IBPS Agriculture Officers Examination-2016 Held on 29-1-2017 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key

IBPS Agriculture Officers Examination-2016 Held on 29-1-2017

Reasoning

1. ‘People travelling in city X have to face heavy traffic during the peak hours which causes them delay and other such difficulties.’ – A survey.

Which of the following may be a reason for poor traffic conditions in City X?

1. The number of vehicles on the road of city X has increased sustainability with a growth in the purchasing power of the people of city X over a passage of time.

2. The scope of finding open spaces for parking has reduced remarkably over the last few years due to increased population of the city and this has led to unauthorized parking by the road sides.

3. The State Government has announced flexi timings policy for all government offices of the state.

(A)  Both 1 and 2

(B)  Both 2 and 3

(C)  Only 1

(D)  Both 1 and 3

(E)  All of these

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 2 to 7) In this question, three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

2. Statements : All bedsheets are cupboards. Some cupboards are buckets. No bucket is a tap.

Conclusion :

I. All taps are cupboards.

II. No bedsheet is a bucket.

(A)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(B)  Only conclusion II is true

(C)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(D)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(E)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (A)

3. Statements : Some penguins are kangaroos. Some kangaroos are dolphins. All dolphins are elephants.

Conclusion :

I. At least some dolphins are penguins.

II. All kangaroos being penguins is a possibility.

(A)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(B)  Only conclusion II is true

(C)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(D)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(E)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (B)

4. Statements : Some plants are animals. Some animals are flowers. Some flowers are insects.

Conclusion :

I. All insect being plants is a possibility

II. Atleast some animals are insects.

(A)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(B)  Only conclusion II is true

(C)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(D)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(E)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (E)

5. Statements : All metals are gases. All gases are wood. All wood is fabric.

Conclusion :

I. Atleast some fabrics are metals.

II. No wood is a metal.

(A)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(B)  Only conclusion II is true

(C)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(D)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(E)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (E)

6. Statements : Some circles are squares. All squares are triangles. All triangles are hexagons.

Conclusion :

I. Atleast some circles are hexagons.

II. All hexagons being circles is a possibility.

(A)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(B)  Only conclusion II is true

(C)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(D)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(E)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (D)

7. Statements : All plants are moons. .Some moons are stars. All stars are sun.

Conclusion :

I. Some plants are definitely not stars.

II. All suns being moons is a possibility.

(A)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(B)  Only conclusion II is true

(C)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(D)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(E)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (E)

8. The question consists of a statement and two conclusions numbered I and II given below it. A conclusion is something which can be directly deduced from t he given information in light of all the given facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusion/s logically follows from the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

Statement : “ We have noticed that private hospitals charge huge amounts for maternity wards irrespective of whether operation procedure is required or not. As a result, we are proposing a cap on the amount that can be charged in such hospitals which will be win-win situation for both the patients as well as government hospitals, what are overcrowded most of the times.” Statement by Health minister of country Z.

I. With a cap on prices on private hospitals the number of people of country Z opting for private hospitals instead of government hospitals is expected to increase.

II. The maternity wards of government hospitals of country Z are likely to undergo atleast some cut in revenue with a cap on prices of private hospitals.

(A)  Neither I nor II can be concluded from the given statement.

(B)  Both I and II can be concluded from the given statement.

(C)  Either I or II can be concluded from the given statement.

(D)  Only II can be concluded from the given statement.

(E)  Only I can be concluded from the given statement.

Answer: (B)

9. Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.

Following are the observations of an experiment on ‘sleep and weight-gain’ conducted on 18 healthy adults (Age 35 to 45) and 18 healthy adolescents (Ages 7 to 17).

(a) Recurrent sleep deprivation in men increased the  preferences for high-calorie foods and their overall calorie intake.

(b) Women who sleep less than 6 hours a night or more than 10 hours were more likely to gain 11 pounds (5 kilograms) compared with women who slept 7-9 hours a night.

(c) Less than 8 hours sleep in adolescents results in fatigue and less physical activity and hence leading to weight gain.

Which of the following cannot be concluded from the given findings of the research?

I. Hyperactivity in adolescents is a result of more than 7-8 hours’ sleep a night.

II. The hormone that increases the desire for high-calorie foods is more active in men who don’t get adequate sleep.

III. Sleeping more than 8 hours a night can help a person reduce weight drastically.

IV. Inadequate sleep affects the body weight in both adolescents and adults.

(A)  All the given statements can be concluded from the given findings of the research.

(B)  Both II and IV

(C)  Both I and III

(D)  Only IV

(E)  Both I and IV

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 10 to 14) Study the following information carefully to answer the given question.

    Ten persons from different companies viz. Samsung, Bata, Microsoft, Google, Apple, HCL, ITC, Reliance, Airtel and Vodafone are sitting in two parallel rows containing five  people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1-B, C, ,D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2 R, S, T, U and V are seated and all of them are facing north, therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not the order of seating as in the final arrangement.)

• These people sit between R and the person from Apple. The person from Reliance is an immediate neighbour of the one who faces the person from Apple. V sits to the immediate left of the one who faces the person from Reliance.

• Only one person sits between V and T. The person from Bata sits second to the right of the one who faces T. F sits second to the left of the person from Google. The person from Google does not sit at an extreme end of the line.

• Only two people sit between F and D. The person from Samsung faces an immediate neighbour of D. U is an immediate neighbour of the person from Microsoft. V is not from Microsoft. B sits second to the left of C.

• The person from ITC is an immediate neighbour of the person from Vodafone. Neither V nor F is from ITC. The person from ITC faces the person from HCL.

10. F is related to ITC in the same ways as T related to HCL, based on the given arrangement. To who amongst the following is D related to following the same pattern ?

(A)  Microsoft

(B)  Samsung

(C)  Apple

(D)  Bata

(E)  Reliance

Answer: (D)

11. Which of the following is true regarding E ?

(A)  E is from ITC

(B)  E is an immediate neighbour of the person from Samsung

(C)  E sits at an extreme end of the line

(D)  The person from Airtel faces E

(E)  None of the given options is true

Answer: (A)

12. Who amongst the following sit at extreme end of the rows ?

(A)  The person from Apple and F

(B)  V, E

(C)  The person from Samsung and C

(D)  The person from HCL and Bata

(E)  R and the person from Reliance

Answer: (A)

13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A)  R

(B)  V

(C)  C

(D)  F

(E)  B

Answer: (E)

14. Who amongst the following faces the person from Airtel ?

(A)  The person from Google

(B)  B

(C)  The person from reliance

(D)  E

(E)  The person from Bata

Answer: (C)

15. In this question are given two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of those statements may be the effect of the other statement. ‘Read both the statements and decide which of the given answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Statements :

I. Company ABC, a leading automobile company in country G has decided to merge all its subsidiary companies into the parent company last week.

II. Company XYZ, a subsidiary of automobile company ABC, has opened five new branches in country F in the previous financial year.

(A)  Both the statement I and II are effects of some common cause.

(B)  Both the statements I and (I) are independent causes.

(C)  Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

(D)  Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect.

(E)  Both the statements I and II are effect independent causes.

Answer: (C)

Directions – (Q. 16 to 20) Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.

    When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digit numbers,.)

Input : 87 46 part 68 30  burn heat 93 got mend.

Step I 87 46 68 30 burn heat goat mend put 91.

Step II 46 68 30 burn heat goat put 91 mud 85.

Step III 46 30 burn great put 91 mud 85 hut 66.

Step IV 30 burn put 91 mud 85 hut 66 gut 44.

Step V put 81 mud 85 hut 66 gut 44 bun 28.

    Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended output of arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find the-

Input : 61 neon 17 skin 28 four cart 86 42 here

16. What is the difference between the fifth element from the left end in step II and the fifth element from the right end in step IV?

(A)  2

(B)  5

(C)  31

(D)  17

(E)  9

Answer: (D)

17. In step IV, how many elements are there between ‘84’ and the third element from the right end?

(A)  One

(B)  None

(C)  Two

(D)  More than three

(E)  Three

Answer: (E)

18. Which of the following is the third to the left of the seventh element from the left end of step II ?

(A)  sun

(B)  cart

(C)  28

(D)  84

(E)  42

Answer: (B)

19. Which of the following represents the element that is fifth to the left of ‘nun’ in step III ?

(A)  35

(B)  here

(C)  28

(D)  cart

(E)  hue

Answer: (C)

20. ‘sun’ is related to ‘cart’ in step I in the same way as ‘hue’ is related to ‘84’ in step III. Following the same pattern to which element is ‘59’ related to in step V ?

(A)  40

(B)  35

(C)  cut

(D)  fur

(E)  sun

Answer: (E)

Directions – (Q. 21 to 24) In this question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

21. Statements : P ≤ L ≤ A = N > D ≥ I; K ≤ A ≤ Q

Conclusions : I. K ≤ P

II. I < Q

(A)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(B)  Only conclusion II is true

(C)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(D)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(E)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (B)

22. Statements : K < A ≤ U ≥ M > J; A > Y; R ≥ U

Conclusions : I. R > Y

II. J < R

(A)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(B)  Only conclusion II is true

(C)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(D)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(E)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (D)

23. Statements : K < A ≤ U ≥ M > J; A > Y; R ≥ U

Conclusions : I. M < Y

II. Y > K

(A)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(B)  Only conclusion II is true

(C)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(D)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(E)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (A)

24. Statements : P ≤ L ≤ A = N > D ≥ I; K ≤ A ≤ Q

Conclusions : I. Q  ≥ P

II. K ≤ D

(A)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(B)  Only conclusion II is true

(C)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(D)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(E)  Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (E)

Directions – (Q. 25 to 30) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

   Seven boxes – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are kept one above the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Each box has a different number viz. 2, 5, 6, 7, 10, 11 and 15, but not necessarily in the same order.

Only two boxes are kept between R and S. Only four boxes are kept between R and box number 10. Box number 2 is kept immediately below V. V is kept at one of the positions below S. R’s number is not 2. Only three boxes are kept between Q and box number 11. Q is neither the topmost nor the lowermost box. The difference between Q and box immediately below it is more than nine. Q’s box number is not 5. Only two boxes are kept between box number 5 and U. The sum of box numbers of U and T is 8.

25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group ?

(A)  V-15

(B)  P-5

(C)  Q-6

(D)  R-7

(E)  S-10

Answer: (B)

26. What is the position of T in the given stack of boxes?

(A)  Fifth from the bottom

(B)  Fourth from the top

(C)  First from the top

(D)  Third from the bottom

(E)  Second from the bottom

Answer: (E)

27. Which of the following boxes is numbered 6 ?

(A)  R

(B)  S

(C)  U

(D)  Q

(E)  V

Answer: (C)

28. Which of the following boxes is kept immediately below T ?

(A)  Box number 11

(B)  Box number 7

(C)  S

(D)  Q

(E)  Box number 6

Answer: (A)

29. What is the number of box V ?

(A)  11

(B)  5

(C)  6

(D)  15

(E)  7

Answer: (E)

30. How many boxes are kept between P and box number 15 ?

(A)  Two

(B)  One

(C)  More than three

(D)  None

(E)  Three

Answer: (D)

31. This consists of information and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements weaken/s or strengthen/s the information and decide the appropriate answer.

Statement : India has not recorded a win ever in overseas to country A in the last 25 years. Within win in every other overseas tour, India’s record in country A has been particularly dismal.

I. Country Z which has a much stronger team then India, has won most of their matches in the overseas tour to Country A.

II. Due to diplomatic issues, India has toured country A only twice in the past 25 years as against eight an average to other countries.

(A)  Statement I is a neutral statement while statement II weakens the information.

(B)  Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengthens the information.

(C)  Both statement I and statement II weaken the information.

(D)  Both statement I and statement II strengthen the information.

(E)  Statement I strengthen the information while statement II weakens the information.

Answer: (E)

32. Statement : In country X, government has made the provision of day-care facility mandatory in all such organizations where total number of female employees is 250 or more. FL enterprise, therefore, did not have to provide a day-care as only 21% of its staff constitutes female employees.

Which of the following can  be inferred from the given statement ?

1. No male employees is allowed to avail the day-care facilities as per the mandate.

2. Number of male employees in FL enterprise is definitely more than 950.

3. Had there been 25 less male employees in FL enterprise, they would have had to provide for the day-care facility.

4. The total number of employees in FL enterprise is definitely less than 1250.

(A)  Only 3

(B)  Only 1

(C)  Only 2

(D)  Only 4

(E)  None of these

Answer: (B)

33. This questions consist of a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II given below it. A course of action is an administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action/s logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statement : In a competitive exam held across country ‘Banimia’, more than 8 lakhs candidates appeared. But, about 4,000 candidates were found to be using unfair means, 75% of which were from state K of the country.

Course of Action I : Government of ‘Banimia’ should improve inspection and invigilation in all test centres of State K for all competitive exams.

Course of Action II : From now on for any competitive exams in Banimia, any application from state K should not be acceptable.

(A)  Only II follows

(B)  Only I follows

(C)  Either I or II follows

(D)  Neither I nor II follows

(E)  Both I and II follows

Answer: (B)

Directions – (Q. 34 to 38) Study the following information to answer the question-

In a certain code language,

‘prepare to know economics’ is written as ‘rt mj sp ai’

‘economics is important today’ is written as ‘qv ai nl dm’

‘to know study hard’ is written as ‘zu r toy sp’

‘study is prepare medium’ is written as ‘mj oy tk nl’

(All does are two letter codes only)

34. What does the code ‘mj’ stand for in the given code language?

(A)  to

(B)  prepare

(C)  study

(D)  economics

(E)  today

Answer: (B)

35. What is the code for ‘medium economics’ in the given code language?

(A)  tk rd

(B)  ai tk

(C)  tk oy

(D)  ai nl

(E)  nl oy

Answer: (B)

36. Which of the following additional statements is required to definitely find the code of ‘today’ in the given code language ?

(A)  ‘and more imported work’ is written as ‘fg hd lh dm’

(B)  ‘important work complete today’ is written as ‘pe qv fg dm’

(C)  ‘prepare important study today’ is written as ‘qv oy mj dm’

(D)  ‘discuss well to know’ is written as ‘wx sp xm rt’

(E)  No additional statement is required to find the code

Answer: (A)

37. What may be the code for ‘hard study material’ in the given code language ?

(A)  gm rc st

(B)  zu oy qv

(C)  oy sp zu

(D)  ye st el

(E)  zu cr oy

Answer: (E)

38. If the code for ‘is distance to’ is ‘sp nl ba’ then what may code for ‘know distance only’ in the given code language?

(A)  rt ba sp

(B)  rt ez ba

(C)  ba ez sp

(D)  ba ye dm

(E)  rt ye sp

Answer: (B)

Directions – (Q. 39 to 43) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question-

     Seven people M, N, O, P, Q, R and S have an interview on seven different days of the same week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them also likes different subjects namely-Geography, Zoology, Sociology, Mathematics, Hindi, History and Accountancy, but not necessarily in the same order.

Only three  people have their interview between N and the one who likes Zoology. N has his interview on one of the days after Tuesday but before Saturday. Only one person has an interview between P and the on e who likes Zoology. Only two people have their interview between P and the one who likes Geography. The one who likes Sociology has an interview immediately before the one who likes Geography. The number of people having interview between P and the one who likes Sociology is the same as that of the number of people between Q and N. The one who likes Hindi has an interview after P but before Q. Only two people have their interview between S and the one who likes Hindi. The one who likes Accountancy has an interview immediately after M but not on Wednesday. R has an interview on one of the days before who likes Mathematics.

39. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group ?

(A)  Mathematics-Saturday

(B)  Geography-Wednesday

(C)  Sociology-History

(D)  O-Hindi

(E)  Thursday-S

Answer: (D)

40. How many people have their interviews between S and P ?

(A)  None

(B)  Two

(C)  Three

(D)  More than three

(E)  One

Answer: (E)

41. Who has an interview immediately before M ?

(A)  The one who likes Geography

(B)  O

(C)  Q

(D)  R

(E)  The one who likes Sociology

Answer: (E)

42. How many people have their interviews after the one who likes Geography ?

(A)  Two

(B)  None

(C)  Three

(D)  One

(E)  More than three

Answer: (D)

43. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE as per the given arrangement?

(A)  All the given statements are true

(B)  Only one person has an interview between O and R

(C)  M has an interview on Saturday

(D)  P likes Accountancy

(E)  The one who likes History has an interview on one of the days before N

Answer: (D)

44. T is the father of M and P. P is the only daughter of V. M is married to N. A and B are children of M. How is V related to B?

(A)  Grand-mother

(B)  Uncle

(C)  Aunt

(D)  Sister

(E)  Grand-father

Answer: (A)

Directions- (Q. 45 to 49) These questions consist of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropriate option.

(A) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(B) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(C) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(D) The data in both statement I and II together necessary to answer the question.

(E) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

45. How many people are standing in a straight line (Note : All are standing in a straight line facing north.)?

I. D stands fifth from the left end of the line. Only one person stands between D and X. S stands fourth from the right end of the line. X stands exactly in the centre of the line.

II. Y stands second from the left end of the line. R stands second to the right of Y. D is an immediate neighbour of R. Only four people stand between D and S. As many people stand to the right of S as to the left of R.

Answer: (D)

46. Among six people – M, N, O, P, Q and R standing around a circle, while some facing the centre, some facing outside (i.e., outside the centre) but not necessarily in the same order, what is the position of O with respect to R?

I. Only two people stand between P and Q. Q is an immediate neighbour of both N and O. Q faces the centre. R stands second to the left of Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of N.

II. O stands second to the right of P. P faces the centre. N stands second to the left of O. R is an immediate neighbour of P. N is an immediate neighbour of both Q and M. R and O face opposite, directions (i.e., if R faces the centre then O faces outside and vice-versa.)

Answer: (B)

47. In the building the ground floor is building one; first floor is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered five. Amongst five people-A, B, C, D and E, each living on a different floor but not necessarily in the same order. On which floor does E live ?

I. B lives on an even numbered floor. D lives immediately above B. Only one person lives between D and E. E does not live on the topmost floor.

II. C lives on an odd numbered floor. A lives either immediately above or immediately below C. Only one person lives between A and B. E lives on one of the floors below B.

Answer: (E)

48. Among people S, T, U, V, W and X, each having a different weight, who is the second heaviest ?

I. V is heavier than only one person. T is heavier than S but lighter than W. S is heavier than both U and X. U is heavier than V.

II. S is heavier than only three people. V is heavier than X but lighter than U. U is lighter than both W and T. T is not the heaviest.

Answer: (C)

49. How far and in which direction is point D from point H ?

I. Point V is the midpoint of the 10 m horizontal straight line formed by joining points U and T. Point U is to the west of point V. Point L is 8 m to the north of point U. Point D forms the midpoint of the straight line formed by joining Points L and U. Point H is 4 m to the north of point T.

II. Point K is 5 m to the east of point L. Point M forms the midpoint of the 8 m vertical straight line formed by joining points K and V. Point V is to the south of point K. Point D is 4 m to the south of point L. Point H is 5 m away from point M.

Answer: (A)

50. Which of the following expressions will be definitely false if the given expression ‘U > B = N ≥ T < C ≤ R ≤ E’ is the definitely true ?

(A)  T < E

(B)  T > U

(C)  E ≤ C

(D)  N < C

(E)  R > T

Answer: (B)

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