Canara Bank PO Examination 2017 Online Held on March 4, 2018 Question Paper With Answer Key

Canara Bank PO Examination 2017 Online Held on March 4, 2018

Part 1 Reasoning and Computer Aptitude

1. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question. ‘Galax fibre’ is manufactured only in country A. Though its demand across the world has remained more or less same since the past three years, the profits earned from the fibre has decreased by 20% in the last 8 months causing an overall loss of around 35 crore. Country A has never made such a huge loss of Galax fibre ever.

Which of the following can be inferred from the given statements?

(a)  The companies that manufacture Galax fibre will have to shut down owing to losses.

(b)  Galax fibre is exported to other countries at a very high price.

(c)  Had fibre is exported to other countries at a very high price.

(d)  No other been no loss, Country A would have made the highest profit ever through Galax fibre.

(e)  Factors other than demand of a commodity also affect its sales and profits.

Answer: (e)

2. In this question, a statement is given followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumptions is something supposed or taken for granted, but not directly given in the statement. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of those is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement These days all flight and train tickets are produced on mobile phone. Therefore, it is safe to predict that in a short time, taking a print out for tickets will completely stop.

(I) Every passenger in this time to come will be able to afford a mobile phone and travel with it.

(II) Tickets produced on a mobile phone will all the essential details as present in a print-out.

(a)  Only II is implicit.

(b)  Both I and II are implicit.

(c)  Only I is implicit.

(d)  Either I or II is implicit.

(e)  Neither I nor II implicit.

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 3-7) Study the following information carefully to answer the given question.

Eight people, F, G, H, I J, K, L and M have lectures in different cities, Delhi, Mumbai and Patna at 1 pm, 2 pm, 3 p, 4 pm, 5 pm, 6 pm, 7 pm and 8 pm on the same day. Not more than three people have a lecture in the same city. F has a lecture in Mumbai with only the one who has a lecture at 8 pm. K and the person having lecture at 7 pm have lectures in the same city but not in Mumbai. J and L have lectures in the same city, but not in the same city as K. I has a lecture at 5 pm in the same city as G. None of those having lectures in Delhi have it at 3 pm or before 3 pm. One of the lectures in Patna is at 6 pm. M does not have a lecture in the same city as L. Difference between the lecture timings of J and F is 3 hours, H’s lecture is before L’s lecture.

3. In which city does I have a lecture?

(a)  Same city as the one having lecture at 2 pm

(b)  Same city as H

(c)  Delhi

(d)  Same city as M

(e)  Patna

Answer: (c)

4. At what time is L’s lecture?

(a)  3 pm

(b)  2 pm

(c)  4 pm

(d)  6 pm

(e)  8 pm

Answer: (b)

5. Based on the given arrangement, which of the following is true?

(a)  F and H have lectures in the same city.

(b)  M has a lecture before L

(c)  None of the given options is true.

(d)  G and J have lecture in the same city.

(e)  F has a lecture at 4 pm.

Answer: (c)

6. Who has a lecture at 7 pm?

(a)  J

(b)  F

(c)  G

(d)  M

(e)  H

Answer: (c)

7. What is the difference between the lecture timings of M and J?

(a)  4 h

(b)  2 h

(c)  1 h

(d)  6 h

(e)  5 h

Answer: (b)

8. Read the given information carefully and answer the question which follows

High amount of ‘trinium’ blocks the absorption of ‘roassium’ by the plants thereby crippling them. Thus in village R, the yield of jute is adversely affected in order to addresses this situation the use of groundwater for irrigation should be completely stopped in the village.

Which of the following statements can be concluded from the given information?

(A) Jute plants need roassium in order to grow well.

(B) The groundwater in Village R contains high amounts of ‘trinium’.

(C) The groundwater in village R contains ‘roassium’ to at least some extent.

(D) For the jute crop to grow well, the concentration of ‘trinium’ in the soil should essentially be zero.

(a)  C and D

(b)  Only D

(c)  A and D

(d)  Only B

(e)  B and D

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 9-13) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows, containing six people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-I R, S, T, U, V and W are seated and all of them are facing North and in row-2 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing South (but not necessarily in the same order). Each person also teaches a different subject namely, Accounts, English, Hindi, History, Psychology, Geography, Civics, Economics, Physics, Statistics, Chemistry and Biology (but not necessarily in the same order).

C sits at one of the extreme ends of the row and faces one of the immediate neighbours of T. Only two people sit between T and the one who teaches Chemistry. R sits to the immediate right of the one who teaches Chemistry. R faces E. D is neither an immediate neighbour of C nor E. The one who teaches Economics sits third to the left of D. S faces one of the immediate neighbours of E. The one who faces S teaches Statistics. Only two people sit between the one who teaches Statistics and the one who teaches History. Only one person sits between A and the one who teaches History. U and W are immediate neighbours of each other. The one who faces U sits to the immediate left of F. The one who teaches Biology is an immediate neighbour of A. Only two people sit between W and the one who teaches Geography. V faces the one who teaches Hindi. The one who teaches Physics sits third to the right of the one who teaches English. Neither W nor A teach Civics. The one who teaches Accounts sits in row-2.

9. Which of the following is definitely true as per the given information?

(a)  U faces A.

(b)  C and F are immediate neighbours of each other.

(c)  B faces the one who teaches Civics

(d)  E teaches History

(e)  W is an immediate neighbour of the one who teaches Physics.

Answer: (b)

10. Who amongst the following is an immediate neighbour of the one who teaches Economics?

(a)  The one teaches Biology

(b)  The one who teaches Chemistry

(c)  F

(d)  B

(e)  None of the given options

Answer: (d)

11. Which of the following subjects is taught by T?

(a)  Economics

(b)  Accounts

(c)  Civics

(d)  Hindi

(e)  Biology

Answer: (c)

12. Which of the following pairs present the immediate neighbours of the one who teaches Civics?

(a)  A, B

(b)  T, W

(c)  S, R

(d)  U, V

(e)  B, D

Answer: (d)

13. Who amongst the following teaches Physics?

(a)  D

(b)  A

(c)  R

(d)  U

(e)  V

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 14-18) In these questions three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II are given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows.

(a) if only conclusion I follows

(b) if either conclusion II follows

(c) if either conclusions I or II follows

(d) if both the conclusions follows

(e) if neither conclusions I nor II follows

14. Statements No whistle is a van.

All trollies are vans.

Some whistles are carriers.

Conclusions (I) No whistle is a trolley.

(II) All carriers being vans is a possibility.

Answer: (a)

15. Statements No cup is a plate.

No mug is a cup.

All jars are plates.

Conclusions (I) No jar is a cup.

(II) Some mugs are definitely not plates.

Answer: (a)

16. Statements Some palace are caves.

No village is a cave.

All resorts are palaces.

Conclusion (I) Some palaces are definitely not villages.

(II) All caves being resorts is a possibility.

Answer: (d)

17. Statements Some hotels are rooms.

Some keys are hotels.

No bungalow is a room.

Conclusions (I) All hotels being bungalows is a possibility.

(II) All keys can never be rooms.

Answer: (e)

18. Statements All bridges are camps.

All tents are camps.

Some hinges are tents.

Conclusions (I) All camps can never be hinges.

(II) Some bridges are definitely not tents.

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 19-24) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

B, C, D, E, L, M, N and O have to attend a seminar in March, June, August and October months of the same year. In each month the seminar will be conducted on either the 16th or 25th of that month. Each person belongs to different city-Delhi, Ahmedabad, Surat, Nasik, Bengaluru, Kanpur, Mumbai and Udaipur. Not more than two of the given people have a seminar in the same month. Only one of the givenperson attends a seminar on each date.

M has a seminar on the 16th of a month which has 31 days. Only three people have a seminar between M and B. The one who belongs to Nasik has to attend a seminar on one of the days between M and B, but not in June. Only four people have a seminar between the one who belongs to Surat and the one who belongs to Nasik. As many people have to attend a seminar before O as between B and the one who belongs to Surat. The number of people attending a seminar before O is one less than those attending a seminar before O is one less than those attending after the one who belongs to Delhi. L belongs to Bengaluru, but does not have a seminar on 25th. L has to attend a seminar on one of the days after the one who belongs to Mumbai.

Only two people have a seminar between N and the one who belongs to Kanpur. B neither belongs to Kanpur nor Udaipur. Only one person has to attend a seminar between E and the one who belongs to the Udaipur. No one has to attend a seminar between C and the one who belongs to Ahmedabad.

19. To which of the following cities does M belong?

(a)  Udaipur

(b)  Mumbai

(c)  Bengaluru

(d)  Delhi

(e)  None of the given options

Answer: (b)

20. How many people have a seminar between D and the one who belongs to Surat?

(a)  One

(b)  Two

(c)  Three

(d)  None

(e)  More than three

Answer: (d)

21. Who amongst the following have to attend a seminar in August?

(a)  E and O

(b)  M and the one who belongs to Delhi

(c)  B and the one who belongs to Kanpur

(d)  The one who belongs to Ahmedabad and E

(e)  M and D

Answer: (d)

22. How many people have a seminar after E?

(a)  None

(b)  One

(c)  More than three

(d)  Two

(e)  Three

Answer: (d)

23. As per the given arrangement, which one of the following combinations is not correct?

(a)  O-25th

(b)  L-June

(c)  N-16th

(d)  C-Kanpur

(e)  D-Ahmedabad

Answer: (e)

24. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given information?

(a)  B has to attend a seminar in March.

(b)  None of the given statements is true.

(c)  No one has a seminar after D.

(d)  Only three people have a seminar between B and N.

(e)  L belongs to Ahmedabad.

Answer: (c)

25. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

Mallika is a renowned TV artist since past 3 years. She always gets her dresses for all events only from ‘Marvel fashion designers’ based in City X. Recently she opted to wear a dress from a very new designer in the market instead of Marvel fashion designers. She had to pay almost double the price of what she usually pays to ‘Marvel fashion designers’.

Which of the following cannot be a possible reason behind Mallika’s decision?

(a)  Unlike the employees of ‘Marvel fashion designers’, those under the new fashion designer have studies in renowned foreign universities specializing in fashion designing.

(b)  Mallika wore the dress for an international event where world’s best casting directors had come. She wanted to wear something which was unique and it with the new designer.

(c)  The clothes provided by the new fashion designer are of a very superior quality and latest trends which no other designer in the city.

(d)  Mallika recently had a off with ‘Marvel fashion designers’ ‘for providing the same dress as Mallika’s to another TV start for the same event.

(e)  All of the given options can be possible reasons.

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight persons are sitting in a straight line facing North. They are in different standards/pursuing different courses and are sitting in such a way that all the seniors of every person is sitting to the right. Therefore, no person who is in a higher standard is sitting to the left of any person.

A is in 5th standard and is sitting third from the left end of the line. Only one person is sitting between A and Q. M sits third to the left of the 7th standard student. M is not an immediate neighbour of A. As many people sit between the 5th and the 7th standard students as between Q and the 12th standard student. R is pursuing B. Com. As many people are sitting to the right of the B. Com students as to the left of the 3rd standard student. B sits to the immediate left of the 9th standard student. More than two people sit between S and the Ph. D student. F is younger than Z.

26. Who sits exactly between A and Q?

(a)  Z

(b)  The 9th standard student

(c)  F

(d)  B

(e)  The 3rd standard student

Answer: (d)

27. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based on their positions in the arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?

(a)  S-7th standard

(b)  Q-B. Com

(c)  M-5th standard

(d)  F-7th standard

(e)  B-12th standard

Answer: (d)

28. Which of the following statements is true as per the given information?

(a)  M is an immediate neighbour of S.

(b)  B is in 9th standard.

(c)  S sits second to the right of Q.

(d)  R and the 3rd standard student are immediate neighbours of F.

(e)  All the given statements are true.

Answer: (a)

29. Who amongst the following is younger than M?

(a)  Z

(b)  No one

(c)  S

(d)  B

(e)  F

Answer: (b)

30. Who studies in the 7th standard?

(a)  Z

(b)  S

(c)  B

(d)  F

(e)  The person studying in one standard higher than F.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-34) The given question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and mark the appropriate option.

Give answer

(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c) if the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

(d) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

(e) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

31. How far and in which direction is Point B with respect to Point A?

Statements

(I) Point G is 6 m to the East of Point A. Point C is 9 m to the North of Point G. Point F is 3 m to the West of Point C. Point B is 6m away from point F.

(II) Point M is 8 m to the West of Point B. Point R is 8 m to the South of Point M. Point A is 11 m to the East of Point R. Point C is to the North-East of Point A.

Answer: (b)

32. Amongst the people viz., A, B, C, D, E and F sitting around a circular table facing the centre, who sits second to the right of A?

Statements

(I) A sits second to the right of F. Only two people sit between A and D. B is neither immediate neighbour of D nor F.

(II) Only one person sits between A and F (either from left or right). Only two people sit between F and B. C sits to the immediate left of D. D is not an immediate neighbour of B.

Answer: (b)

33. Five boxes viz., A, B, C, D, and E are kept one above the other in a stack. How many boxes are kept between box E and box B?

Statements

(I) Only two boxes are kept between box C and box D. Only one box is kept between C and box B. Only two boxes are kept between box E and box A. Box E is kept at one of the position above box A and below box C.

(II) No box is kept between box D and box B. Only two boxes are kept between box C and box D. Box E is kept at one of the positions above box A but below Box C.

Answer: (a)

34. Among six people viz., C, D, E, F, G and H, sitting in a straight line with equal distance between each other and facing North, who sits second to the left of G?

Statements

(I) C sits third from the left end of the line. Only one person sits between C and H. Only two people sit between E and G. G sits at one of the positions to the right of E.

(II) E sits third to the left of G. G does not sit at any extreme end of the line. Moe than three people sit between H and F. F sits at one of the positions to the right of H.

Answer: (e)

35. This question consists of an information and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements weaken(s) or strengthen(s) the information and decide the appropriate answer.

Information Average number of employees resigning from company A in a year is one-third of that resigning from company Z. This shows that work environment in company A is superior to that in company Z.

(I) The number of employees working in company Z is one lakh while that in company A is 432.

(II) Company A has 23 departments in total whereas company Z has only 12 departments.

(a)  Both statement I and II weaken the information.

(b)  Statement I weaken the information while statement II is a neutral statement.

(c)  Statement I strengthens the information while statement I is a neutral statement.

(d)  Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengthens the information.

(e)  Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the information.

Answer: (b)

36. This question consists of a situation followed by two statements numbered I and II given below it. Which of the given statements can be a possible reason for the given situation.

Situation “The CEO of an online gift shopping app ‘Gitzo’ has announced to send complimentary chocolate for orders above Rs 700 and personalized coffee mugs for orders above Rs 1500 for the next one month.” – News article on February 23 this year.

Statement I Since the inception of Gitzo in March four years ago, it has always made sure to thank its customers on its anniversary with special gestures.

Statement II ‘Gitzo’ launched personalized gifts on 19th February this year, but has only received 100 orders for the same till date.

(a)  Either I or II can be possible reason.

(b)  Only I can be a possible reason.

(c)  Both I and II can be a possible reason.

(d)  Only II can be a possible reason.

(e)  Neither I nor II can be a possible reason.

Answer: (b)

37. What should come in place of δ and # respectively in the expression R > O ≥ U ≥ M δ Y; G > U # F ≤ E so that the expression E ≥ Y definitely holds true?

(a)  >, =

(b)  =, <

(c)  =, ≤

(d)  ≥, <

(e)  ≥, ≤

Answer: (e)

38. This question consists of a situation followed by two statements numbered I and II given below it. Which of the given statements can be a possible reason for the given situation?

Situation ‘Olivia, a sugar producing factory closed down it operations, facing a loss of Rs 200 crores’-a report.

Statement I Olivia was unable to generate enough business from past two years thus losing its clients.

Statement II Olivia was unable to provide full salary to its workers since past two years following which most of the workers resigned leaving only five at present.

(a)  Only II can be a possible reason.

(b)  Neither I nor II can be a possible reason.

(c)  Either I or II can be a possible reason.

(d)  Both I and II can be a possible reason.

(e)  Only I can be a possible reason.

Answer: (e)

39. Read the given information to answer the given question.

‘The day we purchased an installed five more machines we were able to cut at least 1000 more sheets daily thus making the production three times faster on weekly basis, working days being Monday to Saturday-Statement by Manager of EVT Metallic

Which of the following can be inferred from the given information?

(A) After installation of the said machinery, EVT Metallic Works Limited was able to produce at least 6000 sheets more weekly.

(B) EVT Metallic Works Limited had sufficient funds to purchase five machines simultaneously.

(C) At least some employees of EVT Metallic Works Limited were trained to work on the new machines.

(D) Currently EVT Metallic Works Limited produces 2000 sheets weekly.

(a)  A and D

(b)  Only D

(c)  B and C

(d)  A and B

(e)  Only B

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 40-45) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

Eight people- O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order.

The lower most floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the top most floor is numbered with. Each one of them likes a different game, Chess, Carom, Snooker, Cricket, Football, Tennis, Boxing and Polo, but not necessarily in the same order.

U lives on floor number 6. Only one person lives between U and the one who likes Cricket. Only two people live between the one who likes Cricket and the one who likes Polo. The one who likes Polo lives on one of the floors below the one who likes Cricket. S lives on one of the odd numbered floors above the one who likes Polo. The one who likes Carom lives immediately below S but no on floor number 2. Only four people live between S and the one who likes Chess and Polo as between S and the one who likes Chess and Polo as between S and the one who likes Tennis. Only two people live between V and the one who likes Tennis. Only three people live people T and the one who likes Snooker. V neither likes Snooker nor Football. P lives immediately above R. O lives immediately above the one who likes Football.

40. How many people live above the one who likes Boxing?

(a)  Three

(b)  One

(c)  More than three

(d)  Two

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

41. How many people live between the one who likes Cricket and the one who likes Football?

(a)  More than three

(b)  Three

(c)  Two

(d)  None

(e)  One

Answer: (d)

42. On which of the following numbers does Q live?

(a)  7

(b)  8

(c)  6

(d)  3

(e)  2

Answer: (b)

43. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group.

Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(a)  U-Tennis

(b)  R-Boxing

(c)  T-Polo

(d)  P-Cricket

(e)  Q-Carom

Answer: (b)

44. Who lives immediately above P?

(a)  Q

(b)  O

(c)  The one who likes Football

(d)  U

(e)  The one who likes Polo

Answer: (c)

45. Which of the following games does R like?

(a)  Snooker

(b)  Boxing

(c)  Cricket

(d)  Football

(e)  Polo

Answer: (e)

46. This question consists of a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and Ii given below it. A course of action is an administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action(s) logically follows from the given statement.

Statements The authorities of ‘Emperor’s Garden’, a famous tourist spot in City F, which is open for public visit free of cost for two months in a year, have complained about the cleanliness issue in the garden and damage to property caused by the public.

Course of Action I Authorities should restrict entry to a certain age group only.
Course of Action II All those found damaging the property should be penalized in monetary terms.

(a)  Neither I nor II follows

(b)  Only I follows

(c)  Only II follows

(d)  Both I and II follow

(e)  Either I or II follows

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 47-50) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer

(a) if only conclusion I is true

(b) if only conclusion II is true

(c) if both the conclusions are true

(d) if either conclusion I or II is true

(e) if neither conclusion I or nor II is true

47. Statements S > M ≥ A ≤ G; Q > A ≥ D ≥ U > Z

Conclusions (I) M > U     (II) M = U

Answer: (d)

48. Statements S > M ≥ A ≤ Y < G; Q > A ≥ D ≥ U > Z

Conclusions (I) S > Q      (II) Z < G

Answer: (b)

49. Statements L ≤ T ≤ I ≥ M < X; W < P ≤ L ≥ B ≥ K

Conclusions (I) K ≥ I       (II) X = W

Answer: (e)

50. Statements L ≤ T ≤ I ≥ M < X; W < P ≤ L ≥ B ≥ K

Conclusions (I) K ≥ I       (II) X > W

Answer: (e)

Part 2 English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-58) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you while answering some of the questions.

Many of the people walking the long blocks of Mechanics ville grew up poor and their children are likely to be poor too. It is part of the vicious cycle of poverty-without access to high-quality education, children born into poverty are likely to remain there for their whole lives.

Policymakers have some ideas about what can help ensure that children born into poverty succeed. In one oft-cited study from the 1970s, the Abecederian Project randomly selected certain infants from low-income families to attend full-time, high-quality education from infancy through age 5, while others were put in a control group. The children who participated in the education programme had higher cognitive test scores, were more likely to attend a four-year college. Similarly, studies have shown that those who attended pre-school had higher earnings, were more likely to hold a job and had committed fewer crimes than the control group that did not attend pre-school.

But high-quality pre-school is expensive and most parents struggle to afford any daycare, much less a programme that meets quality benchmarks.

That’s why a foundation is sponsoring a new approach to breaking this cycle. It tries to give children access to high-quality, early-childhood education while helping parents get better jobs and build stronger families. It’s called the two-generation approach and has been found to be one of the best bets in helping families escape poverty. The strategy has proven so successful that there’s now a waiting list of 400 children for Educare, double the pre-school’s enrolment. And that, in turn, has driven parents to show up at the Centre for Working Families, to register for job training or a career counselor, Kids can’t get on the waiting list of the Educare site unless their parents are enrolled with the Centre for Working Families. The Centre has placed 1800 people in jobs and annually connects people with tax refunds, credits, childcare subsidies and other benefits.

But it’s the way the centre works with the school down the hill that has really helped parents improve their children’s chances. There are literacy training for parents so they can read with their children, and counselors at the workforce centre consult with staff at the school about families well-being.

Two-generation programmes are not new-the phrase was coined in the early 1990s, when a few programmes linked early-childhood education and self-sufficiency programmes for parents. But those programmes mostly faded away under welfare reform, when policy emphasis was put on ‘work-first’ policies. One of the things that struck me about the two-generation model is that it favours parents who have the wherewithal to fight to get their children enrolled in school, and to get themselves some career help.

But what about the parents who are too overwhelmed to take any steps for themselves or their children? Aren’t they the ones that need the most help? But research suggests that two-generation programmes could be more effective than offering just job training or childcare independently, because being a part of both programmes often motivates parents to behave differently

51. Which of the following is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?

(a)  All the given options.

(b)  To discuss an approach to addressing poverty involving both parents and children.

(c)  The criticize present government for the high poverty and unemployment rate.

(d)  To exhort governments to disburse more aid to poor nations.

(e)  To point out how standardized tests discriminate against poor students.

Answer: (b)

52. Which of the following can be concluded from the studies cited in the passage?

(a)  Children in families where both parents work have adjustment problems.

(b)  Standardized testing in schools needs to be revamped.

(c)  Education is out of reach for the majority of society.

(d)  All the given options.

(e)  Pre-school education has been found to benefit children from poor families throughout life.

Answer: (e)

53. Which of the following factors has/have impacted the implementation of the two generation model?

(A) Different reform focus by the government.

(B) Parents were found not to benefit much from its implementation.

(C) Research does not support its implementation.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Only B

(c)  Only B and C

(d)  All of these

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

54. Which of the following words can replace the word ‘Breaking’ as used in the passage?

(A) Disclosing         (B) Disrupting

(C) Relaxing           (D) Ending

(a)  A and B

(b)  B and D

(c)  Only B

(d)  Only A

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

55. Which of the following can be said about Educare?

(A) It has gained popularity.

(B) It benefits poor families holistically since enrolment in centre for working families is necessary along with enrolment in Educare.

(C) It offers literacy training programmes for parents.

(a)  All of these

(b)  A and B

(c)  A and C

(d)  Only A

(e)  A and C

Answer: (a)

56. Which of the following is/are the author’s view of the two-generation model?

(A) It is biased and does not benefit those who need it the most.

(B) It cannot succeed in its current form as it is financially sustainable.

(C) It has the potential to benefit both poor parents and children in poverty.

(a)  Only C

(b)  None of these

(c)  Only A

(d)  A and C

(e)  All of these

Answer: (c)

57. Which of the following describes the tone of the passage?

(a)  Cynical

(b)  Nostalgic

(c)  Analytical

(d)  Satirical

(e)  Critical

Answer: (a)

58. Which of the following words is the opposite of the word ‘Vicious’ as used in the passage?

(A) Pleasant  (B) Compassionate

(C) Cruel       (D) Humane

(a)  Only A

(b)  All of these

(c)  A and B

(d)  B and D

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 59-63) Rearrange the given six sentences/ group of sentences so that they form a meaningful paragraph and answer the given questions.

(A) While the association of books was only with truth at that time, historians and anthropologists assume that people have always told each other stories-including those that their listeners knew were pure fiction.

(B) Today, we are perfectly aware that crime fiction and other novels are based purely on imagination. We know that characters like Harry Porter are not real and that Sherlock Holmes and Dr. Watson never actually walked the streets of London.

(C) This association of books and truth was prevalent not only among these church goers but also amongst learned monks, who studies books about science and philosophy in the large monasteries of the Middle ages.

(D) However, had these books been published in the Middle Ages, their readers would have thought that the stories about Harry, Holmes and Watson were real-simply because there were books about them.

(E) This practically religious relationship with books started to change gradually at the end of the 12th century and has continued to change ever since.

(F) They explain this difference between books and stories the speaker could narrate a story as a fiction but books were mostly found in church, where the priest read from the Bible, because of which the written word was generally associated with truth.

59. Which of the following should precede sentence C after the rearrangement?

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  A

(d)  D

(e)  F

Answer: (e)

60. Sentence E should come at which position, after the rearrangement?

(a)  Fifth

(b)  Sixth

(c)  Third

(d)  Second

(e)  Fourth

Answer: (b)

61. Which of the following should follow sentence D after the rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  E

(c)  B

(d)  C

(e)  F

Answer: (c)

62. Which of the following pair represents the second and fifth sentence respectively, after the rearrangement?

(a)  None of the given options

(b)  D-F

(c)  E-B

(d)  D-C

(e)  A-C

Answer: (d)

63. Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  D

(b)  B

(c)  F

(d)  E

(e)  C

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 64-70) Read the given passage carefully and answer the given question. Some words have been given in bold to help you locating them for answering some of the given questions.

Alaska likes to think. It is different, Larger, Wilder, Full of opportunities. Unlikely to make the same mistakes as elsewhere because, well, it’s different. In one sense, this is misleading. Alaska’s sparse population means that vast areas show little sign of human presence, but damage done to tundra and forests persists for decades. Alaskans themselves show no greater (or lesser) tendency to conservation and sustainability than anyone else, and an unwillingness to learn from other places is shortsighted.

In another sense, however, Alaska s different. Its lands contain the largest swathes of wilderness in the United States. Its ecosystems support indigenous practices of hunting, fishing and gathering that are greatly reduced or lost elsewhere. Alaska’s seas produce more than half the nation’s fish catch. Unlike places where ‘conservation’ means protecting a scarce remnant of what once was, conservation in Alaska is also about the abundance that still is.

But abundance can also create complacency. Everyone can see the risks facing the last few acres of rare habitat or the last members of an endangered species. When 200000 red salmon make it past hordes of fisherman to swim up the Kanal river in a single day. It is harder to imagine there could ever be a problem. When 100 million acres of land are already protected in national parks, preserves and wildlife refuges, it is more difficult to see how another road or mine will make such difference.

This is precisely the thinking that leads to incremental loss, to the show attrition that may not even be noticed as each generation thinks that what is sees is normal, unaware of what has already been lost. Here, Alaska needs to learn from what has happened elsewhere, to pay close attention to the history of natural abundance in the rest of the country and beyond.

The debates of a century ago about the purpose of national forests are still relevant today. Despite all the evidence to the contrary, the myth that we can still somehow ‘have it all’, everywhere and at once, still has hold in Alaska. Unfortunately, few or none of us can remember the abundance of the bison, the passenger pigeon, or even the Atlantic salmon. o in our ignorance we assume that hundreds of thousands of caribou and millions of seabirds will always be with us. We assume that national parks contain a vibrant whole rather than a fragment, however beautiful of what once was. Thus, many in Alaska claim that its national parks and wildlife refuges have forever satisfied the State’s conservation needs, leaving the rest of the State open for business. But losses can also happen rapidly. Industrial and technological prowess let us push farther and deeper and undertake projects that are bigger and bigger. Progress of this kind can provide us with assets to underwrite and serve conservation, but it also raise the stakes when something goes wrong. Resource extraction can happen faster and faster, leaving less and less time for changing course as we learn about adverse consequences. Yet moving at a slower pace would extend the period in which job creation and other benefits are realized and also would provide a chance to assess what is happening to learn from experience here as well as elsewhere.

Ecosystem-based management, sustainable development, biodiversity and other concepts are useful tools for conservation. To be used effectively, though, they need to be paired with a vision for what is possible. In many places conservation goals focus on protecting endangered species or representative habitats. This is important, and is relevant in Alaska too. But, a bolder vision is also needed, in which ecosystems are managed for abundance. This is the promise and the challenge of conservation in Alaska.

64. Which of the following is not true according to the passage?

(a)  In Alaska conservation may not necessarily result in protection of certain species.

(b)  All the given options are true.

(c)  The demand for fish in the United States is fulfilled by Alaska.

(d)  More than half of the people do not expect that resources in Alaska may also deplete eventually.

(e)  Industrial progress in turn may chum up assets for conservation of eco system.

Answer: (b)

65. Which of the following themes has been touched upon in the passage?

(a)  The conservation of eco-system throughout United States.

(b)  The depletion of resources globally as a result of global warming.

(c)  The conservation of fisheries in Arctic countries.

(d)  Damage to forest and natural resources in Alaska over the years.

(e)  Coal mining in Alaska to fulfil the demand of Asian markets.

Answer: (a)

66. What does the author mean by “the promise and the challenge of conservation in Alaska”?

(a)  Progressing without the use of natural resources.

(b)  None of those given as options.

(c)  Valuing that which is plentiful and utilizing it indiscriminately

(d)  Understanding put co-dependence on the ecosystem.

(e)  Depending on nature to take its course in conservation of natural resources.

Answer: (d)

67. According to the passage, which of the following can be said about Alaska?

(A) Its abundance of natural resources may not sustain in the long run.

(B) Alaska has not take lessons from the experiences of the rest of the world.

(C) Use of resources from Alaska is indiscriminate on account of fast paced progress.

(a)  A and B

(b)  All of these

(c)  B and C

(d)  None of these

(e)  Only A

Answer: (b)

68. Which of the given options represent the word most opposite to ‘Vibrant’ as mentioned in the passage?

(a)  Growing

(b)  Controvert

(c)  Throbbing

(d)  Identical

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

69. Which of the given options represent the word most similar to ‘Incremental’ as mentioned in the passage?

(a)  Extensive

(b)  Least

(c)  Simulative

(d)  Unidentified

(e)  All of these

Answer: (a)

70. Which of the following is/are the challenges that Alaskians underestimate?

(A) Impact of sparse population on development.

(B) Effects of overutilization of resources.

(C) Need for wildlife conservation.

(D) Need for faster development in the country.

(a)  B and C

(b)  All of these

(c)  A and B

(d)  Only B

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 71-74) In this question, two sentences and five connectors are given. Only one of the connectors from those given can be used to combine the two given sentences into one sentence without changing the meaning. That connector is your answer.

71. (A) It looks like you can buy the antique jewellery for about one thousand rupees.

(B) Some late bidder jumps in and kicks up the price.

(a)  unless

(b)  so that

(c)  yet

(d)  whenever

(e)  not only

Answer: (a)

72. (A) We had booked our fight earlier.

(B) It wouldn’t have been cheaper.

(a)  between

(b)  until

(c)  where

(d)  even if

(e)  than

Answer: (d)

73. (A) Michelangelo clearly possessed a prowess in art.

(B) He was historically known for his sculptures and paintings.

(a)  only if

(b)  what

(c)  but also

(d)  therefore

(e)  than

Answer: (d)

74. (A) Nations create governments to establish financial protection.

(B) History shows that all too often, governments fail to do so.

(a)  after

(b)  although

(c)  therefore

(d)  as if

(e)  when

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 75-80) Rearrange the given group of words A, B, C, D and E in a proper sequence, so as to form a meaningful sentence. (Select the combination which represents the correct sequence of the sentence. If none of the given combinations represents the combination of the correct parts of the sentence mark, “None of the given combinations is correct” as your answer.

75. (A) operational across Europe from next year.

(B) authorities and aviation regulators

(C) drone use becomes

(D) are scrambling to make the skies

(E) safe before widespread commercial

(a)  ECABD

(b)  ADCBE

(c)  BDACE

(d)  BDECA

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

76. (A) a planet bereft of wildlife and

(B) inhabited only by ourselves

(C) soon be left increasingly isolated on

(D) plus domesticated animals and their parasites

(E) scientists warn that humanity could

(a)  None of the given combinations is correct.

(b)  BDACE

(c)  CEBAD

(d)  DCAEB

(e)  ACBAD

Answer: (a)

77. (A) Huge waves and the encroaching Antarctic winter, in a

(B) mission aiming to answer fundamental questions.

(C) the world’s biggest iceberg on Wednesday, fighting

(D) about the impact of climate change in the polar regions

(E) a team of international scientists is due to set off for

(a)  None of the given combinations is correct.

(b)  ECABD

(c)  DBACE

(d)  ADCEB

(e)  ACDEB

Answer: (b)

78. (A) and attractive to their friends and peers

(B) is a primary goal for adolescents when

(C) according to the researchers, content

(D) that makes them appear interesting, well-liked

(E) deciding what to share in digital spaces

(a)  ECABD

(b)  CEBAD

(c)  DCAEB

(d)  None of the given combinations is correct

(e)  BDACE

Answer: (d)

79. (A) bitcoin poses no threat to financial

(B) of leading European economists have said

(C) mainstream markets in the next

(D) couple of years, a group

(E) stability and is unlikely to rattle

(a)  None of the given combinations is correct.

(b)  DCAEB

(c)  AECDB

(d)  ACEBD

(e)  BCEAD

Answer: (c)

80. (A) that he had failed to see a

(B) adviser at the time of the financial crisis

(C) a former city lawyer and government

(D) told the Treasury select committee

(E) ‘warning signal’ from the firm partners

(a)  BAEDC

(b)  CBDAE

(c)  AECBD

(d)  EBDCA

(e)  None of the given combinations is correct.

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-88) The given sentences consists of two words/phrases give in bold. Which of the following sets of words/phrases given against the sentence should replace both the words/phrases given in bold in the sentence to make it meaningfully and grammatically correct? If none of the sets of words/phrases is/are correct and the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required. Select ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

81. In a pre-emptive strike ahead to the judicial hearing, the airport administrator wrote an open letter on the important of expansion.

(a)  as ahead the, in the importance

(b)  No correction required

(c)  far ahead with, the importance’s

(d)  ahead of, on the importance

(e)  way ahead to, the important

Answer: (a)

82. The Railways providing spaces for electric vehicle charging stations at the parking lots of train stations to promotes the use of green energy.

(a)  will provide space, to promote

(b)  provided space, as a promotion

(c)  will provides space, to promoting

(d)  is to provide space, for promote

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (a)

83. It was one common practice for customers and sellers to own duplicate tally sticks where each notch in the word represented a specific amount of money owed.

(a)  once common practices, represented a specified

(b)  once a common practice, represented a specific

(c)  once a common practice, representing a specifics

(d)  No correction required

(e)  one commonly practiced, represents a specification

Answer: (b)

84. It is stressful doing of something that stretches you that you have not done before, that might not works, but not all stress is bad.

(a)  No correct required

(b)  stressful doing, might not work

(c)  stressed did, may not work

(d)  under stress do, may not works

(e)  stressful deed, might not worked

Answer: (b)

85. The police officer acted without thinking and violently slammed the suspect to the ground.

(a)  No correction required

(b)  acted to not, violently slammed of

(c)  acting of without, violent slamming

(d)  acted without of, violence slamming

(e)  acts without, violent slam

Answer: (a)

86. The direct impacts to mining on Brazil’s out-of-control deforestation is small in comparison to cleared forest area for pasture.

(a)  directed impact of, comparison for clear

(b)  direct impacted on, comparison for clearing

(c)  No correction required

(d)  direct impact of, comparison to clearing

(e)  directs impact with, comparisons to cleared

Answer: (d)

87. From raise temperatures preventing take-off to rising seems flooding runways, aviation needing to adapting to changes already grounding flights around the world.

(a)  raising temperature, needed to adopted

(b)  rising temperatures of, need to adapt for

(c)  No correction required

(d)  rising temperatures, needs to adapt

(e)  rise temperatures, need for adopt

Answer: (d)

88. Revealing a new strategy, the company said plans to invest £40 m to improve the business would weigh on profits for the year ending.

(a)  Revealed, to improve for

(b)  Reveals the, to improved of

(c)  Reveals, to improves

(d)  No correction required

(e)  Revealing the, to improving as

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 89-93) In these questions, a sentence is given with a blank. The blank indicates that part of the sentence is missing. Select among the given options the one which completes the sentence both grammatically and meaningfully.

89. ……….. for instance, it had hundreds of trials with top chefs from Asia before arriving at its proprietary eggless recipe for cakes.

(a)  It was a very planned event than

(b)  He was looking at various alternatives

(c)  None of the given options fit the given blank

(d)  There is several opinions before

(e)  The company went for out of the box ideas

Answer: (e)

90. ………….. of our product is a must, as more the sampling, the better are the chances of customers getting hooked onto the product.

(a)  Overexposure is not a viable option for

(b)  Testing and regular innovation on

(c)  Mechanically delivering the goods without further advertisement

(d)  All the given options fit the given blank

(e)  Educating customers about the features and quality

Answer: (a)

91. …………… fixed income products to save for their retirement will have to change their investments strategy now with interest rates on the same lowering drastically this financial year.

(a)  It looks like those who rely solely on

(b)  It has been assured that those who are weary of

(c)  The power of investing in

(d)  None of the given options fit the given blank

(e)  Many investors who promote due to the

Answer: (e)

92. ……….. over the years the renewable energy has become cheaper and is set to replace conventional energy.

(a)  None of the given options fit the given blank

(b)  It may be addressed to those

(c)  Experts are of the opinion that

(d)  It is harder to acknowledge the

(e)  There has been false hopes surrounds

Answer: (c)

93. ………….. the party in power was making concerted efforts to double the income of farmers by asking scientists to tackle the challenges being faced by the agriculture sector.

(a)  Many scientists were recruited recently by the State as

(b)  The Minister assured the farmers that

(c)  Recently, the ministry released a statement that

(d)  All the given options fit the given blank

(e)  It was mentioned in the news paper that

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 94-100) In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been denoted by A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Against each blank, five words/group of words are suggested, in bold and underlined one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the word/group of words which fits in each case and select the appropriate option.

Note Please read each question carefully and note that your answer to each blank has to be grammatically and meaningfully correct in the context of the p passage.

More than 2.2 million tourists-roughly six times the country’s population-are expected to visit Iceland this year for the hugged beauty, glaciers, volcanoes, Northern Lights and perhaps surprisingly, agriculture. ‘Agritourists’ are people who travel to enjoy local food and a taste of the agrarian lifestyle and even on this isolated Arctic island, agritourism is (A) floundering/taking off/flourished/flailing/rocketed. “Tourism isn’t just a business, but a cultural force.” said the director of the Icelandic Tourism Research Centre, at the October, 2016 Arctic Circle Assembly. The ongoing tourism surge, sparked by a post volcanic eruption marketing push and (B) fuelled/lowered/disregarded/worse of/ impaired cheap airline deals, has helped stabilize Iceland, which was hit hard by the 2008 financial crisis. As visitors have flooded in and discovered the country’s idyllic pastoral landscapes, agricultural demand has increased (C) hardly / expertly / persuasively/ unnecessarily/ dramatically. And, as Iceland melts, climate change is expanding the crop possibilities to meet it. Farmers have been exploring ways to take (D) charge/ back/ away from/ for a ride / advantage of Iceland’s changing climate. They have experimented with barley varieties for decades, and, more recently, with wheat and canola, crops once unthinkable above 60° latitude. The canola serves as cooking and biodiesel oil. And the barley’s a high-quality forage crop for more productive cows, as well as an ingredient for bread and some beverages. Iceland has also (E) guard / uphold / nurture / persevere / maintained its cultural heritage, most notably a hearty breakfast staple-Icelandic skyr is a thick, high-protein traditional yogurt produced from local milk and cultures that have been preserved in the country for centuries. Skyr from Icelandic Provisions, a company co-founded by a co-operative of around 650 milk producers in the country, became available in US grocery stores last year. Still, there is a growing concern that the (F) ascend / plunge / drop / spike / descend in tourists may prove to be a double-edged sword-and could alter the authentic agrarian culture tourists eek. Many small and medium-sized family farms struggle to stay afloat, particularly as youth move away from rural areas. And as tourism becomes a reliable, year-round business, some farmers, particularly in South western Iceland, have left farming and built tourist accommodations on prime farmland. The (G) answer / question / examination / inquiry / appeal is whether the Arctic island can harness agritourism without losing the culture it is built on. Icelanders are trying to hold onto their culture and protect their nature, while giving tourists their guests an authentic experience.

94. Which of the following will replace (A) in the context of the passage?

(a)  flailing

(b)  taking off

(c)  floundering

(d)  rocketed

(e)  flourished

Answer: (e)

95. Which of the following will replace (A) in the context of the passage?

(a)  worse of

(b)  lowered

(c)  fuelled

(d)  impaired

(e)  disregarded

Answer: (c)

96. Which of the following will replace (C) in the context of the passage?

(a)  unnecessarily

(b)  hardly

(c)  dramatically

(d)  persuasively

(e)  expertly

Answer: (c)

97. Which of the following will replace (D) in the context of the passage?

(a)  charge

(b)  for a ride

(c)  away from

(d)  back

(e)  advantage of

Answer: (e)

98. Which of the following will replace (E) in the context of the passage?

(a)  uphold

(b)  persevere

(c)  maintained

(d)  nurture

(e)  guard

Answer: (c)

99. Which of the following will replace (F) in the context of the passage?

(a)  drop

(b)  plunge

(c)  ascend

(d)  descend

(e)  spike

Answer: (c)

100. Which of the following will replace (G) in the context of the passage?

(a)  inquiry

(b)  appeal

(c)  question

(d)  answer

(e)  examination

Answer: (c)

Part 3 Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-105) Study the table and answer the given questions.

The Data is Regarding Mentor (Female + Male) and Trainees (Female + Male) Hood Count in Departments of an Organization, in December, 2014.

101. Number of trainees in Department E grew by 20% by March, 2015. With new trainees joining, how many more mentors does the organization require, such that the number of trainees under each mentor does not change?

(a)  does not require any more number of mentor

(b)  3

(c)  5

(d)  1

(e)  2

Answer: (b)

102. What is the average number of mentors in departments A, B, C and D?

(a)  12

(b)  7

(c)  6

(d)  9

(e)  8

Answer: (e)

103. Number of female trainees in department D are what percent less than those in department A?

(a)  40%

(b)  25%

(c)  30%

(d)  35%

(e)  20%

Answer: (a)

104. What is the difference between total number of female trainees in departments B and E together and the number of trainees (male + female) in department D?

(a)  199

(b)  201

(c)  221

(d)  189

(e)  187

Answer: (a)

105. The total number of male trainees in departments B and C together is what percent of number of trainees (male + female) in the department A?

(a)  60

(b)  40

(c)  64

(d)  80

(e)  72

Answer: (c)

106. The hypotenuse of a right angled triangle (T) measures 25 cm. T’s shortest is 25% shorter than its 2nd longest side. If T’s 2nd longest side and shortest side is equal to height and radius respectively of a right circular cylinder (C), what is C’s volume?

(a)  1125π cm3

(b)  2250 π cm3

(c)  4500 π cm3

(d)  3600 π cm3

(e)  5120 π cm3

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 107-111) The question consists of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Give answer

(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not

(b) if the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c) if the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

107. Gaurav invested a certain sum in scheme A which offers compound interest (compounded annually). What is the rate of interest offered by scheme A (in p.c.p.a.)?

Statements

(I) The sum invested by Gaurav amounted to Rs 12240 in 2 years.

(II) The sum invested by Gaurav amounted to Rs 14688 in three years.

Answer: (e)

108. In how many days 18 men and 14 women can complete a piece of work?

Statements

(I) 9 men and 7 women together can complete the same piece of work in 

(II) 2 men and 4 women together can complete the same piece of work in 

Answer: (a)

109. Only three candidates (A, B and C) contested an election. Who is the winner?

Statements

(I) Out of the total number of registered voters 36% did not vote. 25% of the total votes cast were invalid.

(II) Number of valid votes received by A is 22% of total number of registered voters.

Answer: (d)

110. There are 4 positive integers (M, N, O and P). What is the value of O?

Statements

(I) M < N < O < P. The median of M, N, O and P is 75.

(II) M and N are equidistant from 49. P and O are equidistant from 118.

Answer: (d)

111. A vessel contains ‘X’ litres of mixture of milk and water. The respective ratio of milk and water in the vessel is 5 : 3. What is the numerical value of ‘X’?

Statements

(I) If 32 L of mixture is taken out and 2 L of water is added, percentage of water in resultant mixture will become 40%.

(II) If 4L of milk is added and 6 L of water is added to the mixture, respective ratio of milk and water in the vessel will become 3 : 2.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 112-117) What will come in place of question marks in the given question?

112. 7, 8, 18, 57, ?, 1165

(a)  228

(b)  232

(c)  248

(d)  212

(e)  236

Answer: (b)

113. 11, 5, 4, 4.5, ?, 15

(a)  5

(b)  7

(c)  6

(d)  8

(e)  9

Answer: (b)

114. 13, ?, 34, 62, 118, 230

(a)  24

(b)  18

(c)  15

(d)  20

(e)  21

Answer: (d)

115. 44, 41, 36, 29, 18, ?

(a)  5

(b)  11

(c)  3

(d)  7

(e)  9

Answer: (a)

116. 5, 12, 40, 86, 147 ?

(a)  216

(b)  210

(c)  212

(d)  224

(e)  220

Answer: (e)

117. 15, 15, 22, 48, 111, ?

(a)  225

(b)  230

(c)  240

(d)  235

(e)  245

Answer: (d)

118. For a meal in a restaurant, a customer got 10% happy hour discount but paid 2.5% CGST and 2.5% SGST on the discounted rate. Had he got Rs 200 as discount and then paid the said taxes, he would have paid Rs 42 more. What was the price of meal before discount?

(a)  Rs 3200

(b)  Rs 2400

(c)  Rs 2000

(d)  Rs 3600

(e)  Rs 4000

Answer: (b)

119. 30 L of pure water was mixed with 15 L of pure milk, 30 L of this mixture as then sold and some more quantity of pure milk and pure water was added in the respective ratio 5 : 6. If the final quantity of milk was 500% of the initial quantity of water, what was the quantity of pure water that was added?

(a)  12 L

(b)  30 L

(c)  18 L

(d)  24 L

(e)  36 L

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 120-125) What approximate value will come in place of question marks in the given questions?

120. 151.04 – 118.95 ÷ 17.01 – ?2 = 80.07

(a)  4

(b)  10

(c)  8

(d)  12

(e)  6

Answer: (c)

121. 

(a)  88

(b)  83

(c)  72

(d)  77

(e)  93

Answer: (b)

122. 

(a)  6400

(b)  19600

(c)  28900

(d)  25600

(e)  22500

Answer: (d)

123. 

(a)  201

(b)  151

(c)  161

(d)  171

(e)  181

Answer: (c)

124. ? ÷02 + 4.97 × 9.09 = 131.92

(a)  348

(b)  342

(c)  355

(d)  336

(e)  330

Answer: (a)

125. 

(a)  84

(b)  120

(c)  102

(d)  108

(e)  114

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 126-131) In this question two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option.

(a) x > y        (b) x < y

(c) x ≥ y        (d) x ≤ y

(e) if x = y or the relation between x and y cannot be established

126. (I) x2 – 5x + 6 = 0 (II) y2 – 9y + 20 = 0

Answer: (b)

127. (I) 6x2 – 11x + 4 = 0 (II) 50y2 – 25y + 3 = 0

Answer: (a)

128. (I) 10x2 + 29x + 18 = 0 (II) 10y2 + 11y + 3 = 0

Answer: (b)

129. (I) 4x2 – 17x + 18 = 0 (II) 3y2 – 8y + 4 = 0

Answer: (c)

130. (I) x2 – 4x – 12 = 0 (II) y2 – 5y – 14 = 0

Answer: (d)

131. (I) 3x2 + 8x + 4 = 0 (II) 6y2 + 7y + 2 = 0

Answer: (e)

132. A (Working alone) can complete a given task in 20 days. B takes 20% more time than A to complete the same task. B started working alone for 2 days and was joined by A till the completion of task. In how many days was the entire task completed?

(a)  8

(b)  12

(c)  10

(d)  14

(e)  15

Answer: (b)

133. A and B started a business. B’s investment was 2.5 times that of A. The respective ratio between the time period for which A invested and that for which B invested was 3 : 1. If the total investment made by A and B together was Rs 2500 less than A’s investment, what was the difference between A’s share and B’s share in the annual profit?

(a)  Rs 200

(b)  Rs 800

(c)  Rs 500

(d)  Rs 400

(e)  Rs 650

Answer: (c)

134. In T hours, a car covers 36 km less than the distance covered by a bus in the same time. The speed of the car is 12 km/h less than the speed of the bus. Had the speed of the car been 52 km/h, what would have been the distance covered by it in ‘T-1/2’ hours?

(a)  260 km

(b)  120 km

(c)  390 km

(d)  130 km

(e)  140 km

Answer: (d)

135. A’s age 7 years ago was 10 years more than half his present age. The respective ratio between B’s age 4 years ago and A’s age that time was 2 : 5. If C’s age 12 years hence will be thrice of B’s age 2 years ago, what is C’s present age?

(a)  38 yr

(b)  30 yr

(c)  42 yr

(d)  37 yr

(e)  35 yr

Answer: (b)

136. S1 is a series of 5 consecutive positive multiples of 4, whose sum is 100. S is another series of 4 consecutive even numbers, whose 2nd lowest number is 6 less than the highest number of S1. What is the average of S2?

(a)  21

(b)  19

(c)  23

(d)  25

(e)  27

Answer: (c)

137. Mukesh invested a certain sum for 2 years in Scheme A, offering compound interest (on an annual basis) @20% per annum and earned an interest of Rs 3520. He invested the amount received from Scheme A in Scheme, B offering simple interest @18% for 4 years. What is the interest earned from Scheme B?

(a)  Rs 7624.20

(b)  Rs 9748.40

(c)  Rs 8254.80

(d)  Rs 9382.60

(e)  Rs 8294.40

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 138-143) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

This data is regarding number of travelers handled by a travel and tours company in four months (January, February, March and April) of a year.

Note Total number of travelers (male + female) = International (male + female) + Domestic (male + female)

• Total number of travelers in January is 2/3rd of that in February.

• 4/5th and 3/4th of the total number of travelers in January and February, respectively, are domestic travelers. Total number of travelers on March are equal to the number of domestic travelers in February.

• Total number of Travelers in April is twice of that in March.

• There are 1215 domestic travelers in March and the number of international travelers in March is 315 less than those in February.

• Number of international travelers in April are 1/3rd of those in February.

138. In December in the same year, total number of travelers grew by 60% from that in March. If 30% of the total number of travelers are International travelers, how many international travelers were handled by the company in December?

(a)  540

(b)  442

(c)  670

(d)  648

(e)  440

Answer: (d)

139. Out of the total number of domestic travelers (male + female) in January and February together, the respective ratio between number of male domestic travelers and female domestic travelers is 1 : 5. What is total number of male domestic travelers in January and February together?

(a)  1675

(b)  385

(c)  1825

(d)  750

(e)  675

Answer: (b)

140. Number of international travelers in March is what percent less than that in January?

(a)  50%

(b)  43.75%

(c)  36.8%

(d)  32%

(e)  49.25%

Answer: (b)

141. What is the difference between total number of travelers in February and that in April?

(a)  800

(b)  900

(c)  600

(d)  720

(e)  120

Answer: (b)

142. Number of international travelers in April is approximately what percent of domestic travelers in the same month?

(a)  2%

(b)  15%

(c)  9%

(d)  12%

(e)  6%

Answer: (e)

143. When a student was selected from a class consisting of 25 girls and a certain number of boys, the probability of the student being a boy is 3/8. If 2 students were selected from this class, what will be the probability of exactly one girl and one boy being selected?

(a)  25/52

(b)  23/52

(c)  27/52

(d)  21/52

(e)  29/52

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 144-150) Refer to the graph and answer the given question.

Note (I) number of received e-mails = Number of read e-mails + number of unread e-mails.

(II) No pending e-mails from previous days to be considered for calculation. Data is related to number of e-mails on Monday only

144. Number of e-mails read by B is what percent more than that read by D?

(a)  36%

(b)  32%

(c)  24%

(d)  28%

(e)  30%

Answer: (b)

145. Out of the e-mails read by B, 60% are from male customers. The number of unread e-mails from female customers is 51 less than that of read e-mails from female customers, what is the number of unread e-mails from male customers?

(a)  127

(b)  131

(c)  133

(d)  135

(e)  129

Answer: (e)

146. If the number of e-mails received by F was 38% more than that by C and number of e-mails read by F was 25% more than that unread by him, how many e-mails were read by F?

(a)  230

(b)  220

(c)  240

(d)  210

(e)  250

Answer: (a)

147. What is the difference between number of received e-mails by A and that by E?

(a)  50

(b)  60

(c)  40

(d)  70

(e)  80

Answer: (b)

148. Percentage of read e-mails (out of received e-mails each of them) were equal for A and G. If the number of e-mail received by G is 360, how many e-mails were unread by G ?

(a)  225

(b)  215

(c)  220

(d)  230

(e)  235

Answer: (a)

149. What is the average number of received e-mails by D and E?

(a)  540

(b)  550

(c)  530

(d)  510

(e)  520

Answer: (c)

150. At 10% lesser (than usual) speed (in still water), a boat covers 110 km downstream in 5 hours. If the boat’s usual speed (in still water) is 40% more than the stream’s speed, in what time will it cover 120 km upstream at its usual speed?

(a)  6 h

(b)  7 h 30 min

(c)  8 h

(d)  8 h 30 min

(e)  9 h

Answer: (b)

Part 4 Genera Knowledge

151. The Reserve of Bank of India (RBI) has recently come with a new Rs 10 note with different design and features. The new Rs 10 notes will be in same height of 63 mm, but the width will be

(a)  133 mm

(b)  117 mm

(c)  123 mm

(d)  137 mm

(e)  127 mm

Answer: (c)

152. According to Reserve Bank of India (RBI) a ‘banking outlet’ is a fixed point service delivery unit which works for at least five days a week for minimum of

(a)  3 hours per day

(b)  2 hours per day

(c)  6 hours per day

(d)  4 hours per day

(e)  5 hours per day

Answer: (d)

153. Which of the following Indian cricketers has been named as the ‘ICC Cricketer of the Year’ at the recent (January, 2018) ICC Awards?

(a)  Rohit Sharma

(b)  Mahendra Singh Dhoni

(c)  Ravindra Jadeja

(d)  Virat Kohli

(e)  Yuvraj Singh

Answer: (d)

154. Coach ‘Bishweshwar Nandi’ is associated with the sport of

(a)  Archery

(b)  Wrestling

(c)  Badminton

(d)  None of those given as options

(e)  Gymnastics

Answer: (e)

155. The prestigious ‘Jnanpith Award’ presented annually by Bharatiya Jnanpith is the highest Indian award for

(a)  education

(b)  literature

(c)  sports

(d)  social work

(e)  research

Answer: (b)

156. The ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’ is an intergovernmental organization headquartered in

(a)  Geneva (Switzerland)

(b)  The Hague (Netherlands)

(c)  Burssels (Belgium)

(d)  Paris (France)

(e)  Washington DC (USA)

Answer: (b)

157. The Ajanta Caves, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is situated in the Indian State of

(a)  Karnataka

(b)  Chhattisgarh

(c)  Odisha

(d)  Madhya Pradesh

(e)  Maharashtra

Answer: (e)

158. The theme of the ‘National Voters Day 2018’ observed on January 25 was

(a)  Accessible Elections

(b)  Empowering Young and Future Voters

(c)  Ethical Voting

(d)  Easy Registration, Easy Correction

(e)  Inclusive and Qualitative Participation

Answer: (a)

159. IDFC Bank Limited is a private sector bank headquartered in Mumbai. The alphabet ‘I’ in the abbreviation ‘IDFC’ stands for

(a)  Infrastructure

(b)  Insurance

(c)  Import

(d)  Industrial

(e)  Investment

Answer: (b)

160. Which of the following Indian cricketers has recently (January, 2018) been conferred with ‘Padma Bhushan’ Award?

(a)  Shikhar Dhawan

(b)  Ajinkya Rahane

(c)  Mahendra Singh Dhoni

(d)  Rohit Sharma

(e)  Virat Kohli

Answer: (c)

161. Credit for imports into India extended by the overseas suppliers or financial institutions outside India is known as

(a)  Letter of Credit

(b)  Buyers’ Credit

(c)  Bankers’ acceptance

(d)  Bank guarantee

(e)  Suppliers’ Credit

Answer: (e)

162. India’s overall rank in the ‘Environmental Performance Index 2018’ report recently (January, 2048) released on the sidelines of the World Economic Forum 2018 in Davos, Switzerland was

(a)  157 out of 180 countries

(b)  161 out of 180 countries

(c)  171 out of 180 countries

(d)  177 out of 180 countries

(e)  167 out of 180 countries

Answer: (d)

163. The ‘JSCA International Cricket Stadium’ is situated in

(a)  Rohtak (Haryana)

(b)  Ratlam (Madhya Pradesh)

(c)  Ranchi (Jharkhand)

(d)  Rajkot (Gujarat)

(e)  Raipur (Chhattisgarh)

Answer: (c)

164. Central Institute of Brackishwater Aquaculture (CIBA) is one of the research institutes under ICAR. It is headquartered in

(a)  Coimbatore (Tamil Nadu)

(b)  Calicut (Kerala)

(c)  Cochin (Kerala)

(d)  Chennai (Tamil Nadu)

(e)  Cuttack (Odisha)

Answer: (d)

165. Which of the following states has become the first Indian State to unveil a public cloud policy virtually mandating its departments shift their data storage onto the cloud is

(a)  Andhra Pradesh

(b)  Maharashtra

(c)  Gujarat

(d)  Telangana

(e)  Karnataka

Answer: (b)

166. ‘India: Priorities for the Future’ is a book authored by former RBI Governor

(a)  Bimal Jalan

(b)  Raghuram Rajan

(c)  YV Reddy

(d)  C. Rangarajan

(e)  D. Subbarao

Answer: (a)

167. The maximum balance in a ‘Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA)’ should not exceed an amount of

(a)  Rs 50000

(b)  Rs 65000

(c)  Rs 75000

(d)  Rs 99000

(e)  Rs 55000

Answer: (a)

168. The ‘Chamera II Hydroelectric Plant’ is situated in the Indian State of

(a)  Arunachal Pradesh

(b)  Jammu and Kashmir

(c)  Uttarakhand

(d)  Himachal Pradesh

(e)  Nagaland

Answer: (d)

169. ‘Supriya Devi’ who recently (January, 2018) died at the age of 85 in Kolkata was a

(a)  Bengali author

(b)  Bengali film actress

(c)  Bangladeshi author

(d)  well known poet

(e)  Classical singer

Answer: (b)

170. According to RBI guidelines the ‘Payments Banks’ are ‘not’ permitted to

(a)  accept demand deposits from individuals and small businesses

(b)  set up ATM

(c)  engage business correspondents

(d)  issue Debit Cards

(e)  accept term deposits

Answer: (e)

171. Which of the following category of banks may also provide ancillary services such as market making, trading of derivatives and equity securities?

(a)  Industrial Finance Banks

(b)  Investment banks

(c)  Retail banks

(d)  Micro-finance banks

(e)  Infrastructure finance banks

Answer: (b)

172. Which of the following international organizations is ‘not’ headquartered in Washington DC (USA)?

(a)  Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)

(b)  International Finance Corporation (IFC)

(c)  International Monetary Fund (IMF)

(d)  International Development Association (IDA)

(e)  Bank for International Settlements (BIS)

Answer: (e)

173. India’s first small finance bank the Jalandhar based ‘Capital Small Finance Bank’ had earlier been operating as a

(a)  Local Area Bank

(b)  Cooperative Bank

(c)  Regional Rural Bank

(d)  Non-banking Finance Company

(e)  Micro-finance Company

Answer: (a)

174. The city of ‘Badrinath’ in the Indian State of Uttarkhand is situated close to the banks of

(a)  Alakanda river

(b)  Ganges river

(c)  Saraswati river

(d)  Brahmaputra river

(e)  Mahanadi river

Answer: (a)

175. The government of India has recently permitted ‘Small Finance banks’ and ‘Payments banks’ to offer ……… in order to provide a boost to the outreach of the subscribers.

(a)  Standup India Scheme

(b)  Startup India Scheme

(c)  Kaushal Vikas Yojana

(d)  Atal Pension Yojana

(e)  Aadarsh Gram Yojana

Answer: (b)

176. ‘Kohima’ is the capita of the Indian State of

(a)  Arunachal Pradesh

(b)  Nagaland

(c)  Mizoram

(d)  Manipur

(e)  Meghalaya

Answer: (b)

177. India has recently (January, 2018) successfully test-fired its nuclear capable surface-to-surface ballistic missile Agni-5. The most advanced missile has a strike range of

(a)  5000 km

(b)  4500 km

(c)  5500 km

(d)  3500 km

(e)  4000 km

Answer: (a)

178. ‘March 3’, every year is observed as the

(a)  World Water Day

(b)  World Wetlands Day

(c)  International Women’s Day

(d)  World Wildlife Day

(e)  World Sparrow Day

Answer: (d)

179. The spacecraft ‘Cartosat-Z satellite’ recently (January, 20189) launched along with 30 other satellites on board polar rocket (PSLC-40) weighs around

(a)  510 kg

(b)  610 kg

(c)  None of those given as options

(d)  670 kg

(e)  710 kg

Answer: (e)

180. The 2018 edition of the ICC Women’s World T20 will be hosted by

(a)  Australia

(b)  Sri Lanka

(c)  West Indies

(d)  England

(e)  South Africa

Answer: (c)

181. Former Gujarat Chief Minister Anandiben Patel has recently (January, 2018) been sworn in as the new Governor of the Indian State of

(a)  Chhattisgarh

(b)  Maharashtra

(c)  Karnataka

(d)  Madhya Pradesh

(e)  Rajasthan

Answer: (d)

182. According to RBI guidelines for on tap licensing of ‘Universal Banks’ the new banks would have to maintain a minimum net worth of

(a)  Rs 500 crore at all times

(b)  Rs 350 crore at all times

(c)  Rs 200 crore at all times

(d)  Rs 450 crore at all times

(e)  Rs 100 crore at all times

Answer: (a)

183. Which of the following countries is ‘not’ a member of ‘BIMSTEC’?

(a)  Nepal

(b)  Brunei

(c)  Bangladesh

(d)  Thailand

(e)  Myanmar

Answer: (b)

184. In the Call/Notice Money market the term ‘Fortnight’ means the period from

(a)  Wednesday to the second following Tuesday

(b)  Monday to the second following Sunday

(c)  Friday to the second following Thursday

(d)  Saturday to the Second following Friday

(e)  Thursday to the Second following Wednesday

Answer: (d)

185. The ‘Nokrek National Park’ is situated in the Indian State of

(a)  Sikkim

(b)  Arunachal Pradesh

(c)  Manipur

(d)  Meghalaya

(e)  Tripura

Answer: (d)

186. According to the 2011 census, the community which was found to have the best sex ratio of 972 females against 1000 males is

(a)  Sikhs

(b)  Buddhists

(c)  Muslims

(d)  Zorostrians

(e)  Christians

Answer: (e)

187. The ‘Solalyar Dam’ is part of the Solalyar Hydroelectric Project (HEP). It is situated in the Indian State of

(a)  Tamil Nadu

(b)  None of those given as options Karnataka

(c)  Karnataka

(d)  Telangana

(e)  Kerala

Answer: (a)

188. When a customer keeps her valuables like jewellery/share certificate etc. in safe custody of the bank, in that case the relationship between the bank and the customer is that of

(a)  Other than those given as options

(b)  Bailee and Bailor

(c)  Credit and Debtor

(d)  Lesser and Lessee

(e)  Trustee and beneficiary

Answer: (d)

189. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently released banknotes in the denomination of Rs 50 in the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series. On the reverse of the new note there is a motif of

(a)  Mangalyaan (Mars mission)

(b)  Konark Sun Temple

(c)  Red Fort with Indian Flag

(d)  Hampi with Chariot

(e)  Indian fauna-rhinoceros, elephant and tiger

Answer: (d)

190. ‘Reykjavik’ is the capital and the largest city of

(a)  Jordan

(b)  Iceland

(c)  Ireland

(d)  Latvia

(e)  Israel

Answer: (b)

191. ‘Ajeya Warrior’ is the name of third joint military training exercise between the armies of India and

(a)  United States of America

(b)  France

(c)  New Zealand

(d)  United Kingdom

(e)  Australia

Answer: (d)

192. According to the data of the ‘Socio-Economic and Caste Census 2011’ the percentage of rural Indian population that depends on manual labour, including farm-work, for income was around

(a)  None of those given as options

(b)  61%

(c)  31%

(d)  51%

(e)  42%

Answer: (d)

193. The maturity period of a deposit made under the Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS) Account is

(a)  5 yr

(b)  12 yr

(c)  10 yr

(d)  1 yr

(e)  3 yr

Answer: (a)

194. Which of the characters of the 11 character alpha-numeric IFSC code is a numeric which is kept zero (0)?

(a)  7th

(b)  6th

(c)  8th

(d)  4th

(e)  5th

Answer: (e)

195. The Private Sector ‘City Union Bank’ is headquartered in the Indian State of

(a)  West Bengal

(b)  Kerala

(c)  Tamil Nadu

(d)  Karnataka

(e)  Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (c)

196. Which of the following is an app-based ‘scan and pay’ solution for small shops?

(a)  Aadhaar Pay

(b)  NUUP

(c)  Bharat QP

(d)  UPI

(e)  BHIM

Answer: (c)

197. India’s first ‘Madame Tussauds Wax Museum’ has recently (December, 2017) been opened in

(a)  Delhi

(b)  Mumbai

(c)  Kolkata

(d)  Bengaluru

(e)  Chennai

Answer: (a)

198. In an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dried up completely, banks can utilize the ‘MSF’ to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India. The alphabet ‘M’ in the abbreviation ‘MSF’ stands for

(a)  Marginal

(b)  Market

(c)  Mutual

(d)  Microfinance

(e)  Monetary

Answer: (a)

199. Under the banking Ombudsman Scheme the maximum amount of compensation that can be awarded to a consumer for loss of time, expenses occurred and mental anguish suffered during fighting the case is

(a)  Rs 05 lakh

(b)  Rs 20 lakh

(c)  Rs 02 lakh

(d)  Rs 10 lakh

(e)  Rs 01 lakh

Answer: (d)

200. ‘Unstoppable: My Life So Far’ is the autobiography of

(a)  Serena Williams

(b)  Ankita Raina

(c)  Sania Mirza

(d)  Martina Navratilova

(e)  Maria Sharapova

Answer: (e)

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