IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2007 With Answer Key

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IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Test 2007

PART-A

SECTION-I GENERAL ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and pick out the best answer out of the four choices given in the question that follow.

Motivations for ruralism in underdeveloped countries are understandably different from those in developed counties. There, it is a sheer physical necessity for the very action of human survival. In the Third World countries, which are predominantly rural, the only lever that can lift human life above its present subhuman level, is rural development. Rural life in such countries has been stagnating for centuries. Nothing worthwhile has been done to ameliorate the conditions of the rural population which is only slightly different from that of their quadruped counterparts. Ignorance, ill-health and poverty have become synonyms of rural life in the undeveloped and underdeveloped countries. But the worst tragedy is  that the concerned  human populations have taken his state of affairs for granted, as something unalterable, something for which there is no remedy. Every ray of hope has gone out of their lives. In such countries, rural development is the inevitable condition of any material or non-material advancement. As such, enlightened sections of all such countries have been taking an ever growing interest in the question of rural development.

    This was also a part of the legacy of their freedom struggle. IN countries like India, it is well known that attempts at rural development were an inseparable part of the independence movement. Leaders like Gandiiji realised quite well that Real India lived in her stagnating villages. Cities, which were mostly the products of Western colonialism, were just artificial showpieces.  Even then there were two

Worlds. The posh areas, where the affluent few, mostly the products and custodians of imperial interest lived, were little islands engulfed by he vast ocean of dirt, represented by the vast majority of people.

    Cities were by no mean unknown to India. In ancient India, they were integral parts, organically related to the rest of the country and society. Cities in ancient India were flowers of the cultural and artistic excellence of the nation, modern cities are just parasites, preying on and debilitating the country.

    Hence, Gandhiji started the ‘Go to Village Movement’ which along, according to him could bring freedom to India and sustain it. Rural development had the place of pride in his strategy for the nations’s freedom. Thus, it had its origin in the freedom struggle.

1. People are taking greaer interest in rural development because:

(A)  they have realized the indispensability of it

(B)  they have been suffering from severe health problems

(C)  nothing worthwhile can be done in the near future

(D)  they have now become optimistic about it

Answer: (A)

2. Which of the following is the ‘lever’ according to the passage?

(A)  Non-material advancement

(B)  Stagnation of rural life

(C)  Upliftment of the rural masses

(D)  Enlightenment of certain sections of the society

Answer: (C)

3. Which of the following is the worst tragedy according to the author?

(A)  The subhuman condition of the people in villages

(B)  The pessimism of the rural people about their own condition

(C)  Lack of realization of the importance of rural development

(D)  Exploitation of rural people by city dwellers

Answer: (B)

4. Which of the following statement is not true in the context of the passage?

(A)  Rural folk in the Third World countries feel that their subhuman condition cannot be changed.

(B)  Only rural development can raise the standard of living of the people in Third World countries.

(C)  Most of the rich people living in modern cities are genuinely concerned about rural development.

(D)  Rural development is a prerequisite for any other advancement and progress. 

      

Answer: (C)

5. Rural development was considered as a part of India’s freedom movement because:

(A)  Imperial interest lived only in villages

(B)  The country comprised of mainly villages

(C)  Gandhiji was against Western colonialism

(D)  Real India was then under the British rule

Answer: (D)

6. The Standard of living of human beings in Third World counties is:

(A)  improving very rapidly

(B)  immune to any improvement

(C)  subhuman despite best efforts for improvement

(D)  not far better than that of animals

Answer: (D)

7. Which of the following, best describes the two divergent worlds of modern cities?

(A)  A few rich people and many poor people

(B)  Posh area and affluent people

(C)  Commercial and industrial exploitation

(D)  Patrons of Western products and custodians of imperial interests.

Answer: (A)

8. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?

(A)  Most Third World countries are undergoing fast urbanisation

(B)  India’s struggle for freedom has been considered as a part of rural development.

(C)  Rural folk are very optimistic about improvement in their condition.

(D)  In the present context, ignorance, poverty and ill-health are inseparable parts of rural life.

Answer: (D)

9. Choose the expression which is closest in meaning to ‘Predominantly’ as used in the passage.

(A)  weakly

(B)  undoubtedly

(C)  scarcely

(D)  in a greatly visible way

Answer: (D)

10. Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to ‘Ameliorate’ as used in the passage.

(A)  worsen

(B)  lessen

(C)  expedite

(D)  hasten

Answer: (A)

SECTION II : LOGICAL AND ANALYTICAL REASONING

Directions (11-14) : Read the passage to answer the question that follow.

There is a cube with six surfaces painted Red, White, Blue, Yellow, Black and Green in such an order that Black is at the top face, Green is bottom and the other four colours are arranged in the order given in an anticlockwise direction of the surfaces. Now answer the following questions (11-14), if Red is towards you.

11. If the cube is rotated horizontally first by 180°, then which colour would be facing downward?

(A)  White

(B)  Blue

(C)  Yellow

(D)  Black

Answer: (D)

12. If the cube is rotated clockwise (right to left) horizontally by 180° from initial position and then rotated upwardly by 90°, then which colour of the cube would be facing you?

(A)  Green

(B)  Red

(C)  Blue

(D)  Black

Answer: (A)

13. In the above question (12) which colour would be facing on the left side of you?

(A)  Red

(B)  Green

(C)  White

(D)  Yellow

Answer: (C)

14. Which colour(s) would be bounded by Yellow, Green and White?

(A)  Red

(B)  Blue

(C)  Red and Blue

(D)  Red and Yellow

Answer: (B)

Directions (15-18) : In the following diagram square stands for those who take tea, triangle stands for those who take coffee, circle stands for those who take cold drinks. Study the diagram carefully to answer the questions (15 -18) that follow.

15. The persons who take tea and coffee but do not take cold drinks represented by which letter?

(A)  a

(B)  b

(C)  c

(D)  d

Answer: (B)

16. The persons who take tea and cold drinks but do not take coffee are represented by which letter?

(A)  a

(B)  b

(C)  c

(D)  d

Answer: (D)

17. The persons who take tea, coffee and cold drinks are represented by which letter?

(A)  a

(B)  b

(C)  c

(D)  d

Answer: (A)

18. The persons who take cold drinks and coffee but do not take tea are represented by which letter?

(A)  a

(B)  b

(C)  c

(D)  d

Answer: (C)

Directions (19-22) : In the following questions an incomplete series with one blank is given. Find out the best suited missing number from the given alternatives.

19. 1, 4, 8, 11, 15, ?, 22

(A)  19

(B)  18

(C)  17

(D)  20

Answer: (B)

20. 1, 4, 9, 16, ?

(A)  23

(B)  24

(C)  25

(D)  30

Answer: (C)

21. 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, ?

(A)  62

(B)  63

(C)  61

(D)  71

Answer: (B)

22. 1, 2, 6, 24, ?

(A)  120

(B)  144

(C)  30

(D)  140

Answer: (A)

Directions (23-26) : In each of the following questions there are five figure. First is a reference figure. Among the best four figures one figure does not belong to a class to which first figure belongs. Identify this odd figure.

23. 

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

24. 

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (B)

25. 

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  

Answer: (C)

26. 

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  

Answer: (C)

Direction (27-30) : In each of the following questions, two statements ar followed by two conclusions. Assuming the first two statements to be true (however absurd they may be), decide which of the two follows logically from the given statements. Select the most appropriate alternative from the ones given.

27. All boys are not students.

Some students are not employed.

Conclusions:

I. Some boys are not employed.

II. Some employed ones are not boys.

(A)  Only I follows

(B)  Only II follows

(C)  Both I and II follow

(D)  Neither I nor II follows

Answer: (A)

28. All animals are dogs.

All cats are animals.

Conclusions:

I. Some boys are not employed.

II. Some employed ones are not boys.

(A)  Only I follows

(B)  Only II follows

(C)  Both I and II follow

(D)  Neither I nor II follows

Answer: (A)

29. All chairs are pens.

All pens are pencils.

I. Some pencils are chairs.

II. All chairs are pencils.

(A)  Only I follows

(B)  Only II follows

(C)  Both I and II follow

(D)  Neither I nor II follows

Answer: (B)

30. No men are animals.

Some animals are intelligent.

Conclusions:

I. Some men are not intelligent.

II. Some intelligent beings are men.

(A)  Only I follows

(B)  Only II follows

(C)  Both I and II follow

(D)  Neither I nor II follows

Answer: (A)

SECTION III: EDUCATIONAL AND GENERAL AWARENESS

31. The first woman president of the Indian National Congress was:

(A)  Sucheta Kriplani

(B)  Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

(C)  Annie Besant

(D)  Sarojini Naidu

Answer: (C)

32. The earliest inscriptions on stone in India were in which language?

(A)  Prakrit

(B)  Pali

(C)  Sanskrit

(D)  Brahmi

Answer: (D)

33. Railways were introduced in India when the Governor General of India was:

(A)  Curzon

(B)  Dalhousie

(C)  Hardinge

(D)  Ripon

Answer: (B)

34. What should be given to an athlete for instant energy?

(A)  Carbohydrates

(B)  Protein

(C)  Fat

(D)  Vitamins

Answer: (A)

35. The place in India receiving the lowest rainfall is:

(A)  Leh

(B)  Jaisalmer

(C)  Bikaner

(D)  Jodhpur

Answer: (B)

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36. Cow’s milk is a rich source of:

(A)  Vitamin A

(B)  Vitamin B

(C)  Vitamin C

(D)  Vitamin D

Answer: (A)

37. Earthquake is measured by using:

(A)  Barometer

(B)  Laser rays

(C)  Seismograph

(D)  Altimeter

Answer: (C)

38. Mudaliar Commission (1952-53) had recommended opening of:

(A)  Kendriya Vidyalayas

(B)  Multipurpose Secondary Schools

(C)  Navodaya Vidyalayas

(D)  Vocational Institutes

Answer: (A)

39. Emphasis on Common School System was first laid by:

(A)  Radhkrishnan Commission (1949)

(B)  Mudaliar Commission (1953)

(C)  Kothari Commission (1966)

(D)  National Policy on Education (1986)

Answer: (D)

40. The first committee which looked into the problem of wastage and stagnation at primary stage was:

(A)  Hartog Committee

(B)  Sri Prakaash Committee

(C)  Zakir Hussain Committee

(D)  Ram Murti Committee

Answer: (D)

41. “Give me blood and I promise you freedom” was uttered by:

(A)  Bhagat Singh

(B)  Chandrashekhar Azad

(C)  Sardar Patel

(D)  Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer: (D)

42. Which of the following is not the principle of Panchsheel?

(A)  Non-alignment

(B)  Peaceful co-existence

(C)  Non interference in each others international affairs

(D)  Mutual respect for each others territory and sovereignty

Answer: (A)

43. In India, diamonds are found at:

(A)  Panna (Madhya Pradesh)

(B)  Golkunda (Andhra Pradesh)

(C)  Khetri (Rajasthan)

(D)  Gulbarga (Karnataka)

Answer: (A)

44. The first free and private university in India, completely indepe3ndent of Government and receiving no grant from it, was:

(A)  Banaras Hindu University

(B)  Aligarh Muslim University

(C)  Women’s University, Pune

(D)  Vishwa Bharati, Shantiniketan

Answer: (D)

45. ‘Pakistan Papers’ has been authored by:

(A)  Brig. H. S. SOdhi

(B)  K. K. Bhargava

(C)  Dr. Sadiq Hussain

(D)  Mani Shankar Aiyar

Answer: (D)

46. Which city will host 2010 Commonwealth Games?

(A)  London

(B)  New Delhi

(C)  Paris

(D)  Melbourne    

  

Answer: (B)

47. Harita Kaur was the distinction of being first Indian woman:

(A)  Doctor to create a test tube baby

(B)  Pilot to fly an aircraft solo

(C)  Induced in Indian Navy

(D)  Employed in a petrol pump

Answer: (A)

48. Silver is most abundantly found in the state of:

(A)  Bihar

(B)  Tamil Nadu

(C)  Rajasthan

(D)  Karnataka

Answer: (C)

49. Which of the following is wrongly matched?

(A)  Television – Baird

(B)  Transistor – Shockley

(C)  Typewriter- Sholes

(D)  Thermometer-Celsius

Answer: (D)

50. The Chief Election Commissioner of India is:

(A)  elected by the Parliament

(B)  nominated by the Prime Minister

(C)  appointed by the President of India

(D)  appointed by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

Answer: (C)

Directions: Indicate the correct answer.

51. Agha Khan Palace, where Kastuba Gandhi died while under detention along with Mahatma Gandhi is at:

(A)  Bombay

(B)  Pune

(C)  Ahmedabad

(D)  Bangalore

Answer: (B)

52. Wular Lake is in the state of:

(A)  Orissa

(B)  Gujarat

(C)  Jammu & Kashmir

(D)  Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (C)

53. Mandal Panchayats were recommended by:

(A)  Ashok Mehta Committee

(B)  Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(C)  Narsimhan Committee

(D)  Sarkaria Commission

Answer: (B)

54. The Indian constitution is divided into how many parts?

(A)  22

(B)  20

(C)  18

(D)  16

Answer: (A)

55. According to U. N. Convention on the ‘Rights of the Child’ which of the following is not correct?

(A)  Safe drinking water

(B)  Adequate standard of living

(C)  Employment

(D)  Protection from exploitation

Answer: (A)

SECTION IV : TEACHING-LEARNING AND THE SCHOOL

Directions: Indicate the correct answer.

56. The concept of Basic Education was given by:

(A)  Dr. Zakir Hussain

(B)  Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C)  Mahatma Gandhi

(D)  Rabindranath Tagore

Answer: (C)

57. The most important indicator of the quality of school education is:

(A)  infrastructure facilities in schools

(B)  textbooks and teaching-learning material

(C)  classroom processes

(D)  attainment level of children

Answer: (D)

58. Student’s learning difficulties can be best addressed by:

(A)  advising them to work hard

(B)  suggesting private tuitions

(C)  supervised study in the library

(D)  remedial teaching

Answer: (D)

59. ‘Inservice teachers’ training can be made effective by:

(A)  using training package developed in advance

(B)  making it residential

(C)  using participatory approach

(D)  putting follow up mechanism in practice

Answer: (A)

60. Anti-child labour law (1986):

(A)  prohibit all forms of child labour until the age of 14 years

(B)  prohibits child labour in hazardous occupations only

(C)  prohibits child labour during school hours

(D)  prohibits child labour by putting responsibility on the employers about their education.

Answer: (A)

61. For being successful in life, students should be encouraged to:

(A)  selective study

(B)  casual study

(C)  intensive study

(D)  learning by rote memorization

Answer: (C)

62. Student’s absenteeism should:

(A)  be the concern of headmaster and parents

(B)  be dealt with by school authorities as per the rules

(C)  be taken up seriously by the teachers

(D)  be accorded less priority as against those present in the class

Answer: (C)

63. Organization of co-curricular activities should be the responsibility of:

(A)  the headmaster

(B)  the teacher appointed for this purpose

(C)  teachers interested in it

(D)  all the teachers

Answer: (D)

64. Students who bring out alternative solutions and cite the books not prescribed by the teacher should be:

(A)  discouraged

(B)  encouraged

(C)  advised to talk to the teacher outside the class

(D) advised to follow the class notes to score better in the examinations

Answer: (B)

65. Experienced teachers don’t require detailed planning for a lesson because:

(A)  they can teach better without it

(B)  inquisitive students are only few 

(C)  they don’t face any challenge even in some mistakes are committed

(D)  they can manage with brief outline using their expertise gained so far

Answer: (D)

66. Education should aim at:

(A)  developing vocational skills among students

(B)  developing social awareness among students

(C)  preparing students for examinations

(D)  preparing students for life

Answer: (D)

67. Best way of homework checking is:

(A)  getting it done through bright students

(B)  getting the answers checked collectively in the class

(C)  getting it checked on sample basis

(D)  getting checked by teacher her/himself regularly

Answer: (D)

68. Periodic tests be given to students to:

(A)  inform students progress to their guardians

(B)  undertake the exercise as required under rules

(C)  train students for final examinations

(D)  take corrective measures on the basis of feedback from the results

Answer: (D)

69. Student’s failure should be considered as:

(A)  failure of the system

(B)  failure of the teacher

(C)  failure of textbooks

(D)  failure of individual student

Answer: (A)

70. Training needs of teachers can be identified realistically by:

(A)  asking teaches about it

(B)  asking the supervisors of teachers

(C)  analyzing teacher profiles

(D)  analyzing pupil achievement data

Answer: (D)

71. Problem of school dropouts can be effectively tackled by:

(A)  reducing curriculum load

(B)  teachers empathy

(C)  attractive school environment

(D)  providing incentives

Answer: (D)

72. An ideal teacher is one who:

(A)  covers the full course

(B)  helps students in learning

(C)  is a fired, philosopher and guide

(D)  likes discipline

Answer: (B)

73. Public Examination System should continue because :

(A)  it is good for comparison

(B)  it has greater acceptability

(C)  it promotes teaching-learning in schools

(D)  teachers are no t trustworthy

Answer: (C)

74. A committee to review the National Policy on Education (1986) was headed by:

(A)  Ramamurti

(B)  P. C. Alexander

(C)  Chitra Naik

(D)  P. C. Chunder

Answer: (A)

75. Teacher motivation and commitment can be enhanced by:

(A)  offering them high salaries

(B)  providing inservice training

(C)  allowing them private tuitions

(D)  providing them professional support on the basis of monitoring results

Answer: (B)

76. An essential component in the curriculum for out of school children should be:

(A)  literacy skills

(B)  life skills

(C)  numeracy skills

(D)  vocational skills

Answer: (D)

77. Tax payers are contributing towards Elementary Education by paying:

(A)  income tax

(B)  tuition fees

(C)  for private tuitions

(D)  education cess

Answer: (D)

78. Education of girls needs to be given priority because:

(A)  girls happen to be more intelligent than boys

(B)  girls are less in number than boys

(C)  girls have been discriminated against boys in the past

(D)  girls only can lead social change

Answer: (C)

79. Success of inclusive education depends on:

(A)  community support

(B)  high quality teaching-learning materials

(C)  high quality textbooks

(D)  attitudinal change among teachers

Answer: (A)

80. Quality of school educations depends heavily on:

(A)  Infrastructure facilities

(B)  Financial provisions

(C)  International support

(D)  Quality of teacher education

Answer: (A)

PART-B

SECTION V : (I) SCIENCE

81. Which of the following colours has the shortest wavelength?

(A)  Red

(B)  Orange

(C)  Yellow

(D)  Violet

Answer: (D)

82. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by:

(A)  a spark plug

(B)  liquid oxygen

(C)  the heat generated when air is compressed in the cylinder

(D)  vaporization under partial vacuum

Answer: (A)

83. How many moons does the Pluto have?

(A)  None

(B)  One

(C)  Two

(D)  Six

Answer: (A)

84. The weight of a body on the moon is:

(A)  1/5th  of its weight on earth

(B)  1/6th of its weight on earth

(C)  1/7th of its weight on earth

(D)  1/100th of its weight on earth

Answer: (B)

85. The scientific study of the action of chemical upon living beings is called:

(A)  Pharmacy

(B)  Pharmacognosy       

(C)  Pharmacology

(D)  Biochemistry

Answer: (C)

86. In the manufacturing of match stick, which of the following is used?

(A)  Potassium

(B)  Sodium

(C)  White phosphorus

(D)  Red phosphorous

Answer: (D)

87. What did Fleming discover?

(A)  Vitamin A

(B)  Vaccines

(C)  Sulphonamides

(D)  Penicillin

Answer: (D)

88. The substance present inside a fluorescent tube which emits light is:

(A)  Nitrogen

(B)  Mercury vapour

(C)  Sodium cyanide

(D)  Air

Answer: (A)

89. The biological process by which changes occur in genes is known as:

(A)  Adaptation

(B)  Evolution

(C)  Natural selection

(D)  Mutation

Answer: (D)

90. Agronomy is the study of:

(A)  behavior of agricultural animals

(B)  field crop production and soils

(C)  names of agricultural plants

(D)  all of these

Answer: (B)

91. Cold-blooded animals are those animals whose:

(A)  blood is cold

(B)  blood is blue, not red

(C)  body temperature varies with that of the surroundings

(D)  body temperature is always constant

Answer: (C)

92. What I s the technical term for fish farming?

(A)  Aviculture

(B)  Sericulture

(C)  Pisciculture

(D)  Zooculture

Answer: (C)

93. The vision defect of eyes as a result of which a person is unable to see distant objects clearly, is called:

(A)  Hypermetropia

(B)  Long sightedness

(C)  Astigmatism

(D)  Myopia

Answer: (D)

94. Which of the following diseases is caused by amoeba?

(A)  Paralysis

(B)  Cholera

(C)  Dysentery

(D)  Typhoid fever

Answer: (C)

95. The wind blowing from the land towards the sea during the night is known as:

(A)  Ordinary breeze

(B)  Sea breeze

(C)  Land breeze

(D)  Cold breeze

Answer: (C)

96. Dots are placed on dice in such a fashion that the sum of dots on any two opposite sides is always:

(A)  9

(B)  7

(C)  6

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

97. If the earth did not spin:

(A)  we would have no seasons

(B)  half of earth would always be in sunlight

(C)  there would be no summer in the northern hemisphere

(D)  all of the above

Answer: (D)

98. The most abundant element in the earth’s crust is:

(A)  Oxygen

(B)  Silicon   

(C)  Aluminium

(D)  Iron

Answer: (C)

99. The term Green Revolution refers to:

(A)  increase in milk production

(B)  increase in vegetable production

(C)  involvement of Dr. Green in agriculture

(D)  increase in crop production

Answer: (D)

100. When a person donate blood, approximately how much of his/her blood is taken?

(A)  250 – 300 ml

(B)  1000 ml

(C)  1 – 2 litre

(D)  50 ml

Answer: (A)

(II) MATHEMATICS

101. The value of :

 is

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  a

(D)  2 + a

Answer: (A)

102. If p = x + y and q = x – y, then the expression  has a value:

(A)    

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (B)

103. One-third of a number is greater than one-fourth of its successor by one. The number is:

(A)  27

(B)  39

(C)  15

(D)  18

Answer: (C)

104. When the repeating decimal 0.363636 ….. is written in simplest fractional form, the sum of numerator and denominator is:

(A)  135

(B)  114

(C)  45

(D)  15

Answer: (D)

105. A number of persons paid equal amounts and collected Rs. 72. If there were 3 persons less, then each would have to contribute Rs. 4 more. The number of people was:

(A)  12

(B)  9

(C)  36

(D)  6

Answer: (B)

106. A sum of Rs. 61 is divided among, A, B, and C. A gets twice as much as B and C gets Rs. 5 less than A and B together. The amount that C gets is:

(A)  Rs. 22

(B)  Rs. 33

(C)  Rs. 28

(D)  Rs. 11

Answer: (C)

107. 4% of 2.5 is:

(A)  16

(B)  1.6

(C)  0.6

(D)  0.16

Answer: (D)

108. The ratio of incomes of A and B is 9 : 7. The ratio of their expenditures is 4 : 3. If each of them saves Rs. 200 per month, then the monthly income of A is:

(A)  Rs. 3,600

(B)  Rs. 1,400

(C)  Rs. 2,700

(D)  Rs. 1,800

Answer: (D)

109. The sum of the series 2 + 4 + 6 ….. + 98 + 100 is:

(A)  2601

(B)  2550

(C)  2499

(D)  1545

Answer: (B)

110. If  the value of tan A + sect A, where θ° < A < 90° is:

(A)  7

(B)  5

(C)  1

(D)  24/7

Answer: (A)

111. If the H. C. F. of the polynomials x3 – 3x2 + px + 24 and x2 – 7x + q is (x – 2), the value of (p + q)

(A)  0

(B)  20

(C)  −20

(D)  40

Answer: (A)

112. The value of  is:

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  −1

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

113. Each edge of a cube is increased by 50%, the percentage increase in the surface area of the cube is:

(A)  50

(B)  100

(C)  125

(D)  200

Answer: (C)

114. The outer diameter of a spherical shell is 10 cm and the inner diameter is 8 cm. The volume of the metal contained in the shell is (Use π = 22/7)

(A)  255.6 cm3

(B)  2044.9 cm3

(C)  265.3 cm3

(D)  523.8 cm3

Answer: (A)

115. Two poles of heights 7 metres and 12 metres stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 metres, the distance between their tops is:

(A)  5 m

(B)  13 m

(C)  15 m

(D)  20 m

Answer: (B)

116. The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 24 cm and 10 cm. The side of the rhombus is:

(A)  14 cm

(B)  17 cm

(C)  13 cm

(D)  12 cm

Answer: (C)

117. The mean of 25 observations is 36. If the mean of first 13 observations is 32 and the mean of last 13 observations s 39, then 13th observation is:

(A)  26

(B)  25

(C)  24

(D)  23

Answer: (D)

118. The mid-points of the sides of a triangle ABC are (1, 1), (3, −3) and (4, 5). The coordinates of the centroid of ∆ ABC are:

(A)  

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (A)

119. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of getting at least one head is:

(A)  1/4

(B)  3/4

(C)  1/2

(D)  1

Answer: (B)

120. There are 600 men in a fort. If each of them is given 180 g of ration daily, there is ration enough for 25 days. If 300 men are increased and the ratio is decreased to 150 g daily, the number of days for which the ration will be sufficient now is:

(A)  20 days

(B)  16 days

(C)  28 days

(D)  30 days

Answer: (A)

(III) SOCIAL SCIENCE

Directions: Choose one out of the given from options:

121. What is the rank of India in the 2004 Index of Economic Freedom, published by the Heritage Foundation and the Wall Street Journal?

(A)  84

(B)  71

(C)  121

(D)  90

Answer: (C)

122. Who was the Governor-General when the 1857 revolt broke out?

(A)  Dalhousie

(B)  Canning

(C)  Curzon

(D)  Lawrence

Answer: (D)

123. The Twelfth Finance Commission has recommended to bring down the revenue deficit of the Centre and the State to zero by

(A)  2005-2006

(B)  2006-2007

(C)  2007-2008

(D)  2008-2009

Answer: (D)

124. In Union Budget 2005, the finance minister introduced a new tax called FBT. What is the full name of the term FBT?

(A)  Fiscal Benefit Tax

(B)  Fringe Benefit Tax

(C)  Fixed Benefit Tax

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

125. Fawazil was

(A)  extra payment made to the nobles

(B)  excess amount paid to the Exchequer by the Iqtebar

(C)  revenue assigned in lieu of salary

(D)  none of these

Answer: (B)

126. Which one of the following is not a statutory body?

(A)  The Election Commission

(B)  The Union Public Service Commission

(C)  The Planning Commission

(D)  The Finance Commission

Answer: (C)

127. Which of the following countries is not a member of Mercosur?

(A)  Brazil

(B)  Paraguay

(C)  Peru

(D)  Chile

Answer: (B)

128. Which theory makes the use of Jigsaw fit I n its support?

(A)  Tidal Hypothesis

(B)  Tetrahydral Hypothesis

(C)  Cycle of Erosion

(D)  Continental Drift Theory

Answer: (A)

129. Where is the famous Tuscarora dweep located?

(A)  Near USA

(B)  Off Japan

(C)  Off Lakshadweep

(D)  Near the Australian coast

Answer: (B)

130. In which of the following countries has there been the highest rise in overall level of skilled unemployed during 2000-2002?

(A)  India

(B)  China

(C)  France

(D)  USA

Answer: (A)

131. The Rigveda consists of

(A)  1028 hymns

(B)  1000 hymns

(C)  2028 hymns

(D)  1038 hymns

Answer: (A)

132. Blizzards are characteristic of ………. region.

(A)  Equatorial

(B)  Tropical

(C)  Antarctic

(D)  Temperate

Answer: (A)

133. Which of the following Harappan sites are located in Uttar Pradesh?

(A)  Kalibangan

(B)  Banawali

(C)  Alamgirpur

(D)  Sutkagen-dor

Answer: (C)

134. The Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has constituted a task force to prepare a long term plan for the social and economic development of:

(A)  Tamil Nadu

(B)  Manipur

(C)  Jammu and Kashmir

(D)  Uttarakhand

Answer: (B)

135. How many islands make up Hong Kong?

(A)  235

(B)  245

(C)  205

(D)  206

Answer: (A)

136. Commonwealth Bank belongs to which country?

(A)  Australia

(B)  New Zealand

(C)  United Kingdom

(D)  Philippines

Answer: (A)

137. What does NIFE refer to?

(A)  A crop

(B)  An instrument

(C)  A marine organism

(D)  A type of rock

Answer: (A)

138. Who started the Madras Labour Union in 1918?

(A)  Kanji Dwarkadas and Umar Sobhani

(B)  G. Ramanjulu Naidu and G.C. Chetti

(C)  T.K. Murlidhar and H.B. Mahaduvle

(D)  C.K. Annadurai and K.T. Ramchandar

Answer: (C)

139. Which of the following rivers is called Biological Desert due to heavy population?

(A)  Brahmaputra

(B)  Ganga

(C)  Damodar

(D)  Yamuna

Answer: (B)

140. Where do Bhagirathi and Alaknanda join to form Ganga?

(A)  Karna Prayag

(B)  Dev Prayag

(C)  Rudra Prayag

(D)  Gangotri

Answer: (A)

(IV) ENGLISH

141. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word ‘Tentative’.

(A)  Developed

(B)  Final

(C)  Immediate

(D)  Urgent

Answer: (B)

142. Which word is opposite in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence – ‘His meanness is proverbial’?

(A)  Timidity

(B)  Kindness        

(C)  Generosity

(D)  Pragmatism

Answer: (B)

143. Choose the synonym of ‘Voracious’.

(A)  Hungry

(B)  Wild

(C)  Quick

(D)  Angry

Answer: (A)

144. Choose the synonym of the underlined word in the sentence – ‘Reading of poetry is not congenial to his taste.’

(A)  Helpful

(B)  Preferable

(C)  Suited   

(D)  Beneficial

Answer: (C)

145. Choose the appropriate word that can substitute – ‘Animals that can live on land as well was water.’

(A)  Amorphous

(B)  Ambivalent

(C)  Ambiguous

(D)  Amphibian

Answer: (D)

146. One who cannot be corrected’ may be substituted by the word:

(A)  Incurable

(B)  Incorrigible

(C)  Invulnerable

(D)  Hardened

Answer: (B)

147. Choose the correctly spelt word.

(A)  Surveillance

(B)  Survaillance

(C)  Surveilance

(D)  Survellance

Answer: (A)

148. Choose the misspelt word.

(A)  Commend

(B)  Appraise

(C)  Behaviour

(D)  Mentenance

Answer: (D)

149. Choose what best expresses the meaning of the idiom ‘To meet one’s Waterloo’.

(A)  To die fighting

(B)  To meet one’s final defeat

(C)  To die an ignobale death

(D)  To meet a strong adversary

Answer: (B)

150. Choose the best expresses the meaning of the underlined phrases in the sentence. ‘It is high time that India did something about its population problem?

(A)  Appropriate time

(B)  Already late

(C)  Auspicious moment

(D)  Desired occasion

Answer: (A)

151. Choose the Passive Voice of ‘Who teaches you English?’

(A)  English is taught by whom?

(B)  By whom will you be taught English?

(C)  By whom were you taught English?

(D)  By whom are you being taught English

Answer: (A)

152. Choose the correct Indirect speech of – I said to my brother, “Let us got to some hill station for a change.”

(A)  I permitted my brother to go to some hill station for a change.

(B)  I suggested to my brother that we should go to some hill station for a change.

(C)  I asked my brother to go to some hill station for a change.

(D)  I asked my brother if he would go to some hill station for change.      

 

Answer: (B)

153. Pick out the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence. “There is no doubt that one has to keep……. With the changing time.”

(A)  pace

(B)  himself

(C)  aside

(D)  oneself

Answer: (A)

154. Choose the correct preposition to complete the sentence.

“I shall not desert you ……….. all the world .”

(A)  by

(B)  for

(C)  with

(D)  from

Answer: (D)

155. Who wrote the poem “Rape of the Lock”?

(A)  Chaucer

(B)  Pope

(C)  Dryden

(D)  Shakespeare

Answer: (B)

156. Who wrote the novel “Sons and Lovers”?

(A)  Lawrence

(B)  Austen

(C)  Bronte

(D)  Hardy

Answer: (A)

157. Who wrote the play “Man and the Superman”?

(A)  Shakespeare

(B)  Eliot

(C)  grammar

(D)  usage of structures

Answer: (C)

158. The communicative approach to Language Teaching – Learning lays stress on:

(A)  translation

(B)  language use

(C)  grammar

(D)  usage of structures

Answer: (B)

159. Bathsheba Everdene was the heroine in the novel.

(A)  Return of the Native

(B)  Tess of d’Urberviues

(C)  Far from the Madding Crowd

(D)  Mayer of Casterbridge

Answer: (C)

160. Wordsworth was a poet of which period in literature?

(A)  Age of Reason

(B)  Romantic Period

(C)  Victorian Period

(D)  Modern Period

Answer: (B)

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