IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Test 2005
SECTION-I: GENERAL ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and pick out the best answer of the four choices given in each question.
Philately, the hobby of collecting and studying postage stamps, can indeed lead to bright future full of possibilities. Even the beginner can improve this general knowledge, his geography and h is power of observation by collecting stamps. He beings to notice other countries and becomes inquisitive. To satisfy his curiosity, he starts asking his classmates, teachers and even parents question about those countries. Soon he will discover the different currencies used throughout the world and will be amused by some of the things that appear on the stamps.
For example, British stamps never have the name of the country on them, but sometimes, include, as an occasional part of their design, the emblems of England, Scotland, Northern Ireland and Wales which make up the United Kingdom. Some stamps show maps which include lands claimed by others. The philatelist will notice that the stamps of some countries are far more interesting than those of others. Stamps of France, Brazil, Vietnam and India, for example, are both beautiful and informative. Some philatelists specialized in collecting stamps of one country or continent only; others collect stamps which deal with one subject only, like flowers, animals, landscapes, or famous men. Whether you are a specialist, a novice, or just collecting anything you can lay your hands on, there is much to be learnt from this hobby.
Sometimes some sheets of stamps are printed wrongly and sold out before the error is detected. Such stamps become oddities and are highly prized. A philatelist with some luck may have a windfall.
1. The nearest meaning of “inquisitive” in para 1 is
2. Which one of the following has not been mentioned as a benefit or philately I this text?
(A) One improves one’s power of observation
(B) If lucky, one may become rich
(C) One learns about different countries
(D) One becomes fond of oddities
3. A philatelist soon learns about the currencies of other countries because
(A) he is curious
(B) the denomination of the stamp is printed on it
(C) he asks questions
(D) every stamp carries the name of its country
4. A “novice” according to this text is a person who
(A) has recently taken to philately
(B) is fond of collecting all types of postage stamps
(C) asks many question about stamps
(D) is thinking of becoming philatelist
5. A philatelist may find stamps from some countries relatively more interesting because they
(A) differ in their design
(B) tell more and are attractive
(C) use a different printing process
(D) can become oddities
6. Postage stamps from which one of the following countries are quite unlike others?
7. Some stamps become ‘oddities’ because they
(A) are highly sought after
(B) have been wrongly priced
(C) are defective
(D) have an odd design
8. British stamps _____ carry the emblems of England, Scotland, Northern Ireland and Wales as a part of their design.
9. Postage stamps of ____, _____ and ____ are relatively more popular with philatelists.
(A) France, Monaco, Brazil
(B) England, Vietnam, India
(C) India, France, Monaco
(D) France, Brazil, India
10. Philatelists who want to specialize usually do not collect stamps of
(A) one denomination only
(B) one country only
(C) one continent only
(D) flowers only
SECTION II : LOGICAL AND ANALYTICAL REASONING
11. Which should be the next number in the series?
8, 15, 29, 57, ?
12. Insert the missing number.
35 (78) 40
45 (97) 35
25 (?) 30
13. If 8 ÷ 5 = 6425, 9 ÷ 6 = 8136 then 4 ÷ 3 = ?
14. If MOZART = 30, PICASSO = 35; then REMBRANDT = ?
15. If the word HYDERABAD is written as IZEFSBCBE in code, then AMRITSAR could be written as
16. Hemant is older than Chittaranjan. Vikas is older than Shirdhar. Mallika is not as old as Vikas but is older than Chittaranjan. Shridhar is not as old as Chittaranjan. Who is the youngest?
17. Find the missing in the following.
ACEG : DFHJ : QSUV : ?
Directions (Qs. 18-19) : Read the following statements carefully.
(1) All P and X are N.
(2) All N except P are X.
(3) NO P are M.
(4) NO R and N.
(5) All M are either X or R.
(6) No Q are X.
18. Which of the following statements must be true if the above six statements are true?
(i) No R are P
(ii) Some X and P
(iii) Some X are M
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii), all the three
19. Which of the following must be false given the conditions as stated?
(A) No Q are P
(B) Some Q are neither N or R
(C) Some R are X
(D) All R are M
20. The pair of words given here has a definite relationship. Find out from the given options the pair with the similar relationship..
Ecstasy : Gloom
(A) congratulation : occasion
(B) diligent : successful
(C) measure : scale
(D) humiliation : exaltation
21. Find the odd one out.
24. A motor cycle costs Rs. 40,000 when its is brand new. At the end of each y ear it is worth 4/5 of what it was at the beginning of the year. What is the motor cycle worth when it is 3 years o ld?
(A) Rs. 16,000
(B) Rs. 25,600
(C) Rs. 20,480
(D) Rs. 24,820
25. Which of the following represents a meaningful order of the given words?
1. elected 2. Nomination
3. voting 4. Oath-taking
(A) 5 2 1 3 4
(B) 5 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 5 3 1 4
(D) 2 3 1 5 4
Directions (Qs. 26-30): Which figure will follow next in the sequence?
SECTION III : EDUCATIONAL AND GENERAL AWARENESS
31. Multimedia is a combination of
(A) Video, audio and graphic presentations
(B) Text, movies and sound presentations
(C) Desktop, animation and graphic presentations
(D) None of these
32. Twinkling of the stars is caused by
(A) Tundall effect
(B) Brownian movements
33. The first education commission of post independence India was known as
(A) National Education Commission
(B) Secondary Education Commission
(C) Acharya Narendra Dev Committee
(D) University Education Commission
34. ‘Education For All’ as a movement was inspired and initiated in a conference held in
35. The term ‘Seven Sisters’ is used for
(A) Hindu goddesses
(B) North Eastern states
(C) Southern rivers
(D) Northern mountain ranges
36. The film ‘Jajantaram Mamantaram’ is based on
(A) The Arabian Nights
(B) Robinson Crusoe
(C) Gulliver’s Travels
(D) Jataka Tales
37. The book ‘Vision 2020’ has been authored by
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) A. B. Vajpayee
(C) Arundhati Roy
(D) Abdul Kalam
38. CAS in the context of Cable T.V. system stands for
(A) Conditional Access System
(B) Controlled Access System
(C) Conditional Automatic System
(D) Central Automatic System
39. ‘Hotmail’ website was started by
(A) Azim Premji
(B) Vinod Khosla
(C) Sabeer Bhatia
40. Wisden’s Indian Cricketer of the Century Award was given to
(A) Sunil Gavaskar
(B) G. Viswanath
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
41. The state which has the highest literacy rate among the following is
42. Rupee is not the national currency of
(C) Sri Lanka
43. Diabetes Mellitus is caused by
(A) decrease in insulin
(B) increase insulin
(C) decrease in glucagon
(D) increase in glucagon
44. Which one of the following conversions takes place in the process of photosynthesis?
(A) Heat energy to kinetic energy
(B) Thermal energy to electro-magnetic energy
(C) Thermal energy to chemical energy
(D) Electromagnetic energy to chemical energy
45. Mathura School of Art was influenced by
(A) Amravati School of Art
(B) Gandhara School of Art
(C) Chola School of Art
(D) Nathdwara School of Art
46. The most common blood group found among the Indians is
47. The oldest era amongst the following is
48. Height of a building is measured by
(D) None of the above
49. The correct sequence of the following historical figures is
(A) Shivaji → Shershah Suri → Tipu Sultan → Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(B) Shershah Suri → Shivaji → Tipu Sultan → Mahraja Ranjit Singh
(C) Shershah Suri → Shivaji → Maharaja Ranjit Singh → Tipu Sultan
(D) Shivaji → Shershah Suri → Maharaja Ranjit Singh → Tipu Sultan
50. The body responsible for prescribing norms and standards for teacher education courses in the country is commonly known as
51. Which of the following is not one of the pillars of education prescribed by the UNESCO’s Commission on Education for the Twenty-first Century?
(A) Learning to earn
(B) Learning to know
(C) Learning to live together
(D) Learning to be
52. Kishori Amonkar is known for her contribution to
53. English as a medium of education was introduced in India in
54. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by
(A) the people directly
(B) all the members of the Lok Sabha
(C) all the members of Parliament
(D) the members of the majority party in the Parliament
55. What is fifth June known for the word over?
(A) Human Rights Day
(B) World Disability Day
(C) World Teacher’s Day
(D) World Environment Day
SECTION IV: TEACHING-LEARNING AND THE SCHOOL
56. A good teacher is one
(A) who gives shape to the personality of the child like a potter does to a vessel
(B) who fills the mind of the child with knowledge
(C) who looks after the child like a gardener taking care of the plants
(D) who keeps the child under control and observation
57. The view that ‘educational institutions should be substantially, if not fully, self-supporting was held by
(A) Sri Aurobindo
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Swami Dayananda
58. Organizing special programmes of education for children of construction labourers comes under
(A) Formal education
(B) Non-formal education
(C) Informal education
(D) Special education
59. Which is the most appropriate description of learning given here?
(A) It is a process of habit formation
(B) It is the skill to meet new situations
(C) It is the skill to affect economy of effort and time to solve a problem
(D) It is the consciousness one acquires after solving a problem
60. Schools are concerned with human development which includes choices related to
(A) leading long and healthy life
(B) acquisition of knowledge
(C) having access to resources needed for a decent life
(D) All the above
61. Pedagogy is considered to be the
(A) Science of teaching
(B) Art of learning
(C) Science of communication
(D) Art of assimilation
62. The most important task for a teacher is
(A) to put students in possession of truth
(B) to remove their difficulties
(C) to put them (students) in search of truth
(D) to constantly demand higher standards of achievement
63. Which is the most effective combination of ways to promote value-based behaviour?
(A) Instructions and reading of selected text
(B) Putting up ideals, examples and freedom to reflect
(C) Examples and conducive atmosphere
(D) Examples, conducive atmosphere and self reflection
64. The purpose of co-curricular activities in the schools in
(A) to boost self-confidence of students
(B) to enhance their competitive spirit
(C) to enrich learning experience of students
(D) to provide relief from the rigour of academic
65. The most acceptable image of a teacher is that of
(A) an authoritarian
(B) a democratic functionary
(D) learned but indifferent
66. On finding a normal child behaving in an erratic manner in the class, you would like to
(A) pull up the child there and then
(B) talk to the child after the class
(C) ask the child to leave the class
(D) ignore the child
67. The most acceptable order of steps in the processes of teaching in a class is
(A) Motivation – Presentation – Illustration – Recapitulation
(B) Motivation – Presentation – Recapitulation – Illustration
(C) Presentation – Motivation – Recapitulation – Illustration
(D) Presentation- Motivation – Illustration – Recapitulation
68. A common, modern school is not expected to look after the
(A) mental health of the child
(B) academic achievements of the child
(C) religious aspects of the child
(D) physical health of the learner
69. ‘In learning, the child should be allowed to follow his/her own mind’ was advocated by
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Swami Vivekananda
(D) Sri Aurobindo
70. Sports and physical activities in a school curriculum are primarily meant for
(A) break from the monotony of classwork
(B) promoting health consciousness amongst all
(C) wining name and fame for the school
(D) nurturing talent for competition in sports
71. There is a noisy disturbance outside your classroom. Which of the following would you like to do?
(A) Raise the pitch of your voice
(B) Ask students strictly follow a given assignment rather silently
(C) Stop work and allow the students to relax till the noise reduces
(D) Close doors and windows of the classroom and dictate useful tips
72. Inductive approach in teaching means
(A) initiating the child to new subject
(B) teaching through specific instruction
(C) group learning as opposed to individualized learning
(D) arriving at generalizations with the help of examples
73. The main purpose of ‘Parent-Teacher Association’ (P.T.A) in a school is to
(A) keep the students in check and control
(B) collect additional funds for providing facilities to the learners
(C) share understanding of the problems faced by the school
(D) modify curriculum in accordance with the wishes of parents
74. Comparing positive (natural) sciences with social sciences, which of the following statements is not acceptable?
(A) The ideational fields of the two types of disciplines are different
(B) The judgements of positive sciences cannot be doubted
(C) Positives sciences carry more predictability about their data than social sciences
(D) Positive sciences are deterministic whereas social sciences are directional.
75. Which of the following is an appropriate order for learning of a language?
(A) Listening – Speaking – Writing – Reading
(B) Speaking – Listening – Writing – Reading
(C) Listening – Speaking – Reading – Writing
(D) Listening – Reading – Speaking – Writing
76. 10 + 2 system of school education was accepted after the recommendations of
(A) Mudaliar Commission
(B) Kothari Commission
(C) Radhakrishnan Commission
(D) National Policy on Education, 1966
77. “That new learning should be correlated to the acquired knowledge and other subjects’ was emphasized by
(A) Rabindranath Tagore (Shanti Niketan)
(B) J, Krishnamurthi (Rishi Valley)
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (Basic education)
(D) Annie Besant
78. The main purpose of punishment ought to be
(A) to scare the student from repeating the mistake
(B) to scare others from repeating it
(C) to vindicate law or a rule
(D) to reform the erring student
79. As a teacher you do not agree with the statement that
(A) School should be an extension o f the family in some respects
(B) School should be like a miniature community
(C) School should be well protected from the social influences
(D) School should be a place for developing students’ potential
80. The best way to reform our examination system is to
(A) have no examination at all
(B) have internal evaluation only
(C) have external assessment only
(D) have internal evaluation and external assessment supplementing each other.
SECTION V : (I) SCIENCE
81. The carriers of genetic information are
(B) Lipids and Minerals
(C) Nucleic acids
82. Wind velocity is measured by
83. The causative organism of rabies disease is
84. Which of the following is not a plant product?
85. Which vitamin in blood plays an important role in clotting?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin E
(D) Vitamin K
86. The digestion of starch in the diet starts in the
87. Vitamin C is chemically known as
(A) Ascorbic acid
(B) Aspartic acid
(C) Citric acid
(D) Tartaric acid
88. Which one of the following radiations is most penetrating?
(B) Alpha rays
(C) Beta rays
(D) Gamma rays
89. An atom with an electronic configuration 2, 8, 8 has a valency of
90. Which of the following elements forms the largest number of compounds?
91. Which of the following gases has lowest density?
92. In the formation of Ni++, nickel
(A) gains two electrons
(B) loses two electrons
(C) loses two protons
(D) gains two protons
93. If 8.0 g of a metallic oxide on decomposition gives 1-6 g oxygen, what is the equivalent weight of the metal?
94. Sphere A attracts Sphere B as well as Sphere C. Sphere B repels Sphere C. If Sphere C is negatively charged it can be concluded that
(A) Sphere A is positively charged
(B) Sphere A is negatively charged
(C) Sphere A is either positively charged or is uncharged
(D) Sphere A is either negatively charged or is uncharged
95. The domestic consumption of electricity is calculated in
(D) Kilowatt hours
96. The apparent depth of a pond full of water whose real depth is 8 metres will be
(A) 2 metres
(B) 3 metres
(C) 6 metres
(D) 8 metres
97. The rays which are not deflected by electric or magnetic field are
(A) Alpha rays
(B) Beta rays
(C) Gamma rays
(D) Positive rays
98. A metal surface ejects electrons when hit by green light but no electron is ejected when hit by yellow light. The electrons will be ejected when the surface is hit by
(A) Blue light
(B) Red light
(C) Infra-red light
(D) Heat rays
99. Two coils have a combined resistance of 12 ohms when connected in series and 3 ohms when connected in parallel. The respective resistances are
(A) 4 ohms, 8 ohms
(B) 6 ohms, 6 ohms
(C) 9 ohms, 3 ohms
(D) 10 ohms, 2 ohms
100. A hole is drilled through the earth along its diameter and a stone is dropped into it. At the centre of the earth, the stone possesses
(B) Kinetic energy
(C) Potential energy
(D) no energy
101. If 4x2 + 3x2 + 2x + 4 is divided by x + 1, the remainder will be
102. 20% of 150 is the same as
(A) 10% of 75
(B) 40% of 300
(C) 40% of 75
(D) 30% of 225
103. Two successive discounts of 10% and 20% on a commodity are equal to a total discount of
104. X : y : : m : n is the same as
(A) x : n : : y : m
(B) x : n : : m : y
(C) x : m : : y : n
(D) x : m : : n : y
105. The LCM of (a4 – b4) and (a2 – b2)2 is
(A) (a2 – b2)
(B) (a2 – b2)2
(C) (a2 – b2)2 (a4 – b4)
(D) (a2 – b2)2 (a2 + b2)
106. The equation whose roots are half the roots of the equation x2 + 3x + 2 = 0 is
(A) 2x2 + 3x + 1 = 0
(B) 2x2 + 3x – 1 = 0
(C) x2 + 6x + 8 = 0
(D) x2 + 6x – 8 = 0
107. The distance between the points (1, 2) and (1, −1) is
108. A sequence is in Arithmetic Progression. If the first term of the sequence is 5 and the common difference is 4, then the 10th term is
109. Peter’s annual income from salary in the year 2002-2003 is Rs. 3,20,000. He makes a saving of Rs. 50,000 in specified forms. The rebate in income tax on account of savings will be
(A) Rs. 10,500
(B) Rs. 10,000
(C) Rs. 7,500
110. If P is the principal and r is the rate of interest per annum compounded after every x months, then the amount at the end of y years will be
111. Mohan’s age is 3 times that of Sohan and Ram is 6 years older than Sohan. If the age of Ram is 24 years, Mohan’s age is
(A) 6 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 54 years
(D) 90 years
112. The sides of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm. The area of the triangle is
(A) 6 cm2
(B) 12 cm2
(C) 15 cm2
(D) 20 cm2
113. If two isosceles triangles have equal vertical angles and their areas are in the ratio 9 : 16, then their heights are in the ratio
(A) 4 : 3
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 16 : 9
(D) 9 : 16
114. The sum of the opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral would be
(D) not definite
115. A circle is inscribed in a square of side 5 cm. The ratio of the perimeter of the square and the circumference of the circle is
(A) 10 : 10 π
(B) 4 : π
(C) 5 : π
(D) 120 : 6.25 π
116. is equal to
117. The median of the following distribution is
x 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
f 1 9 26 59 72 52 29 7 1
118. Three iron cubes, the lengths of whose sides are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm respectively, are moulded and a new cube is formed. The length of the side of the new cube would be
(A) 4 cm
(B) 6 cm
(C) 12 cm
(D) 20 cm
119. A cone of height 10 cm and base radius 4 cm, is divided by a plane parallel to t he base and 5 cm above it. The ratio of the volumes of the smaller cone and the original cone is
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 8
(D) 3 : 4
120. The radius of a solid sphere is r cm. If it is divided into two equal halves, the total surface area of both the parts is
(A) 8 π r2 sq. cm
(B) 5 π r2 sq. cm
(C) 4 π r2 sq. cm
(D) 6 π r2 sq. cm
(III) SOCIAL SCIENCE
121. Budha preached his first sermon at
122. Meghasthenes visited India during the reign of
(C) Chandra Gupta Maurya
123. The Ain-e-Akbari was written by
(D) Abul Fazal
124. Ibn Batuta visited India during the reign of
(B) Ala-uddin Khilji
(D) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
125. The Third Battle of Panipat was fought between
(A) Britishers and Marathas
(B) Marathas and Rajputs
(C) Afghans and Sikhs
(D) Marathas and Afghans
126. The Quit India Movement was launched in
127. The Partition of Bengal in 1905 was done by
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Wellesley
128. Which of the following is not a Himalayan river?
129. Which is known as the home of the Asiatic lions?
(A) Gir National Park
(B) Dudhwa National Park
(C) Kanha National Park
(D) Corbett National Park
130. One of the states through which the Tropic of Cancer passes is
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Himachal Pradesh
131. Which river forms its delta in Orissa?
132. Which state is the leading producer of red chillies?
(C) West Bengal
(D) Andhra Pradesh
133. What is Raniganj famous for?
(A) Iron ore
134. The ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India were adopted under inspiration from
(A) The Russian Revolution
(B) The American Declaration of Independence
(C) The U.N. Charter
(D) The French Revolution
135. The President of India is
(A) the Head of the State
(B) the Head of the Government
(C) the Head of the Government as well as the State
(D) None of the above
136. The Vice President of India is
(A) directly elected by the people
(B) elected by the same electoral college which elects the President
(C) elected by the members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha at a joint meeting
(D) elected by the members of Rajya Sabha alone
137. Which one of the following did not occupy the office the Prime Minister?
(A) Jagjivan Ram
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Chandra Shekhar
(D) Both (A) and (C)
138. The official Language of India is
139. The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(A) introduced Fundamental Duties for the first time
(B) made the Directive Principles justiciable
(C) made elementary education as a Fundamental Right
(D) did none of the above
140. Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(A) Hukum Singh
(B) G. S. Dhillon
(C) Ananthaswayanam Ayengar
(D) G. V. Mavalankar
Directions (Qs. 141-142): Fill in the blanks in the following sentences by selecting the most appropriate alternative from amongst the four choices given.
141. If you drink too much it will …. Your judgement.
142. She always insisted on the need to … between ends and means.
Directions (Qs. 143-144): In the following groups of words only one is spelt correctly. Select the correct one.
Directions (Qs. 145-146): In the following questions, out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given sentence.
145. Study of the relations of living things to environment
146. A person who believes that everything happens is for the good
Directions (Qs. 147-148): Given below are the four parts of a complete sentence. Mark the part which contains an error.
(A) The number of people
(B) applying were so large
(C) that the college had to
(D) stop issuing application forms.
(A) Drawing water from the well
(B) is preferable
(C) than depending on
(D) the erratic water supply
Directions (Qs. 149-150): Choose the appropriate set from the those given below to fill in the blanks in the following sentences.
149. Hundreds students competed ….. one another ….. a single scholarship.
(A) with : over
(B) with : for
(C) among : over
(D) between : for
150. We went ……. The room and sat down ….. a sofa.
(A) to : in
(B) into : on
(C) from : upon
(D) in : on
151. Choose the correct direct form of the given indirect sentence.
The teacher told me that if I did not work, I would fail.
(A) The teacher told me that, “If I do not work I will fail.”
(B) The teacher said to me, “If you do not work you will fail.”
(C) The teacher warned me, “If you do not work you will be failed.”
(D) The teacher told me, “If you will not work you will fail.”
152. Choose the word from the words given below which can substitute the underlined words in both the given sentences:
I. His understanding of the subject was really good.
II. Mohan had to hold on to the handle of the door with all his strength.
Directions (Qs. 153-154): In the following items. Choose the correct meaning of the given phrase/idiom from the given alternatives.
153. Make hay while the sun shines
(A) Do your work during the day time
(B) Make the best use of an opportunity
(C) Make money while in power
(D) Take advantage of your position
154. A left handed compliment
(A) Insincere praise
(B) Genuine praise
(C) Well deserved praise
Directions (Qs. 155-156): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word in the given sentences.
155. The culprit accepted his crime.
156. Anirudh drove to the place through a circuitous
157. He is deluding himself with false hopes.
158. He cast a cursory glance over the papers before signing them.
159. Given below is an active sentence. Choose the passive form of the sentence from the alternatives given below:
The Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee prepared Constitution.
(A) The Constituent was prepared by the Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee.
(B) The Constitution prepared by the Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee
(C) The Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee was prepared by Constitution
(D) The Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee was prepared by the Constitution
160. Choose the correct tense of the verb in the given sentence from the options given below:
Our beloved India had become independent in 1947.
(A) Simple Past
(B) Past Continuous
(C) Past Perfect
(D) Past Perfect Continuous
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