# IBPS CRP-V Specialist Officer (Marketing) Examination-2015 Online Examination Held on February 2, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

IBPS CRP-V Specialist Officer (Marketing) Examination-2015 Online Examination Held on February 2, 2016

Part I Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-2) The following questions consist of a equation and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and

(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

(c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

(d) if the data even in both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) if the data in both statements together are necessary to answer the question

1. How many people are standing in straight line (Note : All are facing North)?

(I)  Q stands third from the right end of the line. only one persons stands between Q and S. S stands at the extreme left end of the line.

(II) Q stands exactly in the centre of the line. P and M are immediate neighbours of Q. Only one person stands to the left of P.

2. How far is point M from point S?

(I)  Point S is 7 m to the South of point M. Point T is 4 m to the East of point S. Point R is 4 m to the North of point T. Point Q is to the West of point P. Point R is 4 m to the North of point Q.

(II) Point R is 4 m to the West of point Q. Point P is 4 m to the North of point Q. Point X is 4 m to the North of point R. Point M is 6 m to the East of point X.

Directions (Q. Nos. 3-7) In each of the questions below two/three statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the statements disregarding commonly known facts.

(a) if only conclusion I follows

(b) if only conclusion II follows

(c) if either conclusion I or II follows

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows

(e) if both conclusions follow

3. Statements All crafts are projects.

All projects are missions.

No mission is a guide.

Conclusion I. Some projects are guides.

II. No project is a guide.

4. Statements Some outputs are results.

All outputs are products.

Conclusions I. No product is result.

II. All yields are products.

5. Statements Some outputs are results.

All outputs are products.

Conclusions I. All outputs are yields.

II. All results being yields is a possibility.

6. Statements No price is a rate.

All rates are expenses.

Conclusions I. No expense is a price.

II. All prices being expenses is a possibility.

7. Statements All crafts are projects.

All projects are  missions

No mission is a guide.

Conclusions I. No guide is a craft.

II. At least some missions are crafts.

Directions (Q. Nos. 8-12) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given.

Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a square table in such a way that four to them sit at four corners while four sit in the m idle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. (i.e., opposite to the centre).

• V sits second to the right of R. R sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table.

• Only two people sit between V and Q. S is one of the immediate neighbours of Q.

• T sits second to the left of S.

• P sits second to the left of U.

• V is not an immediate neighbour of U.

8. How many people sit between R and T when counted from the right of R?

(a)  None

(b)  Four

(c)  One

(d)  Three

(e)  Two

9. Which of the following is true regarding P?

(a)  Both T and R are immediate neighbours of P.

(b)  Only three people sit between P and S.

(c)  P sits at middle of one of the sides.

(d)  W sits second to the left of P.

(e)  None of the given options is true.

10. What is the positions of V with respect to Q?

(a)  Second to the left

(b)  Third to the left

(c)  Second to the right

(d)  Fifth to the right

(e)  Fifth to the left

11. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a)  Q

(b)  T

(c)  S

(d)  R

(e)  V

12. Who sits second to the left of W?

(a)  P

(b)  U

(c)  V

(d)  S

(e)  Q

Directions (Q. Nos. 13-17) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

(a) if only conclusion I is true

(b) if neither conclusion I nor II is true

(c) if both conclusions are true

(d) if only conclusion II is true

(e) if either conclusion I or II is true

13. Statement K ≥ S = U ≤ R; L < U ≤ J

Conclusions I. R > J        II. L = K

14. Statements D > W ≥ C ≤ X; C  ≥ L; W < K

Conclusions I. X > K       II. L ≤ W

15. Statements R ≤ A < M ≥ T  ≥ V; M ≤ S

Conclusions I. S > R        II. Y ≤ S

16. Statements D > W ≥ C ≤ X; C ≥ L; W < K

Conclusions I. D > L        II. L > D

17. Statements S > B = K ≥ L; B = P ≤ U

Conclusions I. L < U        II. U = L

18. Study the following information and answer the question.

In a recent performance approval done by company X, more than 70% of the employees were found to be under-performing.

“I think that the restricting done by the company in the previous year is responsible for the under-performance of the employees” – HR Manager f company X.

Which of the following statements weakens the statement of HR Manager of company X?

(a)  The incentives linked to performance were abolished upon restricting creating dissatisfaction among employees.

(b)  After restricting, the decision making  power has taken away from employees thus delaying the work by long hours.

(c)  The number of projects in company X increased by 60% this year thereby increasing the burden on the existing employees this year.

(d)  After restricting, the employees were required to report to multiple bosses leading to ambiguity at the work place.

(e)  Adequate training was not provided to the employees transferred to different departments and locations after restructuring.

Directions (Q. Nos. 19-23) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 J, K, L, M, N and O are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing South. In row-2 U, V, W, X, Y and Z are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

• M sits fourth to the left of J. The one facing J sits third to the left of Y.

• Only one person sits between Y and U. U does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.

• The one facing Z sits second to the right of K. Z does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.

• Only two people sit between K and O.

• The one facing K sits second to the left of X.

• V is not an immediate neighbour of Z. L is not immediate neighbour of M.

19. Which of the following groups of people represents the people sitting extreme ends of both the rows?

(a)  M, O, X, W

(b)  M, K, V, W

(c)  N, K, V, Y

(d)  J, N, U, V

(e)  J, O, Z, X

20. Who amongst the following faces V?

(a)  M

(b)  L

(c)  J

(d)  N

(e)  K

21. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

(a)  K faces one of the immediate neighbours of X.

(b)  V sits exactly between W and U.

(c)  None of the given options is true.

(d)  J is an immediate neighbour of K.

(e)  J faces Z.

22. Which of the following is true regarding N?

(a)  K sits second to right of N.

(b)  V is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces N.

(c)  Both L and O are immediate neighbours of N.

(d)  Only one person sits between N and J.

(e)  None of the given options is true.

23. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of the person who faces L?

(a)  V

(b)  Z

(c)  W

(d)  U

(e)  Y

24. If ‘4’ is subtracted from each digit and ‘1’ is added to each digit in the number 9476582, which of the following numbers will appear twice in the new number thus formed?

(a)  Only 3

(b)  1 and 7

(c)  3 and 5

(d)  None

(e)  Only 1

25. Read the given information and answer the question.

The government of State D was recently criticised for accepting a proposal as per which schools in the State will not conduct exams up to standard nine. Rather, schools will promote all the students up to standard nine and from standard nine onwards the students would either be passed or failed depending upon their marks in the exams.

Which of the following may not be a reason for the criticism of the government of State D for accepting the proposal?

(a)  Several parents have raised concern that students would not be willing to pay attention in class and retain the information because they do not have to write exams.

(b)  Students learn to write exam papers in a stipulated period of time with practice of solving exam papers over the years and many students may not be able to grasp this directly in the standard nine.

(c)  Many teachers are of the opinion that students have become very competitive and are mainly focused on acquiring marks rather than gaining knowledge.

(d)  Studies suggest that students become less prone to exam anxiety and exam fear when they get used to passing exams over the years as compared to when they do not appear for an exam at all.

(e)  Experts suggests that the special needs of children can be adequately assessed through education of their exam papers and early assessment helps initiate early intervention and major projects through exams.

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-31) Study the following information and answer the questions.

Seven friends, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V visit seven different countries namely Japan, Germany, China, India, Nepal, Australia and Malaysia, not necessarily in the same order, starting from Monday to Sunday (of the same week).

R visits on Thursday. Only two people visit between R and the one who visits Germany. Only four people visit between the one who visits Germany and V. The one who visits Malaysia visits immediately before V. Only two people visit between the one who visits Malaysia and P. S visits on one of the days after the one who visits Malaysia.

U visits immediately after the one who visit Japan. U does not visit Malaysia. Only three people visit between the one who visits Japan and the one who visits Nepal. The one who visits Australia visits immediately before the one who visits China. Q does not visit on Monday.

26. Which of the following countries does Q visit?

(a)  China

(b)  Malaysia

(c)  Japan

(d)  Nepal

(e)  Australia

27. On which of the following days does U visit a country?

(a)  Friday

(b)  Saturday

(c)  Sunday

(d)  Wednesday

(e)  Tuesday

28. Which of the following is true about T?

(a)  All the given options are true.

(b)  T visits on Friday.

(c)  T visits China.

(d)  Only three people visit between T and R.

(e)  T visits immediately before P.

29. Who amongst the following visits India?

(a)  S

(b)  T

(c)  P

(d)  G

(e)  R

30. As per the given arrangement, P is related to the one who visits Japan in a certain way and V is related to the one who visits Nepal in the same way. To which of the following is R related to in the same way?

(a)  The one who visits Australia

(b)  The one who visits China

(c)  The one who visits India

(d)  The one who visits Malaysia

(e)  The one who visits Germany

31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus from a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(a)  U-Friday

(b)  Q-Thursday

(c)  S-Saturday

(d)  V-Sunday

(e)  T-Tuesday

Directions (Q. Nos. 32-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)

Input 23 kinetic amount 64 nature 71 58 opium verdict 96 elderly 15

Step I opium 23 kinetic amount 64 nature 71 verdict 96 elderly 15 58

Step II elderly opium 23 kinetic amount nature 71 verdict 96 15 58 64

Step III amount elderly opium 23 kinetic nature 71 verdict 15 58 84 96

Step IV 15 amount elderly opium 23 kinetic nature 71 58 64 96 verdict

Step V 23 15 amount elderly opium kinetic 71 58 64 96 verdict nature

Step VI 58 23 15 amount elderly opium 71 84 96 verdict nature kinetic

Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement and as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input adverb 59 36 salient 81 idioms bakery 14 launch 47 umpire 62

32. Which elements come exactly between ‘59’ and ‘bakery’ in step II of the given input?

(a)  Only launch

(b)  Only 62

(c)  Only idioms

(d)  Both 81 and salient

(e)  Both adverb and 36

33. Which of the following combinations represents the first two and the last two element of the step VI of the given input?

(a)  47, 36 launch, bakery

(b)  81, 62 salient, launch

(c)  50, 47, bakery, salient

(d)  62, 14, idioms, umpire

(e)  62, 81, umpire, launch

34. If in the step III, ‘idioms’ interchanges its position with ’81’ and ‘salient’ also interchanges its position with ‘14’, then which element will be third to the right of ‘47’?

(a)  14

(b)  salient

(d)  idioms

(e)  81

35. Which step are the elements ‘bakery launch 47’ found in the same order?

(a)  Sixth

(b)  Third

(c)  Fourth

(d)  The given order of elements is not found in any step.

(e)  Fifth

36. This question consist of information and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements weakens or strengthens the information and decide the appropriate answer.

Information Due to increased cases of kidnapping in its vicinity, school M has made it compulsory for parents or legal guardians of the students to give a duly signed authority letter to the person picking up the students from school.

I. Most working parents rely on their domestic help, for picking up their children from school, who can easily coerced into forging or misusing the authority letter for monetary plans.

II. There is no photograph on the authority letter making it difficult to identify the person who comes to pick up the child.

(a)  Both statements I and II strengthens the information.

(b)  Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the information.

(c)  Both statements I and II weakens the information.

(d)  Both statements I and II are neutral statements.

(e)  Statements I weakens the information while statement II strengthens the information.

37. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PAINTED’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word in both forward and backward directions, as there are between them in the English alphabetical series?

(a)  More than three

(b)  Two

(c)  Three

(d)  None

(e)  One

38. If A = 2, B = 4, then MBA = ?

(a)  24

(b)  30

(c)  32

(d)  34

(e)  38

Directions (Q. Nos. 39-43) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

‘urban people prefers cars’ is written as ‘ve fm ab eg’

‘profit for urban areas’ is written as ‘ab ep zi so’

‘people demand for hike’ is written as ‘zi qr cd ve’

‘hike in profit margin’ is written as ‘al jn ep cd’

(All codes are two-letter codes only.)

39. What will be the possible code for ‘urban food demand’ in the given code language?

(a)  qr ab nj

(b)  qr cr ab

(c)  nj qr cd

(d)  zi ab nj

(e)  zi ve nj

40. What is the code for ‘areas’ in the given code language?

(a)  ab

(b)  zi

(c)  ep

(d)  qr

(e)  so

41. What does the code ‘jn’ stand for in the given code language?

(a)  Either ‘hike’ or ‘people’

(b)  Either ‘in’ or ‘margin’

(c)  profit

(d)  hike

(e)  demand

42. In the given code language, if ‘small’ is coded as ‘wy’, then how will ‘prefer small cars’ be coded as?

(a)  wy eg ab

(b)  fm ve wy

(c)  eg wy fm

(d)  a beg fm

(e)  ab wy eg

43. What will be the code for ‘hike’ in the given code language?

(a)  xl

(b)  zi

(c)  Other than those given as options

(d)  qr

(e)  jn

44. Read the given information and answer the question.

Long-term usage of antibiotics causes the disease. ‘Cretosis’ as it decreases the secretion of hormone X. While body can endure the level of hormone X dropping to half the required number of micrograms in levels dropping to 23-microgrms needs immediate medical attention.

Which of the following can be concluded from the given statement?

(a)  A patient can be said to have Cretosis only if his/her hormone ‘X’ levels are 23 micrograms or low.

(b)  Usage of antibiotics on a short-term cannot cause ‘Cretosis’ ever to a minor extent.

(c)  All micrograms is exactly half of the amount of hormone X required daily by the body.

(d)  The normal numbers of micrograms of hormone X is more than all micrograms.

(e)  In a patient with hormone X level of 21 microgram, if administered another 23 micrograms would bring the level to absolute normal.

Directions (Q. Nos. 45-49) Read the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight people K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order.

The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight.

P lives on an even numbered floor but not on the topmost floor. Only three people live between L and P. L lives immediately below M. Only two people live between R and M. K lives above Q any of the floor. There are as many people between Q and R as are there between R and O.

45. If L and P interchanges their position and so do K and M, then who will live between M and L, as per the new arrangement?

(a)  Q

(b)  O

(c)  N

(d)  R

(e)  Other than those given as options

46. Who amongst the following lives on the floor numbered six?

(a)  M

(b)  P

(c)  Q

(d)  R

(e)  L

47. On which of the following floor numbers does O live?

(a)  Eight

(b)  Six

(c)  Three

(d)  Seven

(e)  Two

48. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are like in a certain way and so from a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(a)  MR

(b)  RP

(c)  QL

(d)  LO

(e)  NK

49. Who amongst the following live exactly between K and R?

(a)  L, P

(b)  P, Q

(c)  Q, O

(d)  R, L

(e)  Q, R

50. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

The following are two findings of a one year long survey conducted on the employees of company K.

(A) Every time, an employee is rewarded for his/her work, he/she has performed better for at least next two years.

(B) The performance of none of the employees of company K has improved in the past ten months.

Which of the following can b e inferred from the given information?

(Note An inference is something by which you can logically deduce something to be true based on the known promises.)

(a)  More than 90% of company K’s employees work to their highest potential only when they are rewarded.

(b)  All the employees of company K  have been rewarded at least once in their work span.

(c)  The employees receive heavy incentives apart from being rewarded which drive them to perform better.

(d)  There are factors other than being rewarded which affect the performance of the employees.

(e)  No employee has been rewarded for his/her work in the last two quarters.

Part II Quantitative Aptitude

51. At present, Ron is eight years younger to Emma. Harry is two years younger to Emma. If the respective ratio between the present age of Ron and that of Harry is 3 : 4. What is Harry’s present age?

(a)  20 yr

(b)  8 yr

(c)  12 yr

(d)  24 yr

(e)  18 yr

52. The average of 12 observations is 8, later it was observed that one observation 10 is wrongly written as 13. The correct average of observations is

(a)  7

(b)  17.5

(c)  7.75

(d)  8

(e)  5

53. In March, 2014. Rashmi paid EMI which was 30% of her monthly salary. The remaining salary she spent on shopping of groceries and clothes in the respecting ratio of 4 : 3. She spent Rs 15000 on shopping of clothes. If in April, 2014 her salary increasing by 12%, what was her salary in April?

(a)  Rs 48000

(b)  Rs 50000

(c)  Rs 56000

(d)  Rs 66000

(e)  Rs 55000

Directions (Q. Nos. 54-58) In the following question two equations numbered I and II are given. Solve both the equations and

(a) if x > y

(b) if x ≥ y

(c) if x < y

(d) if x ≤ y

(e) if x = y or the relationship cannot be established

54. I. 6x2 – 14x + 8 = 0 II. 3y2 – 13y + 12 = 0

55. I. 4x2 – 11x – 15 = 0           II. 8y2 – 2y – 6 = 0

56. I. 30x2 + 36x + 6 = 0 II. 30y2 + 11y + 1 = 0

57. I. 3x2 – 19x + 20 = 0 II.16y2 – 28y – 8 = 0

58. I. x2 – 8x + 15 = 0 II. 2y2 + 9y + 10 = 0

Directions (Q. Nos. 59-63) Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements number I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and

(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

(c) if the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

(d) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

(e) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

59. What was the annual salary of the Mr. Murthy in 2013?

(I)  Out of the annual salary in 2012, Mr. Murthy invested 18% in Mutual Funds and 22% in Stocks. He spent 45% of his annual salary on household expenses and saved an amount of Rs 4.5 lakh at the end of the year.

(II) Annual salary of Mr. Murthy increased to 12% from 2012 to 2013 and by this he got a raise of Rs 3.6 lakh in his annual salary.

60. What is Rasika’s present age?

(I)  Rasika’s age four years hence will b e three times Manisha’s age that time.

(II) Rasika’s age two y ears ago was five times Manisha’s age that time.

61. What is the area of the square?

(I)  Area of the largest circle that can be inscribed in the given square is 616 cm2.

(II) Area of the smallest circle in which the given square can be inscribed is 1212 cm2.

62. What is the cost of painting four walls of the rectangular hall wall at Rs. 135 per m2, the ball has a door measuring 3.5 ×5 m and no windows?

(I)  Perimeter of the floor of the hall is equal to the perimeter of a square field having side 12 m. Length and breadth of the hall are in the ratio of 5 : 1 respectively.

(II) Perimeter of a smaller wall is 15 m.

63. What was the initial quantity of juice in the mixture of juice and water?

(I)  Initial quantity of the mixture was 25 L.

(II) Initially the quantity of juice in the mixture was 70%, after adding 10 L of water, it became 50%.

64. A started a business with an investment of Rs 5000. After 2 months, B and C joined with Rs 2500 and Rs 3500 respectively. If total annual profit was Rs 4800, what was B’s share in the annual profit?

(a)  Rs 1150

(b)  Rs 1000

(c)  Rs 1050

(d)  Rs 1820

(e)  Rs 1200

Directions (Q. Nos. 65-70) Refer to the pie-chart and answer the given questions.

65. In 2013, the number of female Associate Professors in university B was double the number of male Associate Professors in the same university. If in university B, the number of female Associate Professors is same as that in university D, what is the number of male associate professors in university B?

(a)  24

(b)  26

(c)  18

(d)  25

(e)  20

66. In 2014, equal number of Associate Professors merged from universities B and D. If the resultant respective ratio between the number of Associate Professors in university B and that the university D is 8 : 7, what is the number of Associate Professors who resigned from university B in 2014?

(a)  10

(b)  24

(c)  12

(d)  5

(e)  16

67. What is the central angle corresponding to the number of Associate Professors in university F?

(a)  16°

(b)  19.6°

(c)  18°

(d)  20°

(e)  17.4°

68. In January, 2013, 24% of the Assistant Professors in university E were promoted to Associate Professors. If university E had 54 professors in December, 2012, what was the number of Assistant Professors in December, 2012?

(Note : No Associated Professor was recruited and no Assistant Professors left university E in the same time.)

(a)  150

(b)  50

(c)  126

(d)  100

(e)  75

69. What is the average number of Associate Professors in universities A, C and E?

(a)  61

(b)  63

(c)  60

(d)  65

(e)  66

70. The total number of Associate Professors in universities C and F together is what percent m ore than the number of Associate Professors in university A?

(a)  70%

(b)  65%

(c)  80%

(d)  60%

(e)  93%

71. The speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/h and the speed of the current is 2 km/h. The time taken by the boat to travel from point A to point B downstream is 1 hour less than the time taken to the same boat to travel from point B to point C upstream. If the distance between points A and B is 4 km less than that between points B and C, what is the distance between points Band C?

(a)  30 km

(b)  40 km

(c)  45 km

(d)  36 km

(e)  42 km

72. 10 men can complete a piece of work in 6 days and 6 women can complete the same piece of work in 12 days. In how many days will 15 men and 10 women together complete the work?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)  3 days

Directions (Q. Nos. 73-78) Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.

73. On December 25, the number of gift articles sold by shop B was twice of what the same shop sold on December 24. How many gift articles did shop B sell on December 25?

(a)  300

(b)  440

(c)  540

(d)  560

(e)  400

74. Number of gift articles sold by shop A on December 22 is what percent more than that sold by shop B on the same day?

(a)  20%

(b)  15%

(c)  50%

(d)  30%

(e)  25%

75. What is the difference between total number of gift articles sold by both the shops together on December 21 and that sold by both the shops together on December 23?

(a)  230

(b)  240

(c)  170

(d)  180

(e)  270

76. Number of gifts articles sold by shop B on December 20 is what percent of number of articles sold by the same shop on December 24?

(a)  25%

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)  14%

77. What is the average number of gift articles sold by shop B on December 20 and 23?

(a)  70

(b)  65

(c)  80

(d)  60

(e)  130

78. What is the respective ratio between the total number of gift articles sold by shop A on December 23 and 24 together and by the same shop on December 21 and 22 together?

(a)  9 : 4

(b)  9 : 5

(c)  11 : 7

(d)  11 : 9

(e)  9 : 7

79. A mobile phone and a tablet were sold at a profit of 10% and at a loss of 8% respectively. If the cost price of the mobile is 1.5 times that of the tablet, what is the overall profit percentage earned by selling both the articles?

(a)  3.2%

(b)  2.8%

(c)  5%

(d)  4%

(e)  1.6%

80. The interest earned on Rs 4000 when invested in scheme A for two years at 7% per annum simple interest is half of the interest earned when Rs ‘X’ is invested for five years in the same scheme at the same rate of interest. What is the value of ‘X’?

(a)  Rs 2000

(b)  Rs 3000

(c)  Rs 3600

(d)  Rs 2400

(e)  Rs 3200

81. A jar contains a mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio of 3 : 1. When 4 L of the mixture is taken out and thereafter 3 L of milk is added to the remaining mixture. The respective ratio of milk and water in the resultant mixture thus formed is 4 : 1. What was the initial quantity of water in the mixture?

(a)  1 L

(b)  6 L

(c)  4 L

(d)  2 L

(e)  3 L

Directions (Q. Nos. 82-86) What approximate value will come in place of question marks in the given questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

82.

(a)  15

(b)  90

(c)  50

(d)  60

(e)  30

83. (24.99% of 900.911) ÷ (10.30% of 25.011) = ?4

(a)  9

(b)  30

(c)  27

(d)  3

(e)  6

84.

(a)  40

(b)  93

(c)  60

(d)  58

(e)  49

85.

(a)  40

(b)  8

(c)  24

(d)  16

(e)  2

86. 3481/3 ×001 × (27.998)2 ÷ (1.997)3 = 2? × 74

(a)  4

(b)  6

(c)  5

(d)  3

(e)  2

87. The side of a square is equal to the length of a rectangle; also the side of the square is twice the breadth of the rectangle. If the sum of the areas of the square and rectangle is 48 cm2, what is the length of the rectangle?

(a)  5 cm

(b)  3 cm

(c)  6 cm

(d)  9 cm

(e)  4 cm

Directions (Q. Nos. 88-93) Study the table and answer the given questions.

88. The number of illiterate in village C are what percent less than that in village D?

(a)

(b)  52%

(c)

(d)

(e)  60%

89. What is the respective ratio between number of literates in village A and that in village C?

(a)  4 : 3

(b)  5 : 3

(c)  7 : 4

(d)  8 : 5

(e)  9 : 4

90. If in village B, two-third of the literates (males & females) are males, what percent of total number of females in village B are literate?

(a)  15%

(b)  35%

(c)  30%

(d)  20%

(e)  25%

91. Total population of village B is what percent more than that of total population of village C?

(a)  100%

(b)  150%

(c)  180%

(d)  200%

(e)  125%

92. What is the difference between total number of males in village C and D together and the total number of females in the same villages together?

(a)  140

(b)  100

(c)  200

(d)  210

(e)  120

93. What is the average number of females in village A and B?

(a)  110

(b)  121

(c)  120

(d)  75

(e)  175

Directions (Q. Nos. 94-99) What will come in place of question marks in the given number series?

94. 120   24      6        2        ?        1

(a)  2

(b)  0.5

(c)  1.5

(d)  1

(e)  2.5

95. 90   91      98      115    149    ?

(a)  274

(b)  240

(c)  209

(d)  252

(e)  196

96. 6    7        16      51      ?        1045

(a)  257

(b)  194

(c)  139

(d)  153

(e)  208

97. 124     122    127    117    134    ?

(a)  112

(b)  108

(c)  106

(d)  116

(e)  90

98. 6    5        6        10      ?

(a)  20.5

(b)  26

(c)  19

(d)  29

(e)  40

99. 274     136    66      30      11      ?

(a)  5.5

(b)  0.5

(c)  5

(d)  1

(e)  2

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-109) Which of the  phrases given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required. Mark ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

100. Sia gave one-fourth of the money she had with her to her brother. Her brother. Her brother, from the money he received from Sia, spent one-eighth on his bus fare, one-fourth on tuition fees. After the mentioned expenses, Sia’s brother had Rs 125 remaining with him. How much money did Sia have initially?

(a)  Rs 750

(b)  Rs 800

(c)  Rs 780

(d)  Rs 790

(e)  Rs 770

Part III English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-109) Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentences is correct as it is given and no correction is required. Mark ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

101. Ultimately, the only way to sustained a competitive advantage is to upgrade it.

(a)  ways to sustain

(b)  sustainable ways

(c)  way to sustainable

(d)  way to sustain

(e)  No correction required

102. What exactly have the managers being doing wrong?

(a)  doing wrong been

(b)  been doing wrong

(c)  been wrong doing

(d)  wrongly being doing

(e)  No correction required

103. Success in trade is the result on patent and meticulous preparations.

(a)  are result of

(b)  is resulting of

(c)  is the result of

(d)  results of the

(e)  No correction required

104. Competitors will eventually and inevitably overtake any companies that steps improving and innovating.

(a)  any company that

(b)  any companies who

(c)  any company

(d)  many company that

(e)  No correction required

105. The giant search engine has been flirting with virtual reality but has never quite full dived into it until now.

(a)  yet never fully quite

(b)  but has never quite fully

(c)  but ever fully

(d)  never has but full quietly

(e)  No correction required

106. Under the agreement, the government of Japan is committed to provide a soft loan of \$ 19864 billion to its neighbouring country.

(a)  committing to provide

(b)  provides to commit

(c)  provides committing

(d)  commitment to provide

(e)  No correction required

107. By its very nature, innovative design is initially destructive of capital- either in the form for labour skills or capital equipment.

(a)  either in the form and

(b)  in either forming of

(c)  neither form on

(d)  either in the form of

(e)  No correction required

108. A teenager has work out how germs travel on airplanes and what can be done to stop them.

(a)  has worked out

(b)  have worked on

(c)  worked in

(d)  has been worked out

(e)  No correction required

109. Ordinary salary is just one factor to consider when it come to choosing a university, exclaimed the Director of Civic University.

(a)  when it come to

(b)  when it comes to

(c)  when that comes to

(d)  when it coming to

(e)  No correction required

110. Whenever he comes here, he brought down a gift.

(a)  brought up

(b)  brings up

(c)  brings down

(d)  brings

(e)  No correction required

Directions (Q. Nos. 111-120) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Today, the discipline of science that Sir Isaac Newton helped found in the second half of the 17th century has extended humanity’s horizons to a degree he could scarcely have envisaged. Even though Pluto was reclassified as a dwarf planet in 2006, with the discovery of other similarly sized bodies nearby, the latest mission of America’s space agency NASA to Pluto is expected to produce plenty of data for planetary scientists to pore over. But then the stream of missions to the outer planets (namely Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune) turns into a trickle. At the same time, Cassini was launched in 1997 to explore Saturn and its Moons but by 2017 its propellant will be depleted and provided it survives a series of fly-bye through Saturn’s rings- It will burn up as it plunges through the planet’s thick atmosphere. Sometime, before 2025 even the stalwart voyage probes, both launched in 1977, will lack the power continue sending back data. Voyager-1, now in interstellar space, is the most distant man-made object in the Universe, and Voyage-2 is not far behind.

The upshot is that for a decade or so, discoveries will come mostly from objects closer to Earth, regular excursions to Mars are planned. There will also be plenty of instruments launched to look at Earth itself. The hiatus might n ot end until two proposed space missions are launched in the early 2020s. It seems an abrupt slowdown after a golden age of missions by NASA and European Space Agency (ESA). But, building a space probe in both complicated an expensive, it takes years of planning and jostling for funds as well as hefty dose of lack to ensure that complex equipment works well.

We are travelling today from some good science and good funding in the 1990s. And money has become much scarcer in recent years. In 1981, the recent high-water mark for NASA, the agency received \$ 25 billion. Its budget fell to a low of \$ 16.9 billion in 2013. Some of NASA’s cash has been shifted to other projects. NASA’s cooperation with ESA on future missions has also been scaled back as a result of budget cuts. The Europeans, by contrast, have kept their funding fairly steady. But, ESA’s budget is just £ 4.4 billion (\$ 4.9 billion). Other countries are interested in space and have missions under way or in the making, including China, Japan and India. But, so far they have no ambitions to venture beyond Mars.

Does the coming gap in planetary exploration matter? Studying the geology, atmosphere and evolution of plants, and comets provides valuable science. Others have loftier ambitions-keeping planetary science going is critical to the long-term survival of the species on this plant. Because space missions have such long lead times, the looming run of years will have deleterious effects even if budgets start to rise again. The concern is that when funding does get back, there will be a missing generation of valuable knowledge almost. It’s really difficult to go through boom and bust cycles since you’ve got to keep the scientific community and the engineers ticking over to maintain the expertise will have in outer solar-system exploration.

We are travelling today from some good science and good funding in the 1990s. And money has become much scarcer in recent years. In 1981, the recent high-water mark for NASA, the agency received \$ 25 billion. Its budget fell to a low of \$ 16.9 billion in 2013. Some of NASA’s cash has been shifted to other projects. NASA’s cooperation with ESA on future missions has also been scaled back as a result of budget cuts. The Europeans, by contrast, have kept their funding fairly steady. But, ESA’s budget is Just £4.4 billion (\$ 4.9 billion). Other countries are interested in space and have missions under way or in the making, including China, Japan and India. But, so far they have no ambitions to venture beyond Mars.

Does the coming gap in planetary exploration matter? Studying the geology, atmosphere and evolution of plants, and comets provides valuable science. Others have loftier ambitions-keeping planter science going is critical to the long-term survival of the species on this planet. Because space missions have such long lead times, the looming run of years will have deleterious effects even if budgets start to rise again. The concern is that when funding does get  back, there will be a missing generation of valuable knowledge almost. It’s really difficult to go through boom and bust cycles since you’ve got to keep the scientific community and the engineers ticking over to maintain the expertise will have in outer solar-system exploration.

111. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

(a)  Space travel is exclusive to developed counties and this is unlikely to change.

(b)  We are too focused on studying the universe and proving the existence of extraterrestrial life.

(c)  There has been a decline in the quality of scientific discovery in recent times.

(d)  Despite huge leaps in planetary science in the past, exploration is unfortunately likely to dwindle now.

(e)  Though we have physically explored various planets we are unable to make them habitable.

112. Which of the following can be said about the voyage probes?

(a)  These have been obsolete for a long time and should be called as soon as possible.

(b)  These probes have been damaged and are responsible for polluting the galaxy.

(c)  These have travelled the furthest and provided invaluable insights in the field of planetary science.

(d)  Scientists have lost contact with these and worryingly cannot prepare their exact location.

(e)  Too many resources are diverted to maintaining these outdated probes.

113. Which of the following is/are (a) factor (s) which affect space missions today?

(A) Funding from NASA and ESA to space programme in developing countries.

(B) Scarcity of engineers in the field.

(C) Budgets and advance planning of projects.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Only C

(c)  A, B and C

(d)  Only B

(e)  A and C

114. What does the phrase ‘It’s really difficult to go through boom-and-bust cycle’ convey?

(a)  Some economics are still trying to recover from exorbitant space funding in the year 199s.

(b)  Space exploration missions have had more failures than successes.

(c)  Global economic mission since 2000 has resulted in lack of employment for engineers.

(d)  Fluctuations in space exploration funding are not desirable.

(e)  The durations for space missions should be more optimally planned to avoid wastage of resources.

115. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘Matter’ given in bold as used in the passage?

(a)  Substance

(b)  Theme

(c)  Suitable

(d)  Count

(e)  Question

116. What does the author suggest regarding countries such as China, Japan and India?

(A) These countries should increase their budgets for space travel.

(B) These should enter into agreements with developed countries for space exploration.

(C) Their ides of making Mars habitable are too lofty.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Only B

(c)  B and C

(d)  A and C

(e)  None of these

117. What is the author’s view regarding reduction in funds for space exploration?

(a)  It is an appropriate step as the planet face more pressing problems.

(b)  It will be detrimental as it will hamper scientific discovery and knowledge.

(c)  It is desirable as we have adequate evidence that sustaining life in some planets is too costly.

(d)  It is an unwelcome move as several space missions are scheduled this year.

(e)  Other than those given as options

118. What do the statistics on space agency budgets cited in the passage indicate?

(a)  Space agency budgets vary across countries and within a country over time.

(b)  Building spacecrafts is becoming more expensive over time.

(c)  Despite increasing space budgets, there is a lack of innovation in space exploration

(d)  There have been many expensive failures in space missions in recent times.

(e)  Asia’s space budget is fast catching up to Europe’s and America’s till present.

119. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word ‘Extended’ given in bold as used in the passage?

(a)  Postponed

(b)  Delayed

(c)  Amplified

(d)  Curtailed

(e)  Relaxed

120. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(a)  There is conflict among scientists about the classification of planetary bodies.

(b)  Collaborations among nations for space exploration has not really worked.

(c)  Studying outer space has implications for life on Earth.

(d)  The number of space scientists has fallen since the 1990s.

(e)  None of the given options is true in the context of the passage.

Directions (Q. Nos. 121-130) Read each sentence of find out whether there is any error in it the error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there ‘No error’, then answer is (e).

121. The next time you/ are at the city airport,/ apart of shopping for the usual,/ you can also purchase a piece of art.

(a)  The next time you

(b)  are at the city airport,

(c)  apart of shopping for the usual,

(d)  you can also purchase a piece of art

(e)  No error

122. Despite being laid low by illness/ in the run-up to the event, / the sportsman intend to give his best/ on the upcoming championship.

(a)  Despite being laid low by illness

(b)  in the run-up to the event,

(c)  the sportsman intend to give his best

(d)  on the upcoming championship

(e)  No error

123. After staying together / for several years, the actress/ finally separated from her husband/ for good in 2004.

(a)  After staying together

(b)  for several years, the actress

(c)  finally separated from her husband

(d)  for good in 2004

(e)  No error

124. The city’s young women/ are going out and buying/ diamonds themselves, as by gifted/ diamonds by men is such

(a)  The city’s young women

(b)  are doing out and buying

(c)  diamonds themselves, as by gifted

(d)  diamonds by men is such passed

(e)  No error

125. After swung between playing / positive and negative characters, / the actor is set to attempt comedy / for the first time on small screen.

(a)  After swung between playing

(b)  positive and negative characters,

(c)  the actor is set to attempt comedy

(d)  for the first time on small screen

(e)  No error

126. Research’s show that people / who are able to responding/ more quickly to questions are / perceived as more charismatic.

(a)  Research’s show that people

(b)  who are able to responding

(c)  more quickly to questions are

(d)  perceived as more charismatic

(e)  No error

127. His wife’s untimely death / in a plane crash and him/ to the supportive actress, who/ lend him a shoulder to cry on.

(a)  His wife’s untimely death

(b)  in a plane crash and him

(c)  to the supportive actress, who

(d)  lend him a shoulder to cry on

(e)  No error

128. Staying healthy / and high spirited/ is not / very difficult.

(a)  Staying healthy

(b)  and high spirited

(c)  is not

(d)  very difficult

(e)  No error

129. Like against/ a fixed interest rate loan, / a floating interest rate loan offers/ flexibility to borrowers.

(a)  Like against

(b)  a fixed interest rate loan,

(c)  a floating interest rate loan offers

(d)  flexibility to borrowers

(e)  No error

130. The director refused/ to meet his critics/ and did not respond to/ any of their letters.

(a)  The director refused

(b)  to meet his critics

(c)  and did not respond to

(d)  any of their letters

(e)  No error

Directions (Q. Nos. 131-135) Each sentence has two blanks which indicated that something has been omitted. Choose the words that best fit the meaning of the sentences as a whole.

131. Findings ………… that social intelligence is more than just ……. the right thing to do.

(a)  depict; making

(b)  state; letting

(c)  suggest; ascertaining

(d)  show; knowing

(e)  illustrate; allowing

132. Saunas are not only a good way to detox, but they also help you get ………… a cold quicker by opening up your sinus passage, and helping you ……….. easily.

(a)  over; breathe

(b)  past; air

(c)  better; smell

(d)  leave; oxygenate

(e)  arrest; vacate

133. A fixed rate home loan is …………… for those who want to have a …………. monthly repayment schedule.

(a)  good; high

(b)  kept; limited

(c)  ideal; predictable

(d)  prime; logical

(e)  best; annual

134. Paintings are generally quite ……………, but by expanding art to forms and objects beyond paintings, we will make it ……… to the common man.

(a)  costly; limited

(b)  cheap; available

(c)  expensive; accessible

(d)  reasonable; pricey

(e)  steep; exorbitant

135. No ………… how big or small piece of jewerllery, it is the fact that you bought it with your own money that makes it

(a)  matter; special

(b)  doubt; unique

(c)  problem; stand

(d)  way; small

(e)  issue; dear

Directions (Q. Nos. 136-140) Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.

(A) At the same time; allowing restaurant drivers to take leftovers home in a ‘doggy bag’ is a common phenomenon in the US, but the practice is frowned upon in some EU countries.

(B) An approach to train waste-minimizing habits is through cooking classes, for example, the local authority of Burssels train 1900 people in 2009 on how to minimize waste.

(C) Caterers can minimize waste by anticipating demand, informed by reservations and customer feedback surveys.

(D) There are similar education opportunities in the hospitality industry as well.

(E) Societal efforts are needed to banish this embarrassment.

(F) The European Parliament has recommended that this practical training be incorporated in school curricula.

136. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  F

(d)  D

(e)  E

137. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  E

(e)  D

138. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  E

(c)  D

(d)  C

(e)  B

139. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

(e)  E

140. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

(e)  F

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-150) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.

Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Around world, companies that have achieved international leadership employ strategies that (141) from each other in every respect. But, when every successful company will employ its own particular strategy, the (142) mode of operation-the character and trajectory of all successful companies is fundamentally the same.

Companies (143) competitive advantage through acts of innovation. They approach innovation in its broadest sense, including both new technologies and new ways of doing things. They perceive a new basis for competing or better means to competing in old ways. Innovations can be (144) in a new product design, a new production process, a new marketing approach or a new way of conducting training. Much innovation is mundane and incremental, depending more on accumulation of small insights and advances (145) on a single, major technological breakthrough. It often involves ideas that are not even ‘new’ ideas that have been (146), but never vigorously pursued. It always involves investments in skill and knowledge, as well as in physical assets and brand reputations.

Some innovations create competitive advantage by perceiving an entirely new market opportunity or by serving a market segment that offers have (147). When competitors are slow to respond, such innovation (148) competitive advantage. For instance, in industries such as autos and home electronics, Japanese companies (149) this initial advantages by (150) on smaller more compact, lower capacity models that foreign competitors declared as less profitable, less important and less attractive.

141.

(a)  offer

(b)  deter

(c)  after

(d)  contrast

(e)  vary

142.

(a)  underlying

(b)  basis

(c)  prima

(d)  element

(e)  routed

143.

(a)  compete

(b)  work

(c)  follow

(d)  achieve

(e)  dispatch

144.

(a)  obviously

(b)  seen

(c)  attached

(d)  attested

(e)  noticeable

145.

(a)  there

(b)  the

(c)  that

(d)  therefore

(e)  than

146.

(a)  existed

(b)  over

(c)  around

(d)  all

(e)  universally

147.

(a)  divergent

(b)  noticed

(c)  ignored

(d)  shut

(e)  detoured

148.

(a)  profits

(b)  yields

(c)  return

(d)  felicitates

(e)  turns on

149.

(a)  strengthens

(b)  proceed

(c)  allowed

(d)  gained

(e)  prove

150.

(b)  indicating

(c)  touching

(d)  focusing

(e)  hitting