Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017
Question Paper Name: Civil Engineering 12th Feb 2017 Session 1
Subject Name: Civil Engineering
Duration : 180
Total Marks: 100
1. The ordinates of a 2-hour unit hydrograph for a catchment are given as
The ordinate (in m3/s) of a 4-hour unit hydrograph for this catchment at the time of 3 h would be______
Ans: (15)
2. A uniformly distributed line load of 500 kN/m is acting on the ground surface. Based on Boussinesq’s theory, the ratio of vertical stress at a depth 2 m to that at 4 m, right below the line of loading, is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(C) 2.0
(D) 4.0
Ans: (C)
3. According to IS 456-2000, which one of the following statements about the depth of neutral axis χu, bal for a balanced reinforced concrete section is correct?
(A) χu, bal depends on the grade of concrete only.
(B) χu, bal depends on the grade of steel only.
(C) χu, bal depends on both the grade of concrete and grade of steel.
(D) χu, bal does not depend on the grade of concrete and grade of steel.
Ans: (B)
4. Group I lists the type of gain or loss of strength in soils. Group II lists the property or process responsible for the loss or gain of strength in soils.
Group I Group II
P. Regain of strength with time 1. Boiling
Q. Loss of strength due to cyclic loading 2. Liquefaction
R. Loss of strength due to upward seepage 3. Thixotropy
S. Loss of strength due to remolding 4. Sensitivity
The correct match between Group I and Group II is
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
Ans: (C)
5. A runway is being constructed in a new airport as per the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) recommendations. The elevation and the airport reference temperature of this airport are 535 m above the mean sea level and 22.65°C, respectively. Consider the effective gradient of runway as 1%. The length of runway required for a design-aircraft under the standard conditions is 2000 m. Within the framework of applying sequential corrections as per the ICAO recommendations, the length of runway corrected for the temperature is
(A) 2223 m
(B) 2250 m
(C) 2500 m
(D) 2750 m
Ans: (C)
6. A soil sample is subjected to a hydrostatic pressure, σ. The Mohr circle for any point in the soil sample would be
(A) a circle of radius σ and center at the origin
(B) a circle of radius σ and center at a distance σ from the origin
(C) a point at a distance σ from the origin
(D) a circle of diameter σ and center at the origin
Ans: (C)
7. The figure shows a two-hinged parabolic arch of span L subjected to a uniformly distributed load of intensity q per unit length.
The maximum bending moment in the arch is equal to
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
8. For a steady incompressible laminar flow between two infinite parallel stationary plates, the shear stress variation is
(A) linear with zero value at the plates
(B) linear with zero value at the center
(C) quadratic with zero value at the Plates
(D) quadratic with zero value at the centre
Ans: (B)
9. An elastic bar of length L, uniform cross sectional area A, coefficient of thermal expansion α, and Young’s modulus E is fixed at the two ends. The temperature of the bar is increased by T, resulting in an axial stress σ. Keeping all other parameters unchanged, if the length of the bar is doubled, the axial stress would be
(A) σ
(B) 2σ
(C) 0.5σ
(D) 0.25ασ
Ans: (A)
10. The number of parameters in the univariate exponential and Gaussian distributions, respectively, are
(A) 2 and 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 1
(D) 1 and 1
Ans: (B)
11. The wastewater form a city, containing a high concentration of biodegradable organics, is being steadily discharged into a flowing river at a location S. If the rate of aeration of the river water is lower than the rate of degradation of the organics, then the dissolved oxygen of the river water
(A) is lowest at the locations S.
(B) is lowest at a point upstream of the location S.
(C) remains constant all along the length of the river.
(D) is lowest at a point downstream of the location S.
Ans: (D)
12. The reaction rate involving reactants A and B is given by –k[A]α [B]β. Which one of the following statements is valid for the reaction to be first –order reaction?
(A) α = 0 and β = 0
(B) α = 1 and β = 0
(C) α = 1 and β = 1
(D) α = 1 and β = 2
Ans: (B)
13. A strip footing is resting on the ground surface of a pure clay bed having an undrained cohesion Cu. The ultimate bearing capacity of the footing is equal to
(A) 2πCu
(B) πCu
(C) (π + 1) Cu
(D) (π + 2)Cu
Ans: (D)
14. A simply supported beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed load. Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Maximum or minimum shear force occurs where the curvature is zero.
(B) Maximum or minimum bending moment occurs where the shear force is zero.
(C) Maximum or minimum bending moment occurs where the curvature is zero.
(D) Maximum bending moment and maximum shear force occur at the same section.
Ans: (B)
15. A triangular pipe network is shown in the figure.
The head loss in each pipe is given by hf = rQ1.8, with the variables expressed in a consistent set of units. The value of r for the pipe AB is 1 and for the pipe BC is 2. If the discharge supplied at the point A (i.e., 100) is equally divided between the pipes AB and AC, the value of r (up to two decimal places) for the pipe AC should be_______
Ans: (0.62)
16. 
Ans: (1)
17. A super-elevation e is provided on a circular horizontal curve such that a vehicle can be stopped on the curve without sliding. Assuming a design speed v and maximum coefficient of side friction fmax, which one of the following criteria should be satisfied?
(A) e ≤ fmax
(B) e > fmax
(C) no limit one e can be set
(D) 
Ans: (A)
18. Which one of the following is NOT present in the acid rain?
(A) HNO3
(B) H2SO4
(C) H2CO3
(D) CH3COOH
Ans: (D)
19. The accuracy of an Electronic Distance Measuring Instrument (EDMI) is specified as ±(a mm + b ppm). Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Both a and b remain constant, irrespective of the distance being measured.
(B) a remains constant and b varies in proportion to the distance being measured.
(C) a varies in proportion to the distance being measured and b remains constant.
(D) Both a and b vary in proportion to the distance being measured.
Ans: (B)
20. Consider the following partial differential equation:
For this equation to be classified as parabolic, the value of B2 must be_______
Ans: (36)
21. The matrix P is the inverse of a matrix Q. If I denotes the identity matrix, which one of the following options is correct?
(A) PQ = I but QP ≠ I
(B) QP = I but PQ ≠ I
(C) PQ = I and QP = I
(D) PQ – QP = I
Ans: (C)
22. Vehicles arriving at an intersection from one of the approach road follow the Poisson distribution. The mean rate of arrival is 900 vehicles per hour. If a gap is defined as the time difference between two successive vehicle arrivals (with vehicles assumed to be points), the probability (up to four decimal places) that the gap is greater than 8 seconds is______
Ans: (0.1354)
23. Let x be a continuous variable defined over the interval (−∞, ∞) and 
. The integral g(x) = ∫f(x) dx is equal to
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
Ans: (B)
24. The number of spectral bands in the Enhanced Thematic Mapper sensor on the remote sensing satellite Landsat-7 is
(A) 64
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 15
Ans: (C)
25. A 3 m thick clay layer is subjected to an initial uniform pore pressure of 145 kPa as shown in the figure.
For the given ground conditions, the time (in days, rounded to the nearest integer) required for 90% consolidation would be ________
Ans: (1770.833)
26. A planar truss tower structure is shown in the figure.
Consider the following statements about the external and internal determinacies of the truss.
(P) Externally Determinate
(Q) External Static Indeterminacy = 1
(R) External Static Indeterminacy = 2
(S) Internally Determinate
(T) Internal Static Indeterminacy = 1
(U) Internal Static Indeterminacy = 2
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) P-False; Q-True; R-False; S-False; T-False; U-True
(B) P-False; Q-True; R-False; S-False: T-True; U-False
(C) P-False; Q-False; R-True; S-False; T-False; U-True
(D) P-True; Q-True; R-False; S-True; T-False; U-True
Ans: (A)
27. Consider the stepped bar made with a linear elastic material and subjected to an axial load of 1 kN, as shown in the figure.
Segments 1 and 2 have cross-sectional are of 100 mm2 and 60 mm2, Young’s modulus of 2×105 MPa and 3 × 105 MPa, and length of 400 mm and 900 mm, respectively. The strain energy (in N-mm, up to one decimal place) in the bar due to the axial load is_____
Ans: (35)
28. Consider the beam ABCD shown in the figure.
For a moving concentrated load of 50 kN on the beam, the magnitude of the maximum bending moment (in kN-m) obtained at the support C will be equal to______
Ans: (200)
29. A column is subjected to a load through a bracket as shown in the figure.
The resultant force (in kN, up to one decimal place) in the bolt 1 is_____
Ans: (5.9 to 6.1)
30. The activity details of a project are given below:
The estimated minimum time (in days) for the completion of the project will be________
Ans: (51)
31. The value of M in the beam ABC shown in the figure is such that the joint B does not rotate.
The value of support reaction (in kN) at B should be equal to______
Ans: (60)
32. Two wastewater streams A and B, having an identical ultimate BOD are getting mixed to form the stream C. The temperature of the stream A is 20°C and the temperature of the stream C is 10°C. It is given that
• The 5-day BOD of the stream A measured at 20°C=50 mg/l
• BOD rate constant (base 10) at 20°C=0.115 per day
• Temperature coefficient = 1.135
The 5 –day BOD (in mg/l, up to one decimal place) of the stream C, calculated at 10°C, is______
Ans: (20.0 to 22.0)
33. A particle of mass 2 kg is travelling at a velocity of 1.5 m/s. A force f(t)=3t2 (in N) is applied to it in the direction of motion for a duration of 2 seconds, where t denotes time in seconds. The velocity (in m/s, up to one decimal place) of the particle immediately after the removal of the force is________
Ans: (5.5)
34. The queue length (in number of vehicles) versus time (in seconds) plot for an approach to a signalized intersection with the cycle length of 96 seconds is shown in the figure (not drawn to scale).
At time t = 0, the light has just turned red. The effective green time is 36 seconds, during which vehicles discharge at the saturation flow rate, s (in vph). Vehicles arrive at a uniform rate, v (in vph), throughout the cycle. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) v = 600 vph, and for this cycle, the average stopped delay per vehicle = 30 seconds
(B) s = 1800 vph, and for this cycle, the average stopped delay per vehicle = 28.125 seconds
(C) v = 600 vph, and for this cycle, the average stopped delay per vehicle = 45 seconds
(D) s = 1200 vph, and for this cycle, the average stopped delay per vehicle = 28.125 seconds
Ans: (B)
35. For the function f(x) = a + bx, 0 ≤ x ≤ 1, to be a valid probability density function, which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) a = 1, b = 4
(B) a = 0.5, b = 1
(C) a = 0, b = 1
(D) a = 1, b = −1
Ans: (B)
36. The infinite sand slope shown in the figure is on the verge of sliding failure. The ground water table coincides with the ground surface. Unit weight of water γw = 9.81 kN/m3.
The value of the effective angle of internal friction (in degrees, up to one decimal place) of the sand is ________
Ans: (34.335)
37. A sluice gate used to control the flow in a horizontal channel of unit width is shown in the figure.
It is observed that the depth of flow is 1.0 m upstream of the gate, while the depth is 0.2 m downstream of the gate. Assuming a smooth flow transition across the sluice gate, i.e., without any energy loss, and the acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2, the discharge (in m3/s, up to two decimal places) passing under the sluice gate is_______
Ans: (0.82)
38. Group I contains three broad classes of irrigation supply canal outlets. Group II presents hydraulic performance attributes.
The correct match of the items in Group I with the items in Group II is
(A) P-1; Q-2; R-3
(B) P-3; Q-1; R-2
(C) P-2; Q-3; R-1
(D) P-1; Q-3; R-2
Ans: (D)
39. Consider the matrix 
Which one of the following statements is TRUE for the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of this matrix?
(A) Eigenvalue 3 has a multiplicity of 2, and only one independent eigenvector exists.
(B) Eigenvalue 3 has a multiplicity of 2, and two independent eigenvectors exist.
(C) Eigenvalue 3 has a multiplicity of 2, and no independent eigenvector exists.
(D) Eigenvalues are 3 and -3, and two independent eigenvectors exist.
Ans: (A)
40. The laboratory test on a soil sample yields the following results: natural moisture content = 18%, liquid limit = 60%, plastic limit = 25%, percentage of clay sized fraction = 25%.
The liquidity index and activity (as per the expression proposed by skempton ) of the soil, respectively, are
(A) -0.2 and 1.4
(B) 0.2 and 1.4
(C) -1.2 and 0.714
(D) 1.2 and 0.714
Ans: (A)
41. The solution of the equation 
(A) Q(t) = e−t – 1
(B) Q(t) = 1 + e−t
(C) Q(t) = 1 – et
(D) Q(t) = 1 − e−t
Ans: (D)
42. Water flows through a 90° bend in a horizontal plane as depicted in the figure.
A pressure of 140 kPa is measured at section 1-1. The inlet diameter marked at section 1-1 is 
while the nozzle diameter marked at section 2-2 is 
Assume the following:
(i) Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s2.
(ii) Weights of both the bent pipe segment as well as water are negligible.
(iii) Friction across the bend is negligible.
The magnitude of the force (in kN, up to two decimal places) that would be required to hold the pipe section is______
Ans: (2.50 to 3.75)
43. A pre-tensioned rectangular concrete beam 150 mm wide and 300 mm depth is prestressed with three straight tendons, each having a cross-sectional area of 50 mm2, to an initial stress of 1200 N/mm2. The tendons are located at 100 mm from the soffit of the beam. If the modular ratio is 6, the loss of prestressing force (in kN, up to one decimal place) due to the elastic deformation of concrete only is ______.
Ans: (4.8)
44. The spherical grit particles, having a radius of 0.01mm and specific gravity of 3.0, need to be separated in a settling chamber. It is given that
• g = 9.81 m/s2
• the density of the liquid in the settling chamber = 1000 kg/m3
• the kinematic viscosity of the liquid in the settling chamber = 10−6 m2/s
Assuming laminar conditions, the settling velocity (in mm/s, up to one decimal place) is_____
Ans: (0.436)
45. The equivalent sound power level (in dB) of the four sources with the noise levels of 60 dB, 69 dB, 70 dB and 79 dB is_______
Ans: (79.9)
46. Consider the equation 
with u = 0 at t = 0. This is numerically solved by using the forward Euler method with a step size. ∆t = 2. The absolute error in the solution at the end of the first time step is_________
Ans: (8)
47. It is proposed to drive H-piles up to a depth of 7 m at a construction site. The average surface area of the H-pile is 3 m2 per meter length. The soil at the site is homogeneous sand, having an effective friction angle of 32°. The ground water table (GWT) is at a depth of 2 m below the ground surface. The unit weights of the soil above and below the GWT are 16 kN/m3 and 19 kN/m3, respectively. Assume the earth pressure coefficient, K= 1.0, and the angle of wall friction, δ =23°. The total axial frictional resistance (in kN, up to one decimal place) mobilized on the pile against the driving is________
Ans: (385.0 to 390.0)
48. The wastewater having an organic concentration of 54 mg/l is flowing at a steady rate of 0.8m3/day through a detention tank of dimensions 2m × 4m × If the contents of the tank are well mixed and the decay constant is 0.1 per day, the outlet concentration (in mg/l, up to one decimal place) is ______
Ans: (17.9 to 18.1)
49. The radius of a horizontal circular curve on a highway is 120 m. The design speed is 60 km/hour, and the design coefficient of lateral friction between the tyre and the road surface is 0.15. The estimated value of superelevation required (if full lateral friction is assumed to develop), and the value of coefficient of friction needed (if no superelevation is provided) will, respectively, be
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
Ans: (C)
50. Consider two axially loaded columns, namely, 1 and 2, made of a linear elastic material with Young’s modulus 2×105 MPa, square cross-section with side 10 mm, and length 1 m. For Column 1, one end is fixed and the other end is free. For Column 2, one end is fixed and the other end is pinned. Based on the Euler’s theory, the ratio (up to one decimal place) of the buckling load of Column 2 to the buckling load of Column 1 is ________
Ans: (8)
51. The observed bearings of a traverse are given below:
The stations(s) most likely to be affected by the local attraction is/are
(A) Only R
(B) Only S
(C) R and S
(D) P and Q
Ans: (A)
52. A 1 m wide rectangular channel has a bed slope of 0.0016 and the Manning’s roughness coefficient is 0.04. Uniform flow takes place in the channel at a flow depth of 0.5 m. At a particular section, gradually varied flow (GVF) is observed and the flow depth is measured as 0.6 m. The GVF profile at that section is classified as
(A) S1
(B) S2
(C) M1
(D) M2
Ans: (C)
53. A consolidated undrained 
triaxial compression test is conducted on a normally consolidated clay at a confining pressure of 100 kPa. The deviator stress at failure is 80 kPa, and the pore-water pressure measured at failure is 50 kPa. The effective angle of internal friction (in degrees, up to one decimal place) of the soil is_________
Ans: (26.4)
54. An effective rainfall of 2-hour duration produced a flood hydrograph peak of 200 m3/s. The flood hydrograph has a base flow of 20 m3/s. If the spatial average rainfall in the watershed for the duration of storm is 2 cm and the average loss rate is 0.4 cm/hour, the peak of 2-hour unit hydrograph (in m3/s-cm, up to one decimal place) is_________
Ans: (150)
55. The following observations are made while testing aggregate for its suitability in pavement construction:
i. Mass of oven-dry aggregate in air = 1000 g
ii. Mass of saturated surface-dry aggregate in air = 1025 g
iii. Mass of saturated surface-dry aggregate under water = 625 g
Based on the above observations, the correct statement is
(A) bulk specific gravity of aggregate = 2.5 and water absorption = 2.5 %
(B) bulk specific gravity of aggregate = 2.5 and water absorption = 2.4 %
(C) apparent specific gravity of aggregate = 2.5 and water absorption = 2.5%
(D) apparent specific gravity of aggregate = 2.5 and water absorption = 2.4 %
Ans: (A)
56. Consider the following sentences:
All benches are beds. No bed is a bulb. Some bulbs are lamps.
Which of the following can be inferred?
i. Some beds are lamps.
ii. Some lamps are beds
(A) Only i
(B) Only ii
(C) Both i and ii
(D) Neither i nor ii
Ans: (D)
57. The following sequence of numbers is arranged in increasing order: 1, x, x, x, y, y,9,16,18. Given that the mean and median are equal, and are also equal to twice the mode, the value of y is
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Ans: (D)
58. The bacteria in milk are destroyed when it _________ heated to 80 degree Celsius.
(A) would be
(B) will be
(C) is
(D) was
Ans: (C)
59. If the radius of a right circular cone is increased by 50%, its volume increases by
(A) 75%
(B) 100%
(C) 125%
(D) 237.5%
Ans: (C)
60. __________ with someone else’s email account is now very serious offence.
(A) Involving
(B) Assisting
(C) Tampering
(D) Incubating
Ans: (C)
61. Students applying for hostel rooms are allotted rooms in order of seniority. Students already staying in a room will move if they get a room in their preferred list. Preferences of lower ranked applicants are ignored during allocation.
Given the data below, which room will Ajit stay in?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
Ans: (B)
62. The bar graph below shows the output of five carpenters over one month, each of whom made different items of furniture: Chairs, tables, and beds.
Consider the following statements.
i. The number of beds made by carpenter C2 is exactly the same as the same as the number of tables made by carpenter C3.
ii. The total number of chairs made by all carpenters is less than the total number of tables.
Which one of the following is true?
(A) Only i
(B) Only ii
(C) Both i and ii
(D) Neither i nor ii
Ans: (C)
63. The last digit (2171)7 + (2172)9 + (2173)11 + (2174)13 is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Ans: (B)
64. Two machines M1 and M2 are able to execute any of four jobs P, Q, R and S. The machines can perform one job on one object at a time. Jobs P, Q, R and S take 30 minutes, 20 minutes, 60 minutes and 15 minutes each respectively. There are 10 objects each requiring exactly 1 job. Job P is to be performed on 2 objects. Job Q on 3 objects. Job R on 1 object and Job S on 4 objects. What is the minimum time needed to complete all the jobs?
(A) 2 hours
(B) 2.5 hours
(C) 3 hours
(D) 3.5 hours
Ans: (A)
65. The old concert hall was demolished because of fears that the foundation would be affected by the construction tried to mitigate the impact of pressurized air pockets created by the excavation of large amounts of soil. But even with these safeguards, it was feared that the soil below the concert hall would not be stable.
From this, one can infer that
(A) The foundations of old buildings create pressurized air pockets underground, which are difficult to handle during metro construction.
(B) Metro construction has to be done carefully considering its impact on the foundations of existing buildings.
(C) Old buildings in an area form an impossible hurdle to metro construction in that area.
(D) Pressurized air can be used to excavate large amounts of soil from underground areas.
Ans: (B)
Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates: