Medical PG Dermatology

Medical Pg Dermatology

1. Primary bullous lesions is seen in which type of syphilis

(A)   Primary

(B)   Secondary

(C)   Tertiary

(D)   Congential

Answer: (D)

2. Bubos with multiple sinuses discharging into inguinal lymph nodes are seen in

(A)   Chancroid

(B)   Granuloma Inguinale

(C)   LGV

(D)   Syphilis

Answer: (C)

3. Treatment of choice in nodulo cystic acne is

(A)   Systemic Steroids

(B)   Retinoic acid

(C)   Benzoyl Peroxide

(D)   Estrogen

Answer: (B)

4. Treatment of choice in Pustuar psoriasis

(A)   Psorialin + uv therapy

(B)   Systematic steroid

(C)   Methotrexate

(D)   Estrogen

Answer: (C)

5. Treatment of Acute neuritis in Lepra I reaction is A/E

(A)   Dapsone

(B)   Steriod

(C)   Thalidomide

(D)   Incision and Drainage

Answer: (C)

6. Multidrug therapy is given for

(A)   Syphilis

(B)   leprosy

(C)   Herpetiformis

(D)   Icthyosis Vulgaris

Answer: (B)

7. Drug induced pemphigus is seen in A/E

(A)   Penicillin

(B)   Phenopthelein

(C)   Iodine

(D)   Frusemide

Answer: (D)

8. Mouth Lesion are seen in

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Lichen Planus

(C)   Basal Cell CA

(D)   Icthyosis Vulgaris

Answer: (B)

9. Drug of choice in type I Lepra reaction with severe neuritis

(A)   Thalidomide

(B)   Clofazimine

(C)   Dapsone

(D)   Systemic Corticosteriod

Answer: (D)

10. Tinea ungium effects

(A)   Nail fold

(B)   Nail plate

(C)   Joints

(D)   Inter digital space

Answer: (B)

11. Fordyce spots are

(A)   Ectopic sebaceous glands

(B)   Ectopic eccrine glands

(C)   Ectopic apocrine glands

(D)   Ectopic mucosal glands

Answer: (A)

12. Flaky paint appearance of skin is seen in

(A)   Dermatitis

(B)   Pellagra

(C)   Marasmus

(D)   Kwashiorkar

Answer: (D)

13. Acantholysis is seen in

(A)   Epidermis

(B)   Epidermo-Dermal Junction

(C)   Dermis

(D)   In all the layers of Skin

Answer: (A)

14. Lymphadenopathy is seen is A/E

(A)   Syphils 1st Stage

(B)   Donovanosis

(C)   LGV

(D)   Chancroid

Answer: (B)

15. Pseudo bubo is seen in

(A)   Donovanosis

(B)   LGV

(C)   Chancroid

(D)   Syphilis

Answer: (A)

16. Frie test is done in

(A)   Donovanosis

(B)   LGV

(C)   Syphilis

(D)   Leprosy

Answer: (B)

17. Discharging sinus is seen in

(A)   Syphilis

(B)   Herpes

(C)   Actinomycosis

(D)   Molluscum Contagiosum

Answer: (C)

18. WHO regime for paucibacillary leprosya

(A)   100 mg Daposone daily + Rifampicin monthly (600 mg)

(B)   Dapsone daily + Rifampicin daily

(C)   Dapsone + Rifampcin + Clofazemine daily

(D)   Rifampcin + Clofazamine daily

Answer: (A)

19. Skin pigmentation & Icthyosis like side effects are seen in

(A)   Rifampcin

(B)   Clofazimine

(C)   Dapsone

(D)   Steroid

Answer: (B)

20. A patient has Bullous Lesion; on Tzank smear

(A)   langerhans cells are seen

(B)   Acontholysis

(C)   leucocytosis

(D)   Absens of melanin pigment

Answer: (B)

21. Gonococcus resistant structure is

(A)   Urethra

(B)   Testis

(C)   Fallopian Tube

(D)   Ampulla

Answer: (B)

22. Underlying internal malignancy is not shown by

(A)   Acanthosis nigricans & Annular ertythema

(B)   Bullous pyoderma & migratory nectrotizing

(C)   Granuloma annlure

(D)   Erythema gyratum repens

Answer: (C)

23. All of the following diseases may be caused by staphylococcus except :

(A)   Impetigo

(B)   Erysipelas

(C)   Ecthyma

(D)   Scalded skin syndrome

Answer: (B)

24. Donovanosis is caused by :

(A)   Calymmatobacterium granulomatosis

(B)   T. pertunae

(C)   Chalmydia trachomatis

(D)   Haemophillus-ducreyi

Answer: (A)

25. Skin biopsy in leprosy is characterized by :

(A)   Pariappendegeal bacilli

(B)   Pariappendegeal Iymphocytosis

(C)   Perivascular lymphocytosis

(D)   Any of the above

Answer: (D)

26. Skin smear reports negative following pattern of leprosy

(A)   Indeterminate leprosy

(B)   Neuritic type leprosy

(C)   Lepromatous leprosy

(D)   Border line leprosy

Answer: (B)

27.All of the following lesions may be seen in leprosy except :

(A)   Erythematous macules

(B)   Vesicles

(C)   Hypopigemented patches

(D)   Flat & raised patches

Answer: (B)

28. A 25 year old female has paltal ulcers & skin blisters, most likely diagnosis is : E:

(A)   Pemphigus vulgarisis

(B)   Pemphigus follacious

(C)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

(D)   Pemphigoid

Answer: (A)

29. Target (Iris) lesion seen in :

(A)   Urticaria

(B)   Erythema multiformae

(C)   Scabies

(D)   Licken planus

Answer: (B)

30. A child has hypopigmented patch on the check and no sensory loss & no scale diagnosis is :

(A)   Indeterminate leprosy

(B)   Scabies

(C)   Pityriasis alba

(D)   Alopecia aeriata

Answer: (A)

31. Itchy polygonal violaceous papularlesion is seen in :

(A)   Lichen planus

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Pitriasis rosea

(D)   Pitriasis rubra pilaris

Answer: (A)

32. Least common site involvement in psoriasis is

(A)   Scalp

(B)   Nail involvement

(C)   CNS involvement

(D)   Arthritis

Answer: (C)

33. Gonococcus is not involved in :

(A)   Testis

(B)   Fallopian tube

(C)   Cervix

(D)   Ovary

Answer: (A)

34. All of the following are true about syphilis except :

(A)   VDRL is sensistive but NOT specific

(B)   Infection leads to life long immunity

(C)   Ig M & IgA

(D)   Both b and c

Answer: (D)

35. Commonest cause of air born dermatitis in India is :

(A)   Parthenium

(B)   Crysophillous

(C)   Calotropis

(D)   Rothrangal

Answer: (A)

36. Patch test is read after :

(A)   2 hours

(B)   2 days

(C)   2 weeks

(D)   4 weeks

Answer: (B)

37. Atopic dermatitis is diagnosed by :

(A)   Patch test

(B)   Clinical examination

(C)   Wood’s lamp

(D)   ↑IgE

Answer: (B)

38. Cutancous tuberculous secondary to under lying tissue is called as :

(A)   Scrofuloderma

(B)   Lupus vulgaris

(C)   Tuberculous verrucosa cutis

(D)   Spina-ventosa

Answer: (A)

39. Satllite lesion are seen in the following type of leprosy :

(A)   Tuberculoid-leprosy

(B)   Lepromatous leprosy

(C)   Borderline tuberculoid leprosy

(D)   Histoid leprosy

Answer: (C)

40. Thalidomide is the drug of choice for :

(A)   Lepra type I reaction

(B)   Lepra type II reaction

(C)   Nerve abscess

(D)   Nerve-excision

Answer: (B)

41. Permethrin is used in the treatment of :

(A)   Scabies

(B)   Leprosy

(C)   Body louse

(D)   Leishmaniasis

Answer: (A)

42. Chancroid may be caused by :

(A)   T. Pallidium

(B)   G. donovari

(C)   Chlamydia trachomatis

(D)   Herpes virus – hominis

Answer: (D)

43. Cicaterical alopecia is seen in :

(A)   Taenia-capitis

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Discoid lupus erethroamatosis

(D)   Alopesia-areata

Answer: (C)

44. True about endotracheal intubation is :

(A)   It reduces the normal anatomical dead space

(B)   It produces ↓ resistance to respiration

(C)   Sub-glattic oedema is the most common complication

(D)   All of the above

Answer: (A)

45. Neither raised nor depressed is:

(A)   Macule

(B)   Plaque

(C)   Nodule

(D)   Papule

Answer: (A)

46. Most common type of leprosy in India:

(A)   BT

(B)   TT

(C)   LL

(D)   BL

Answer: (B)

47. Oral examination is done in case of:

(A)   Peutz jegher syndrome

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Beri-beri

(D)   Plummer Vinson syndrome

Answer: (A)

48. Genetic predisposition is seen in which disease:

(A)   Lichen planus

(B)   Bullous pemphigoid

(C)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(D)   Epidermolysis Bullosa

Answer: (D)

49. Following are signs of internal malignancy except:

(A)   Tuberous sclerosis

(B)   Acanthosis nigricans

(C)   Clubbing

(D)   Dermatomyositis

Answer: (A)

50. Casal’s paint necklace is caused by:

(A)   Lichen planus

(B)   Pellagra

(C)   Pernicious anemia

(D)   SLE

Answer: (B)

51. Changes of squamous cell carcinoma are seen in:

(A)   Seborrhoeic keratosis

(B)   Bowen’s disease

(C)   Lichen planus

(D)   DLE

Answer: (B)

52. In alopecia areata, seen is:

(A)   Exclamatory mark hair

(B)   Scaring

(C)   Fungal infection

(D)   Traumatic

Answer: (A)

53. In leprosy nerves commonly involved are:

(A)   High ulnar, low median

(B)   High median, low ulnar

(C)   Triple nerve palsy

(D)   High radial, low median

Answer: (A)

54. Growth phase of hair is:

(A)   Anagen

(B)   Metagen

(C)   Telogen

(D)   None

Answer: (A)

55. Linear lesion is seen in:

(A)   Sporotrichosis

(B)   Lichen planus

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   Pemphigus

Answer: (A)

56. In Tzank smear multinucleated cells are seen in:

(A)   Chicken pox

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Molluscum contagiosum

(D)   Pemphigus vulgaris

Answer: (A)

57. Jarish herxheimer reaction is seen in early cases of :

(A)   Syphilis

(B)   Gonorrhoea

(C)   LGV

(D)   Granuloma iguinale

Answer: (A)

58. In secondary syphilis all are seen except :

(A)   Condyloma lata

(B)   Interstitial keratitis

(C)   Arthritis

(D)   Proteinuria

Answer: (B)

59. Most characteristic feature of lichen planus is :

(A)   Thinning of nail plate is most common

(B)   Non scarring alopecia

(C)   Violaceous lesions on skin and mucous membrane

(D)   Wickham striae

Answer: (C)

60. syphilis, true about rash is :

(A)   Pruritic

(B)   Vesicular

(C)   Asymptomatic

(D)   Tender

Answer: (C)

61. Leprosy does not involves:

(A)   CNS

(B)   Testes

(C)   Skin

(D)   Cornea

Answer: (A)

62. The most characteristic finding in lichen planus is :

(A)   Civatte bodies

(B)   Basal cell degeneration

(C)   Thinning of nail plate

(D)   Violaceous lesions

Answer: (B)

63. Sub-epidemal splitting is not found in :

(A)   Bullous pemphigoid

(B)   Pemphigus

(C)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

(D)   Burns

Answer: (B)

64. Lisch nodule is seen in :

(A)   Von Recklinghausens disease

(B)   Lupus vulgaris

(C)   Leprosy

(D)   LGV

Answer: (A)

65. Koebner’s phenomenon is characteristic of :

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(C)   Pityriasis rosea

(D)   Lupus vulgaris

Answer: (A)

66. Erysipeloid is transmitted by :

(A)   Droplet

(B)   Feco-oral

(C)   Mosquito bite

(D)   Contact with animal

Answer: (D)

67. In leprosy which of the following is not seen :

(A)   Abnormal EMG

(B)   Voluntary muscle wasting

(C)   Decreased Proprioception

(D)   Decreased response to tactile sensation

Answer: (C)

68. A 85 yr old woman with Nikolsky sign-ve, blisters on thigh & trunk, lesions come on & off. What is the cause :

(A)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(B)   Pemphigoid

(C)   Lichen planus

(D)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

Answer: (B)

69. In pemphigus vulgaris, antibodies are present against :

(A)   Basement membrane

(B)   Intercellular substance

(C)   Cell nucleus

(D)   Keratin

Answer: (B)

70. Causative factor for acne are following except :

(A)   Androgen

(B)   Only food

(C)   Bacterial contamination

(D)   Hypercornification of duct

Answer: (B)

71. True about drug induced SLE is :

(A)   CNS manifestation are common

(B)   Renal involvement is common

(C)   Antihistone antibodies are found

(D)   All with antibodies progress to lupus

Answer: (C)

72. Eczema herpeticum is caused by :

(A)   Herpes simplex virus

(B)   Varicella

(C)   CMV

(D)   HPV

Answer: (A)

73. Which of the following statements is true regarding Pityriasis Rubra Pilaris :

(A)   Isolated patches of normal skin are found

(B)   Cephalocaudal distribution

(C)   I.V. cyclosporine is effective

(D)   More common in females

Answer: (A)

74. Basal cell degeneration seen in :

(A)   Lichen planus

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Pemphigus

(D)   None

Answer: (A)

75. Recurrent Balanoposthitis seen in :

(A)   DM

(B)   Herpes simplex

(C)   Smoking

(D)   Alcohol

Answer: (A)

76. True about corneum lucidum:

(A)   Sadwithched b/w s. spinosum& s. granulosum

(B)   Sandwitched b/w s. conrneum& s. granulosum

(C)   Contain hair follicle

(D)   Also K/a prickle cell layer

(E)    Contain degenerated cells

Answer: (B, E)

77. All statements are true regarding skin except

(A)   Skin is stratified squamous epithelium

(B)   Melanocyte &merkel cells are immigrant cells

(C)   Keratin filaments are a hall m ark of epidermal cells

(D)   Keratinization process cause hydration of cells

(E)    Spines of spinous cells are formed from house keeping organelle.

Answer: (D, E)

78. Which layer of epidermis is underdeveloped in the VLBW infants in the initial 7 days:

(A)   Stratum germinativum

(B)   Stratum granulosum

(C)   Stratum lucidum

(D)   Stratum corneum

Answer: (D)

79. Normal turnover time of epidermis (skin doubling time) is

(A)   2 weeks

(B)   4 weeks

(C)   6 weeks

(D)   8 weeks.

Answer: (B)

80. Melanocytes are present in :

(A)   Stratum corneum

(B)   Stratum basale

(C)   Stratum granulosum

(D)   Dermis

Answer: (B)

81. The correct sequence of cell cycle is:

(A)   G0-G1-S-G2-M

(B)   G0-G1-G2-S-M

(C)   G0-M-G2-S-G1

(D)   G0-G1-S-M-G2

Answer: (A)

82. Lines of Blaschko represents:

(A)   lines along lymphatics

(B)   Lines along blood vessels

(C)   Lines along nerves

(D)   Lines of development

Answer: (D)

83. Neither raised nor depressed is

(A)   Macule

(B)   Plaque

(C)   Nodule

(D)   Papule

Answer: (A)

84. A flat discolouration on skin as 1 cm is called :

(A)   Macule

(B)   Plague

(C)   Boil

(D)   Papule

(E)    Wheal

Answer: (A)

85. Which among is not a primary skin lesion of :

(A)   Plaque

(B)   Macule

(C)   Abscess

(D)   None

Answer: (C)

86. Acne vulgaris is caused by-

(A)   Staph aureus

(B)   Diphtheroids

(C)   Sweat gland hyperplasia

(D)   Obstruction to pilosebaceous duct

Answer: (D)

87. Causative factor for acne are all except:

(A)   Androgen

(B)   Only food

(C)   Bacterial contamination

(D)   Hypercornification of duct

(E)    Lipophilic yeast

Answer: (B)

88. Causative factor for acne are following except

(A)   Androgen

(B)   Only food

(C)   Keratin

(D)   Cell nucleus

Answer: (B)

89. Comedones are characteristics of –

(A)   Acne vulgaris

(B)   Acne rosasea

(C)   SLE

(D)   Adenoma sebaeceum

Answer: (A)

90. 19 years old girl has multiple papulopustular erythematous lesions on face and neck, the likely diagnosis is

(A)   Acne rosacae

(B)   Acne Vulgaris

(C)   PityriasisVersicolour

(D)   Lupus Vulgaris

Answer: (B)

91. Treatment of acne –

(A)   13 cisretionol

(B)   Minocycline/Tetracycline

(C)   Erythromycin

(D)   Dapsone

(E)    Rifampicin

Answer: (A, B, C)

92. Treatment of acne vulgaris may include all except-

(A)   Cryotherapy

(B)   Oestrogens

(C)   UV light

(D)   Androgens

Answer: (D)

93. A patient presented with multiple nodulocystic lesions on the face. The drug of choice is :

(A)   Retinoids

(B)   Antibiotics

(C)   Steroids

(D)   UV light

Answer: (A)

94. Treatment of nodulocystic acne is

(A)   Erythromycin

(B)   Tetracycline

(C)   Isoretinonine (Retinoic acid)

(D)   Steroids

Answer: (C)

95. Recalcitrant Pustular Acne is treated by

(A)   Oral Erythromycin

(B)   Oral Tetracycline

(C)   Steroid

(D)   Retinoid

Answer: (D)

96. Treatment of choice for Acne vulgaris

(A)   Minocycline for inflammatory acne

(B)   Retinoids for comedonal acne

(C)   Etretinate

(D)   Rifampicin

(E)    Dapsone

Answer: (A, B)

97. A 24- year-old unmarried women has multiple nodular cystic, pustular and comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of choice for her treatment would be :

(A)   Acitretin

(B)   Isotretinoin

(C)   Doxycycline

(D)   Azithromycin

Answer: (B)

98. Most common side effects of retinoids is

(A)   Headache

(B)   Skin rashes

(C)   Photosensitivity

(D)   Diarrhoea

Answer: (B)

99. A teenager girl with moderate acne is also complaining of irregular menses. Drug of choice will be :

(A)   Oral isotretinon

(B)   Oral acitretin

(C)   Oral minocycline

(D)   Cyproterone acetate

Answer: (D)

100. A 17 year old girl with Acne has been taking a drug fro the last two years. Show now presents with blue black pigmentation of nails. The likely medication causing the above pigmentation is

(A)   Tetracycline

(B)   Minocycline

(C)   Doxycycline

(D)   Azithromycin

Answer: (B)

101. Acne vulgaris is due to involvement of:

(A)   Sebaceous glands

(B)   Eccrine glands

(C)   Pilosebaceous glands

(D)   Apocrine glands

(E)    Sweat glands

Answer: (C)

102. Regarding Fordyce spots:

(A)   Represent internal maliganancy

(B)   Ectopic sebaceous glands

(C)   Present in axillae

(D)   Found in healthy people

(E)    Area erythematous

Answer: (B, D)

103. Fordyce’s disease mainly involves :

(A)   Lips

(B)   Buccal mucosa

(C)   Neck

(D)   Trunk

Answer: (A)

104. Rhinophyma is (a complication of) –

(A)   Glandular form of acne rosacea

(B)   Form of acne vulgaris

(C)   Affects the scalp

(D)   A form of dermatofibroma

Answer: (A)

105. Rhnopyma is (Potate nose) –

(A)   Septal deviation of nose

(B)   Sweat gland hypertrophy

(C)   Mucous gland hypertrophy

(D)   Sebaceous gland hypertrophy

Answer: (D)

106. A 40 year old woman presents with a 2 year old h/o erythematous papulopustular lesions on convexities of the face. There in a background of erytherma&telengiec-tasia. The most likely diagnosis is :

(A)   Acne valgris

(B)   Rosacea

(C)   SLE

(D)   Polymorphic light eruption

Answer: (B)

107. Sweat glands of palm can be differentiated from others by the following:

(A)   Apocrine glands

(B)   High chloride content

(C)   Secretion stimulated by emotional stimuli

(D)   Chemical mediators control the secretion.

Answer: (C)

108. All are false except

(A)   Sweat glands are most numerous on back & least on sole

(B)   Palm & sole sweat glands are last to appear

(C)   Sweat duct produce isotonic sweat

(D)   Hypothalmicpreoptic nucleus has key role in sweating

(E)    Gonadectomy of adults impair apocrine sweat secretion.

Answer: (D)

109. True about apocrine gland is A/E

(A)   Modified sweat gland

(B)   Modified sebaceous gland

(C)   Preset in groin & axilla

(D)   Infection is k/a hydrdenitis suppurativa

Answer: (B)

110. Bromhidrosis may be produced by intake of the following except:

(A)   Asafoetida

(B)   Ginger

(C)   Onions

(D)   Garlic

Answer: (B)

111. Crystalinemiliaria is due to obstruction to-

(A)   Sebaceous glands

(B)   Sweat glands

(C)   Hair roots

(D)   Accessory sweat glands

Answer: (B)

112. Miliaria is a disorder of :

(A)   Sebaceous glands

(B)   Apocrine glands

(C)   Merocrine glands

(D)   Holocrine Glands

(E)    Eccrine Glands

Answer: (E)

113. In Fox Fordyce disease, true is/are:

(A)   Common in adult woman

(B)   Bullous lesions are common

(C)   Common in areola & axilla

(D)   Associated with other malignancies

Answer: (A)

114. Anagen phase of the hair indicates :

(A)   The phase of activity and growth

(B)   The phase of transition

(C)   The phase of resting

(D)   The phase of degeneration

Answer: (A)

115. Growth phase of hair is

(A)   Anagen

(B)   Metagen

(C)   Telogen

(D)   None

Answer: (A)

116. The time period that elapses between the physic emotional stress and the hair loss is about-

(A)   21 days

(B)   30 days

(C)   3 months

(D)   6 months

Answer: (C)

117. A female patient presents with diffuse alopecia to you. She had suffered from typhoid fever 4 months back. Most probable diagnosis is :

(A)   Androgenetic alopecia

(B)   Telogen effluvium

(C)   Anagen effluvium

(D)   Alopecia areata

Answer: (B)

118. A 30 year old female developed diffuse hair loss 3 months after delivery of her first child. The probable diagnosis is

(A)   Androgenic alopecia

(B)   Endocrinal alopecia

(C)   Telogen effluvium

(D)   SLE

Answer: (C)

119. Cicatrising alopecia with prerifollicular blue-gray patches hyperpigmentation is most commonly associated with:

(A)   Pitting of nails

(B)   Whitish lesions in the buccal mucosa

(C)   Arthritis

(D)   Discoid plaques in the face

Answer: (B)

120. Cicatrisial alopecia is seen in:

(A)   DLE

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Alopecia areata

(D)   Lichen planus

(E)    SLE

Answer: (A, D, E)

121.Cicatrial Alopecia is seen in:

(A)   TeniaCapitis

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   DLE

(D)   Alopecia Aereta

Answer: (C)

122. Pseudo pelade is synonym of-

(A)   Alopeciasteatoides

(B)   Premature alopecia

(C)   Traction

(D)   Cicatricial alopecia

Answer: (D)

123. Cicatricial alopecia is seen in:

(A)   DLE

(B)   SLE

(C)   Secondary syphilis

(D)   Psoriasis

(E)    Lichen planus

Answer: (A, B, E)

124. Scarring alopecia is seen in:

(A)   T. capitis

(B)   Androgenic alopecia

(C)   Alopecia areata

(D)   Lichen  planus

Answer: (D)

125. Non cicatrical alopecia is present in-

(A)   Scleroderma

(B)   Lichen planus

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   Parva virus

Answer: (C)

126. All of the following are causes of cicatrizing alopecia except:

(A)   Lichen planus

(B)   Discoid lupus erythematosus

(C)   Alopecia areata

(D)   Lupus vulgaris

Answer: (C)

127. Alopecia aerata is :

(A)   Cicattricial scar

(B)   Non cicatricial scar

(C)   Fungal infection

(D)   None

Answer: (B)

128. Non-circatrical alopecia is seen in

(A)   Alopecia aerate

(B)   Androgeneticalopeia

(C)   Pseudopalade

(D)   DLE

(E)    SLE

Answer: (A, B, E)

129. Alopecia aerate is presumed to be:

(A)   Androgenic in nature

(B)   Autoimmune in etiology

(C)   Infective in etiology

(D)   Part of lichenoid in spectrum

Answer: (B)

130. Exclamation mark hairs is seen in:

(A)   Alopecia areata

(B)   Traumatic alopecia

(C)   Lichen planus

(D)   All

Answer: (A)

131. In alopecia areata, seen is:

(A)   Exclamatory mark hair

(B)   Scaring

(C)   Fungal infection

(D)   Traumatic

Answer: (A)

132. Exclamation mark alopecia is a feature of:

(A)   Telogen effluvium

(B)   Androgenic alopecia

(C)   Alopecia aerata

(D)   Alopecia mucinosa

Answer: (C)

133. Male with patchy loss of scalp hair and grey hair in the eyebrows and beard diagnosis is

(A)   Anagen effluvium

(B)   Alopecia areata

(C)   Telogen effluvium

(D)   Androgenic alopecia

Answer: (B)

134. Alopecia areata is treated by-

(A)   Minoxidil

(B)   Tranquilizers

(C)   Whitfields ointment

(D)   Parenternal penicillin

Answer: (A)

135. Diagnosis of a man with diffuse hair loss involving crown & frontal scalp with maintenance of frontal hair line

(A)   Alopecia areata

(B)   Anagen effluvium

(C)   Male pattern baldness

(D)   Female pattern baldness

Answer: (D)

136. Contraindicated in Androgenic Alopecia :

(A)   Testosterone

(B)   Minoxidil

(C)   Cyproterone

(D)   Finasteride

Answer: (A)

137. Nail are involved in

(A)   Pemphigus

(B)   Pemphgoid

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   Dermatitis Herpetiformis

Answer: (C)

138. Nail is involved in:

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Lichen planus

(C)   Fungal infection

(D)   Alopecia

(E)    Viral infection

Answer: (A, B, C)

139. Nail involvement is not a feature of

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Lichenplanus

(C)   Dermatophytosis

(D)   DLE

Answer: (D)

140. Nail involvement is not a feature of

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Drug induced lupus erythematous

(C)   Dermatophytosis/Tenia

(D)   Lichen Planus

Answer: (B)

141. Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in

(A)   Lichen Planus

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Tineaunguium

(D)   Alopecia areata

Answer: (A)

142. Wrong statement is:

(A)   Mees line in Arsenic poisoning

(B)   Pterygium of nails in Lichen Planus

(C)   Oncholysis in Psoriasis

(D)   Koilonychia in Megaloblastic Anemia (B12 def.)

Answer: (D)

143. Pitting of nails is seen in:

(A)   Lichen Planus

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Phemphigus

(D)   Arsenic poisoning

(E)    Leprosy

Answer: (B)

144. Pitting nail dystrophy seen in:

(A)   Dermatophytic infection

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Lichen planus

(D)   Seborrhic dermatitis

Answer: (B)

145. Oil drop is seen in:

(A)   Psoriasis of nails

(B)   Lichen planus of nails

(C)   Clubbing

(D)   T. Unguium

Answer: (A)

146. Which of the following is wrong statements:

(A)   Koilonychia in Vit B12 deficiency

(B)   Oncholysis in Psoriasis

(C)   Mees lines in Arsenic poisoning

(D)   Pterygium of nailis in Lichen Planus

Answer: (A)

147. Koenen’speriungal fibroma is seen in

(A)   Tuberous sclerosis

(B)   Neurofibromatosis

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   Alopecia aerate

Answer: (A)

148. Tineaungum effects

(A)   Nail fold

(B)   Nail plate

(C)   Joints

(D)   Inter digital space

Answer: (B)

149. A Patient presented with yellowish discoloration and thickening of nails. He also has tunneling of 2 toe and 1 Finger nails. Diagnosis can be done by

(A)   Wood’s Lamp

(B)   KOH. Mount

(C)   Biopsy

(D)   Trank Smear

Answer: (B)

150. Hyperpigmentation is not seen in:

(A)   Addision’s disease

(B)   Cushing’s Disease

(C)   Graves Disease

(D)   Hypothyroidism (Myxedema)

Answer: (D)

151. Hyperpigmented lesions are

(A)   Pityriasisalba

(B)   Melanoma

(C)   Naevusanaemicus

(D)   Dyskeratosis congenital

(E)    Lentigines lichen planus

Answer: (B, D, E)

152. Which of the following is/are not the cause of hypopigmentation:

(A)   Leprosy

(B)   Pinta

(C)   Syphilis

(D)   Pityriasisalba

(E)    None

Answer: (E)

153. Hypopigmentation is/are seen in:

(A)   Vitiligo

(B)   Pityriasisversicolor

(C)   Lichen planus

(D)   Melasma

(E)    Scleroderma

Answer: (D)

154. Hypopigmented patches can be seen in :

(A)   Becker naevus

(B)   Freckles

(C)   Nevus Ito

(D)   Nevus Ota

(E)    Nevus anemicus

Answer: (E)

155. Hypo-depigmented lesion seen in:

(A)   Naevas Ito

(B)   Naevusdepigmentosa

(C)   Naevus Ota

(D)   Naevusanaemicus

(E)    Freckles

Answer: (B & D)

156. A newborn child presents with solitary white well defined hypopigmented patch on this right thigh. Diagnosis is:

(A)   Piebaldism

(B)   Albinism

(C)   Nevus achromicus

(D)   Acralvitiligo

Answer: (C)

157. True about vitiligo are all except

(A)   Genetic predisposition is known

(B)   Leucotrichia is associated with good prognosis

(C)   PUVA-B is used for treatment

(D)   Topical-steroids give good results.

Answer: (B)

158. An increased incidence of vitiligo is found in:

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Nutritional deficiency

(C)   Old age

(D)   Diabetes mellitus

Answer: (D)

159. In a patch of vitiligo –

(A)   Melanin synthesis is inhibited

(B)   Melanosomes are absent

(C)   Melanocytes are absent

(D)   Melanocytes are reduced

Answer: (C)

160. Psoralen-A is used in the treatment of –

(A)   Pemphigus

(B)   Vitiligo

(C)   Pityriasisalba

(D)   Icthyosis

Answer: (B)

161. Vitiligovulvaris, best treatment is :

(A)   PUVA

(B)   Steroids

(C)   Coaltar

(D)   All

Answer: (A)

162. Vitiligovulvaris, treatment is

(A)   PUVA

(B)   Steroids

(C)   Coaltar

(D)   All

Answer: (D)

163. Pityriasisrosea true

(A)   Self limiting

(B)   Chronic relapsing

(C)   Life threatening infection (autoimmune disease)

(D)   Caused by dermatophytes

Answer: (A)

164. ‘Fir-tree’ type of distribution is seen in-

(A)   PityriasisRosea

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Measles

(D)   Secondary syphilis

Answer: (A)

165. Which viral association is found in pityriasisrosea :

(A)   HHV 7

(B)   CMV

(C)   Vericella Zoster

(D)   E B V

Answer: (A)

166. Annular herald (mother) patch is seen in

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   P. alba

(C)   P. rosea

(D)   Nocardiasis

Answer: (C)

167. A 16 year old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple erythematous annular lesions with a collarette of scales at periphery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is

(A)   Pityriasisversicolor

(B)   Pityriasisalba

(C)   ityriasis rosacea

(D)   Pityriasisrubrapilaris

Answer: (C)

168. Photosensitive lichenoid drug eruption is seen in _____therapy :

(A)   Rifampicin

(B)   Tetracycline (old)

(C)   Gold

(D)   Streptomycin

Answer: (C)

169. A patient of hypertension on ACE inhibitors developed rose asking erruptions. True statement regarding this situation is

(A)   Drug may be the cause and discontinuation may improve the skin condition

(B)   High dose steroids are needed initially

(C)   ACE inhibitors are safe and cannot lead to skin erruptions.

(D)   Drug may be the cause discontinuation is not required

Answer: (A)

170. TineaVersicolour is caused by:

(A)   E. Flaccosum

(B)   Malassezia Furfur

(C)   T. rubrum

(D)   T. Schonleini

Answer: (B)

171. An adult presents with oval scaly hypopigmented macules over chest and back. The diagnosis is

(A)   Leprosy

(B)   Lupus Vulgaris

(C)   PityraisisVersicolour

(D)   Lichen Planus

Answer: (C)

172. A 24 year old man had multiple, small hypopigmented macules on the upper chest and back for the last three months. The macules were circular, arranged around follicles and many had coalesced to form large sheets. The surface of the macules showed fine scaling. He had similar lesions one year ago which subsided with treatment. The most appropriate investigation to confirm the diagnosis is;

(A)   Potassium hydroxide preparation of scales

(B)   Slit skin smear form discrete macules

(C)   Tzanck test

(D)   Skin biopsy of coalesced macules

Answer: (A)

173. All of the following is given for the treatment for Pityriasisversicoler Except:

(A)   Ketoconazole

(B)   Griseofulvin

(C)   Clotrimazole

(D)   Selenium sulphate

Answer: (B)

174. Griseofulvin is not useful in one of the following.

(A)   Tineacapitis

(B)   Tineacruris

(C)   Tineaversicolor

(D)   Tineapedis

Answer: (C)

175. Treatment of tineaversicolor –

(A)   Clotrimazole

(B)   Sod. thiosulphate

(C)   Selenium Sulphide

(D)   Miconazole

(E)    All of the above

Answer: (E)

176. The following drug is indicated in the treatment of pityriasisversicolar :

(A)   Ketoconazole

(B)   Meteronidazole

(C)   Griseofulvin

(D)   Chloroquine

Answer: (A)

177. Babloo around 5 to 10 year boy presents with multiple small hypopigmented scaly macule patch on check. Some of his classmates also have similar lesions. The most probable diagnosis is

(A)   Pityriasisrosea

(B)   Pityriasisversicolour

(C)   Indeterinate leprosy

(D)   Pityriasisalba

Answer: (D)

178. A 5 year boy has recurrent multiple asymptomatic oval and circular faintly hypopigmented macules with fine scaling on his face. The most probable clinical diagnosis is :

(A)   Ptyriaisversicolor

(B)   Indeterminate leprosy

(C)   Ptyriasisalba

(D)   Acrofacialvitiligo

Answer: (C)

179. True about pitryiasis alba :

(A)   No active treatment required

(B)   Common in elderly

(C)   Variant of vitiligo

(D)   Common over the face

(E)    Presents as scaly, whitish macules

Answer: (A, D, E)

180. Which of the following statements is true regarding PityriasisRubraPilaris :

(A)   Isolated patches of normal skin are found

(B)   Cephalocaaudal distribution

(C)   I.V. cyclosporine is effective and 1st line drug

(D)   More common in females

(E)    Methotrexate is effective

Answer: (A, B, E)

181. A boy comes from Bihar with non-anesthetic hypopigmentedatropic patch over face, diagnosis is

(A)   P. alba

(B)   P. versicolour

(C)   Indeterminate leprosy

(D)   Borderline leprosy

Answer: (C)

182. Woods lamp used in diagnosis of :

(A)   P. versicolor

(B)   Vitiligo

(C)   Prophyria

(D)   Psoriasis

(E)    Lichen Planus

Answer: (A, B, C)

183. Skin pigmentation is caused by:

(A)   Methotrexate

(B)   Dactinomycin

(C)   Cyclophosphamide

(D)   Busulphan

Answer: (D)

184. Rain drop pigmentation is seen in

(A)   Chronic lead poisoning

(B)   Chronic Arsenic poisoning

(C)   Chronic Mercury poisoning

(D)   All of the above

Answer: (B)

185. State like discoloration of the skin is caused by all these drugs except –

(A)   Chlorpromazine

(B)   Minocycline

(C)   Amiodarone

(D)   Thiacetazone

Answer: (D)

186. ‘Itch is disease’ is true for-

(A)   Atopic dermatitis

(B)   Insect bites

(C)   Seborrheic dermatitis

(D)   Tineacruris

Answer: (A)

187. Characteristic feature of atopic dermatitis is

(A)   Pruritus

(B)   Dennie’s Lines

(C)   Scalling skin (Lichenification)

(D)   Rash

Answer: (A)

188. Minor clinical feature in diagnosis of atopic dermatitis A/E-

(A)   Dry skin

(B)   Pruritus

(C)   Morgagnianfold

(D)   Pitriasisalba

(E)    Dermographism

Answer: (B)

189. Dennie Morgan fold is seen in –

(A)   Mastocytosis

(B)   Seborrhoic dermatitis

(C)   Sarcoidosis

(D)   Atopic dermatitis

Answer: (D)

190. Commonest site of Atopic dermatitis is-

(A)   Scalp

(B)   Elbow

(C)   Trunk

(D)   Ante cubital fossa

Answer: (D)

191. Spongiosis is seen in :

(A)   Acute eczema

(B)   Lichen Planus

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   Pemphigus

Answer: (A)

192. Atopic Dermatitis is diagnosed by:

(A)   Patch test

(B)   Wood Lamp

(C)   Clinical Examination

(D)   -IgE

Answer: (C)

193. A 3yr old child has eczematous dermatitis on extensor surfaces. His mother has a history of bronchial asthma. Diagnosis could be

(A)   Atopic dermatitis

(B)   Contact dermatitis

(C)   Seborrhic dermatitis

(D)   Infantile eczematous dermatitis

Answer: (A)

194. An infant presented with erythematous lesions on cheek, extensor aspect of limbs, mother has history of bronchial asthma, the probable diagnosis is

(A)   Air borne contact dermatitis

(B)   Atopic dermatitis

(C)   Seborraehic dermatitis

(D)   Infectious eczematous dermatitis

Answer: (B)

195. Rakesh, a y-year-old boy had itchy, excoriated papules on the forehead and the exposed parts of the arms and legs for 3 years. The disease was most severe in the rainy season and improved completely in winter. Most likely diagnosis is:

(A)   Insect the hypersensitivity

(B)   Scabies

(C)   Urticaria

(D)   Atopic dermatitis

Answer: (D)

196. A 25 year old man presents with recurrent episodes of flexural eczema contact urticarial, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from :

(A)   Seborrheic dermatitis

(B)   Atopic dermatitis

(C)   Airborne contact dermatitis

(D)   Nummular dermatitis

Answer: (B)

197. Coin shaped eczema is :

(A)   Nummular eczema

(B)   Atopic eczema

(C)   Infantile eczema

(D)   Endogenous eczema

Answer: (A)

198. Eczema herpeticum seen with

(A)   HSV

(B)   EBV

(C)   CMV

(D)   VZV

(E)    HPV

Answer: (A)

199. Kaposi’s varicelliform eruption seen in :

(A)   Darrier disease

(B)   Varicella rosea

(C)   Atopic dermatitis

(D)   Mumps

Answer: (D, A)

200. After hepatitis B vaccination child with allergic family history and pruritis involving face &convexities developed numerous umblicated vesicles; which became pustular&haemorhagic& crusted. After 2 days child developed high fever and lymphadenopathy. The diagnosis is

(A)   Secondary infected atopic dermatitis

(B)   Molluscumcontagiosum

(C)   Eczema herpaticum

(D)   Eczema vaccinatum

Answer: (C)

201. Most common precipitant of contact dermatitis is

(A)   Gold

(B)   Nickel

(C)   Silver

(D)   Iron

Answer: (B)

202. Commonest metal causing skin hypersensitivity-

(A)   Nickel

(B)   Cu

(C)   Iron

(D)   Brass

Answer: (A)

203. Most common cause of allergic contact dermatitis in Indian female is

(A)   Vegetables

(B)   Nail polish

(C)   Detergents

(D)   Dyes

Answer: (C)

204. Commonest cause of air borne contact dermatitis in India is:

(A)   Parthenium

(B)   Garden grass

(C)   Calotropis/Crysophillus

(D)   Yellow oleander

(E)    Dust

Answer: (A)

205. In India, the plant which causes dermatitis most commonly is:

(A)   Parthenium grass

(B)   Cotton fibers

(C)   Poison Ivy

(D)   Ragweed

Answer: (A)

206. A female has hypopigmented lesion on centre of forehead drug, responsible is:

(A)   Hydroquinone

(B)   Mono benzene metabolite of hydroquinone

(C)   Para tetra butyl catechol

(D)   Para tetra butyl phenol

Answer: (D)

207. Berloque dermatitis is due to contact with-

(A)   Metals

(B)   Cosmetics

(C)   Food

(D)   Plants

Answer: (B)

208. A 55-year-old male, with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and hypertension, developed severe air-borne contact dermatitis. The most appropriate drug for his treatment would be:

(A)   Systemic corticosteroids

(B)   Thalidomide

(C)   Azathioprine

(D)   Cyclosporine

Answer: (C)

209. A 27year old male has itchy, excoriated papules on forehead and exposed parts of arms and legs for 3 years. The disease was most severe in rainy season and improved completely in winters. Most likely diagnosis is

(A)   Scabies

(B)   Urticaria

(C)   Atopic dermatitis

(D)   Insect bite hypersensitivity

Answer: (D)

210. Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by:

(A)   Skin biopsy

(B)   Patch test

(C)   Prick test

(D)   Estimation of serum IgE levels

Answer: (B)

211. Diagnostic method of choice in contact dermatitis

(A)   Clinical examination

(B)   Skin Biopsy

(C)   Tzank Smear

(D)   Patch Test

Answer: (D)

212. Patch testing is done for :

(A)   Atopic dermatitis

(B)   Irritant contact dermatitis

(C)   Allergic contact dermatitis

(D)   Discoid eczema

Answer: (C)

213. Patch test is a type of:

(A)   Immediate hypersensitivity

(B)   Antibody mediated hypersensitivity

(C)   Immune complex mediate hypersensitivity

(D)   Delayed type hypersensitivity

Answer: (D)

214. Skin test can be done for which hypersensitivity reactions:

(A)   I

(B)   II

(C)   III

(D)   IV

Answer: (A, D)

215. Patch test is read after:

(A)   2 hours

(B)   2 days

(C)   2 weeks

(D)   2 months

Answer: (B)

216. All are true/except regarding patch test

(A)   Diagnose ABCD

(B)   Read after 48 hours

(C)   Angry back 1/t false negative test

(D)   Reading is delayed in neomycin

(E)    T.R.U.E test

Answer: (C)

217. Morbilliform eruptions is been in:

(A)   Scarlet fever

(B)   Rubella

(C)   Toxic shock syndrome

(D)   Measles

(E)    Mumps

Answer: (B)

218. All may lead to hives and wheels except

(A)   Cold

(B)   Hepatitis C

(C)   Serum Sickness

(D)   Typhoid Fever

Answer: (D)

219. A 22 year old woman developed small itchy wheals after physical exertion, walking in the sun, eating hot spicy food and when she was angry. The most likely diagnosis is

(A)   Chronic idiopathic utricaria

(B)   Heat urticaria

(C)   Solar urticaria

(D)   Cholinergic urticaria

Answer: (D)

220. A patient gets recurrent urticarial while doing exercise and on exposure to sunlight. Which of the following is most like cause:

(A)   Chronic Idiopathic Utricaria

(B)   Heat urticaria

(C)   Solar urticaria

(D)   Cholinergic urticaria

Answer: (C)

221. A 9 year-old has multiple itchy erythematous wheals all over the body for 2 days. There is no respiratory difficulty. Which is the best treatment?

(A)   Antihelmithics

(B)   Systemic corticosteroids

(C)   Antihistamines

(D)   Adrenaline

Answer: (C)

222. Darriers sign is seen in:

(A)   Xenodermapigmentosa

(B)   Urticariapigmentosa

(C)   Herpes zoster

(D)   Glucogonoma

Answer: (B)

223. A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperpigmented macules over the trunk. On rubbing the lesion with the rounded end of a pen, he developed urticarial wheat, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:

(A)   Fixed drug eruption

(B)   Lichen planus

(C)   Urticariapigmentosa

(D)   Urticarial vasculitis

Answer: (C)

224. All are true regarding hereditary angioedema, except?

(A)   Dysfunction of enzyme is most common cause

(B)   Enzyme involved in C1 INH

(C)   CI inhibitor targets Hageman factor

(D)   Complement C4 & C2 decrease

(E)    Bradykinin level decrease during attack

Answer: (A)

225. A person present with recurrent swelling on face and lips due to emotional stress, cause is

(A)   CI esterase inhibitor deficiency

(B)   Allergy

(C)   Anaphylaxis

(D)   None of the above

Answer: (A)

226. A patient presents with history of episodic painful edema of face and larynx and abdominal pain associated with stress. Which of the following is likely to be deficient

(A)   Complement C3

(B)   Complement C5

(C)   CI Esterase Inhibitor

(D)   Properidin

Answer: (C)

227. Immediately after eating a man develops swelling of face and lips, respiratory distress, intense pruiritis, hypotension and feeling of impending doom. The most likely diagnosis is

(A)   Angioneurotic Edema

(B)   Anaphylaxis

(C)   Myocardial Infarction

(D)   Food stuck in throat

Answer: (B)

228. Laboratory evaluation of a patient with recurrent lip edema shows decreased C4 and C1INH (quantity & function) with normal C1q. Diagnosis is

(A)   Hereditary angioedema type II

(B)   Hereditary angioedema type I

(C)   Acquired AE type II

(D)   Acquired AE type I

Answer: (B)

229. Not true about angioneurotic edema?

(A)   Pitting edema of face, lips and mucous membrane

(B)   CI Esterase inhibitor deficiency can cause it

(C)   Extreme temperature exposure can provoke it

(D)   Known with ACE inhibitors

Answer: (A)

230. A man takes peanut and develops, tongue swelling, neck swelling, stridor, hoarseness of voice. What is the probable diagnosis.

(A)   Angloneurotic edema

(B)   FB bronchus

(C)   Parapharyngeal abscess

(D)   FB in larynx

Answer: (A)

231. Quincke’s disease is popularly known as –

(A)   Norweigian scabies

(B)   Angioneuroticoedema

(C)   Seborroheaolesa

(D)   Saddle nose

Answer: (B)

232. All are causes of papulo squamous lesions except

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Para psoriasis

(C)   Squamous cell carcinoma

(D)   Mycosis fungoides

(E)    Congenital syphilis

Answer: (E)

233. All of the following may lead to plaque formation except

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Lichen planus

(C)   Pityriasisrosea

(D)   Pemphigus

Answer: (D)

234. Exofliative dermatitis is seen in all the following except

(A)   Pityriasisrosea

(B)   Pityriasisrubrapilaris

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   Drug hypersensitivity

(E)    Eczema

Answer: (A)

235. Causes of erythroderma-

(A)   Pityriasisalba

(B)   Pityriasisversicolor

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   Lichen planus

(E)    Eczema

Answer: (C, D, E)

236. Gold poisoning leading to exfoliative dermatitis is treated by:

(A)   Chloroquin

(B)   Steroid

(C)   Antibiotics

(D)   Antihistaminics

Answer: (B)

237. Munro micro abscess is seen in:

(A)   Dermal tissue

(B)   Stratum basale

(C)   Stratum corneum

(D)   Stratum Malpighi

Answer: (C)

238. About micro-munro abscesses which of the following statements are true:

(A)   Seen in stratus corneum

(B)   Seen in psoriasis

(C)   Contain neutrophils & lymphocyte

(D)   Contain neutrophils only

(E)    Associated pustules are normally seen

Answer: (A, B, D)

239. HPR finding in psoriasis:

(A)   Micromunro abscess

(B)   Suprapapillarythining

(C)   Grenzzonme present

(D)   Pautrier’s abscess

(E)    Hyperkeratosis

Answer: (A, B, E)

240. Bleeding spots seen on removal of scales in psoriasis is called as:

(A)   Auspitz sign

(B)   Puntuate hemorrhage

(C)   Nikolyski’ sign

(D)   Darrier sign

Answer: (A)

241. “Auspitz” sign is characteristically seen in:

(A)   Plaque Psoriasis

(B)   Pustular Psoriasis

(C)   Lichen Planus

(D)   Inverse Psoriasis

Answer: (A)

242. A patient presents with erythematous scaly lesions on extensor aspect of elbows and knee. The clinical diagnosis is got by:

(A)   Auspitz sign

(B)   KOH smear

(C)   Tzancksmear

(D)   Skin biopsy

Answer: (A)

243. A 30 years old male presented with silvery scales on elbow and knee, that bleed on removal. The probable diagnosis is:

(A)   Pityriasis

(B)   Seborrhoeic dermatitis

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   Secondary syphilis

Answer: (C)

244. Bulkeley membrane is seen in:

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Pemphigus

(C)   Tinea

(D)   Pityriasis

Answer: (A)

245. The important feature of psoriasis is –

(A)   Crusting

(B)   Scaling

(C)   Oozing

(D)   Erythema

Answer: (B)

246. All of the following are seen in psoriasis except :

(A)   Auspitz sign present

(B)   10% associated with arthritis

(C)   It is premalignant disease

(D)   Worsening of disease during winter

Answer: (C)

247. All are true about psoriasis except:

(A)   Very pruritic

(B)   Pitting of nails

(C)   Joint involvement in 5-10%

(D)   Parakeratosis & acanthosis

Answer: (A)

248. All are true regarding Psoriasis except:

(A)   Arthritis in 5%

(B)   Abscess is seen

(C)   Head, neck and face are not involved

(D)   No scaly, red lesions are seen in infra mammary and natal area.

Answer: (C)

249. Least common site involvement in psoriasis is

(A)   Scalp involvement

(B)   Nail Involvement

(C)   CNS involvement

(D)   Arthritis

Answer: (C)

250. Psoriasis is exacerbated by-

(A)   Lithium

(B)   B-blockers

(C)   Antimalarials

(D)   All of the above

Answer: (D)

251. Chloroquine cause exacerbation of:

(A)   Malaria

(B)   Psorisasis

(C)   DLE

(D)   Photosensitivity

Answer: (B)

252. Vitamin D analogue calcitriol is useful in the treatment of

(A)   Lichen Planus

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Phemphigus

(D)   Leprosy

Answer: (B)

253. Treatment of psoriasis-

(A)   PUVA

(B)   Methotrexate

(C)   Systemic steroids

(D)   Femicycline

(E)    Terbinafine

Answer: (A, B)

254. In psoriticarthropathy TOC is

(A)   Mtx

(B)   5FU

(C)   PUVA

(D)   Steroid

Answer: (A)

255. The treatment of choice of erythrodermic psoriasis is:

(A)   Corticosteroids

(B)   Methotrexate

(C)   Coaltar topically

(D)   Topical corticosteroids

Answer: (B)

256. The treatment of psoriatic erythroderma is –

(A)   Methotrexate

(B)   Retinols

(C)   Diethrenol

(D)   Corticosteroid

Answer: (B, A)

257. Treatment of pustular psoriasis is :

(A)   Thalidomide

(B)   Retinoids

(C)   Hydroxyurea

(D)   Metholtrexate

(E)    Steroid

Answer: (B)

258. DOC of pustular psoriasis

(A)   PUVA

(B)   Methotrexate

(C)   Steroid

(D)   Cyclophosphamide

Answer: (B)

259. Treatment of choice in Pustuar psoriasis

(A)   Psorialin + UV therapy

(B)   Systemic steroid

(C)   Methotrexate

(D)   Estrogen

Answer: (C)

260. A patient with psoriasis was started on systemic steroids. After stopping the treatment, patient developed universally red scaly skin with plaques losing their margins all over his body. The most likely cause is

(A)   Drug induced reaction

(B)   Pustular psoriasis

(C)   Bacterial infection

(D)   Erythrodermic Psoriasis

Answer: (D)

261. A patient with psoriasis was started on systemic steroids. After stopping treatment, the patient developed generalized pustules all over the body. The cause is most likely to be:

(A)   Drug induced reaction

(B)   Pustular psoriasis

(C)   Bacterial infection

(D)   Septicemia

Answer: (B)

262. Treatment erythematous skin rash with multiple pus lakes in a pregnant woman is:

(A)   Corticosteroids

(B)   Retinoids

(C)   Methotrexate

(D)   Psoralen with PUVA

Answer: (A)

263. The only indication of giving corticosteroids in pustular psoriasis is

(A)   Psoriatic ertythroderma with pregnancy

(B)   Psoriasis in a pt. with alchoholic cirrhosis

(C)   Moderate arthritis

(D)   Extensive lesions

Answer: (A)

264. DOC for a pregnant woman in 2nd trimester with pustular psoriasis is

(A)   Prednisolone

(B)   Dapsone

(C)   Acitretin

(D)   Methotrexate

Answer: (A)

265. Only definitive indication of systemic steroids in psoriasis is

(A)   Pustular psoriasis

(B)   Erythroderma

(C)   Psoriatic arthropathy

(D)   Impetigo herpetiformis

Answer: (D)

266. Koebner’s phenomenon is characteristic of

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(C)   Pityriasisrosea

(D)   Lupus vulgaris

Answer: (A)

267. Koebner’s phenomenon is seen in-

(A)   Lichen Planus

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Icthyosis

(D)   Pitriasisrubra

(E)    Phemphigus

Answer: (B)

268. Koebner’s phenomenon is seen in –

(A)   Lichen planus

(B)   Warts

(C)   Bechet syndrome

(D)   Psoraisis

(E)    Vitiligo

Answer: (A, B, D)

269. Pseudo koebner’s phenomenon is/are seen in:

(A)   Warts

(B)   Molluscumcontagiosum

(C)   Lichen Planus

(D)   Psoriasis

(E)    Vitiligo

Answer: (A, B)

270. The mechanism of action of psoralen is :

(A)   Binding to DNA

(B)   Inhibiting protein synthesis

(C)   Inhibiting angiogenesis

(D)   Inhibiting keratinization

Answer: (A)

271. Which is not a complication of PUVA therapy :

(A)   Premature aging of skin

(B)   Cataracts

(C)   Skin cancers

(D)   Exfoliative

Answer: (D)

272. Photochemotherapy (Psoralent + UVV) is used in

(A)   Pityriasisrosea

(B)   Erythroderma

(C)   Scabies

(D)   Psoriasis

Answer: (D)

273. PUVA therapy is used in :

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Lichen planus

(C)   Freckles

(D)   Melasma

(E)    Vitiligo

Answer: (A)

274. Psoralen – A is used in the treatment of :

(A)   Pemphigus

(B)   Vitiligo

(C)   Pityriasisalba

(D)   Icthyosis

Answer: (B)

275. Psoralen + ultraviolet light (PUVA) therapy is useful in the treatment of:

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Vitiligo

(C)   Mycosis fungoides

(D)   All of the above

Answer: (D)

276. Uses of PUVA –

(A)   Pigmented purpuric lesion

(B)   Herpes zoster

(C)   Mycosis fungoides

(D)   Lupus panniculitis

(E)    Lichenoid dermatitis of Gougerot & Blum

Answer: (A, C, E)

277. Circulating lymphocytes are most sensitive to :

(A)   UV-A

(B)   UV-B

(C)   UV-C

(D)   760-800 mm

Answer: (C)

278. The most effective treatment of pruritus in uremia is :

(A)   Ultraviolet light

(B)   Chloestyramine

(C)   Eskazine

(D)   Topical benzocaine

Answer: (A)

279. Mouth Lesion are seen in:

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Lichen Planus

(C)   Basal Cell CA

(D)   Icthyosis Vulgaris

Answer: (B)

280. Mucosa is involved in:

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Lichen planus

(C)   Alopecia

(D)   Scabies

(E)    Porphyria

Answer: (B)

281. Features of lichen planus are

(A)   Pruritis

(B)   Purple color

(C)   Papule

(D)   Purpura

(E)    Petechiae

Answer: (A, B)

282. Oral examination is done in case of :

(A)   Peutzjegher syndrome

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Beri-beri

(D)   Plummer vinson syndrome

Answer: (A)

283. Necrotic Keratinocyts occur in

(A)   DLE

(B)   Graft versus host disease

(C)   Erythema multiformal

(D)   Lichen planus

(E)    Psoriasis

Answer: (A, B, C, D)

284. Joseph’s space is a histopatho-logical feature of:

(A)   Psoriasis vulgaris

(B)   Lichen planus

(C)   Pityrasisrosea

(D)   Parapsoriasis

Answer: (B)

285. Civatte bodies are found in:

(A)   Lichen planus

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Dermatophytosis

(D)   Vitiligo

Answer: (A)

286. True about lichen planus-

(A)   Basal cell degeneration

(B)   Colloid bodies seen

(C)   Epidermal hyperplasia in chronic cases

(D)   Wickham’s striae seen

(E)    Autoimmune disease

Answer: (A, B, C, D)

287. Basal cell degeneration characteristically seen in:

(A)   Lichen planus

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Pemphigus

(D)   DLE

Answer: (A)

288. A young lady presents with lacy lesions in oral cavity and genitals, and her proximal nail fold has extended onto the nail bed. What is the likely diagnosis

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Geographic tongue

(C)   Lichen planus

(D)   Candidiasis

Answer: (C)

289. A 30 year old male present with pruritic flat-topped polygonal, shiny violaceous papules with flexural distribution. the most likely diagnosis is-

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Pityriasis

(C)   Lichen planus

(D)   Lichenoid dermatitis

Answer: (C)

290. Which of the following is pruritic:

(A)   Lichen  planus

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Icthyosis

(D)   Secondary syphilis

Answer: (A)

291. Lacy white lesion in mouth with pterygium is seen in :

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Ptirysisalba

(C)   Lichen planus

(D)   Leprosy

Answer: (C)

292. Regarding Lichen Planus all are true, except :

(A)   Hypopigmentation in most residual disease

(B)   Lymphatic infiltration in supradermal layer

(C)   Itchy polygonal, purple papule

(D)   Skin, hair and oral mucosa commonly involved

Answer: (A)

293. All of the following regarding Lichen planus are true except:

(A)   Does not involve mucous membrane

(B)   Associated with Hepatitis ‘C’

(C)   Topical steroid are the mainstay of therapy

(D)   Spontaneous remissions 6mo to 2 years

Answer: (A)

294. A patient presented with scarring alopecia, thinned nails, hypopigmented macular lesions over the trunk and oral mucosa. The diagnosis is

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Leprosy

(C)   Lichenplanus

(D)   Pemphigus

Answer: (C)

295. Characteristic nail finding in lichen planus

(A)   Pitting

(B)   Pterygium

(C)   Beau’s Lines

(D)   Hyperpigmentation of nails

Answer: (B)

296. 10 year old child has violaceous papule and pterygium of nails. The diagnosis is

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Pemphigus

(C)   Pemphigoid

(D)   Lichen Planus

Answer: (D)

297. Wickehm’sstria seen in-

(A)   Lichen niditus

(B)   Lichenoid eruption

(C)   Lichen striates

(D)   Lichen planus

Answer: (D)

298. Itchy polygonal violaceous (itchy/prusitic) palpules seen in

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Pemphigus

(C)   Lichen planus

(D)   Pitriasiosrosea

Answer: (C)

299. Features of lichen planus are

(A)   Pruritis

(B)   Purple

(C)   Papule

(D)   Purpura

(E)    Peterchiae

Answer: (A, B, C)

300. Most characteristic Feature of lichen planus is:

(A)   Thinning of nail plate is most common

(B)   Non scarring alopecia

(C)   Violaceous lesions on skin and mucous membrane

(D)   Wickham striae

Answer: (D)

301. The most characteristic finding In lichen planus is:

(A)   Civatte bodies

(B)   Basal cell degeneration

(C)   Thinning of nail plate

(D)   Violaceous lesions

Answer: (B)

302. In Lichen planus TOC is:

(A)   Topical Salicylic acid

(B)   UV ray

(C)   Systemic steroids

(D)   Erythromycin

Answer: (C)

303. Which of the following are pruritic lesions

(A)   Lichen planus

(B)   Sun burns

(C)   Pemphigoid

(D)   Psoriasis

(E)    SLE

Answer: (A)

304. All are vesiculo bullous lesions except –

(A)   Dermatitis Herpetiformis

(B)   Scabies/Atopic dermatitis

(C)   Pemphigus

(D)   Pemphigoid

Answer: (B)

305. Subepidermal lesion are

(A)   Bullous pemphigoid

(B)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(C)   Hailey-Hailey disease

(D)   Darier’s disease

(E)    Acanthosisnigricans

Answer: (A)

306. Subepithelial Bullae are seen in:

(A)   Dermatitis herpatiforms

(B)   Molluscumcontagiosum

(C)   Pemphigus

(D)   Pemphigoid

Answer: (D)

307. Subepidermal bulla are seen in –

(A)   Pemphigoid

(B)   Pemphigus

(C)   Pityriasisrosea

(D)   Psoriasis

Answer: (A)

308. Blister formation in burn case is in:

(A)   Intraepidermal

(B)   Subepidermal

(C)   Subdermal

(D)   Subfascial

Answer: (B)

309. Sub-epidermal splitting is not found in :

(A)   Bullous pemphigoid

(B)   Pemphigus foliaceus

(C)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

(D)   Burns

Answer: (B)

310. Subepidermal bistreing is seen in all except –

(A)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(B)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

(C)   Toxic epidermal necrolysis

(D)   Bullous pemphigoid

(E)    Hailey : Hailey disease

Answer: (A, C, E)

311. Intra epidermal blisters are seen in :

(A)   Bullous pemphigoid

(B)   Pemphigus folliaceous

(C)   Bullous SLE

(D)   Bullous impetigo

(E)    Trauma (thermal)

Answer: (B, E)

312. Intra-epidermal acantholytic (blisters) vesicles are seen in

(A)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(B)   Carinomatous (paraneoplastic) pemphigus

(C)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

(D)   Congenital epidermolysisbullosa

(E)    Bullous pemphigoid

Answer: (A, B)

313. Acantholytic cell in pemphigus is derived from :

(A)   Stratum granulosum

(B)   Stratum basale

(C)   Stratum spinosum

(D)   Langerhan’s cell

Answer: (C)

314. Acantholysis is seen in:

(A)   Bullous pemphigoid/SSS

(B)   Dermatitis herpetiformis/Impetigo

(C)   Hailey-Hailey disease

(D)   Darrier’s disease

(E)    Pemphigus vulgaris

Answer: (C, D, E)

315. Acantholysis is characteristic of:

(A)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(B)   Pemphigoid

(C)   Erythema multoforme

(D)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

Answer: (A)

316. Acantholysis is seen in all of the following except :

(A)   Pemphigus

(B)   Bullous pemphigoid

(C)   Steven-Johnson syndrome

(D)   Toxic epidermonecrolysis

Answer: (B)

317. Acantholysis is due to destruction of

(A)   Epidermis

(B)   Subepidermis

(C)   Basement membrane

(D)   Intercellular substance

Answer: (D)

318. In pemphigus vulgaris, antibodies are present against :

(A)   Basement member

(B)   Intercellular substance

(C)   Keratin

(D)   Cell nucleus

Answer: (B)

319. Acantholysis involves (is seen in) :

(A)   Epidermis

(B)   Dermis

(C)   Epidermis-Dermis junction

(D)   Subcutaneous tissue

(E)    Adipose tissue

(F)    All layers

Answer: (A)

320. Acantholytic cells are :

(A)   Epidermal cells

(B)   Plasma cells

(C)   Keratinocytes

(D)   Giant cells

Answer: (C)

321. Acantolytic cells in pemphigus is –

(A)   Cell with hyperchromatic nuclei and perinuclear halo

(B)   Cell with hypochromatic nuclei and perinuclear halo

(C)   Multinucleted cells

(D)   None of the above

Answer: (A)

322. A 40 year old male reported with recurrent episodes of oral ulcers, large areas of denuded skin and flaccid vesiculo-bullous eruptions. Which is the most important bed-side investigation helpful in establishing the diagnosis –

(A)   Gram staining of the blister fluid

(B)   Culture and sensitivity

(C)   Skin biopsy and immunoflurescence

(D)   Tzanksmear from the floor of bulla

Answer: (D)

323. A 50 years old man has a 2 year history of facial bullae & oral ulcers. Microscpic smear from skin lesions is most likely to disclose –

(A)   Tzanck cells

(B)   Acantholytic cells

(C)   Necrosis

(D)   Koilogytosis

Answer: (B)

324. Tzank cell is a –

(A)   Lymphocytes

(B)   Monocyte

(C)   Neutrophil

(D)   Keratinocyte

(E)    Eosinophil

Answer: (D)

325. A patient has Bullous Lesion; on Tzank smear

(A)   Langerhans cells are seen

(B)   Acontholysis

(C)   Leucocytosis

(D)   Absence of melanin pigment

Answer: (B)

326. Tzank smear helps in the diagnosis of :

(A)   Herpes viral infection

(B)   Bullous pemphigoids

(C)   Carcinoma of cervix

(D)   None

Answer: (A)

327. In Tzank smear multinucleated cells are seen in :

(A)   Chicken pox

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Molluscumcontagiosum

(D)   Pemphigus vulgaris

Answer: (A)

328. Nikolsky sign ins positive in all of the following except :

(A)   Staphylococal scalded skin syndrome

(B)   Toxic epidermonecrolysis

(C)   Bullous pemphigoid

(D)   Pemphigus

Answer: (C)

329. Nikolsky sign is seen in –

(A)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(B)   Herpes zoster

(C)   Herpes simlex

(D)   Leukemia

(E)    All

Answer: (E)

330. Nikolsky sing not present in :

(A)   Pemphigus

(B)   Pemphigoid

(C)   Vitiligo

(D)   Staphylococcal scalded syndrome

Answer: (C)

331. An auto immune disease is :

(A)   Pemphigus Vulgaris

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Lichen Planus

(D)   Acne Vulgaris

Answer: (A)

332. Genetic predisposition is seen in which disease :

(A)   Lichen Planus

(B)   Bullous pemphigoid

(C)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(D)   Epidermolysis Bullosa

Answer: (D)

333. Hailey-hailey disease is :

(A)   Benign familial chronic pemphigus

(B)   Pemphigus acutus

(C)   Pemphigus

(D)   Lyell’s syndrome

Answer: (A)

334. Dyskeratosis is characteristic feature of:

(A)   Darrier’s ds

(B)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   Boweli’s disease

(E)    Haikey-Hailey ds

Answer: (A, D, E)

335. Etiology of Epidermolysisbullosa is –

(A)   Genetic

(B)   Infections

(C)   Senile

(D)   Malignant

(E)    Metabolic

Answer: (A)

336. In congenital dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa defect is seen in :

(A)   Laminin 4

(B)   Collagen type 7

(C)   Collagen 4

(D)   Collagen 3

Answer: (B)

337. In a 8 day old child with no history of consanguinity in the parents. The mother reports blisters and peeling off of skin at the site of handling and pressure. There was a similar history in previous child which proved to be fatal. The diagnosis :

(A)   Bullous pemphigod

(B)   Congenital Syphillis

(C)   Congenital Epidermolysis bullosa

(D)   Letterrersiwe disease

Answer: (C)

338. A 2 day old newborn girl born out of non-consanguinous marriage was evaluated for tense blister and areas of denuded skin that had ben pre3sent since birth. The child develops while mother handles for bathing and feeding. The sibling of child also had h/o developing similar lesions.

(A)   Congenital syphilis

(B)   Congenital epidermolysis bullosa

(C)   LCH

(D)   Congenital bullous icthyosiform erythroderma

Answer: (B)

339. A patient developed bullae without erythema on elbows, knee & sacral area f/b crust formation, scarring &milia. He had no photo sensitivity and negative family history for bullous diseases. On DIF IgG deposition at DEJ with no blood vessel involvement is seen probable diagnosis is

(A)   EB dystrophic

(B)   EB acquisita

(C)   Porphyria CT

(D)   Pemphigoid bullous

Answer: (B)

340. Commonest/rarest veriety of Pemphigus –

(A)   Pemphigus vulgaris/vegetans

(B)   Pemphigus vegetans/vulgaris

(C)   Pemphigus fliaceus/erythematosis

(D)   Pemphigus erythematosia/foliaceous

Answer: (A)

341. ‘Row of tombstones’ appearance is seen in :

(A)   Irritant dermatitis

(B)   Pemphigus

(C)   Pemphigoid

(D)   Harpes zoster

Answer: (B)

342. In pemphigus vulgaris, antibodies are present against :

(A)   Basement membrane

(B)   Intercellular substance

(C)   Cell nucleus

(D)   Keratin

(E)    Cell membrane

Answer: (B)

343. True about pemphigus vulgaris A/E :

(A)   Subepidermal

(B)   Autoimmune disease

(C)   Tzanck smear shows acanthoyltic cells

(D)   Antibody are formed against desmogleins

(E)    Blister on skin & mucosa

Answer: (A)

344. A patient with Bullous eruption on lower limb and trunk, biopsy show epidermal bullae. The correct diagnosis is:

(A)   Pemphigoid

(B)   Pemphigus Vulgaris

(C)   Impetigo

(D)   Internal Malignany

Answer: (B)

345. A 24 years old (middle aged) female has faccid bullae in the skin and persistent painful oral erosions (palatal & vestibular lesions in buccal mucosa). Histopathology shows intraepidermalacantholytic blister. The most likely diagnosis is

(A)   Bullous Pemphigoid

(B)   Erythema multiforme

(C)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(D)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

(E)    Epidermolysis bullosa acquista

Answer: (C)

346. A 40 year old male developed persistant oral ulcers followed by multiple flaccid bullae on trunk and extermities. Direct examination of a skin biopsy immunofluorescence showed intercellular IgG deposits in the epidermis. The most probable diagnosis is

(A)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(B)   Bullous Pemphigoid

(C)   Bullous Lupus erythematosus

(D)   Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita

Answer: (A)

347. A 50 year old male known case of myasthe-nia with erythemated shallow erosions with few blisters and scales. Oral mucosa is not involved. Immunopathology demonstrates IgG deposition on keratinocytes and auto antibodies against Dsg-1.The diagnosis is

(A)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(B)   Bullous pemphigoid

(C)   Pemphigus foliaceus

(D)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

Answer: (C)

348. Drug induced pemphigus is seen in all except

(A)   Penicillin

(B)   Phenopthelein

(C)   Iodine

(D)   Frusemide

Answer: (D)

349. All are associated with pemphigus except :

(A)   Thymoma

(B)   CLL

(C)   Myasthenia gravis

(D)   Non-Hodgkins lymphoma

(E)    Atrophic gastritis

Answer: (E)

350. Mucous lesions are seen in :

(A)   Sec. syphilis

(B)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   Pemphigus

(E)    Porphyria

Answer: (D)

351. A 56 year old male lallu presents with painful bullous lesion in lower extremity, the most likely diagnosis is

(A)   Pemphigus Vulgaris

(B)   Bulllouspemphigoid

(C)   Necrotic Pemphigus

(D)   Contact eczema

Answer: (B)

352. A 85 year old woman with Nikolsky sign-ve, blisters on thigh & trunk, lesions come on & off. What is the cause :

(A)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(B)   Pemphigoid

(C)   Lichen planus

(D)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

(E)    Leprosy

Answer: (B)

353. A young boy with multiple flaccid bullous lesions over trunk with oral mucosal lesions. Most likely finding on biopsy would be :

(A)   ‘Fishnet’ IgG deposits in epidermis

(B)   Linear IgG in Deposits

(C)   Linear IgA in dermal papillae

(D)   Granular IgA in reticular dermis

Answer: (A)

354. Inter cellular IgG deposition in epidermis is seen in :

(A)   Pemphigus

(B)   Sub corneal pustulardermatosis

(C)   Bulluspemphigoid

(D)   Dermatitis Herpetiformis

Answer: (A)

355. Direct immunofluorescence is positive in

(A)   Atopic dermatitis

(B)   SLE

(C)   Pemphigus

(D)   Secondary syphilis

Answer: (C, B)

356. A 40 year old male had multiple blisters over the trunk & Extremities. Direct Immuno fluoresce studies showed linear IgG deposits along the Basement membrane, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis.

(A)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(B)   Bullous pemphigoid

(C)   Pemphigus foliaceous

(D)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

Answer: (B)

357. Granular IgA deposit at dermal papilla are found in:

(A)   Dermatitis Herpetiformis

(B)   IgA disease of childhood

(C)   Herpetic gestation

(D)   Bullous pemphigoid

Answer: (A)

358. Skin disease not showing DIF (Direct immunofluorescence) :

(A)   Darrier’s disease

(B)   Hailey-Hailey disease

(C)   Cictricialpemphigoid

(D)   Dermatitis herpatiformis

(E)    Pemphigus

Answer: (A, B)

359. Spontaneous remission is most frequent with

(A)   Herpes labialis

(B)   Herpes genitalis

(C)   Herpetic chancroid

(D)   Herpes gestationis

Answer: (D)

360. Commonest site of herpes Gestationis is-

(A)   Perimumbilical region

(B)   Flanks of abdomen

(C)   Vulva

(D)   Infraorbital

Answer: (A)

361. HLA associated with dermatitis Herpetiformis –

(A)   HLA A5

(B)   HLB B8

(C)   HLA B27

(D)   HLA A28

Answer: (C)

362. All are true about dermatitis herpetformis except

(A)   More common in young adult

(B)   Intense pruritus

(C)   Deposit of IgG at the epidermodermal lesion

(D)   None

Answer: (C)

363. A 30 year old male had severely itchy papula-vesicular lesions on both knees, elbows, upper back and buttocks for one year. Direct immunofluorescence staining of the lesion showed IgA deposition at dermoepidermal junction and dermal papilla. The most probable diagnosis is :

(A)   Pemphigus vulagris

(B)   Bullous permphigoid

(C)   Dermatitis herpetiforms

(D)   Nummular eczema

Answer: (C)

364. Extermely pruritic excoriation & papules on buttocks with autoantibodies against epidermal transglutaminase and IgA deposition in dermis on immuno-histological examination of normal perilesional skin. Diagnosis is

(A)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(B)   Pemphigoid

(C)   Linear IgA disease

(D)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

Answer: (D)

365. DOC for dermatitis herpetiformis is :

(A)   Steroids

(B)   Dapsone

(C)   PUVA

(D)   Antihistaminic

Answer: (B)

366. The treatment of Dermatitis herpetiformis is –

(A)   Gluten free diet with mineral and vitamins

(B)   Carbamazepine

(C)   Acyclovir

(D)   Corticosteroids

Answer: (A)

367. What can patient with gluten sensitive hypersensitivity consume as food :

(A)   Rice

(B)   Barley

(C)   Oat

(D)   Corn

(E)    Rye

Answer: (A)

368. All are true about linear IgA disease except

(A)   Subepidermal involvement

(B)   Severe itching

(C)   Granular deposition of IgA

(D)   Are candidates for gluten free diet

(E)    A variant of dermatitis herpetiformis

Answer: (C)

369. Commonest etiology of erythema multiforme is –

(A)   Viral

(B)   Bacterial

(C)   Food

(D)   Drugs

Answer: (A)

370. All are true about erythema multiformis except :

(A)   Due to herpes simplex

(B)   Duet to sulphonamide

(C)   Lesion are symmetrical

(D)   Mucous membrane is involved in all

Answer: (D)

371. Target or Iris lesion seen in

(A)   Urticaria

(B)   Erythema mutiformae

(C)   Scabies

(D)   Lichen Planus

Answer: (B)

372. Regarding Erythema multiforme all are true except :

(A)   No vesicles

(B)   Target lesion are seen

(C)   Involves face and neck regions

(D)   Sign of internal malignancy

Answer: (A)

373. A 60-year-old patient presented with several bullous lesions for the last 3 days; each bull was surrounded by an erythematous halo. There were multiple target lesions. Patient also had oral erosions. The most likely

(A)   Chicken pox

(B)   Herpes simplex

(C)   Herpes zoster

(D)   Steven-Johnson syndrome

Answer: (D)

374. Toxic epidermonercrolysis is caused by :

(A)   Phenytoin

(B)   Penicillin

(C)   Erythromycin

(D)   Gold

Answer: (A, B)

375. All are considered to be high risk agents for TEN except

(A)   Sulfonamide

(B)   Sulfonyl urea

(C)   Aspirin

(D)   Oxicam

(E)    Phenytoin

Answer: (B, C)

376. A 3 months old male infant developed otitis media for which he was given a course of Co-trimoxazole. A few days later, he developed extensive peeling of the skin; there were no mucosal lesions and the baby was not toxic. The most likely diagnosis is:

(A)   Toxic epidermal necrolysis

(B)   Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

(C)   Steven Johnson syndrome

(D)   Infantile pemphigus

Answer: (B)

377. Which layer of skin causes vesicular change in case of burn :

(A)   Basal layer

(B)   Papillary layer

(C)   Epidermis

(D)   Dermis

Answer: (D)

378. Causative organism of molluscumcontagiosum is –

(A)   Papova virus

(B)   Pox virus

(C)   Orthomyxo virus

(D)   Parvo virus

Answer: (B)

379. An eight year old boy presents with multiple umbilicated pearly white papules on trunk & face following a trivial infection. Diagnosis is :

(A)   MolluscumContagiosum

(B)   Chicken pox

(C)   Herpes zoster

(D)   Dermatophytosis

Answer: (A)

380. Which of the following is true of molluscumcontagiosum –

(A)   Treatment is extirption

(B)   Is an STD

(C)   Virall infection

(D)   Central umbilication

(E)    All are correct

Answer: (E)

381. Herpes zoster is commonly seen in a :

(A)   Cervical region

(B)   Thoracic region

(C)   Lumbar region

(D)   Geniculate ganglion

Answer: (B)

382. Ballooning is characteristic of :

(A)   Harpes zoster

(B)   Pemphigus

(C)   Pemphigoid

(D)   Insect bite

Answer: (A)

383. A 45 year old male has multiple grouped vesicular lesions present on the T10 segment dermatome associated with pain. The most likely diagnosis is

(A)   Herpes zoster

(B)   Dermatitis herpetiformis

(C)   Herpes simplex

(D)   Scabies

Answer: (A)

384. Most common site of affection of herpes simplex –

(A)   Thorax

(B)   Abdomen

(C)   Face

(D)   Extremities

Answer: (C)

385. The most frequent cause of recurrent genital ulceration in a sexually active male is

(A)   Herpes genitalis

(B)   Aphthous ulcer

(C)   Syphilis

(D)   Chancroid

Answer: (A)

386. Drug of choice in Herpes zoster

(A)   Acyclovir

(B)   Vidarabine

(C)   Idoxuridine

(D)   Actinomycin

Answer: (A)

387. Herpes resistant to acyclovir is treated by

(A)   Foscarnet

(B)   Lamivudine

(C)   Ganiclovir

(D)   Valocyclovir

Answer: (A)

388. Which of the following not a feature of dermatomyositis?

(A)   Gottren’s papules

(B)   Periungua telangiectasia

(C)   Salmon rash

(D)   Mechanic’s hand

Answer: (C)

389. True about dermatomyositis

(A)   Gottron papules

(B)   ANA a/w all cases

(C)   All cases a/w malignancy

(D)   Proximal muscle wasting

Answer: (A, D)

390. Gottron’s papules or sign seen in :

(A)   Dermatomyositis

(B)   Multiple myeloma

(C)   Acute myeloid leukemia

(D)   Psoriasis

Answer: (A)

391. A 40 year old woman presented with a 8 month history of erythema and swelling of the periorbital region & papules & plaques on the dorsolateral aspect of forearms & knuckles with ragged cuticles. There was no muscle weakness. The most likely diagnosis is:

(A)   SLE

(B)   Dermatomyositis

(C)   Systemic sclerosis

(D)   Mixed connective tissue disorder

Answer: (B)

392. Antibody that is strongly associated with polymyositis?

(A)   Anti-jo1

(B)   Anti-ku

(C)   Anti-Scl-70

(D)   Anti-sm

Answer: (A)

393. Female presents with history of color change from pallor to cyanosis on exposure to cold in fingers. This condition is mostly associated with?

(A)   Scleroderma

(B)   Leukemia

(C)   Lung infections

(D)   Hepatosplenomegaly

Answer: (A)

394. All are manifestations of SLE except :

(A)   Lesions resembling Chr. DLE

(B)   Butterfly rash

(C)   Photosensitivity

(D)   Constitutional symptom

(E)    Sex ratio is nearly equal

Answer: (E)

395. True about drug induced SLE is :

(A)   CNS manifestation are common

(B)   Renal involvement is common

(C)   Antihistone antibodies are found in many

(D)   All with antibodies progress to lupus

(E)    Sex ratio is nearly equal

Answer: (C)

396. Lupus like picture is causes by all except :

(A)   Chloroquine

(B)   Procanamide

(C)   Hydralazine

(D)   Isoniazid

Answer: (A)

397. Chloroquin is indicated in treatment of

(A)   Pemphigus

(B)   Pempigoid

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   DLE

Answer: (D)

398. 23 year old lady sony develops brown macular lesions over bridge of nose and cheek following exposure to light. The probable diagnosis is

(A)   SLE

(B)   Acne Rosacea

(C)   Chloasma

(D)   Photodermatitis

Answer: (C)

399. A girl of 19 years with arthritis and photosensitive rash on cheeks, likely diagnosis is

(A)   SLE

(B)   Chlosma

(C)   Steveris Johnson Syndrome

(D)   Lyme’s Disease

Answer: (A)

400. The concentration of hydroquinone for treating cholasma should be –

(A)   1%

(B)   1 to 2%

(C)   2 to 5%

(D)   10%

Answer: (C)

401. Photosensitive dermatitis is/are :

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Pellagra

(C)   Pemphigus

(D)   SLE

(E)    Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

Answer: (ALL)

402. Which of the following are photosensitive diseases:

(A)   SLE

(B)   Liver spots

(C)   Calcinosis cutis

(D)   Morphea

(E)    Prophyriacutaneatarda

Answer: (A, B, E)

403. Which of the following not photosensitive:

(A)   Porphyria

(B)   DLE

(C)   SLE

(D)   Lichen Planus

Answer: (D)

404. Exposure to sunlight can precipitate :

(A)   Chlosma

(B)   Discoid lupus erytyhematosus

(C)   Dermatitis herpatiformis

(D)   Lupus vulgaris

Answer: (B)

405. A 45-year-old farmer has itchy ertythematous popular lesions on face, neck, ‘V’ area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summers and improve by 75% in winters. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be :

(A)   Skin biopsy

(B)   Estimation of IgE levels in blood

(C)   Patch test

(D)   Intradermal prick test

Answer: (A)

406. Chandu 32 years male presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. He also complain of some psychiatric symptoms & visual hallucination. Most likely diagnosis is

(A)   Hypothyroidism

(B)   Hyperthyroidism

(C)   Hysteria

(D)   Intermittent Porphyria

Answer: (D)

407. A girl on sulphonamides developed abdominal pain and presented to emergency with seizure. What is the probable cause?

(A)   Acute intermittent porphyria

(B)   Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

(C)   Infectious mononucleosis

(D)   Kawasaki’s disease

Answer: (A)

408. A 40 year old farmer with history of recurrent attack of porphyria complains of itching when exposed to the sun and maculopapular rashes on sun exposed area. His symptoms are exaggerated in summer. The diagnosis is:

(A)   Seborrheic dermatitis

(B)   Contact dermatitis

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   PorphyreaCutaneatarda

Answer: (D)

409. Porphyrins are synthesized mainly in

(A)   Spleen

(B)   Liver and spleen

(C)   Bonemarrow and spleen

(D)   Liver and Bone marrow

Answer: (D)

410. Porphyria cutaneatarda can be treated by :

(A)   Phelobotomy

(B)   Heme

(C)   Low dose chlotoquine

(D)   Metronidazole

Answer: (A)

411. Treatment of choice in the cutaneous complication of porphyria is:

(A)   I. V dextrose

(B)   I. V Haematin

(C)   Beta carotene

(D)   Calamine

Answer: (C)

412. Non Palpable purpura is seen in A/E

(A)   H. S. Purpura

(B)   Drug induced vasculitis

(C)   Idiopathic thrombocytopenicpurpura

(D)   Amyloid

Answer: (A)

413. Palpable purpura is seen in all except :

(A)   Wegeners GN

(B)   ITP

(C)   HSP

(D)   Serum sickness

Answer: (B)

414. Palpable pupura is seen in all condition except

(A)   Cryoglobulinuria

(B)   H.S. Pupura

(C)   Giant cell arteritis

(D)   Drug induced vasculitis

Answer: (C)

415. A-42-year-old female has palpable purpura with rash over buttocks, pain in abdomen, and arthropathy diagnosis is

(A)   Sweet syndrome

(B)   HSP

(C)   Purpurafulminans

(D)   Meningococcemia

Answer: (B)

416. IgA deposits on skin biopsy

(A)   HenochSchouleilnpuspura

(B)   Giant cell arteritis

(C)   Microscopic polyangitis

(D)   Wegener’s granulomatosis

Answer: (A)

417. A 5 year old child develops non blanching macules, papules and petechial hemorrhage on lower extremities, mild abdominal pain, and skin biopsy showed IgA deposition along blood vessels perivascular neutrophilic infiltrate. Most probably diagnosis is

(A)   Wegner’s granulomatosis

(B)   Poly artiritisnodosa

(C)   HenochSchonleinpurpura

(D)   Kawasaki disease

Answer: (C)

418. Which of following is/are not the feature of HenochSchnleinPurpura (HSP) :

(A)   Abdominal pain

(B)   Splinter haemorrhage

(C)   Thrombocytopenia

(D)   Epistaxis

(E)    Arthritis

Answer: (C)

419. All regarding, HSP is true except

(A)   Hematuria resolve without treatment

(B)   Steroids best treat skin lesions

(C)   Self limiting arthralgia

(D)   Excellent prognosis

(E)    Purpurafulminans

Answer: (B, E)

420. ‘Pinch purpura’ is diagnostic of

(A)   Systemic 1° amyloidosis

(B)   2° systemic anyloidosis

(C)   ITP

(D)   Drug induced purpura

Answer: (A)

421. Treatment of Kawasaki’s disease?

(A)   IVI g

(B)   Steroids

(C)   Thalidomide

(D)   Dapsone

Answer: (A)

422. A 4 year old child with high fever developed toxic look, eruptions on trunk & proximal extremities, bilateral bulbar conjunctivitis without discharge and fissuring-crusting-red lips. Due to limb edema walking became difficult. She also had desquamation in perineum & finger tips with cervical adenopathy. Diagnosis is

(A)   PAN

(B)   HSP

(C)   Kawasaki syndrome

(D)   Erythema infectosum

Answer: (C)

423. Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in

(A)   Kimura’s disease

(B)   Hodgkin’s disease

(C)   Castleman’s disease

(D)   Kikuchi disease

Answer: (D)

424. Which of the following organisms most commonly causes reactive arthritis?

(A)   Urea plasmaurealyticum

(B)   Group A beta hemolytic streptococci

(C)   Borreliaburgdorferi

(D)   Chlamydia

Answer: (D)

425. A patient gives h/o recurrent oral ulcers. The ulcers are small with a yellow floor surrounded by an erythematous halo on lips. He also has multiple, tender nodules on shin. The probable diagnosis is

(A)   Pemphigus vulgaris

(B)   Bechet’s syndrome

(C)   Herpes Labialis

(D)   Fixed drug eruption

Answer: (B)

426. A 27-year-old male had burning micturition & urethral discharge. After 4 weeks he developed joint pains involving both the knees & ankles, redness of the eyes & skin lesions. The most probable clinical diagnosis:

(A)   Psoriasis vulgaris

(B)   Reiter’s synd

(C)   Bechet’ssynd

(D)   Sarcoidosis

Answer: (B)

427. Which of the following is not included in the triad of Reiter’s syndrome:

(A)   Conjunctivetis

(B)   Urethritis

(C)   Arthritis

(D)   Keratodermab lenorrhagica

Answer: (D)

428. A 29 years old male with a history of long leisure trip presented with right knee pain and swollen join with foreign body sensation in eye. The most probable diagnosis is

(A)   Sarcoidosis

(B)   Tuberculosis

(C)   Reiter’s disease

(D)   Bechet’s disease

Answer: (C)

429. What is not seen in Reiters syndrome?

(A)   Subcutaneous nodules

(B)   Keratodermab lennorrhagicum

(C)   Circinatebalantis

(D)   Oral ulcers

Answer: (A)

430. True regarding reactive arthritis is all except

(A)   HLA B27 & HIV affects severity

(B)   Dactylitis & enthesitis

(C)   Keratoderma mostly on glans

(D)   Asymmetrical sacroilitis

(E)    Onycholysis& hyperkeratosis of nails

Answer: (C)

431. Recurrent orogenital ulceration with arthritis is seen in

(A)   Bechets syndrome

(B)   Gonorrhoea

(C)   Reiters syndrome

(D)   Syphills

Answer: (A)

432. All the following are primary cutaneous diseases except :

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Reiter’s disease

(C)   Lichen planus

(D)   Kcthiosis/Bowen’s disease

Answer: (B)

433. All are neutrophilic dermatosis except :

(A)   Subcorneal pustular dermatosis

(B)   Kimura disease

(C)   Granuloma facial

(D)   Sweet’s syndrome

(E)    Pyoderma gungrenosum

Answer: (B, C)

434. False about sweet syndrome

(A)   May be a/w high fever

(B)   Neutrophilia not present

(C)   May be a/w hematological malignancy

(D)   Pseudovesication

(E)    Tender erythematous nodule / plaque.

Answer: (B)

435. A child with fever had multiple skin lesions, an on microscopic examination the skin lesions are seen to have neutrophilic and histiocytic infiltration in the dermis. What is the diagnosis?

(A)   Sweet syndrome

(B)   Behchet’s syndrome

(C)   Pyodermagangrenosum

(D)   Juvenile dermatosis.

Answer: (A)

436. Pyoderma gangrenoum is seen in :

(A)   Crohns disease

(B)   Divertuculosis

(C)   Ulcerative colitis

(D)   Ca. Colon.

Answer: (C)

437. A 27 year old sexually active male develops a vesicobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tab paracetamol for fever. The lesion healed with hyper pigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is :

(A)   Bechet’s syndrome

(B)   Herpes genitalis

(C)   Fixed drug eruption

(D)   Pemphigus vulgaris

Answer: (C)

438. Recurrent erythematous plaques on glans penis in a 19 yrs old sexually active male which heals with residual hyperpigmentation, is suggestive of?

(A)   ApthousBalanitica

(B)   Fixed Drug Eruption

(C)   Herpes Gestations

(D)   Chlamydial infective

Answer: (B)

439. Neonatal fat necrosis : (subcutaneous fat necrosis of newborn) resembles :

(A)   Erythema induratum

(B)   Post-steroidal panniculitis

(C)   Lupus panniculitis

(D)   Lipodermatosclerosis

Answer: (B)

440. Erythema nodosum is seen in all of the following except:

(A)   Pregnancy

(B)   Tuberculosis

(C)   SLE

(D)   Chronic pancreatitis

Answer: (D)

441. Erythema nodosum is seen in all, Except:

(A)   Rheumatoid arthritis

(B)   Tuberculosis

(C)   Enteric fever

(D)   Aspirin therapy

Answer: (D)

442. Erythema nodosum is seen in A/E

(A)   Salicylate poisoning

(B)   Typhoid

(C)   Tuberculosis

(D)   Leprosy

Answer: (A)

443. Erythema nodosum is due to A/E :

(A)   Contraceptive pilles

(B)   Barbiturates

(C)   Penicillin

(D)   Sulphonamides

Answer: (B)

444. Erythema nodosum is not seen in :

(A)   Primary TB

(B)   Sulfonamides

(C)   Giant cell arteritis

(D)   Streptococcal Infection

Answer: (C)

445. 25 yr old male having fever & malaise since 2 weeks, arthritis of ankle joint and tender erythematous nodules over the shin. Diagnosis is:

(A)   Erythema nodosum

(B)   Hansen’s disease

(C)   Weber-Christian disease

(D)   Nodular Vasculitis

Answer: (A)

446. Which of these statements is false for lesions of Erythema nodosum :

(A)   They are considered as hypersensitivity reaction

(B)   The skin overlying the lesions is red, smooth and shiny

(C)   They are usually non tender

(D)   They can be associated with tuberculosis

Answer: (C)

447. A young female presents with a history of fever and nodular lesion over the shin. Histopathology reveals foamy histiocytes with nuetrophilicinfiltration. There is no evidence of vasculitis. Most probable diagnosis is :

(A)   Sweet’s Syndrome

(B)   Erythema nodosum

(C)   Erythema nodosumleprosum

(D)   Behcet’s syndrome

Answer: (B)

448. Normal commensal of skin are

(A)   Staphylococcus aureus

(B)   Candida

(C)   Propioni bacterium acnes

(D)   Diptheria

(E)    Streptopyogenes

Answer: (B, C)

449. Most common type of leprosy in India :

(A)   BT

(B)   TT

(C)   LL

(D)   BL

Answer: (B)

450. Skin smear is negative in which leprosy

(A)   Indeterminate

(B)   Neuritic

(C)   Lepromatous

(D)   Borderline

Answer: (B)

451. Single lesion in skin is seen in which type of leprosy :

(A)   TT

(B)   BT

(C)   BL

(D)   LL

Answer: (A)

452. A single hypopigmented anesthetic patch with satellite lesion on forearm, likely diagnosis is :

(A)   Indeterminate leprosy

(B)   Tuberculoid leprosy

(C)   Neuritic leprosy

(D)   Lupus Vulgaris

Answer: (B)

453. Satellite Lesion are seen in :

(A)   Tuberculoid Leprosy

(B)   Lepromatous Leprosy

(C)   Borderline Tuberculoid Leprosy

(D)   Histoid Leprosy

Answer: (C)

454. Inverted saucer shaped lesion is found in

(A)   Lepromatous leprosy

(B)   Tuberculoid leprosy

(C)   Borderline leprosy

(D)   Indeterminate leprosy

Answer: (C)

455. Characteristic feature of borderline leprosy

(A)   Inverted saucer lesion

(B)   ENL

(C)   Hypopigmented macule & plaques all over body

(D)   Glove & stocking anesthesia

Answer: (A)

456. A 45 year old male had multiple hypoaesthetic mildly erythematous large plaques with elevated margins on trunk and extremities. His ulnar and lateral popliteal nerves on both sides were enlarged. The most probable diagnosis is :

(A)   Lepromatous leprosy

(B)   Borderline leprosy

(C)   Borderline tuberculoid leprosy

(D)   Borderline lepromatous leprosy

Answer: (D)

457. A patient with multiple hypopigmented&hypesthetic patches on lateral aspect of forearm with abundance of AFB and granulomatous inflammation on histology. The diagnosis is

(A)   Tuberculoid leprosy

(B)   Indetermediate leprosy

(C)   Borderline leprosy

(D)   Lepromatous leprosy

Answer: (C)

458. An 8-year old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 month h/o an ill definedhypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face. The most likely diagnosis is :

(A)   Ptyriasisalba

(B)   Indeterminate leprosy

(C)   Morphacea

(D)   Calcium deficiency

Answer: (B)

459. 8 year old boy from Tamil Nadu presents with a white, non anaesthetic, non scalyhypopigmented macule on his face, likely diagnosis is:

(A)   Pityriasisalba

(B)   Pityriasisversicolour

(C)   Indeterminate leprosy

(D)   Neuritic leprosy

Answer: (C)

460. All lesions are seen in leprosy except

(A)   Erythematous Macule

(B)   Hypopigmented patch

(C)   Vesicles

(D)   Flat & raised patches

Answer: (C)

461. All are features of lepromatous leprosy except :

(A)   Gynaecomastia

(B)   Madarosis

(C)   Saddle nose

(D)   Perforating Ulcer

Answer: (D)

462. Commonest nerve involved in leprosy is

(A)   Ulnar

(B)   Median

(C)   Radial

(D)   Sciatic

Answer: (A)

463. In leprosy nerves commonly involved are :

(A)   High ulnar, low median

(B)   High median, low ulnar

(C)   Triple nerve palsy

(D)   High radial, low median

Answer: (A)

464. Earliest sensation to be lost in Hansens disease is :

(A)   Pain

(B)   Touch

(C)   Vibration

(D)   Temperature

Answer: (D)

465. In leprosy which of the following is not seen :

(A)   Abnormal EMG

(B)   Voluntary muscle wasting

(C)   Decreased Proprioception

(D)   Decreased response to tactile sensation

(E)    Increased response to tactile sensation

Answer: (C)

466. Leprosy do not involve :

(A)   CNS

(B)   Testis

(C)   Skin

(D)   Cornea

Answer: (A)

467. Leprosy affects all organs except

(A)   Eyes

(B)   Nerves

(C)   Uterus

(D)   Ovary

Answer: (C)

468. Tuberculoid leprosy is characterized by –

(A)   Non caseating granuloma in nerve

(B)   Sub epidermal free zone

(C)   Bacilli in skin

(D)   Skin caseation

Answer: (A)

469. All are true lepromatous leprosy except –

(A)   Presence of globi

(B)   Subepidermal free zone

(C)   Decreased cell mediated immunity

(D)   Presence of granulomas subdermally.

Answer: (D)

470. Skin biopsy in leprosy in characterized by :

(A)   Pariappendegial bacilli

(B)   Pariappendegeal lymphocytosis

(C)   Perivascular lymphocytosis

(D)   All of above

Answer: (D)

471. Cell mediated immunity is maximum suppressed in

(A)   BT

(B)   LL

(C)   TT

(D)   Indeterminate

Answer: (B)

472. Virhow’s cells are seen in:

(A)   Henochscholeinpurpura

(B)   Toxic Epidermal necrolysis

(C)   Congenital Syphilis

(D)   Leprosy

Answer: (D)

473. Lepromin test is used for :

(A)   Diagnosis

(B)   Treatment

(C)   Prognosis

(D)   Epidemiological investigation

Answer: (C)

474. The following test is not used for diagnosis of leprosy :

(A)   Lepramin test

(B)   Sit skin smear

(C)   Fine needle aspiration cytology

(D)   Skin biopsy

Answer: (A)

475. Not true about lepromin test is

(A)   It is diagnostic

(B)   Negative in infants < 6 months

(C)   Used to classify

(D)   BCG vaccination may convert negative to positive

Answer: (A)

476. Lepromin test is positive in which leprosy

(A)   Lepromatous

(B)   Indeterminate

(C)   Histoid

(D)   Tuberculoid

Answer: (D)

477. A 16 year old student reported for the evaluation of multiple hypopigmented macules on the trunk and limbs. All of the following tests are useful in making a diagnosis of leprosy, except :

(A)   Sensation testing

(B)   Lepromin test

(C)   Slit smears

(D)   Skin biopsy

Answer: (B)

478. A 27-year-old patient was diagnosed to have borderline leprosy and started on multibacillary multi-drug therapy. Six weeks later, he developed pain in the nerves and redness and swelling of the skin lesions. The management of his illness should include all of the following except :

(A)   Stop anti-leprosy drugs

(B)   Systemic corticosteroids

(C)   Rest to the limbs affected

(D)   Analgesics

Answer: (A)

479. Reversal lepra reaction shown in response to :

(A)   Cloafazimine

(B)   Chloroquine

(C)   Glucocorticoids

(D)   Thalidomide

Answer: (D)

480. DOC in type I lepra reaction with severe neuritis

(A)   Thalidomide

(B)   Clafazamine

(C)   Dapsone

(D)   Systemic Corticosteroid

Answer: (D)

481. Treatment of Acute neuritis in Lepra I reaction is A/E:

(A)   Dapsone

(B)   Steroid

(C)   Thalidomide

(D)   Incision and Drainage

Answer: (D, C)

482. Best method of treatment of ulner never abscess in case of leprosy is:

(A)   High dose of steroid

(B)   Incision and drainage

(C)   Thalidomide

(D)   High dose of clofazamine

Answer: (B)

483. The main cytokine, involved in erythema nodusumleprosum (ENL) reaction is :

(A)   Interleukin – 2

(B)   Interferon-gamma

(C)   Tumor necrosis factor – alpha

(D)   Macrophage colony stimulating factor

Answer: (C)

484. ENL is seen in which form of leprosy :

(A)   Indeterminate

(B)   BT

(C)   LL (lepromatous leprosy)

(D)   BL

(E)    TT

Answer: (C, D)

485. Manifestation of ENL includes all of the following except :

(A)   Pancreatistis

(B)   Fever

(C)   Hepatitis

(D)   Arthritis

(E)    Cutaneous nodules

Answer: (A, D)

486. Drug of choice in Erythema NodosumLeprosum (Type II lepra reaction) :

(A)   Steroid

(B)   Thalidomide

(C)   Clofazimine

(D)   Aspirin

Answer: (A)

487. Thalidomide is drug of choice for :

(A)   Lepra I reaction

(B)   Lepra II reaction

(C)   Both

(D)   Nerve Abscess

Answer: (B)

488. The daily dose of thalidomide for controlling E.N.L. is :

(A)   100 mg

(B)   200 – 300 mg

(C)   500 mg

(D)   1000 mg only

Answer: (B)

489. The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction

(A)   Chloroquin

(B)   Thalidomide

(C)   Cyclosporine

(D)   Corticosteroids

Answer: (C)

490. The most effective drug against M. leprae is:

(A)   Dapsone

(B)   Rifampicin

(C)   Clofazamine

(D)   Prothionamide

Answer: (B)

491. Most potent anti-leprotic drug is :

(A)   Rifampcin

(B)   Dapsone

(C)   Clofazimine

(D)   Norflox

Answer: (A)

492. The first line antileprosy drugs include all except-

(A)   Dapsone

(B)   Thiacetazone

(C)   Clofazimine

(D)   Rifampicin

Answer: (B)

493. Antileprotc drug also used in lepra reaction is :

(A)   Rifampicin

(B)   Dapsone

(C)   Cirprofloxacin

(D)   Clofazimine

Answer: (D)

494. Dose of Dapsone is –

(A)   1-2 mg/kg

(B)   5 mg/kg

(C)   10 mg/kg

(D)   20 mg/kg

Answer: (A)

495. One of the following is a side effect of clofazimine used in leprosy therapy –

(A)   Hyperpigmentation

(B)   Erythema

(C)   Discoloration of body secretions

(D)   Macular rash

Answer: (A)

496. Skin pigmentation &icthyosis like side effects are seen in :

(A)   Rifampicin

(B)   Clofazimine

(C)   Dapsone

(D)   Steroid

Answer: (B)

497. Control of TB and leprosy is by :

(A)   Isolation of cases

(B)   Specific protection

(C)   Early diagnosis and treatment

(D)   Elimination of reservoirs

Answer: (C)

498. Multidrug therapy is given for

(A)   Syphilis

(B)   Leprosy

(C)   Herpetiformis

(D)   Icthyosis Vulgaris

Answer: (B)

499. WHO regime for paucibacillary leprosy:

(A)   100 mg Dapsone daily + Rifampicin monthly (600 mg)

(B)   Dapsone daily + Rifampicin daily

(C)   Dapsone + Rifampicin + Clofazemine daily

(D)   Rifampicin + Clofazamine daily

Answer: (A)

500. Duration of treatment in pauci bacillary leprosy is

(A)   6 months

(B)   9 months

(C)   2 years

(D)   Till symptoms subside

Answer: (A)

501. Average duration of treatment in multibacillary leprosy is

(A)   1 year

(B)   2 year

(C)   3 year

(D)   Life long

Answer: (A)

502. Thalidomide is not used in

(A)   ENL

(B)   Bechet’s syndrome

(C)   HIV associated Oral ulcers

(D)   HIV associated neuropathy

Answer: (D)

503. Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis is a form of:

(A)   Tuberculid

(B)   Primary tuberculosis

(C)   Postprimary tuberculosis with good resistance

(D)   Post primary tuberculosis with poor resistance

Answer: (C)

504. Most common type of cutaneous T.B. is:

(A)   Lupus vulgaris

(B)   Scrofuloderma

(C)   T.B. verruca cutis

(D)   Erythema induratum

Answer: (A)

505. Skin manifestations of T.B.

(A)   Lupus vulgaris

(B)   Lupus pernio

(C)   Scrofuloderma

(D)   Butcher warts

Answer: (A, C)

506. Tuberculosis of skin is called as

(A)   Lupus Vulgaris

(B)   Lupus Pernio

(C)   Lupus profundus

(D)   Scrofuloderma

Answer: (A)

507. True about lupus vulgaris-

(A)   Apple jelly nodule at root of nose

(B)   TB of skin & mucosa

(C)   Also known as scrofuloderma

(D)   ATT is helpful

Answer: (A)

508. A 12 year old boy had a gradually progressive plaque on a buttock for the last 3 years. The plaque was 15 cm in diameter, annular in shape, with crusting and induration at the periphery and scarring at the center. The most likely diagnosis.

(A)   Tineacorporis

(B)   Granuloma annulare

(C)   Lupus vulgaris

(D)   Borderline leprosy.

Answer: (C)

509. An 8 year old boy present with well defined annular lesion over the buttock with central scarring that is gradually progressive over the last 8 months. The diagnosis is:

(A)   Annular psoriasis

(B)   Lupus Vulgaris

(C)   TineaCorporis

(D)   Chronic granulomatous disease

Answer: (B)

510. A young boy presented with a lesion over his right buttock which had peripheral scaling and central clearing with scarring. The investigation of choice would be:

(A)   Tzanksmear

(B)   KOH preparation

(C)   Biopsy

(D)   Sabourad’s agar

Answer: (C)

511. Apple-jelly nodules is/are seen in :

(A)   Lupus vulgaris

(B)   DLE

(C)   Lichen planus

(D)   Psoriasis

Answer: (A)

512. 20 year old male from Jaipur with erythermatous lesion on cheek with central crusting likely diagnosis is:

(A)   SLE

(B)   Lupus Vulgaris

(C)   Chillblain

(D)   Cutaneous Leishmaniasis

Answer: (D)

513. A farmer h as a single warty lesion on leg. Which of the following could be most likely lesion :

(A)   Verruca vulgaris

(B)   Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis

(C)   Mycetoma

(D)   Lichen planushypertrophicus

Answer: (B)

514. Cutaneous (skin) Tuberculosis secondary to underlying tissue eg lymph node is called as

(A)   Lupus Vulgaris

(B)   Scrofuloderma

(C)   SpinaVentosa

(D)   TuberculousVerrucosa Cutis

Answer: (B)

515. Tuberculides are seen in

(A)   Lupus vulgaris

(B)   Scrofuloderma

(C)   Lichen scrofulososum

(D)   Erythema nodosum

Answer: (C)

516. Which of the following is/are tuberculides

(A)   Lichen scrofulosorum

(B)   Lichen nichidus

(C)   Lichen aureus

(D)   Erythema nodosum.

Answer: (A, D)

517. Involvement of sweat gland, dermal appendages, and hair follicles with epitheloid granuloma are typical features of which of the following?

(A)   Lichen Scrofulosum

(B)   Miliary TB

(C)   Papulonecrotic type

(D)   Lupus vulgaris

Answer: (A)

518. Mycobacterium causing skin ulcer :

(A)   M.smegmatis

(B)   M.scrofulaceum

(C)   M.ulcerans

(D)   M.fortiutum

(E)    M.marinum

Answer: (C)

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519. Skin hazards of swimming are :

(A)   Verrucae

(B)   Pyodermagangrenosum

(C)   M. marinum infection

(D)   M. ulcerans infection

Answer: (A, C)

520. Epitheloid granuloma is characteristic of

(A)   Sarcoidosis

(B)   Eosinohilia

(C)   T.B.

(D)   Mycosis Fungoides

Answer: (A)

521. Staphylococcla infection causes all disease except :

(A)   Impetigo

(B)   Erysipelas

(C)   Ecthyma

(D)   Scaldy Skin Syndrome

Answer: (B)

522. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by

(A)   Staphylococcal infection

(B)   Streptococcus

(C)   Pseudomonas

(D)   E. Coli

Answer: (A)

523. False statement about impetigo

(A)   Mostly caused by staphylococcus or streptococcus or both

(B)   It predisposes to glomerulonephritis

(C)   Produces scar on healing

(D)   Erythromycin is drug of choice

(E)    It is infectious lesion

Answer: (C, D)

524. Commonest skin infection in children is –

(A)   Scabies

(B)   Impetgocontagiosa

(C)   Molluscumcontagiosa

(D)   Warts

Answer: (B)

525. Impetigo contageosa most commonly due to :

(A)   Group B Streptococcus

(B)   Staphylococcus

(C)   Moniliasis

(D)   Streptococcus Viridans

Answer: (B)

526. ‘Honey colored’ crusts are characteristic of :

(A)   Nummular eczema

(B)   Impetigo

(C)   Herpes zoster

(D)   Cutaneous diphtheria

Answer: (B)

527. True about Impetigo is :

(A)   Contagious

(B)   Bacterial infection

(C)   Non contagious

(D)   Honey coloured cast

(E)    Viral infection

Answer: (A, B, D)

528. Erysipeloid is transmitted by :

(A)   Droplet

(B)   Feco-oral

(C)   Mosquito bite

(D)   Contact with animal

Answer: (D)

529. Staphylococcus causes A/E :

(A)   Scarlet fever

(B)   TSS

(C)   Carbuncle

(D)   Sycosisbarbae

Answer: (A)

530. Desquamation of skin occurs in

(A)   Erythema infectiosum

(B)   Kawasaki disease

(C)   Scarlet fever

(D)   Toxic shock syndrome

(E)    Infectious mononucleosis

Answer: (B, C, D)

531. Which of these statements is false for Erythermamarginatum :

(A)   Lesions are serpiginous

(B)   Characteristically it is an evanescent

(C)   Rash worsens on application of heart

(D)   Rash is itchy

Answer: (D)

532. After 3 days of fever patient developed maculo erythematous rash lasting for 48 hrs diagnosis is:

(A)   Fifth disease

(B)   Rubella

(C)   Measles

(D)   Roseolainfantum

Answer: (D)

533. Primary pyodermas are:

(A)   Impetigo contagiosa

(B)   Ecthyma

(C)   Furncle

(D)   Pyodermagangrenosa

(E)    Impetigo herpetiformes

Answer: (A, B, C)

534. Which of the following are bacterial infection of skin-

(A)   Pyodermagangrenosum

(B)   Piedra

(C)   Impetigo contagiosa

(D)   Ecthyma

Answer: (C)

535. Which of the following are fungal infection of skin –

(A)   Sporothrichosis

(B)   Molluscumcontagiousm

(C)   Madura foot

(D)   Tinea

Answer: (A)

536. Which of the following stains is used to study fungal morphology in tissue sections

(A)   PAS

(B)   Von-kossa

(C)   Alizarin Red

(D)   Masson’s Trichrome

Answer: (A)

537. Dermatophytes are :

(A)   Sporothrix

(B)   Tineaversicularis

(C)   Microsporidium

(D)   Trichophytonrubrum

(E)    All of the above

Answer: (D, C)

538. Dermatophytes infection to:

(A)   Superficial

(B)   Subdermal

(C)   Subfascial

(D)   Muscular

Answer: (A)

539. Ring worm fungi live in

(A)   Stratum Corneum

(B)   Dermis

(C)   Prickel Cell layer

(D)   Basal Cell layer

Answer: (A)

540. Which does not cause TineaCapitis

(A)   Epidermophyton

(B)   Microsporum

(C)   TrichophytonRubrum

(D)   TrichophytonViolaceum/Schoenleiniii

Answer: (A)

541. Most common organism causing T. capitis is

(A)   Trichophytontonsurans

(B)   Microsporum

(C)   Epidermophyton

(D)   Candida albicans

Answer: (B)

542. Black dot ring worm is caused by-

(A)   Microsporon

(B)   Trichophyton

(C)   Epiermophyton

(D)   Candida

Answer: (B)

543. Karion is seen in

(A)   Candida infection

(B)   Trichomoniasis

(C)   Pityraisis

(D)   Dermatophystosis

Answer: (D)

544. An 8 yr old boy presents with boggy swelling and easily pluckable hair, Diagnosis is

(A)   Tineacapitis

(B)   Alopecia areata

(C)   Tuberculoid leprosy

(D)   Pityriasisalba

Answer: (A)

545. A 8 year old child has localized non cicatrial alopecia over scalp with itching and scales. The diagnosis is :

(A)   TineaBarbae

(B)   Alopecia areata

(C)   TineaCapitis

(D)   Lichen planus

Answer: (C)

546. A 10-yr-old boy presented with painful boggy swelling of scalp, multiple sinuses with purulent discharge, easily pluckable hair, and lymph nodes enlarged in occipital region. Which one of the following would be most help full for diagnostic evaluation?

(A)   Biopsy and Giemsa staining

(B)   Bacterial culture

(C)   KOH amount

(D)   Patch test, Gram staining &Tzank smear

Answer: (C)

547. An eleven year old boy is having tineacapitis on his scalp. The most appropriate line of treatment is:

(A)   Oral griseofulvin therapy

(B)   Topical griseofulvin therapy

(C)   Shaving of the scalp

(D)   Selenium sulphide shampoo

Answer: (A)

548. Tineaungum effects

(A)   Nail fold

(B)   Nail plate

(C)   Joints

(D)   Inter digital space

Answer: (B)

549. Treatment of tineaunguium –

(A)   Fluticasone

(B)   Itraconazole

(C)   Oleamine oil

(D)   Turbinafin

(E)    Neomycin

Answer: (B)

550. CiclipiroxOleaine is used in :

(A)   Dermatophytosis

(B)   Acne

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   Lichen Planus

Answer: (A)

551. DOC for TeniaUngum

(A)   Ampthotericin B

(B)   Miconazole

(C)   Gresiofulvin

(D)   Nystatin

Answer: (C)

552. Grisefulvin given for the treatment of fungal infection in the figure nail dermatophytosis for how much duration

(A)   4 weeks

(B)   6 weeks

(C)   2 months

(D)   3 months

Answer: (D)

553. Not used topically

(A)   Nystatin

(B)   Ketoconazole

(C)   Griseofulvin

(D)   Micronazole

Answer: (C)

554. Grisofulvin is used in all except

(A)   TineaCaptitis

(B)   TineaVersicolor& Candida

(C)   TineaCorporis

(D)   TineaUngium

Answer: (B)

555. Regarding Athelete’s foot which us correct:

(A)   4th tow web is commonly involved

(B)   Severe itching

(C)   Caused by trichophytonmentagrophyte

(D)   Hyperhydrosis is present

(E)    All of the above

Answer: (E)

556. Dhobi’s itch is :

(A)   Tineacorfioris

(B)   Tineacruris

(C)   Tineabarbae

(D)   Tineacapitis

Answer: (B)

557. Most common age group to suffer from T. Cruris

(A)   Infant

(B)   Male child

(C)   Adult male

(D)   Adult female

Answer: (C)

558. A 22 year sold male patient presents with a complaints of severe itching and white scaly lesions in the groin for past month. Which of the following is most likely to be the causative agent.

(A)   Trichophytonrubrum

(B)   Candida albicans

(C)   Candida glabrata

(D)   Malassezia furfur

Answer: (A)

559. A 36 years old factory worker developed itchy annular scaly plaques in both groins. Application of a corticosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is:

(A)   Erythema annularecentrifugam

(B)   Granuloma annulare

(C)   Annular lichen planus

(D)   Teniacruris

Answer: (D)

560. Tinea incognito is seen with :

(A)   Steroid treatment

(B)   1% BHi3

(C)   5% permethrin

(D)   Antibiotics

Answer: (A)

561. A 30 yr old female presents with history of itching under right breast. On examination annular ring lesion was present under the breast. The diagnosis is:

(A)   Trichophytonrubrum

(B)   Candida albicans

(C)   Epidermophyton

(D)   Microsporum

Answer: (A)

562. The test likely to help in diagnosis of a patient who presents with an itchy annular paque on the face is :

(A)   Gram’s stain

(B)   Potassium hydroxide mount

(C)   Tissue smear

(D)   Wood’s lamp examination

Answer: (B)

563. Which of the following drugs is not antifungal?

(A)   Capofungin

(B)   Undecylenic acid

(C)   Ciclopirox

(D)   Clofazimine

Answer: (D)

564. An otherwise healthy male presents with a creamy curd like white patch on the tongue. The probable diagnosis is

(A)   Candidiasis

(B)   Histoplasmosis

(C)   Lichen Planus

(D)   Aspergillosis

Answer: (A)

565. Commonest fungal infection of the female genitalia in diabetes is :

(A)   Cryptococcal

(B)   Madura mycosis

(C)   Candidial

(D)   Aspergellosis

Answer: (C)

566. A washerman presents with thickness erosion &discolouration of web spaces of toes diagnosis is:

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   TineaUnguum

(C)   Both

(D)   Candidiasis

Answer: (D)

567. Drug of choice in systemic candidiasis is :

(A)   Amphotericin

(B)   Griseofulvin

(C)   Nystatin

(D)   Ketoconazole

Answer: (A)

568. About dematophytes all are true except

(A)   Candida albicans usually cause systemic infection

(B)   Dermatophytes involve superficial layers of skin

(C)   Microsporum doesn’t involve nail

(D)   Epidermophyte doesn’t involve hair

Answer: (A)

569. Discharging sinus is seen in

(A)   Syphillis

(B)   Herpes

(C)   Actinomycosis

(D)   MolluscumContagiosum

Answer: (C)

570. Linear lesion is seen in:

(A)   Sporotrichosis

(B)   Lichen planus

(C)   Psoriasis

(D)   Pemphigus

Answer: (A)

571. Wavelength of light produced by wood’s Lamp is –

(A)   320 nm

(B)   360 nm

(C)   400 nm

(D)   480 nm

(E)    760-800 nm

Answer: (B)

572. The range of light which causes maximum skin damage

(A)   360-400 nm

(B)   290-360 nm

(C)   240-290 nm

(D)   760-800 n m

Answer: (B)

573. Medically most important form of UV radiation is –

(A)   UV-A

(B)   UV-B

(C)   UV-C

(D)   None of the above

Answer: (B)

574. The wood’s lamp filter is made of –

(A)   Tin and chromium oxide

(B)   Nickel oxide and silica

(C)   Copper oxide and Barium oxide

(D)   Zinc oxide

Answer: (B)

575. A pinkish red Fluorescence of urine with wood’s lamp is

(A)   Lead poisoning

(B)   Porphyria cutaneatarda

(C)   Erythromelagia

(D)   Acrocyanosis

Answer: (B)

576. Coral red-fluorescence wood’s Lamp seen in-

(A)   Porphyria cutaneatarda

(B)   Erythrasma

(C)   Livedo-reticulris

(D)   Hypomelanosis

Answer: (B)

577. Wood’s lam light is used in the diagnosis of :

(A)   Tineacapitis

(B)   Candida albicans

(C)   Histoplasma

(D)   Cryptococcos

Answer: (A)

578. Uses of woods light includes :

(A)   Urine examination in porphyria

(B)   Examination of hair in T. capitis

(C)   Selerema

(D)   All

Answer: (D)

579. Scabies, an infection of the skin caused by Sarcoptes scabiet, is an example of

(A)   Water borne disease

(B)   Water washed disease

(C)   Water based disease

(D)   Water related disease

Answer: (D)

580. Incubation period of scabies is

(A)   7 days

(B)   2 weeks

(C)   4 weeks

(D)   2-3 days

Answer: (C)

581. Characteristic lesion of scabies is-

(A)   Burrow

(B)   Fissure

(C)   Vesicle

(D)   Papule

Answer: (A)

582. The burrows in scabies is in the

(A)   Straum germination

(B)   Straum corneum

(C)   Malphigian layer

(D)   Dermis

Answer: (B)

583. Most severe form of scabies-

(A)   Norwegian scabies

(B)   Neular scabies

(C)   Animal scabies

(D)   Genital

(E)    Generalized scabies

Answer: (A)

584. Nodular scabies is found in

(A)   Web space of finger

(B)   Axilla

(C)   Abdomen

(D)   Scrotum

Answer: (D)

585. Circle of hebra is associated with :

(A)   Syphilis

(B)   Scabies

(C)   Leprosy

(D)   Lichen planus

Answer: (B)

586. Scabies in children differs from that in adults in that it affects

(A)   Web space

(B)   Face

(C)   Genitalia

(D)   Axilla

Answer: (B)

587. Adult scabies is characterized by –

(A)   Involve palm & soles

(B)   Involve face

(C)   Involve anterior abdomen

(D)   Involve web space

(E)    Involve genitalia

Answer: (A, D, E)

588. A 9 month old child as multiple itchy papulovesicular lesion on face, trunk, palm & sole. Similar lesions are also seen in the younger brother. Which of the following is most possible diagnosis?

(A)   Papular urticaria

(B)   Scabies

(C)   Atopic dermatitis

(D)   Allergic contact dermatitis

Answer: (B)

589. An infant presented with itchy eczematous crusted lesions with exudation on palm, sole glans penis and face. All are true except :

(A)   Family should be examined

(B)   Only patient needs drug treatment

(C)   Only patient needs drug treatment

(D)   Distribution of lesion help in diagnosis making

(E)    Drug should be applied to affected areas for whole day

Answer: (A, C, E)

590. An infant presenting with itchy lesions over groin and prepuce all is indicated except

(A)   Bathe & apply scabicidal solution

(B)   Treatment of all family members

(C)   Dispose all clothes by burning

(D)   IV antibiotics

Answer: (D)

591. An 8-month old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palms and soles. The siblings also have similar complaints. The treatment of choice is such a patient is :

(A)   Systemic ampicillin

(B)   Topical betamethasone

(C)   Systemic prednisolone

(D)   Topical permethrin

Answer: (D)

592. The drug used for scabies is/are

(A)   Sulphur ointment

(B)   Benzyle benzoate

(C)   Gamma benzene hexachloride

(D)   Crotamiton

(E)    All of the above

Answer: (E)

593. Ivermectin in indicated in the treatment of :

(A)   Syphilis

(B)   Scabies

(C)   Tuberculosis

(D)   Dermatophytosis

Answer: (B)

594. Permethrin is used in treatment of

(A)   Scabies

(B)   Leprosy

(C)   Body Louse

(D)   Leishmaniaris

Answer: (A)

595. Drugs/treatment used in scabies are

(A)   Crotamiton

(B)   Permethrin

(C)   Lindane

(D)   Gammexene

(E)    Washing of body clothing

Answer: (ALL)

596. A 6 month old infant presented with multiple erythematous papules & exudative lesions on the face, scalp, trunk few vesicles on palms and soles for 2 weeks. His mother has H/o itchy lesions. The most likely diag is :

(A)   Scabies

(B)   Infantile eczema (atopic dermatitis)

(C)   Infantile sebornheic dermatitis

(D)   Impetigo contagiosa

(E)    Seborrheic dermatitis

Answer: (A)

597. Vagabond’s disease is

(A)   Pediculosiscorposis

(B)   Scabies

(C)   Eczema

(D)   Ringworm

Answer: (A)

598. TOC for pediculosiscorporis is

(A)   3 application of BHC

(B)   4 application of BHC

(C)   Disinfection of all clothes and beddings

(D)   DDT application

Answer: (C)

599. TOC in pediaculosiscorporis is

(A)   3 applications of Gama Benzene Hexa Chloride

(B)   One applications of Benzyl Benzoate

(C)   4 application of Benzyl Benzoate

(D)   Disinfection of Clothes only

Answer: (A)

600. Verrucosa Vulgaris is caused by :

(A)   HPV

(B)   EBV

(C)   CMV

(D)   HIV

Answer: (A)

601. Genital Warts (condylomaaccuminata) are most commonly caused by which of the following serotypes of HPV?

(A)   HPV 6

(B)   HPV 16

(C)   HPV 18

(D)   HPV 33

Answer: (A)

602. Myrmecia warts are –

(A)   Planer wart

(B)   Plantar wart

(C)   Verrucous wart

(D)   Palmer wart

Answer: (B)

603. All are true regarding viral warts except

(A)   Basophilic stippling

(B)   Koilocytes are characteristic

(C)   Spontaneous regression common in children

(D)   Perinucear vacuolization.

(E)    Verruca vulgaris is associated with HPV

Answer: (E)

604. Immunomodulator used in treatment of genital warts is

(A)   ATRA

(B)   Podophyllin

(C)   Imiquimod

(D)   Prednisolone

Answer: (C)

605. Podophylline is used in treatment of

(A)   Plantar warts

(B)   Palmar warts

(C)   Comdylomataaccuminata (Genital wart)

(D)   Condylomatalata

Answer: (C)

606. Regarding podophylin resin which of following statement is true :

(A)   Dervied from plant source

(B)   Safe in pregnancy

(C)   Teratogenic

(D)   High recurrence rate of wart after podophyllin resin treatment

(E)    Individual variation in response rate

Answer: (A, C, D, E)

607. Treatment of choice for genital warts in pregnancy?

(A)   Salicylic Acid with Lactic Acid solution

(B)   Podopylin

(C)   Imiqimod

(D)   Cryotherapy

Answer: (D)

608. HPV vaccine is :

(A)   Monovalent

(B)   Bivalent

(C)   Quadrivalent

(D)   Bivalent and quadrivalent

Answer: (D)

609. Gonococcus is –

(A)   Extracellular gram positive

(B)   Intracytoplasmic gram positive

(C)   Intracytoplasmic gram negative

(D)   Intra nuclear gram positive

Answer: (C)

610. The commonest venereal disease in India is –

(A)   Gonorrhoea

(B)   Syphilis

(C)   Chancroid

(D)   LGV

Answer: (A)

611. The main feature of gonorrhea is –

(A)   Purulent discharge per urethra

(B)   Inguinal adenitis

(C)   Ulcer over glans penis

(D)   Rashes

Answer: (A)

612. Gonococcus resistant structure is

(A)   Urethra

(B)   Testis

(C)   Fallopian Tube

(D)   Ampulla of cervix

Answer: (B)

613. C. cause of Nongonococcal Urethritis

(A)   Chlamydia

(B)   Mycoplasma

(C)   Trichomonas

(D)   Gram negative rod

Answer: (A)

614. The syndromic management of urethral discharge includes treatment of :

(A)   Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis

(B)   Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes ganitalis

(C)   Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis

(D)   Syphilis and chancroid

Answer: (C)

615. TOC for penicillin resistant gonorrhea

(A)   Ciprofloxacin

(B)   Ceftriaxone

(C)   Streptomycine

(D)   Erythromycin

Answer: (B)

616. LGV is caused by

(A)   Chalamydia trachomatis

(B)   Haemophylusducrei

(C)   HTLV type II

(D)   Donovanosisgranulomatis

Answer: (A)

617. Bubos with multiple sinuses discharging into inguinal lymph nodes are seen in:

(A)   Chancroid

(B)   Granuloma Inguinale

(C)   LGV

(D)   Syphilis

Answer: (C)

618. Bubos with multiple sinuses discharging into inguinal lymph nodes are seen in :

(A)   Chancroid

(B)   Granuloma Inguinale

(C)   LGV

(D)   Syphilis

Answer: (C)

619. Sign of Groove is found in –

(A)   Chancoid

(B)   Granuloma inguinale

(C)   LGV

(D)   Syphilis

Answer: (C)

620. Genital elephantiasis is caused by :

(A)   Donovanosis

(B)   Congenital syphilis

(C)   Herpes genaitalis

(D)   Lymphogranulomavenerum

Answer: (D)

621. Esthiomine is seen in-

(A)   Chancroid

(B)   Syphilis

(C)   LGV

(D)   Gonorrhoea

Answer: (C)

622. Frie test is done in

(A)   Donovanosis

(B)   LGV

(C)   Syphilis

(D)   Leprosy

Answer: (B)

623. DOC for LGV

(A)   Doxycycline

(B)   Ampicillin

(C)   Erythromycin

(D)   Ceftriaxone

Answer: (A)

624. Donovanosis/granuloma venerum is caused by

(A)   Calymatobactergranulomatis

(B)   T. pertenue

(C)   Chlamydia Trachomatis

(D)   H. ducreyl

Answer: (A)

625. Pseudo Bubo is seen in

(A)   Chancroid

(B)   LGV

(C)   Donovanois

(D)   Syphilis

Answer: (C)

626. Lymphadenopathy is seen is A/E

(A)   Syphilis 1st Stage

(B)   Donovanosis

(C)   LGV

(D)   Chancroid

Answer: (B)

627. A 30 year old male patient has a large, spreading and exuberant ulcer with bright red granulation tissue over the glands penis. There was no lymphadenopathy. The most likely causative organism is;

(A)   Treponemapallidum

(B)   Herpes simplex virus type 1

(C)   Herpes simplex virus type 2

(D)   Calymmatobacteriumgranulomatis

Answer: (D)

628. Safety pin appearance is shown by-

(A)   Hemophhilusducreyi

(B)   Chalmydia

(C)   Donovanigranulomatis

(D)   Mycoplasma

Answer: (C)

629. Treatment of granuloma inguinale is-

(A)   Tetracycline

(B)   Sulphanomide

(C)   Streptomycin

(D)   Penicillin

Answer: (A)

630. Drug of choice for Granuloma venereum –

(A)   Sulphomamides

(B)   Streptomycin

(C)   Penicillin

(D)   Erythromycin

(E)    Gentamycin

Answer: (D)

631. Streptomycin is useful in treatment of

(A)   Granuloma venerum

(B)   LGV

(C)   Syphilis

(D)   Chancoid

Answer: (A)

632. Chanroid is caused by-

(A)   Hemophilusducrey’s

(B)   Hemojphilusvaginalis

(C)   Trachoma virus

(D)   Treponimapallidum

Answer: (A)

633. Chancroid may be caused by:

(A)   T. pallidium

(B)   G. donovani

(C)   Chlamydia Trachomatis

(D)   Herpes Hominis Virus

Answer: (D)

634. Reliable test for chancroid detection-

(A)   Skin test

(B)   Biopsy

(C)   Grams stained smear

(D)   Clinical examination

Answer: (C)

635. School of fish appearance is shown by :

(A)   Hemophilusducreyi

(B)   Gonococcus

(C)   Chlamydia

(D)   Donovaniagranulomatis

Answer: (A)

636. DOC in chancroid is

(A)   Tetracycline

(B)   Doxycycline

(C)   Erythromycin

(D)   Streptomycin

Answer: (C)

637. 20 year old male lalu develops multiple tender bleeding, nonindurated ulcer over prepuce and glans which are painful along with suppurative lymphadenopathy, 5 days after having sexual interc-ourse with a sex worker, most probable disease is

(A)   LGV

(B)   Herpes genitials

(C)   MolluscumContagiousm

(D)   Chancroid

(E)    Donovanosis

Answer: (D)

638. Multiple necrotic ulcers in prepuce of penis with tender, suppurative inguinal nodes is caused by-

(A)   Chalmydia

(B)   Hemophilusducreyi

(C)   Herpes simplex

(D)   Syphilis

Answer: (B)

639. A man having multiple, painful, indurated, undermined, sloughed edged glans which occurred 5days after exposures; most likely diagnosis is

(A)   Chancroid

(B)   Primary chancre

(C)   Herpes genitalis

(D)   LGV

Answer: (A)

640. Painful lymphadenopathy is seen in:

(A)   Donovanosis

(B)   Syphilis

(C)   Chancroid

(D)   Herpes simplex

(E)    Gonorrhea

Answer: (C, D)

641. A 30 year old male presented with ulcerative lesion on glans penis. Wright-Giemsa stain showed 1-2 rounded structure in macrophage vacuoles. What is the etiology

(A)   Chlamydia trachomatis

(B)   N. gonorrhoea

(C)   H. ducreyi

(D)   Calymatobacterium granulomatis

Answer: (D)

642. 19 years male develops painless penile ulcers 9 days after sexual intercourse with a professional sex worker likely diagnosis is:

(A)   Chancroid

(B)   Herpes

(C)   Chancre

(D)   Traumatic ulcer

Answer: (C)

643. A 23-year-old male had unprotectd sexual intercourse with a commercial sex worker. Two weeks later, he developed a painless, indurated ulcer on the glans which exuded clear serum on pressure. Inguinal lymph nodes in both groins were enlarged an not tender. The most appropriate diagnostic test is :

(A)   Gram’s stain of ulcer discharge

(B)   Dark field microscopy of ulcer discharge

(C)   Giemsa stain of lymph node aspirate

(D)   ELISA for HIV infection

Answer: (B)

644. A 24 year old male presents to a STC clinic with a single painless ulcer on external genitalia. The choice of laboratory test to look for the etiological agent would be

(A)   Scrappings from ulcer for culture on chocolate agar with antibiotic supplement.

(B)   Serology for detection of specific IgM antibodies.

(C)   Scrappings from ulcer for dark field microscopy.

(D)   Scrappings from ulcer for tissue culture

Answer: (C)

645. ‘Chancre redux’ is a clinical feature of

(A)   Early relapsing syphilis

(B)   Late syphilis

(C)   Chancroid

(D)   Recurrent herpes simplex infection

Answer: (A)

646. Primary bullous lesions is seen in which type of syphilis

(A)   Primary

(B)   Secondary

(C)   Tertiary

(D)   Congenital

Answer: (D)

647. Characteristic feature of early congenital syphilis is:

(A)   Microcephaly

(B)   Saddle nose

(C)   Interstitial keratitis with saber skin

(D)   Vesicular rash with bulla over palms and soles

Answer: (D)

648. Hutchison’s syphilitic traid includes all except

(A)   Associated with congenital syphilis

(B)   Notched incisor teeth

(C)   Nerve deafness

(D)   Interstitial Keratitis

(E)    Associated with CVS anomalies

Answer: (E)

649. Sabre Tibia

(A)   Scury

(B)   Rickets

(C)   Leprosy

(D)   Syphilis

Answer: (D)

650. A boy with multiple bullous lesions over trunk and periostitis on x-rays. What should be the next investigation

(A)   VDRL of mother & child

(B)   PCR for maternal TB

(C)   HBsAg screening

(D)   ELISA of mother and Child

Answer: (A)

651. A 40 year old female presented with numerous nonitchy, erythematous scaly papules (lesions) on trunk, with few oral white mucosal plaques. She also had erosive lesions in perianal area. The probable diagnosis is

(A)   Psoriasis

(B)   Secondary syphilis

(C)   Lichen planus

(D)   Disseminated candidiasis

Answer: (B)

652. In secondary syphilis all are seen except :

(A)   Condylomalata

(B)   Interstitial keratitis

(C)   Arthritis

(D)   Proteinuria

Answer: (B)

653. Early eruption of secondary syphilis are all except-

(A)   Intensely pruritic

(B)   Papular/maculo popular eruption

(C)   Symmetrical

(D)   Plemorphic

Answer: (A)

654. Not true of secondary syphilis

(A)   May be asymptomatic

(B)   Usually involve palms & soles

(C)   Lymphadenopathy

(D)   Vesicular Bullous lesions

Answer: (D)

655. Condylomatalatae are seen in

(A)   Congenital syphilis

(B)   Primary syphilis

(C)   Secondary syphilis

(D)   Tertiary syphilis

Answer: (C)

656. In secondary syphilis, true about rash is

(A)   Pruritic

(B)   Vesicular

(C)   Asymptomatic

(D)   Tender

Answer: (C)

657. Secondary syphilis manifested by

(A)   Painless lymphadenopathy

(B)   Pruritic rash

(C)   Mucosal erosion

(D)   Mostly asymptomatic

Answer: (A, C, D)

658. A 23-year-old college student has asymptomatic and hyperpigmened macules on both palms for three week. The most appropriate diagnostic test is :

(A)   Veneral Diseases research Laboratory (VDRL) test

(B)   Skin biopsy

(C)   Serum cortisol levels

(D)   Assay for arsenic in skin, hair & nails

Answer: (A)

659. Treponemapallidum isolation from CSF is maximum in which stage of syphilis?

(A)   Primary syphilis

(B)   Secondary syphilis

(C)   Tertiary syphilis

(D)   Tabesdorsalis

Answer: (B)

660. True about syphilis is A/E :

(A)   VDRL is sensitive but not specific

(B)   Infection leads to life long immunity

(C)   IgM& IgA

(D)   T. palladium when inoculated in rabbit produce progressive disease.

Answer: (B, C)

661. A patient has syphilis since 2 year. CSF examination was done & treatment started. Which of the following test is most useful in monitoring treatment

(A)   TPI

(B)   VDRL

(C)   FTA

(D)   Dark ground microscopy

Answer: (B)

662. Most specific test for syphilis

(A)   VDRL

(B)   RPR

(C)   FTA-Abs

(D)   Kahn’s test

Answer: (C)

663. Test not used for diagnosis of syphilis

(A)   VDRL

(B)   TPI

(C)   Reagin Test

(D)   Frei Test

Answer: (D)

664. DOC in primary syphilis is

(A)   Corticosteroid

(B)   Oral Penicilline

(C)   Benzathine Penicillin

(D)   Crystalline Penicillin

Answer: (C)

665. JarischHerxheimer reaction is commonly seen in :

(A)   Early syphilis

(B)   Late congenital syphilis

(C)   Latent syphilis

(D)   Syphilis of cardiovascular system

Answer: (A)

666. Not transmitted sexually

(A)   Syphilis

(B)   T. pertenue

(C)   C. Candida

(D)   Gonorrhoea

Answer: (B)

667. Incorrect statement is

(A)   VDRL titre decreases with treatment

(B)   VDRL becomes

(C)   FTA-ABS is earliest & most sensitive test

(D)   Yaws &Pinta can be differentiated by serological tests

Answer: (D)

668. A young man presents to the emergency department with a maculopapular rash 2 weeks after healing of a painless genital ulcer. The most likely etiological agent is

(A)   Treponemapallidum

(B)   Treponemapertunae

(C)   Chalmydia Trachomatis

(D)   Calymatobactergranulomatis

Answer: (A)

669. Drug of choice for syphilis in a pregnant women

(A)   Azithromycin

(B)   Penicillin

(C)   Tetracycline

(D)   Ceftriaxone

Answer: (B)

670. All is true about syphilis except

(A)   Seropositive infant not treated at birth if mother received penicillin in 3rd trimester

(B)   For neurosyphilis FTA-ABS is sensitive; VDRL diagnostic but CSF pleocylosis is best treatment response guide.

(C)   HIV patients are less likely to become VDRL nonreactive after treatment

(D)   ELA+, RPR+, indicate past or current infection

Answer: (A)

671. Treatment of both partners is recommended in A/E:

(A)   Candida infection

(B)   Gardenella

(C)   Herpes

(D)   Trichomonasvaginalis

Answer: (C, A)

672. Recurrent balanoposthitis seen in :

(A)   DM

(B)   Herpes simplex

(C)   Smoking

(D)   Alcohol

(E)    Bad hygiene

Answer: (A)

673. Genital ulcer is/are caused by :

(A)   Human papilloma virus

(B)   Herpes simplex virus

(C)   HIV

(D)   Treponemapallidum

(E)    Lymphogranulomavenereum

Answer: (B, D, E > C, A)

674. Syndromic Management of genital ulcer syndrome in India includes

(A)   Chancroid and Primary chancre

(B)   Chancroid and herpes simplex

(C)   Chancroid, Primary Chancre and herpes simplex

(D)   Herpes simplex and primary chancre

Answer: (C)

675. Defective DNA repair is a/w

(A)   Albinism

(B)   Xerodermapigmentosa

(C)   Vitiligo

(D)   Icthyosis

Answer: (B)

676. disease that can cause skin malignancy are

(A)   Xerodermapogmentosa

(B)   Neurofibromatosis

(C)   Actinic keratosis

(D)   Porphyria cutaneatarda

Answer: (A)

677. Cells cultured from patients with this disorder exhibit low activity for the nucleotide excision repair process. This autosomal recessive genetic disease includes marked sensitivity to sunlight (Ultra violet light) with subsequent formation of multiple skin cancers and premature death, the disorder is:

(A)   Acute intermittent Porphyria

(B)   Alkaptonuria

(C)   XerodermaPigmentosa

(D)   Ataxia – Telangiectasa

Answer: (C)

678. A girl child with veerrucous lesions at an age of 2 weeks later on developed linear brands of hyperkeratotic papules and nodules followed by whorled pigmentation. Her mother had history of in utero child death and hypopigmented atrophic linear lesions. The diagnosis is

(A)   Neurofibromatosis

(B)   Xerodermapirmentosa

(C)   Tuberous sclerosis

(D)   Incontinentiapigmenti

Answer: (D)

679. 2-month-old girl present with verrucous plaque on the trunk. What is your most probable diagnosis?

(A)   Incontinentiapigmentosa

(B)   Darier disease

(C)   Congenital naevus

(D)   Icthyosis

Answer: (A)

680. The mode of inheritance of incontinentia pigment is :

(A)   Autosomal dominant

(B)   Autosomal recessive

(C)   X-linked dominant

(D)   X-linked recessive

Answer: (C)

681. True about incontinentapigmenti include the following except:

(A)   X-linked dominant

(B)   Primary skin abnormality

(C)   Avascularity of peripheral retina

(D)   Ocular involvement is seen in almost 100% case and is typically unilateral

Answer: (D)

682. Neurofibromatosis all are true except :

(A)   Autosomal recessive

(B)   Scoliosis

(C)   Neurofibroma

(D)   Association with cataract

Answer: (A)

683. The pathognomonic sign of a neurofibromatosis is :

(A)   Café-au-lait macules

(B)   Axillary frekling

(C)   Shagreen patch

(D)   None of the above

Answer: (B)

684. Lisch nodule is seen in:

(A)   Von Reclinghausens disease

(B)   Lupus vulgaris

(C)   Leprosy

(D)   LGV

Answer: (A)

685. A patient had seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunk and multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis?

(A)   Slit lamp examination of eye

(B)   Measurement of intraocular tension

(C)   Examination of fundus

(D)   Retinal artery angiography

Answer: (A)

686. Child with h/o hypopigmented macule on back, infantile spasm and delayed milestone has

(A)   NF

(B)   Sturge weber syndrome

(C)   Tuberous sclerosis

(D)   Nevus anemicus.

Answer: (C)

687. All are seen in Tuberous sclerosis except

(A)   Iris Nodule

(B)   Renal Cortical Cyst

(C)   Rhabdomyoma of heart and lung

(D)   Adenoma Sebaceum

Answer: (A)

688. Adenoma sebaceum is a feature of:

(A)   Neurofibromatosis

(B)   Tubercous sclerosis

(C)   Xanthomatosis

(D)   Incontinenetiapigmenti

Answer: (B)

689. Babloo a 4 year male presents with history of seizures. On examination there is hypopigmented patches on face & mental retardation. Most probable diagnosis is:

(A)   Neurofibromatosis

(B)   Tuberous sclerosis

(C)   Sturge Weber Syndrome

(D)   IncontinentaPigmenti

Answer: (B)

690. Ash leaf maculate is found in :

(A)   Tuberous sclerosis

(B)   Neurofibromatosis

(C)   Lymphangioma

(D)   None

Answer: (A)

691. Koenen’speriungual fibromas are seen in > 50% of cases with:

(A)   Tuberous sclerosis

(B)   Sturge weber syndrome

(C)   Alaxia telangiectasia

(D)   Neurofibroatosis

Answer: (A)

692. All are true regarding tuberous sclerosis except

(A)   Autosomal dominant sporadic transmission

(B)   Vogt triad of epiloia

(C)   Cafe au lait macules exclude the diagnosis

(D)   Fibrous facial plaque

(E)    Stippled confetti spots.

Answer: (C)

693. Inheritance of ichthyosis vulgaris is :

(A)   X linked dominant

(B)   X linked recessive

(C)   Autosomal dominant

(D)   Autosomal recessive

Answer: (C)

694. Crocodile skin or sauroderma is seen in:

(A)   Toxic epidermal necrolysis

(B)   Psoriasis

(C)   Darier’s disease

(D)   Ichthyosis vulgaris

Answer: (D)

695. Granular layer is absent in :

(A)   Ichtyosis vulgaris

(B)   X linked ichthyosis

(C)   Epidermolytic hyper keratosis

(D)   Lamellar ichthyosis

Answer: (A)

696. A male child with cryptorchidism presents with large black scales on body flexures. Skin biopsy showed hyper granulosis& steroid sulfatase deficiency. Probable diagnosis is

(A)   Icthysois vulgaris

(B)   Icthyosis-lamellar

(C)   X linked icthyosisnigra

(D)   Nonbullousicthyosiformerythroderma

Answer: (C)

697. Icthyosis is associated with :

(A)   Hodgkins disease

(B)   AIDS

(C)   Hypothyroidism

(D)   All

Answer: (D)

698. Ichthysis is caused by :

(A)   Hemosiderosis

(B)   Refsum disease

(C)   Niacin deficiency

(D)   Steven Johnson syndrome

Answer: (B)

699. Keratomdrma is/are seen in

(A)   Pemphigus

(B)   Pityriasisrosea

(C)   Pityriasisherpetiformis

(D)   Reiter’s syndrome

Answer: (C)

700. Casal’s paint necklace is caused by :

(A)   Lichen planus

(B)   Pellagra

(C)   Pernicious anemia

(D)   SLE

Answer: (B)

701. Flaky pain appearance of skin is seen in

(A)   Dermatitis

(B)   Pellagra

(C)   Marasmus

(D)   Kwashiorkar

Answer: (D)

702. Recurrent oral ulcers with pain and erythematous halo around them, diagnosis is

(A)   Apthus ulcer

(B)   Herpes

(C)   Chicken pox

(D)   Measles

Answer: (A)

703. All are true about Achrodermatitisenteropathica except :

(A)   ↓Zn level (low serum zinc level)

(B)   Reverse with Zn suppement

(C)   Triad of acral dermatitis, dementia & diarrhea

(D)   AR

Answer: (C)

704. Dermatitis and alopecia are due to deficiency of :

(A)   Zinc

(B)   Molybodenum

(C)   Magnesium

(D)   Calcium

Answer: (A)

705. Acrodermatitisenteropathica is d/t deficiency of :

(A)   Zn

(B)   Se

(C)   Cu

(D)   Cr

Answer: (A)

706. The rash in measles occurs first in occurs first in the –

(A)   Forehead

(B)   Post auricular

(C)   Chest

(D)   Neck

Answer: (B)

707. Erythema marginatum is seen in :

(A)   Drug reactions

(B)   Typhoid fever

(C)   Enteric fever

(D)   Rheumatic fever

Answer: (D)

708. Rose spot are seen in :

(A)   Typhus fever

(B)   Typhoid fever

(C)   Enteric fever

(D)   Rheumatic fever

Answer: (C)

709. ‘Slapped cheeks’ appearance is seen in

(A)   Roseloainfantum

(B)   Erythema subitum

(C)   Erythema infectiosum

(D)   Erythema multiforme

Answer: (C)

710. Phrynoderma is a cutaneous manifestation of severe deficiency of vitamin :

(A)   A

(B)   B

(C)   C

(D)   D

Answer: (A)

711. Veldt sore is most common in –

(A)   Hilly areas

(B)   Tropical climate

(C)   Rainy areas

(D)   Deserts

Answer: (D)

712. ‘Cayenne pepper’ stippling due to hemosiderin is found in :

(A)   Erythroplasia of Queyrat

(B)   Pagets disease

(C)   Plasma cell balantitis of zoon

(D)   Metronidazole

Answer: (C)

713. Common sites of Mongolian spot are :

(A)   Face

(B)   Neck

(C)   Lumbo sacral area

(D)   Leg

(E)    Thigh

Answer: (C, D, E)

714. Which of the following condition resolves spontaneously in an infant :

(A)   Erythema toxicum

(B)   Mongolian spot

(C)   Lymphoma

(D)   Milia

(E)    Port wine stain

Answer: (A, B, D)

715. Erythema toxicum in a neonate indicates –

(A)   Staphylococcal sepsis

(B)   Pneumococcemia

(C)   Drug hypersensitivity

(D)   Is not of any significance

Answer: (D)

716. Riehl’smelanosis mainly involves –

(A)   Face and Neck

(B)   Trunk

(C)   Extremities

(D)   Palms only

Answer: (A)

717. C. site of Atopic dermatitis

(A)   Scalp

(B)   Elbow

(C)   Antecubital fossa

(D)   Trunk

Answer: (C)

718. Monogolian spots is usually seen at region –

(A)   Cervicofacial

(B)   Lumbosacral