# Chhattisgarh Professional Examination Board Assistant Project Officer Recruitment Examination Held on May 13, 017 Question Paper With Answer Key

Chhattisgarh Professional Examination Board Assistant Project Officer Recruitment Examination Held on May 13, 017

1. The value of is

(a)   √3

(b)   2√3

(c)   √5

(d)   2√5

2. Two different numbers, when divided by a certain number x, leave remainders 547 and 349 respectively. When the sum of the numbers is divided by the same under, the remainder is 211. The value of x is

(a)   554

(b)   560

(c)   658

(d)   685

3. In a regular polygon, if one of its internal angle is greater than the external angle by 132°, then the number of sides of the polygon is

(a)   10

(b)   12

(c)   15

(d)   18

4. P and Q are two points on a circle with centre O. R is a point on the minor arc of the circle, between the points P and Q. The tangents to the circle at P and Q intersect each other at S. If ∠PSQ = 20°, then the measure of ∠PRQ is

(a)   80°

(b)   100°

(c)   108°

(d)   110°

5. If  then k = ?

(a)   cos θ

(b)   sin θ

(c)   sec θ

(d)   cosec θ

6. A person standing on the deck of a ship, which is 10 m above the water level, observes the angle of elevation of a cloud as 30° and the angle of depression of its reflection in the sea as 60°. The height of the cloud from the water level is

(a)   20√3

(b)   20

(c)   10√3

(d)   10

7. ‘A’ throws a cubical die whose faces bear the numbers 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8. ‘B’ throws an octahedral die, whose faces bear the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 at the same time. The probability that A’s die shows the number greater than the number of B’s die is

(a)   9/16

(b)   7/16

(c)   7/12

(d)   5/12

8. Ajay selects at random a positive integer less than or equal to 10 and Bina selects at random a positive integer less than 14. What is the probability that the product of two numbers, so selected, will be a square number ?

(a)   19/130

(b)   9/65

(c)   23/130

(d)   12/65

9. A committee of 8 students is to be selected from 8 boys and 6 girls. In how many ways can this be done if a committee is to consist of at least 3 boys and 3 girls?

(a)   336

(b)   1050

(c)   1120

(d)   2506

10. If all the letters of the world AGAIN be arranged as in dictionary, what is the 50th word?

(a)   AAING

(b)   GNAAI

(c)   NAAIG

(d)   NAIAG

11. A teacher wants to arrange 5 students on a platform such that boy A occupies the second position and such that girl B is always adjacent to girl C. How many such arrangement are possible ?

(a)   4

(b)   6

(c)   8

(d)   16

12. If C (n, r) denotes the number of ways of selecting r objects from n objects, and C(n, r) : C(n, r + 1) : C(n, r + 2) = 1 : 2 : 3 then the value of (n – r) is

(a)   10

(b)   12

(c)   13

(d)   14

13. If α, β and γ are three zeroes of the polynomial x3 – 64x – 14, then the value of (α3 + β3 + γ3) is

(a)   64

(b)   42

(c)   40

(d)   36

14. If a2 + b2 + c2 + 3 = 2(a – b – c), then the value of (a24 + b23 + c21) is

(a)   −2

(b)   −1

(c)   0

(d)   1

15. A solid metallic sphere of radius r is converted into a solid right circular cylinder of radius R. If the height of the cylinder is twice the radius of the sphere, then

(a)   R = r

(b)

(c)

(d)

16. Three concentric circles have radii a, b and c where a < b < c. If a = 8 and b = 9 and the middle circle bisects the area between the other two circles, then the value of c is

(a)   11 cm

(b)   10 cm

(c)   7√2 cm

(d)   6√3 cm

17. A and B undertook to do a piece of work for Rs 5040. A could do it alone in 5 days and B could do it alone in 8 days. With the help of C and D, they finished it in 3 days. If the work done by C be twice than that of D, then the difference in the shares of B and D was

(a)   Rs 1134

(b)   Rs 1806

(c)   Rs 1848

(d)   Rs 2982

18. A and B together do a work in 30 days while B and C together can do it in 24 days and C and A together can do it in 20 days. They all work for 6 days and then B and C leave. How many days more will A take to finish the work?

(a)   30

(b)   24

(c)   18

(d)   15

19. 15 persons can complete a work in 220 days. They started the work but at the end of 10 days, 15 more persons with double efficiency, were inducted. How many days in all did they take to finish the work?

(a)   85

(b)   80

(c)   75

(d)   70

20. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 and 12 hours respectively. Pipe B alone is kept open for 75% of the time to fill it and both the pipes are kept open for the remaining time. In how many hours, will the tank be full?

(a)   8

(b)   8.5

(c)   9.5

(d)   10

21. The average of k numbers is x. If the number y is replaced by the number y°, then the average becomes x°. Which of the following is true?

(a)   x = x° + k (y – y°)

(b)

(c)

(d)

22. The average weight of first 12 persons among 13 persons is 90 kg. The weight of 13th person is 12 kg more than the average weight of all the 13 persons. What is the weight of the 13th person?

(a)   91 kg

(b)   102 kg

(c)   103 kg

(d)   105 kg

23. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3 : 2. If 20% of the boys and 40% of girls hold scholarship, then the percentage of students who do not hold scholarship is

(a)   60%

(b)   72%

(c)   80%

(d)   90%

24. A person gave 30% of his money to his eldest daughter. He gave 30% of the remainder to his youngest daughter. he divided the remaining money equally among his two sons. If each song get Rs 7350, what did the youngest daughter get ?

(a)   Rs 6300

(b)   Rs 7000

(c)   Rs 7200

(d)   Rs 9000

25. A shopkeeper purchases 10 kg of rice at Rs 600 and sells at a loss as much the selling price of 2 kg of rice. What is the selling price of rice per kg ?

(a)   Rs 45

(b)   Rs 48

(c)   Rs 50

(d)   Rs 52

26. If the selling price of an article doubled, then its loss percent is converted into equal profit percent. The loss percent on the article is

(a)   25%

(b)

(c)   50%

(d)

27. A watch is sold at a profit of 20%. If both the cost price and the selling price of the watch are decreased by Rs 100, the profit would be 5% more. Original cost price of the watch is

(a)   Rs 400

(b)   Rs 500

(c)   Rs 560

(d)   Rs 650

28. A shopkeeper marks his goods at such a price that after allowing a discount of  on it, he still earns a profit of 12%. The marked price of an article which costs him Rs 4812.50 is

(a)   Rs 5350

(b)   Rs 5490

(c)   Rs 6150

(d)   Rs 6160

29. The area (in square units) of the region bounded by the graphs of the equation 2x + y = 6 and 2x – y + 2 = 0 and x-axis is

(a)   4

(b)   6

(c)   8

(d)   12

30. If α and β are the roots of the equation  , then the value of |α – β| is

(a)   1

(b)   2√3

(c)   2

(d)   4√3

31. Two natural numbers are such that their sum, difference and product are in the ratio of 7 : 1 : 24. The sum of their cubes is

(a)   91

(b)   189

(c)   341

(d)   728

32. In an examination, the ratio of the number of students who passed on that of students, who failed was 4 : 1. Had there been 35 students less and 9 more had failed, then the ratio would have been 2 : 1. The total number of students appeared in the examination was

(a)   155

(b)   142

(c)   132

(d)   124

33. A sum of money becomes Rs 62500 after 3 years and Rs 78732 after 6 years at a certain rate percent per annum compound interest. The simple interest on Rs 62500 for  at the same rate of interest is

(a)   Rs 16232

(b)   Rs 22500

(c)   Rs 24000

(d)   Rs 24500

34. A sum of money is taken as a loan. This is to be paid back in two equal installments each being of Rs 16820. If the rate of interest is 16% per annum compound annually, then the total interest charged is

(a)   Rs 4660

(b)   Rs 6066

(c)   Rs 6460

(d)   Rs 6640

35. The ratio of copper and zinc in alloy A is 1 : 3 and in ally B, it is 5 : 3. In what ratio should A and B be mixed to obtain a new alloy in which the ratio of zinc and copper is 5 : 3?

(a)   1 : 2

(b)   2 : 1

(c)   2 : 3

(d)   3 : 2

36. A vessel contains a solution of acid and water in which acid is 38%. Five litres of the solution is taken out and replaced by the same quantity of water. If the present percentage of acid in the vessel is 28.5%, the quantity of solution in be beginning was

(a)   19 L

(b)   20 L

(c)   38 L

(d)   40 L

37. 2 L of a solution of spirit and water contains 15% water. In this, 3 L of another solution containing 10% of water is mixed and than 1/2 L of water is also mixed. The percentage of water in the resulting solution is

(a)   15%

(b)   18%

(c)   20%

(d)   25%

38. A women travels a distance of 300 km, partly by train and rest by bus. She takes  if the travels 210 km by train and rest by bus. If she travels 180 km by train and rest by bus, she takes  The speed of bus is

(a)   45 km/h

(b)   48 km/h

(c)   60 km/h

(d)   80 km/h

39. Anju leaves place A at 6 : 00 am and reaches Bat 10 : 00 am on the same day. Ritu leaves B at 7 : 30 am and reaches A at 11 : 00 am. They will meet each other at

(a)   7 : 45 am

(b)   8 : 20 am

(c)   8 : 40am

(d)   9 : 20 am

40. Two trains running in the opposite direction on parallel tracks at the speeds of 44 km/h and 55 km/h take 12 seconds to cross each other. If the length of one train is 180 m, what is the length of the other train ?

(a)   120 m

(b)   150 m

(c)   160 m

(d)   200 m

Part B Analytical Reasoning

41. The digits on the dial of a wall clock are replaced by alternative English alphabets beginning with ‘D’, such as ‘D’ replaces 1, ‘F’ replaces 2 so on, then where will be the hour hand at 21 : 30 hours ?

(a)   Between P and N

(b)   Between R and T

(c)   Between T and V

(d)   Between V and X

42. A clock is so placed that at 3 o’clock its minute hand points towards the South-West. In which direction does its hour hand point?

(a)   North

(b)   North-West

(c)   North-East

(d)   South-East

43. If the day before yesterday was Thursday, what day will fall on the day after tomorrow?

(a)   Sunday

(b)   Monday

(c)   Tuesday

(d)   Wednesday

44. If Sunday falls on December 11, 2002, what will be the day on December 11, 2004?

(a)   Tuesday

(b)   Wednesday

(c)   Thursday

(d)   Friday

45. Which one of the given responses would be a logical sequence of the following words?

1. Plant 2. Fruit 3. Seed        4. Flower    5. Tree

(a)   3, 1, 5, 4, 2

(b)   3, 1, 2, 4, 5

(c)   3, 1, 5, 2, 4

(d)   4, 3, 2, 5, 1

46. Arrange the following in a logical sequence (in ascending order).

1. Nation 2. Village 3. State       4. District   5. Town

(a)   1, 2, 5, 3, 4

(b)   2, 1, 3, 4, 5

(c)   2, 5, 4, 1, 3

(d)   2, 5, 4, 3, 1

47. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the number series.

94, 105, 127, 160, ?, 259

(a)   196

(b)   200

(c)   204

(d)   208

48. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the number series.

6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ?

(a)   340

(b)   336

(c)   333

(d)   330

49. Which ones set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

_l m_j l_k_ _ m k j lm_

(a)   j k m j l k

(b)   j l m k j m

(c)   j k m l j j

(d)   j k m j l j

50. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the letter series.

XYZ, ABC, UVW, DEF, RST, GHI ?

(a)   JKL

(b)   LMN

(c)   OPQ

(d)   TUV

51. Pointing to a photograph a man said, “I have not brother or sister but that man’s father is my father’ son”. Whose photograph was it?

(a)   His own

(b)   His father’s

(c)   His nephew’s

(d)   His son’s

52. Rajesh is Mukesh’s brother; Sandhya is Rajesh’s mother; Dinesh is Sandhya’s father; Ravi is Mukesh’s son. How is Dinesh related to Ravi?

(a)   Son

(b)   Father

(c)   Grandfather

(d)   Great Grandfather

53. In column I ten students are listed O, P, Q ………….. X and in column II their common seven characteristics A, B, C, ……….., G.

Which student possesses all the characteristics?

(a)   P

(b)   R

(c)   U

(d)   X

54. In column I ten students are listed O, P, Q …….. X and in column II their common seven characteristics A, B, C, ………., G.

Which characteristic are common to all the students?

(a)   E F

(b)   D G

(c)   D E

(d)   C E

Directions (Q. Nos. 55-58) Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

55. Statements

All teachers are intelligent.

Some women are teachers.

Conclusions

I. All intelligent people are women.

II. Some women are intelligent.

(a)   Only conclusion I follows

(b)   Only conclusion II follows

(c)   Both conclusion I and II follow

(d)   Neither conclusion I nor II follows

56. Statements

Many cars are buses.

All buses are scooters.

Conclusions

I. Some cars are scooters.

II. No bus is a car.

(a)   Only conclusion I follows

(b)   Only conclusion II follows

(c)   Both conclusion I and II follow

(d)   Neither conclusion I nor II follows

57. Statements All books are pens.

All pens are pencils.

Conclusions

I. All books are pencils.

II. All pencils are books.

III. All pen are books.

(a)   Only conclusion I follows

(b)   Only conclusion II follows

(c)   Both conclusion I and II follow

(d)   Neither conclusion I nor II follows

58. Statements

All historians are singers.

All singers are musicians.

No actor is a musician.

Conclusions

I. All singer are actors.

II. No actor is a historian.

III. Some actors are singers.

IV. Some musicians are historians.

(a)   None of the follows

(b)   I and III follow

(c)   II and IV follow

(d)   All follow

Directions (Q. Nos. 59-61) Decide which of the arguments is/are ‘strong’ with respect to given statement.

59. Statement Should India and Pakistan unite?

Arguments

I. Yes, because East and West Germany united.

II. No, because USSR disintegrated.

(a)   Only argument I is strong.

(b)   Only argument II is strong.

(c)   Both I and II are strong.

(d)   Neither I nor II is strong.

60. Statements Should all the school teachers be debarred from giving private tuitions?

Arguments

I. No, the needy students will be deprived of the expertise of these teachers.

II. Yes, only then the quality of teaching in schools will improve.

(a)   Only argument I is strong.

(b)   Only argument II is strong.

(c)   Both I and II are strong.

(d)   Neither I nor II is strong.

61. Statement Should the system of Lok Adalats and Mobile Courts be encouraged in India?

Arguments

I. No, these courts are usually partial is justice.

II. Yes, it helps to grant speedy justice to the masses.

III. Yes, it will reduse the burden on  higher courts, particularly for minor cases.

(a)   Only is strong.

(b)   I and III are strong.

(c)   II and III are strong.

(d)   All are strong.

Directions (Q. Nos. 62-65) A statement is given be low followed by two or three assumptions. Consider the statement and assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

62. Statement In Delhi, Metro trains are indispensable for people in the NCR to reach their places of work on time.

Assumptions

I. Metro trains are the only mode of transport available in the NCR of Delhi.

II. Only Metro trains runs punctually.

(a)   Only I is implicit.

(b)   Only II is implicit.

(c)   Both I and II are implicit.

(d)   Neither I nor II is implicit.

63. Statement Salaries of government servants should be periodically raised in order to motivate them for better performance.

Assumptions

I. Salaries government servants are low.

II. It is necessary to motivate government for better performance.

(a)   Only I is implicit.

(b)   Only II is implicit.

(c)   Both I and II are implicit.

(d)   Neither I nor II is implicit.

Assumptions

I. No other Diary supplies pure ghee.

II. Impure ghee is being sold in the market.

III. Anmol Dairy advertises to increase its sales.

(a)   Only I is implicit.

(b)   I and II are implicit.

(c)   II and III are implicit.

(d)   All are implicit.

65. Statement If Gaurav has worn a four coloured badge he belongs to St. Xavier’s School.

Assumptions

I. St. Xavier School students wear four coloured badge.

II. Those who do not wear four coloured badge do not belong to St. Xavier School.

(a)   Only I is implicit.

(b)   Only II is implicit.

(c)   Both I and II are implicit.

(d)   Neither I nor II is  implicit.

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-68) Consider the given statement as true and decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for purusing.

66. Statement Three person were caught with huge arms and ammunition in the city.

Courses of Action

I. Police should be instructed for night patrolling and put on high alert.

II. The three persons should be set free and their movements should be watched to nab the other criminals.

(a)   Only I follows

(b)   Only II follows

(c)   Both I and II follow

(d)   Neither I nor II follows

67. Statement Many medical and engineering graduate are taking up jobs in Administrative Services, Banks etc.

Courses of Action

I. All professionals should be advised to refrain from taking up such jobs.

II. The government should appoint a Committee to find out the reason for these professionals taking such jobs and to suggest remedial measures.

(a)   Only I follows

(b)   Only II follows

(c)   Both I and II follow

(d)   Neither I nor II follows

68. Statement Major part of the Rabi crop in the District is damaged due to unseasonal heavy rains during the last few days.

Courses of Action

I. The government should grant relief to the affected farmers to compensate their loss.

II. The government should provide free seed and fertilizer to the farmers for the Kharif season.

III. The government should provide waive all the loans taken for the Rabi crop by the affected farmers.

(a)   I and II follow

(b)   II and III follow

(c)   Only III follow

(d)   All follows.

Directions (Q. Nos. 69-71) There are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the given alternatives.

69. Assertion (A) Cancer is a viral infection.

Reason (R) Vitamin deficiency causes diseases.

(a)   ‘A’ is true, but ‘R’ is false.

(b)   ‘A’ is false, but ‘R’ is true.

(c)   Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true.

(d)   Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are false.

70. Assertion (A) India is a democratic country.

Reason (R) Indian has a Constitution of its own.

(a)   ‘A’ is true, but ‘R’ is false.

(b)   ‘A’ is false, but ‘R’ is true.

(c)   Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’.

(d)   Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true, but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’.

71. Assertion (A) Petrol fire cannot be extinguished by pouring water over it.

Reason (R) Water is lighter than petrol.

(a)   ‘A’ is true, but ‘R’ is false.

(b)   ‘A’ is false, but ‘R’ is true.

(c)   Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true.

(d)   Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are false.

Directions (Q. Nos. 72-75) Two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. Read the statements carefully and select the correct answer from the given alternatives.

72. Statements

I. The life today is too fast, demanding and at times leads to stressful situations.

II. Number of suicide cases among teenagers is on increase.

(a)   Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

(b)   Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

(c)   Both statements I and II are independent causes.

(d)   Both statements I and II are independent effects of independent causes.

73. Statements

I. Recently government has announced additional Dearness Allowance to its employees.

II. The Consumer Price Index is increasing since last six months.

(a)   Statement I is the cause and II is its effect.

(b)   Statement II is the cause and I  is its effect.

(c)   Both I and II are independent causes.

(d)   Both I and II are independent effects of independent causes.

74. Statements

I. The interview Board of an organization has recommended four candidates against three vacant posts, to be filled immediately.

II. All the four candidates have been asked to contact the organization next week and collect their appointment letters.

(a)   Statement I is the cause and II is its effect.

(b)   Statement II is the cause and I is its effect.

(c)   Statement I is the effect, but II is not its cause.

(d)   Statement II is the effect, but I is not its main cause.

75. Statements

I. There is a jump in gold price in local market.

II. India has won several awards for designs of gold ornaments.

(a)   Statement I is the cause and II is its effect.

(b)   Statement II is the cause and I is its effect.

(c)   Statement I is the effect, but II is not its cause.

(d)   Statement II is the effect, but I is not its main cause.

Part C General Awareness & Current Affairs

76. Which of the following is defined as ‘an individual’s competencies required to perform the tasks involved in completing a job’?

(a)   Job description

(b)   Job skills

(c)   Hobbies and talents

(d)   Intelligence quotient

77. The International Labour Organization (ILO) defines skill as

(a)   the ability to complete a piece of work in more time than alloted

(b)   the training given to new joiners in a firm

(c)   the talent required to acquire a job

(d)   the ability to carry out the tasks and duties of a given job

78. Which of the following statements about types of skills is correct?

A. Hard skills are specific, teachable abilities that can be defined and measured, for example, cooking.

B. Soft skills are more personality-oriented interpersonal skills, for example, communication.

(a)   A is correct, but B is incorrect.

(b)   B is correct, but A is incorrect.

(c)   Both A and B are correct.

(d)   Both A and B are incorrect.

79. ………….. is an autonomous body under Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship that anchors the National Skill Qualification Framework and allied quality assurance mechanisms for synergizing skill initiatives in the country.

(a)   The Indian Institute of Skill Development (IISD)

(b)   Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT)

(c)   National Skill Development Agency (NSDA)

(d)   National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)

80. Who is the Union Minister of State for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship?

(a)   Rajiv Pratap Rudy

(b)   Rajnath Singh

(c)   Smriti Malhotra (Irani)

(d)   Prakash Javdekar

81. Which of the following statements about ‘Skill Development Initiative Scheme’ launched by the Union Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship is not correct?

(a)   One of its objectives is to build capacity in the area of development of competency standards, course curricula, learning material and assessment standards in the country.

(b)   It was established with an objective to provide vocational training to school leavers, existing workers, ITI graduates, etc. to improve their employability.

(c)   Under the scheme, Central government facilitates and  promote training while industry. private sector and State government provide training to the persons.

(d)   The scheme is only for highly skilled professionals like doctors and engineers.

82. What is main objective of the STAR scheme under the National Skill Certification and Monetary Reward Scheme?

(a)   To provide an interest-free loan of Rs 100000 to unskilled graduates to start their own business.

(b)   To encourage skill development for youth by providing monetary rewards for successful completion of approved training programmes.

(c)   To encourage athletes and sportsperson to open training institutes to promote their sport.

(d)   To support the educational requirements of children from extremely poor households.

83. For Year 2016-17, how many persons were trained as on February 28 under Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Garmeen Kushalya Yojana?

(a)   123488

(b)   79401

(c)   148227

(d)   270329

84. Under special component of Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana, what percentage of the funds would be earmarked for SCs and STs?

(a)   50%

(b)   40%

(c)   30%

(d)   20%

85. National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) launched by Ministry of Rural Development is also known as

(a)   Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar

(b)   Aajeevika

(c)   Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana

(d)   Grameen Kaushalya Yojana

86. NSDC’s financing initiatives provide funding through

A. Loan B. Equity C. Grants

(a)   A and B

(b)   B and C

(c)   A and C

(d)   All of these

87. The State government has established Chhattisgarh Nirman Academy (CNA) to

(a)   cater to the training needs in construction sector.

(b)   fulfill the infrastructure needs of the backward regions in the State.

(c)   train rural youth in primary health and medical services.

(d)   provide training and employment opportunities to poor girls in beauty culture and hair dressing.

88. Which of the following statements about National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) is not correct?

(a)   After the third anniversary (December 12, 2016) government funding would not be available for any training/educational programme/course which is not NSQF-compliant.

(b)   All other frameworks, including the National Vocational Educational Qualification Framework (NVEQF)

(c)   The NSQF is a quality assurance framework.

(d)   After the fifth anniversary (December 12, 2018) no training/education programme/course  is required to  be NSQF-complaint.

89. Roughlyy what percent of the persons trained under NSDC have been placed from 2010-11 to 2014-15?

(a)   48%

(b)   62%

(c)   12%

(d)   78%

90. Which of the following statements are true about Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)?

1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).

2. The objective of the Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take-up industry-relevant skill training.

3. Under this scheme, training and assessment fees are to be paid by the individual.

(a)   1 and 3

(b)   1 and 2

(c)   2 and 3

(d)   All of these

91. National Council of Vocational and Research Training (NCVRT) was established under which article of the Constitution of India?

(a)   Article-29 and 30(1)

(b)   Article-20 and 21(A)

(c)   Article-43 and 44

(d)   Article-26

92. Chhattisgarh Right to Skill Act 2013 has set the target of ………… million workforce for skill Development/Skill Enhancement and Certification by the year 2022.

(a)   12.5

(b)   200

(c)   300

(d)   100

93. A unique initiative in the form of a Livelihood College was successfully piloted in Dantewada district in South Bastar, where ……….. are being provided training in a range of skills since 2011.

(a)   tribal and naxal youth

(b)   unemployed rural youth

(c)   unemployed women

(d)   dropouts from school

94. What are the prevailing basic minimum daily wages (excluding the variable daily allowances) for unskilled workers in the agriculture sector in Chhattisgarh?

(a)   Rs 150.90

(b)   Rs 20.13

(c)   Rs 143.83

(d)   Rs 31.20

95. What is the prevailing Daily Minimum Basic Wage for unskilled workers listed under Schedule ‘B’ working in zone ‘A’ in Chhattisgarh?

(a)   Rs 370

(b)   Rs 130

(c)   Rs 238

(d)   Rs 410

96. Which of the following statements about the State Project Livelihood College Society (SPLCS) is/are correct?

1. The Chhattisgarh State government has established SPLCS to place the Livelihood College initiative on a robust foundation with strong employment linkage.

2. The Chhattisgarh State government has established SPLCS to create a network of such Livelihood Colleges to provide a range of livelihood opportunities for students from across the State including in partnership with the private sector.

3. All costs under SPLCS are met with the CSR contributions of private companies in the State.

(a)   1 and 2

(b)   1 and 3

(c)   2 and 3

(d)   All are correct

97. ………. under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship in the apex organization for development and coordination at National Level for the programmes relating to vocational training including Women’s Vocational Training and Employment Services.

(a)   State Project Livelihood College Society (SPLCS)

(b)   National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)

(c)   National Council of Vocational Training (NCVT)

(d)   The Directorate General of Training (DGT)

98. Which of the following is the target of the Mukhya Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (MMKVY) scheme of the Chhattisgarh State Skill Development Authority (CSSDA)?

(a)   To ensure that the entire adult population of Chhattisgarh is trained as skilled labour by the end of the year 2020.

(b)   To train young adults (children from age 14 to 17) as skilled workers in heavy engineering and hazardous industries.

(c)   To enhance the skills of all working women from the state of work in the handloom and handicraft sector.

(d)   To prepare a population of 1 crore 25 lakh (workers) as Certified Skilled Technicians till the end of the year 2022.

99. Under which of the following is the Mukhya Mantrai Kaushal Vikas Yojana (MMKVY) being implemented?

(a)   Deen Dayal Upadhyay-Gramin Kaushal Vikas Yojana (DDU-GKY)

(b)   Skill Development Initiative Scheme (SDIS)

(c)   National Council of Vocational Training (NCVT)

(d)   Chhattisgarh State Skill Development Mission (CSSDM)

100. Under Mukhya Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (MMKVY), the Chhattisgarh State Skill Development Authority (CSSDA) provides skill development courses in …………… sectors.

(a)   27

(b)   54

(c)   79

(d)   118

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