JIPMER Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2018 With Answer Key


1. The magnetic moment of an electron orbiting in a circulate orbit of radius r with a speed v is equal to

(a)  evr/2

(b)  evr

(c)  er/2v

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

2. If point charges Q1 = 2 × 107 C and Q2 = 3 × 107 C are at 30 cm separation, then find electrostatic force between them

(a)  2 × 103 N

(b)  6 × 103 N

(c)  5 × 103 N

(d) 1 × 103 N

Answer: (b)

3. If a machine perform 4000 J output work and 1000 J inside loss due to friction, then the find efficiency?

(a)  80%

(b)  30%

(c)  25%

(d) 60%

Answer: (a)

4. Dimension of force is

(a)  [M2L1T−1]

(b)  [M1L1T−2]

(c)  [M2L−1T−2]

(d) [M1L1T−1]

Answer: (b)

5. The efficiency of an ideal gas with adiabatic exponent γ for the shown cyclic process would be





Answer: (a)

6. Find Rnet between A and B.

(a)  60 Ω

(b)  40 Ω

(c)  70 Ω

(d) 20 Ω

Answer: (b)

7. Velocity is given by v = 4t(1 – 2t), then find time at which velocity is maximum

(a)  0.25 s

(b)  1 s

(c)  0.45 s

(d) 4 s

Answer: (a)

8. Find current (i) in circuit shown in figure.

(a)  0.5 A

(b)  0.2 A

(c)  1 A

(d) 2 A

Answer: (a)

9. Find VP – VQ in the circuit shown in figure.

(a)  6.68 V

(b)  8 V

(c)  4.65 V

(d) 7 V

Answer: (c)

10. If a capacitor having capacitance 2F and plate separation of 0.5 cm will have area

(a)  1130 cm2

(b)  1130 m2

(c)  1130 km2

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

11. Find the capacitance in shown figure





Answer: (a)

12. Find ratio of radius of gyration of a disk and ring of same radii at their tangential axis in plane.



(c)  1

(d) 2/3

Answer: (a)

13. If compressibility of material is 4 × 105 per atm, pressure is 100 atm and volume is 100 cm3, then find ∆V = ?

(a)  0.4 cm3

(b)  0.8 cm3

(c)  0.6 cm3

(d) 0.2 cm3

Answer: (a)

14. If speed of sound in air is 340 m/s and in water is 1480 m/s. If frequency of sound is 1000 kHz, then find wavelength in water

(a)  2.96 mm

(b)  1.48 mm

(c)  0.74 mm

(d) 1 mm

Answer: (b)

15. 1000 N force in required to lift a hook and 1000 N force is requires to lift a load slowly. Find power required to lift hook with load with speed v = 0.5 m/s

(a)  5 kW

(b)  1.5 kW

(c)  5.5 kW

(d) 4.5 kW

Answer: (c)

16. If minimum deviation = 30°, then speed of light in shown prism will be





Answer: (a)

17. A current i is flowing through the wire of diameter (d) having drift velocity of electrons vd in it. What will be new drift velocity when diameter of wire is made d/4?

(a)  4vd

(b)  vd/4

(c)  16vd

(d) vd/16

Answer: (c)

18. How much intense is 80dB sound in comparision to 40 dB?

(a)  102

(b)  104

(c)  2

(d) 1/2

Answer: (b)

19. Find i in shown figure

(a)  0.2 A

(b)  0.1 A

(c)  0.3 A

(d) 0.4 A

Answer: (b)

20. A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 0.5 kg for 0.25s starting from rest. What is its momentum now?

(a)  0.25 N/s

(b)  2.5 N/s

(c)  0.5 N/s

(d) 0.75 N/s

Answer: (b)

21. Which of the following is fusion process?



(c)  Uranium decay

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

22. A ball of 0.5 kg collided with wall at 30° and bounced back elastically. The speed of ball was 12m/s. The contact remained for 1s. What is the force applied by wall on ball?

(a)  12√3 N

(b)  √3 N

(c)  6√3 N

(d) 3√3 N

Answer: (c)

23. A electron (e) is accelerated by V volts experiences a force F, when it enters in a uniform magnetic field. What will the force experienced when it is accelerated by 2V?

(a)  √2F

(b)  F

(c)  2F

(d) F/2

Answer: (a)

24. Kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 4 times. What will be the relation between initial and final momentum?

(a)  p2 = 2p1

(b)  p2= p1/2

(c)  p2 = p1

(d) p2 = 4p1

Answer: (a)

25. What is the range of a projectile thrown with velocity 98 m/s with angle 30° from horizontal?

(a)  490√3 m

(b)  245√3 m

(c)  980√3 m

(d) 100 m

Answer: (a)

26. If the efficiency of an engine is 50% and its work output is 500 J, then find input.

(a)  1000 J

(b)  500 J

(c)  100 J

(d) 250 J

Answer: (a)

27. The efficiency of a heat engine is 1/6. Its efficiency double when the temperature of sink decrease by 62°C, its efficiency doubles. Then, what is the temperature of source?

(a)  470 K

(b)  372 K

(c)  542 K

(d) 1042 K

Answer: (b)

28. A ball is thrown upwards with a speed u from a height h above the ground. The time taken by the ball to hit the ground is





Answer: (c)

29. A mass of Hg is executing SHM which is given by  What is the maximum kinetic energy?

(a)  3 J

(b)  6 J

(c)  9 J

(d) 18 J

Answer: (d)

30. A uniform rod of mass m and length l0 is pivoted at one end and is hanging in the vertical direction. The period of small angular oscillations of the rod is





Answer: (d)

31. A box of mass 8 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination 30°. Its downward motion can be prevented by applying a horizontal force F, then value of F for which friction between the block and the incline surface is minimum, is

(a)  80/√3

(b)  40√3

(c)  40/√3

(d) 80√3

Answer: (a)

32. A mass M is hung with a light inextensible string as shown in the figure. Find the tension of the horizontal string.

(a)  √2 Mg

(b)  √3 Mg

(c)  2 Mg

(d) 3 Mg

Answer: (b)

33. A Carnot engine absorbs 6 × 105 cal at 227° The work done per cycle by the engine, if its sink is maintained at 127°C is

(a)  15 × 108 J

(b)  15 × 104 J

(c)  5 × 105 J

(d) 2 × 104 J

Answer: (c)

34. A machine gun fires 360 bullets per minute, with a velocity of 600 ms1. If the power of the gun is 5.4 kW, then mass of each bullet is

(a)  5 kg

(b)  0.5 kg

(c)  5 g

(d) 0.5 g

Answer: (c)

35. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal velocity in air 1 ms1. The viscosity of air is 18 × 105 Find the viscous force on the rain drops.

(a)  2.05 × 107 N

(b)  1.018 × 107 N

(c)  1.05 × 107 N

(d) 2.058 × 107 N

Answer: (b)

36. Find density of ethyl alcohol





Answer: (a)

37. An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver 300 MW. The energy released due to fission of each nucleus of uranium atoms U238 is 170 MeV. The number of uranium atoms fissioned per hour will be

(a)  30 × 1025

(b)  4 × 1022

(c)  10 × 1020

(d) 5 × 1015

Answer: (b)

38. How much should the temperature of a brass rod be increased so as to increase its length by 1%? (Given, α for brass is 0.00002°C1).

(a)  300°C

(b)  400°C

(c)  500°C

(d) 550°C

Answer: (c)

39.  what is time period?

(a)  0.04 s

(b)  1 s

(c)  0.006 s

(d) 0.02 s

Answer: (a)

40. In the fusion reaction  the masses of deuteron, helium and neutron expressed in amu are 2.015, 3.017 and 1.009, respectively. If 1 kg of deuterium undergoes complete fusion, find the amount of total energy released. (1 amu = 931.5 MeV).

(a)  9.0 × 1013 J

(b)  20 × 105 J

(c)  5 × 1016 J

(d) 8 × 105 J

Answer: (a)

41. A prism of crown glass with refracting angle of 5° and mean refractive index = 1.51 is combined with a flint glass prism of refractive index = 1.65 to produce no deviation. Find the angle of flit glass.

(a)  3.92°

(b)  4.68°

(c)  5.32°

(d) 7.28°

Answer: (a)

42. Water flows through a horizontal pipe of variable cross-section at the rate of 20 L min1. What will be the velocity of water at a point where diameter is 4 cm?

(a)  0.2639 ms1

(b)  0.5639 ms1

(c)  0.4639 ms1

(d) 0.3639 ms1

Answer: (a)

43. The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is 49 × 105°C1. What is the fractional change in density for a 30°C rise in temperature?

(a)  0.0155

(b)  0.0145

(c)  0.0255

(d) 0.0355

Answer: (b)

44. Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5 mm and illuminated with light of λ = 6000 Å. If the screen is placed 2.5 m, from the slits. The distance of third bright image from the centre will be

(a)  1.5 mm

(b)  3 mm

(c)  6 mm

(d) 9 mm

Answer: (d)

45. Calculate the dispersive power for crown glass from the given data

μV = 1.523

and         μR = 1.5145

(a)  0.01639

(b)  1.05639

(c)  0.05639

(d) 2.05639

Answer: (a)

46. A particle doing SHM having amplitude 5 cm, mass 0.5 kg and angular frequency 5 rad/s is at 1 cm from mean position. Find potential energy and kinetic energy.

(a)  KE = 625 × 104 J, PE = 150 × 103 J

(b)  KE = 150 × 104 J, PE = 625 × 104 J

(c)  KE = 625 × 104 J, PE = 625 × 104 J

(d) KE = 150 × 103 J, PE = 150 × 104 J

Answer: (b)

47. A organ pipe open on both ends in the nth harmonic is in resonance with a source of 1000 Hz. The length of pipe is 16.6 cm and speed of sound in air is 332 m/s. Find the value of n.

(a)  3

(b)  2

(c)  1

(d) 4

Answer: (c)

48. R = 65 ± 1 Ω L, l = 5 ± 0.1 mm and d = 10 ± 0.5 mm. Find error in calculation of resistivity.

(a)  21%

(b)  13%

(c)  16%

(d) 41%

Answer: (b)

49. A solid floats with 1/4th of its volume above the surface of water, the density of the solid is

(a)  750 kg m3

(b)  650 kg m3

(c)  560 kg m3

(d) 450 kg m3

Answer: (a)

50. The work done in blowing a soap bubble of surface tension 0.06 Nm1 from 2 cm radius to 5 cm radius is

(a)  0.004168 J

(b)  0.003168 J

(c)  0.003158 J

(d) 0.004568 J

Answer: (b)

51. The force of attraction between two charges 8 μC and −4 μC is 0.2 N. Find the distance of separation

(a)  1.2 cm

(b)  12 m

(c)  120 m

(d) 0.12 m

Answer: (a)

52. A runner starts from O and goes to O following path OQRO in 1 hr. What is net displacement and average speed?

(a)  0, 3.57 km/hr

(b)  0, 0 km/hr

(c)  0, 2.57 km/hr

(d) 0, 1 km/hr

Answer: (a)

53. A disc of moment of inertia 2 kg-m2 revolving with 8 rad/s is placed on another disc of moment of inertia 4 kg-m2 revolving 4 rad/s. What is the angular frequency of composite disc?

(a)  4 rad/s

(b)  3/16 rad/s

(c)  16/3 rad/s

(d) 16/5 rad/s

Answer: (c)

54. In a L-C circuit, angular frequency at resonance is ω. What will be the new angular frequency when inductor’s inductance is made two times and capacitor’s capacitance is made four times?

(a)  ω/2√2

(b)  ω/√2

(c)  2ω

(d) 2ω/√2

Answer: (a)

55. Electron revolving with speed v is producing magnetic field B at centre. Find relation between radius of path B and v?

(a)  B ∝ V ∝ 1/r

(b)  B ∝ V ∝ 1/r2

(c)  B ∝ V2 ∝ 1/r

(d) B ∝ V2 ∝ 1/r2

Answer: (b)

56. A regular hexagone of side a. A wire of length 24 a is coiled on that hexagone. If current in hexagone is I, then find the magnetic moment.

(a)  6√3 la2

(b)  3√3 la2


(d) 6 la2

Answer: (a)

57. At what speed will the velocity of a stream of water be equal to 20 cm of mercury column? (Taking, g = 10 ms2)

(a)  6.4 ms1

(b)  7.3756 ms1

(c)  6.4756 ms1

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

58. At what distance (in metre) from the centre of the Moon, the intensity of gravitational field will be zero? (Take, mass of Earth and Moon as 5.98 × 1024 kg and 7.35 × 1022 kg respectively and the distance between Moon and Earth is 3.85 × 108)

(a)  zero

(b)  3.85 × 107

(c)  8 × 108

(d) 3.46 × 108

Answer: (b)

59. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The speed of light in glass is

(a)  3 × 108 m/s

(b)  2 × 108 m/s

(c)  1 × 108 m/s

(d) 4 × 108 m/s

Answer: (b)

60. R is the radius of Earth and ω is its angular velocity and gp is the value of g at the poles. The effective value of g at a latitude λ = 60°.





Answer: (a)


61. Which one of the following species is paramagnetic in nature?

(a)  V4+

(b)  Sc3+

(c)  V5+

(d) Zn2+

Answer: (d)

62. Given that, for the reaction,

∆Hf(HCl) = −93 kJ/mol

B.E (H2) = 434 kJ/mol

B.E (Cl2) = 242 kJ/mol

The bond dissociation energy of HCl is

(a)  232 kJ/mol

(b)  331 kJ/mol

(c)  431 kJ/mol

(d) 530 kJ/mol

Answer: (c)

63. The pair of structures given below represents

(a)  Chain isomers

(b)  Position isomers

(c)  Tautomers

(d) Metamers

Answer: (b)

64. In the extraction of copper from is sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu2O with

(a)  FeS

(b)  CO

(c)  Cu2S

(d) SO2

Answer: (c)

65. For the following reaction,

2NH3(g) + CO2(g) ⇌ NH2CONH2 (aq) + H2O (l)

∆G° = −13.6 kJ mol1 at 298 K

Then, log Keq for this equilibrium is

(a)  −3.41

(b)  2.38

(c)  120

(d) 1500

Answer: (b)

66. Xenon hexatluoride reacts with silica to form a xenon compound X. The oxidation state of xenon of X is

(a)  +2

(b)  +4

(c)  +6

(d) 0

Answer: (c)

67. Neopentyl chloride reacts with benzene in presence of a lewis acid (AlCl3) to form

Answer: (b)

68. Lead is extracted from galena (PbS), either by following ways.

Auto-reduction process is

(a)  I

(b)  II

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

69. In the reactoion,

The major product formed is

(a)  C6H5 – CH2 – CHO

(b)  C6H5 – COOH

(c)  C6H5 – CH = CH – COOH

(d) C6H5 – CH = CH – COCH3

Answer: (c)

70. Which one of the following represents the correct structure of cellulose?

(a)  Branched, α(1, 4) and β(1, 6) – glucose

(b)  Unbranched, α(1, 6) – glucose

(c)  Branched, α(1, 4) – glucose

(d) Unbranched, β(1, 4) – glucose

Answer: (d)

71. The correct formula for plaster of Paris is

(a)  CaSO4 ∙ 4H2O

(b)  CaSO4 ∙ 2H2O


(d) CaSO4 ∙ 1H2O

Answer: (c)

72. The value of KC for the reaction, 2A ⇌ B + C is 2 × 103. At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is [A] = [B] = [C] = 3 × 104 In which direction, the reaction will proceed?

(a)  Forward direction

(b)  Reverse direction

(c)  No net reaction occur

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

73. Which of the following chemicals are used to manufacture methyl isocyanate that caused “Bhopal tragedy”?

(i) Methylamine  (ii) Phosgene

(iii) Phosphine    (iv) Dimethylamine

(a)  (i) and (ii)

(b)  (iii) and (iv)

(c)  (i) and (iii)

(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer: (a)

74. The correct order of ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion exchange resin is

(a)  Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+

(b)  Li+ > K+ > Na+ < Rb+

(c)  Na+ < Li+ < K+ < Rb+

(d) K+ < Na+ < Rb+ < Li+

Answer: (a)

75. Identify the major product that is obtained on treatment of CH3CH2CH(F)CH3 with CH3O/CH3OH is

(a)  CH3CH2(OCH3CH3

(b)  CH3CH = CHCH3

(c)  CH3CH2CH = CH2


Answer: (b)

76. Among the following, the non-aromatic heterocyclic compound is

(a)  piperidine

(b)  pyrrole

(c)  furan

(d) pyridine

Answer: (a)

77. If Na+ ioin is larger than Mg2+ ions and S2 ion is larger than Cl ion, which of the following will be stable salt in water?

(a)  Sodium chloride

(b)  Sodium sulphide

(c)  Magnesium sulphide

(d) Magnesium chloride

Answer: (c)


Product P is





Answer: (b)

79. Which of the following is correct statement?

(a)  Aluminium dissolves in dilute mineral acids but is made passive by concentrated nitric acid.

(b)  Aluminium vessel can be used as storage of NaOH.

(c)  Alminium chloride does not dissociate in water.

(d) AlF3 is soluble in anhydrous HF.

Answer: (a)

80. If molar conductivity of Ca2+ and Cl ions are 119 and 71S cm2mol1 respectively, then the molar conductivity of CaCl2 at infinite dilution is

(a)  215 S cm2mol1

(b)  340 S cm2mol1

(c)  128 S cm2mol1

(d) 261 S cm2mol1

Answer: (d)

81. An atom forms face centred cubic crystal with density d = 8.92 g/mL and edge length a = 3.6 × 108 The molecular mass of atom in amu is

(a)  98 amu

(b)  63 amu

(c)  32 amu

(d) 93 amu

Answer: (b)

82. In a crystalline solid, having formula XY2O4, oxide ions are arranged in cubic close packed lattice while, cations X are present is tetrahedral voids and cations Y are present in octahedral voids. The percentage of tetrahedral voids occupied by X is

(a)  12.5%

(b)  25%

(c)  50%

(d) 75%

Answer: (a)

83. Conversion of oxygen into ozone is non-spontaneous at

(a)  low temperature

(b)  all temperature

(c)  high temperature

(d) room temperature

Answer: (c)

84. A 100 mL flask contained H2 at 200 torr, and a 200 mL flask contained He at 100 torr. The two flask were then connected so that each gas filled their combined volume. Assume, no change in temperature, total pressure is

(a)  104 torr

(b)  163.33 torr

(c)  279 torr

(d) 133.33 torr

Answer: (d)

85. For the dot structure shown, the most likely elements X = … and Y = … are

(a)  carbon, fluorine

(b)  carbon, hydrogen

(c)  carbon, oxygen

(d) oxygen, carbon

Answer: (a)

86. Valence electrons in the element X are 3 and that in element Y is 6. Most probable compound formed from X and Y is

(a)  X2Y

(b)  XY2

(c)  X6Y3

(d) X2Y3

Answer: (d)

87. A compound, containing only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen has molecular weight of 44. On Complete oxidation, it is converted into a compound of molecular weight is 60. The original compound is

(a)  alcohol

(b)  acid

(c)  aldehyde

(d) ether

Answer: (c)

88. Number of photons emitted by a 100 W (Js1) yellow lamp in 1.0 s is

(λ of yellow light is 560 nm)

(a)  1.6 × 1018

(b)  1.4 × 1018

(c)  2.8 × 1020

(d) 2.1 × 1020

Answer: (c)

89. In Kjeldahl’s method, the nitrogen present in an organic compound in quantitatively converted into

(a)  gaseous ammonia

(b)  ammonium sulphate

(c)  ammonium phosphate

(d) ammonia

Answer: (d)

90. In the reversible reaction,

 the rate of disappearance of NO2 is equal to


(b)  2k1[NO2]2 – 2k2[N2O4]

(c)  2k1[NO2]2 – k2[N2O4]

(d) (2k1 – k2) [NO2]

Answer: (b)

91. If E°(Zn2+, Zn) = −763 V and E°(Fe2+, Fe) = −0.44 V, then the emf of the cell Zn|Zn2+ (a = 0.001)|| Fe2+ (a = 0.005)|Fe is

(a)  equal to 0.323 V

(b)  less than 0.323 V

(c)  greater than 0.323 V

(d) equal to 1.103 V

Answer: (c)

92. For the electrochemical cell,

Ag|AgCl|KCl||AgNO3|Ag+, the overall cell reaction is

(a)  Ag+ + KCl → AgCl(s) + K+


(c)  AgCl(s) → Ag+ + Cl

(d) Ag+ + Cl → AgCl(s)

Answer: (c)

93. Which one of the following electrolytes has the same value of van’t Hoff factor (i) as that of K4[Fe(CN)6]?

(a)  Al2(SO4)3

(b)  K2SO4

(c)  K3[Fe(CN)6]

(d) Al(NO3)3

Answer: (a)

94. The van’t Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is

(a)  91.3%

(b)  87%

(c)  100%

(d) 74%

Answer: (b)

95. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(a)  3-propylpent-1-ene

(b)  3-ethylpent-1-ene

(c)  4-ethylhex-1-ene

(d) 3-ethylhex-1-ene

Answer: (a)

96. Bleeding due to a cut can be stopped by applying ferric chloride solution in the laboratory. This is due to

(a)  coagulation of negatively charged blood particles by Fe3+ ions.

(b)  coagulation of positively charged blood particles by Cl ions.

(c)  reaction taking place between ferric ions and the haemoglobin forming a complex

(d) common element, iron, in both FeCl3 and haemoglobin.

Answer: (b)

97. Relative stabilities of the following carbocations will be in the order

(a)  C > B > A

(b)  C < B < A

(c)  B > C > A

(d) C > A > B

Answer: (d)

98. Among the following species, the one which become paramagnetic on heating at 850 K is

(a)  Fe3O4

(b)  MnO

(c)  ZnFe2O4

(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer: (a)

99. Which of the following is not a surfactant?

(a)  CH3 – (CH2)15 – N+(CH3)3Br

(b)  CH3 – (CH2)14 – CH2NH2

(c)  CH3 – (CH216 – CH2OSO2 Na+

(d) OHC – (CH2)14 –CH2 – COONa+

Answer: (b)

100. In the complex, [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]+, the oxidation number of Cr is

(a)  +4

(b)  +3

(c)  +2

(d) +6

Answer: (b)

101. Arrange the following polymers in increasing order of their intermolecular forces.

Nylon-6, 6, buna-S, polythene, neoprene

(a)  Neoprene < buna-S < nylon-6, 6, < polythene

(b)  Neoprene < buna-S < polythene < nylon-6, 6

(c)  Polythene < nylon-6. 6 < buna-S < neoprene

(d) Polythene < buna-S < nylon-6, 6 < neoprene

Answer: (b)

102. The product of electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution on anode and cathode respectively is

(a)  H2 and Cl2

(b)  Cl2 and H2

(c)  Na and Cl2

(d) Na and O2

Answer: (a)

103. In adiabatic conditions, 2 mole of CO2 gas at 300 K is expanded such that its volume becomes 27 times. Then , the work done is (CV = 6 cal mol1 and γ = 1.33)

(a)  1400 cal

(b)  1000 cal

(c)  900 cal

(d) 1200 cal

Answer: (d)

104. The compounds and are distinguished by

(a)  C6H5SO2Cl and OH in H2O

(b)  AgNO3 in H2O

(c)  dilute HCl

(d) HNO2 and β-naphthol

Answer: (d)

105. Alkali metals readily dissolved in liquid ammonia to give blue coloured solutions. The blue colour is believed to be due to

(a)  ammoniated cations

(b)  ammoniated anions

(c)  ammoniated electrons

(d) ammoniated cations and ammoniated electrons

Answer: (c)


What is the product ‘P’ is the above reaction?

(a)  Methyl ethanoate

(b)  Ethenoic acid

(c)  Propanal

(d) Methyl proppanoate

Answer: (a)

107. If osmotic pressure of 4% (w/v) solution of sucrose is same as 2% (w/v) solution of ‘X’, then the molecular mass of X (g/mol) is

(a)  171

(b)  205.2

(c)  570

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

108. Which of the following is disproportionation reaction?

(a)  CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

(b)  CH4 + 4Cl2 → CCl4 + 4HCl

(c)  2F2 + 2OH → 2F + OF2 + H2O

(d) 2NO2 + 2OH → NO2 + NO3 + H2O

Answer: (d)

109. Among the following the suitable reagent for Wurtz reaction is

(a)  Na/alcohol

(b)  Na/ether

(c)  Zn/ether

(d) Zn/alcohol

Answer: (b)

110. Which type of drugs come under anti-microbial drugs?

(a)  Antiseptics, antacids, antithista mines

(b)  Tranquilizers, antiseptics, antifertility

(c)  Tranquilizers, analgesics, antiseptics

(d) Antiseptics, antibiotics, disinfectants

Answer: (d)

111. Which of the following pair behaves as strong and weak base hydride respectively NH3, PH3, AsH3, SbH, BiH3

(a)  NH3, PH3

(b)  NH3, BiH3

(c)  PH3, BiH3

(d) BiH3, AsH3

Answer: (b)

112. Among the following the correct formula of Marshall’s acid is

(a)  H2S2O6

(b)  H2S2O8

(c)  H2SO4

(d) H2SO5

Answer: (b)

113. When hydrogen peroxide is added to acidified solution of dichromate Cr2O72, a deep blue coloured complex of chromic peroxide CrO5 is formed. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is

(a)  +5

(b)  +3

(c)  +6

(d) −10

Answer: (c)

114. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH followed by acidification, salicylaldehyde is obtained. Which of the following species is involved in the above mentioned reaction as intermediates?





Answer: (a)

115. Which of the following is the correct sequence of step involved in the mechanism of Cannizzaro reaction?

(a)  Nucleophilic attack, transfer of H and transfer of H+

(b)  Transfer of H, transfer of H+ and nucleophilic attack

(c)  Transfer of H+, nucleophilic attack and transfer of H

(d) Electrophilic attack by OH, transfer of H+ and transfer of H

Answer: (a)


What is the product is the above reacton?





Answer: (d)

117. Red blood cells are placed in a solution and neither a haemolysis nor crenation occurs. Therefore, the solution is

(a)  hypertonic

(b)  hypotonic

(c)  isotonic

(d) isotopic

Answer: (c)

118. If M is element of actinoids series, the degree of complex formation decreases in the order

(a)  M4+ > M3+ > MO22+ > MO2+

(b)  M4+ > MO22+ > M3+ > MO2+

(c)  MO2+ > MO22+ > M3+ > M4+

(d) MO22+ > MO2+ > M4+ > M3+

Answer: (b)

119. A chemical reaction was carried out at 300 K and 280 K. The rate constant were found to be k1 and k2 respectively, then

(a)  k2 = 4k1

(b)  k2 = 0.25 k1

(c)  k2 = 2k1

(d) k2 = 0.5k1

Answer: (b)

120. Which of the following compound can exhibit tautomerism?





Answer: (b)


121. Which of the following is not a derivative of cholesterol?

(a)  Vitamin-B

(b)  Vitamin-D

(c)  Bile salts

(d) Steroid

Answer: (a)

122. Shape of chloroplast of Ulothrix is

(a)  star-shaped

(b)  band-shaped

(c)  girdle-shaped

(d) spinal-shaped

Answer: (c)

123. What is the function of Kupffer’s cells?

(a)  Bile secretion

(b)  Digestion of lipid

(c)  Phagocytosis

(d) Digestion of protein

Answer: (c)

124. Which one is an anti-allergic antibody?

(a)  IgA

(b)  IgG

(c)  IgE

(d) IgD

Answer: (c)

125. Loss of water from body occurs by all of the following except

(a)  muscles

(b)  lungs

(c)  kidney

(d) skin

Answer: (a)

126. Pollenkitt is present in

(a)  anemophily

(b)  entomophily

(c)  malacophily

(d) zophily

Answer: (b)

127. Which motile-stage of p rotozoans is helpful in feeding?

(a)  Pseudopodium

(b)  Cilia

(c)  Flagella

(d) Tentacles

Answer: (a)

128. Function of hypothalamus is

(a)  themoregulation

(b)  water balance

(c)  control of hormone function

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

129. Inhibin is composed of

(a)  glycoprotein

(b)  lipoprotein

(c)  steroid

(d) amino acid derivative

Answer: (a)

130. What is ribotide?

(a)  Ribose + Uracil + Phosphate

(b)  Deoxyribose + Uracil + Phosphate

(c)  Deoxyribose + Thymine + Phosphate

(d) Ribose + Thymine + Phosphate

Answer: (a)

131. How many molecules of pyruvic acid are formed in glycolysis?

(a)  2

(b)  1

(c)  15

(d) 16

Answer: (a)

132. Molecular formula of chlorophyll-b is

(a)  C55H70O6N4Mg

(b)  C55H72O5N4Mg

(c)  C55H70O5N4Mg

(d) C54H70O6N4Mg

Answer: (a)

133. Non-essential amino acid is

(a)  valine

(b)  arginine

(c)  histidine

(d) lysine

Answer: (b)

134. Non-disjunction in meiosis results in

(a)  trisomy

(b)  normal diploid

(c)  gene mutation

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

135. Caryopsis is present in

(a)  wheat

(b)  groundnut

(c)  coconut

(d) mango

Answer: (a)

136. AB blood group shows

(a)  codominance

(b)  incomplete dominance

(c)  polygenic inheritance

(d) pleiotropy

Answer: (a)

137. What is the symmetry of medusa?

(a)  Bilateral

(b)  Radial

(c)  Asymmetrical

(d) Biradial

Answer: (b)

138. Which one is parasitic alga?

(a)  Oedogonium

(b)  Cephaleuros

(c)  Spirogyra

(d) Cladophora

Answer: (b)

139. RQ of malic acid is

(a)  1.9

(b)  1.49

(c)  1.33

(d) 1

Answer: (c)

140. Which one is present in the urine of pregnant woman?

(a)  hCG

(b)  LH

(c)  Oestrogen

(d) FSH

Answer: (a)


Above diagram represents

(a)  anaphase-I

(b)  metaphase-I

(c)  telophase-I

(d) prophase-I

Answer: (a)

142. Histamine is secreted by

(a)  mast cells

(b)  Kupffer’s cells

(c)  oxyntic cells

(d) neutrophils

Answer: (a)

143. Peyer’s patches are present in

(a)  ileum

(b)  jejunum

(c)  duodenum

(d) sacculus rotandous

Answer: (a)

144. The correct sequence is

(a)  Zygota → Cleavage → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula

(b)  Cleavage → Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula

(c)  Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Cleavage → Gastrula

(d) Zygote → Blastula → Morula → Cleavage → Gastrula

Answer: (a)

145. Purkinje’s fibres are found in

(a)  heart

(b)  liver

(c)  brain

(d) lungs

Answer: (a)

146. Gene transfer is present in

(a)  biolistics

(b)  hybridisation

(c)  tissue culture

(d) vegetative propagation

Answer: (a)

147. Which one is used in tissue culture?

(a)  Explant

(b)  Somaclones

(c)  Hybridization

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

148. What is common between a eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella?

(a)  Same structure

(b)  Both are used for locomotion

(c)  Composed of same proteins

(d) Both are extension of cell membrane

Answer: (b)

149. Heterotrichous thallus is shown by which organism?

(a)  Chlamydomonas

(b)  Ectocarpus

(c)  Spirogyra

(d) Volvax

Answer: (b)

150. What is acrosomal reaction?

(a)  Contact of sperms with eggs

(b)  Digestion of zona pellucida

(c)  Disintegration of acrosome

(d) Contact of acrosome and nucleus of egg

Answer: (b)

151. Daily requirement of vitamin-A for adult women is

(a)  500 micrograms

(b)  700 micrograms

(c)  900 micrograms

(d) 300 micrograms

Answer: (b)

152. Which of these is incorrect for C4-plants?

(a)  Kranz anatomy

(b)  CO2 acceptor is PEP

(c)  PEPCase in mesophyll

(d) RuBisCO in mesophyll

Answer: (d)

153. Rouleaux formation is related to which of the cell/tissue?

(a)  RBCs

(b)  WBCs

(c)  Platelets

(d) Monocytes

Answer: (a)

154. Which of the following is not a plant growth inhibitor?

(a)  Dormin

(b)  IAA

(c)  Ethylene

(d) ABA

Answer: (b)

155. What is the RQ of glucose?

(a)  One

(b)  Less than one

(c)  More than one

(d) Infinite

Answer: (a)

156. Brunner’s gland is located in

(a)  duodenum

(b)  jejunum

(c)  ileum

(d) stomach

Answer: (a)

157. Perianth is found in which family?

(a)  Cruciferae

(b)  Solanaceae

(c)  Liliaceae

(d) Malvaceae

Answer: (c)

158. Which trait is shown by given pedigree analysis?

(a)  Autosomal dominant

(b)  X-Linked dominant

(c)  Autosomal recessive

(d) X-Linked recessive

Answer: (a)

159. Which of the following is involved in passive immunity?

(a)  IgA

(b)  IgE

(c)  IgM

(d) IgD

Answer: (a)

160. Fimbraie are associated with which organ?

(a)  Fallopian tube

(b)  Uterus

(c)  Vagina

(d) Ovary

Answer: (a)

161. Linker-DNA is attached to

(a)  H1

(b)  H2A

(c)  H2B

(d) H3

Answer: (a)

162. To which of the following, repressor protein is attached?

(a)  Operator

(b)  Inducer

(c)  Promoter

(d) Structural gene

Answer: (a)

163. Palmella stage is present in

(a)  Aspergillus

(b)  Cystopus

(c)  Chlamydomonas

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

164. Formation of corpus luteum is induced by

(a)  LH

(b)  Oestrogen

(c)  FSH

(d) Progesterone

Answer: (a)

165. Cell wall of fungi is composed of

(a)  chitin

(b)  pectin

(c)  cellulose

(d) mannans

Answer: (a)

166. Which of the following mRNA can be transcripted as

(a)  AUG, UGA, UUU

(b)  UAA, UAV, UGG

(c)  UAG, UGA, UUV


Answer: (a)

167. Which is incorrect with reference to chloroplast?

(a)  Presence in algae and plants

(b)  Releases O2

(c)  Occurs only in cells with aerobic respiration

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

168. Proteins are needed in diet because

(a)  all amino acids are not available in body

(b)  during fasting, body utilizes proteins

(c)  proteins act as building blocks of our body.

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

169. Which of the following pituitary hormones works indirectly?

(a)  MSH

(b)  TSH

(c)  GH

(d) Oxytocin

Answer: (b)

170. XYZ → composition

(a)  Super female

(b)  Hermaphrodite

(c)  Male

(d) Super male

Answer: (d)

171. Which is present at 5’ end of eukaryotic mRNA?

(a)  Poly-A tail

(b)  Modified C at 5’

(c)  7 mG

(d) Poly-C

Answer: (c)

172. Conditions required for cyclic photophosphorylation are

(a)  aerobic condition, low light intensity

(b)  aerobic, condition, optimum light intensity

(c)  anaerobic condition, low light intensity

(d) anaerobic condition, optimum light intensity

Answer: (b)

173. What is/are is the function(s) of calcium?

(a)  Blood clotting

(b)  Muscular contraction

(c)  Nerve conduction

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

174. What is the role of sterol in cell membrane?

(a)  Stability

(b)  Communication with other cells

(c)  Secretion

(d) Transport

Answer: (a)

175. Where is sacculus rotandus located?

(a)  Between duodenum and jejunum

(b)  Between ileum and caecum

(c)  Caecum and colon

(d) Colon and rectum

Answer: (b)


Above diagram represents

(a)  metaphase-I

(b)  anaphase-I

(c)  metaphase-II

(d) anaphase-II

Answer: (a)

177. Omega 3 fatty acid is present in

(a)  sunflower oil

(b)  flax seed oil

(c)  groundnut oil

(d) butter

Answer: (b)

178. Which is the 21st amino acid?

(a)  Pyrrolysine

(b)  Selenocysteine

(c)  Cystine

(d) Histidine

Answer: (b)

179. What is incorrect about inhibin?

(a)  It is a lipoprotein

(b)  Decreases FSH secretion

(c)  Molecular weight is between 10k-30k Dalton

(d) Secreted by Sertoli cells

Answer: (a)

180. Eyespot is seen in

(a)  Chlamydomonas

(b)  Ulothrix

(c)  Spirogyra

(d) Polysiphonia

Answer: (a)

English and Quantitative Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 181-183) Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

181. He used to regale us with antedotes.

(a)  box

(b)  flatter

(c)  entertain

(d) tire

Answer: (c)

182. Millionaires become accentric in their old age.

(a)  irritable

(b)  peculiar

(c)  dull

(d) miserly

Answer: (b)

183. The date complied by the organization was very useful.

(a)  analysed

(b)  enclosed

(c)  collected

(d) published

Answer: (c)

Direction (Q. Nos. 184-186) Fill in the blanks.

184. Some regions of our country still remain ….. to the average man.

(a)  inaccessible

(b)  impossible

(c)  impermeable

(d) invincible

Answer: (a)

185. The employees are entitled to ………. dividends from the annual surplus.

(a)  submit

(b)  deposit

(c)  dedcut

(d) receive

Answer: (d)

186. His arrogance is preceeded only by his ……… ignorance.

(a)  eternal

(b)  abysmal

(c)  meteoric

(d) diabolic

Answer: (b)

Direction (Q. Nos. 187-190) Choose the word which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

187. The treaty was ratified by the heads of states.

(a)  set aside

(b)  unsettled

(c)  destroyed

(d) annulled

Answer: (d)

188. Many people try to resist reforms in the society.

(a)  repel

(b)  welcome

(c)  accept

(d) fight

Answer: (b)

189. He was always prepared to refute the idea.

(a)  agree

(b)  subscribe

(c)  recommend

(d) endorse

Answer: (d)

190. We should not belittle others achievements.

(a)  recommend

(b)  preuse

(c)  encourage

(d) inspire

Answer: (c)

191. If GOODNESS is coded as HNPCODTR, then how GREATNESS can be written in that code?





Answer: (d)

192. Find the missing number in the series given below

40, 30, 22, 16, ?

(a)  10

(b)  12

(c)  15

(d) 17

Answer: (b)

193. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the series given below?

P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ?

(a)  Y17O

(b)  X16M

(c)  X17O

(d) X16O

Answer: (c)

194. Find the missing number in the following figure.

(a)  13

(b)  15

(c)  17

(d) 19

Answer: (b)

195. There are 25 boys in a horizontal row. Rahul was shifted by three laces towards his right side and he occupies the middle position in the row. What was his original position from the left end of the row?

(a)  15th

(b)  16th

(c)  12th

(d) 10h

Answer: (d)

196. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather.” How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?

(a)  Mother

(b)  AUnt

(c)  Sister

(d) Daughter

Answer: (c)

197. Five villages P, Q, R, S and T situated close to each other. P is to the West of Q, R is to the South of P, T is to the North of Q and S is to the East of T. Then, in which direction R is with respect to S?

(a)  North-West

(b)  South-East

(c)  South-West

(d) Data inadequate

Answer: (c)

198. If the day after tomorrow is a Sunday, what was it day before yesterday?

(a)  Wednesday

(b)  Thursday

(c)  Friday

(d) Saturday

Answer: (a)

199. Four positions of a dice given below. Identify the number at the bottom when top is 6.

(a)  1

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d) 5

Answer: (a)

200. Choose the figure from the given answer figures that will complete the pattern of the given problem figure.

Answer: (a)


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