IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2004 With Answer Key

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IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Test 2004

PART-A

SECTION-I: GENERAL ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

Directions: Read the following passages carefully and pick out the best answer out of the four choices given in each question.

    Adventure is the spirit that urges men to undertake hazardous tasks, for adventure implies readiness to embark on a course of action that involves risk. However the spirit of adventure tends to be restrained by caution. More often that not, this caution gives warning of t he potential dangers when our foremost thoughts are of safety first. Yet in some men the urge for adventure may be so strong that it overwhelms the primary instinct of self-preservation and inspires them to attempt the impossible.

   Adventure need not always be successful. It is enough if the adventure is impelled by courage. Indeed, the failure of a gallant enterprise often touches our heart deeply even more than if it were a success. The vision of Mallory and Irvine toiling indomitably through the miss towards the summit of Mount Everest, never to return, inspires us for more than if they had attained their objective. Success in dangerous enterprises often brings material rewards, but a glorious failure brings greater honour and admiration.

      There has never  been a person who knew no fear, but the finer the courage of the person, the lesser will one betray fear. When we think of persons who go after adventure with a complete disregard for danger, we should remember that their bodies are as sensible to agony as ours and that their minds suffer from same anxieties. If we wish to pursue real adventure, we must fight gigantic battles within ourselves and overcome hunger, love of life, the pull of the home and even the love of our beloved ones.

1. According to the writer, the spirit of adventure I s characterized by

(A)  ever readiness

(B)  eagerness to take risks       

(C)  a concern for safety

(D)  potential dangers

Answer: (B)

2. According to this text,

(A)  some than pursue adventure even at grave risk to their life

(B)  some men needlessly attempt the impossible

(C)  some men are so strong that they feel nothing is impossible

(D)  only the foolhardy attempt the impossible

Answer: (C)

3. The contextual meaning of ‘a gallant enterprise” in para 2 is

(A)  a brave-hearted projected

(B)  a difficult adventure that requires lot of courage

(C)  a brave adventure that is bound to fail

(D)  an adventure that has a strong appeal for the really have

Answer: (B)

4. The word “Vision” in para 2 can be replaced with

(A)  dream

(B)  image

(C)  apparition

(D)  vivid picture

Answer: (C)

5. … Mallory and Irvine toiling indomitably…… The closest meaning of the bold words here is

(A)  struggling hopelessly

(B)  struggling ceaselessly and reaching the top

(C)  working hard without rest

(D)  working hard for long and not giving up

Answer: (B)

6. The author wants the reader to understand that

(A)  Mallory and Irvine reached the to but only after a valiant effort

(B)  Mallory and Irvine, though brave, were doomed to fail

(C)  Mallory and Irvine died but their attempt was indeed grand

(D)  Mallory and Irvine should have given up the attempt because of bad weather and returned to the base camp

Answer: (C)­

7. The author maintains that “a glorious failure brings greater honour and admiration” because it

(A)  shows human spirit at its best even against heavy odds

(B)  inspires the young and the old

(C)  reveals that failure too contributes to success

(D)  established that even in their finest hour human beings remain vulnerable

Answer: (A)

8. According to this text, a really courageous person

(A)  doesn’t care for any danger

(B)  doesn’t easily express fear

(C)  cannot express fear

(D)  did not and does not exist

Answer: (A)

9. According to the author, the truly courageous

(A)  are sensitive to their body and spirit

(B)  feel like everyone else

(C)  become superhuman

(D)  gain control over their body and mind

Answer: (D)

10. The author advocates that in order to pursue real adventure, we must first

(A)  wage a fight within ourselves

(B)  conquer our sensations and feelings

(C)  rise above everyone else

(D)  become really brave

Answer: (B)

SECTION II: LOGICAL AND ANALYTICAL REASONING

11. What number should replace the question mark?

68, 64, 32, 28, 14, 10, 5, ?

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

12. Which number comes next in the following series?

5, 10, 20, 40, 80, ?

(A)  100

(B)  120

(C)  140

(D)  160

Answer: (D)

13. What would be 50% of 10% of 25% of 40% of 60% of 2000?

(A)  100

(B)  50

(C)  10

(D)  6

Answer: (D)­

14. Complete the last number of the series

3, 6, 9, 12. 15, 18, 21, 24, 2__

(A)  7

(B)  3

(C)  6

(D)  8

Answer: (A)

15. Multiply all the integers from −4 to +4. The product obtained is

(A)  −576

(B)  +576

(C)  0

(D)  +144

Answer: (C)

16. When the temperature in Celsius is 0° and 100°, it is 32° and 212° respectively in Fahrenheit. What is the temperature in Celsius, when it is 104° in Fahrenheit?

(A)  38°

(B)  40°

(C)  42°

(D)  39°

Answer: (B)

17. The petrol tank of my scooter was 4/5th full when 1 left home. After I used 2 litres of petrol, the tank was only 2/3rd full. What is the capacity of the scooter?

(A)  15 litres

(B)  10 litres

(C)  12 litres

(D)  8 litres

Answer: (A)

18. 4 monkeys take 4 minutes to eat 4 bananas each. How many minutes will 8 monkeys take to eat 4 bananas each?

(A)  8 minutes

(B)  6 minutes

(C)  4 minutes

(D)  2 minutes

Answer: (C)

19. There are some shirts in my bag. Six have half sleeves, eight have buttons, three are without collars and two are blue. What is the minimum number of shirts in my bag?

(A)  19

(B)  8

(C)  14

(D)  10

Answer: (B)

20. What does the following coded message convey?

TCHLI USEIC SLAUSEECCL RUEET

(A)  CLUE is clear

(B)  This is a secret

(C)  Lies are classic

(D)  Use lesser chilli

Answer: (C)­

21. SOAP : TPBQ : : FOAM : ?

(A)  GPBN

(B)  HARD

(C)  DROP

(D)  ENAL

Answer: (A)

22. Select the pair of words that expresses the relationship that is most similar to that of the following pair : WATER : THIRST

(A)  Juice : Fruit

(B)  Food : Hunger

(C)  Cake : Oven

(D)  Milk : Cow

Answer: (B)

23. SCHOOL is coded as LOOHCS, TEACHER will be coded as

(A)  CHEATER

(B)  RECHEAT

(C)  RETEACH

(D)  REHCAET

Answer: (D)

24. UJH is decoded as THE. What word would be decoded as QQVM YOVV?

(A)  ADVANCED

(B)  POSITION

(C)  QUESTION

(D)  GOODNESS

Answer: (B)

25. In a pack of playing cards, what is the total value of the number cards?

(A)  55

(B)  52

(C)  204

(D)  220

Answer: (D)

26. One brother says to his younger brother “Two years ago, I was three times as old as my brother was. In three years time, I will be twice as old as my brother.” How old are they each now?

(A)  21 years, 9 years

(B)  24 years, 10 years

(C)  17 years, 7 years

(D)  8 years, 4 years

Answer: (C)

27. A man was born on February 29, 1944 and so was 55 in 2000. How many birthdays has he had?

(A)  14

(B)  15

(C)  55

(D)  56

Answer: (A)­

28. Ravi, Shashi, Suraj and Tara pick up shells from the seaside. Ravi picked up 7 more than Shashi; Tara picked up 9 less than Suraj; Suraj has picked up one more than Ravi. Who has picked up the least number of shells?

(A)  Ravi

(B)  Shashi

(C)  Suraj

(D)  Tara

Answer: (D)

29. I have Rs 135 in my wallet and still do not have the exact change for a Rs. 100 note. To make this possible, I must have one more

(A)  20-rupee note

(B)  1-rupee note

(C)  10-rupee note

(D)  hundred rupee note

Answer: (B)

30. Most children living in slums are poor in health. Therefore Bittoo and Chhoti, two slum children, cannot be healthy. The conclusion is

(A)  absolutely true

(B)  absolutely false

(C)  probably true

(D)  probably false

Answer: (C)

SECTION III: EDUCATIONAL AND GENERAL AWARENESS

31. The campaign ‘Education For All’ is a programme of

(A)  World Bank

(B)  NCERT

(C)  Ministry of Human Resource Development Government of India

(D)  UNICEF

Answer: (D)

32. Achrya Rammurthi Committee reviewed recommendations of

(A)  Kothari Commission, 1964-66

(B)  Radhakrishnan Commission, 1948

(C)  National Education Policy, 1986

(D)  Mudaliar Commission, 1952

Answer: (C)

33. Yeshpal Committee is known for its recommendations on

(A)  teaching of science

(B)  teaching of values

(C)  reducing the curriculum load on children

(D)  teaching Indian history and culture

Answer: (C)

34. According to the Constitution of India, a no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the state or receiving aid out of state funds on grounds of

(A)  religion

(B)  caste

(C)  language

(D)  religion, race, caste language or any of these

Answer: (D)­

35. The phrase ‘A Beautiful Tree’ was used for the indigenous education system that prevailed in India when Britishers came, by

(A)  Rabindra Nath Tagore

(B)  Mahatma Gandhi

(C)  Annie Besant

(D)  Aurobindo

Answer: (C)

36. The Constitution of India was recently amended to provide for

(A)  making elementary education a Fundamental Right

(B)  punishment for children if they do not go to school

(C)  allowing opening of private schools for children

(D)  making school education compulsory for girls only

Answer: (A)

37. Girls should be educated in order to

(A)  give them economic independence

(B)  prepare them to bring up their children better

(C)  assist their husbands to advance in society

(D)  help them develop their individuality and personality to the fullest

Answer: (D)

38. Polio drops are meant for children

(A)  between 5 and 10 years of age

(B)  below 5 years of age

(C)  living in villages and slums

(D)  suffering from polio

Answer: (B)

39. Ex-President of India, Dr. A. P. J. Kalam is the author of a book entitled

(A)  River of Fire

(B)  Discovery of India

(C)  My Experiments with Missiles

(D)  Wings of Fire

Answer: (D)

40. Satyajit Ray is known mainly for his

(A)  Films

(B)  Stories

(C)  Poems

(D)  Dramas

Answer: (A)

41. Vijaya Tendulkar is a famous

(A)  Novelist

(B)  Cricket Player 

(C)  Playwright

(D)  Hockey Player

Answer: (A)­

42. ‘Operation Sarp Vinash’ was meant to

(A)  kill poisonous snakes in forests

(B)  prepare medicines to cure from snake bite

(C)  organize surgery for cancer

(D)  flush out terrorists in Jammu and Kashmir

Answer: (D)

43. ‘Anne Frank – The Diary of Young Girl’ is a book that records

(A)  the life of Jews under the Nazi, Adolf Hitler

(B)  the life of Russians transported to Siberia by Stalin

(C)  the story of the rule in Italy under Mussolini

(D)  the life in the Victorian age in England

Answer: (A)

44. ‘Black Gold’ is

(A)  Coal

(B)  Petrol

(C)  A precious stone

(D)  Pepper

Answer: (A)

45. Modern numerals known as ‘Arabic’ numerals were invented by

(A)  Arabs

(B)  Greeks

(C)  Indians

(D)  Persians

Answer: (C)

46. The Captain of the Indian Hockey Team which won the Cup in the Triangular Tournament against Australia and Pakistan in June, 2003 was

(A)  Dhanraj Pillay

(B)  Baljit Singh Dhillon

(C)  Gagan Ajit Singh

(D)  Jugran Singh

Answer: (A)

47. Salman Rushdie had a fatwa against him for his book entitled

(A)  Midnight’s Children

(B)  The Satanic Verses

(C)  Shame

(D)  The Moor’s Last Sigh

Answer: (B)

48. David Beckham is a famous

(A)  Tennis Champion

(B)  Hollywood Actor

(C)  Computer Engineer

(D)  Football Player

Answer: (D)­

49. Which highly infectious disease was declared in 1979 to have been completely eradicated?

(A)  Malaria

(B)  Plague

(C)  Small pox

(D)  Chicken pox

Answer: (B)

50. The name of the spaceship in which Kalpana Chawla Performed her last journey is

(A)  Columbia

(B)  Voyager

(C)  Discoverer

(D)  Soyuz

Answer: (A)

51. Which country is bounded by Iran, Afghanistan, China and India?

(A)  Iraq

(B)  Pakistan

(C)  Nepal

(D)  Kazakhstan

Answer: (B)

52. When did Tenzing and Hillary reach the summit of Everest?

(A)  May 29, 1947

(B)  May 29, 1953

(C)  May 29, 1959

(D)  May 29, 1973

Answer: (B)

53. F. Hussain is a well known

(A)  Writer

(B)  Painter

(C)  Sculptor

(D)  Film Director

Answer: (B)

54. The currency of the European Union is known as

(A)  Mark

(B)  Kroner

(C)  Euro

(D)  Rouble

Answer: (C)

55. The film ‘Devdas’ is based on novel written by

(A)  Sarat Chandra Chatterji

(B)  Bankim Chandra

(C)  Mahashweta Devi

(D)  Rabindra Nath Tagore

Answer: (A)

SECTION IV: TEACHING-LEARNING AND THE SCHOOL­

56. A good teacher is one

(A)  who answers all questions asked by pupils

(B)  who tells pupils where to find the answers

(C)  whose pupils do not need to ask any questions

(D)  who wants children to learn only what h e is teaching

Answer: (B)

57. IGNOU has been established by

(A)  the University Grants Commission

(B)  Indira Gandhi

(C)  An Act of Parliament

(D)  Association of Indian Universities

Answer: (C)

58. Complete silence in a class is a necessary indication of

(A)  good teaching

(B)  classroom management

(C)  fear of punishment by the teacher

(D)  lack of interest among students

Answer: (A)

59. Children learn better when they are

(A)  always punished for mistakes

(B)  praised for good performance

(C)  unsure of punishment and rewards

(D)  left entirely to themselves

Answer: (C)

60. ‘Joyful learning’ is a movement based on the theory that

(A)  students should find joy in school learning

(B)  entertainment should be the main aim of education

(C)  all teaching should be based on playway method

(D)  children should be free to do whatever they like

Answer: (A)

61. School should

(A)  follow what the society wants it to do

(B)  strictly follow the rules of the government

(C)  always do what pleases the parents

(D)  give a lead to society in the right direction

Answer: (D)

62. A teacher should proceed further in his teaching in a class only when the following have understood what he was teaching:

(A)  all students

(B)  the best students

(C)  the average students

(D)  the weak students

Answer: (A)­

63. A teacher can effectively discourage students from cheating in an examination by

(A)  strict invigilation

(B)  strong punishment for cheating

(C)  inculcating ‘honesty’ as an important virtue

(D)  forcing social boycott of those who cheat

.

Answer: (C)

64. The terms Shksha Mitra or Saraswati Putra are use for

(A)  persons with high general and teacher education qualifications

(B)  non-government organization working for spreading education among the poor

(C)  members of parent-teacher associations

(D)  persons employed by the community to teach in primary schools, mainly in rural areas

Answer: (D)

65. Nursery schools should

(A)  prepare children for entrance to prestigious schools

(B)  provide regular instruction in the three Rs

(C)  somehow keep the children engaged and out of mischief

(D)  provide for all round natural development of children

Answer: (D)

66. ‘Teacher Empowerment’ essentially means

(A)  authority of the teacher to decide what to teach and how

(B)  complete authority for student discipline

(C)  freedom to administer schools

(D)  high salaries to teachers

Answer: (A)

67. From the point of view of environment, children’s school bags should be made of

(A)  Leather

(B)  Plastic

(C)  Canvas

(D)  Fur

Answer: (C)

68. Mid-day meals in primary schools should be provided to

(A)  all children

(B)  children below the poverty line

(C)  children poor in health

(D)  only girls

Answer: (A)

69. A new subject for primary classes recently introduced by the NCERT is

(A)  Moral Education

(B)  Social Studies 

(C)  Art of Healthy and Productive Life

(D)  Environmental Studies

Answer: (D)­

70. The main objective of “Work Experience” in schools is to

(A)  build strong muscles

(B)  pass time usefully

(C)  create respect for manual labour

(D)  prepare for vocation for livelihood

Answer: (B)

71. Computer Literacy means

(A)  knowledge about the origin and use of computers

(B)  competence to prepare computer programme

(C)  knowledge about repairing a computer

(D)  elementary skills in simple use of computers

Answer: (D)

72. Non-formal education has been used in India for literacy of

(A)  adults above 35 years of age

(B)  age-group 15-35 years only

(C)  age-group 6-14 years only

(D)  age-groups 6-14 years and 15-35 years

Answer: (B)

73. If a student talks rudely to a teacher, the teacher should

(A)  talk back more rudely to him

(B)  complain to the Principal

(C)  stop talking to him

(D)  be cool and counsel him quietly later

Answer: (D)

74. Handicapped children should be

(A)  kept away from normal schools and children

(B)  given opportunity just like normal children

(C)  treated as a liability and helped out of pity

(D)  integrated in normal schools with special facilities

Answer: (D)

75. The merit of a school is best measured by

(A)  the results of its students in public examinations

(B)  the success of its students in the job market

(C)  the emphasis on its turning out good human beings

(D)  the achievements of its students in higher studies

Answer: (C)

76. Scientific Temper can be developed among children only by

(A)  study of science subjects

(B)  use of technologies aids

(C)  stimulating curiosity and inquiring mind while teaching any subject

(D)  conducting practicals in a routine manner

Answer: (C)­

77. A spirit of competition among students

(A)  makes them perform better

(B)  creates jealousy

(C)  creates mental tensions

(D)  develops an unhealthy personality

Answer: (A)

78. If a colleague praise a teacher to his face but talks ill of him at his back, the teacher should

(A)  talk ill of him

(B)  quarrel with him

(C)  ignore what he says and avoid him

(D)  continue keeping normal relations with him

Answer: (D)

79. Activity-centred school is one in which

(A)  theory is always followed by practice

(B)  practical activity forms the basis of all learning

(C)  children are not passive listeners

(D)  children do manual work

Answer: (B)

80. Private tuitions are not desirable because

(A)  the teachers lose respect among parents

(B)  they affect classroom teaching adversely

(C)  they give teachers undeserved income

(D)  they make children dependent and careless about self-study

Answer: (D)

PART-B

SECTION V : (I) SCIENCE

81. Which one of the following is a mixture?

(A)  Sugar

(B)  Air

(C)  Common salt (sodium chloride)

(D)  Liquid oxygen

Answer: (B)

82. One litre of oxygen at N.T.P. contains

(A)  22.4 × 6.02 × 1023 molecules

(B)  6.02 × 1023 molecules

(C)  0.602 × 1023 molecules

(D) 

Answer: (B)

83. If 9 grams of a trivalent meal are combined with 8 grams oxygen, the atomic weight of the metal will be

(A)  9

(B)  18

(C)  27

(D)  36

Answer: (C)­

84. Insulin is a

(A)  Vitamin

(B)  Antibiotic

(C)  Hormone

(D)  Antiseptic

Answer: (C)

85. Diamond and graphite are two forms of carbon. These are

(A)  Isomers

(B)  Allotropes

(C)  Isotopes

(D)  Isobars

Answer: (B)

86. Beta rays are

(A)  high speed electrons

(B)  high speed neutrons

(C)  high speed protons

(D)  doubly ionized helium atoms

Answer: (A)

87. Composition of heavy water is

(A)  H2O

(B)  D2O

(C)  (H2O)­2

(D)  2H2O

Answer: (B)

88. Genetic information is stored in

(A)  DNA

(B)  RNA

(C)  Ribosomes

(D)  Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: (A)

89. Proteins are made of

(A)  Fatty acids

(B)  Sugars

(C)  Nucleic acids

(D)  Amino acids

Answer: (D)

90. Parasites are characterized by the presence of

(A)  Root system

(B)  Leaves without chlorophyll

(C)  Velamen roots

(D)  Haustoria

Answer: (D)­

91. Which of the following substances is produced during photosynthesis?

(A)  Carbohydrate

(B)  Protein

(C)  Fat

(D)  Amino acid

Answer: (A)

92. Earthworm lacks

(A)  Reproductive system

(B)  Alimentary canal

(C)  Excretory system

(D)  Distinct head

Answer: (D)

93. The term pH refers to

(A)  NaCl concentration in a solution

(B)  Hydrogen ion concentration

(C)  H2O concentration in a solution

(D)  Sugar concentration in a solution

Answer: (B)

94. Which of the following is not related to ‘distance’ or ‘its measurement’?

(A)  Micrometer

(B)  Light year

(C)  Angstrom

(D)  Hertz

Answer: (D)

95. When a constant force is applied to a body, it moves with uniform

(A)  Speed

(B)  Velocity

(C)  Acceleration

(D)  Momentum

Answer: (C)

96. If two equal forces have a resultant equal to the force itself, the angle between them will be

(A)  0°

(B)  60°

(C)  9°

(D)  120°

Answer: (D)

97. When a body is moving up, the acceleration due to gravity acting on it will be

(A)  Directed upwards

(B)  Directed downwards

(C)  Nil

(D)  Directed horizontally

Answer: (B)­

98. An ice cube floats in a glass of water. When the ice cube melts, the water level will

(A)  Rise       

(B)  Fall

(C)  Remain unchanged

(D)  First fall and then rise

Answer: (B)

99. If there are no scattering particles in the earth’s atmosphere, the colour of the sky will be

(A)  Blue

(B)  Black

(C)  White

(D)  Green

Answer: (B)

100. If the length of a wire is doubled and its cross sectional area is also doubled, the new resistance will

(A)  Be halved

(B)  Become double

(C)  Remain the same

(D)  Become four times

Answer: (C)

(II) MATHEMATICS

101. If a and b are any two consecutive integers such that ab ≠ 0, then a + b is a number which is

(A)  even

(B)  zero

(C)  odd

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

102. 72% of which number is 8% of 36?

(A)  324

(B)  50

(C)  16

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

103.  is equal to

(A)  

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (A)

104. The ratio m : n is the same as

(A)  m + x : n + x

(B)  m2 : n2

(C)  mp : nq

(D)  mx : nx

Answer: (D)­

105. The HCF of 12(x3y3)4, 16(x4y4)2 and 24(x3y3)3 is

(A)  12 x3y3

(B)  4 x8y8

(C)  24 x12y12

(D)  48 x12y12

Answer: (B)

106. The quadratic equation whose roots are double and opposite in sign of the roots of x2 + 5x + 6 = 0 is

(A)  x2 – 10x – 24 = 0

(B)  x2 + 10x + 24 = 0

(C)  x2 – 10x + 24 = 0

(D)  x2 + 10x – 24 = 0

Answer: (C)

107. If each of the dimensions of a rectangle is increased by 100%, the area is increased by

(A)  100%

(B)  200%

(C)  300%

(D)  400%

Answer: (C)

108. A die is thrown once. The probability of getting a multiple of 2 or 3 is

(A)  1/2

(B)  1/3

(C)  2/3

(D)  5/6

Answer: (C)

109. A sum of money becomes double in 8 years at compound interest. In how much time will it become 8 times?

(A)  16 years

(B)  24 years

(C)  32 years

(D)  64 years

Answer: (B)

110. A briefcase is available for Rs. 1000 cash or for Rs. 600 cash down payment and Rs. 420 to be paid after 6 months. The excess amount of Rs. 20 is the interest charged on

(A)  Rs. 1000 for 6 months

(B)  Rs. 600 for 6 months

(C)  Rs. 420 for 6 months

(D)  Rs. 400 for 6 months

Answer: (D)

111. Two years ago a man was six times as old as his own son. In 18 years he will be twice as old as his son. Their present ages are

(A)  32 years, 7 years

(B)  34 years, 9 years

(C)  36 years, 11 years

(D)  38 years, 13 years

Answer: (A)­

112. The equation (a – b)x2 + 2(a + b) x + q(a – b)1 = 0 has equal roots if q is

(A)  a2 + b2

(B)  (a + b)2

(C)  a2 – b2

(D)  (a – b)2

Answer: (B)

113. ABC is an equilateral triangle of side 4 cm, D. E, F are the mid points of BC, CA and AB. Thus DEF is a triangle. If P, Q, R are the mid points of the three sides of ∆ then triangle PQR is a/an

(A)  isosceles triangle

(B)  right angled triangle

(C)  equilateral triangle

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

114. The number of diagonals in a regular hexagon is

(A)  6

(B)  2

(C)  12

(D)  9

Answer: (D)

115. AOB and COD are two perpendicular diameters of a circle. P is a point on OA. If CP produced meets the circle at X when which of the following is/are correct?

(A)   

(B)  ∠CPO = ∠ODX

(C)  ∠CPO = 2∠ODX

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

116. If  and θ is an acute angle, then cosec θ is

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (D)

117. An observer, 1.5 m tall is sanding 30√3 m away from a tower 31.5 m high. The angle of elevation of the top of the tower from his head will be

(A)  30°

(B)  45°

(C)  60°

(D)  90°

Answer: (A)

118. The mean of the following distribution is:

x 10 15 20 25
Frequency 2 3 3 2

 

(A)  225

(B)  22.5

(C)  175

(D)  17.5

Answer: (D)­

119. The length, breadth and height of a godown are in the ratio of 6 : 5 : 4. If the total surface area of the godown is 592 m2, then its breadth is

(A)  10 m

(B)  12 m

(C)  20 m

(D)  8 m

Answer: (A)

120. The radius of a circular cone is halved and its height is increased 4 times. The new volume with respect to the previous one will be

(A)  half

(B)  double

(C)  four times

(D)  unchanged

Answer: (D)

(III) SOCIAL SCIENCE

121. Kautilya’s Arthashastra is a book on

(A)  Religion

(B)  Principles and Practice of Statecraft

(C)  Duties of the King

(D)  Foreign Policy

Answer: (B)

122. The famous singer at Akbar’s Court was

(A)  Birbal

(B)  Todarmal

(C)  Tulsidas

(D)  Tansen

Answer: (D)

123. Shivaji was imprisoned by Aurangzeb at

(A)  Agra

(B)  Poona

(C)  Delhi

(D)  Lahore

Answer: (A)

124. The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by

(A)  Hastings

(B)  Canning

(C)  Dalhousie

(D)  Wellesley

Answer: (C)

125. Who was the author of Anandmath?

(A)  Sharat Chandra

(B)  Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya

(C)  Rabindra Nath Tagore

(D)  Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Answer: (B)­

126. Who gave us the slogan “Do or Die” during India’s Struggle for Independence?

(A)  Mahatma Gandhi

(B)  Jawahar Lal Nehru

(C)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(D)  Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer: (A)

127. Arya Samaj was founded by

(A)  Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(B)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(C)  Swami Shraddhanand

(D)  Swami Dayanand Saraswati

Answer: (D)

128. Which planet is closest to the Sun?

(A)  Earth

(B)  Mercury

(C)  Pluto

(D)  Saturn

Answer: (B)

129. Which of the following has the oldest rocks in our country?

(A)  The Himalayas

(B)  The Shivaliks

(C)  The Indo-Gangetic Plains

(D)  The Aravallis

Answer: (D)

130. Through which states does the river Chambal flow?

(A)  U.P., M.P., Rajasthan

(B)  M.P., Gujarat, U.P.

(C)  Rajasthan M.P., Bihar

(D)  M.P., Andhra Pradesh U.P.   

      

Answer: (A)

131. Which of the following rivers of India flow towards the west?

(A)  Godavari

(B)  Kaveri

(C)  Narmada

(D)  Krishna

Answer: (C)

132. Latitudes of  is called

(A)  Tropic of cancer

(B)  Tropic of Capricorn

(C)  Equator

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)­

133. Which one is not a major port on the West Coast?

(A)  Cochin

(B)  Haldia

(C)  New Mangalore

(D)  Mumbai

Answer: (B)

134. The Constitution of India came into force on

(A)  26th January 1952

(B)  15th August 1947

(C)  26th November 1949

(D)  26th January 1950

Answer: (D)

135. To be eligible for election as President of India, a candidate must be

(A)  over 35 years of age

(B)  over 60 years of age

(C)  over 55 years of age

(D)  no age limit prescribed by the Constitution

Answer: (A)

136. Who is the Supreme Commander of the armed forces in India?

(A)  The Prime Minister

(B)  The Union Defence Minister

(C)  The Chief of the Army Staff

(D)  The President

Answer: (D)

137. Who of the following is considered the custodian of the Lok Sabha?

(A)  The prime Minister

(B)  The Speaker

(C)  The Leader of the Opposition

(D)  The Chief Whip of the Ruling Party

Answer: (B)

138. The Money Bill can originate

(A)  only in Rajya Sabha

(B)  only in Lok Sabha

(C)  both in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

139. The Supreme Court of India was set up

(A)  by the Constitution

(B)  under the Indian Independence Act, 1947

(C)  through an Act of Parliament in 1950

(D)  under the Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (D)­

140. The Governor of a State in India is

(A)  elected by the State Legislature

(B)  nominated by the Prime Minister

(C)  appointed by the President

(D)  elected by the Parliament

Answer: (C)

(IV) ENGLISH

Directions (Qs. 141-142): Fill in the blanks in the following sentences by selecting the most appropriate alternative from amongst the four choices given.

141. I tried to give him good advice, but he …. to listen.

(A)  prevented

(B)  avoided

(C)  refused

(D)  denied

Answer: (C)

142. I am given to ….. that you want to be a doctor

(A)  learn

(B)  understand

(C)  think

(D)  predict

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 143-144): In the following groups of words only one is spelt correctly. Select the correct one.

143.

(A)  Tentamount

(B)  Tantemount

(C)  Tantamount

(D)  Tentemount

Answer: (C)

144.

(A)  Reminescent

(B)  Riminescent

(C)  Reminiscent

(D)  Riminisent

Answer: (C)

Directions: In the following questions (145-146) out of four alternative, choose the one which can be substituted for the given phrase.

145. To examine one’s own thoughts and feelings

(A)  Meditation

(B)  Introspection

(C)  Retrospection

(D)  Reflection

Answer: (B)

146. A child of unusual or remarkable talent

(A)  Prodigy

(B)  Diligent

(C)  Freak

(D)  Scholar

Answer: (A)­

Directions (Qs. 147-148): Given below are the four parts of a complete sentence, Mark the part which contains an error.

147.

(A)  The tallest

(B)  of the two trees

(C)  fell during

(D)  the storm yesterday

Answer: (A)

148.

(A)  Two solutions to the traffic problem

(B)  have been put forward

(C)  but neither

(D)  have been tried

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 149-150): Choose the appropriate set of prepositions from those given below to fill in the blanks in the following sentences.

149. He took advantage … my ignorance but gained nothing ….. the end.

(A)  with; in

(B)  against; at

(C)  of; in

(D)  from; for

Answer: (C)

150. His teacher went …. endless troubles to prepare him …. the test.

(A)  over; before

(B)  over; against

(C)  through; in

(D)  through; for

Answer: (D)

151. Choose the correct direct form of the given indirect sentence.

Radha asked me why I was late.

(A)  Radha said to me, “Why are you late?”

(B)  Radha said to me, “Why was I late?”

(C)  Radha said to me, “Why am I late?”

(D)  Radha said to me, “Why were you late?”

Answer: (A)

152. Choose the word from the words given below which can substitute the underlined words in both the given sentences:

I. Some of the edible oils have a high cholesterol content.

II. The forest authorities have failed to control poaching in that area.

(A)  contain

(B)  suppress

(C)  restrain

(D)  possess

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 153-154): In the following items choose the correct meaning of the given phrase/idiom.

153. To bury the hatchet

(A)  to quarrel over small things

(B)  to destroy

(C)  to make up a quarrel

(D)  to repair costly furniture

Answer: (C)­

154. A bolt from the blue

(A)  a great calamity

(B)  a strange event

(C)  a painful event

(D)  an unexpected and unwelcome event

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 155-156): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the bold word in the given sentences.

155. Now-a-days the market is full of spurious drugs

(A)  costly

(B)  powerful

(C)  effective

(D)  genuine

Answer: (D)

156. We have to fight against dog-matism and fanaticism.

(A)  open-mindedness

(B)  clarity

(C)  freedom

(D)  tolerance

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 157-158): Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the bold word from the words given below.

157. A conscientious worker is always admired by everyone.

(A)  obedient

(B)  sincere

(C)  skilful

(D)  careful

Answer: (B)

158. S. Radhakrishnan has written and erudite commentary on the Bhagwad Gita.

(A)  scholarly

(B)  inspiring

(C)  effective

(D)  perfect

Answer: (A)

159. Given below is an active sentence. Choose the passive form of the sentence from the alternatives given below:

Subhash Chandra Bose formed the Indian National Army for the liberation of his beloved motherland India.

(A)  The Indian National Army was formed by Subhash Chandra Bose for the liberation

(B)  The Indian National Army formed Subhash Chandra Bose for the liberation of his beloved motherland, India

(C)  Subhash Chandra Bose was formed the Indian National Army for the liberation of his motherland, India

(D)  The Indian National Army for the liberation of  his motherland, India formed by Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer: (A)

160. Choose the correct tense of the verb in the given sentence from the options given below: The Constitution of India had come into force from 26th January, 1950.

(A)  Simple Past

(B)  Past Continuous

(C)  Past Perfect

(D)  Past Perfect Continuous

Answer: (C)­

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