IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2005 With Answer Key

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IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Test 2005




Directions: Read the following passage carefully and pick out the best answer of the four choices given in each question.

     Philately, the hobby of collecting and studying postage stamps, can indeed  lead to bright future full of possibilities. Even the beginner can improve this general knowledge, his geography and h is power of observation by collecting stamps. He beings to notice other countries and becomes inquisitive. To satisfy his curiosity, he starts asking his classmates, teachers and even parents question about those countries. Soon he will discover the different currencies used throughout the world and will be amused by some of the things that appear on the stamps.

   For example, British stamps never have the name of the country on them, but sometimes, include, as an occasional part of their design, the emblems of England, Scotland, Northern Ireland and Wales which make up the United Kingdom. Some stamps show maps which include lands claimed by others. The philatelist will notice that the stamps of some countries are far more interesting than those of others. Stamps of France, Brazil, Vietnam and India, for example, are both beautiful and informative. Some philatelists specialized in collecting stamps of one country or continent only; others collect stamps which deal with one subject only, like flowers, animals, landscapes, or famous men. Whether you are a specialist, a novice, or just collecting anything you can lay your hands on, there is much to be learnt from this hobby.

     Sometimes some sheets of stamps are printed wrongly and sold out before the error is detected. Such stamps become oddities and are highly prized. A philatelist with some luck may have a windfall.

1. The nearest meaning of “inquisitive” in para 1 is

(A)  curious

(B)  cautious

(C)  concerned

(D)  organized

Answer: (A)

2. Which one of the following has not been mentioned as a benefit or philately I this text?

(A)  One improves one’s power of observation

(B)  If lucky, one may become rich

(C)  One learns about different countries

(D)  One becomes fond of oddities

Answer: (D)

3. A philatelist soon learns about the currencies of other countries because

(A)  he is curious

(B)  the denomination of the stamp is printed on it

(C)  he asks questions

(D)  every stamp carries the name of its country

Answer: (B)

4. A “novice” according to this text is a person who

(A)  has recently taken to philately

(B)  is fond of collecting all types of postage stamps

(C)  asks many question about stamps

(D)  is thinking of becoming philatelist

Answer: (C)

5. A philatelist may find stamps from some countries relatively more interesting because they

(A)  differ in their design

(B)  tell more and are attractive

(C)  use a different printing process

(D)  can become oddities

Answer: (B)

6. Postage stamps from which one of the following countries are quite unlike others?

(A)  India

(B)  Brazil

(C)  France

(D)  Britain

Answer: (D)

7. Some stamps become ‘oddities’ because they

(A)  are highly sought after

(B)  have been wrongly priced

(C)  are defective

(D)  have an odd design

Answer: (D)­

8. British stamps _____ carry the emblems of England, Scotland, Northern Ireland and Wales as a part of their design.

(A)  always

(B)  seldom

(C)  occasionally

(D)  never

Answer: (C)

9. Postage stamps of ____, _____ and ____ are relatively more popular with philatelists.

(A)  France, Monaco, Brazil

(B)  England, Vietnam, India

(C)  India, France, Monaco

(D)  France, Brazil, India

Answer: (D)

10. Philatelists who want to specialize usually do not collect stamps of

(A)  one denomination only

(B)  one country only

(C)  one continent only

(D)  flowers only

Answer: (A)



11. Which should be the next number in the series?

8, 15, 29, 57, ?

(A)  99

(B)  113

(C)  103

(D)  101

Answer: (B)

12. Insert the missing number.

35        (78)        40

45        (97)         35

25         (?)         30

(A)  66

(B)  56

(C)  67

(D)  71

Answer: (B)

13. If 8 ÷ 5 = 6425, 9 ÷ 6 = 8136 then 4 ÷ 3 = ?

(A)  4421

(B)  1690

(C)  1609

(D)  4381

Answer: (C)

14. If MOZART = 30, PICASSO = 35; then REMBRANDT = ?

(A)  40

(B)  45

(C)  50

(D)  65

Answer: (B)

15. If the word HYDERABAD is written as IZEFSBCBE in code, then AMRITSAR could be written as





Answer: (B)­

16. Hemant is older than Chittaranjan. Vikas is older than Shirdhar. Mallika is not as old as Vikas but is older than Chittaranjan. Shridhar is not as old as Chittaranjan. Who is the youngest?

(A)  Hemant

(B)  Chittaranjan

(C)  Shridhar

(D)  Mallika

Answer: (C)

17. Find the missing in the following.






Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 18-19) : Read the following statements carefully.

(1) All P and X are N.

(2) All N except P are X.

(3) NO P are M.

(4) NO R and N.

(5) All M are either X or R.

(6) No Q are X.

18. Which of the following statements must be true if the above six statements are true?

(i) No R are P

(ii) Some X and P

(iii) Some X are M

(A)  (i) only

(B)  (i) and (ii) only

(C)  (i) and (iii) only

(D)  (i), (ii) and (iii), all the three

Answer: (A)

19. Which of the following must be false given the conditions as stated?

(A)  No Q are P

(B)  Some Q are neither N or R

(C)  Some R are X

(D)  All R are M

Answer: (C)

20. The pair of words given here has a definite relationship. Find out from the given options the pair with the similar relationship..

Ecstasy : Gloom

(A)  congratulation : occasion

(B)  diligent : successful

(C)  measure : scale

(D)  humiliation : exaltation

Answer: (D)

21. Find the odd one out.

(A)  ANW

(B)  DPU

(C)  GRT

(D)  JTQ

Answer: (D)


(A)  36

(B)  46

(C)  38

(D)  26

Answer: (B)


(A)  29

(B)  27

(C)  31

(D)  35

Answer: (A)­

24. A motor cycle costs Rs. 40,000 when its is brand new. At the end of each y ear it is worth 4/5 of what it was at the beginning of the year. What is the motor cycle worth when it is 3 years o ld?

(A)  Rs. 16,000

(B)  Rs. 25,600

(C)  Rs. 20,480

(D)  Rs. 24,820

Answer: (C)

25. Which of the following represents a meaningful order of the given words?

1. elected     2. Nomination

3. voting     4. Oath-taking

5. canvassing

(A)  5 2 1 3 4

(B)  5 2 3 1 4

(C)  2 5 3 1 4

(D)  2 3 1 5 4

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 26-30): Which figure will follow next in the sequence?






Answer: (D)






Answer: (A)






Answer: (D)






Answer: (C)






Answer: (B)


31. Multimedia is a combination of

(A)  Video, audio and graphic presentations

(B)  Text, movies and sound presentations

(C)  Desktop, animation and graphic presentations

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)­

32. Twinkling of the stars is caused by

(A)  Tundall effect

(B)  Brownian movements

(C)  Refraction

(D)  Reflection

Answer: (C)

33. The first education commission of post independence India was known as

(A)  National Education Commission

(B)  Secondary Education Commission

(C)  Acharya Narendra Dev Committee

(D)  University Education Commission

Answer: (D)

34. ‘Education For All’ as a movement was inspired and initiated in a conference held in

(A)  Bangladesh

(B)  Thailand

(C)  Brazil

(D)  India

Answer: (D)

35. The term ‘Seven Sisters’ is used for

(A)  Hindu goddesses

(B)  North Eastern states

(C)  Southern rivers

(D)  Northern mountain ranges

Answer: (B)

36. The film ‘Jajantaram Mamantaram’ is based on

(A)  The Arabian Nights

(B)  Robinson Crusoe

(C)  Gulliver’s Travels

(D)  Jataka Tales

Answer: (C)

37. The book ‘Vision 2020’ has been authored by

(A)  V. S. Naipaul

(B)  A. B. Vajpayee

(C)  Arundhati Roy

(D)  Abdul Kalam

Answer: (D)

38. CAS in the context of Cable T.V. system stands for

(A)  Conditional Access System

(B)  Controlled Access System

(C)  Conditional Automatic System

(D)  Central Automatic System

Answer: (A)

39. ‘Hotmail’ website was started by

(A)  Azim Premji

(B)  Vinod Khosla

(C)  Sabeer Bhatia

(D)  Narayanmurthy

Answer: (C)­

40. Wisden’s Indian Cricketer of the Century Award was given to

(A)  Sunil Gavaskar

(B)  G. Viswanath

(C)  Kapil Dev

(D)  Sachin Tendulkar

Answer: (C)

41. The state which has the highest literacy rate among the following is

(A)  Mizoram

(B)  Assam

(C)  Meghalaya

(D)  Maharashtra

Answer: (A)

42. Rupee is not the national currency of

(A)  Nepal

(B)  Pakistan

(C)  Sri Lanka

(D)  Bangladesh

Answer: (D)

43. Diabetes Mellitus is caused by

(A)  decrease in insulin

(B)  increase insulin

(C)  decrease in glucagon

(D)  increase in glucagon

Answer: (A)

44. Which one of the following conversions takes place in the process of photosynthesis?

(A)  Heat energy to kinetic energy

(B)  Thermal energy to electro-magnetic energy

(C)  Thermal energy to chemical energy

(D)  Electromagnetic energy to chemical energy

Answer: (C)

45. Mathura School of Art was influenced by

(A)  Amravati School of Art

(B)  Gandhara School of Art

(C)  Chola School of Art

(D)  Nathdwara School of Art

Answer: (B)

46. The most common blood group found among the Indians is

(A)  B+

(B)  AB

(C)  O+

(D)  AB+

Answer: (A)

47. The oldest era amongst the following is

(A)  Christian

(B)  Saka

(C)  Hijri

(D)  Vikrami

Answer: (D)­

48. Height of a building is measured by

(A)  Fathometer

(B)  Seismograph

(C)  Sextant

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (D)

49. The correct sequence of the following historical figures is

(A)  Shivaji → Shershah Suri → Tipu Sultan → Maharaja Ranjit Singh

(B)  Shershah Suri → Shivaji → Tipu Sultan → Mahraja Ranjit Singh

(C)  Shershah Suri → Shivaji → Maharaja Ranjit Singh → Tipu Sultan

(D)  Shivaji → Shershah Suri → Maharaja Ranjit Singh → Tipu Sultan

Answer: (B)

50. The body responsible for prescribing norms and standards for teacher education courses in the country is commonly known as

(A)  N.C.E.R.T.

(B)  U.G.C

(C)  N.C.T.E.

(D)  N.I.E.P.A.

Answer: (C)

51. Which of the following is not one of the pillars of education prescribed by the UNESCO’s Commission on Education for the Twenty-first Century?

(A)  Learning to earn

(B)  Learning to know

(C)  Learning to live together

(D)  Learning to be

Answer: (C)

52. Kishori Amonkar is known for her contribution to

(A)  Painting

(B)  Films

(C)  Dancing

(D)  Singing

Answer: (D)

53. English as a medium of education was introduced in India in

(A)  1838

(B)  1853

(C)  1835

(D)  1883

Answer: (C)

54. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by

(A)  the people directly

(B)  all the members of the Lok Sabha

(C)  all the members of Parliament

(D)  the members of the majority party in the Parliament

Answer: (B)

55. What is fifth June known for the word over?

(A)  Human Rights Day

(B)  World Disability Day

(C)  World Teacher’s Day

(D)  World Environment Day

Answer: (D)­


56. A good teacher is one

(A)  who gives shape to the personality of the child like a potter does to a vessel

(B)  who fills the mind of the child with knowledge

(C)  who looks after the child like a gardener taking care of the plants

(D)  who keeps the child under control and observation

Answer: (D)

57. The view that ‘educational institutions should be substantially, if not fully, self-supporting was held by

(A)  Sri Aurobindo

(B)  Swami Vivekananda

(C)  Mahatma Gandhi

(D)  Swami Dayananda

Answer: (C)

58. Organizing special programmes of education for children of construction labourers comes under

(A)  Formal education

(B)  Non-formal education

(C)  Informal education

(D)  Special education

Answer: (C)

59. Which is the most appropriate description of learning given here?

(A)  It is a process of habit formation

(B)  It is the skill to meet new situations

(C)  It is the skill to affect economy of effort and time to solve a problem

(D)  It is the consciousness one acquires after solving a problem

Answer: (C)

60. Schools are concerned with human development which includes choices related to

(A)  leading long and healthy life

(B)  acquisition of knowledge

(C)  having access to resources needed for a decent life

(D)  All the above

Answer: (B)

61. Pedagogy is considered to be the

(A)  Science of teaching

(B)  Art of learning

(C)  Science of communication

(D)  Art of assimilation

Answer: (A)

62. The most important task for a teacher is

(A)  to put students in possession of truth

(B)  to remove their difficulties

(C)  to put them (students) in search of truth

(D)  to constantly demand higher standards of achievement

Answer: (C)

63. Which is the most effective combination of ways to promote value-based behaviour?

(A)  Instructions and reading of selected text

(B)  Putting up ideals, examples and freedom to reflect

(C)  Examples and conducive atmosphere

(D)  Examples, conducive atmosphere and self reflection

Answer: (B)­

64. The purpose of co-curricular activities in the schools in

(A)  to boost self-confidence of students

(B)  to enhance their competitive spirit

(C)  to enrich learning experience of students

(D)  to provide relief from the rigour of academic

Answer: (C)

65. The most acceptable image of a teacher is that of

(A)  an authoritarian

(B)  a democratic functionary

(C)  indulgent

(D)  learned but indifferent

Answer: (B)

66. On finding a normal child behaving in an erratic manner in the class, you would like to

(A)  pull up the child there and then

(B)  talk to the child after the class

(C)  ask the child to leave the class

(D)  ignore the child

Answer: (B)

67. The most acceptable order of steps in the processes of teaching in a class is

(A)  Motivation – Presentation – Illustration – Recapitulation

(B)  Motivation – Presentation – Recapitulation – Illustration

(C)  Presentation – Motivation – Recapitulation – Illustration

(D)  Presentation- Motivation – Illustration – Recapitulation

Answer: (A)

68. A common, modern school is not expected to look after the

(A)  mental health of the child

(B)  academic achievements of the child

(C)  religious aspects of the child

(D)  physical health of the learner

Answer: (C)

69. ‘In learning, the child should be allowed to follow his/her own mind’ was advocated by

(A)  Rabindranath Tagore

(B)  Mahatma Gandhi

(C)  Swami Vivekananda

(D)  Sri Aurobindo

Answer: (A)

70. Sports and physical activities in a school curriculum are primarily meant for

(A)  break from the monotony of classwork

(B)  promoting health consciousness amongst all

(C)  wining name and fame for the school

(D)  nurturing talent for competition in sports

Answer: (B)

71. There is a noisy disturbance outside your classroom. Which of the following would you like to do?

(A)  Raise the pitch of your voice

(B)  Ask students strictly follow a given assignment rather silently

(C)  Stop work and allow the students to relax till the noise reduces

(D)  Close doors and windows of the classroom and dictate useful tips

Answer: (D)­

72. Inductive approach in teaching means

(A)  initiating the child to new subject

(B)  teaching through specific instruction

(C)  group learning as opposed to individualized learning

(D)  arriving at generalizations with the help of examples

Answer: (D)

73. The main purpose of ‘Parent-Teacher Association’ (P.T.A) in a school is to

(A)  keep the students in check and control

(B)  collect additional funds for providing facilities to the learners

(C)  share understanding of the problems faced by the school

(D)  modify curriculum in accordance with the wishes of parents

Answer: (C)

74. Comparing positive (natural) sciences with social sciences, which of the following statements is not acceptable?

(A)  The ideational fields of the two types of disciplines are different

(B)  The judgements of positive sciences cannot be doubted

(C)  Positives sciences carry more predictability about their data than social sciences

(D)  Positive sciences are deterministic whereas social sciences are directional.

Answer: (B)

75. Which of the following is an appropriate order for learning of a language?

(A)  Listening – Speaking – Writing – Reading

(B)  Speaking – Listening – Writing – Reading

(C)  Listening – Speaking – Reading – Writing

(D)  Listening – Reading – Speaking – Writing

Answer: (B)

76. 10 + 2 system of school education was accepted after the recommendations of

(A)  Mudaliar Commission

(B)  Kothari Commission

(C)  Radhakrishnan Commission

(D)  National Policy on Education, 1966

Answer: (D)

77. “That new learning should be correlated to the acquired knowledge and other subjects’ was emphasized by

(A)  Rabindranath Tagore (Shanti Niketan)

(B)  J, Krishnamurthi (Rishi Valley)

(C)  Mahatma Gandhi (Basic education)

(D)  Annie Besant

Answer: (C)

78. The main purpose of punishment ought to be

(A)  to scare the student from repeating the mistake

(B)  to scare others from repeating it

(C)  to vindicate law or a rule

(D)  to reform the erring student

Answer: (D)

79. As a teacher you do not agree with the statement that

(A)  School should be an extension o f the family in some respects

(B)  School should be like a miniature community

(C)  School should be well protected from the social influences

(D)  School should be a place for developing students’ potential

Answer: (C)­

80. The best way to reform our examination system is to

(A)  have no examination at all

(B)  have internal evaluation only

(C)  have external assessment only

(D)  have internal evaluation and external assessment supplementing each other.

Answer: (D)



81. The carriers of genetic information are

(A)  Proteins

(B)  Lipids and Minerals

(C)  Nucleic acids

(D)  Carbohydrates

Answer: (C)

82. Wind velocity is measured by

(A)  Anemometer

(B)  Hydrometer

(C)  Barometer

(D)  Hygrometer

Answer: (A)

83. The causative organism of rabies disease is

(A)  Bacterium

(B)  Virus

(C)  Fungus

(D)  Algae

Answer: (A)

84. Which of the following is not a plant product?

(A)  Cotton

(B)  Lac

(C)  Jute

(D)  Sugar

Answer: (B)

85. Which vitamin in blood plays an important role in clotting?

(A)  Vitamin A

(B)  Vitamin D

(C)  Vitamin E

(D)  Vitamin K

Answer: (D)

86. The digestion of starch in the diet starts in the

(A)  Liver

(B)  Stomach

(C)  Intestine

(D)  Mouth

Answer: (D)

87. Vitamin C is chemically known as

(A)  Ascorbic acid

(B)  Aspartic acid

(C)  Citric acid

(D)  Tartaric acid

Answer: (A)­

88. Which one of the following radiations is most penetrating?

(A)  X-rays

(B)  Alpha rays

(C)  Beta rays

(D)  Gamma rays

Answer: (D)

89. An atom with an electronic configuration 2, 8, 8 has a valency of

(A)  −1

(B)  Zero

(C)  +1

(D)  +8

Answer: (B)

90. Which of the following elements forms the largest number of compounds?

(A)  Hydrogen

(B)  Oxygen

(C)  Silicon

(D)  Carbon

Answer: (D)

91. Which of the following gases has lowest density?

(A)  Argon

(B)  Helium

(C)  Oxygen

(D)  Nitrogen

Answer: (B)

92. In the formation of Ni++, nickel

(A)  gains two electrons

(B)  loses two electrons

(C)  loses two protons

(D)  gains two protons

Answer: (B)

93. If 8.0 g of a metallic oxide on decomposition gives 1-6 g oxygen, what is the equivalent weight of the metal?

(A)  8

(B)  16

(C)  32

(D)  64

Answer: (B)

94. Sphere A attracts Sphere B as well as Sphere C. Sphere B repels Sphere C. If Sphere C is negatively charged it can be concluded that

(A)  Sphere A is positively charged

(B)  Sphere A is negatively charged

(C)  Sphere A is either positively charged or is uncharged

(D)  Sphere A is either negatively charged or is uncharged

Answer: (A)

95. The domestic consumption of electricity is calculated in

(A)  Joules

(B)  Watts

(C)  Kilowatt/hour

(D)  Kilowatt hours

Answer: (C)­

96. The apparent depth of a pond full of water whose real depth is 8 metres will be

(A)  2 metres

(B)  3 metres

(C)  6 metres

(D)  8 metres

Answer: (A)

97. The rays which are not deflected by electric or magnetic field are

(A)  Alpha rays

(B)  Beta rays

(C)  Gamma rays

(D)  Positive rays

Answer: (C)

98. A metal surface ejects electrons when hit by green light but no electron is ejected when hit by yellow light. The electrons will be ejected when the surface is hit by

(A)  Blue light

(B)  Red light

(C)  Infra-red light

(D)  Heat rays

Answer: (A)

99. Two coils have a combined resistance of 12 ohms when connected in series and 3 ohms when connected in parallel. The respective resistances are

(A)  4 ohms, 8 ohms

(B)  6 ohms, 6 ohms

(C)  9 ohms, 3 ohms

(D)  10 ohms, 2 ohms

Answer: (C)

100. A hole is drilled through the earth along its diameter and a stone is dropped into it. At the centre of the earth, the stone possesses

(A)  Acceleration

(B)  Kinetic energy

(C)  Potential energy

(D)  no energy

Answer: (D)


101. If 4x2 + 3x2 + 2x + 4 is divided by x + 1, the remainder will be

(A)  13

(B)  1

(C)  −1

(D)  −13

Answer: (B)

102. 20% of 150 is the same as

(A)  10% of 75

(B)  40% of 300

(C)  40% of 75

(D)  30% of 225

Answer: (C)

103. Two successive discounts of 10% and 20% on a commodity are equal to a total discount of

(A)  30%

(B)  32%

(C)  25%

(D)  28%

Answer: (D)­

104. X : y : : m : n is the same as

(A)  x : n : : y : m

(B)  x : n : : m : y

(C)  x : m : : y : n

(D)  x : m : : n : y

Answer: (C)

105. The LCM of (a4 – b4) and (a2 – b2)2 is

(A)  (a2 – b2)

(B)  (a2 – b2)2

(C)  (a2 – b2)2 (a4 – b4)

(D)  (a2 – b2)2 (a2 + b2)

Answer: (D)

106. The equation whose roots are half the roots of the equation x2 + 3x + 2 = 0 is

(A)  2x2 + 3x + 1 = 0

(B)  2x2 + 3x – 1 = 0

(C)  x2 + 6x + 8 = 0

(D)  x2 + 6x – 8 = 0

Answer: (A)

107. The distance between the points (1, 2) and (1, −1) is

(A)  √13

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  √5

Answer: (B)

108. A sequence is in Arithmetic Progression. If the first term of the sequence is 5 and the common difference is 4, then the 10th term is

(A)  45

(B)  41

(C)  35

(D)  31

Answer: (B)

109. Peter’s annual income from salary in the year 2002-2003 is Rs. 3,20,000. He makes a saving of Rs. 50,000 in specified forms. The rebate in income tax on account of savings will be

(A)  Rs. 10,500

(B)  Rs. 10,000

(C)  Rs. 7,500

(D)  Nil

Answer: (D)

110. If P is the principal and r is the rate of interest per annum compounded after every x months, then the amount at the end of y years will be





Answer: (B)

111. Mohan’s age is 3 times that of Sohan and Ram is 6 years older than Sohan. If the age of Ram is 24 years, Mohan’s age is

(A)  6 years

(B)  10 years

(C)  54 years

(D)  90 years

Answer: (C)­

112. The sides of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm. The area of the triangle is

(A)  6 cm2

(B)  12 cm2

(C)  15 cm2

(D)  20 cm2

Answer: (A)

113. If two isosceles triangles have equal vertical angles and their areas are in the ratio 9 : 16, then their heights are in the ratio

(A)  4 : 3

(B)  3 : 4

(C)  16 : 9

(D)  9 : 16

Answer: (B)

114. The sum of the opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral would be

(A)  360°

(B)  90°

(C)  180°

(D)  not definite

Answer: (C)

115. A circle is inscribed in a square of side 5 cm. The ratio of the perimeter of the square and the circumference of the circle is

(A)  10 : 10 π

(B)  4 : π

(C)  5 : π

(D)  120 : 6.25 π

Answer: (B)

116. is equal to

(A)  1

(B)  sec2A

(C)  cosec2A

(D)  2sec2A

Answer: (D)

117. The median of the following distribution is

x          0        1        2        3        4        5        6        7        8

f           1        9        26      59      72      52      29      7        1

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  59

(D)  72

Answer: (B)

118. Three iron cubes, the lengths of whose sides are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm respectively, are moulded and a new cube is formed. The length of the side of the new cube would be

(A)  4 cm

(B)  6 cm

(C)  12 cm

(D)  20 cm

Answer: (B)

119. A cone of height 10 cm and base radius 4 cm, is divided by a plane parallel to t he base and 5 cm above it. The ratio of the volumes of the smaller cone and the original cone is

(A)  1 : 2

(B)  1 : 4

(C)  1 : 8

(D)  3 : 4

Answer: (C)­

120. The radius of a solid sphere is r cm. If it is divided into two equal halves, the total surface area of both the parts is

(A)  8 π r2 sq. cm

(B)  5 π r2 sq. cm

(C)  4 π r2 sq. cm

(D)  6 π r2 sq. cm

Answer: (D)


121. Budha preached his first sermon at

(A)  Lumbini

(B)  Sarnath

(C)  Varanasi

(D)  Gaya

Answer: (B)

122. Meghasthenes visited India during the reign of

(A)  Harsha

(B)  Ashoka

(C)  Chandra Gupta Maurya

(D)  Kanishka

Answer: (C)

123. The Ain-e-Akbari was written by

(A)  Farishta

(B)  Badauni

(C)  Birbal

(D)  Abul Fazal

Answer: (D)

124. Ibn Batuta visited India during the reign of

(A)  Balban

(B)  Ala-uddin Khilji

(C)  Razia

(D)  Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

Answer: (D)

125. The Third Battle of Panipat was fought between

(A)  Britishers and Marathas

(B)  Marathas and Rajputs

(C)  Afghans and Sikhs

(D)  Marathas and Afghans

Answer: (D)

126. The Quit India Movement was launched in

(A)  1930

(B)  1940

(C)  1942

(D)  1946

Answer: (C)

127. The Partition of Bengal in 1905 was done by

(A)  Lord Curzon

(B)  Lord Wellesley

(C)  Hastings

(D)  Ripon

Answer: (A)­

128. Which of the following is not a Himalayan river?

(A)  Saryu

(B)  Alakananda

(C)  Mandakini

(D)  Narmada

Answer: (D)

129. Which is known as the home of the Asiatic lions?

(A)  Gir National Park

(B)  Dudhwa National Park

(C)  Kanha National Park

(D)  Corbett National Park

Answer: (A)

130. One of the states through which the Tropic of Cancer passes is

(A)  Jammu and Kashmir

(B)  Bihar

(C)  Himachal Pradesh

(D)  Jharkhand

Answer: (D)

131. Which river forms its delta in Orissa?

(A)  Krishna

(B)  Mahanadi

(C)  Godavari

(D)  Kaveri

Answer: (B)

132. Which state is the leading producer of red chillies?

(A)  Punjab

(B)  Karnataka

(C)  West Bengal

(D)  Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (D)

133. What is Raniganj famous for?

(A)  Iron ore

(B)  Coal

(C)  Manganese

(D)  Mica

Answer: (B)

134. The ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India were adopted under inspiration from

(A)  The Russian Revolution

(B)  The American Declaration of Independence

(C)  The U.N. Charter

(D)  The French Revolution

Answer: (D)

135. The President of India is

(A)  the Head of the State

(B)  the Head of the Government

(C)  the Head of the Government as well as the State

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)­

136. The Vice President of India is

(A)  directly  elected by the people

(B)  elected by the same electoral college which elects the President

(C)  elected by the members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha at a joint meeting

(D)  elected by the members of Rajya Sabha alone

Answer: (C)

137. Which one of the following did not occupy the office the Prime Minister?

(A)  Jagjivan Ram

(B)  Morarji Desai

(C)  Chandra Shekhar

(D)  Both (A) and (C)

Answer: (A)

138. The official Language of India is

(A)  English

(B)  Hindi

(C)  Tamil

(D)  Urdu

Answer: (B)

139. The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

(A)  introduced Fundamental Duties for the first time

(B)  made the Directive Principles justiciable

(C)  made elementary education as a Fundamental Right

(D)  did none of the above

Answer: (A)

140. Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

(A)  Hukum Singh

(B)  G. S. Dhillon

(C)  Ananthaswayanam Ayengar

(D)  G. V. Mavalankar

Answer: (D)


Directions (Qs. 141-142): Fill in the blanks in the following sentences by selecting the most appropriate alternative from amongst the four choices given.

141. If you drink too much it will …. Your judgement.

(A)  impede

(B)  impair

(C)  impose

(D)  impel

Answer: (B)

142. She always insisted on the need to … between ends and means.

(A)  analyze

(B)  define

(C)  distribute

(D)  distinguish

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 143-144): In the following groups of words only one is spelt correctly. Select the correct one.


(A)  Gratutious

(B)  Gratutous

(C)  Gratuitous

(D)  Greatutous

Answer: (C)­


(A)  Sychology

(B)  Sykology

(C)  Psychology

(D)  Psykology

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 145-146): In the following questions, out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given sentence.

145. Study of the relations of living things to environment

(A)  Biology

(B)  Physiology

(C)  Geology

(D)  Ecology

Answer: (D)

146. A person who believes that everything happens is for the good

(A)  Pessimist

(B)  Optimist

(C)  Sadist

(D)  Masochist

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 147-148): Given below are the four parts of a complete sentence. Mark the part which contains an error.


(A)  The number of people

(B)  applying were so large

(C)  that the college had to

(D)  stop issuing application forms.

Answer: (B)


(A)  Drawing water from the well

(B)  is preferable

(C)  than depending on

(D)  the erratic water supply

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 149-150): Choose the appropriate set from the those given below to fill in the blanks in the following sentences.

149. Hundreds students competed ….. one another ….. a single scholarship.

(A)  with : over

(B)  with : for

(C)  among : over

(D)  between : for

Answer: (B)

150. We went ……. The room and sat down ….. a sofa.

(A)  to : in

(B)  into : on

(C)  from : upon

(D)  in : on

Answer: (D)

151. Choose the correct direct form of the given indirect sentence.

The teacher told me that if I did not work, I would fail.

(A)  The teacher told me that, “If I do not work I will fail.”

(B)  The teacher said to me, “If you do not work you will fail.”

(C)  The teacher warned me, “If you do not work you will be failed.”

(D)  The teacher told me, “If you will not work you will fail.”

Answer: (B)­

152. Choose the word from the words given below which can substitute the underlined words in both the given sentences:

I. His understanding of the subject was really good.

II. Mohan had to hold on to the handle of the door with all his strength.

(A)  make

(B)  pull

(C)  seize

(D)  grasp

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 153-154): In the following items. Choose the correct meaning of the given phrase/idiom from the given alternatives.

153. Make hay while the sun shines

(A)  Do your work during the day time

(B)  Make the best use of an opportunity

(C)  Make money while in power

(D)  Take advantage of your position

Answer: (B)

154. A left handed compliment

(A)  Insincere praise

(B)  Genuine praise

(C)  Well deserved praise

(D)  Approval

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 155-156): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word in the given sentences.

155. The culprit accepted his crime.

(A)  refused

(B)  challenged

(C)  denied

(D)  repulsed

Answer: (C)

156. Anirudh drove to the place through a circuitous

(A)  short

(B)  roundabout

(C)  obvious

(D)  direct

Answer: (D)

157. He is deluding himself with false hopes.

(A)  satisfying

(B)  entertaining

(C)  misleading

(D)  assuring

Answer: (C)

158. He cast a cursory glance over the papers before signing them.

(A)  short

(B)  eager

(C)  hurried

(D)  inquisitive

Answer: (C)

159. Given below is an active sentence. Choose the passive form of the sentence from the alternatives given below:

The Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee prepared Constitution.

(A)  The Constituent was prepared by the Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee.

(B)  The Constitution prepared by the Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee

(C)  The Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee was prepared by Constitution

(D)  The Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee was prepared by the Constitution

Answer: (A)­

160. Choose the correct tense of the verb in the given sentence from the options given below:

Our beloved India had become independent in 1947.

(A)  Simple Past

(B)  Past Continuous

(C)  Past Perfect

(D)  Past Perfect Continuous

Answer: (C)

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