Medical PG Medicine

Medical PG Medicine

1. Increased ‘anion gap’ is not seen in

(A)  Salicylate poisoning

(B)    Renal tubular acidosis

(C)  Lactic acidosis

(D)  Ethylene glycol poisoning

Answer: (B)

2.All the following are features of Anorexia Nervosa except

(A)  Predominantly seen in females

(B)  There is Loss of weight at the time of presentation

(C)  Amenorrhea is rare

(D)  Avoidance of high calorie foods

Answer: (C)

3. All the following are used in the treatment of Pneumocystis carinii except

(A)  Pentamidine

(B)  Dapsone

(C)  Cotrimoxazole

(D)  Fluoroqinolones

Answer: (D)

4. The drug of choice in Herpes Simplex Encephalitis is

(A)  Acyclovir

(B)  Zidovudine

(C)  Amantadine

(D)  Vidarabine

Answer: (A)

5. All the following are features of Tropical Pulmonary Eosinophilia except

(A)  Eosinophilia > 3000/mmᶟ

(B)  Microfilaria in blood

(C)  Paroxysmal cough and wheezing

(D)  Bilateral chest mottling and increased broncho-vascular markings

Answer: (B)

6. osteoporosis is seen in all the following except

(A)  Thyrotoxicosis

(B)  Rheumatoid arthritis

(C)  Hypoparathyroidism

(D)  Steroid therapy

Answer: (C)

7. Osteoporosis is seen in

(A)  Thyrotoxicosis

(B)  Cushing’s disease

(C)  Menopause

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

8. The most common manifestation of osteoporosis is

(A)  Compression fracture of the spine

(B)  Asymptomatic, detected incidentally by low serum Calcium

(C)  Bowing of legs

(D)  Bowing of legs

Answer: (A)

9. Which part of the spine is most commonly affected in Rheumatoid arthritis

(A)  Cervical

(B)  Lumbar

(C)  Thoracic

(D)  Sacral

Answer: (A)

10. ll the following are true about Rheumatoid arthritis except

(A)  Positive for Anti-IgG antibody

(B)  Juxta-articular osteoporosis

(C)  Morning stiffness

(D)  C Reactive protein indicates better progonosis

Answer: (D)

11. Which of the following is true regarding Rheumatoid arthritis

(A)  Typically involves small and large joints symmetrically but spares cervical spine

(B)  Causes pleural effusion with low sugar

(C)  Pulmonary nodules are absent

(D)  Enthesopathy prominent

Answer: (B)

12. Gold slats can be used in

(A)  Ankylosing spondylitis

(B)  Rheumatoid arthritis

(C)  Osteoarthritis

(D)  Behcet’s syndrome

Answer: (B)

13. All the following are features of Behcet’s syndrome except

(A)  Recurrent aphthous stomatitis

(B)  Multi-system involvement

(C)  Seen only in the tropics

(D)  Common in youngsters

Answer: (C)

14. All the following are features of Marfan’s syndrome except

(A)  Arachnodactyly

(B)  Joint hypermobility

(C)  High palate

(D)  Flat foot-pes planus

Answer: (B)

15. In Thyrotoxicosis, β-blockers do not control

(A)  Anxiety

(B)  Tremors

(C)  Tachycardia

(D)  Oxygen consumption

Answer: (D)

16. SIADH secretion is seen in all except

(A)  Lung abscess

(B)  Interstitial Nephritis

(C)  Vinka alkaloids

(D)  Bronchial adenoma

Answer: (B)

17. Henoch Schonlein purpura is characterized by all except

(A)  Thrombocytopenia

(B)  Glomerulonephritis

(C)  Arthralgia

(D)  Abdominal pain

Answer: (A)

18. All the following are true about multiple myeloma except

(A)  Osteolytic bone disease

(B)  t(8-14) translocation

(C)  Light chain proliferation

(D)  Bence-Jones proteins in urine

Answer: (B)

19. In the JVP, ‘a’ waves are absent in

(A)  Atrial fibrillation

(B)  Mitral stenosis

(C)  Tricuspid atresia

(D)  Sick sinus syndrome

Answer: (A)

20. Angina pectoris and Syncope are most likely to be associated with

(A)  Mitral stenosis

(B)  Aortic stenosis

(C)  Mitral regurgitation

(D)  Tricuspid stenosis

Answer: (B)

21. Acute Aortic regurgitation is seen in all the following except

(A)  Marfan’s syndrome

(B)  Acute myocardial infarction

(C)  Bacterial endocarditis

(D)  Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer: (B)

22. Decreased maximum mid-expiratory flow rate indicates obstruction in

(A)  Small airways

(B)  Trachea

(C)  Large airways

(D)  Trachea & Bronchi both

Answer: (A)

23. All the following are true about Chronic Obstructive lung disease except

(A)  Decreased FeV1

(B)  Decreased MEFR

(C)  Increased RV

(D)  Decreased diffusion capacity

Answer: (D)

24. Normal portal venous pressure is

(A)  3-5 cm saline

(B)  5-10 cm saline

(C)  10-15 cm saline

(D)  15-20 cm saline

Answer: (C)

25. Hepatitis B infectivity is indicated by

(A)  Anti-HBsAg

(B)  HBsAg + HBeAg

(C)  Anti-HBsAg + Anti-HBc

(D)  Anti-HBeAg + Anti-HbsAg

Answer: (B)

26. All the following are causes of Acute Pancreatitis except

(A)  Gall stones

(B)  Alcohol

(C)  Hemochromatosis

(D)  Hypercalcemia

Answer: (C)

27. The most common site of Berry aneurysm is

(A)  Junction of anterior communicating artery with anterior cerebral artery

(B)  Junction of posterior communicating artery with internal carotid artery

(C)  Bifurcation of middle cerebral artery

(D)  Vertebral artery

Answer: (A)

28. A common site for intracranial hemorrhage  is

(A)  Putamen

(B)  Cerebellum

(C)  Mid-brain

(D)  Pons

Answer: (A)

29. Hemiplegia is commonly associated with infarction of the area of distribution of the

(A)  Anterior cerebral artery

(B)  Middle cerebral artery

(C)  Posterior cerebral artery

(D)  Anterior communicating artery

Answer: (B)

30. All the following are features Pseudotumor cerebri except

(A)  Increased intracranial tension

(B)  Convulsions

(C)  Papilledema

(D)  Normal CT scan

Answer: (B)

31. The characteristic feature of a frontal lobe tumor is

(A)  Abnormal gait

(B)  Aphasia

(C)  Distractibility

(D)  Antisocial behavior

Answer: (D)

32. Neuronophagia is seen in

(A)  Amoebic encephalitis

(B)  Poliomyelitis

(C)  Tuberculous meningoencephalitis

(D)  Cerebral malaria

Answer: (B)

33. All the following are true of Craniopharyngioma except

(A)  Derived from Rathke’s pouch

(B)  Contains epithelial cells

(C)  Present in sella or infra-sellar location

(D)  Causes visual disturbances

Answer: (C)

34. Thymoma is associated with all except

(A)  Pure Red-cell aplasia

(B)  Aplastic anemia

(C)  Hypergammaglobulinemia

(D)  Myasthenia gravis

Answer: (C)

35. Thymoma is associated with

(A)  Myasthenia gravis

(B)  Scleroderma

(C)  Oesophageal atrasia

(D)  Hyper-gammaglobulinemia

Answer: (A)

36. All the following are examples of diseases causing Aplastic anemia except

(A)  PNH

(B)  Hepatitis

(C)  Pregnancy

(D)  Cold hemoglobinuria

Answer: (D)

37. All the following are seen in Multiple myeloma except

(A)  Visual Disturbance

(B)  Bleeding tendency

(C)  Proteinuria

(D)  Dystrophic calcification

Answer: (D)

38. All of the following cause Microcytic Hypochromic anemia except

(A)  Lead poisoning

(B)  Thalassemia

(C)  Iron deficiency anemial

(D)  Fanconi’s anemia

Answer: (D)

39. Treatment of choice in hairy cell leukemia is

(A)  Steroids except

(B)  Cladribine

(C)  Splenectomy

(D)  Pentostatin

Answer: (B)

40. Electric alternans is seen in

(A)  Cardiac tamponade

(B)  Restrictive candiomyopathy

(C)  Constructive pericarditis

(D)  Right Ventricular MI(RVMI)

Answer: (A)

41. Continuous murmur is seen in all the following except

(A)  Aortic sinus of valsalva rupture normal

(B)  Coarctation of Aorta

(C)  AV malformations

(D)  Peripheral pulmonary stenosis

Answer: (D)

42. Agent of first choice in an cute attack of Prinzmetal’s angina is

(A)  Diltiazem

(B)  Nitrates

(C)  Propranolol

(D)  Verapamil

Answer: (B)

43. Following are used in treatment of digitalis toxity except

(A)  Potassium

(B)  Lignocaine

(C)  Fab particles

(D)  Hemodialysis

Answer: (D)

44. Aspirin-sensitive asthma is associated with

(A)  Obesity

(B)  Urticaria

(C)  Nasal polyp

(D)  Extrinsic asthma

Answer: (C)

45. All the following are true about bronchopulmonary aspergillosis except

(A)  Central bronchiectasis

(B)  Pleural effusion

(C)  Asthma

(D)  Eosinophilia

Answer: (B)

46. Addison’s disease is characterized by all except

(A)  Hyperglycemia

(B)  Hypotension

(C)  Hyperkalemia

(D)  Hyponatremia

Answer: (A)

47. The most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is

(A)  Pituitary adenoma

(B)  Adrenal adenoma

(C)  Ectopic ACTH

(D)  Iatrogenic steroids

Answer: (D)

48. Excess Aldosterone is associated with all the following except

(A)  Hypokalemia

(B)  Hyperkalemia

(C)  Sodium retention

(D)  Hypertension

Answer: (B)

49. A common cause of Primary hyperparathyroidism is

(A)  Multiple parathyroid adenomas

(B)  Solitary parathyroid adenoma

(C)  Adrenal hyperplasia

(D)  Ectopic PTH production

Answer: (B)

50. Tufting of the terminal phalanges is seen in

(A)  Hypoparathyroidism

(B)  Hyperparathyroidism

(C)  Hyperthyroidism

(D)  Hypothyroidism

Answer: (B)

51. The diagnosis of a patient presenting with familial Polyostosis, Precocious puberty and Pigmentation is

(A)  Tuberous sclerosis

(B)  McAlbright syndrome

(C)  Klinefelter syndrome

(D)  SLE

Answer: (B)

52. The diagnosis of a patient presenting with Seizures. Mental retardation and Sebaceous adenoma is

(A)  Hypothyroidism

(B)  Tuberous sclerosis

(C)  Toxoplasmosis

(D)  Down syndrome

Answer: (B)

53. The following are rheumatoid disease modifying drugs except

(A)  Chloroquine

(B)  Gold

(C)  Penicillamine

(D)  BAL

Answer: (D)

54. All the following are features of Scleroderma except

(A)  Dysphagia

(B)  Raynaud’s phenomenon

(C)  Skin contracture

(D)  Calcification in all the long bones

Answer: (D)

55. Which is not true of hypocalcaemia

(A)  Can occur in hypoparathyroidism

(B)  Latent tetany is seen

(C)  Prolonged QT interval

(D)  Inverse relation with Mg⁺⁺ levels

Answer: (D)

56. Hypercalcemia is not seen in

(A)  Lithium therapy

(B)  Chronic renal failure

(C)  Multiple myeloma

(D)  Vitamin deficiency

Answer: (D)

57. QT interval is shortened in

(A)  Hypocalcaemia

(B)  Hypokalemia

(C)  Hypercalcemia

(D)  Hyperkalemia

Answer: (C)

58. The CSF findings in TB meningitis are all the following except

(A)  Raised protein

(B)  Low sugar

(C)  Low chloride

(D)  High RBC count

Answer: (D)

59. Tunor associated with Polycythemia Vera is

(A)  Sarcoma

(B)  Pituitary adenoma

(C)  Cerebellar Hemangioblastoma

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

60. True about CSF finding in pyogenic  meningitis is

(A)  CSF contains no organisms

(B)  ↓ Chloride, ↓Glucose

(C)  ↑ Glucose, ↑ protein

(D)  ↑ Chloride, ↓glucose

Answer: (B)

61. The drug of choice in Cryptococcal Meningitis is

(A)  Pentostatin

(B)  Amphotericin B

(C)  Clotrimazole

(D)  Zidovudine

Answer: (B)

62. The commonest cause of Intracerebral Bleed is

(A)  Thrmobocytopenia

(B)  Diabetes

(C)  Hypertension

(D)  Berry aneurysm

Answer: (C)

63. Fasciculations are seen in

(A)  Motor neuron disease

(B)  Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

(C)  Polymyositis

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

64. The differential diagnosis of Botulism includes all the following except

(A)  Myasthenia Gravis

(B)  Guillain Barre’s syndrome

(C)  Poliomyelitis

(D)  Clostridial myonecrosis

Answer: (D)

65. Vitamin B6 deficiency is associated with all of the following except

(A)  Penicillamine

(B)  INH

(C)  Cyclosporin

(D)  Cycloserine

Answer: (C)

66. Which drug is not effective against H. pylori

(A)  Colloidal Bismuth

(B)  Metronidazole

(C)  Amoxicillin

(D)  Erythromycin

Answer: (D)

67. Intestinal hypomotility is seen in the following except

(A)  Diabetes

(B)  Parkinsonism

(C)  Amyloidosis

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

68. The most common route of spread in hepatitis E is

(A)  Blood transfusion

(B)  Feco-oral

(C)  Intercourse

(D)  IV injection

Answer: (B)

69. The most common site for amebiasis is

(A)  Sigmoid colon

(B)  Transverse colon

(C)  Caecum

(D)  Hepatic flexure

Answer: (C)

70. Cause of acute loss of vision in a patient of alcoholic pancreatitis is

(A)  Purtscher’s retinopathy

(B)  Sudden alcohol withdrawal

(C)  Acute congestive glaucoma

(D)  CRAO

Answer: (A)

71. Widened anionic gap is not seen in

(A)  Acute renal failure

(B)  Diarrhea

(C)  Lactic acidosis

(D)  Diabetic ketoacidosis

Answer: (B)

72. Lactic acidosis is not seen in

(A)  Methanol poisoning

(B)  Respiratory failure

(C)  Circulatory failure

(D)  Tolbutamide

Answer: (D)

73. Metabolic alkalosis is seen in all expect

(A)  Thiazide diuretic therapy

(B)  Prolonged vomiting

(C)  Uretero-sigmoidostomy

(D)  Cushing’s disease

Answer: (C)

74. Thromobocytopenia is not seen in

(A)  H.S. purpura

(B)  DIC

(C)  Leukemia

(D)  Metastasis

Answer: (A)

75. Platelet transfusion is not indicated in

(A)  Dilutional Thrombocytopenia

(B)  Immunogenic Thrombocytopenia

(C)  Aplastic Anemia

(D)  DIC

Answer: (B)

76. Bacterial endocarditis is rarely seen in

(A)  VSD

(B)  PDA

(C)  MVP

(D)  Ostium secundum ASD

Answer: (D)

77. Which the following is not seen in a chronic case of Sickle cell anemia

(A)  Hepatomegaly

(B)  Pulmonary hypertension

(C)  Cardiomegaly

(D)  Splenomegaly

Answer: (D)

78. All are seen is Hemolytic anemia except

(A)  Hemosiderinuria

(B)  Reticulocytosis

(C)  Spherocytosis

(D)  Increased haptoglobin

Answer: (D)

79. Giant ‘a’ waves in JVP occur in all expect

(A)  Junctional rhythm

(B)  Pulmonary hypertension

(C)  Tricuspid regurgitation

(D)  Complete heart block

Answer: (C)

80. Differential cyanosis is seen in:

(A)  ASD

(B)  VSD

(C)  PDA

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (C)

81. All the following are radiological features of Chronic Cor pulmonale expect

(A)  Kerley B lines

(B)  Prominent lower lobe vessels

(C)  Pleural effusion

(D)  Cardiomegaly

Answer: (B)

82. All of the following are true about Temporal Arteritis expect

(A)  Polymyalgia Rheumatica

(B)  Anemia

(C)  Low ESR

(D)  Sudden blindness

Answer: (C)

83. Kawasaki disease is associated with all of the following features expect

(A)  Erythema

(B)  Posterior cervical Lymphadenopathy

(C)  Thrombocytopenia

(D)  Conjunctivitis

Answer: (C)

84. Which of the following is not seen in ARDS

(A)  Pulmonary edema

(B)  Hpoxemia

(C)  Stiff lung

(D)  Hypercapnia

Answer: (D)

85. The commonest cause of non-gonococcal urethritis is

(A)  Chalmydia

(B)  Ureaplasma urealyticum

(C)  E. coli

(D)  Proteus

Answer: (A)

86. Which of the following statements is true of Rabies

(A)  Fluorescent antibody is the test of choice

(B)  HDCV is a live attenuated vaccine

(C)  Vaccine is given deep IM in the buttock

(D)  Local wound care is of no use

Answer: (A)

87. False-negative tuberculin test is seen in all except

(A)  After 4-6 weeks of measles attack

(B)  Immunodeficiency state

(C)  Miliary tuberculosis

(D)  Atypical mycobacterial infection

Answer: (D)

88. All the following may be used in the prophylaxis of Meningococcal infection except

(A)  Penicillin

(B)  Sulphonamides

(C)  Erythromycin

(D)  Rifampicin

Answer: (C)

89. All the following are features of Wilson’s disease except

(A)  Increased copper content in liver

(B)  Mental changes

(C)  Features of chronic active hepatitis

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

90. Which drug is essential in Sheehan’s syndrome

(A)  Estrogen

(B)  Cortisone

(C)  Thyroxin

(D)  Growth hormone

Answer: (B)

91. All the following are features of Guillian-Barre syndrome except

(A)  Predominant motor involvement

(B)  Residual disability

(C)  Absence of pleocytosis in CSF

(D)  Sparing of bladder function

Answer: (B)

92. Which drug is not used in SIADH

(A)  Fludrocortisone

(B)  Demeclocycline

(C)  Desmopressin

(D)  Hypertonic saline

Answer: (C)

93. All the following are features of cerebellar disease except

(A)  Intention tremors

(B)  Past pointing

(C)  Hypertonia

(D)  Ataxia

Answer: (C)

94. Which of the following is not seen in Parkinsonism

(A)  Preserved postural reflexes

(B)  Hypokinesia

(C)  Rigidity

(D)  Static tremors

Answer: (A)

95. Drug of choice in phenothhiazine-induced Dystonia is

(A)  Diphenhydramine

(B)  Metoclopramide

(C)  Trifluperamide

(D)  Benzotropine

Answer: (D)

96. Osteoporosis is caused by all except

(A)  Sarcoidosis

(B)  Old age

(C)  Hypo-parathyroidism

(D)  Steroid therapy

Answer: (C)

97. All the following are features of Pseudotumor Cerebri except

(A)  Normal-sized ventricles on CT scan

(B)  Increased protein in CSF

(C)  Papilledema

(D)  Absence of focal neurological deficit

Answer: (B)

98. Normal pressure Hydrocephalus is characterized by all except

(A)  Aphasia

(B)  Dementia

(C)  Ataxia

(D)  Urinary incontinence

Answer: (A)

99. Granulomatous hepatitis may be seen with

(A)  Carbamazepine

(B)  Allopurinol

(C)  Phenylbutazone

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

100. Pancreatic cholera is characterized by all except

(A)  Hypochlorhydria

(B)  Hypokalemia

(C)  Hypokalemia

(D)  Hypocalcemia

Answer: (D)

101. All of the following statements are true about Glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency disease

(A)  Storage occurs in liver and kidney

(B)  Hyperuricemia

(C)  Gluconeogenesis is increased

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

102. All of the following statements are true about Hemolytic uramic syndrome except :

(A)  Uraemia

(B)  Hypofibhrinogenemia

(C)  Thrombocytopenia

(D)  Positive coomb’s test

Answer: (D)

103. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia may be seen in all of the following conditions except :

(A)  Systemic lupus erythematous

(B)  α-Methyl dopa therapy

(C)  Non hodgkin’s lymphoma

(D)  Mycoplasma pneumonia

Answer: (D)

104. Megaloblastic anemia may be aused by all of the following except :

(A)  Phenytoin

(B)  Methotrexate

(C)  Pyrimethamine

(D)  Amoxycilline

Answer: (D)

105. All of the following statements about digitalis are true except :

(A)  Excretion is mainly renal

(B)  Oral absorption is good

(C)  Actively metabolized in liver

(D)  Lipid soluble

Answer: (C)

106. All of the following may precipitate digitalis toxicity except :

(A)  Hypocalcemia

(B)  Hypokalemia

(C)  Hypomagnecemia

(D)  Hypothyroidism

Answer: (A)

107. Treatment of digoxin over dose includes administration of all of the following except :

(A)  Potassium

(B)  Lignocaine

(C)  Phenyton

(D)  Hemodialysis

Answer: (D)

108. Co-arctation of aorta may be associated with all of the following except :

(A)  Bicuspid aortic value

(B)  Tuner syndrome

(C)  Renal artery stenosis

(D)  PDA

Answer: (C)

109. Mitral stenosis is associated with

(A)  Right ventricular hyper trophy

(B)  Left ventricular hypertrophy

(C)  Left axis deviation

(D)  QRS complex

Answer: (A)

110. Most common type of hepatitis responsible for epidemics in India is :

(A)  Hepatitis A

(B)  Hepatitis B

(C)  Hepatitis C

(D)  Hepatitis E

Answer: (D)

111. Commonest cause of Budd Chiary syndrome is

(A)  Commonest cause of Budd Chiary syndrome is

(B)  Hepatocellular carcinoma

(C)  Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

(D)  Renal cell carcinoma

Answer: (C)

112. Adult polycystic kidney is inherited as :

(A)  Autosomal-co-dominant

(B)  Autosomal dominant

(C)  Autosomal recessive

(D)  X-linked dominant

Answer: (C)

113. Most common cause of amoebic lung abscess is

(A)  Aspiration

(B)  Direct spread from liver

(C)  Hematogenous spread from liver

(D)  Hematogenous spread from gut

Answer: (B)

114. All of the following may be associated with thymoma except :

(A)  Myasthenia-gravis

(B)  Pure red cell aplasia

(C)  Superior mediastinal compression syndrome

(D)  Hypergammaglobulinemia

Answer: (D)

115. Indication of systemic steroid in rheumatoid arthritis is :

(A)  Mononeuritis multiplex

(B)  Carpul tunnel syndrome

(C)  Presence of deformities

(D)  Articular cartilage involvement

Answer: (A)

116. Least common site to be involved in osteoarthritis amongst the following is :

(A)  Hip joint

(B)  Knee joint

(C)  Carpometacarpal joint of thumb

(D)  Metacarpophalangeal joint

Answer: (D)

117. Low does  of aspirin therapy is essentially advised for all of the following conditions except :

(A)  SLE

(B)  Post myocardinal infarction

(C)  Pre ecclampsia

(D)  None

Answer: (A)

118. B/L hilar lymphadenopathy, along with non caseating granulomas is a characteristic features of :

(A)  Sarcoidosis

(B)  Scleroderma

(C)  SLE

(D)  Stein-leventhal syndrome

Answer: (A)

119. Increased amylase may be seen in all of the following except :

(A)  Pancreatic pseudocyst

(B)  Appendicitis

(C)  Perforated peptic ulcer

(D)  Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

Answer: (B)

120. Most common cause of mediastinitis is :

(A)  Tracheal rupture

(B)  Esophageal rupture

(C)  Drugs

(D)  Idiopathic

Answer: (B)

121. Features not seen in Cushing’s Syndrome is

(A)  Hypoglycemia

(B)  Hypertension

(C)  Frank psychosis

(D)  Hypokalemia

Answer: (A)

122. Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism is

(A)  Solitary adenoma

(B)  Chief cell hyperplasia

(C)  Multiple adenoma

(D)  Werner’s syndrome

Answer: (A)

123. Hypercalcemia is not a feature of one of the following conditions :

(A)  Primary hyperparathyroidism

(B)  Multiple myeloma

(C)  Tumourlysis syndrome

(D)  Sarcoidosis

Answer: (C)

124. All of the following are known to cause hyperprolactenemia except :

(A)  Methyldopa

(B)  Phenothiazines

(C)  Bromocriptine

(D)  Metoclopramide

Answer: (C)

125. Hyponatremia may be seen in all of the following conditions except :

(A)  Mucoviscidosis

(B)  SIADH

(C)  Diabetes insipidus

(D)  Adrenal hyperplasia

Answer: (C)

126. Parkinsonism is characterized by all of the following characteristic features except :

(A)  Rigidity

(B)  Akinesia

(C)  Tremors at rest

(D)  Past pointing

Answer: (D)

127. Clinical features of normal pressure hydrocephalus include all of the following except :

(A)  Dementia

(B)  Aphasia

(C)  Gait disturbance

(D)  Urinary incontinence

Answer: (B)

128. All of the following tumors are malignant except :

(A)  Glioma

(B)  Astrocytoma

(C)  Hemangioblastoma

(D)  Ependymoma

Answer: (C)

129. Spinal segment in knee jerk include all of the following except

(A)  L₁

(B)  L₂

(C)  L3

(D)  L₄

Answer: (A)

130. Following hormonal levels are increased in small cell carcinoma of lung except :

(A)  ACTH

(B)  Growth hormone

(C)  ANF

(D)  AVP

Answer: (B)

131. Best test for Small intestine malabsorption of carbohydrates is :

(A)  Lund meal test

(B)  Shilling test

(C)  D-Xylose test

(D)  Follacin test

Answer: (C)

132. Obesity is associated with all of the following except :

(A)  Osteoarthritis

(B)  Hypertensions

(C)  Gall stones

(D)  Pancreatitis

Answer: (D)

133. An X-linked recessive disease is characterized by the following inheritance :

(A)  Vertical transmission

(B)  50% female carriers if male is affected and female is normal

(C)  50% male affected if female is carrier and male is normal

(D)  50% male carriers if female is affected and male is normal

Answer: (C)

134. Tuberculous pleural effusion is characterized by all of the following features except effusion :

(A)  Harmorrhagic effusion

(B)  Pleural fluid LDH more than 60% that of serum LDH

(C)  Protein in apirated fluid is increased

(D)  ↑Mesothelial cells

Answer: (D)

135. Kala-azar is not responding to primary treatment. The treatment should now consist of :

(A)  Double dose of antimony

(B)  Amphotericin-B

(C)  Ketoconazole

(D)  Splenectomy

Answer: (B)

136. Maximum ESR is seen in :

(A)  CHF

(B)  Polycythemia vera

(C)  Multiple meyloma

(D)  Sickle cell anemia

Answer: (C)

137. Macrocytic anemia may be seen with all of the following conditions except :

(A)  Liver disease

(B)  Copper deficiency

(C)  Thiamine deficiency

(D)  Orotic aciduria

Answer: (B)

138. Features of hereditary spherocytosis include all of the following except :

(A)  ↑ Osmotic fragility

(B)  ↑ MCHC

(C)  ↑ MCV

(D)  Decrease surface area per unit volume

Answer: (C)

139. Primaquine may cause hemolysis in :

(A)  G-6-PD deficiency

(B)  NADP-deficiency

(C)  Methemoglobin reductase deficiency

(D)  Crabb’s disease

Answer: (A)

140. Splenectomy is most useful in :

(A)  Thrombocytopenia

(B)  Hereditary spherocytosis

(C)  H.S. purpura

(D)  Sickle cell anemia

Answer: (B)

141. While handling a febrile neutropenic patient all are essential except :

(A)  Repeated hand washing of hospital person

(B)  White cell infusion

(C)  Prophylactic antibiotic

(D)  Colony stimulating factor for macrophages

Answer: (B)

142. Severity of mitral stenosis is assessed by :

(A)  Loud opening snap

(B)  Length of murmur

(C)  Loud S₁

(D)  Splitting S₂

Answer: (B)

143. Drug of choice in PSVT is :

(A)  Amaidarone

(B)  Lingnocaine

(C)  Quinidine

(D)  Adenosine

Answer: (D)

144. Nosocomial pneumonia is most commonly caused by:

(A)  Gram –ve bacilli

(B)  Gram +ve bacilli

(C)  Gram –ve cocci

(D)  Mycoplasma

Answer: (A)

145. Complications of bronchiectasis include all except :

(A)  Amyloidosis

(B)  Lung abscess

(C)  Cerebral abscess

(D)  Bronchiogenic carcinoma

Answer: (D)

146. Bronchial adenoma commonly present as :

(A)  Recurrent hemoptysis

(B)  Cough

(C)  Dysponea

(D)  Chest pain

Answer: (A)

147. Bronchial hyperplasia may be caused by all except :

(A)  Smoking

(B)  Theophylline

(C)  Prematurity

(D)  Allergy

Answer: (B)

148. Weight loss may be seen in all of the following except :

(A)  Uremia

(B)  Pheochromacytoma

(C)  Adrenal insufficiency

(D)  Insulinoma

Answer: (D)

149. Osteoporosis may be seen in all except :

(A)  Hyperparathridism

(B)  Hypoparathyridism

(C)  Thyrotoxicosis

(D)  Heparin administration

Answer: (B)

150. Osteoporosis may be seen in all except :

(A)  Hypoparathyroidism

(B)  Osteogenesis imperfecta

(C)  Hypogonadism

(D)  Hypophophatasia

Answer: (A)

151. All of the following are features of primary hyperaldosteronism except :

(A)  Pedal oedema

(B)  Polyurea

(C)  Hypokalemia

(D)  Hypertension

Answer: (A)

152. Commonest cause of cerebrovascular accident is :

(A)  Arterial thrombosis

(B)  Venous thrombosis

(C)  Embolism

(D)  Tumour

Answer: (C)

153. Commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is :

(A)  Rupture of circle of wills aneurysm

(B)  Rupture or vertebral artery aneurysm

(C)  Rupture of venecomitants of corpus striatum

(D)  Rupture of dural sinusis

Answer: (A)

154. Most common nerve involved in intracranial aneurysm is :

(A)  Trochlear

(B)  VII

(C)  VIII

(D)  Occulomotor

Answer: (D)

155. True about C.S.F. finding in pyogenic meningitis is :

(A)  Protein ↑, sugar ↓

(B)  Protein ↓, sugar ↑

(C)  Chloride↑, protein

(D)  ↓Protein, ↓sugar

Answer: (A)

156. All of the following may cause metaststic tumour causing spinal cord compressions except :

(A)  Lung carcinoma

(B)  Breast carcinoma

(C)  Lymphoma

(D)  Meningioma

Answer: (D)

157. Features of SLE include all of the following except :

(A)  Recurrent abortion

(B)  Sterility

(C)  Coomb’s positive hemolytic anemia

(D)  Psychosis

Answer: (B)

158. Lupus anticoagulants may cause all of the following except :

(A)  Recurrent abortion

(B)  False +ve VDRL results

(C)  Increase prothrombin time

(D)  Arterial thrombosis

Answer: (C)

159. Indications of steroids in SLE are all except :

(A)  Myocarditis

(B)  Endocarditis

(C)  Thrombocytopenia

(D)  Neuropsychiatric symptoms

Answer: (B)

160. Bilateral parotid gland enlargement is seen in all of the following except :

(A)  Sarcoidosis

(B)  SLE

(C)  Chronic pancreatitis

(D)  Sjogern’s syndrome

Answer: (B)

161. All are seen in osteogenesis imperfect except :

(A)  Posterior dislocation of hip

(B)  Osteoporosis

(C)  Blue sclera

(D)  Ligament laxity

Answer: (A)

162. Antibodies for the following conditions may be transmitted from mother to fetus except :

(A)  Rh-incompatibility

(B)  Isoimmune thrombocytopenia

(C)  Toxic erythesma

(D)  My-gravis

Answer: (C)

163. Ranson’s criteria for prognosis in acute pancreatitis include all except

(A)  WBC > 16,000 cells/cumm

(B)  Age over 55 years

(C)  AST > 250 U/100 ml

(D)  S.amylase > 350 I.U.

Answer: (D)

164. Most common trisomy among following is :

(A)  18

(B)  21

(C)  13

(D)  5

Answer: (B)

165. Commonest lesion in middle mediastinum is :

(A)  Lipoma

(B)  Aneurysm

(C)  Congenital cyst

(D)  Germ cell tumour

Answer: (B)

166. Metabolic complication in CRF include all of the following except :

(A)  Hyperkalemia

(B)  Hypophosphatemia

(C)  Hypocalcemia

(D)  Hypokalemia

Answer: (B)

167. Treatment of Neurocysticercosis includes all of the following except :

(A)  Prazequentil

(B)  Albendazole

(C)  Niclosamide

(D)  Flubendazole

Answer: (C)

168. All of the following statements stand true for telengiectasia of colon except :

(A)  May be seen in person less than 40 years of age

(B)  May be seen in person more than 60 years of age

(C)  Common site is caecum

(D)  50% involve rectum

Answer: (D)

169. Shigella associated hemolytic uramic syndrome is associated with all of the following except :

(A)  Hyperkalemia

(B)  Thrombocytopenia

(C)  Neurological symptom

(D)  Renal microthrombi

Answer: (C)

170. LVH is commonly seen with :

(A)  Pure mitral stenosis

(B)  ASD with fossa-ovalis

(C)  Aortic incompetance

(D)  Carcinoid syndrome

Answer: (C)

171. True statement about cardiac myxoma is :

(A)  Commonest sit is left atrium

(B)  Rarely recurs after excision

(C)  Distant metastasis are seen

(D)  More common in females

Answer: (A)

172. In gram negative septicemia, early findings setting before shock of florid is :

(A)  ↑Cardiac out put, ↑Total peripheral resistance

(B)  ↑Cardiac out put, ↓ Total peripheral resistance

(C)  ↓Cardiac out put, ↑ Total peripheral resistance

(D)  ↓Cardiac out put, ↓ Total peripheral resistance

Answer: (B)

173. Hepatic-encephalopathy may be precipitated by all of the following except :

(A)  Anemia

(B)  Barbiturates

(C)  Hyper kalemia

(D)  Hypothyroidism

Answer: (C)

174. Budd-chiari syndrome is most commonly due to :

(A)  Hepatic vein obstruction

(B)  Acute portal hypertension

(C)  Congential portal hypertension

(D)  IVC-obstruction

Answer: (A)

175. Maximum increase in α-fetoprotein increased is seen with :

(A)  Hepato-cellular-carcinoma

(B)  Benign-mature teratoma

(C)  Chorio-carcinoma

(D)  Teratoma

Answer: (A)

176. Which of the following statements is not true regarding α-fetoprotein :

(A)  High levels are seen in fibrolamellar hepatic carcinoma

(B)  Pre-operative high level indicates worse prognosis

(C)  High level are seen in stomach carcinoma

(D)  Levels may be increased in Hepatitis

Answer: (A)

177. pylori is known to cause all of the following except :

(A)  Gastric ulcer

(B)  Duodenal ulcer

(C)  Gastric lymphoma

(D)  Fundal gastritis

Answer: (D)

178. Diagnostic tests for H. Pylori include all of the following except :

(A)  Urea-breath test

(B)  Rapid urease test

(C)  Gastric biopsy & Warthin-starry stain

(D)  SAFA test

Answer: (D)

179. Epidemiological studies of H. pylori are done by using :

(A)  Urea-breath test

(B)  Serological markers

(C)  Culture

(D)  Gastric-biopsy urease test

Answer: (B)

180. Acute infection with HBV is characterized by :

(A)  HBs Ag

(B)  Anti HBs Ag

(C)  IgM anti HBc Ag and HBs Ag

(D)  Anti HBc Ag

Answer: (C)

181. Most important investigation for diagnosis of Zollinger Ellison-syndrome is

(A)  Ca⁺⁺ infusion test

(B)  Secretin injection test

(C)  ACTH stimulation test

(D)  Steroid assay

Answer: (B)

182. Most common CNS manifestation of Whipple’s disease is :

(A)  Cerebellar ataxia

(B)  Supranuclear ophthalmoplegia

(C)  Seizure

(D)  Dementia

Answer: (D)

183. Megaloblastic anemia in blind loop syndrome is due to :

(A)  Vitamin B­₁₂ malabsorption

(B)  Bacterial overgrowth

(C)  Frequent diarrhoea

(D)  Decrease iron intake

Answer: (B)

184. Ankylosing spondylitis in associated with :

(A)  HLA-B27

(B)  HLA-B-8

(C)  HLA-DW4/DR4

(D)  HLA-DR3

Answer: (A)

185. Increased alkaline phosphate in seen in :

(A)  Multiple myeloma

(B)  Primary hyperparathyroidism

(C)  Chronic renal failure

(D)  Osteoporosis

Answer: (B)

186. All of the following conditions are premalignant except

(A)  Ulcerative colitis

(B)  Crohn’s disease

(C)  Brochiectasis

(D)  Paget disease of bone

Answer: (C)

187. Most common tumor of the anterior mediastinum tumour is :

(A)  Thymoma

(B)  Lymphoma

(C)  Neurogenic tumour

(D)  Vascular cyst

Answer: (A)

188. RNA fragments are sequenced by :

(A)  Eastern-blot

(B)  Western blot

(C)  Northern blot

(D)  Southern-blot

Answer: (B)

189. Most common group of diseases following Mendelian inheritance are :

(A)  Autosomal dominant

(B)  Autosomal recessive

(C)  X-linked dominant

(D)  X-linked recessive

Answer: (A)

190. Smoking predisposes to all of the following cancers except :

(A)  Carcinoma larynx

(B)  Carcinoma bladder

(C)  Carcinoma stomach

(D)  Lymphoma

Answer: (D)

191. α1-Antitrypsin deficiency is associated with :

(A)  Centriaciner emphysema

(B)  Panaciner-emphysema

(C)  Irregular emphysema

(D)  Paraseptal-emphysema

Answer: (B)

192. Most unlikely cause of acute tubular necrosis amongst the following is :

(A)  Severe-bacterial-infection

(B)  Massive burn

(C)  Severe cursh injury in the foot

(D)  Rupture of aortic aneurysm

Answer: (D)

193. Sweat chloride levels are increased in all of the following conditions except :

(A)  Ectodermal dysplasia

(B)  G-6PD-deficiency

(C)  Heriditary nephrogenic-diabetes incipidus

(D)  Obesity

Answer: (D)

194. UMN lesion is characterized by :

(A)  Weakness & spasticity

(B)  Fasciculations

(C)  Rigidity

(D)  Localized muscle atrophy

Answer: (A)

195. “Prosopagnosia” is characterized by :

(A)  Inability to read

(B)  Inability to identify faces

(C)  Inability to write

(D)  Inability to speak

Answer: (B)

196. Most common cause of sub arachroid haemorrhage is :

(A)  Hypertension

(B)  A.V. malformation

(C)  Berry aneurysm

(D)  Trauma

Answer: (C)

197. A nondiabetic, non hypertensive adult male develops sudden severe headache with altered sensorium, likely diagnosis is :

(A)  Brain tumour

(B)  Subarachnoid haemorrhage

(C)  Encephalitis

(D)  Meningitis

Answer: (B)

198. Painless burn in hand is a characteristic feature of :

(A)  Syringomgelia

(B)  Thalamic syndrome

(C)  Cord compression

(D)  Systemic-lupus-erthromatosis

Answer: (A)

199. Triad of normal-pressure hydrocephalus includes :

(A)  Tremor, aphasia dementia

(B)  Ataxia, aphasia, gait disorder

(C)  Gait disorder, urinary incontinence, dementia

(D)  Gait disorder, urinary inconitinence, lower cranial nerve palsy

Answer: (C)

200. All of the following are known predisposing factors for Alzheimer’s disease except :

(A)  Down-syndrome

(B)  Low education level

(C)  Smoking

(D)  Female sex

Answer: (C)

201. Alzheimer’s Disease is associated with :

(A)  Delerium

(B)  Delerium

(C)  Dementia

(D)  Depresssion

Answer: (C)

202. Gene for myotonic dystrophy is coded on chromosome number :

(A)  19

(B)  20

(C)  21

(D)  24

Answer: (A)

203. Fatal familial insomnia is associated with :

(A)  Prion disease

(B)  Degenerative disease

(C)  Neoplastic disease

(D)  Vascular disease

Answer: (A)

204. All are true about peripheral-neuropathy except :

(A)  Glove and stocking anaesthesia

(B)  Proximal muscle weakness

(C)  Nerve-conduction deficit

(D)  Decreased reflexes

Answer: (B)

205. All are true about subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord except :

(A)  Due to deficiency of vitamin B12

(B)  Posterior column involvement

(C)  Corticospinal involvement

(D)  Absent deep tendon reflexes

Answer: (D)

206. Oxygen content of the arterial blood is reduced in all except:

(A)  Methemoglobinemia

(B)  Fallot’s tetralogy

(C)  Carbon monoxide poisoning

(D)  Fibrosing alveolitis

Answer: (B)

207. Following are ECG features of hyperkalemia except:

(A)  High T wave

(B)  Depressed ST segment

(C)  Prolonged PR interval

(D)  Prolonged QT interval

Answer: (D)

208. Macroglossia is seen in following except:

(A)  Amyloidosis

(B)  Acromegaly

(C)  Hyperthyroidism

(D)  Down’s syndrome

Answer: (C)

209. In idiopathic polymyositis, following are seen except:

(A)  Ocular muscles commonly involved

(B)  Pharyngeal muscles involved

(C)  Cutaneous manifestations

(D)  Proximal limb muscles invariably involved

Answer: (A)

210. In chronic dialysis, most common CNS manifestation is:

(A)  Sensory loss

(B)  Paralysis

(C)  Dementia

(D)  Depression

Answer: (C)

211. PAN most commonly involves:

(A)  Large vessels

(B)  Medium and small sized vessels

(C)  Arterioles

(D)  Venules

Answer: (B)

212. In complication of falciparum malaria, which drug is not given

(A)  Phenobarbitone

(B)  Dexamethasone

(C)  Quinine

(D)  Blood transfusion

Answer: (B)

213. Right hemithorax with right side shift of mediastinum is due to:

(A)  Collapse of lung

(B)  Right side hemothorax

(C)  Hydrothorax

(D)  Bronchiectasis

Answer: (A)

214. Spontaneous hypoglycemia is caused by:

(A)  Glucagonoma

(B)  Chr. pancreatitis

(C)  Cushing’s syndrome

(D)  Hepatocellular carcinoma

Answer: (D)

215. Which does not cause malabsorption in India :

(A)  Tropical sprue

(B)  Amoebiasis

(C)  Giardiasis

(D)  Intestinal TB

Answer: (A)

216. Addison’s disease is characterized by following except:

(A)  Hyperkalemia

(B)  Hypotension

(C)  Hyponatremia

(D)  Hypocalcemia

Answer: (D)

217. Most common cause of LVH is:

(A)  MS

(B)  AR

(C)  Hypertension

(D)  Mitral valve prolapse

Answer: (C)

218. Hyperacute rejection of renal transplant is due to :

(A)  Preformed antibodies

(B)  Antigen antibody complex

(C)  T-cell sensitization

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (A)

219. In case of renal transplant, most common infection within one month is :

(A)  Pneumococcus

(B)  Gram-ve organism

(C)  Pneumocystis carinii

(D)  Cryptococcus

Answer: (C)

220. Muscular weakness due to deficiency of magnesium is enhanced by presence of:

(A)  Hyperkalemia

(B)  Metabolic alkalosis

(C)  Metabolic acidosis

(D)  Hypernatremia

Answer: (B)

221. In metabolic encephalopathy, feature is:

(A)  Tonic clonic seizures

(B)  Chorea

(C)  Asterixis

(D)  Paraplegia

Answer: (C)

222. Antibiotic associated diarrhea is most commonly caused by:

(A)  E.coli

(B)  Clostridium difficile

(C)  Proteus

(D)  Faecal streptococci

Answer: (B)

223. Metabolic alkalosis seen in following except:

(A)  Methanol poisoning

(B)  Cushing’s disease

(C)  Vomiting

(D)  Diuretic therapy

Answer: (A)

224. In hepatic cirrhosis, which of the following is increased:

(A)  Alpha 1 globulin

(B)  Alpha 2 globulin

(C)  Gamma globulin

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (C)

225. Following are features of acute GN except :

(A)  Polyuria

(B)  Haematuria

(C)  Red cell cast

(D)  Oliguia

Answer: (A)

226. Hypochromic microcytosis is seen in following except:

(A)  Lead poisoning

(B)  Sideroblastic anemia

(C)  Iron deficiency anemia

(D)  Aplastic anemia

Answer: (D)

227. Intake of exogenous steroid causes

(A)  Addison’s disease

(B)  Cushing’s syndrome

(C)  Pheochromocytoma

(D)  Conn’s syndrome

Answer: (B)

228. The following are features of primary hyperaldosteronism except :

(A)  Polyuria

(B)  Hypertension

(C)  Hypokalemia

(D)  Hyperkalemia

Answer: (D)

229. Familial periodic paralysis is caused by:

(A)  Hyponatremia

(B)  Hypertension

(C)  Hyperchloremia

(D)  Hyperkalemia

Answer: (D)

230. Most common cause of LMN facial palsy is :

(A)  Disseminated sclerosis

(B)  Bell’s palsy

(C)  DM

(D)  Leprosy

Answer: (B)

231. Carey comb murmur is seen in:

(A)  Severe mitral stenosis

(B)  Acute rheumatic carditis

(C)  Pure aortic regurgitation

(D)  Severe pulmonary HT

Answer: (B)

232. Shrinking lung is seen in:

(A)  Diffuse fibrosis

(B)  Scleroderma

(C)  SLE

(D) Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer: (C)

233. Pleural aspiration with raised LDH and amylase seen in:

(A)  Pulm. infarction

(B)  COPD

(C)  Pulm. malignancy

(D)  None

Answer: (C)

234. In MI following are used except :

(A)  Fibrinolytics

(B)  Plasminogen activator inhibitor

(C)  Anti thrombin

(D)  Platelet inhibitor

Answer: (B)

235. True about Polycythemia rubra vera is all except :

(A)  Bleeding

(B)  Thrombosis

(C)  ↓ ed ESR

(D)  Infection

Answer: (D)

236. Wilson disease all are true except :

(A)  ↑ ceruloplasmin

(B)  ↑ ceruloplasmin

(C)  ↑ Cu in cornea

(D)  Absence of sensory loss

Answer: (A)

237. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria is due to deficiency of:

(A)  Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthetase

(B)  ALA synthetase

(C)  Ferrochelatase

(D)  CP oxidase

Answer: (A)

238. In multiple myeloma following are seen except :

(A)  Anion gap raised

(B)  Lytic bone lesion

(C)  Polyarticular pains

(D)  M spike present with polyarticulopathy

Answer: (A)

239. True about criggler Najjar type II syndrome is:

(A)  Diglucuronide deficiency

(B)  Recessive trait

(C)  Kernicterus is seen

(D)  Phenobarb not useful

Answer: (A)

240. Tache noires is seen in:

(A)  Emphysema

(B)  Diphtheria

(C)  Boutoneuse fever

(D)  Bronchial asthma

Answer: (C)

241. Following are seen in mucopolysaccharidoses:

(A)  Hair on-end appearance

(B)  Beaked vertebrae

(C)  Avascular necrosis of femoral head

(D)  Osteosclerotic lesions

Answer: (B)

242. In mycoplasma pneumonia, following are seen except:

(A)  Diffuse infiltration of lungs

(B)  Cannot be cultured routinely

(C)  Best treatment by cefotaxime

(D)  Serology is useful in diagnosis

Answer: (C)

243. In addison’s disease, most diagnostic test is:

(A)  Serum, N⁺, k⁺, renin

(B)  S. Na⁺, K⁺, saline supression

(C)  Serum creatinine urea ratio

(D)  ACTH stimulation test

Answer: (D)

244. ↑ Ca+ 2 in Ca lung is seen in Ca:

(A)  Adeno

(B)  Squamous

(C)  Squamous

(D)  Large cell

Answer: (B)

245. Diarrhoea is seen in

(A)  Insulinoma

(B)  Glucagonoma

(C)  Vipoma

(D)  All

Answer: (C)

246. Adson’s test is positive in:

(A)  Cervical rib

(B)  Cervical fracture

(C)  Cervical dislocation

(D)  Cervical spondylosis

Answer: (A)

247. Serum creatinine kinase is elevated in A/E

(A)  Becker’s myopathy

(B)  Acute myoglobinic myopanthies

(C)  Acute polymyositis

(D)  Central core myopathy

Answer: (D)

248. In carcinoid syndrome, the part of heart mostly affected is

(A)  Outflow tract of RV

(B)  Inflow tract of RV

(C)  Inflow tract of LV

(D)  Outflow tract in LV

Answer: (B)

249. In steel Richardson syndrome following are seen except:

(A)  Convulsions

(B)  Ataxia

(C)  Progressive supranuclear palsy

(D)  Dementia

Answer: (A)

250. Site of lesion in endocarditis of RHD is

(A)  Along the line of closure of valves

(B)  Both sides of valves

(C)  Valve cusps

(D)  Free margin of valves

Answer: (A)

251. Free margin of valves

(A)  Myeloma

(B)  TB spine

(C)  CRF

(D)  Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer: (C)

252. Uveoparotitis is seen in :

(A)  SLE

(B)  Sjogren’s syndrome

(C)  Rheumatoid arthritis

(D)  Sarcoidosis

Answer: (D)

253. Most useful investigation in diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis :

(A)  Ketonemia

(B)  pH of blood

(C)  Urinary sugar

(D)  Urine ketone

Answer: (A)

254. Absent ankle jerk and extensor plantar response is found in :

(A)  Friedreich’s ataxia

(B)  Tabes dorsalis

(C)  SACD

(D)  Vit B deficiency

Answer: (A)

255. Pt. with DM. Hypertension, having CHF, the most appropriate drug is :

(A)  ACE inhibitors

(B)  Digitalis

(C)  β blockers

(D)  Diuretics

Answer: (A)

256. Pulsus alternans occurs in :

(A)  Constrictive pericarditis

(B)  Viral mycarditis

(C)  Hypokalemia

(D)  MI

Answer: (D)

257. Causative agent of infectious Mononucleosis :

(A)  EB virus

(B)  Rubella virus

(C)  Adenovirus

(D)  Herpes virus

Answer: (A)

258. pH is 7.2; PCO2 12; PO2 55 most likely cause is:

(A)  Metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis

(B)  Metabolic alkalosis

(C)  Respiratory acidosis

(D)  Respiratory alkalosis

Answer: (A)

259. Not seen in pre capillary pulm. hypertension :

(A)  ↑ pressure in pulm circulation

(B)  ↑ capillary pressure

(C)  Rt-vent. hypertrophy

(D)  ↑Pulm. wedge pressure

Answer: (D)

260. ECG in young healthy person with 80 beats/min will not show:

(A)  RP interval between 120 – 200 msec

(B)  QRS interval less than 100 msec

(C)  Interval between 2 QRS is 750 msec

(D)  T. wave represents repolarization

Answer: (C)

261. Poor prognostic factor in Acute Myocardial infarction :

(A)  VPC’s in first 24 hours

(B)  Hypotension at diagnosis

(C)  Chest pain

(D)  Hypertension

Answer: (A)

262. Stimulation of proximal cut end of vagus causes:

(A)  Apnea

(B)  ↓ HR

(C)  ± BP

(D)  ↓ BP

Answer: (A)

263. Serum amylase level is raised in A/E:

(A)  Blocked salivary duct

(B)  Ruptured ectopic

(C)  Appendicitis

(D)  Pancreatitis

Answer: (C)

264. Osmotic fragility is seen in :

(A)  Sickle cell anemia

(B)  B Thalassemia

(C)  Hereditary spherocytosis

(D)  Iron deficiency anemia

Answer: (C)

265. First line of treatment in severe ascites :

(A)  Bed rest and slat restriction

(B)  Heavy peracentesis

(C)  Shunt

(D)  Large dose of diuretics

Answer: (A)

266. True about pulsus paradoxus is :

(A)  Arm – tongue circulation time is increased

(B)  ↑Stroke volume

(C)  Seen in constrictive pericarditis

(D)  ↑ HR

Answer: (C)

267. Muscle biopsy in PAN shows:

(A)  Necrotising arteritis

(B)  Atrophy

(C)  Granulomatous lesions

(D)  Ring lesions

Answer: (A)

268. During valsalva maneuver, impaired heart rate changes seen in:

(A)  Horner’s syndrome

(B)  Autonomic insufficiency

(C)  Vestibular dysfunction

(D)  Cephalic ischemia

Answer: (B)

269. Alpha chain disease is detected by:

(A)  M component in serum

(B)  Jejunal biopsy

(C)  Light chain in lumen if jejunum

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (B)

270. Cancer caused by chronic parasitic infection :

(A)  Cholangiocarcinoma

(B)  Hepatic cell Ca

(C)  Ca GB

(D)  Ca pancreas

Answer: (A)

272. Thickening of pulmonary memb. is seen in :

(A)  Asthma

(B)  Emphysema

(C)  Bronchitis

(D)  Skeletal defect

Answer: (A)

272. Dilutional hyponatremia is seen in :

(A)  Addison’s disease

(B)  DI

(C)  Diuretic therapy

(D)  None

Answer: (A)

273. At the end of ventricular diastole:

(A)  Atrial volume is more

(B)  Coronary flow is maximum

(C)  Flow in aorta drops

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (C)

274. Most dangerous dehydration is :

(A)  Hyponatremic

(B)  Hypernatremic

(C)  Isonatremic

(D)  Non-diarrhoeal cause

Answer: (B)

275. Traid of  normal pressure hydocephalus is :

(A)  Ataxia, dementia, urinary incontinence

(B)  Ataxia, aphasia, Ur. Incontinence

(C)  Ataxia, Dementia, Asphasia

(D)  Ataxia, alexia, Aphasia

Answer: (A)

276. Myoclonic seizure typically seen in:

(A)  SSPE

(B)  Cereberllar lesion

(C)  Pontine lesion

(D)  Thalamic lesion

Answer: (A)

277. Alzheimers disease, true is all except :

(A)  Anterograde amnesia

(B)  Dysdiadochokinesia

(C)  Receptive aphasia

(D)  Recogniation of familiar faces is absent

Answer: (B)

278. The characteristic and common presentation of diabetic neuropathy is :

(A)  Amyotrophy

(B)  Mononeuropathy

(C)  Symmetrical sensory neuropathy

(D)  Autonomic neuropathy

Answer: (C)

279. Diabetes control is best monitored by :

(A)  Serum glucose

(B)  Post prandial blood glucose

(C)  HbA1AC

(D)  HbA2AC

Answer: (C)

280. Double apical impulse is seen in :

(A)  MR

(B)  AR

(C)  AS

(D)  MS

Answer: (C)

281. Hand foot syndrome is due to:

(A)  Thalassemia

(B)  Sickle cell anemia

(C)  Haemochromatosis

(D)  Acromegaly

Answer: (B)

282. Most common cause of stroke in young women in India among OCP users :

(A)  Cortical vein thrombosis

(B)  Moyamoya disease

(C)  Atherosclerosis

(D)  HT

Answer: (A)

283. Spinomuscular atrophy is seen in lesion of :

(A)  Ant, horn

(B)  Peripheral nerve

(C)  NMJ

(D)  Any of the above

Answer: (A)

284. hemophilia with rheumatoid arthritis, analgesic of choice :

(A)  Ibuprofen

(B)  Aspirin

(C)  Phenylbutazone

(D)  None

Answer: (D)

285. In hyperparathyroidism all are seen except :

(A)  Osteopetrosis

(B)  Osteoporosis

(C)  Cysts

(D)  Brown tumor

Answer: (A)

286. Cutaneous marker of HIV is :

(A)  Seborrhoea

(B)  Vesicular rash

(C)  Oral candidiasis

(D)  Photosensitivity

Answer: (A)

287. In SLE, characteristic kidney lesion is:

(A)  Mesangial proliferation

(B)  Tubular fibrin deposits

(C)  Wire loops

(D)  IgG deposits

Answer: (C)

288. Hypotonia, tremor and ataxia are seen in lesion of:

(A)  Basal ganglia

(B)  Medullary pyramid

(C)  Cerebellum

(D)  Pons

Answer: (C)

289. Botulinum toxin is used in:

(A)  Focal dystonia

(B)  Myasthenia gravis

(C)  Cerebellare ataxia

(D)  Hypotonia

Answer: (A)

290. Opso myoclonus is seen in:

(A)  Neuroblastoma

(B)  Nephrobalstoma

(C)  Retino blastoma

(D)  Melanoma

Answer: (A)

291. Best Rx for CML is:

(A)  Autologous BMT

(B)  Allogenic BMT

(C)  Alpha interferon

(D)  Hydroxyurea

Answer: (B)

292. Lysis of cells cause A/E:

(A)  Hyperuricemia

(B)  Hypercalcemia

(C)  Hyper phosphatemia

(D)  Hyperkalemia

Answer: (B)

293. Giant cell (Hecht’s) pneumonia is due to:

(A)  CMV

(B)  Measles

(C)  Malaria

(D)  P. carinii

Answer: (B)

294. Pneumocystis carini pneumonia is diagnosed by:

(A)  Interstitial penumonia

(B)  Eosinophils in septa

(C)  Alveolar type I cell damaged with eosinophils

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (A)

295. Rheumatoid arthritis pericarditis is:

(A)  Serous

(B)  Fibrinous

(C)  Serofibrinous

(D)  Adhesive

Answer: (B)

296. During ventricular pressure pulses square root wave is seen in:

(A)  ASD

(B)  MVPS

(C)  Dilated cardiomyopathy

(D)  Constrictive pericarditis

Answer: (D)

297. Characteristic feature of koraskoff psychosis is:

(A)  Disorientation

(B)  Delirium

(C)  Coarse tremor

(D)  Amnesia

Answer: (D)

298. Sub cortical dementia true is:

(A)  Loss of tactile localization

(B)  Loss of memory

(C)  Total paralysis

(D)  Gait distrubances

Answer: (D)

299. Treatable cause of MR is :

(A)  Hypothyroidism

(B)  Mucopolysaccharidosis

(C)  Turner’s syndrome

(D)  Down’s syndrome

Answer: (A)

300. In CCF there is:

(A)  Oliguria

(B)  Polyuria

(C)  Olijuria during day and polyuria during night

(D)  Anuria

Answer: (A)

301. A lesion in the paracentral lobule causes :

(A)  Contralateral foot weakness

(B)  Seizures only

(C)  Migraine

(D)  Cognitive loss

Answer: (A)

302. AV fistula true is except :

(A)  Tachycardia

(B)  High stroke volume

(C)  Increased CO

(D)  None

Answer: (D)

303. Bad prognosis in multiple myeloma is indicated by :

(A)  WBC > 20000

(B)  Azotemia

(C)  Hypocalcemia

(D)  Low or normal M component production

Answer: (B)

304. Not seen in constrictive pericarditis is :

(A)  Acute pulmonary edema

(B)  Ascites

(C)  Tapping apex

(D)  Pericardial knock

Answer: (A)

305. Treatment of choice for intracranial ALL is :

(A)  Intrathecal methotrexate

(B)  Vincristine and prednisolone

(C)  Intrathecal vincristine

(D)  Prednisolone

Answer: (A)

306. Which is not a feature of cerebral malaria :

(A)  Perivascular demyelination

(B)  Durck granuloma

(C)  Prolifereated glial cells arranged radially

(D)  Lesion is not related to parasite

Answer: (D)

307. A person who has drunk the anti –freeze of his car is likely to have :

(A)  Metabolic alkalosis with normal anion gap

(B)  Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap

(C)  Metabolic alkalosis

(D)  Respiratory alkalosis

Answer: (B)

308. Wallenberg’s syndrome does not involve :

(A)  IX

(B)  X

(C)  XI

(D)  XII

Answer: (D)

309. True about interstitial fibrosis :

(A)  FVC ↓

(B)  FEV1/FVC normal or ↑

(C)  FRC normal

(D)  FEV1/FVC ↓

Answer: (B)

310. Which among the following does not cause exaggerated jaw jerk :

(A)  Multiple sclerosis

(B)  Motor neurone disease

(C)  Pseudobulbar palsy

(D)  Syringomyelia

Answer: (D)

311. A medial temporal lesion produces :

(A)  Visual amnesia only

(B)  Auditory amnesia

(C)  Apraxia

(D)  Anterograde learning problems

Answer: (D)

312. The characteristic finding in diabetic nephropathy is :

(A)  Diffuse glomerulosclerosis

(B)  Nodular glomerulosclerosis

(C)  Armani-Ebstein reaction

(D)  Fibrin caps

Answer: (B)

313. Converging point of both pathways in coagulation is at:

(A)  Factor VIII

(B)  Stuart factor X

(C)  Factor IX

(D)  Factor VII

Answer: (B)

314. Athletic syndrome is characterized by :

(A)  Increased amplitude of QRS

(B)  Tachycardia

(C)  Decreased QT interval

(D)  U-waves

Answer: (A)

315. Opsoclonus is :

(A)  Arrythmic conjugate eye movements

(B)  Conjugate chaotic movements

(C)  Conjugate, chaotic, continuous movements

(D)  Chaotic, disconjugate movements

Answer: (A)

316. Digoxin toxicity is precipitated by :

(A)  Atenolol

(B)  Quinidine

(C)  Pulsus paradoxus

(D)  Cyanosis

Answer: (B)

317. A patient has hyperphosphatemia with short metacarpals and associated cataract. The diagnosis is :

(A)  Pseudohypoparathyroidism

(B)  Hypophosphatasia

(C)  Hyperparathyroidism

(D)  Osteomalacia

Answer: (A)

318. The chance that a health worker gets HIV from an accidental needle prick is :

(A)  1%

(B)  10%

(C)  95%

(D)  100%

Answer: (A)

319. A common finding in osteomalacia is

(A)  Low serum phosphate

(B)  Normal level of 1.25 di-hydroxy vit D3

(C)  Low serum calcium

(D)  Increased hydroxyl proline in urine

Answer: (A)

320. Decreased glucose level in pleural effusion is found in

(A)  Rheumatoid arthritis

(B)  SLE

(C)  Pneumococcal infection

(D)  P. carinii infection

Answer: (A)

321. Pressure difference of 5 mm Hg between the two upper limbs occurs in which congenital heart disease :

(A)  TOF

(B)  TGA

(C)  HOCM

(D)  Supra-valvular aortic stenosis

Answer: (D)

322. Shrinking lung is a feature of :

(A)  SLE

(B)  Rheumatoid arthritis

(C)  Scleroderma

(D)  Sarcoidosis

Answer: (A)

323. A patient had the following blood biochemical values. Calcium 6; uric acid 13; phosphorus 12; creatinin 6. Which could be the possible diagnosis :

(A)  Krait bite

(B)  Uric acid nephropathy

(C)  Hypercalcemic nephropathy

(D)  Rickets

Answer: (B)

324. Torsade de points is cause by :

(A)  Hypermagnesemia

(B)  Metabolic acidosis

(C)  Hypomagnesemia

(D)  Metabolic alkalosis

Answer: (C)

325. Which is seen in nephritic syndrome

(A)  Low serum calcium

(B)  Raised AT-III

(C)  Low lipid

(D)  Platelet activation

Answer: (A)

327. Loud S1 in mitral stenosis is seen in

(A)  Prolonged flow through mitral valve

(B)  1st degree heart block

(C)  Calcification of the valve

(D)  Immobilization of the valve

Answer: (A)

328. Not seen to tumor-lysis syndrome is :

(A)  Hyperkalemia

(B)  Hypercalcemia

(C)  Hyponatremia

(D)  Hypocalcemia

Answer: (B)

328. Which is seen in opioid poisoning :

(A)  Hyperventilation

(B)  Raised BP

(C)  Slow shallow respiration

(D)  Dyspnea

Answer: (C)

329. Drug of choice for myasthenia gravis :

(A)  Gallamine

(B)  Succinylocholine

(C)  D tubocurare

(D)  Pyridostigmine

Answer: (D)

330. Primary increase in CO2 in body is seen in:

(A)  Respiratory acidosis

(B)  Respiratory alkalosis

(C)  Metabolic acidosis

(D)  Metabolic alkalosis

Answer: (A)

331. All are true about aspirin poisoning except :

(A)  Acidosis

(B)  Hypothermia

(C)  Dehydration

(D)  Oliguria

Answer: (B)

332. Seen in Behcet’s syndrome is :

(A)  Pyoderma gangrenosum

(B)  Thrombophlebitis

(C)  Renal manifestations

(D)  Painless ulcers

Answer: (B)

333. Characteristic feature of SLE is :

(A)  Uveitis

(B)  Joint deformity

(C)  Polyserositis

(D)  Cavitating lesion in lung

Answer: (C)

334. All are complications of tubercular meningitis except :

(A)  Hydrocephalus

(B)  Infarction

(C)  Obliterative endarteritis

(D)  Sinovenous thrombosis

Answer: (D)

335. True about lyme disease is :

(A)  Arthritis is an early manifestation

(B)  Conduction block is not seen

(C)  Mood disorder is chronic neurological manifestation

(D)  Causative organism is Borrelia reccurentis

Answer: (C)

336. All are true for transplanted kidney except :

(A)  Humoral antibody responsible for rejection

(B)  CMI, responsible for rejection

(C)  Donor’s antibody on transfusion can causes rejection

(D)  HLA identity similarity is seen in 1: 100 people

Answer: (D)

337. Hypercalcemia in ECG is diagnosed by :

(A)  Increased QT interval

(B)  Decreased QT interval

(C)  Increased PR interval

(D)  Tall T waves

Answer: (B)

338. Which doesn’t cause hemolysis in G 6 PD deficiency :

(A)  Oestrogen

(B)  Salicylates

(C)  Primaquine

(D)  Nitrofurantoin

Answer: (A)

339. In Botulinism all are seen except :

(A)  Diplopia

(B)  Diarrhoea

(C)  Dysphagia

(D)  Abd. pain

Answer: (B)

340. Punch drunk state is associated with:

(A)  Alcoholism

(B)  Chorea

(C)  Parkinsonism

(D)  All

Answer: (C)

341. Earliest manifestation of hepatitis B is:

(A)  HBe Ag

(B)  HBs Ab IgM

(C)  HBc IgM

(D)  HBe AbIgM

Answer: (A)

342. Urinary 3 hydroxy 4 methyl VMA is seen with:

(A)  Neuroblastoma

(B)  Pheochromocytoma

(C)  Ganglioneuroma

(D)  Carcinoid

Answer: (B)

343. KF ring deposition is seen in:

(A)  Conjunctiva

(B)  Corneal epithelium

(C)  Descement membrane

(D)  Iris

Answer: (C)

344. Single gene autosomal recessive disease is :

(A)  Wilson’s ds

(B)  Tuberous sclerosis

(C)  Hutington’s ds

(D)  Schizophrenia

Answer: (A)

345. Feature of microscopic polyangitis is :

(A)  IgG deposits in kidney

(B)  Bronchospasm

(C)  Renal involvement in 90% cases

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (C)

346. All are HIV associated malignancies except :

(A)  Kaposi’s sarcoma

(B)  Lung carcinoma

(C)  NHLO

(D)  Anogenital CA

Answer: (B)

347. All are true about pseudopancreatic cyst except :

(A)  Not lined by epithelium

(B)  Resolves spontaneously

(C)  Raised amylase level not persistent

(D)  CT and ultrasound helps in diagnosis

Answer: (C)

348. Worst prognostic indicator of acute pancreatitis is :

(A)  Hypercalcemia

(B)  Hypocalcemia

(C)  Raised amylase level

(D)  Glycosuria

Answer: (B)

349. Ca 125 is specific marker of :

(A)  Choriocarcinoma

(B)  Teratoma

(C)  Epithelial cell carcinoma of ovary

(D)  Seminoma

Answer: (C)

350. Brain tumour is associated with A/E :

(A)  Tuberous sclerosis

(B)  Von hippel indauds

(C)  Neurofibromatosis

(D)  Sturge weber syndrome

Answer: (D)

351. Eosinophiluria is seen in :

(A)  Wegener’s granulomatosis

(B)  Interstitial nephritis

(C)  PAN

(D)  HUS

Answer: (B)

352. In tubular necrosis, ratio of urine plasma creatinine is:

(A)  20

(B)  40

(C)  20-30

(D)  30-40

Answer: (A)

353. Prerenal and renal azotemia is differentiated on the basis of:

(A)  Creatinine clearance

(B)  Serum creatinine level

(C)  Sodium fraction excretion

(D)  Urine bicarbonate level

Answer: (C)

354. CNS tumor seen in vol hippel landau syndrome is:

(A)  Meningioma

(B)  Cerebellar hemangiblastoma

(C)  CNS lymphoma

(D)  Glioma

Answer: (B)

355. All are true in chronic constrictive pericarditis except :

(A)  Kussamauls sign is present in all types

(B)  Ascites is not in proportion to edema

(C)  Commonest cause is idiopathic

(D)  Right ventricular and diastolic pressure is raised

Answer: (C)

356. Rapid x descent in unlikely in:

(A)  Constrictive pericarditis

(B)  Cardiac temponade

(C)  RV infarction

(D)  Restrictive CMP

Answer: (C)

357. MC cause of death in adults with PDA is

(A)  CCF

(B)  Infective endocarditis

(C)  Rupture

(D)  Embolism

Answer: (A)

358. Most characteristic GN in HIV is:

(A)  FSGN

(B)  MPGN

(C)  MCD

(D)  RPGN

Answer: (A)

359. Cavitating lesion in lung is seen in:

(A)  PAN

(B)  SLE

(C)  Wegeners granulomatosis

(D)  Sjorgren’s syndrome

Answer: (C)

360. Primary extraglandular sjogren’s syndrome is seen in A/E:

(A)  Rheumtoid Arthritis

(B)  Raynaud’s Phenomena

(C)  Lymphoma

(D)  Splenomegally

Answer: (A)

361. All are seen in SIRS except :

(A)  Leukopenia

(B)  Hypoxia

(C)  Hyperthermia

(D)  Tachycardia

Answer: (B)

362. True about sarcoidosis is :

(A)  Kveim tet is not helpful in diagnosis

(B)  May be associated with positive RA factor

(C)  Pleural effusion

(D)  Common is 50 years male

Answer: (B)

363. Seen in chroni inflammatory anemia is

(A)  Serum iron ↓ S. ferritin ↑ and transferrin ↓

(B)  Serum iron ↓ S. ferritin ↑ and transferrin ↑

(C)  Serum iron ↓ S. ferritin ↓ and transferrin ↑

(D)  Serum iron ↑ S. ferritin ↓ and transferrin ↓

Answer: (A)

364. Hypocalcemic hyperphosphatemia is seen in A/E:

(A)  Malabsorption

(B)  Pseudohypoparathyroidism

(C)  CRF

(D)  Hypoparathyroidism

Answer: (A)

365. Nephrocalcinosis is a feature of A/E:

(A)  Primary hyperparathyroidism

(B)  Medullary sponge kidney

(C)  Vitamin D intoxication

(D)  Pseudo hypoparathyroidism

Answer: (D)

366. In Accelerated HTN what is metabolic defect :

(A)  Normal non-ionic metabolic acidosis

(B)  Ionic gap met acidosis

(C)  Hypomagnesemia

(D)  Metabolic alkalosis

Answer: (D)

367. Amylase increased in pleural fluid is seen in following except :

(A)  Rheumatoid arthritis

(B)  Esophageal perforation

(C)  Malignancy

(D)  Gall stone pancreatitis

Answer: (A)

368. Dengue hemorrhagic fever :

(A)  Most common in previously affected patients

(B)  DHF-2 most common cause

(C)  Immunosuppresed

(D)  Incubation period 7-14 days

Answer: (A)

369. Acanthosis nigricans is caused by which drug :

(A)  Amphotericin – B

(B)  Ketoconazole

(C)  Nicotinic acid

(D)  Nalidixil acid

Answer: (C)

370. DOC in esophageal candidiasis in HIV :

(A)  Fluconazole

(B)  Miconazole

(C)  Amphotericin -B

(D)  Grisefulvin

Answer: (A)

371. Gyanecomastia is seen in following except :

(A)  Digitalis

(B)  Seminoma

(C)  Cryptorchidism

(D)  Puberty

Answer: (C)

372. Incongential erythropoitic porphyria, enzyme-defect is :

(A)  Uro synthase

(B)  Ferro ketolase

(C)  ALA synthetase

(D)  PROTO oxidase

Answer: (A)

373. True about Gardner’s syndrome is except :

(A)  CNS tumor

(B)  Osteoma

(C)  Dermoid tumour

(D)  Colonic polyps

Answer: (A)

374. 100% recurrence of disease in Down’s syndrome :

(A)  Translocation of 15 + 21 chromosome

(B)  Mosaic pattern

(C)  Trisomy –(21, 21 translocation)

(D)  Non Dysjunction

Answer: (C)

375. All following secreted by Bronchogenic Ca except :

(A)  Nor adrenaline

(B)  PTH

(C)  ACTH

(D)  ADH

Answer: (A)

376. Typical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade :

(A)  Absent ‘Y’ descent

(B)  Prominent ‘a’ wave

(C)  Absent ‘a’ wave

(D)  Prominent ‘Y’ wave

Answer: (A)

377. About cushing syndrome, true is :

(A)  Low dose dexamethasone suppress cortisone secretion

(B)  CA of adrenal is more common than adenoma

(C)  Pituitary adenoma size > 2 cm (usually)

(D)  ↑ACTH secretion is the commonest cause

Answer: (D)

378. Photosensitivity is maximum in :

(A)  Prophyria cutanea tarda

(B)  Congenital Erythropoietic pupura

(C)  Erythrogenic porphyria

(D)  Hereditary coproporphyria

Answer: (B)

379. Enzyme defect in congenital erythropoietic porphyria :

(A)  Uroporphyrinogen III synthetase

(B)  Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

(C)  ALA synthetase

(D)  Ferroketolase

Answer: (B)

380. All of the following causes of death is coarctation of aorta except :

(A)  Infective endocarditis

(B)  CCF

(C)  Intracranial hemorrhage

(D)  Anterior MI

Answer: (D)

381. Which is true about carotid stenosis

(A)  Ipsilateral hemiplegia by embolism of MCA

(B)  Bruit indicates severity of stenosis

(C)  Common in ECA

(D)  Aspirin reduces risk of TIA

Answer: (D)

382. Hypercalciuria is seen in :

(A)  Hyperparathyroidism

(B)  Vit D intoxication

(C)  Sarcoidosis

(D)  All

Answer: (D)

383. True about H. Pylori is all except :

(A)  It splits urea & produces ammonia to survive

(B)  Produces Gastric Ca

(C)  Gram –ve curved rods

(D)  Cag-A gene is not associated with risk – of duodenal ulcer

Answer: (D)

384. Penicillamine is commonly used in the management of following heavy metal poisoning except :

(A)  Arsenic

(B)  Copper

(C)  Lead

(D)  Mercury

Answer: (A)

385. Stress ulcers seen in burns are :

(A)  Curling’s ulcer

(B)  Cushing’s ulcer

(C)  Meleney’s ulcer

(D)  Rodent ulcer

Answer: (A)

386. Iso osmolar urine is seen in :

(A)  ATN

(B)  Severe dehydration

(C)  Diabetes insipidus

(D)  PCKD

Answer: (A)

387. ST depression & T wave inversion in V1 to V6 and aVL lead indicate :

(A)  Anterolateral wall AMI

(B)  Posterior wall AMI

(C)  Inferior wall AMI

(D)  Lateral AMI

Answer: (A)

388. Decreased osmotic fragility is seen in :

(A)  Hereditary spherocytosis

(B)  Sickle cells ds.

(C)  Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

(D)  Thalassemia

Answer: (D)

389. True about log does response curve of Vmax showing norepinephrine & propranolol is known that propranolol is a competitive antagonist of norepinephrine :

(A)  Curve paralles to each others action

(B)  Curve not parallel to each other

(C)  Cure shifted to right

(D)  Increased Vmax

Answer: (C)

390. Recurrent gross hematuria is seen in :

(A)  Alport’s syndrome

(B)  IgA nephropathy

(C)  Focal seg. GN

(D)  DM

Answer: (B)

391. Orthostatic proteinuria :

(A)  Seen in recumbent position

(B)  Is benign

(C)  Future risk of nephritic synd.

(D)  > 300 mg/day

Answer: (B)

392. Proved association of celiac sprue is with :

(A)  Dermatitis herpetiformis

(B)  Scleroderma

(C)  Pemphigus

(D)  Pemphigoid

Answer: (A)

393. True about complications of massive blood transfusion is/are a/e :

(A)  Hyperkalemia

(B)  Alkalosis

(C)  Acidosis

(D)  Hypercalcemia

Answer: (D)

394. Steps in meiosis about sister chromatid separation are :

(A)  Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase

(B)  Prophase → Telophase → Anaphase → Metaphase

(C)  Telephase → Anaphase → Prophase → Metaphase

(D)  Anaphase → Prophase → Metaphase → Telophase

Answer: (A)

395. Causes of large kidney in CRF are a/e :

(A)  DM

(B)  Amyloidosis

(C)  Benign nephrosclerosis

(D)  Diffuse GN

Answer: (C)

396. Trophic ulcers are seen in a/e :

(A)  Polio

(B)  Syringomyelia

(C)  Leprosy

(D)  TB. Meningitis

Answer: (A)

397. Chromosomes involved in adult polycystic kidney disease (APKD) :

(A)  6 & 11

(B)  4 & 16

(C)  4 & 16

(D)  4 & 12

Answer: (B)

398. Clubbing is seen in :

(A)  Suppurative pneumonia

(B)  L – R shunt

(C)  ABPA (Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis)

(D)  Hepatorenal syndrome

Answer: (A)

399. Confirmatory investigation for acromegaly is :

(A)  Insulin induced hypoglycemia test

(B)  GH assay

(C)  ACTH infusion test

(D)  IGF levels

Answer: (B)

400. Mutation leading to sickle cell anemia :

(A)  Crossover mutation

(B)  Frameshift

(C)  Deletion

(D)  Point mutation

Answer: (D)

401. True about oxygen concentrators :

(A)  Extraction of O₂ from water

(B)  Requires electrical power

(C)  O₂ from halolite

(D)  Supplies 100 O₂

Answer: (B)

402. Extrahepatic manifestation of Hepatitis-B are :

(A)  Aplastic anemia

(B)  Cryoglobulinemia

(C)  Peptic ulcer

(D)  Gallstones

Answer: (B)

403. A patient in ICU has normal pulmonary pressure; low systemic peripheral resistance, low cardiac index; arterial Po2 = 93; diagnostic possibilities are :

(A)  Cardiogenic shock

(B)  Septic shock

(C)  Hypovolemic shock

(D)  Cardiac tamponade

Answer: (B)

404. True about HIV in pregnancy :

(A)  Perinatal transmission common

(B)  LSCS increases chances of transmission significantly

(C)  Zidovudine does not decreased risk if given to baby born to HIV positive mother

(D)  Less than 5% chance of transmission

Answer: (A)

405. ‘C’ wave in JVP corresponds to :

(A)  Atrial systole

(B)  Ventricular systole

(C)  Atrial diastole

(D)  Ventricular diastole

Answer: (B)

406. True of the following :

(A)  Interstitial nephritis is associated with salt losing nephropathy

(B)  Idiopathic hypercalciuria is most common cuase of hypercalcemia

(C)  Vitamin-D resistant rickets is a X-linked recessive disease

(D)  Calcitonin deficiency causes hyperphosphatemia

Answer: (A)

407. Which of the following HL is specific to rheumatoid arthritis :

(A)  HLADR₁

(B)  HLADR₂

(C)  HLADR₃

(D)  HLADR₄

Answer: (A)

408. True about hemoglobin degradation is/are:

(A)  Heme degradation is followed by biliverdin formation

(B)  Hemoglobin breaks into heme and protein

(C)  Heme is broken down into iron & porphyrin

(D)  Heme is broken into bilirubin directly

Answer: (A)

409. Blood for acid base gas (ABG) analysis in a bottle containing excess heparin can cause decreased value of :

(A)  pCO₂

(B)  HCO₂

(C)  pH

(D)  pO₂

Answer: (C)

410. Rheumatic heart disease can be diagnosed on the basis of :

(A)  Aschoff bodies

(B)  Vegetations along the lines of closure of valves

(C)  Endocardial involvement only

(D)  Follows skin and throat infection

Answer: (A)

411. Bronchial asthma can be diagnosed by :

(A)  Wheeze

(B)  Dyspnea

(C)  Normal FEV₁

(D)  Reversible obstruction

Answer: (D)

412. Difference between upper and lower limb blood pressures is usually :

(A)  5 mm

(B)  10 mm

(C)  20 mm

(D)  30 mm

Answer: (B)

413. Metabolic alkalosis is associated with :

(A)  Fanconi’s anemia

(B)  Acetazolamide

(C)  Spironoloactone

(D)  Hypocalcemia

Answer: (D)

414. Bartter’s syndrome is associated with :

(A)  Hyperkalemia

(B)  Decreased rennin level in plasma

(C)  Hypertension

(D)  Metabolic alkalosis

Answer: (D)

415. Best assay for deficiency of von Willebrand factor is :

(A)  Bleeding time

(B)  APTT

(C)  BT + APPTT

(D)  BT + APTT + vWF-ristocetin factor assay

Answer: (D)

416. Increased serum calcium is seen in all except :

(A)  Myxedema

(B)  Multiple myeloma

(C)  Sarcoidosis

(D)  Primary hyperparathyroidism

Answer: (A)

417. Myasthenia gravis associated with :

(A)  Decreased acetyl choline at nerve endings

(B)  Decreased myosin

(C)  Absent troponin C

(D)  Decreased myoneural junction transmission

Answer: (D)

418. The amino acid associated with atherosclerosis is :

(A)  Arginine

(B)  Homocysteine

(C)  Cysteine

(D)  Tryptophan

Answer: (B)

419. In spectroscopy, nucleotides absorb at 260 nm. This absorbence is due to:

(A)  Purines and pyrimidines

(B)  Deoxribose

(C)  Histone

(D)  Phosphate

Answer: (A)

420. Purpuric rashes are seen :

(A)  Dengue

(B)  Borrelia

(C)  Secondary syphilis

(D)  Measles

Answer: (A)

421. Causes of sterile pyuria without UTI include :

(A)  Cortical abscess

(B)  Pyelonephritis

(C)  Gonococcal infection

(D)  Analgesic nephropathy

Answer: (D)

422. HbA2 increased in:

(A)  Alfa-thalassemia

(B)  Iron deficiency anemia

(C)  Beta-thalassemia

(D)  Sickle cell trait

Answer: (C)

423. Non-irritant gas producing systemic toxicity is:

(A)  Ammonia

(B)  Hydrogen chloride

(C)  Carbon monoxide

(D)  Chlorine

Answer: (C)

424. Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is:

(A)  Candida

(B)  Pneumocystis

(C)  Aspergillus

(D)  S. Aureus

Answer: (B)

425. Raised calcium and phosphorus are seen in :

(A)  CRF

(B)  Vitamin D intoxication

(C)  Hyperparathyroidism

(D)  Pseudohypoparathyroidism

Answer: (B)

426. Universal finding in asthma is :

(A)  Hypoxia

(B)  Hypercarbia

(C)  Hypoxemia

(D)  Respiratory acidosis

Answer: (A)

427. An obese NIDDM patient present with FBS=180 mg% and PP2BS=260 mg% Management include :

(A)  Glibenclamide

(B)  Diet therapy-exercise

(C)  Diet therapy-exercise+metformin

(D)  Insulin

Answer: (C)

428. Herpes simplex encephalitis diagnosed by :

(A)  MRI

(B)  Biopsy

(C)  Corneal scrapping and culture

(D)  CSF PCR of HSV DNA

Answer: (D)

429. Wide-split second heart sound :

(A)  ASD

(B)  LBBB

(C)  PDA

(D)  MR

Answer: (A)

430. A female taking alcohol is more prone to develop toxicity and cirrhosis compare with male when same amount of alcohol taken due to :

(A)  ↓ed alcohol dehydrogenase in stomach

(B)  ↑ed absorption

(C)  Congenital

(D)  Genetic factors

Answer: (A)

431. False positive ELISA for HIV :

(A)  Multiple mycloma

(B)  Lepromatous leprosy

(C)  SLE

(D)  None

Answer: (C)

432. Impaired oral GTT indicated by :

(A)  Fasting plasma sugar ≥ 126 mg/dl

(B)  Random blood sugar > 200 mg/dl

(C)  Fasting blood sugar < 90 mg/dl

(D)  2 hrs. after glucose load 140-200 mg/dl and fasting blood sugar < 126 mg/dl

Answer: (D)

433. PO2 level is ↓ in :

(A)  Anaemia

(B)  Co poisoning

(C)  Methaemoglobinemia

(D)  Hypoventilation

Answer: (D)

434. Celiae sprue diagnosed by :

(A)  Intestinal biopsy

(B)  Unequivocal response to gluten restriction

(C)  Finding or organism

(D)  Improvement on dapsome treatment

Answer: (B)

435. In cardiae shock :

(A)  SBP < 90 mm of Hg

(B)  DBP < 80 mm of Hg

(C)  Urine output < 20 ml/hr

(D)  Cardiae index < 3.5

Answer: (A)

436. Localized regional cerebral atrophy is seen in :

(A)  Alzheimer’s disease

(B)  Frontotemporal dementia

(C)  PML

(D)  C.J. disease

Answer: (B)

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