Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Textile Engineering and Fibre Science 4th Feb 2017

Subject Name: Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Duration : 180

Total Marks: 100

1. If the scalar projection of the vector on the vector is 5, then a value of β is equal to

(A) 21

(B) 9

(D) −6

Ans: (B)

2. The Laplace transform of e⁻^t cos(2t) is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (D)

3. If z(x, y) = x² – y², x(t) = t – t² and y(t) = t² + t⁻³ then at t = 1 is equal to ________

Ans: (3.99 to 4.01)

4. The characteristic observation in burning test of cotton fibre is

(A) Burns readily with whitish ash as residue

(B) Burns with dripping

(D) Melts and forms a hard bead

Ans: (A)

5. The given structure is a repeat unit of

(A) Cellulose acetate

(B) Cellulose

(D) Polyester

Ans: (B)

6. Which of the following is(are) bast fibre(s)

P. Cotton

Q. Flax

R. Silk

S. Jute

(A) P only

(B) Q and R only

(D) S only

Ans: (C)

7. During crystallization of polyester

(A) Heat is evolved

(B) Heat is absorbed

(D) Small molecule such as water is eliminated

Ans: (A)

8. Which of the following fibre(s) is(are) manufactured by melt spinning process

P. Viscose

Q. Cellulose acetate

R. Nylon-6

S. Aramid

(A) P only

(B) Q and R only

(D) R and S only

Ans: (C)

9. Keeping card production same, the quality of carding will improve by setting

(A) Higher doffer rpm and coarser sliver hank

(B) Higher doffer rpm and finer silver hank

(D) Lower doffer rpm and finer sliver hank

Ans: (B)

10. The tenacity of

P. Carded sliver

Q. First drawn sliver

R. Second drawn sliver

S. Combed sliver

follows the order

(A) P > Q > R > S

(B) S > R > Q > P

(D) Q > R > S > P

Ans: (A)

11. For a given yarn fineness, use of ring traveler of too small a mass gives

(A) Small balloon size but more yarn content on the bobbin

(B) Small balloon size but less yarn content on the bobbin

(D) Big balloon size but less yarn content on the bobbin

Ans: (D)

12. In cotton combing process, the counter-feed system gives

(A) Low removal of noil and low elimination of impurities

(B) Low removal of noil and high elimination of impurities

(D) High removal of noil and high elimination of impurities

Ans: (D)

13. Probability of warp breakage during weaving increases, when

(A) Warp extensibility is decreased

(B) Warp unevenness is decreased

(D) Warp hairiness is decreased

Ans: (A)

14. In terms of weft insertion rate, which of the following is correct?

(A) Airjet > Waterjet > Multiphase > Projectile

(B) Multiphase > Airjet > Waterjet > Projectile

(D) Waterjet > Projectile > Multiphase > Airjet

Ans: (B)

15. A tuck stitch in knitting makes the fabric

(A) Narrower

(B) Thinner

(D) Wider and porous

Ans: (D)

16. A perpendicular-laid nonwoven

(A) Should not contain thermoplastic fibre

(B) Does not form a 3-D structure

(D) Exhibits high recovery from compression

Ans: (D)

17. The cut squaring technique of sampling of fibres is NOT applicable to

(A) Bale

(B) Sliver

(D) Yarn

Ans: (A)

18. The ratio of wet-strength ot dry-strength of viscose fibre is

(A) Equal to one

(B) Always less than one

(D) Sometimes greater and sometimes less than one

Ans: (B)

19. Theoretical limit for mass irregularity (CV_lim) of a cotton yarn does NOT depend on

(A) Mean fibre length

(B) Mean firbe fitness

(D) Coefficient of variation of fibre fineness

Ans: (A)

20. Diamond bars appear in woven fabric due to

(A) Faulty loom parts

(B) Excessive warp irregularity

(D) Periodic fault in weft yarn

Ans: (D)

21. In a three-sigma control chart, the probability that a point falls outside the control limits, when a process is under control, is

(A) 0

(B) 0.0027

(D) 0.05

Ans: (B)

22. Shrinkage of cotton fabric during wetting is caused by

(A) Extension of fibre

(B) Crimpling of fibre

(D) Compression of fibre

Ans: (C)

23. Vapour-phase flame retardant agents are based on compound containing

(A) Nitrogen

(B) Phosphorus

(D) Aluminium

Ans: (C)

24. White specks observed in dyed cotton fabric are attributed to

(A) Poor wash fastness of dyes

(B) Non-uniform agitation of dye bath

(D) Presence of immature cotton fibres

Ans: (D)

25. Number of moles, accurate to one decimal place, required in 200 cm³ to make 0.5 mol l⁻¹ sodium hydroxide solution is _____

Ans: (0.09 to 0.11)

26. The median, accurate to two decimal places, of a random variable X with the probability density function is _______

Ans: (1.25 to 1.27)

27. Using Simpson’s 1/3 rule, the value of the integral accurate to two decimal places, is _____

Ans: (1.65 to 1.68)

28. If a solution curve of the differential equation passes through the point (1, 0), then this curve also passes through the point

(A) (−1, 0)

(B) (0, −1)

(D) (−2, 6)

Ans: (A)

29. The system of linear equations has

(A) No solution for α = 1, β = −8

(B) Unique solution for α = −1, β = 8

(D) Infinitely many solutions for α = 1, β = 8

Ans: (C)

30. The function f(x) = x³ – 3x² – 9x + 10 is

(A) Increasing in the interval (1, ∞)

(B) Increasing in the interval (−∞, 1)

(D) Decreasing in the interval (−3, 1)

Ans: (C)

31. Group I contains techniques of fibre manufacturing. Group II gives the physical phenomena associated with these techniques. Match the technique with the phenomenon

Group I

P. Melt spinning

Q. Wet spinning

R. Dry spinning

Group II

1. Diffusion of only solvent

2. Diffusion of both solvent and non-solvent

3. No solvent diffusion

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-2

(D) P-1, Q-3, R-2

Ans: (C)

32. The average molecular mass, in g/mol, of nylon-6 polymer, having average degree of polymerization of 100, is ______

(given S = 32 amu, N = 14 amu, O = 16 amu, C = 12 amu, H = 1 amu)

Ans: (11299 to 11370)

33. Group I consists of names of fibres. Group II gives characteristic structural features of these fibres. Match the fibre from Group I to its respective feature from Group II

Group I Group II

P. Cotton 1. Para- and ortho-cortex

Q. Jute 2. Primary and secondary wall

R. Wool 3. Fibroin β-sheets

S. Silk 4. Multicellular

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

Ans: (B)

34. Wool gives warmth because it has

P. A helical structure which can entrap air

Q. High heat of sorption

R. Low crystallinity

S. High extensibility

(A) P and Q only

(B) Q and R only

(D) P and R only

Ans: (A)

35. To obtain high molecular weight nylon-66, if 11.6 g of hexamethylene diamine (molecular weight 116 g/mol) is used, then the required amount of adipic acid (molecular weight 146 weight 146 g/mol), in gram, accurate to one decimal place, is _______

Ans: (14.5 to 14.7)

36. If the distance between two adjacent fibres of circular cross-section in a hexagonally packed yarn is equal to the radius of the fibre, then the packing density of yarn, accurate to three decimal places, is _______

Ans: (0.380 to 0.420)

37. A 30 tex open-end rotor yarn having 650 twist per meter is produced using 33 mm rotor diameter and 1,20,000 rotor rpm. The rotational speed of the peel-off point is ______× 10³ rpm

Ans: (121 to 123)

38. A bobbin lead roving frame is running at 25 m/min delivery speed and 1250 rpm spindle speed. The rotational speed of the bobbin, at the instant of 0.10 m bobbin diameter, accurate to two decimal places, is _____ rpm

Ans: (1327 to 1331)

39. A T-shirt is produced from cotton fibre of 1520 kg m⁻³ density, 1.4 dtex fineness and 30 mm length. The total number of fibres in the T-shirt of 0.15 kg is ______× 10⁶

Ans: (34 to 37)

40. Pilling resistance of

(A) Ring yarn is higher than open-end rotor yarn but lesser than air vortex yarn

(B) Air vortex yarn is higher than ring yarn but lesser than open-end rotor yarn

(D) Ring yarn is higher than air vortex yarn but lesser than open-end rotor yarn

Ans: (C)

41. A needle loom, having a needle board with 2000 needles/m, is operating at a stroke frequency of 2000 strokes/min and producing a needle-punched nonwoven fabric at 5m/min. The punch density, in number of punches per cm² is _______

Ans: (79 to 81)

42. Compared to conventional sizing, the wet sizing process reduces

(A) Size consumption substantially

(B) Consumption of drying energy

(D) Tensile strength of yarn

Ans: (A)

43. In a fabric, warp count is 25 tex, weft count is 32 tex, ends per cm is 25, picks per cm is 15, warp crimp is 6% and weft crimp is 8%. The areal density of the fabric, in g/m² accurate to two decimal places, is ______

Ans: (117.00 to 119.00)

44. Let a cheese of 160 mm traverse length be wound on a rotary traverse machine having a drum of 75 mm diameter and 2.5 crossings. If the drum rotates at 3250 rpm, then the coil angle, in degrees, accurate to one decimal place, is _______

Ans: (73.5 to 76.0)

45. Group I consists of weave designs. Group II lists end-use/property. Match the weave design from Group I with the corresponding end-use/property from Group II

Group I Group II

P. Leno 1. Furnishing

Q. Honeycomb 2. Broken and irregular surface

R. Jacquard 3. Mosquito net

S. Crepe 4. Towel

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Ans: (A)

46. At 65% relative humidity and 20℃ temperature, the moisture regain of the fibres

(P) Wool (Q) Nylon 6 (R) Cotton (S) Polyester

follows the order

(A) P > Q > R > S

(B) P > R > Q > S

(D) R > P > S > Q

Ans: (B)

47. While measuring tensile properties using Stelometer at 3.2 mm gauge length, a cotton fibre bundle of 15 mm length and 4.5 mg weight registers a breaking load of 6 kg. The bundle tenacity (g/tex) is _____

Ans: (19.9 to 20.1)

48. The tenacity of a two-fold yarn is 1.1 times the tenacity of its component single yarn. The breaking load of the two-fold yarn is X times the breaking load of its single component yarn. Neglecting length contraction due to twist, the value of X, accurate to one decimal place, is ______

Ans: (2.1 to 2.3)

49. The compressive pressure applied onto a fabric is inversely proportional to the cube of thickness of the fabric. If the thickness is halved during compression, then the pressure increase by _______ times.

Ans: (7.9 to 8.1)

50. The coefficient of correlation between packing density and porosity of a set of yarns is _______

Ans: (−1.01 to −0.99)

51. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]

Assertion : Jet dyeing machines yield level dyeing in short dyeing time

Reason : Jet dyeing machines use pressure jets to force dye into the fibre

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true, and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true, but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Ans: (D)

52. Group I lists chemical processes. Group II lists chemicals used in these processes. Match the process with the corresponding chemical

Group I Group II

P. Carbonising 1. Na₂CO₃

Q. Scouring 2. H₂SO₄

R. Bleaching 3. NaOH

S. Mercerising 4. H₂O₂

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Ans: (B)

53. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements

[p] The contact angle θ is indicated of the wetability of a textile surface by a liquid

[q] Values of θ > 90° indicate poor wetting surfaces

(A) Both [p] and [q] are true

(B) Both [p] and [q] are false

(D) [p] is false but [q] is true

Ans: (A)

54. The add-on of a chemical finish required on a fabric is 3% on-weight-of-fabric (owf). If the wet pick up is 80%, then the concentration of finish required in the padding bath, in % (wt/wt), accurate to two decimal places, is ______

Ans: (3.50 to 4.00)

55. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]

Assertion : Burnt out effect on polyester/cotton blend fabric can be obtained by printing

Reason : Printing paste contains a reagent that releases an acid during steaming

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Ans: (A)

56. He was one of my best __________ and I felt his loss _________.

(A) friend, keenly

(B) friends, keen

(D) friends, keenly

Ans: (D)

57. As the two speakers became increasingly agitated, the debate became __________.

(A) lukewarm

(B) poetic

(D) heated

Ans: (D)

58. A right – angled cone (with base radius 5cm and height 12cm), as shown in the figure below, is rolled on the ground keeping the point P fixed until the point Q (at the base of the cone, as shown) touches the ground again.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans: (D)

59. In a company with 100 employees, 45 earn Rs. 20,000 per month, 25 earn Rs. 30,000, 20 earn Rs. 40,000 8 earn Rs. 60,000, and 2 earn Rs. 150,000. The median of the salaries is

(A) Rs. 20,000

(B) Rs. 30,000

(D) Rs. 40,000

Ans: (B)

60. P,Q, and R talk about S’s car collection. P states that S has at least 3 cars. Q believes that S has less than 3 cars. R indicates that to his knowledge, S has at least one Car. Only one of P, Q and R is right the number cars owned by S is.

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) Cannot be determined

Ans: (A)

61. “Here, throughout the early 1820s, Stuart continued to fight his losing battle to allow his sepoys to wear their caste-marks and their own choice of facial hair on parade, being again reprimanded by the commander-in-chief. His retort that ‘A stronger instance than this of European prejudice with relation to this country has never come under my observations’ had no effect on his superiors.”

According to this paragraph, which of the statements below is most accurate?

(A) Stuart’s commander – in chief was moved by this demonstration of his prejudice.

(B) The Europeans were accommodating of the sepoys’ desire to weak their caste – marks.

(D) The commander– in – Chief was exempt from the European preiudice that dictated how the sepoys were to dress.

Ans: (C)

62. What is the sum of the missing digits in the subtraction problem below?

(A) 8

(B) 10

(D) Cannot be determined

Ans: (D)

63. Let S₁ be the plane figure consisting of the points (x,y) given by the inequalities |x – 1| ≤ 2 and |y + 2| ≤ Let S₂ be the plane figure given by the inequalities x – y ≥ −2, y ≥ 1, and x ≤ 3 Let S be the union of S₁ and S₂. The area of S is

(A) 26

(B) 28

(D) 34

Ans: (C)

64. Two very famous sportsmen Mark and Steve happened to be brothers, and played for country K. Mark teased James, an opponent from country E, “There is no way you are good enough to play for your country.’’ James replied, “Maybe not, but at least I am the best player in my own family.”

Which one of the following can be inferred from this conversation?

(A) Mark was known to play better than James

(B) Steve was known to play better than Mark

(D) James played better than Steve

Ans: (B)

65. The growth of bacteria (lactobacillus) in milk leads to curd formation. A minimum bacterial population density of 0.8(in suitable units) is needed to form curd. In the graph below, the population density of lactobacillus in 1 litre of milk is plotted as a function of time, at two different temperatures, 25°C and 37°C.

Consider the following statements based on the data shown above:

(i) The growth in bacterial population stops earlier at 37°C as compared to 25°C

(ii) The time taken for curd formation at 25°C is twice the time taken at 37°C

Which one of the following options is correct?

(A) Only i

(B) only ii

(D) Neither i nor ii

Ans: (A)

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