IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Test 2013
SECTION-I: GENERAL ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Directions (Qs. 1 to 10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices given after each question that follows:
“The Tower” is a poem written by Yeats. It has three parts that correspond to three stages of life, or three modes of relating to the world, but not in scheme as simple as youth, adulthood and old age. Rather, the first and third parts or the first and third poems in a three poem sequence chart the internal experiences of an accelerating mind within a decelerating body. The second part is a more external reminiscence, passing elegiacally over the lore of the land. The dying poet is taking a nostalgic survey of this works. The first and third parts take place within a dreaming mind, while the second takes place within the dream.
If we think of this poem as a ceremony, the first part senses that the end is near, but is not ready to face it; the second part is a preparation ritual, and the third arrives at readiness and passes into nothing. If this passing is to have any meaning, the poet must propel himself enthusiastically into the next world rather than fall, withered and bedraggled, out of this one. To do so, he must find the memories in which he was most alive, may be ones that still hurt the most. These moments were truly his, and so are truly his to leave behind.
1. The “three stages of life” refers to:
(A) youth, adulthood and old age
(B) body, teenager, adult
(C) the life cycle of a poem
(D) three ways of being in the world
2. “The first and third poems” differ from the second in that:
(A) they are nostalgic
(B) they give an account of the poet’s inner experience
(C) they are part of a cremation ceremony
(D) they are enthusiastic
3. The phrase “passing elegiacally over the lore of the land indicates that the poet was:
(A) a slow runner
(B) speaking at funeral
(C) narrating ancient tales
(D) taking stock of his life’s work
4. The poet must “find the memories in which he was most alive” in order to:
(A) keep away death
(B) become a poet
(C) regain memories
(D) leave this world with significance
5. The author compares the poem as a whole to:
(B) a dying person
(C) a ceremony
(D) a memory
6. “The Tower” is a poem written by Yeats. This is a:
(A) simple sentence
(B) complex sentence
(C) compound sentence
(D) complex-compound sentence
7. ‘The second part is a more external reminiscence passing elegiacally over the lore of the land.’ This is a:
(A) complex sentence
(B) compound sentence
(C) complex-compound sentence
(D) simple sentence
8. ‘Passing’ in the sentence in question 7 is a:
(B) Present participle
(C) Past participle
(D) None of the above
9. “Passing” in ‘If this passing is to have any meaning is a:
(B) finite verb
(C) non-finite verb
(D) none of the above
10. “The next world” refers to:
(A) the world of youth
(B) the world of adulthood
(C) the world of old age
(D) the world of death
SECTION-II: LOGICAL AND ANALYTICAL REASONING
Directions (Qs. 11 to 15) : A and B play Hockey and Football, B and C play Cricket and Football. C and E play Cricket and Volleyball. D and E play tennis. A and C play Volleyball and Football. A and D play Hockey and Football.
On the basis of above information answer the following question:
11. Who does not play football?
12. Who plays Hockey, Football and Tennis?
13. Who plays Cricket, Hockey and Football?
14. Who plays Cricket, Volleyball and Tennis?
15. Who plays Hockey, Volleyball and Football?
16. If ‘clock’ is coded as 36938 and ‘leave’ is code as 12452, then ‘cave’ should be coded as:
17. If ‘sky’ is coded as TTMMXX, then ‘Lie’ will be coded as:
18. If ‘case’ is coded as ECUG and ‘Burn’ is coded as CWTR. How ‘earn’ is encoded?
19. For every correct answer, a student scores one mark but for every incorrect answer she/he loses 1/3 mark. She/He answered 108 questions but scored zero (0). How many questions she/he answered incorrectly?
Directions (Qs. 20 to 23): Read the following paragraph to answer questions that follow:
A, B, C, D, E all have nine marbles. B gives two marbles to D, who gives one marble to E. C gives 5 marbles to E who gives two marbles to A. C gives two marbles to B who gives three marble to E. D gives three marbles to who gives two marbles to B.
20. How many marbles A has?
21. How many marbles B has?
22. How many marbles C has?
23. Now, who has got the maximum number of marbles?
Directions (Qs. 24 to 27) : A series of numbers is given, where one term is missing. Select the missing term from the given alternatives.
24. 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
(D) none of the above
25. 2, 9, 30, 93, 282, ?
26. 24, 39, 416, 525, 636, ?
27. 40, 29, ?, 13, 8
Directions (Qs. 28 to 30): In the following questions, Three words are given. First word is related to the second world, You have to select from the given alternatives, the fourth word which would be related to the third word in similar way.
28. Advocate : Law : : Cook : ?
29. Frame : Picture : : Water : ?
30. Psychology : Mind : : Trigonometry : ?
SECTION-III: EDUCATIONAL AND GENERAL AWARENESS
31. We cannot se during a fog because of:
(B) Internal reflection
(D) Scattering of light
32. An orange is a rich source of:
(C) Vitamin C
33. Which one of the following rights was described by B.R. Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul of the constitution’?
(A) Right of freedom of religion
(B) Right of property
(C) Right of equality
(D) Right of constitutional remedies
34. In 1888 Sir Syed Ahmed founded the:
(A) Patriotic Association
(B) Upper India Mohammadan Association
(C) National Conference
(D) Muslim League
35. What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj?
(A) To increase agricultural production
(B) To create employment
(C) To make people politically conscious
(D) To make people participate in developmental administration
36. Aurobindo Ghosh was defended in the Alipur bomb case by :
(A) B. C. Pal
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) Bhulabahi Desai
(D) C. R. Das
37. ‘Give me blood and I promise you freedom’ was uttered by:
(A) Bhagat Singh
(B) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
38. Which of the following states has the least literacy rate?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
39. Tea will cool most easily in a:
(A) Glass cup
(B) Clay cup
(C) Metal cup
(D) Porcelain cup
40. Two shirts are warmer than one of the same material but of double thickness because:
(A) Intervening air between two shirts prevents flow of heat from body to outsides
(B) Specific heat of single shirt is more than that of two shirts
(C) Specific heat of two shirts is more than that of one shirt
(D) Air has large specific heat
41. The disease with high levels of uric acid in the blood is characteristic of ……
(D) Rheumatic heart
42. The most important uranium ore deposits occur in:
43. Where is the greatest variety of flowers found?
(C) Uttarakhand hills
44. Education commission (1964-66) had focused on:
(A) Elementary Education
(B) Secondary Education
(C) Higher Education
(D) All the above
45. A committee headed by Ishwar Bhai Patil looked into various aspects of:
(A) Higher Education
(B) Technical Education
(C) Medical Education
(D) General Education
46. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of the National Curriculum Framework (NCF 2005)?
(A) Learning while earning
(B) Learning without burden
(C) Learning with memorisation
(D) Learning for competition
47. Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas were recommended by:
(A) Mudaliar Commission 1952-53
(B) National Policy on Education 1968
(C) National Policy on Education 1986
(D) National Knowledge Commission (2006-2009)
48. Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) is:
(A) Formative in nature
(B) Summative in nature
(C) Creative in nature
(D) Both Formative and Summative in nature
49. As per Right to Free and Compulsory Education Act 2009, private schools will have to admit:
(A) 25% children of Economically weaker section
(B) 25% children of SC/ST category
(C) 15% children of Economically weaker section
(D) 15% children of SC/ST category
50. Identification of learning gaps of children and plugging them is done through:
(A) Reflective teaching
(B) Remedial teaching
(C) Team teaching
51. Graphical representation of very high quality accomplishment happens to be………
(A) Positively skewed
(C) Negatively skewed
52. Monitoring the working of Elementary Schools is the responsibility of:
(A) Gram Panchayat
(B) Mother Teacher Association
(C) School Management Committee
(D) Parent Teachers Association
53. General Intelligence is:
(A) An innate capacity
(B) Acquired ability
(C) A common attribute for all
(D) A specific talent
54. Detailed recommendations about women education are available in the report of:
(A) Triguna Sen Committee
(B) Harsha Mehta Committee
(C) Ram Murti Committee
(D) Tara Chand Committee
55. Education Cess is being levied for supporting:
(A) Elementary Education
(B) Secondary Education
(C) Both Elementary and Secondary Education
(D) All levels of education
SECTION-IV: TEACHING-LEARNING AND THE SCHOOL
56. Which of the following functions of schools justifies the statement that a school should be pioneer of social upliftment?
(A) Normal function of school
(B) Progressive function of school
(C) Conservative function of school
(D) Reactionary function of school
57. Which of the following statements can’t be accepted?
(A) Schools are necessarily affected by changes in society.
(B) School can be powerful agents of social change.
(C) Schools are potential agents of disintegration.
(D) Schools are social agencies of cultural transmission.
58. Which of the following goes against the spirit of equality of educational opportunity?
(A) Public schools
(B) Government aided schools
(C) Ashram schools
(D) Navodaya Vidyalayas
59. Which of the following sequence is an appropriate order to learning a language?
L → Listening; R → Reading; S → Speaking; W → Writing.
60. The school through its programmes helps student:
(A) assimilate culture
(B) ignore other cultures
(C) protest culture
(D) make them cultured
61. The main aim of class room teaching should be:
(A) to develop self confidence among learners.
(B) to train learners for some vocation.
(C) to prepare them for higher classes.
(D) to facilitate learning.
62. Right of Education Act 2009 has banned:
(A) Corporal punishment
(B) Mental Harassment
(C) Both corporal punishment and Mental harassment
(D) Extra classes
63. Teaching environment in the school can be adversely affected if:
(A) Corporal punishment is always given.
(B) Learner is motivated to write for wall magazine.
(C) Teacher is given freedom to use innovative methods.
(D) There are frequent PTA meetings.
64. In your view play/ activities in schools is:
(A) necessary for psycho-motor development
(B) a simple waste of time
(C) not required because of heavy academic schedule
(D) all the above
65. A good class room discipline implies:
(A) total silence with attention to teacher
(B) students to remain active in learning activities
(C) students do not ask any question
(D) students to be busy in self study
66. Effective learning depends on:
(A) interest of the child
(B) difficulty level of the learning
(C) either A or B
(D) Both A and B
67. A teacher would become more effective if:
(A) students score high marks
(B) teacher uses good instructional aids
(C) she/he helps learners to achieve mastery in learning
(D) she/he helps students to ask questions
68. In order of elicit the response, “year 269 BC| while concluding a lesson on ‘Ashoka’, which of the following questions would be the best?
(A) When did Ashoka succeed the throne?
(B) After whom did Ashoka succeed the throne?
(C) In which year die Ashoka’s coronation take place
(D) Any of the above questions
69. The best way to handle a wrong response of a student would be
(A) to explain the subject matter in detail again
(B) to tell the student that your answer is wrong
(C) to ask another student to give the correct answer
(D) to explain and give another chance to give answer
70. For developing an objective type class room test, which one of the following types would be most suited?
(A) multiple choice type
(B) true-false type
(C) select the correct reason
(D) fill in the blank
71. A teacher in the class should keep his/her speech:
(B) low volume
(C) high volume
(D) moderate volume
72. Developing ‘Scientific attitude’ among learners can be best accomplished through:
(A) teaching of sciences
(B) telling them to accept
(C) accepting what elders speak
(D) accepting facts only after examining and verifying
73. Which one of the following sequence to the process of the classroom teaching?
[D-Delivery; E-Evaluation; F-Feedback; K-Knowing the target learner; P-Planning]
74. In order of avoid unnecessary psychological problems arising out of annual examination system we should use:
(A) periodical tests only
(B) periodical tests with corrective measures
(C) tests by teachers of other schools
(D) no testing at all
75. Mid-day Meal programme in Govt. schools meets which need of the child?
(D) Self actualization
76. While asking a probing question in a class which of the following can effect the response adversely?
(A) clear intent
(B) having no previous material to refer to
(C) use of double negatives
(D) questions with one correct answer
77. A mentally challenged child:
(A) can’t attain mastery in tasks at all
(B) can attain mastery with alternative suitable environment and method
(C) can attain but would need more time
(D) can attain mastery like any other child
78. Aptitude tests are used to:
(A) measure achievement
(B) measure proficiency
(C) predict one’s success in a profession
(D) measure potentiality
79. Awarding grades in place of numerical marks is recommended because:
(A) grades are easier to award
(B) teaching-learning will be facilitated
(C) it will improve quality of education
(D) it will reduce errors in judgement
80. Communication in the classroom would be more effective if:
(A) sender uses the same coding system as his/her receiver decodes
(B) sender proceeds slowly but systematically
(C) receiver is willing to receive
(D) being done in congenial environment
SECTION-V (i): SCIENCE
81. What happens, when zinc metal is dipped in copper sulphate solution?
(A) the solution becomes colourless and reddish brown copper metal gets deposited
(B) no reaction takes place
(C) the solution becomes green and copper metal gets deposited
(D) the solution remains blue and copper metal gets deposited
82. In binary fission of a cell:
(A) Cytoplasm and nucleus divide at the same time.
(B) The division of nucleus is followed by the division of cytoplasm.
(C) The division of cytoplasm is followed by the division of nucleus.
(D) The cytoplasm and nucleus do not divide.
83. When a cell is kept in a hypotonic solution then water moves:
(A) into the cell
(B) out of the cell
(C) no movement of water takes place
(D) none of these is correct
84. The isomers of C6H14 are
85. Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?
86. A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using:
(A) a concave mirror
(B) a convex mirror
(C) a plane mirror
(D) both concave as well as plane mirror
87. The human eye forms the image of an object at its:
88. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?
(B) Crop field
89. Extensive plantation of trees to increase forest cover is known as:
(B) Social forestry
90. Which of the following is an exothermic process?
(A) Reaction of water with quicklime
(B) Dilution of an acid
(C) Evaporation of water
(D) Sublimation of Camphor
91. Which among the following is not a base?
92. Blood bank of the body is:
(D) bone marrow
93. Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon:
(A) its length
(B) its thickness
(C) its shape
(D) nature of material
94. Growth of the plant or plant parts towards the earth is called:
95. Biogas is a better fuel as it has:
(A) Volt ampere
(B) Kilowatt hour
(C) Watt second
(D) Joule second
96. Biogas is a better fuel as it has:
(A) 75% methane
(B) higher calorific value
(C) residual manure
(D) all of these
97. Which of the following is different from the other three?
(C) natural gas
98. The centre for controlling body temperature is:
(C) Central nervous system
99. The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wire is known as:
100. Galvanisation is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating with a thin layer of:
101. The value of (ax – y)x+y ∙ (ay – z)y+z ∙ (az – x)z+x is:
(D) x + y + z
102. The fifteenth part, the twelfth part and seventh part of a certain number when added together give 1353, the number is:
103. The value of is:
104. An article which costs A Rs. 50 is sold to B at a profit of 20%; B sells it to C at a profit of 25%; C sells it to D at a profit of 40%. The price D paid for the article is:
(A) Rs. 147
(B) Rs. 105
(C) Rs. 85
(D) Rs. 95
105. The number which must be subtracted from 11, 15, 21 each so that the middle number so obtained is the mean proportional of the other two, is:
106. A sum of money put at compound interest amounts in 2 years to Rs. 3380 and in 3 years to Rs. 3515.20. The money invested is:
(A) Rs. 3125
(B) Rs. 3215
(C) Rs. 3512
(D) Rs. 3152
107. A pen is sold at Rs. 60.00 cash or Rs. 20.00 cash down payment and Rs. 8 per month for six months. The rate of interest is:
108. In an examination 77% candidates passed in English and 66% passed in Mathematics and 13% failed in both subjects. If 392 passed in both subjects the total number of candidates is:
109. A can do as much work in 2 days as B can do in 3 days, and B as much in 4 days as C in 5 days. If A, B and C together can do a piece of work in 5 days then A alone will do it in:
(A) 15 days
(B) 12 days
(C) 11 days
(D) 10 days
110. The value of (1 + cot θ – cosec θ) (1 + tan θ + sec θ) is:
111. The value of sec 70° sin 20° + cos 20° cosec 70° is:
112. The angles of elevation of the top of tower from two points a and b from the base and in the same straight line with it are complementary. The height of the two tower is
113. The difference between the sides at right angles in a right angled triangle is 14 cm. The area of the triangle is 120 cm2. The perimeter of the triangle is
(A) 26 cm
(B) 36 cm
(C) 54 cm
(D) 60 cm
114. The area of a square is the same as the area of a circle. Their perimeters are in the ratio:
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 2 : π
(C) π : 2
(D) √π : 2
115. The radii of two cylinders are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their heights are in the ratio 5 : 3. The ratio of their volumes is:
(A) 27 : 20
(B) 20 : 27
(C) 4 : 9
(D) 9 : 4
116. The circular ends of a bucket are of radii 35 cm and 14 cm and the height of the bucket is 40 cm. Its volume is
(A) 60060 cm2
(B) 80080 cm2
(C) 70040 cm2
(D) 80160 cm2
117. The height (in cm) of 15 students of class are
141, 151, 146, 155, 148, 150, 158, 147, 159, 152, 153, 149, 150, 160, 161.
The mean height is:
118. A bag contains 3 white, 4 red and 5 black balls. One ball is drawn at random. The probability that the ball drawn is neither black nor white is:
119. Two vertices of a ∆ABC are A(−1, 4) and B(5, 2) and its centroid is G(0, −3). The coordinate of C are:
(A) (4, 3)
(B) (4, 15)
(C) (−4, −15)
(D) (−15, −4)
120. The sum of all two digit odd positive integers is:
(iii): SOCIAL SCIENCE
Directions (Qs. 121 to 140) : Choose the correct answer out of the four for each of the following question:
121. Who was the Viceroy of India when Rowlatt Act passed?
(A) Hardings II
(D) Minto II
122. The Vindhyan System of Rocks is important for the production of:
(A) precious stones and building material
(B) iron ore and manganese
(C) bauxite and mica
(D) copper and uranium
123. Which of the following acts gave representation to Indians for the first time in the legislature?
(A) Indian Council Act 1909
(B) Indian Council Act 1919
(C) Govt. of India Act 1935
(D) Govt. of India Act 1942
124. Which document was developed mentioning Samudragupta’s Achievements?
(A) Kalinga Edict
(B) Hathigumpha Edict
(D) Allahabad Prasati
125. Which of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of International Peace and Security?
(A) Article 51
(B) Article 48A
(C) Article 43A
(D) Article 41
126. In which of the following matters does Lok Sabha has supremacy?
(A) Railway Budget
(B) Defence Budget
(C) Foreign Affairs
(D) Financial Bill
127. As per existing law what is the minimum per day wages paid to a worker from unorganized sector in India?
(A) Rs. 50
(B) Rs. 75
(C) Rs. 100
(D) Rs. 125
128. Who is the first law officer of the Govt. of India?
(A) The Chief Justice of India
(B) Union Law Minister
(C) Attorney General of India
(D) Law Secretary
129. Many a times we see in financial Journals / Bulletins a term M3, what does the term M3 mean?
(A) Currency in circulation on a particular day
(B) Total value of the foreign Exchange on a particular day
(C) Total value of Export Credit on a given date
(D) Total value of the tax collected in a year
130. Many a times we read in the newspapers that RBI has changed or revised particular ratio/ rate by a few base points. What is meant by base point?
(A) Ten per cent of one hundredth point
(B) One hundred of 1%
(C) One hundred of 10%
(D) Ten per cent of 1000
131. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built across the river:
132. Firoz Shah founded many cities, which of the following was not built by him?
(B) Fatehpur Sikri
133. The Red Sea is an example of a:
(A) folded structure
(B) faulted structure
(C) lava structure
(D) residual structure
134. Isochrones are lines joining places with equal:
(B) travelling time from a point
135. The pepper plant is a:
(D) small herb
136. Which kind of power accounts for the largest share of power generation in India?
(A) Hydro Electricity
137. An image of dancing girl on the coins was found from:
138. The Italian traveler who gave a very praise worthy account of the Vijayanagar Empire was:
(B) Marco Polo
(C) Nicolo Conti
(D) Tome Pires
139. Iqtas were:
(A) hereditary assignments
(B) the personal property of the nobles
(C) generally transferable revenue assignments
(D) orders passed by kings and queens
140. The number of languages listed in 8th schedule of the Constitution of India is:
Directions (Qs. 141 to 149): Choose the most appropriate response out of the four choices given after every question.
141. The phrase ‘widow’s walk’ means:
(A) railed walkway atop a seaside house
(B) an unsteady gait
(C) wreath – laying ceremony
(D) none of the above
142. The phrase ‘deadman’s hand’ means:
(A) a poker hand with two pairs
(B) an unseen force
(C) weakened leader
(D) none of the above
143. A doctor who specializes in the treatment of the heart is called:
144. Choose the correctly spelt word:
145. Choose the correctly spelt word:
146. The indirect form of the sentence:
Aftabh asked his wife, “Where is my book?” is:
(A) Aftabh asked his wife where is my book.
(B) Aftabh asked his wife where his book was.
(C) Aftabh asked his wife where his book is.
(D) Aftabh asked his wife where is his book.
147. The indirect form of the sentence:
Anita said, “I went to Australia last year” is:
(A) Anita said that I went to Australia last year.
(B) Anita said that she went to Australia last year.
(C) Anita said that she had gone to Australia last year.
(D) Anita said that I had gone to Australia last year.
148. The passive voice of “Labourers are making the road” is:
(A) The road is being made by labourers.
(B) The road is made by labourers.
(C) The road has been made by labourers.
(D) The road was being made by labourers.
149. The active voice of “Anil was fined by the police for not stopping at the red light”.
(A) Anil fined the police for not stopping at the red light.
(B) Anil not stopping at the red light was fined by the police.
(C) The police fined Anil for not stopping at the red light.
(D) The police fined Anil not stopping at the red light.
Directions (Qs. 150 to 152): Choose the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks.
150. Charles ______ go to Paris next
151. My son has been living in Paris ____ ten years.
152. Friends often seek out Asha’s ____ as she is known for her ability to listen carefully and offer unbiased advice.
153. In which of the following plays of Shakespeare Bertrice was the heroine?
(A) Merchant of Venice
(B) Much ado about nothing
(D) Midsummer Night’s Dream
154. Who wrote the poem ‘Ode to the West Wind’?
155. Who wrote the novel ‘Return of the Native’?
(A) George Eliot
(B) Thomas Hardy
(C) Emily Bronte
(D) Jane Austen
156. Who wrote the p lay ‘End Game’?
(A) Samuel Beckett
(B) George Bernard Shaw
(C) Eugene O’Neil
157. Who is the heroine in the novel ‘Return of the Native’?
158. Which of the following is not a poet of the Victorian Age?
159. In the sentence ‘I have read that book which is lying on the table’.
Which is lying on the table is a:
(A) Noun clause
(B) Adverb clause
(C) Adjective clause
(D) None of the above
160. In the sentence ‘Rashmi is the girl who has won the first price’.
Who was won the first prize is a:
(A) Noun clause
(B) Adverb clause
(C) Adjective clause
(D) None of the above
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