Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers Examination-2015 Question Paper With Answer Key

Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers Examination-2015

Reasoning

 

Directions (Qs. 1 to5): These questions consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.

1. Among five friends, A, B, C, D and E each studying in a different standard viz. 1st, 4th, 7th 8th, and 10th, in which standard does C study? (‘Junior’ in the statements implies a lower standard and ‘senior’ higher standard)

(I) B studies in a standard which is an odd number. C is B’s senior but does not study in 10th standard.

(II) Only three people are senior to A. B is senior to A but junior to C.

(a)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d)  The data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: (e)

2. Four fiends viz. P, Q, R and S are seated around a circular table. Some are facing the centre while some face outside (i.e. opposite to the centre). Which direction is R facing (centre or outside)?

(I) R sits second to left of S. R sits to immediate right of Q.

(II) Q sits to immediate right of R. P is an immediate neighbour of both R and S.

(a)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d)  The data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: (d)

3. Point M is in which direction with respect to point A?

(I) A person starts walking from point A, walks 5 m towards North and then takes a right turn and walks 8m. He then takes left turn and walks 8m. he then takes a left turn and walks for 3 m before stopping at point Z. Point M is 12 m away from Point Z.

(II) A person starts from Point A and walks 9 m towards the West. he then takes a right turn and walks 9 m towards the West. He then takes a right turn and walks 5 m. he then takes a final right turn and stops at point R after walking for 5 m. Point M is towards the North of point R.

(a)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d)  The data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: (a)

4. Is Q the father of A?

(I) M is the mother of A and B. C is the only sister of A. R is married to B. R is the daughter-in-law of Q.

(II) Q has only one daughter C. C is the sister of A and B. B is the son of M. R is the daughter-in-law of M.

(a)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d)  The data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

5. Six people are sitting in two parallel rows containing three people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, A, B and C are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, P, Q and R are seated and all of them are facing North. (Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.) Who amongst A, B and C faces R?

(I)  A faces the one who sits to immediate right of R.. A is not an immediate neighbour of C.

(II) Only one person sits between Q and P. The one who faces B sits to immediate left of Q.

(a)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d)  The data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: (b)

6. If all he vowels in the word ‘SAINTLY’ are rearranged in the alphabetical order from left of right, followed by the consonants in the alphabetical order from left to right, the position of which of the following five alphabets given below will remain unchanged?

(a)  S

(b)  T

(c)  L

(d)  A

(e)  Y

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 7 to 9): Read the information carefully and answer the given questions.

P @ Q means P is the father of Q.

P + Q means P is the husband of Q.

P $ Q means P is the brother of Q.

P % Q means P is the mother of Q.

P & Q means P is the sister of Q.

7. How is B related to E in this expression: ‘A @ B % C & D + E’?

(a)  Grandmother

(b)  Granddaughter

(c)  Mother-in-law

(d)  Aunt

(e)  Daughter-in-law

Answer: (c)

8. What should come in place of the question mark to establish that C is the aunt of E in the expression?

A % B + C & D ? E

(a)  $

(b)  &

(c)  +

(d)  Either + or &

(e)  Either @ or %

Answer: (e)

9. Which among the following options is true if the expression ‘A + B & C @ D % E $ F’ is definitely true?

(a)  E is the sister-in-law of A.

(b)  F is the daughter-in-law of C.

(c)  B is the aunt of D.

(d)  A is the uncle of E.

(e)  C is the uncle of A.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 10 to 15) : In these questions two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

10. Statements:

All drivers are swimmers. Some swimmers are athletes. No athlete is a banker.

Conclusion I: All swimmer being bankers is a possibility.

Conclusion II: No driver is a banker.

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true.

(c)  Only conclusion II is true.

(d)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e)  Only conclusion I is true.

Answer: (d)

11. Statements :

All frogs are amphibians. Some turtles are amphibians. All turtles are reptiles.

Conclusion I : At least some amphibians are reptiles.

Conclusion II : No frog is a turtle.

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true.

(c)  Only conclusion II is true.

(d)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e)  Only conclusion I is true.

Answer: (e)

12. Statements:

All kings are warriors. Some dukes are kings.

Conclusion I : All kings are dukes.

Conclusion II : At least some dukes are warriors.

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true.

(c)  Only conclusion II is true.

(d)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e)  Only conclusion I is true.

Answer: (c)

13. Statements:

Some plants are trees. All trees are weeds. All weeds are shrubs.

Conclusion I: All  plants are weeds.

Conclusion II: Some plants are weeds.

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true.

(c)  Only conclusion II is true.

(d)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e)  Only conclusion I is true.

Answer: (c)

14. Statements :

All frogs are amphibians. Some turtles are amphibians. All turtles are reptiles.

Conclusion I: All frogs being turtles is a possibility.

Conclusion II: No reptile is a frong.

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true.

(c)  Only conclusion II is true.

(d)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e)  Only conclusion I is true.

Answer: (e)

15. Statements:

Some plants are trees. All trees are weeds. All weeds are shrubs.

Conclusion I: All trees are shrubs.

Conclusion II: All shrubs being plants is a possibility.

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true.

(c)  Only conclusion II is true.

(d)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e)  Only conclusion I is true.

Answer: (b)

16. It is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the third, fourth, seventh and the eighth letters of the word ‘VIDEOGRAPHY’, which would be the second letter of that word from the right end? If more than one such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give Z as your answer.

(a)  A

(b)  R

(c)  D

(d)  X

(e)  Z

Answer: (d)

Directions (Qs. 17 to 22) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

17. Statements:

M ≥ O ≥ L ≥ T = E ≥ D

Conclusion I: D ≤ O

Conclusion II: M ≥ E

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true.

(c)  Only conclusion II is true.

(d)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e)  Only conclusion I is true.

Answer: (b)

18. Statements:

B < C = D ≤ X ≤ Y < Z

Conclusion I: B < X

Conclusion II: Z ≤ C

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true.

(c)  Only conclusion II is true.

(d)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e)  Only conclusion I is true.

Answer: (e)

19. Statement:

R < O ≤ L ≤ E; G = E ≥ S; P ≤ S

Conclusion I: R > P

Conclusion II: P ≤ E

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true.

(c)  Only conclusion II is true.

(d)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e)  Only conclusion I is true.

Answer: (c)

20. Statement:

M ≥ O ≥ L ≥ T = E ≥ D

Conclusion I: T < O

Conclusion II: T = O

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true.

(c)  Only conclusion II is true.

(d)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e)  Only conclusion I is true.

Answer: (a)

21. Statement:

S ≤ P ≤ A = R > E ≤ D

Conclusion I: A > D

Conclusion II: S ≤ E

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true.

(c)  Only conclusion II is true.

(d)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e)  Only conclusion I is true.

Answer: (d)

22. Statement:

R < O ≤ L ? ≤ E; G = E ≥ S; P ≤ S

Conclusion I: O < G

Conclusion II: G = O

(a)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(b)  Both conclusions I and II are true.

(c)  Only conclusion II is true.

(d)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e)  Only conclusion I is true.

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 23 & 24) : In these questions two statement A and B are given. Study both the statements carefully and select the best option gives the relation between two statements

23. Statement A:

In the past few y ears, enrolment in Government schools of country Matino has declined from 133.7 million to 121 million per year, while enrolment in private schools has increased from 51 million to 78 million per year.

Statement B:

Due to lack of funds, Government schools of Matino are unable to hire  properly trained teachers who would be able to provide good learning environment to the students.

(a)  Statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.

(b)  Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

(c)  Statement (A) is the cause and Statement (B) is its effect.

(d)  Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.

(e)  Both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.

Answer: (a)

24. Statement A:

The IT resources of company X are often measured by its employees which sometimes creates unwanted risk and liabilities for the company:

Statement B:

Company X will be monitoring online activities of its employees on official computers and may block content which it feels may adversely affect the productivity of the employees.

(a)  Statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.

(b)  Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

(c)  Statement (A) is the cause and Statement (B) is its effect.

(d)  Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.

(e)  Both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 25 to 30) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

   Eight persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table with equal distance between each other, facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them belongs to a different profession viz. Manager, Engineer, Chief, Pilot, Lawyer, Doctor, Architect and Teacher but not necessarily in the same order.

    V sits second to the right of the Manager. The Pilot and the Engineer are the immediate neighbours of V. R sits second to the right of T who is Lawyer. T is an immediate neighbour of the Pilot. Only one person sits between W and U. S sits third to the left of T. P sits exactly between U and S. The Architect sits second to the left of P. The Chef and the Teacher are immediate neighbours of the Architect. W is not Teacher.

25. Who among the following is a doctor?

(a)  R

(b)  V

(c)  Other than those given as options

(d)  W

(e)  P

Answer: (b)

26. Who sits exactly between R and the manager, when counted from the right of R?

(a)  W

(b)  T

(c)  Q

(d)  S

(e)  U

Answer: (e)

27. Which of the following statements is not true as per the given information?

(a)  R is a Chef.

(b)  P and V are immediate neighbours of S.

(c)  All the given statements are true.

(d)  Only three persons sit between U and Q.

(e)  S is an Engineer.

Answer: (a)

28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?

(a)  SU

(b)  RW

(c)  TQ

(d)  PU

(e)  VS

Answer: (a)

29. Who sits second to the right of Q?

(a)  S

(b)  P

(c)  Other than those given as options

(d)  W

(e)  U

Answer: (d)

30. If all the persons are made to sit in the alphabetical order in clockwise direction starting from P, the position of how many of them will remain unchanged (excluding P)?

(a)  Three

(b)  One

(c)  Two

(d)  Four

(e)  None

Answer: (a)

31. This question consists of an information followed by two statements numbered I and II.

The travel authorities of country Talong have eased the process of acquiring visa for the tourists.

Statement  I:

The economy of country Talong is more dependent on Tourism industry than any other

Statement II:

Students will be encouraged to go for higher studies to Talong.

Which of the given two statements can be inferred about the given information? (An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts.)

(a)  Neither I nor II can be inferred from the given information.

(b)  Both I and II can  be inferred from the given information.

(c)  Either I or II can  be inferred from the given information.

(d)  Only I can be inferred from t he given information.

(e)  Only II can be inferred from the given information.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Qs. 32 & 33) : Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

   In a class, Sameer’s rank is 10th from the top and Anjali’s rank is 4th from the top. Among girls, Anjali’s ran is 3rd from the top and 7th from the bottom. Among boys, Sameer’s rank is 5th from the top and 21st from the bottom.

32. What is the total number of students in that class?

(a)  43

(b)  30

(c)  34

(d)  39

(e)  36

Answer: (c)

33. How many boys and girls are in between Sameer and Anjali?

(a)  Four Boys, two Girls

(b)  Two  Boys, four Girls

(c)  Three Boys, two Girls

(d)  Two Boys, two Girls

(e)  Two Boys, three Girls

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 34 to 39): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

   Seven people – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a straight line with equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing North and some are facing South.

   Only two people are sitting to the left of V. Only two people sit between V and Q. P sits second to the left of Q. The immediate neighbours of P face opposite directions (i.e. if one of the neighbours faces South then the other faces North and vice-versa). Only one person sits between P and R. U sits third to the left of R. S is not an immediate neighbour of Q. Both the immediate neighbours of R face the same direction (i.e. if one neighbour faces South then the other neighbour also faces South and vice-versa). P faces the same direction as that of R. T faces North. Q sits to the immediate left of T.

34. Who among the following sits exactly between V and the one who is sitting to the immediate left of Q?

(a)  P

(b)  R

(c)  Other than those given as options

(d)  T

(e)  U

Answer: (a)

35. Who amongst the following sits exactly in the middle of the line?

(a)  S

(b)  P

(c)  U

(d)  T

(e)  R

Answer: (b)

36. Which of the following statements is TRUE as per the given information?

(a)  S faces South.

(b)  V sits third to the left of Q.

(c)  None of the given options is true.

(d)  S sits exactly between R and P.

(e)  U sits to the immediate right of P.

Answer: (b)

37. Which of the following pairs represent the people sitting at the two extreme ends of the line?

(a)  QR

(b)  Other than those given as options

(c)  TU

(d)  SQ

(e)  ST

Answer: (e)

38. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of S?

(a)  U

(b)  V

(c)  Q

(d)  Other than those given as options

(e)  P

Answer: (b)

39. Which of the following pairs represent the immediate neighbours of Q?

(a)  TU

(b)  QP

(c)  PR

(d)  TV

(e)  VU

Answer: (a)

Direction (Qs. 40 to 44) : Read the given information and answer the given questions.

    Eight people S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z live on separate floors of an 8-floor building. Ground floor is numbered 1, first floor is numbered 2 and so an until the topmost floor is numbered 8.

• Y lives of floor numbered 1. Only two people live between Y and T.

• S lives immediately above X. S lives on an even numbered floor.

•  Only one person lives between X and W. X lives above W.

• Z lives on an odd-numbered floor above S.

• V does not live on the topmost floor.

40. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

(a)  Only one person lives between T and X.

(b)  Only two people live between T and U.

(c)  W lives immediately above Y.

(d)  Z lives on floor numbered 7.

(e)  U lives on an odd-numbered floor.

Answer: (d)

41. Who amongst the following lives between U and S?

(a)  Z

(b)  V

(c)  T

(d)  W

(e)  No one

Answer: (a)

42. Who among the following live on floor number 5?

(a)  U

(b)  X

(c)  V

(d)  T

(e)  Z

Answer: (b)

43. Who lives on the floor immediately below T?

(a)  S

(b)  Other than those given as options

(c)  Y

(d)  Z

(e)  W

Answer: (e)

44. How many people live between the floors on which Z and T live?

(a)  More than three

(b)  Three

(c)  No one

(d)  One

(e)  Two

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 45 to 49): Study the information to answer the given questions.

    In a certain code language,

    ‘many residents of city’ is written as ‘ja nu pa la’

    ‘city with many choices’ is written as ‘ko la nu si’

     ‘choices made by residents’ is written as ‘pa mx ko tr’

     ‘made good choices here’ is written as ‘vk rpt r ko’

      (All the codes are two-letter codes only)

45. What is the code for ‘with’ in the given code language?

(a)  si

(b)  la

(c)  ko

(d)  tr

(e)  nu

Answer: (a)

46. What is the code for ‘made by resident’s in the given code language?

(a)  mx pa tr

(b)  ko mx pa

(c)  tr mx ko

(d)  la pa tr

(e)  mx tr vk

Answer: (a)

47. What is the code for ‘choices’ in the given code language?

(a)  ko

(b)  vk

(c)  la

(d)  nu

(e)  si

Answer: (a)

48. Which of the following may represent ‘here for good’ in the given code language?

(a)  la rp wq

(b)  xz vk si

(c)  rp uy vk

(d)  vk rp ja

(e)  vk rp la

Answer: (c)

49. What does the code ‘nu’ stand for in the given code language?

(a)  of

(b)  Either ‘city’ or ‘many’

(c)  with

(d)  Either ‘city’ or ‘good’

(e)  good

Answer: (b)

50. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘MACHINERY’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both the forward and backward directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(a)  Three

(b)  Two

(c)  None

(d)  Five

(e)  More than three

Answer: (a)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Directions (Qs. 1 to 5) : In these questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option.

1. I. 2x2 – x – 10 = 0

II. 2y2 – y – 21 = 0

(a)  x < y

(b)  x > y

(c)  x ≤ y

(d)  x ≥ y

(e)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established

Answer: (e)

2. I. 2x2 + 11x + 15 = 0

II. 4y2 + 22y + 24 = 0

(a)  x < y

(b)  x > y

(c)  x ≤ y

(d)  x ≥ y

(e)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established

Answer: (e)

3. I. 2x2 + 9x + 9 = 0

II. 2y2 + 17y + 36 = 0

(a)  x < y

(b)  x > y

(c)  x ≤ y

(d)  x ≥ y

(e)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established

Answer: (b)

4. I. 3x2 – 22x + 40 = 0

II. 2y2 – 19y + 44 = 0

(a)  x < y

(b)  x > y

(c)  x ≤ y

(d)  x ≥ y

(e)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established

Answer: (d)

5. I.3x2 – 16x + 21 = 0

II. 3y2 – 28y + 65 = 0

(a)  x < y

(b)  x > y

(c)  x ≤ y

(d)  x ≥ y

(e)  Relationship between x and y cannot be established

Answer: (a)

6. A merchant buys two items for Rs. 7500. One item he sells at a profit of 16% and the other item at 14% loss. In the deal the merchant makes neither any profit nor any loss. What is the difference between selling price of both the items? (in Rupees)

(a)  625

(b)  610

(c)  620

(d)  630

(e)  615

Answer: (c)

7. There was 120 litres of pure milk in a vessel. Some quantity of milk was taken out and replaced with 23 litres of water in such a way that the resultant ratio between the quantities of milk and water in the mixture was 4 : 1 respectively. Again 23 litres of the mixture was taken out and replaced with 27 litres of water. What is the respective ratio of milk and water in the resultant mixture?

(a)  58 : 37

(b)  116 : 69

(c)  69: 43

(d)  101 : 37

(e)  53 : 23

Answer: (*)

Directions (Qs. 8 to 12): Refer to the pie charts and answer the given questions.

8. If the respective ratio between total number of make professors and total number of female professors is 9 : 16 and the respective ratio between total number of male Assistant Professors and total number of female Assistant Professors is 9 : 11, what is the total number of female Professors and Assistant Professors teaching the given six subjects in University ‘X’?

(a)  63

(b)  90

(c)  77

(d)  73

(e)  87

Answer: (e)

9. What is the central angle corresponding to the total number of Professors and Assistant Professors teaching Hindi?

(a)  46.8°

(b)  50.4°

(c)  43.2°

(d)  39.6°

(e)  45.2°

Answer: (c)

10. What percent professors are teaching Psychology and Sociology together out of the total number of Professors and Assistant Professors teaching these two subjects together?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (a)

11. The total number of Assistant Professors teaching Economics and English together are what percent more than the total number of Professors teaching these two subjects together?

(a)  138

(b)  145

(c)  130

(d)  142

(e)  140

Answer: (e)

12. What is the average number of Professors teaching Computer Science, Psychology, English and Sociology?

(a)  9

(b)  8

(c)  10

(d)  11

(e)  17

Answer: (a)

13. 15 years ago the average age of a family of four members was 40 years. Two children were born in that span of 15 years. The p resent average age of the family remained unchanged. Among the two children who were born in between the 15 years. If the older child at present is 8 years more than the younger one, what is the respective ratio between the present age of the older child and the present age of the younger child?

(a)  9 : 4

(b)  7 : 3

(c)  7 : 6

(d)  7 : 4

(e)  9 : 5

Answer: (b)

Directions (Qs. 14 to 18) : These questions consist of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropriate option.

14. What is definitely the value of ‘x’?

(I) The value of  is equal to 0.

(II) The value of 3x – 2 ∙ 92x – 3 is equal to 95x – 19

(a)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(d)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

15. An item was sold after giving a certain discount on the marked price. What was the percentage of discount given?

(I) The profit earned after giving the discounts is 44%. Had the percentage of discount been doubled the profit

(II) The cost price of the item is Rs. 400.

(a)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(d)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

16. What is the respective ratio of initial investments of A and B?

(I) A started the business by investing a certain amount and he invested for the whole year. B joined A after 4 months from the start of the business and invested for the rest of the year.

(II) The initial investment of B was Rs. 10,800.

(a)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(d)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

17. How much will the boat take to cover a distance of 63 km upstream?

(I) The difference between the time taken by the boat to travel from A to B (upstream) and time taken by it to travel from B to A (downstream) is 2 hours.

(II) The distance between A and B is 45 km and speed of the boat in still water is 12 kmph.

(a)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(d)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

18. There are two cylindrical rollers- bigger and smaller roller. How many rotations will the bigger roller take to flatten a stretch of land (X)?

(I) The respective ratio of the radii of the bigger and the smaller roller is 7 : 3. Both the rollers are of the same length.

(II) The smaller roller takes 63 rotations to flatten the stretch of land (X).

(a)  The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(d)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

19. A man takes  as long to row a distance upstream as to row the same distance downstream. What is the speed of the boat in still water  if it takes 3 hours to travel 38.4 km downstream? (in km/h)

(a)  11

(b)  10

(c)  12.4

(d)  12

(e)  14

Answer: (b)

20. In a company ‘XYZ’, the respective ratio between the total number of under-graduate employees and the total number of graduate employees is 13 : 23. The company has only two branches, one in Mumbai and one in Delhi. If the total number of under-graduate employees in Mumbai branch is 351, which is 30% of the total undergraduate employees in the company, what is the total number of graduate employee in the company?

(a)  2185

(b)  1955

(c)  2070

(d)  2360

(e)  2150

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 21 to 25) : Which of the following will come in place of the question mar (?) in the given questions?

21. (30.06% of 560.14 + 53.02% of 1100) / 8 = ?

(a)  78

(b)  94

(c)  99

(d)  81

(e)  85

Answer: (b)

22. ? × 5 × 4.92 – 13.13 × 4.02 × 4 = 117

(a)  18

(b)  13

(c)  7

(d)  21

(e)  9

Answer: (b)

23. (9117.88 – 8021.85 + 903.92) × 12 = 1500 × ?

(a)  12

(b)  8

(c)  16

(d)  22

(e)  4

Answer: (c)

24. 

(a)  729

(b)  1849

(c)  2209

(d)  1369

(e)  1039

Answer: (e)

25. 95 × 5.04 + 237 – 302.11 = ?

(a)  5125

(b)  5000

(c)  5035

(d)  5005

(e)  5085

Answer: (c)

26. What is the difference between the total number of cars manufactured in countries A and B together and the total number of cars manufactured in country C and D together?

(a)  10000

(b)  12000

(c)  15000

(d)  6000

(e)  10500

Answer: (a)

27. Total number of cars sold in countries A and B together form what percent of the total cars manufactured by all the countries together in that particular quarter?

(a)  30

(b)  35

(c)  40

(d)  32

(e)  38

Answer: (b)

28. What is the total number of cars which remained unsold in the given quarter in the countries C & E together?

(a)  2400

(b)  3400

(c)  3650

(d)  3800

(e)  3600

Answer: (e)

29. What is the respective ratio between sales (in rupees) of the total number of cars sold in country D and the sales (in rupees) of the total number of cars sold in country E?

(a)  55 : 47

(b)  52 : 47

(c)  53 : 44

(d)  55 : 42

(e)  52 : 45

Answer: (d)

30. If the cost for manufacturing a car in country C is Rs. 4,50,000, what is the percent profit earned by the company, on which car sold, in the same company?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (e)

31. Number of elephants in reserve A increased by what percent from 2001 to 2005?

(a)  56.5

(b)  62.5

(c)  68.5

(d)  54.5

(e)  58.5

Answer: (b)

32. What is the average number of elephants in reserve B during 2001, 2003, 2005 and 2006?

(a)  46

(b)  56

(c)  51

(d)  53

(e)  49

Answer: (b)

33. Out of the total number of elephants in reserves A and B together in 2002 only 40% were African elephants and out of the total number of elephants in reserves A and B together in 2004 only 65% were African elephants. What is the difference between total number of African elephants in reserves A and B together in 2002 and total number of African elephants in reserves A and B together in 2004?

(a)  37

(b)  47

(c)  43

(d)  41

(e)  55

Answer: (c)

34. What is the respective ratio between total number of elephants in reserve A in 2003 and 2006 together and total number of elephants in reserve B in 2005 and 2006 together?

(a)  17 : 18

(b)  23 : 24

(c)  11 : 14

(d)  9 : 14

(e)  11 : 12

Answer: (e)

35. Number of elephants in reserve A decreased by 25% from 2006 to 2007 and number of elephants in reserve B increased by 15% from 2006 to 2007. What was the total number of elephants in reserves A and B together in 2007?

(a)  172

(b)  164

(c)  158

(d)  174

(e)  166

Answer: (b)

36. There are two garbage disposal rectangular tanks, A and B with lengths 12 m and 15 m respectively in a square field. If the total area of the square field excluding the rectangular tanks is 360 sq. m. and the breadth of both the rectangular tanks is 1/3 of the side of the square field, what is the perimeter of the square field? (in m.)

(a)  92

(b)  84

(c)  96

(d)  78

(e)  72

Answer: (c)

37. Raman took a loan of Rs. 15,000 from Laxmna. It was agreed that for the first three years rate of interest charged would be at 8% simple interest per annum and at 10% compound interest (compounded annually) from the fourth year onwards. Ram did not pay anything until the end of the fifth year. How much would be repay if he clears the entire amount, only at the end of fifth year? (in Rupees)

(a)  22,506

(b)  22,105

(c)  22,900

(d)  22,500

(e)  22,450

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 38 to 42) : Study the information carefully to answer these questions.

    Sidhartha has decided to start a new company ‘Sidhartha Travels’. He wants to buy some furniture – table, chair, air conditioners. He also wants to buy a few desktops which will include monitor, CPU, keyboard and mouse. The cost of each table is 13.5 times the cost of a mouse and the cost of a table. The cost of an air conditioner is 5 times the cost of a chair.

   The cost of a monitor is 20% more than the cost of a chair, a CPU costs Rs. 1500 more than a table and the keyboard costs 4 times a mouse. The cost of a mouse is Rs. 1000.

38. What will be the total cost of 1 table and 2 chairs together?

(a)  Rs. 23,200

(b)  Rs. 28,800

(c)  Rs. 29,700

(d)  Rs. 24,700

(e)  Rs. 21,300

Answer: (e)

39. What is the respective ratio between the cost of a CPU and the total cost of a mouse and a keyboard together?

(a)  3 : 2

(b)  4 : 1

(c)  3: 1

(d)  5 : 1

(e)  5 : 3

Answer: (c)

40. If the cost of a keyboard and mouse increases by 20% and 15%, respectively, what will be the total cost of a desktop (given that the cost of CPU and Monitor the same)?

(a)  Rs.36,930

(b)  Rs. 32,640

(c)  Rs. 34,753

(d)  Rs. 30,670

(e)  Rs. 35,425

Answer: (d)

41. Sidharth bought 1 table,, 1 chair and 1 desktop for himself. What was the total cost incurred by him?

(a)  Rs. 53,400

(b)  Rs. 51,460

(c)  Rs. 50,640

(d)  Rs. 55,440

(e)  Rs. 51,320

Answer: (e)

42. It was initially decided that 4 air conditioners will be installed but later only 3 air conditioners and a fan were installed. If the cost of a fan is 1/10th of the cost of air conditioner, what was the total cost incurred?

(a)  Rs. 1,29,400

(b)  Rs. 1,24,500

(c)  Rs. 1,25,550

(d)  Rs. 1,24,350

(e)  Rs. 1,25,600

Answer: (c)

43. Prem and Shyam decide to go on a trip to point Y on a particular day from point X. Prem leaves for point Y at 11:00 am, at speed of 72 km/hour. Shyam leaves for point Y at 11:30 same day as Prem left. At what speed should Shyam travel to catch up with Prem in 4 hours ? (in km/hour)

(a)  85

(b)  81

(c)  80

(d)  82

(e)  86

Answer: (b)

Directions (Qs. 44 to 48) : What will come in place of questions mark (?) in the given number series?

44. 2  12.9   9.5     14.6   7.8     ?

(a)  17.9

(b)  16.3

(c)  16.7

(d)  16.2

(e)  16.9

Answer: (b)

45. 8  5        9        5   61      ?

(a)  184

(b)  181.5

(c)  192.5

(d)  177.5

(e)  172.5

Answer: (d)

46. 7   9        24      84      ?        1810

(a)  336

(b)  356

(c)  348

(d)  340

(e)  352

Answer: (b)

47. 11   27      48      84      145    ?

(a)  241

(b)  239

(c)  263

(d)  257

(e)  229

Answer: (a)

48. 257, 226,   197,   170,   ?

(a)  170

(b)  180

(c)  153

(d)  165

(e)  145

Answer: (e)

49. ‘A’ began a small business with a certain amount of money. After four months from the start of the business. ‘B’ joins the business with an amount which is Rs. 6,000 less than ‘A’s’ initial investment. ‘C’ joins the business after seven months from the start of business with an amount with is Rs. 2,000 less than A’s initial investment. At the end of the year total investment reported was Rs. 1,42,000, what will be A’s share? (in Rupees)

(a)  48,000

(b)  46,500

(c)  46,000

(d)  42,000

(e)  48,500

Answer: (a)

50. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, how much time is taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work?

(a)  4 days

(b)  5 days

(c)  6 days

(d)  7 days

(e)  8 days

Answer: (a)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Qs. 1 to 15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer these questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions

    In general, before the financial crisis of 2008, the financial sector the word over had been steadily liberalizing. Limits on foreign ownership of banks and on the kinds of transactions they were able to engage in were being lifted. Rich countries were deregulating faster than others. Banks were given greater leeway on how much capital they should hold and how much risk they should take on. But banks the world over did not maintain adequate capital cushions and balance sheets showed inflated profits. In 1999, America also repealed the Glass Staegall Act – a 1930s Depression era law separating investment and commercial banking without bothering about the threat to the economy.

   ‘Restrictions are a sign of backwardness’. But the resulting crisis of 2008 put an end to this belief. Banking supervisors in many developing countries said that tight regulations saved them from getting into trouble. Under the old rules supervisors were simply referees trying to ensure that the game was played fairly. Now regulators have gone from saying ‘tell me that all your payment systems work’ to saying ‘show me how your payment systems work’. Regulators are now tentatively stepping over a long standing divide between enforcing basic rules and playing a part in business decisions. This shift is particularly marked in Britain which once championed ‘light touch regulation’. This pre-crisis behaviour is being criticized as surrender to banks or as a self servicing device for attracting financial activity to Britain. In truth it was neither. It was the simple belief that markets are better than governments at allocating services. In America, too, regulators were reluctant to suppress innovation because they felt that “the self interest of lending institutions will be enough to ensure they did not all leap from the same tall building.”

   In rich countries, enthusiasm for prescriptive supervision depends on the degree of harm suffered during the banking crisis or to the threat from the failing banks to bring down their governments with them. But it is not easy to stop banks from making bad decisions. In the past, regulators left it to the market to judge the health of the banks. But clever, well-paid analyst failed to see the crisis coming. Now central bankers are expected to do a better job. One problem is that the rules and the laws are written with the benefit of hindsight. The good ideas that may have prevented the last crisis however can make regulators dangerously overconfident about being able to predict and prevent the next one. Also, if regulators underwrite certain strategies that seem safe such as lending to small business, they may encourage  banks to crowd into those lines of business. If enough banks pile into these markets, downturns in them can affect not just a few banks but the whole system. On the other hand, prescriptive supervision can stifle financial innovation and squeeze all appetite for risk out of the banking system. In Japan, a  banking crisis that started more than two decades ago still lingers on, in part because the country’s bankers have become gun shy and lend to buy government bonds rather than lend money or make foreign investments. Regulators are doing all they can to strike a balance and mitigate these risks.

1. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word LAST given in bold as used in the passage.

(a)  final

(b)  continue

(c)  first

(d)  recent

(e)  subsequent

Answer: (d)

2. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

(a)  Regulators are lazy and shirk their duty of protecting financial systems.

(b)  Banks should go back to traditional banking and abandon riskier options

(c)  Banks in developed countries have destroyed developing economies.

(d)  Today the task of financial regulation is tricky.

(e)  Financial systems have been damaged beyond repair.

Answer: (c)

3. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word CROWD given in bold as used in the passage.

(a)  multitude

(b)  flock

(c)  party

(d)  crew

(e)  not

Answer: (b)

4. Which of the following is/are the possible impact(s) of prescriptive supervision?

(A) Governments are likely to collapse as people are opposed to such measures.

(B) Many executives are likely to exploit the system.

(C) These measures could unintentionally prolong a crisis.

(a)  Only C

(b)  Only B and C

(c)  Only A & B

(d)  All A, B and C

(e)  Only B

Answer: (a)

5. What is the author’s view of central banks’ present efforts at regulation?

(a)  These are unnecessary and harmful to banks.

(b)  These are faulty as they encourage risky financial innovations.

(c)  To succeed these should be co-ordinated and uniform across counries.

(d)  The measures they prescribe have no loopholes.

(e)  They have done their best to effectively regulate.

Answer: (b)

6. Which of the following can be said about ‘light touch regulation’ adopted by Britain?

(a)  It gave Britain’s financial institutions very little autonomy.

(b)  It force banks to invest in government bonds.

(c)  It resulted in banks holding too much capital.

(d)  It encouraged financial activity in the country.

(e)  It stifled banks’ appetite for risk.

Answer: (d)

7. Choose the word which is mot nearly the SAME in meaning to the word LIMITS given in bold as used in the passage.

(a)  caps

(b)  rims

(c)  frames

(d)  frontiers

(e)  skirts

Answer: (a)

8. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

(a)  The financial crisis of 2008 did not impact developing countries.

(b)  Markets can easily regulate themselves.

(c)  Developing economies should not allow foreign investment at present.

(d)  After the crisis, America’s central bank has imposed unnecessary regulations

(e)  None of the given statements is true in the context of the passage.

Answer: (a)

9. Why has the author cited the reference of repealing the Glass-Steagall Act?

(a)  To indicate that regulations were relaxed without appreciating the impact on the economy.

(b)  To criticize the backward restrictions that rich countries imposed on developing countries.

(c)  To show that the economy had not progressed much since the Depression.

(d)  To illustrate that only America could foresee the financial crisis.

(e)  To indicate the soundness of America’s financial system prior to Depression.

Answer: (a)

10. Which of the following difficulties is faced by regulators at present?

(a)  Banks lack the expertise to comply with norms.

(b)  Tremendous competition between local and foreign banks.

(c)  Striking a balance between protecting and stifling economy.

(d)  Unwillingness of government to bail out failing banks.

(e)  Lack of adequate manpower.

Answer: (c)

11. Which of the following approaches was adopted by the financial sector of rich world economies prior to the crisis?

(a)  Banks strictly adhere to outdated laws.

(b)  Banks maintained very large capital cushions.

(c)  They were innovative and took a lot of risks.

(d)  They withdrew investment from traditional banking.

(e)  Not clearly mentioned in the passage.

Answer: (c)

12. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the word TENTATIVELY given in bold as used in the passage.

(a)  Temporary

(b)  Definite

(c)  Satisfactory

(d)  Ad hoc

(e)  Coercively

Answer: (d)

13. Which of the following is/are the consequence(s) of the crisis of 2008?

(A) Banks have become overconfident in their abilities to regulate themselves.

(B) Regulators have increased vigilance of financial systems.

(C) Economies are careful about foreign investment.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Only B & C

(c)  Only A & B

(d)  All A, B and C

(e)  Only A & C

Answer: (b)

14. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the word FAILING given in bold as used in the passage.

(a)  increasing

(b)  passing

(c)  succesful

(d)  depleting

(e)  important

Answer: (c)

15. What does the author want to convey through the phrase ‘Under the old rules, supervisors were simply referees trying to ensure that the game was played fairly?

(a)  Regulators did not make mistakes while regulating financial markets.

(b)  Regulators were passive and did not intervene in the working of financial organizations in the past.

(c)  Regulators were concerned about the health of financial organizations.

(d)  Regulators used to cross the line and interfere in financial markets in the past.

(e)  Regulators devised many strict rules without taking into account the needs of financial systems.

Answer: (b)

Directions (Qs. 16 to 25): In these questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part (a), (b), (c) or (d) has an error. Select that part as your answer. If none of the parts has an error, then mark (e) as your answer.

16. In the current year,/small lenders, who global banks have/ long sneered at, are performing/ more better than the giants.

(a)  In the current year

(b)  small lenders, who global banks have

(c)  long sneered at, are performing

(d)  more better than the giants.

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

17. The Central Bank has cut/ its policy repo rate by fifty basis points/ but only a few banks has/ lowered their base lending rates.

(a)  The Central Bank has cut

(b)  its policy repo rate by fifty basis points

(c)  but only a few banks has

(d)  lowered their base lending rates.

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

18. Apart of not speaking up enough,/ many professionals do not think about/ how asking different types of questions/ can lead to different outcomes.

(a)  Apart of not speaking up enough,

(b)  many professionals do not think about

(c)  how asking different types of questions

(d)  can lead to different outcomes.

(e)  No error

Answer: (a)

19. With the exception of/ music, no other industry/ has embraced globalization/ as keenly as the banking industry.

(a)  With the exception of

(b)  music, no other industry

(c)  has embraced globalization

(d)  as keenly as the banking industry.

(e)  No error

Answer: (e)

20. The bank’s stringent on boarding process/ for new executives ensures/ that they understand from other leaders/ what it takes to success.

(a)  The bank’s stringent on boarding process

(b)  for new executives ensures

(c)  that they understand from other leaders

(d)  what it takes to success.

(e)  No error

Answer: (a)

21. CEOs have a lot/ to worry about / but what are/ their greatest concerns?

(a)  CEOs have a lot

(b)  to worry about,

(c)  but what are

(d)  their greatest concerns?

(e)  No error

Answer: (e)

22. When business leaders/fail to decide/ an act wisely/ their companies suffers.

(a)  When business leaders

(b)  fail to decide

(c)  and act wisely,

(d)  their companies suffers.

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

23. We are often blindly to/ the many forces/ that create and/ sustain our behaviours.

(a)  We are often blindly to

(b)  the many forces

(c)  that create and

(d)  sustain our behaviours

(e)  No error

Answer: (a)

24. Mediclaim policies usually/ reimburse certain/ medical expenses and / not the out-of-pocket expenses.

(a)  Medicalim policies usually

(b)  reimburse certain

(c)  medical expenses and

(d)  not the out-of-pocket expenses

(e)  No error

Answer: (e)

25. High performers show a stronger tendency/ to direct their own learning./ which may be one of the ways to predict/ who will be a high performer.

(a)  High performers show a stronger tendency

(b)  to direct their own learning,

(c)  which may be one of the ways to predict

(d)  who will be a high performer.

(e)  No error

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 26 to 30) : In these questions, the given sentence has to blanks. Each blank indicates that something has been omitted. Choose the words that best fit the meaning of a sentence as a whole.

26. A new study has _________ the five most common health issues in men and how to ________ them.

(a)  said, arrest

(b)  stated, shrink

(c)  revealed, prevent

(d)  exposed, react

(e)  laid, restrict

Answer: (c)

27. ___________ up to the challenge of fighting drug addiction, children have ___________ up the task of spreading awareness against drugs.

(a)  Taking, set

(b)  Waking, sped

(c)  Rising, started

(d)  Seeing, taken

(e)  Fearing, given

Answer: (b)

28. The night fabric can do _________ for your frame and as a ________ your confidence.

(a)  wonders, consequence

(b)  marvels, side

(c)  good, process

(d)  remarkably, finish

(e)  superb, result

Answer: (a)

29. The wheat grains do not meet the __________standards_________ for procurement of food gains by the government agencies.

(a)  total, kept

(b)  most, meant

(c)  excellence, allowed

(d)  optimistic, placed

(e)  quality, prescribed

Answer: (e)

30. Students will be _________ on their reading and writing abilities through question papers _________ by the government.

(a)  judged, assorted

(b)  kept, set

(c)  tested, provided

(d)  evaluated, asked

(e)  calculated, assigned

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 31 to 35) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) (E) & (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given question.

(A) But the conventional wisdom is wrong.

(B) The assumption is that planting trees and avoiding further deforestation provides a convenient carbon capture and storage facility on the land.

(C) Considering all the interactions, large-scale increases in forest cover can actually make global warming worse.

(D) Deforestation accounts for about 20 percent of global emissions of carbon dioxide.

(E) That is the conventional wisdom.

(F) In reality, the cycling of carbon, energy and water between the land and atmosphere is much m ore complex.

31. Which of the following should be second sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

(e)  F

Answer: (b)

32. Which of the following should be third sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  F

(d)  D

(e)  E

Answer: (e)

33. Which of the following should be fourth sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  E

(e)  D

Answer: (a)

34. Which of the following should  be first sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

(e)  E

Answer: (d)

35. Which of the following should be last (sixth) sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  F

(c)  D

(d)  C

(e)  B

Answer: (b)

Directions (Qs. 36 to 40) : Which of the phrases given below the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as your answer.

36. Whether people change or not is largely determines by ‘why’ they change.

(a)  large determinant of

(b)  largely determined by

(c)  large determination by

(d)  larger determinant for

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (b)

37. With the right mentoring at the top, everyone stands to gain.

(a)  for gain

(b)  to gaining

(c)  of gained

(d)  to gained

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (e)

38. The best leaders know how to kept moving forward even in ambiguous situations.

(a)  know how to keep

(b)  knows how to keep

(c)  know how for keeping

(d)  knowing what to keep

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (a)

39. Asking questions helps us better understand what has been say.

(a)  has being said

(b)  has been said

(c)  have been say

(d)  has been saying

(e)  No correction required.

Answer: (a)

40. A high performer is four hundred times much productivity than the average performer.

(a)  more produce

(b)  productive more

(c)  more productive

(d)  much products

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 41 to 50) : In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

   Visual experiences can …..(41)…. children, teenagers and even adults learn and absorb more due to its highly stimulating and ….(42)….. engaging impact. it is for this reason that we are seeing an increase in schools across the globe ….(43)…. content provider programmes into their class curriculum to ….(44)…. lessons through video. Visual excursions and school collaborations are ….(45)…. by advances in high definition video, high fidelity audio and content sharing, allowing students to experience a richer and m ore stimulating learning transported students to excursions in …(46)…, now face increased transportation costs, higher insurance premiums, attendance costs for the families and strict duty of care policies for students while ….(47)… school property. Virtual excursions …(48)… students to improve their presentation, research, learning and speaking skills while they engage in a live learning session.

     Students also now have the ability to meet peers from many cultures, speak to subject-matter …(49)… like scientists or authors’ practice a foreign language with students from another country, and learn about global issues from the ….(50)… of their own classrooms.

41.

(a)  help

(b)  aiding

(c)  prescribe

(d)  feature

(e)  present

Answer: (a)

42.

(a)  plus

(b)  lonely

(c)  ably

(d)  many

(e)  deeply

Answer: (e)

43.

(a)  incorporating

(b)  pressing

(c)  following

(d)  parting

(e)  leaving

Answer: (a)

44.

(a)  make

(b)  demand

(c)  impart

(d)  vision

(e)  need

Answer: (c)

45.

(a)  dissolved

(b)  enhanced

(c)  measured

(d)  failed

(e)  blasted

Answer: (c)

46.

(a)  deed

(b)  total

(c)  parent

(d)  person

(e)  lieu

Answer: (d)

47.

(a)  involving

(b)  saving

(c)  away

(d)  off

(e)  vacating

Answer: (b)

48.

(a)  let

(b)  enable

(c)  present

(d)  pressure

(e)  collect

Answer: (b)

49.

(a)  clauses

(b)  dictionaries

(c)  books

(d)  experts

(e)  partners

Answer: (d)

50.

(a)  vacancy

(b)  availability

(c)  safety

(d)  comfortable

(e)  gap

Answer: (c)

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