CTET Examination July 2019 Paper-1 Set-X Question Paper With Answer Key

CTET Paper-2 Set-X

Part-I

Child Development and Pedagogy

Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

1. To understand individual differences in development it is important

(1)  to look at the environmental factors that affect individuals.

(2)  to consider maturation of the body and the brain.

(3)  to consider both inherited characteristics as well as environmental factors and their interplay

(4)  to look at the inherited characteristics that give each person a special start in life.

Answer: (3)

2. Which of the following is not a principle of development?

(1)  Development is relatively orderly.

(2)  Development takes place gradually over a period of time.

(3)  Exact course and nature of development is determined at the time of birth itself.

(4)  Individuals develop at different rates.

Answer: (3)

3. Several research studies show that teachers have more overall interaction with boys than girls. What is the correct explanation for this ?

(1)  Boys need more attention than girls.

(2)  This is an example of gender bias in teaching.

(3)  Boys are easier to manage than girls in the classroom.

(4)  Boys have much more academic capabilities than girls.

Answer: (2)

4. Which of the following is central to the concept of progressive education?

(1)  Belief in the capability and potential of every child

(2)  Standard instruction and assessment

(3)  Extrinsic motivation and uniform assessment parameters

(4)  Textbook centric learning

Answer: (1)

5. What instructional adaptations should a teacher make while working with students who are ‘Visually Challenged’?

(1)  Use a variety of visual presentations.

(2)  Orient herself so that the students can watch her closely.

(3)  Focus on a variety of written tasks especially worksheets.

(4)  Speak clearly and use a lot of touch and feel materials.

Answer: (4)

6. Co-operative learning and peer-tutoring ______ in an inclusive classroom.

(1)  should be actively discouraged

(2)  should be occasionally used

(3)  should not be used

(4)  should be actively promoted

Answer: (4)

7. Which of the following is most important in an inclusive classroom?

(1)  Standardized testing

(2)  Promoting competitive learning

(3)  Individualized education plan

(4)  Uniform instruction

Answer: (3)

8. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of learners and their primary characteristics?

(1)  ‘Dyslexic’ learners-Lack reading and writing fluency

(2)  Creative learners-Hyperactive; slow in completing work

(3)  Attention deficit learners – High motivation; can sustain attention for long periods of time.

(4)  Hearing impaired learners – Cannot comprehend visual information

Answer: (1)

9. The ability to come up with original and divergent solutions to a problem is a primary characteristic of

(1)  Impaired children

(2)  Creative children

(3)  Children with learning disability

(4)  Egocentric children

Answer: (2)

10. Which of the following would not be consistent with a constructivist environment?

(1)  Students work collaboratively and are given support to engage in task-oriented dialogue with each other.

(2)  Teachers elicit students’ ideas and experiences in relationship to key topics and plant teaching-learning to elaborate or restructure their current knowledge.

(3)  Teachers employ specific end of the term assessment strategies and given feedback on products rather than processes.

(4)  Students are given frequent opportunities to engage in complex, meaningful, problem based activities.

Answer: (3)

11. A teacher should encourage students to set ______ rather than _______.

(1)  performance goals; learning goals

(2)  failure avoiding goals; marks seeking goals

(3)  marks seeking goals; failure avoiding goals

(4)  learning goals; performance goals

Answer: (4)

12. Which of the following does not result in meaningful facilitation of learning?

(1)  Promoting repetition and recall

(2)  Use of examples and non-examples

(3)  Encouraging multiple ways of looking at a problem

(4)  Connecting new knowledge to pre-existing knowledge

Answer: (1)

13. Which of these is an example of extrinsic motivation?

(1)  “I learn so much when I do my homework.”

(2)  “Doing homework makes me understand my concepts better.”

(3)  “I complete my homework because the teacher gives us marks for each assignment.”

(4)  “I enjoy doing my homework because it is so much fun.”

Answer: (3)

14. In a primary classroom a teacher should

(1)  give only non-examples

(2)  give both examples and non-examples

(3)  not give any examples and non-examples

(4)  give only examples

Answer: (2)

15. Which of the following strategies would promote meaning-making in children?

(1)  Transmission of information

(2)  Using punitive measures

(3)  Uniform and standardized testing

(4)  Exploration and discussion

Answer: (4)

16. Which of the following are examples of effective learning strategies?

(i) Setting goals and time tables

(ii) Making organizational charts and concept maps

(iii) Thinking of examples and non-examples

(iv) Explaining to a peer

(v) Self-questioning

(1)  (i), (iv), (v)

(2)  (i), (ii), (iii), (v)

(3)  (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(4)  (i), (ii), (iii)

Answer: (3)

17. In the constructivist frame child is viewed as

(1)  ‘tabula rasa’ or ‘blank slate’ whose life is shaped entirely by experience.

(2)  a ‘passive being’

(3)  a ‘problem solver’ and a ‘scientific investigator’.

(4)  ‘miniature adult’ who is less than adult in all aspects such as size, cognition, emotions.

Answer: (3)

18. A teacher’s role while using co-operative learning in her class-

(1)  is to leave the class and let children work on their own.

(2)  is to be supportive and monitor each group.

(3)  is to support the group which has the ‘bright’ and ‘talented’ children.

(4)  is to be a silent spectator and let children do what they want.

Answer: (2)

19. Children’s errors and misconceptions-

(1)  are a hindrance and obstacle to the teaching-learning process.

(2)  should be ignored in the teaching-learning process.

(3)  signify that children’s capabilities are far inferior than that of adults.

(4)  area a significant step in the teaching-learning process.

Answer: (4)

20. According to Piaget, specific psychological structures (organized ways of making sense of experience) are called

(1)  schemes

(2)  images

(3)  mental maps

(4)  mental tools

Answer: (1)

21. “With an appropriate question / suggestion, the child’s understanding can be extended far beyond the point which she could have reached alone.” Which construct does the above statement highlight?

(1)  Equilibration

(2)  Conservation

(3)  Intelligence

(4)  Zone of proximal development

Answer: (4)

22. According to Lev Vygotsky, basic mental capacities are transformed into higher cognitive processes primarily through

(1)  social interaction

(2)  stimulus-response association

(3)  adaptation and organization

(4)  rewards and punishment

Answer: (1)

23. Which of the following statements denotes the relationship between development and learning correctly?

(1)  Learning takes place irrespective of development.

(2)  Rate of learning far exceeds the rate of development.

(3)  Development and learning are inter-related and inter-dependent.

(4)  Development and learning are not related.

Answer: (3)

24. One of the major accomplishments of concrete operational stage is

(1)  Ability to conserve

(2)  Hypothetic-deductive reasoning

(3)  Secondary circular reactions

(4)  Animistic thinking

Answer: (1)

25. Constructivists such as Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky view learning as

(1)  conditioning of responses

(2)  passive repetitive process

(3)  process of meaning-making by active engagement

(4)  acquisition of skills

Answer: (3)

26. Selecting and presenting stories and clippings from newspaper that portray both men and women in non-traditional roles is an effective strategy to

(1)  promote gender constancy

(2)  encourage stereotypical gender roles

(3)  counter gender stereotypes

(4)  promote gender  bias

Answer: (3)

27. Read the following description and identify the stage of moral reasoning of Kohlberg.

Description:

Right action is defined by self-chosen ethical principles of conscience that are valid for all humanity, regardless of law and social agreement.

(1)  The social-contract orientation

(2)  The social – order maintaining orientation

(3)  The universal ethical principle orientation

(4)  The instrumental purpose orientation

Answer: (3)

28. As per Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligence, how would the intelligence of a person with the following characteristic be categorized ?

Characteristics :

“Ability to detect and respond appropriately to the moods, temperaments, motivations and, intentions of others.”

(1)  Intrapersonal

(2)  Interpersonal

(3)  Therapeutic

(4)  Naturalistic

Answer: (2)

29. Which of the following should be the reasons for assessment of children?

(i) To separate and label children into ‘non-achievers’, ‘low-achievers’, ‘average’ and high-achievers’.

(ii) To improve teaching-learning processes in the classroom.

(iii) To find out what changes and progress in learning that takes place in the child over a period of time.

(iv) To discuss the capabilities, potential, strengths and challenging areas of the child with the parents.

(1)  (i), (ii), (iii)

(2)  (ii), (iii), (iv)

(3)  (ii), (iv)

(4)  (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (2)

30. Which of the following play an important role in a child’s socialization ?

(i) Media

(ii) School

(iii) Family

(iv) Neighbourhood

(1)  (ii), (iii)

(2)  (i), (iii), (iv)

(3)  (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(4)  (iii), (i)

Answer: (3)

Part-II

Mathematics and Science

IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) Or from Part-III (Social Studies/Science).

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

31. The total surface area of a cuboid is 194 m2. If its length is 8 m and breadth is 6 m, then what is its volume (in m2) ?

(1)  126

(2)  168

(3)  224

(4)  112

Answer: (2)

32. The area of a trapezium is 105 cm2 and its height is 7 cm. If one of the parallel sides is longer than the other by 6 cm, then the length of the longer side, in cm, is

(1)  16

(2)  15

(3)  12

(4)  18

Answer: (4)

33. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of base radius 3 cm is 94.2 cm2. The volume (in cm3) of the cylinder is (Take π = 3.14)

(1)  141.3

(2)  125.6

(3)  113.04

(4)  138.6

Answer: (1)

34. If x is added to each of 14, 12, 4 and 30, the numbers so obtained, in this order, are in proportion. What is the value of 

(1)  A regular polygon of 10 sides has 10 lines of symmetry.

(2)  A circle has no line of symmetry.

(3)  An angle has two lines of symmetry.

(4)  A regular hexagon has only 4 lines of symmetry.

Answer: (1)

35. The value of x which satisfies the equation

10(x + 6) + 8(x – 3) = 5(5x – 4) also satisfies the equation

(1)  3(3x – 5) = 2x + 1

(2)  2(x + 3) = 5(x – 5) + 4

(3)  5(x – 5) = 2(x – 3) + 5

(4)  5(x – 3) = x + 5

Answer: (1)

36. What should be subtracted from 5y – 13x – 8a to obtain 11x – 16y + 7a?

(1)  21y – 5x – a

(2)  21y – 24x – 15a

(3)  24x – 21y + a

(4)  6x + 21y + 15a

Answer: (3)

37. Which of the following statements is correct regarding children coming to school from rural areas in the context of Mathematics?

(1)  They may have rich oral mathematical traditions and knowledge.

(2)  They do not know any mathematics.

(3)  They have poor communication skills in mathematics.

(4)  They need not learn formal mathematics as it is of no use to them.

Answer: (2)

38. Read the following statements :

(A) Axioms are propositions which are assumed.

(B) Axioms are special theorems.

(C) Axioms are definitions.

(D) Axioms, when proved becomes theorems.

Which of the following statement(s) is correct?

(1)  A and D

(2)  Only B

(3)  Only A

(4)  A and C

Answer: (1)

39. Read the following statements :

(A) Axioms are propositions which are assumed.

(B) Axioms are special theorems.

(C) Axioms are definitions.

(D) Axioms, when proved becomes theorems.

Which of the following statements(s) is correct?

(1)  A and D

(2)  Only B

(3)  Only A

(4)  A and C

Answer: (3)

40. Which of the following statements does not reflect contemporary view of students errors in mathematics?

(1)  They are a part of learning.

(2)  They are a rich source of information.

(3)  They can guide the teacher in planning her classes.

(4)  They should be overlooked.

Answer: (4)

41. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Mathematics is true?

(A) Mathematics is a tool.

(B) Mathematics is a form of art.

(C) Mathematics is language.

(1)  B & C

(2)  only A

(3)  A, B & C

(4)  A & B

Answer: (3)

42. To prove that √2 is an irrational number, a teacher beings by assuming that it is a rational number and then proceeds to show how this assumption is not feasible. This is an example of proof by

(1)  Deduction

(2)  Contradiction

(3)  Verification

(4)  Induction

Answer: (2)

43. Which of the following statements reflects a desirable assessment practice in the context of mathematics learning?

(1)  Holding conversations and one to one discussion with children can also be helpful in assessing them.

(2)  Assessment should be product oriented and focus on the right answer of the child.

(3)  Incorrect answer of children should largely be ignored because we need to focus on children’s strengths.

(4)  Only paper-pencil task are suited to assess students because they require precise answers.

Answer: (1)

44. Which of the following statements is true of learning mathematics?

(1)  Girls need extra attention because they are weaker in mathematics.

(2)  Mathematics is a specialized subject meant for a select few.

(3)  Informal algorithms are inferior to formal mathematics.

(4)  Everyone can learn and succeed in mathematics.

Answer: (4)

45. The role of proportional reasoning in understanding the concept related to ration and proportion was highlighted by

(1)  Zoltan Dienes

(2)  Jean Piaget

(3)  Lev Vygotsky

(4)  Van Hiele

Answer: (2)

46. A student is not able to solve those word problems which involve transposition in algebra. The best remedial strategy is to

(1)  give lot of practice questions of word problems in another language.

(2)  explain him/her word problem in simple language.

(3)  explain concept of equality using alternate method.

(4)  give lot of practice questions on transposition of numbers.

Answer: (3)

47. Contemporary understanding of Mathematics Pedagogy encourages teachers to do all of the following, except :

(1)  Introduce computation of problems before development of conceptual understanding.

(2)  Create opportunities for students to guess-and-verify the solutions to problems.

(3)  Develop the skill of systematic reasoning in students.

(4)  Encourage the ability to approximate solutions.

Answer: (1)

48. The value of

[(−4) ÷2] × (−3) – (–3) [(–3) × (–7) –8] + (4) [(–48) ÷ 6] is

(1)  –11

(2)  13

(3)  –16

(4)  9

Answer: (2)

49. The fractions  are written in descending order as

(1)  22/25, 24/29, 33/38, 44/49

(2)  44/49, 22/25, 33/38, 24/29

(3)  44/49, 33/38, 24/29, 22/25

(4)  24/29, 33/38, 22/25, 44/49

Answer: (2)

50. Which one of the following statements is not true for integers?

(1)  Division is commutative.

(2)  1 is the multiplicative identity.

(3)  Subtraction is not commutative.

(4)  Multiplication is associative.

Answer: (1)

51. If x = 23 × 32 × 53 × 73

y = 22 × 33 × 54 × 73 and

z = 24 × 34 × 52 × 75

then H.C.F. of x, y and z is

(1)  (15)3 × 74

(2)  (30)3 × 75

(3)  30 × 75

(4)  (30)2 × 73

Answer: (4)

52. If 52272 = p2 × q3 × r4,

where p, q and r are prime numbers, then the value of (2p + q – r) is

(1)  22

(2)  23

(3)  29

(4)  21

Answer: (2)

53. If the 7-digit number 134x58y is divisible by 72, then the value of (2x + y) is

(1)  7

(2)  8

(3)  9

(4)  6

Answer: (2)

54. Which of the following is not a Pythagorean triplet?

(1)  8, 15, 17

(2)  11, 60, 63

(3)  13, 84, 85

(4)  7, 24, 25

Answer: (2)

55. The measure of an angle for which the measure of the supplement is four times the measure of the complement is

(1)  45°

(2)  60°

(3)  75°

(4)  30°

Answer: (2)

56. If the angles, in degrees, of a triangle are x, 3x + 20 and 6x, the triangle must be

(1)  Acute

(2)  Right

(3)  Isosceles

(4)  Obtuse

Answer: (4)

57. In triangle ABC and DEF, ∠C = ∠F, AC = DF, and BC = EF. If AB = 2x – 1 and DE = 5x – 4, then the value of x is

(1)  2

(2)  3

(3)  4

(4)  1

Answer: (4)

58. One side of a triangle is 5 cm and the other side is 10 cm and its perimeter is P cm, where P is an integer. The least and the greatest possible values of P are respectively

(1)  20 and 28

(2)  21 and 29

(3)  22 and 27

(4)  19 and 29

Answer: (2)

59. Let x be the median of the data

13, 8, 15, 14, 17, 9, 14, 16, 13, 17, 14, 15,16, 15, 14.

If 8 is replaced by 18, then the median of the data is y. What is the sum of the values of x and y?

(1)  28

(2)  29

(3)  30

(4)  27

Answer: (2)

60. A bag contains 3 white, 2 blue and 5 red balls. One ball is drawn at random from the bag. What is the probability that the ball drawn is not red?

(1)  3/10

(2)  1/5

(3)  1/2

(4)  4/5

Answer: (3)

61. Which of the following nutrients are present in milk?

(1)  Protein, Vitamin C, Vitamin A

(2)  Carbohydrates, Vitamin C, Iron

(3)  Protein, Iron, Vitamin D

(4)  Protein, Calcium, Vitamin D

Answer: (4)

62. The non-metal used in the purple coloured solution applied on wounds as antiseptic is

(1)  Iodine

(2)  Bromine

(3)  Sulphur

(4)  Chlorine

Answer: (1)

63. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Air’ is incorrect?

(1)  Air is not present in soil.

(2)  Air plays important role in water cycle.

(3)  Air occupies space.

(4)  Air has weight.

Answer: (1)

64. Which of the following represents correct matching of the organs of digestive system in Column A with the function in Colum B?

Column A

(a) Liver

(b) Stomach

(c) Gall bladder

(d) Pancreas

Column B

(i) where protein digestion starts

(ii) where bile juice is stored

(iii) releases digestive juice into small intestine

(iv) largest gland

(1)  a – iv, b – i, c –ii, d – iii

(2)  a – i, b – iii, c –ii, d – iv

(3)  a – iii, b – iv, c –ii, d – i

(4)  a – i, b – ii, c –iv, d – iii

Answer: (1)

65. Which of the following statements about cells is true?

(1)  Cells of a tissue have similar structure.

(2)  Size of cells is same in a well organized organism.

(3)  All the cells have nucleus.

(4)  All cells are round in shape.

Answer: (1)

66. Which of the following are correctly matched with their mode of reproduction?

A  B

(a) Yeast          (i) vegetative propagation

(b) Potato        (ii) spore formation

(c) Algae         (iii) fragmentation

(d) Fungi         (iv) budding

(1)  a – i, b – iii, c –ii, d – iv

(2)  a – ii, b – iv, c –iii, d – i

(3)  a – iii, b – ii, c –iv, d – i

(4)  a – iv, b – i, c –iii, d – ii

Answer: (4)

67. Which of the following pollutants are responsible for depletion of ozone layer?

(1)  Chlorofluoro carbons

(2)  Acid rain

(3)  Methane and carbon dioxide

(4)  Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide

Answer: (1)

68. Which of the following set represents communicable diseases?

(1)  Typhoid, Malaria, Anaemia, Swine flu

(2)  Typhoid, Swine flu, Malaria, Polio

(3)  Diabetes, Typhoid, Malaria, Anaemia

(4)  Anaemia, Scurvy, Diarrhoea, Cholera

Answer: (2)

69. Which one of the following is not true of the nature of science?

(A) Science is always tentative.

(B) Science promotes skepticism.

(C) Science is a process of constructing knowledge.

(D) Science is static in nature.

(1)  B

(2)  C

(3)  A

(4)  D

Answer: (4)

70. Which of the following is/are developed by Science?

(A) Equity

(B) Scientific attitude

(C) Scientific temper

(D) Static mind set

(1)  B, C and D

(2)  A, B and C

(3)  C and D

(4)  A and D

Answer: (2)

71. The role of a science teacher should be to _____

(1)  provide product based teaching – learning environment to learners.

(2)  guide learners to practice the memorization of the creative ideas.

(3)  encourage all learners to frame questions of high cognitive abilities.

(4)  provide rich variety of learning experiences to learners.

Answer: (4)

72. As per NCF-2005, good science education should be

(A) True to the learner

(B) True to the environment of the learner

(C) True to the teacher

(D) True to science

(1)  B and C only

(2)  A, B and C

(3)  D only

(4)  A, B and D

Answer: (4)

73. “Conducting a survey on the awareness of people about sources of air pollution in learners localities.”

Which of the following cognitive process will be most associated with the above learning objective having action verb conducting?

(1)  Understanding

(2)  Creating

(3)  Applying

(4)  Remembering

Answer: (2)

74. Which of the following strategy can be the most appropriate for involving learners in the teaching learning of science?

(1)  Clarifying the hard spots of learners

(2)  Working on engaging the learners first

(3)  Encouraging learners to do group assessment

(4)  Reading a science book

Answer: (2)

75. By which of the following strategy meaningful clarification on the concept of reflection of light can be given?

(1)  Chart showing the reflection of light.

(2)  Observing reflecting of light on white paper screen by the learners and drawing conclusions.

(3)  Asking closed ended questions related to the concept.

(4)  Animated video on the concept.

Answer: (2)

76. Why are field visits important in science?

(1)  It is easy to conduct

(2)  It collects the information of science.

(3)  It develops habit of hardwork among learners.

(4)  It provides hands on experiences to the learners.

Answer: (4)

77. Which of the following tool is for learner centered assessment?

(A) Portfolio

(B) Concept mapping

(C) Paper-pencil test

(D) Journal writing

(1)  A, B and D

(2)  A and C only

(3)  B, C and D

(4)  C only

Answer: (1)

78. Assessment as learning in Science means ______.

(1)  Summative assessment

(2)  Self assessment

(3)  Term assessment

(4)  Formative assessment

Answer: (2)

79. Amrita is trying to set-up an electric circuit. She runs short of connecting wires. Which of the following materials can she use to complete the circuit?

(1)  steel wire

(2)  glass rod

(3)  rubber pipe

(4)  thick thread

Answer: (1)

80. Identify the correct statement.

(1)  A concave mirror forms an erect as well as inverted image.

(2)  A convex mirror always forms an inverted image.

(3)  A convex mirror forms erect as well as inverted image.

(4)  A concave mirror always forms an erect image.

Answer: (1)

81. Which of the following acids is found in ant’s sting?

(1)  Formic acid

(2)  Oxalic acid

(3)  Acetic acid

(4)  Ascorbic acid

Answer: (1)

82. 7 kg of a fuel is completely burnt to give off 1.665 × 108 joules of energy. The calorific value of the fuel in standard unit is

(1)  22222

(2)  61605

(3)  25000

(4)  45000

Answer: (4)

83. Myra cycles to a friend’s house 5 km away to deliver a packet. She goes at a speed of 12 km/hour and returns at a speed of 8 km/h. Her average speed during the whole trip is-

(1)  9.6 km/h

(2)  10 km/h

(3)  5 m/s

(4)  20 km/h

Answer: (1)

84. Which of the following sets contains only the units of measuring distance?

(1)  cubit, year, light year

(2)  cubit, metre, light year

(3)  metre, hertz, cubit

(4)  metre, light year, hertz

Answer: (2)

85. Sameer rolls his marble on three different surfaces spread out on floor – taut cellophane sheet, carpet and newspaper. The force of friction acting on the marble in the increasing order is

(1)  News paper, Carpet, Cellophane, Sheet

(2)  Cellophane sheet, Newspaper, Carpet

(3)  Cellophane sheet, Carpet, Newspaper

(4)  Newspaper, Cellophane sheet, Carpet

Answer: (2)

86. An object is moving linearly with a uniform velocity. If time is represented along X-axis then which of the following statements is correct?

(1)  The velocity-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to Y-axis.

(2)  The distance-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to Y-axis.

(3)  The velocity-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to X-axis.

(4)  The distance-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to X-axis.

Answer: (3)

87. Which of the following is not a byproduct of petroleum?

(1)  Coke

(2)  Bitumen

(3)  Lubricating oil

(4)  Paraffin wax

Answer: (1)

88. Aman keeps a plastic bottle, a wooden spoon and a metallic spoon in a closed room overnight. The room temperature is 30° In the morning he records the temperatures of the three objects as T1, T­2 and T3. Which of the following most likely represents the relation between them?

(1)  T3 > T­2 > T1

(2)  T1 = T2 < T3

(3)  T1 > T2 > T3

(4)  T1 = T2 = T3

Answer: (4)

89. Which of the following organisms can prepare their own food by Photosynthesis?

(1)  Fungi

(2)  Rhizobium

(3)  Virus

(4)  Algae

Answer: (4)

90. Which of the following features help polar bears adapt in extreme cold conditions?

(1)  white fur, long curved sharp claws, fat under skin

(2)  white fur, flat feet, layers of fur

(3)  strong smell, flat feet, layers of fur

(4)  white fur, flat feet, fat under skin

Answer: (1)

IMPORTANT : Candidate have to do Questions Nos. 31 to 90 Either from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part-III (Social Studies/Social Science).

Part-III

Social Studies/Social Science

31. Assertion (A) : It will be 7 : 30 p.m. in India, when it is 2 : 00 p.m. in London.

Reason (R) : India is located east of Greenwich at 82°30ʹE.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

(1)  (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(2)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(3)  Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(4)  (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (2)

32. Consider the statements A, B, C on time zone and choose the correct answer :

(A) Some countries have a great longitudinal extent and so they adopted more than one standard time.

(B) The earth has been divided into twenty-four time zones of one hour each.

(C) Each time zone covers 15° of longitude.

(1)  A and C are correct and B is incorrect.

(2)  B and C are correct and A is incorrect.

(3)  A, B, C, all are correct.

(4)  A and B are correct and C is incorrect.

Answer: (3)

33. Choose the correct arrangement of atmosphere’s layers beginning from earth’s surface :

(1)  Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere

(2)  Exosphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere.

(3)  Mesosphere, Troposphere, Exosphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere

(4)  Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere, Troposphere

Answer: (1)

34. Seasons occur due to which of the following reasons?

(1)  Tropic of Capricorn receives direct rays of t he sun, falling vertically at 23½° S.

(2)  Revolution of the Earth and inclination of its axis in the same direction.

(3)  Circle of illumination caused due to rotation of the earth around its axis.

(4)  Axis of the Earth makes an angle of 66½° with its orbital plane.

Answer: (2)

35. The major constituents of earth’s atmosphere by percentage is :

(1)  Carbon dioxide

(2)  Nitrogen

(3)  Helium

(4)  Oxygen

Answer: (2)

36. Which of the following statements about ocean current is/are correct?

(A) The cold currents carry water from polar or higher latitudes to tropical or lower latitudes.

(B) Labrador is a warm current.

(C) Areas where warm and cold currents meet provide world’s best fishing grounds.

(1)  A and C are correct

(2)  B and C are correct.

(3)  Only A is correct.

(4)  A and B are correct.

Answer: (1)

37. The depositional feature of a glacier is called :

(1)  Moraine

(2)  Loess

(3)  Levees

(4)  Sea cave

Answer: (1)

38. Statements A and B describe the features of which of the following vegetations?

(A) This vegetation is found in the higher latitudes (50° – 70°) of Northern Hemisphere.

(B) It is also called as Taiga.

(1)  Temperate Deciduous Forests.

(2)  Coniferous Forests.

(3)  Mediterranean Vegetation.

(4)  Temperate Grasslands.

Answer: (2)

39. Which of the following is not a feature of the Ganga-Brahmaputra Basin?

(1)  The density of population of plain area is very high.

(2)  The delta area is covered with Mangrove forests.

(3)  Slash and Burn agriculture is practiced in this area for land cultivation.

(4)  Ox-Bow lakes dot the plain area.

Answer: (3)

40. Swimmers can float in Dead sea because :

(1)  More warm currents than cold currents originate in the sea.

(2)  The sea experiences more high tides than low tides.

(3)  The increased salt content makes the sea dense.

(4)  Winds blow at a very high speed over the surface of sea water.

Answer: (3)

41. Consider the statements A and B about land use and choose the correct answer :

(A) Land use refers to use of land exclusively for agriculture and forestry.

(B) Land use is primarily determined by its topography.

(1)  A is false and B is true.

(2)  Both A and B are true.

(3)  Both A and B are false.

(4)  A is true and B is false.

Answer: (3)

42. Shelter belts help in :

(1)  Retaining soil moisture.

(2)  Slowing down the flow of water over soil.

(3)  Preventing gullies and hence further soil loss.

(4)  Checking wind movement to protect soil cover.

Answer: (4)

43. What determines the thickness of soil profile?

(1)  Time

(2)  Flora-Fauna

(3)  Climate

(4)  Relief

Answer: (1)

44. On the basis of their distribution, resources can be classified as :

(1)  Renewable and Non-Renewable resources.

(2)  Biotic and Abiotic resources

(3)  Ubiquitous and Localised resources

(4)  Actual and Potential resources

Answer: (3)

45. Which of the following statements about a ‘diverse society’ is correct?

(1)  It would have differences in culture and power.

(2)  It would have similarities of language, religion and culture.

(3)  It would have differences and similarities in language, culture and religion.

(4)  It would have differences and inequalities in language, religion and culture

Answer: (3)

46. Which of the following statements challenges gender stereotypes?

(1)  Women are fashion conscious.

(2)  Women are responsible bus drivers.

(3)  Women are nurturing.

(4)  Women are very emotional.

Answer: (2)

47. Which of the following composed the main demand of the suffragettes?

(1)  Right to bureaucratic roles for women.

(2)  Adult franchise for propertied women.

(3)  Adult franchise for working class.

(4)  Right to vote of women.

Answer: (4)

48. Which of the following statements about Jatakas is correct?

(1)  These were composed by ordinary people, written down and preserved by Jaina monks.

(2)  These were composed by Buddhist monks, written down and preserved by ordinary people.

(3)  These were composed by Jaina monks, written down and preserved by ordinary people.

(4)  These were composed by ordinary people, written down and preserved by Buddhist monks.

Answer: (4)

49. Which of the following statements about Ain-i-Akbari is correct?

(1)  It deals with Akbar’s ancestors and records the events of Akbar’s reign.

(2)  It was written by Mirza Hakim, who was one of Akbar’s courtiers.

(3)  It has rich statistical details about diverse aspects of Akbar’s administration.

(4)  It is the first volume of the three volume history of Akbar’s reign titled Akbar Nama.

Answer: (3)

50. Who among the following compiled the compositions of Baba Guru Nanak in Gurumukhi, also adding his own compositions to it?

(1)  Guru Angad

(2)  Guru Arjan

(3)  Guru Teg Bahadur

(4)  Guru Gobind Singh

Answer: (1)

51. Which of the following was not a feature to Athenian democracy?

(1)  All citizens were expected to serve in army and navy.

(2)  All the citizens attended assemblies that were held for deciding upon matters.

(3)  Appointment for many positions were made through lottery.

(4)  All the free men and women above 30  years of age were recognized as full citizens.

Answer: (4)

52. Which of the following was Samudragupta’s policy specifically towards the rulers of Dakshinapatha?

(1)  They submitted to Samudragupta and offered daughters in marriage.

(2)  They brought tribute, followed his orders and attended his court.

(3)  They surrendered after being defeated and then were allowed to rule again.

(4)  Their kingdoms were uprooted and made a part of Samudragupta’s empire.

Answer: (3)

53. Match the following :

(Art form)

(a) Art technique that enabled making of images that looked real.

(b) Painting showing Indian landscape as quaint, unexplored land

(c) Paintings displaying lavish lifestyles, wealth & status of Europeans in India.

(d) Paintings depicting scenes from British imperial history & victories.

(Nomenclature)

(i) Picturesque

(ii) Portraiture

(iii) History Painting

(iv) Oil Painting

(1)  a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii

(2)  a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i

(3)  a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv

(4)  a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii

Answer: (4)

54. In the late 18th century, the presidencies of Bombay, Madras and Bengal developed from which of the following East India Company’s trading posts?

(1)  Nagpur, Madurai, Delhi

(2)  Pune, Madras, Calcutta

(3)  Surat, Madurai, Delhi

(4)  Surat, Madras, Calcutta

Answer: (4)

55. Consider the statement (A) and (B) about Mahayana Buddhism and choose the correct answer.

(A) In this form of Buddhism, Buddha’s presence in sculptures was shown using certain signs.

(B) The belief in Bodhisattvas emerged with the coming of Mahayana Buddhism.

(1)  (A) is false, (B) is true.

(2)  Both (A) and (B) are true.

(3)  Both (A) and (B) are false.

(4)  (A) is true. (B) is false.

Answer: (1)

56. Consider the statements (A) and (B) about Mahalwari and Ryotwari system of revenues and choose the correct answer.

(A) The Mahalwri was devised for North-Western provinces of Bengal presidency, while the Ryotwari was devised for British territories in South.

(B) While in Mahalwari, village headman collected and paid revenue of the whole village to the company, in Ryotwari direct settlements was made with cultivators.

(1)  Only (B) correctly explains differences between the two revenue systems.

(2)  Both (A) and (B) correctly explain differences between the two revenue systems.

(3)  Neither (A) nor (B) correctly explain differences between the two revenue systems.

(4)  Only (A) correctly explains differences between the two revenue systems.

Answer: (2)

57. A tomb of a Sufi saint is known as :

(1)  Idgah

(2)  Gulfaroshan

(3)  Dargah

(4)  Khanqah

Answer: (3)

58. The doctrine of Vishishtadvaita was propounded in eleventh century by :

(1)  Basavanna

(2)  Eknath

(3)  Sakhubai

(4)  Ramanuja

Answer: (4)

59. Consider the statements (A) and (B) on Diwani Adalat established in 1772 in India and choose the correct answer :

(A) It was a criminal court.

(B) It was presided over by the European district collectors.

(1)  (A) is false, (B) is true.

(2)  Both (A) and (B) are true.

(3)  Both (A) and (B) are false

(4)  (A) is true, (B) is false

Answer: (1)

60. A garrison town refers to :

(1)  A fortified settlement with soldiers.

(2)  A place where goods from different production centres are sold.

(3)  A town on an important trading port.

(4)  Land adjacent to a city that supplies goods to it.

Answer: (1)

61. A Social Science teacher should aim towards:

(1)  Building perspective

(2)  Syllabus completion

(3)  Passing the examinations

(4)  Rote memorization

Answer: (1)

62. Which of the following approaches have been considered while developing social and political life textbooks?

(A) Learning through use of concrete examples and experiences.

(B) Learning through retention based on facts and data.

(1)  Only B

(2)  Both A and B

(3)  Neither A nor B

(4)  Only A

Answer: (4)

63. Which of the following is true about Social Science?

(A) Memorizing information will lead to conceptual development.

(B) The status of a  ‘fact’ is always fixed.

(1)  Only B

(2)  Both A and B

(3)  Neither A nor B

(4)  Only A

Answer: (3)

64. The best practice for sensitizing students towards wildlife conservation would be :

(1)  Preparing a play on wildlife conservation.

(2)  Observing wildlife week at the school.

(3)  Pledging not to buy animal based products

(4)  Reading about relevant policies and laws.

Answer: (3)

65. What is the main purpose of an Open-Book Evaluation ?

(1)  Teachers need not undergo extra pressure to frame new questions.

(2)  Students need not read extra books.

(3)  Students can answer exactly according to the textbook.

(4)  Students need not feel the burden to rote memorize all facts and details.

Answer: (4)

66. Which of the following would be the best closure tasks after the teaching of the theme ‘The Making of Regional Cultures’?

(A) Small group projects

(B) Dance performance by an expert

(C) Quiz competition

(D) Collage making

(1)  A, B, D

(2)  A, C, D

(3)  B, C, D

(4)  A, B, C

Answer: (2)

67. Imagine you have inherited a kingdom. How would you make y our kingdom stable and prosperous ?

In context of the above questions, as a teacher which skill would you emphasise upon while assessing the students?

(1)  Ability to analyse.

(2)  Infer and extrapolate from situation.

(3)  Ability to reason.

(4)  Comparing experiences.

Answer: (2)

68. A respectful way to introduce the theme ‘Adivasis’ would be to :

(1)  Showcasing their colorful costumes.

(2)  Screening a tribal song and dance.

(3)  Discussing their primitive and rustic pasts.

(4)  Portraying them as rich and powerful forest people.

Answer: (4)

69. While teaching controversial issues in Social Science class, you should :

(1)  Take them up occasionally and conduct brief discussions.

(2)  Take them up with proper planning to initiate a dignified discussion.

(3)  Keep in mind students’ background and discuss only non-hurtful aspects.

(4)  Completely avoid confrontations.

Answer: (2)

70. The teaching of social and political life should focus on :

(A) Study of Political Institutions.

(B) Study of Basic Principles.

(1)  Only B

(2)  Both A and B

(3)  Neither A nor B

(4)  Only A

Answer: (2)

71. While planning a small group activity with students, which of the following should be emphasized?

(A) To create a challenging task.

(B) To teach students to work together.

(C) To select groups thoughtfully.

(D) Completion of task.

(1)  A, B, D

(2)  A, C, D

(3)  B, C, D

(4)  A, B, C

Answer: (4)

72. Which of the following statements are true about the study of Social Science?

(A) Helps in systemic analysis of issues.

(B) Students will grow up and find out for themselves.

(C) Focus should be on subject details rather than understanding.

(D) Building sensitivity and curiosity as such as providing information.

(1)  A, D

(2)  B, D

(3)  C, D

(4)  A, C

Answer: (1)

73. The writings of the following cannot be attributed as a primary source?

(1)  Abul Fazl

(2)  Rashsundari Devi

(3)  Ziyauddin Barani

(4)  Muzaffar Alam

Answer: (4)

74. Which of the following sources would be wrong to use if you have to introduce Ancient Indian History?

(1)  Miniature Paintings

(2)  Inscriptions

(3)  Manuscripts

(4)  Cave paintings

Answer: (1)

75. Which of the following can a Social Science teacher critically address while discussing the theme, ‘Advertisement’?

(A) Appeal to the personal emotions.

(B) Issues of equality.

(1)  Only B

(2)  Neither A nor B

(3)  Both A and B

(4)  Only A

Answer: (3)

76. ‘Discuss few more reasons that are responsible for changes in land use pattern.’

In context of the above question, as a Social Science teacher you would be assessing students’ skill of :

(1)  Generalizing

(2)  Inferring

(3)  Hypothesising

(4)  Classifying

Answer: (3)

77. To familiarize students with t he theme, ‘Natural Vegetation and Wildlife’, which would be the best pedagogical method?

(1)  Visit to a wildlife sanctuary.

(2)  Inviting an expert for a lecture.

(3)  Textbook reading and discussion.

(4)  Screening a documentary on the theme.

Answer: (1)

78. What is the role of cartoons in a Social Science textbooks?

(1)  Mainly used as fillers so that textbooks look attractive.

(2)  Makes class enjoyable as the subject is boring.

(3)  Raises basic issues and makes it relatable to students.

(4)  No role as cartoons are immature.

Answer: (3)

79. Consider statements A and B on the practice of apartheid :

(A) It discriminates between races but allowed all the right to vote.

(B) It prevents mingling of races but gives equitable public of facilities to al.

Choose the correct option :

(1)  Only B is true.

(2)  Both A and B are true.

(3)  Both A and B are false.

(4)  Only A is true.

Answer: (3)

80. Who among the following occupies elected office in a Gram Panchayat?

(A) Sarpanch

(B) Ward Members

(C) Secretary

(D) Gram Sabha Member

Choose the correct option :

(1)  A and C

(2)  A, B and C

(3)  B, C and D

(4)  A and B

Answer: (4)

81. Which of the following work is the responsibility of a ‘Patwari’?

(1)  Executing employment schemes for land development

(2)  Preventing land disputes by investigating complaints.

(3)  Measuring land and keeping records.

(4)  Construction and maintenance of common property.

Answer: (3)

82. Which of the following statements on the functioning of a local urban administration is correct ?

(1)  Commissioner is elected by ward councilors and reports to him/her.

(2)  Ward councilors form committees to resolve issues of governance.

(3)  Ward councilors are headed by the Sarpanch.

(4)  Commissioner of a municipal corporation makes and decides the budget for the year.

Answer: (2)

83. Consider List – A and List – B.

List – A has different types of rural employment.

List – B has different kinds of loans taken.

List – A

(a) Agricultural worker

(b) Large farmer

(c) Middle farmer

List – B

(i) Health and offseason consumption

(ii) Fertilizer, Pesticide, Seeds

(iii) Government loan for agro-processing plant

Match items of List – A wit List – B, based on most likely reason for loans :

(1)  a – ii, b – i, c – iii

(2)  a – i, b – iii, c – ii

(3)  a – iii, b – i, c – ii

(4)  a – i, b – ii, c – iii

Answer: (2)

84. Which of the following forms the trading arrangement between a weaver and a merchant under the “Putting out” system ? Choose the correct option.

(1)  Yarn is sold to the weaver by the merchant; and weaver makes cloth for self-consumption.

(2)  Yarn is supplied by the merchant to the weaver and cloth produced is bought back from weaver at a low price.

(3)  Yarn is bought by weaver from the open market and cloth is sold to merchant at a low price

(4)  Yarn is bought for the lowest bid from merchant; and cloth is sold at highest bid.

Answer: (2)

85. Consider the statements A to E. They form jumbled links in a chain of market, wherein ‘Ketchup’ reaches a consumer.

(A) Sona orders ketchup from a neighbourhood shop.

(B) Farmer buys tomato seeds from a local trader.

(C) Wholesale merchant bids for tomatoes in the vegetable mandi.

(D) A small city based food processing unit buys tomatoes.

(E) Marketing company supplies ketchup to stores.

Choose the option that represents the correct sequence in the chain of market :

(1)  B, D, E, C, A

(2)  C, B, D, E, A

(3)  A, B, D, C, E 

(4)  B, C, D, E, A

Answer: (4)

86. According to Appellate System, a person dissatisfied with the verdict given by the Court of the District Judge could appeal to which of the following courts?

(1)  Supreme Court

(2)  High Court

(3)  Trial Court

(4)  Session Court

Answer: (2)

87. Consider the statement A and B on the Indian Parliament :

(A) A political party that has any number of Members of Parliament in the Lok Sabha can form a government.

(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President are part of the Parliament.

Choose the correct option :

(1)  Only B is true.

(2)  Both A and B are true.

(3)  Both A and B are false

(4)  Only A is true.

Answer: (1)

88. Read the statement given below :

“The Indian State has many checks and balances to prevent the misuse of powers.”

Choose the correct option that represents the meaning of ‘Indian State’ in the above statement.

(1)  The Indian Bureaucracy

(2)  Any State Government

(3)  The Indian Political System

(4)  The Indian Central Government

Answer: (3)

89. Which of the following should the teaching of History focus upon?

(A) Concepts of plural representations and building a sense of historical diversity.

(B) Encouraging students to imagine living in the past and relate to the experiences.

(1)  Only B

(2)  Both A and B

(3)  Neither A nor B

(4)  Only A

Answer: (2)

90. Two of the statements given below are false Identify these statements.

(A) Natural and physical basis of scientific inquiry can be used in Social Science also.

(B) The teaching of Social Science has the responsibility towards value education only.

(C) The same methodology can be used to teach different disciplines of Social Science.

(D) The teaching of Social Science concerns more with involvement with complexities rather than information.

(1)  B and C

(2)  B and D

(3)  C and D

(4)  A and C

Answer: (1)

Part-IV Language-I

English

IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part-IV (Q. No 91-120), if they have opted for English as Language-I only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (91 – 99) that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :

 There’s an air of excitement on the platform as the train’s departure time draws close. You’ve found your name on the passenger’s list, together with the names of those in the compartment with you; so you already know your ‘fellow passengers’ names, ages, sex and destination. People are pushing past you to get on, as you show your coupon to the conductor and he tells you to board.

 Your fellow passengers are settling in, staking out their claims to territory with too much luggage. A bell clangs but there is no slamming of carriage doors, no blowing of whistles and no shout of “All abroad !” as in the states. The train simply draws out of the station while people stroll alongside and with studies nonchalance, clamber on, one after the other through the still-open doors.

 You claim your own seat, pleased to be on the move. Since you have a long journey ahead in the company of strangers, what happens next will govern your enjoyment of the trip.. You can start up a conversation and make friends, allies quickly, or he anti-social and lonely for the whole of the journey. Of course, it depends on  your personality but if you are travelling alone you’ll need an ally, someone  you feel you can trust to watch your luggage when you go to the washroom. You can’t isolate yourself completely on train so if that’s your style, train travel isn’t for you.

 I get a thrill out of the start of every train journey. It’s not just the excitement of moving on to a new place, there’s the anticipation of what’s going to happen during the journey; the pleasure at the new acquaintances I’m going to make; the dissolving of city skyline into lush, rural landscape beyond the windows; and the heightened emotions of everyone on board. Indians love to travel by train; they are used to it and prepare properly so it becomes a picnic on wheels. I get excited when I am part of it, you will to.

91. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?

(1)  He/she to make friends.

(2)  He/she does not enjoy a picnic in the train.

(3)  He/she is thrilled at the scene outside.

(4)  The narrator enjoys going to a new place.

Answer: (2)

92. What does the word ‘Coupon’ here mean?

(1)  a passport

(2)  a railway ticket

(3)  a counterfoil

(4)  a railways pass

Answer: (2)

93. The phrase, ‘draws out’ as used here means :

(1)  moves out

(2)  hurries out

(3)  breaks away

(4)  clears out

Answer: (1)

94. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence?

People are pushing past you.

(1)  Adverb

(2)  Adjective

(3)  Verb

(4)  Preposition

Answer: (4)

95. Which part of the following sentence has an error in it ?

“Once you have made this decision

 (a)

there would be

 (b)

no going back”

 (c)

Ram warned me

 (d)

(1)  (b)

(2)  (c)

(3)  (d)

(4)  (a)

Answer: (1)

96. You are well informed about your fellow passengers :

(1)  after you have been introduced to them.

(2)  after you have interacted with them.

(3)  When you have settled in your seats.

(4)  even before you have entered the compartment.

Answer: (4)

97. Who take a claim to territory in the compartment?

(1)  Those whose seats are already occupied.

(2)  Those who don’t travel light.

(3)  Those who haven’t reserved seats.

(4)  Those who need more space in it.

Answer: (2)

98. Even after the train has started moving why do some people stroll alongside?

(1)  They want to enjoy the outside scene.

(2)  They enjoy getting into a moving train.

(3)  They doors are still open.

(4)  They reached the platform late.

Answer: (3)

99. What can prevent you from enjoying your train trip?

(1)  You are lonely by temperament.

(2)  You are worried about your luggage

(3)  The travelers around you don’t trust you.

(4)  There are strangers around you. 

Answer: (1)

Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions (100 – 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :

The work of hunters is another thing :

I have come after them and made repair

Where they have left not one stone on a stone,

But they would have the rabbit out of hiding,

To pleas the yelping dogs. The gaps I mean,

No one has been them made or heard them made,

But at spring mending-time we find them there.

I let  my neighbour know beyond the hill;

And on a day we meet to walk the line

And set the wall between us once again.

We keep the wall between us as we go.

To each the boulders that have fallen to each.

And some are loaves and some so nearly balls

We have to use a spell to make them balance :

‘Stay where you are until our backs are turned!’

100. The neighbours meet in the spring season to :

(1)  to go on a long walk.

(2)  to find out who broke the wall.

(3)  to life the stones.

(4)  fill the gaps in the wall.

Answer: (4)

101. The neighbours have to use a spell to :

(1)  to count the number of stones.

(2)  to make the stones obey them.

(3)  to fix the irregular stones in the wall.

(4)  look for the rabbits.

Answer: (3)

102. The figure of speech used in the lines 9-10 is :

(1)  Metaphor

(2)  Simile

(3)  Irony

(4)  Personification

Answer: (3)

103. Identify the figure of speech used in the expression :

‘And some are loaves and some so nearly balls’

(1)  Metaphor

(2)  Personification

(3)  Irony

(4)  Simile

Answer: (1)

104. The hunters’ main aim is:

(1)  to please their dogs.

(2)  to catch the rabbits.

(3)  to make the neighbours build the wall again.

(4)  to remove the stones.

Answer: (2)

105. The gaps in the wall are made by :

(1)  dogs

(2)  hunters

(3)  nature

(4)  rabbits

Answer: (2)

Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 106 to 120) by selecting the most appropriate option out of the given options.

106. Many minor and tribal languages are not available in school curriculum and the number of speakers is receding in those languages. What is this known as in socio educational linguistics?

(1)  Language minority in education

(2)  Language endangerment

(3)  Language revival

(4)  Language death

Answer: (2)

107. A teacher asks her learners to find words and word chunks relating to different themes based on the reading lesson. Learners in groups have to make word charts of the same category. What is this strategy known as ?”

(1)  Word collocations

(2)  Communicative language teaching

(3)  A writing project

(4)  Thematic language teaching

Answer: (1)

108. A student reads through an article in a newspaper to get the overall idea of the article. What is this (practice) known as ?

(1)  Skimming

(2)  Top-down model

(3)  Bottom-up model

(4)  Scanning

Answer: (1)

109. Sight words are developed

(1)  by teacher from text books.

(2)  by using words in meaningful contexts

(3)  by knowing meaning of difficult words.

(4)  by seeing them on sight.

Answer: (2)

110. Language is

(1)  a structure formed  system

(2)  a formation of words, rules and meanings

(3)  a human system which changes frequently

(4)  a rule governed system

Answer: (4)

111. ‘Comprehensible input’ as proposed by Krashen (1985) is

(1)  exposing learners to language somewhat above their level.

(2)  exposing learners to language below their level so that they can comprehend.

(3)  enabling learners to read in many languages.

(4)  enabling learners to comprehend ideas.

Answer: (1)

112. Extensive reading is

(1)  reading for facts.

(2)  reading to write.

(3)  reading for pleasure and overall understanding of the text.

(4)  reading in detail every word and idea for deep understanding.

Answer: (3)

113. A teacher keeps the students’ work of language use and uses it for assessing the learners’ achievement. What is this strategy for assessment known as ?

(1)  Diagnostic test

(2)  CCE

(3)  Summative assessment

(4)  Portfolio assessment

Answer: (4)

114. A teacher brought real life objects like a hammer, a screw driver and so on to her class. She asked her learners to describe the objects in five to seven sentences. What are the materials in language teaching known as ?

(1)  Tools

(2)  Language input

(3)  Realia

(4)  Teaching implements

Answer: (3)

115. Mother tongue based multilingualism advocates that

(1)  learners begin their schooling in mother tongue and move on to add many (at least two) languages in school.

(2)  learners begin with their state language and more on to English medium.

(3)  learners learn their mother tongue, Hindi and English from Class-I.

(4)  all learners learn in mother tongue only in primary school.

Answer: (1)

116. Which of the following statements are true of teaching of grammar?

(A) Teaching of rules at the initial stage does not lend much to language learning.

(B) Rules of grammar are essential during the formative years of language learning.

(C) Grammar teaching should move from meaning to form.

(D) Grammar teaching should move from form to meaning.

(1)  Statements C and B are true.

(2)  Statements A and C are true.

(3)  Statements A and D are true.

(4)  Statements B and D are true.

Answer: (2)

117. A teacher draws the attention of learners to individual sounds, words and then sentences while teaching the listening skill. What approach to listening does the teacher adopt?

(1)  Elastic approach

(2)  Communicative approach

(3)  Bottom-up approach

(4)  Top-down approach

Answer: (3)

118. A teacher along with her learners writes the names of objects in the classroom (like door, black board, windows etc) in their mother tongue and in English on pieces of paper and pastes them on the objects for learners to notice the words. What is the teacher trying to do?

(1)  The teacher is creating a (print) language rich environment in the classroom.

(2)  The teacher is trying to teach letters of alphabet.

(3)  The teacher is creating a situation for the students to learn the spelling of the words.

(4)  The teacher wants her learners to write well.

Answer: (1)

119. This is assumed to be a major difference between language acquisition and learning

(1)  Language acquisition happens at an early stage while language learning takes place later.

(2)  Language acquisition always happens in mother tongue and language learning happens in the second language.

(3)  Language acquisition is meaning formation and language learning is making meaning.

(4)  Language acquisition is natural and language learning is deliberate/instructed.

Answer: (4)

120. LAC stands for

(1)  Languages Across the Cultures

(2)  Language Acquisition of Content

(3)  Language Across the Curriculum

(4)  Language Acquisition Culture

Answer: (3)

Part-V

Language-II

English

IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for English as Language – II only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (121 – 128) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :

 The other day I received an unusual and very gratifying gift : I was given a tree. Or rather, I was given half-a-dozen trees, which would be planted on my behalf. I had been invited to give a talk to an organization. After such events, the speaker is usually given a token gift. Sometimes the gift is that of a pen, or something useful. Often, the gift is in the form of a plaque or similar commemorative token. However well-meant, such gifts are destined to gather dust in forgotten corners. Which is why I was agreeably surprised to be given a scroll which attested that, in a designated plantation established for the purpose, six tress would be added in my name, as part of ‘green’ movement being sponsored by the organization.

 In an increasingly environmentally conscious world, the gift of a living tree or plant makes for a perfect present. The tradition of giving and receiving gifts has increasingly become a highly evolved marketing exercise. Apart from festivals like Diwali, Holi, Christmas, Eid and others, a whole new calendar of celebratory events has been created to promote the giving of gifts : Mother’s Day, Father’s Day, Teacher’s Day, Valentine’s Day and so on and on.

 What do you give to people – friends, relatives spouses, children, parents, employees, clients, well-wishers who have more or less everything, or at least everything that you cold afford to give them as a gift? Another shirt or kurta ? Another bottle of scent or aftershave? Another box of chocolates ? Another any other?

121. Why do you not very much care for it when you receive a shirt or a kurta as a gift?

(1)  You already have so many of them.

(2)  You don’t like the colour.

(3)  You were not asked about your choice.

(4)  The giver had to spend a lot of money.

Answer: (1)

122. The word ‘gratifying’ means

(1)  satisfying

(2)  giving

(3)  fortifying

(4)  annoying

Answer: (1)

123. The word ‘destined’ means :

(1)  decided

(2)  declined

(3)  departed

(4)  fated

Answer: (4)

124. Name the part of speech of the underlined word in the following clause.

Which is why. I was agreeably surprised.

(1)  Adjective

(2)  Pronoun

(3)  Adverb

(4)  Preposition

Answer: (2)

125. Identify the part of the following sentence which has an error in it.

Your claim ought

 (a)

to succeed in that case

 (b)

the damages

 (c)

will be substantial

 (d)

(1)  (b)

(2)  (c)

(3)  (d)

(4)  (a)

Answer: (1)

126. The writer was thrilled when he was given

(1)  six trees

(2)  a plaque

(3)  a pen

(4)  a tree

Answer: (2)

127. What usually happens to the gifts he/she receives?

(1)  He gives them away as gifts to others.

(2)  They are put away and forgotten.

(3)  He keeps them religiously as mementoes.

(4)  He uses them if he needs them.

Answer: (2)

128. The gift received by the writer was :

(1)  environment friendly

(2)  very expensive

(3)  gathering dust in a corner

(4)  a marketing exercise

Answer: (1)

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (129 – 135) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :

  With more then 3,000 languages currently spoken, English undoubtedly is amongst the richest of all languages. The Oxford English Dictionary lists about half a million words of which only 2,00,000 are frequently used. This is because, the balance 3,00,000 words are technical and not found in ordinary dictionaries. The only language that can come near English is Chinese.

 A part from being the richest language, English also boasts of being one of the most widely spoken, second only to Mandarin Chinese. This remarkable achievement is only because of the one thing that we all love to do – copy ! ‘Siesta’ for example is of Spanish origin. ‘Sputnik’ as you must be aware of, has a Russian origin. ‘Restaurant’ is from France and ‘Super’ from Germany. Even before the birth of the ‘genius’ of ‘drama’, William Shakespeare, the words ‘genius’ and ‘drama’ were adapted from Greek. Now, you must be wondering if English has anything original about it. Well, find it out ! Did you ever try to find out how many different words of English we use in our daily life ? Try to guess and then read on. A modern novelist has a vocabulary of anywhere between ten to fifteen thousand words.

 William Shakespear used thirty thousand words and the only writer to come close to him was James Joyce in ‘Ulysses’. We normally have a vocabulary of about ten thousand words of which only five thousand are used in everyday conversation. This leads to a limited variety of words. This is because we repeat a lot of words. In conversation and in writing, it is ‘the’. (Try counting it in this article and you will have proof of it.)

129. How many words are usually used by an English speaking person?

(1)  5,000

(2)  10,000

(3)  15,000

(4)  3,000

Answer: (1)

130. Which of the following words is most often used in English language?

(1)  the

(2)  is

(3)  one

(4)  a

Answer: (1)

131. The word that is similar in meaning to the word, ‘remarkable’ is :

(1)  remedial

(2)  remaining

(3)  optional

(4)  astonishing

Answer: (4)

132. The word that is opposite in meaning to the word, ‘ordinary’ is :

(1)  complex

(2)  special

(3)  liable

(4)  usual

Answer: (2)

133. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?

Did you ever try to find out?

(1)  Adjective

(2)  Pronoun

(3)  Verb

(4)  Adverb

Answer: (4)

134. English is the most widely used language in the world because :

(1)  it is the richest language.

(2)  it has taken words from other languages.

(3)  it has half a million words in it.

(4)  Shakespeare has written in English.

Answer: (2)

135. In our everyday conversation we use a limited number of words because :

(1)  we are not a genius like Shakespeare.

(2)  everybody is not  highly educated.

(3)  we repeat a lot of words.

(4)  our vocabulary is unlimited.

Answer: (3)

Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 136 to 150) by selecting the most appropriate options.

136. A teacher gives a puzzle to her class-VIII students and asks them to solve it by speaking out how they solve it. What is this strategy known as ?

(1)  Think aloud protocol

(2)  Listening

(3)  Picture reading

(4)  Speaking aloud

Answer: (1)

137. Sanskrit in India today is a

(1)  Modern Indian language and a classical language

(2)  Religious language

(3)  Hindu language

(4)  Modern Indian language

Answer: (1)

138. A teacher of Class-VII asked her students to read a short story and come to the class. She asks them to discuss the major points of the story in groups and present them to the whole class. What is this reading known as ?

(1)  Reading with a purpose

(2)  Reading for thinking

(3)  Extensive reading

(4)  Intensive reading

Answer: (3)

139. English does not find its place as a _______.

(1)  second language in the school curriculum

(2)  third language. in the school curriculum

(3)  medium of instruction

(4)  first language in the school curriculum

Answer: (4)

140. Bottom-up processing in listening is to

(1)  decode the overall messages of the discourse and move down the micro level units.

(2)  encode all the sounds from speaker to listener.

(3)  use multiple ways to decode the messages.

(4)  decode messages moving from sounds to words, phrases, clauses and other grammatical elements to sentences.

Answer: (4)

141. What is the following strategy known as in reading?

The text is read more slowly and in detail to get the gist or overall sense of the text.

(1)  Summarising

(2)  Skimming

(3)  Scaffolding

(4)  Scanning

Answer: (2)

142. A teacher asks her learners of class-VII to refer to the textbook of History and find a theme which can be connected with English language text for writing an essay.

What is this practice known as ?

(1)  Language across the curriculum

(2)  Language in learning

(3)  Language and history integrated learning

(4)  Language and Social Science learning

Answer: (1)

143. Multilingualism as a resource means

(1)  using the languages of learners as a strategy in school.

(2)  teaching many languages.

(3)  promoting of languages through content learning.

(4)  learning many languages in school.

Answer: (1)

144. Match the types of writing with their corresponding category :

(a) Personal writing

(b) Study writing

(c) Creative writing

(d) Public writing

(i) Letter of complaint

(ii) Diary writing

(iii) Synopsis writing

(iv) Travelogue

(1)  a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i

(2)  a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv

(3)  a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i

(4)  a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv

Answer: (1)

145. A teacher divides her class into groups of five and allocates different themes to the groups. The groups have to collect information on the themes and write reports to be presented to the class. What is this activity known as ?

(1)  Project work

(2)  Writing work

(3)  Research

(4)  Assignment

Answer: (1)

146. Process approach to writing involves

(1)  Brainstorming, writing the first draft and final writing.

(2)  Outlining, revising and writing the final draft.

(3)  Writing the first draft, revising and developing the final draft.

(4)  Brainstorming, outlining, drafting revising, proof-reading and drafting the final writing.

Answer: (4)

147. Continuous Assessment focuses on

(1)  Informal assessment

(2)  Informal and a combination of both formative and summative

(3)  Outcome and achievement based assessment

(4)  Formal assessment

Answer: (2)

148. ‘Pre-reading’ activity in class is to

(1)  connect learners’ with one another.

(2)  enable learners to know about the story which they would read ahead.

(3)  All of these

(4)  connect learner’s previous knowledge with what she learns in the reading text.

Answer: (4)

149. Pedagogical Grammar is

(1)  grammar for teachers

(2)  grammar in context to connect grammar points with real life context

(3)  grammar with formal rules to be applied while writing

(4)  grammar of pedagogy

Answer: (2)

150. What are these words known as?

– the, of, and, a, to, that, it, with, but, they, she, he

(1)  Form words

(2)  Use words

(3)  Unimportant words

(4)  Sight words

Answer: (4)

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