and choose the correct answer :

(P) Antibodies are serum proteins providing immunity.

(Q) IgG provides immunity to new born babies while IgM is the first generated antibody.

(A)  P is correct and Q is incorrect

(B)  P is incorrect and Q is correct

(C)  Both P and Q are correct

(D)  Both P and Q are incorrect

Answer: (C)

59. Which microbe is used for validation of sterilization by filtration process?

(A)  Bacillus stearothermophilus

(B)  Pseudomonas diminuta

(C)  Bacillus subtilis

(D)  Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer: (A)

60. Non-linear pharmacokinetic can be expected due to:

(P) Enzyme induction

(Q) Active secretion

Choose the correct answer.

(A)  P and Q are true

(B)  P is true, Q is false

(C)  Q is true, P is false

(D)  Both P and Q are false

Answer: (A)

61. Which wavelength of the UV light provides maximum germicidial action?

(A)  253.7 nm

(B)  275.5 nm

(C)  283.5 nm

(D)  240.0 nm

Answer: (A)

62. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

(A)  Chick Martin test uses organic matter in media

(B)  The organism in Rideal-Walker test is S. typhi

(C)  Rideal-Walker test uses organic matter in media

(D)  The organism in Chick Martin test is S. typhi

Answer: (C)

63. Which of the following forces contribute to stability of charge-transfer complexes?

(A)  Resonance forces

(B)  Resonance and London dispersion forces

(C)  Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces

(D)  Resonance forces and dipole-dipole interactions

Answer: (D)

64. Which of the following isotherms are produced when the heat of condensation of successive layers is more than the heat of adsorption of first layer?

(A)  Type III and IV

(B)  Type II and V

(C)  Type I and III

(D)  Type III and V

Answer: (D)

65. Which of the following act as a non-ionic emulsifying agent?

(A)  Triethanolamine oleate

(B)  Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate

(C)  N-Cetyl-N-ethylmorpholinium ethosulfate

(D)  Dioctyl sulphosuccinate

Answer: (B)

66. The minimal effective flow rate of air in laminar flow hood it is name at parts less than how many cubic feet per minute?

(A)  10

(B)  50

(C)  100

(D)  1000

Answer: (B)

67. Which of the following Schedules include shelf life of drugs?

(A)  Schedule F

(B)  Schedule M

(C)  Schedule G

(D)  Schedule P

Answer: (D)

68. Which of the following pumps is used in handling of corrosive liquids?

(A)  Turbine pump

(B)  Volute pump

(C)  Air binding pump

(D)  Peristaltic pump

Answer: (D)

69. By addition of which of the followings the shells of soft gelatin capsules may be made elastic?

(A)  Polyethylene glycol

(B)  Sorbitol

(C)  Propylene glycol

(D)  Dibutyl phthalate

Answer: (B & C)

70. Convert 90% v/v alcohol to Proof strength. Choose the correct answer :

(A)  57.77° under proof

(B)  57.77° over proof

(C)  47.41° over proof

(D)  47.41° under proof

Answer: (B)

71. Department of Transport Test (DOT) is performed for which of the following?

(A)  Strip packing

(B)  Aerosols

(C)  Injection packing

(D)  Glass containers

Answer: (B)

72. What is the Heat of vaporization of water at 100°C?

(A)  2790 cal/mole

(B)  7290 cal/mole

(C)  7920 cal/mole

(D)  9720 cal/mole

Answer: (D)

73. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [A] and the Reason [R]:

Assertion [A] : For a pharmaceutical powder true density is greater than the granule density.

Reason [R] : Mercury displacement used for determining granule density, allows penetration of liquid into internal pores of the particles.

(A)  [A] is true but [R] is false

(B)  Both [A] and [R] are false

(C)  Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct reason for [A]

(D)  Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is NOT the correct reason for [A]

Answer: (A)

74. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements:

(P) Rheopexy is the phenomenon when a sol forms gel more readily when sheared gently.

(Q) In a rheopectic system, sol is the equilibrium form.

(R) Rheopexy is phenomenon when a sol forms gel when the material is kept at rest.

(A)  (R) is true but (P) and (Q) are false

(B)  (P) is true but (Q) and (R) are false

(C)  (P), (Q) and (R), all are false

(D)  (P), (Q) and (R), all are true

Answer: (B)

75. Define Plasmapheresis? Choose the correct answer.

(A)  The process of collecting plasma and returning the red blood cells concentrate to the donor

(B)  The process of collecting red blood cells concentrate and returning the plasma to the donor

(C)  The process of separating white blood cells from blood

(D)  The process of generating artificial blood plasma expanders

Answer: (A)

76. Molecules in the smectic liquid crystals, are characterized by which one of the followings?

(A)  Mobility in three directions and rotation in one axis

(B)  Mobility in two directions and rotation in one axis

(C)  Mobility in two directions and no rotation

(D)  Mobility in three directions and no rotation

Answer: (B)

77. Choose the correct sequence of Moisture Vapor Transmission Rate is packaging materials?

(A)  Paper > Aluminium foil > PVC > Pvdc

(B)  Aluminium foil > PVC > Pvdc > Paper

(C)  Aluminium foil > Pvdc > PVC > Paper

(D)  Paper > PVC > Pvdc > Aluminium foil

Answer: (D)

78. How many mL of 50% (w/v) dextrose solution and how many mL of 5% (w/v) dextrose solution are required to prepare 4500 mL of a 10% (w/v) solution?

(A)  500 mL of 50% and 4000 mL of 5%

(B)  1000 mL of 50% and 3500 mL of 5%

(C)  4000 mL of 50% and 500 mL of 5%

(D)  1500 mL of 50% and 3000 mL of 5%

Answer: (A)

79. A drug is administered to a 65 kg volume of distribution is 2 liter/kg and concentration of the drug? patient as 500 mg tablets every 4 hours. Half-life of the drug is 3 h, oral bioavailability of the drug is 0.85. Calculate the steady state:

(A)  5.05 mcg/ml

(B)  4.50 mcg/ml

(C)  3.53 mcg/ml

(D)  3.00 mcg/ml

Answer: (D)

80. P-Glycoprotein pump is responsible for which one of the followings?

(A)  Transporting the drugs from the enterocytes into the gut lumen

(B)  Transporting the drugs from gut lumen into enterocytes

(C)  Transporting the drugs from oral mucosa into blood capillaries

(D)  Transporting the drugs from Peyer’s patches into the gut lumen

Answer: (A)

81. Statement [X]: Hofmeister series grades coagulating power of electrolytes as per their ionic size. Statement [Y]:

The relative coagulating power is given by:

(P) Al+++ > Ba++             (Q) Li and F

(R) NH+ > Na+

Choose the correct statement:

(A)  Statement X is true but P, Q and R are false in Statement Y

(B)  Statement X is false and P, Q and R are false in Statement Y

(C)  Statement X is true and Q and R are false in Statement Y

(D)  Statement X is false and P is false in Statement

Answer: (C)

82. The first stage of wetting on addition of a granulating agent to the powders is characterized by which one of the followings?

(A)  Capillary state

(B)  Pendular state

(C)  Funicular state

(D)  Droplet state

Answer: (B)

83. Larger values of Ky in the Heckel Plot indicate formatoion of what quality of tablets?

(A)  Harder tablets

(B)  Softer tablets

(C)  Fluffy tablets

(D)  Brittle tablets

Answer: (A)

84. The degree of flocculation of suspension is 1.5 and the sedimentation volume is 0.75. What will be the ultimate volume of deflocculated suspension?

(A)  2.0

(B)  1.5

(C)  0.75

(D)  0.5

Answer: (D)

85. What will be the time required for a drug exhibiting first order rate constant of 4.6/hr to to be degraded from initial concentration of 100 mg/ml to 10 mg/ml?

(A)  2 hr

(B)  4 hr

(C)  9 hr

(D)  0.5 hr

Answer: (D)

86. What will be the does required maintaining therapeutic concentration of 20 microgram/ml for 24 hr of a drug exhibiting total clearance of 2 L/hr?

(A)  96 mg

(B)  480 mg

(C)  960 mg

(D)  48 mg

Answer: (C)

87. What will be the urine to plasma ratio of a weakly acidic drug having pKa of 5? [Urine (pH=5) plasma (pH=7]

(A)  1:101

(B)  1:201

(C)  2:101

(D)  1:202

Answer: (C)

88. The Reynolds number widely used to classify flow behavior of fluids is the ratio of which one of the followings:

(A)  Inertial forces to gravitational forces

(B)  Inertial forces to viscous forces

(C)  Viscous forces to inertial forces

(D)  Viscous forces to gravitational forces

Answer: (B)

89. If the distillation graph using McCabe Thiele method is parallel to X-axis, then the feed is one of the followings?

(A)  Saturated liquid

(B)  Saturated vapor

(C)  Super heated liquid

(D)  Super heated vapor

Answer: (A)

90. What for the baffles are provided in a shell and tube heat exchanger?

(A)  To increase turbulence

(B)  To decrease turbulence

(C)  To prevent corrosion

(D)  To increase shell side passes

Answer: (A)

91. S O S means which one of the followings?

(A)  Take occasionally

(B)  Take immediately

(C)  Take when necessary

(D)  Take as directed

Answer: (C)

92. Which statement is FALSE for Association Colloids?

(A)  They are also called amphiphiles

(B)  They contain aggregated molecules

(C)  They show partial solvation

(D)  They are also called micelles

Answer: (C)

93. Which of the following is NOT a reciprocating pump?

(A)  Plunger pump

(B)  Diaphragm pump

(C)  Gear pump

(D)  Piston pump

Answer: (C)

94. Which is NOT applicable to protein binding?

(A)  Klotz reciprocal plot

(B)  Sandberg modified equation

(C)  Blanchard equation

(D)  Detli plot

Answer: (D)

95. Statement [P] : Soft gelatin capsules contain 12-15% moisture. Statement [Q] : Hard gelatin capsule shells contain 6-10% moisture.

Choose the correct statement?

(A)  Both of the above statements P & Q are true

(B)  Both of the above statements P & Q are false

(C)  Statement P is true and Q is false

(D)  Statement P is false and Q is true

Answer: (B)

96. According to USP, the speed regulating device of the dissolution apparatus should be capable of maintaining the speed within limits of what % of the selected speed?

(A)  1%

(B)  2%

(C)  4%

(D)  5%

Answer: (C)

97. A drug whose solubility is 1 g/L is water, when given orally at a dose of 500 mg is absorbed up to 95% of the administered dose. The drug belongs to which class according to the BCS classification?

(A)  Class I

(B)  Class II

(C)  Class III

(D)  Class IV

Answer: (A)

98. Which statement is NOT true for steam distillation?

(A)  It is also called differential distillation

(B)  It can be used for separation of immiscible liquids

(C)  It can be applied for volatile substances

(D)  It can be used for separation of miscible liquids

Answer: (D)

99. The area of clear opening of any two successive sieves according to Tyler standard is in the ratio of :

(A)  1 : 4

(B)  1 : 6

(C)  1 : √2

(D)  1 : √3

Answer: (C)

100. What is Primogel?

(A)  Substituted HPMC for direct compression

(B)  Modified microcrystalline cellulose for direct compression

(C)  Hydro gelling polymer for gel formation

(D)  Modified starch for disintegration

Answer: (D)

101. Upon standing sometimes gel system shrinks a bit and little liquid is pressed out. What is this phenomenon known as?

(A)  Oozing

(B)  Syneresis

(C)  Shrinking

(D)  Desolvation

Answer: (B)

102. Study the following two statements and choose the correct answer :

(P) Antibodies are serum proteins providing immunity.

(Q) IgG provides immunity to new born babies while IgM is the first generated antibody.

(A)  P is correct and Q is incorrect

(B)  P is incorrect and Q is correct

(C)  Both P and Q are correct

(D)  Both P and Q are incorrect

Answer: (C)

103. Non-linear pharmacokinetics can be expected due to

(P) Enzyme induction

(Q) Active secretion

Choose the correct answer.

(A)  Both P and Q are true

(B)  P is true, Q is false

(C)  Q is true, P is false

(D)  Both P and Q are false

Answer: (A)

104. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?

(A)  Chick Martin test uses organic matter in media

(B)  The organism in Rideal-Walker test is S. typhi

(C)  Rideal-Walker test uses organic matter in media

(D)  The organism in Chick Martin test is S. typhi

Answer: (C)

105. Which of the following routes of administration of drugs is associated with Phlebitis?

(A)  Subcutaneous

(B)  Intravenous

(C)  Intraspinal

(D)  Intradual

Answer: (B)

106. Which microbe is used for validation of sterilization by filtration process?

(A)  Bacillus stearothermophilus

(B)  Pseudomonas diminuta

(C)  Bacillus subtilis

(D)  Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer: (A)

107. Which wavelength of the UV light provides maximum germicidal action?

(A)  253.7 nm

(B)  275.5 nm

(C)  283.5 nm

(D)  240.0 nm

Answer: (A)

108. Which of the following forces contribute to stability of charge-transfer complexes?

(A)  Resonance forces

(B)  Resonance and London dispersion forces

(C)  Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces

(D)  Resonance forces and dipole-dipole interactions

Answer: (D)

109. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements:

(P) Rheopexy is the phenomenon when a sol forms gel more readily when sheared gently.

(Q) In arheopectic system, sol is the equilibrium form.

(R) Rheopexy is a phenomenon when a sol forms gel when the material is kept at rest.

(A)  (R) is true but (P) and (Q) are false

(B)  (P) is true but (Q) and (R) are false

(C)  (P), (Q) and (R), all are false

(D)  (P), (Q) and (R), all are true

Answer: (B)

110. Molecules in the smectic liquid crystals are characterize by which one of the followings?

(A)  Mobility in three directions and rotation in one axis

(B)  Mobility in two directions and rotation in one axis

(C)  Mobility in two directions and no rotation

(D)  Mobility in three directions and no rotation

Answer: (B)

111. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following:

Assertion [A]: For a pharmaceutical powder true density is greater than the granule density.

Reason [R]: Mercury displacement used for determining granule density, allows penetration of liquid into internal pores of the particles.

(A)  [A] is true but [R] is false

(B)  Both [A] and [R] is false

(C)  Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct reason for [A]

(D)  Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is NOT the correct reason for [A]

Answer: (A)

112. Define Plasmapheresis? Choose the correct answer.

(A)  The process of collecting plasma and returning

(B)  The process of collecting red blood cells concentrate and returning the plasma to the donor

(C)  The process of separating white blood cells from blood

(D)  The process of generating artificial blood plasma expanders

Answer: (A)

113. Choose the correct sequence of Moisture Vapor Transmission Rate is packaging materials?

(A)  Paper > Aluminium foil > PVC > Pvdc

(B)  Aluminium foil > PVC > Pvdc > Paper

(C)  Aluminium foil > Pvdc > PVC > Paper

(D)  Paper > PVC > Pvdc > Aluminium foil

Answer: (C)

114. What will be the dose required to maintain therapeutic concentration of 20 microgram/ml for 24 hr of a drug exhibiting total clearance of 2 L/hr?

(A)  96 mg

(B)  480 mg

(C)  960 mg

(D)  48 mg

Answer: (C)

115. The Reynolds number widely used to classify flow behavior of fluids is the ratio of which one of the following?

(A)  Inertial forces to gravitational forces

(B)  Inertial force’s to viscous forces

(C)  Viscous forces to inertial forces

(D)  Viscous forces to gravitational forces

Answer: (B)

116. What for the baffles are provided in a shell and tube heat exchanger?

(A)  To increase turbulence

(B)  To decrease turbulence

(C)  To prevent corrosion

(D)  To increase shell side passes

Answer: (A)

117. Which statement is FALSE for Association Colloids?

(A)  They are also called amphiphiles

(B)  They contain aggregated molecules

(C)  They show partial solvation

(D)  They are also called micelles

Answer: (C)

118. What will be the time required for a drug exhibiting first order rate constant 4.6/hr to be degraded from initial concentration of 100 mg/ml to 10 mg/ml?

(A)  2 hr

(B)  4 hr

(C)  9 hr

(D)  0.5 hr

Answer: (D)

119. What will be the urine to plasma ratio of a weakly acidic drug having pKa of 5? [urine (pH = 5) plasma (pH = 7)]

(A)  1 : 101

(B)  1 : 201

(C)  2 : 101

(D)  1 : 202

Answer: (B)

120. If the distillation graph using McCabe Thiele method is parallel to X-axis, then the feed is which one of the followings?

(A)  Saturated liquid

(B)  Saturated vapor

(C)  Superheated liquid

(D)  Superheated vapor

Answer: (A)

121. S. O.S means which one of the followings?

(A)  Take occasionally

(B)  Take immediately

(C)  Take when necessary

(D)  Take as directed

Answer: (C)

122. Which of the following is NOT a reciprocating pump?

(A)  Plunger pump

(B)  Diaphragm pump

(C)  Gear pump

(D)  Piston pump

Answer: (C)

123. Hydrogen peroxide solution (20 volumes) is used topically as a mild antiseptic. It is mainly used for cleaning of wounds which could be due to some of the following actions of hydrogen peroxide.

(P) Astringent action

(Q) Nascent hydrogen releasing action

(R) Oxidizing action

(S) Mechanical cleansing action

Choose the correct statements for the use of hydrogen peroxide as cleaning agent for wounds ?

(A)  P & R

(B)  P & Q

(C)  R & Q

(D)  R & S

Answer: (A)

124. Boric acid a weak acid (pKa 9.19) which cannot be titrated with a standard solution of sodium hydroxide using phenolphthalein as indicator. This titration becomes possible on addition of glycerol due to one of the following reactions. Choose the correct reaction?

(A)  Boric acid becomes boronic acid on reaction with glycerol

(B)  Boric acid gives a monoprotic tetravalent boron ester with glycerol

(C)  Boric acid gives tribasic acid on reaction with glycerol

(D)  Two boric acid molecules combine to give an anhydride in presence of glycerol

Answer: (B)

125. A tooth paste contains stannous fluoride and calcium pyrophosphate along with other formulation constituents. Choose the correct statement out of the following?

(A)  Stannous fluoride is an anticaries agent while calcium pyrophosphate is a dentifrice

(B)  Stannous fluoride is  a dentifrice while calcium pyrophosphate is a desensitizing agent

(C)  Stannous fluoride is a desensitizing agent while calcium pyrophosphate is an anticaries agent

(D)  Both are dentifrices while calcium pyrophosphate is additionally a desensitizing agent

Answer: (A)

126. Magnesium trisilicate is considered to be a better antacid than aluminium hydroxide due to its following additional properties:

(P) It has a fixed chemical composition

(Q) If forms colloidal silicone dioxide
(R) Magnesium ions overcome constipation

(S) Magnesium ions cause higher inhibition of pepsin that aluminium ions Choose the correct combination of statements?

(A)  Q & S

(B)  R & S

(C)  P & Q

(D)  Q & R

Answer: (D)

127. An iron compound used as heamatinic agent must meet two requirements i.e., it should be biologically available and be non-irritating. Which one of the following compounds meet the above two requirements most closely?

(A)  Ferric chloride

(B)  Ferric ammonium sulphate

(C)  Ferric ammonium citrate

(D)  Ferrous thioglycollate

Answer: (B)

128. Diels-Alder reaction can be earned out in which of the following heterocylic compounds most readily?

(A)  Pyrrole

(B)  Thiophene

(C)  Furan

(D)  Pyridine

Answer: (C)

129. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [A] and Reason [R] :

Assertion (A): Quaternary ammonium phase transfer catalysts can enhance the rate of nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions in biphasic systems with water soluble nucleophiles.

Reason (R): Quaternary ammonium compounds are highly polar, positively charge water soluble compounds.

(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A)

(B)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

(C)  (A) is true (R) is false

(D)  Both (A) and (R) are false

Answer: (B)

130. Pyridine is more basic than pyrrole. This is due to which of the following facts?

(A)  Lone pair of electrons on N in pyrrole is localized

(B)  Lone pair of electrons on N in pyridine is localized

(C)  Nitrogen of pyrrole has one hydrogen atom attached to it while pyridine does not have any

(D)  Pyridine has three double bonds while pyrrole has only two

Answer: (B)

131. In nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions arrange the following leaving groups in decreasing order of their leaving capacity?

(P) Brosyl                      (Q) Hydroxyl

(R) Chloro                     (S) Mesyl

(A)  S > R >  P > Q

(B)  P > S > R > Q

(C)  R > Q > S > P

(D)  R > S > Q > P

Answer: (B)

132. Which one of the given compounds can be used as primary standard for standardization of perchloric acid solution in non-aqueous titrations?

(A)  Potassium hydrogen phthalate

(B)  Sodium bicarbonate

(C)  Potassium dihydrogen phosphate

(D)  Sodium methoxide

Answer: (A)

133. Following are the desirable properties of the liquid phase used in GLC EXCEPT for one of the followings. Identify that.

(A)  It should be inert to the analyse

(B)  It should have high viscosity at operating temperature

(C)  It should have low vapour pressure at the operating temperature

(D)  It should have a high resolving power

Answer: (B)

134. To synthesize sulphonylurea antidiabetics, which of the following reactions can be used?

(A)  Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonyl chloride with a desired urea derivative under basic conditions

(B)  Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonamide with a desired isocyanate derivative

(C)  Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonic acid with a desired isocyanate derivative

(D)  Reacting a suitably substituted sulphoxide with a desired urea derivative

Answer: (B)

135. In polarography, DME has a number of a advantages. One of the advantages is that mercury has large hydrogen over potential. It means which one of the followings?

(A)  Hydrogen ions get easily reduced on the DIME

(B)  Hydrogen gas gets easily reduced on the DME

(C)  Hydrogen ions require high potential to be reduced at DME

(D)  Water is difficult to get oxidized at DME

Answer: (A)

136. In HPLC analysis what type of column would you prefer?

(A)  A column with high HETP and high number of plates

(B)  A column with low HETP and low number of plates

(C)  A column with high HETP and low number of plates

(D)  A column with low HETP and high number of plates

Answer: (D)

137. In an optically active organic compound a chiral carbon has the following attached groups :

(P) -CO―CH3   (Q) -C―OH

(R) –CH = CH2 (S) –C = CH

Using ‘Sequence Rules’ choose the correct order of priority of the groups?

(A)  Q > P > S > R

(B)  P > Q > R > S

(C)  Q > P > R > S

(D)  P > Q > S > R

Answer: (A)

138. Which one is an example of a bulk property detector used in HPLC?

(A)  Fluorescence detector

(B)  Photo diode array detector

(C)  Refractive index detector

(D)  UV detector

Answer: (C)

139. A 250 jig/ml solution of drug gave an absorbance of 0.500 at 250 nm at path length of 10 mm. What is the specific absorbance of the drug at 250 nm?

(A)  0.002 cm-1gm-1 litre

(B)  0.002 cm-1gm-1 dl

(C)  20 cm-1gm-1 litre

(D)  20 cm 1 gm-1dl

Answer: (D)

140. Following statements are given for a chemical reaction: Change in Gibb’s free energy of the reaction has a negative value. Change in Enthalpy of the reaction has a negative value. Change in Entropy of the reaction has a positive value. Based on the above statements choose the correct answer.

(A)  The reaction is spontaneous.

(B)  The reaction is non-spontaneous.

(C)  The reaction could either be spontaneous or non-spontaneous.

(D)  The reaction can never be spontaneous

Answer: (A)

141. Which of the following statements is WRONG?

(A)  The energy required for removing an electron from a molecule varies in the given order : lone pair < conjugated n < n on conjugated n < a

(B)  Isotopic ratio particularly useful for the detection and estimation of number of S, Cl and Br atoms in the compounds in MS

(C)  Neutral fragments and molecules do not get detected in the detector in MS

(D)  The most intense peak in the MS is called the molecular ion peak

Answer: (D)

142. The Protons ortho to the nitro group in p-nitrotoluene are examples of which one of the following types?

(A)  Chemically equivalent but magnetically non-equivalent protons

(B)  Chemically and magnetically nonequivalent protons

(C)  Chemically and magnetically nonequivalent protons

(D)  Chemically nonequivalent but magnetically equivalent protons

Answer: (A)

143. The peak at m/z 91 in the mass spectrum for alkylbenzenes is due to which one of the followings?

(A)  Alpha fission

(B)  Mc-Laffartey rearrangement

(C)  Retro Diels-Alder rearrangement

(D)  Tropylium ion formation

Answer: (D)

144. Which one of the following is NOT bioisostearic pair:

(A)  Divalent ether (-0-) and amone (-N-H)

(B)  Hydroxyl (-OH) and thiol (-SH)

(C)  Carboxylate (CO2) and sulfone (SO2)

(D)  Hydrogen (-H) and fluorine (-F)

Answer: (A)

145. The catalytic triad in acetyl cholinesterase e is composed of which of the following amino acid residues?

(A)  Serine, Histidine and Glutamate

(B)  Serine, Arginine and Glutamate

(C)  Threonine, Histidine and Aspartate

(D)  Threonine, Arginine and Glutamate

Answer: (A)

146. Which of the following statements is true?

(A)  Aliphatic protons have chemical shifts > 7 ppm

(B)  Spin quantum number of proton is 1

(C)  Chemical shift describes electronic environment of a proton

(D)  Vicinal coupling constant is always higher than germinal coupling constant

Answer: (C)

147. Beta-Carboline ring system is present in:

(A)  Emetime

(B)  Riboflavine

(C)  Deserpidine

(D)  d-Tubocurarine

Answer: (C)

148. Of the four stereoisomers of chloramphenicol which one is the biologically active isomer?

(A)  L-Erythro

(B)  L-Threo

(C)  D-Erythro

(D)  D-Threo

Answer: (D)

149. Fajan’s method of titrimetric analysis involves detection of the end point on the basis of which one the followings?

(A)  Colour change

(B)  Appearance of a precipitate

(C)  Neutralization reaction

(D)  Adsorption Phenomenon

Answer: (A)

150. In FT-IR instruments Michaelson interferometer is used in place of grating. The function of the interferometer is to act as a modulator’. What do you understand by this statement?

(A)  The function of the interferometer is to act as  monochromator

(B)  The function of the interferometer is to convert high frequency radiations into low ones

(C)  The function of the interferometer is to convert low frequency radiations into high ones

(D)  The function of the interferometer is to convert frequency domain spectra into time domain spectra

Answer: (A)

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