Medical PG Obstetrics and Gynaecology

Medical PG Obstetrics and Gynaecology

1. What is the commonest site of secondary metastasis in Choriocarcinoma

(A) Vagina

(B) Urethra

(c)  Lungs

(D)  Brain

Answer: (C)

2. All the following can be used in Preterm labor except

(A) Ritodrine

(B) Magnesium sulphate

(c)  Nifedipine

(D) Chlorpromazine

Answer: (D)

3. Which is the commonest site of ectopic pregnancy

(A) Isthmus

(B) Ampulla

(c)  Infundibulum

(D)  Abdominal

Answer: (B)

4. α-Fetoprotein is increased in all except

(A) Increased maternal weight

(B) Multiple gestation

(c)  Maternal hepatoma

(D) Abdominal wall defect

Answer: (A)

5. Which Heart disease has the highest mortality in pregnancy

(A) Eisenmenger complex

(B) Mitral valve prolapse

(c)  Mitral stenosis

(D) Mitral regurgitation

Answer: (A)

6. Trial of labor is contraindicated in all the following except

(A) Rachitic pelvis

(B) Rachitic pelvis

(c)  Previous LSCS

(D)  Multigravida

Answer: (D)

7. The commonest cause of breech presentation is 

(A) Hydramnios

(B) Oligohydramnios

(c)  Prematurity

(D) Contracted pelvis

Answer: (C)

8. Forceps are applied in all the following except

(A) After coming head in breech presentation

(B) Face presentation

(c)  Occipitoposterior

(D) Brow presentation

Answer: (D)

9. Maximum breast milk secretion at ____months

(A) 3 months

(B) 6 months

(c)  9 months

(D) 12 months

Answer: (B)

10. The use of steroids in neonates is required in

(A) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

(B) Meconium aspiration syndrome

(c)  Congential polycystic disease

(D) Craniopharyngioma

Answer: (A)

11. Which of the following true regarding precocious puberty

(A) Sexual maturity is attained early

(B) Mental function is increased

(c)  No reproductive function

(D)  Body proportions are enlarged

Answer: (A)

12. All the following are primary support of the uterus except

(A) Utero-sacral ligament

(B) Pelvic floor

(c)  Broad ligament

(D) Antiflexion

Answer: (C)

13. Stress incontinence is best corrected by

(A) Colpo-suspension

(B) Hysterectomy

(c)  Bladder neck repair

(D) Bladder exercise

Answer: (C)

14. Gonococcal infection spreads by

(A) Ascending route

(B) Hematogenous route

(c)  Involvement of adjacent structures

(D) Both a and c

Answer: (D)

15. All the following are features of progesterone pills except

(A) Acts by altering cervical mucous secretion

(B) Break ovulation cycle

(c)  Failure rate is equal to that seen with OCP’s

(D) Irregular bleeding is a known complications

Answer: (C)

16. A woman has 20 ml menstrual blood loss every 35 days. She suffers from

(A) Metrorrhagia

(B) Menometorhagia

(c)  Oligomenorrhea

(D)  Menorrhagia

Answer: (C)

17. Treatment of Endometriosis involves all except

(A) Estrogens

(B) Gonadotropins

(c)  Progestins

(D)  Danazol

Answer: (A)

18. The commonest ovarian tumor complicating pregnancy is

(A) Fibroma

(B) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

(c)  Serous cystadenocarcinoma

(D) Dermoid

Answer: (D)

19. The most definitive clinical sign of pregnancy is

(A) Ballottement

(B) Fetal heart sounds

(c)  Braxton Hick’s contraction

(D) Enlarged uterus

Answer: (B)

20. Involution of the uterus is completed by

(A) 6 weeks

(B) 8 weeks

(c)  12 weeks

(D) 16 weeks

Answer: (A)

21. The earliest indication of concealed acute bleeding in pregnancy is

(A) Tachycardia

(B) Oliguria

(c)  Postural hypotension

(D) Low body temperature

Answer: (A)

22. A patient presents at 28 weeks gestation with severe abdominal pain, bleeding and hypertension. The most likely diagnosis is

(A) Placental previa

(B) Accidental hemorrahge

(c)  Vasa previa

(D) Rupture of ectopic pregnancy

Answer: (B)

23. Which of the following is suggestive of ectopic pregnancy in a young woman with acute abdomen

(A) Tender cervix

(B) Amenorrhea

(c)  Positive urinary HCG

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

24. The most common type of pelvis associated with Direct occipitoposterior position is

(A) Gynecoid

(B) Plattypelloid

(c)  Anthropoid

(D) Android

Answer: (C)

25. The most unfavorable presentation for vaginal delivery is

(A) Mentoposterior

(B) Mentoanterior

(c)  Occipitoposterior

(D)  Deep transverse arrest

Answer: (A)

26. Deep transverse arrest is commonly seen in which type of pelvis

(A) Android

(B) Anthropoid

(c)  Gynecoid

(D)  Platypelloid

Answer: (A)

27. An absolute indication for Classical caesarean section is

(A) Carcinoma cervix

(B) Multi-fibroid uterus

(c)  Breech presentation

(D)  Central Placenta Previa

Answer: (D)

28. The best contraceptive method in a patient with heart disease is

(A) Double barrier


(c)  Tubectomy

(D)  Oral pills

Answer: (A)

29. The most common complication of IUCD is

(A) Ectopic pregnancy

(B) Bleeding

(c)  Backache

(D) Cervical stenosis

Answer: (B)

30. Which of the following anti-tuberculous drugs is contraindicated in pregnancy.

(A) Rifampicin


(c)  Streptomycin

(D)  Ethambutol

Answer: (C)

31. The safest drug in pregnancy is


(B) Rifampicin

(c)  Ethambutol

(D)  Streptomycin

Answer: (A)

32. DIC in pregnancy is seen in all the following conditions except

(A) Amniotic fluid embolism

(B) Abruptio placentae

(c)  Intrauterine death

(D)  Fat embolism

Answer: (D)

33. Molecular analysis of Chorionic villous sample is useful in diagnosis all the following except

(A) Tay-Sachs disease

(B) Cystic fibrosis

(c)  β-Thallassemia

(D)  Duchene’s dystrophy

Answer: (A)

34. Neonatal complications of the fetus in a diabetic include all the following except

(A) Hypoglycemia

(B) Polycythemia

(c)  Hypocalcemia

(D) Omphalitis

Answer: (D)

35. Which of the following is true about menopausal hormonal change

(A) LH/TSH ↑

(B) Gonadotropins ↑, estrogen ↓

(c)  Estrogens and Gonadotropins both ↓

(D)  Estrogen and Gonadotropins both ↑

Answer: (C)

36. Progesterone is produced by

(A) Granulosa luteal cells

(B) Stroma of the ovary

(c)  Theca cells

(D)  Sertoli cells

Answer: (A)

37. The procedure of choice to diagnose Uterus didelphis is

(A) Laparoscopy

(B) Ultrasound

(c)  IVP

(D) Hysterosalpingography

Answer: (D)

38. Which of the following is the rarest modification in a fibroid uterus

(A) Red degeneration

(B) Calcification

(c)  Hyalinization

(D) Sarcomatous changes

Answer: (D)

39. Cryptomenorrhea occurs due to

(A) Imperforate hymen

(B) Asherman’s syndrome

(c)  Mullerian agenesis

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (A)

40. The most common complication of an ovarian tumor is

(A) Torsion

(B) Hemorrhage

(c)  Infection

(D)  Hyaline change

Answer: (A)

41. The commonest complication of Cryotherapy is

(A) Bleeding

(B) Watery discharge

(c)  Pain

(D)  Ulceration

Answer: (B)

42. The most effective drug in Sheehan’s syndrome is

(A) Gonadotropins

(B) Estrogens

(c)  Thyroxin

(D) Corticosteriods

Answer: (D)

43. The commonest indication of IVF is

(A) Abnormality of Uterus abnormality

(B) Abnormality of Fallopian tube

(c)  Anovulation

(D)  Azoospermia

Answer: (B)

44. Genetic disorders are diagnosed at 11 weeks of pregnancy by

(A) Chorionic villous biopsy

(B) Amniocentesis

(c)  Endometrial biopsy

(D) Placentography

Answer: (A)

45. Abnormal α-fetoprotein is seen in

(A) Trisomy 18

(B) Twin pregnancy

(c)  Neural tube defect

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

46. Weight of the placenta at term is

(A) 500 gm

(B) 1000 gm

(c)  120 gm

(D) 1500 gm

Answer: (A)

47. Polyhydramnios is seen in all the following except

(A) Diabetes

(B) Renal agenesis

(c)  Esophageal atresia

(D) Hydronephrosis

Answer: (B)

48. A 40-year-old P4+2 female has been diagnosed to have H. mole. The treatment would be

(A) Radiotherap

(B) Chemotherapy

(c)  Total hysterectomy

(D)  Radio + Chemotherapy

Answer: (C)

49. Most common site of spread of Choriocarcinoma is

(A) Lung

(B) Liver

(c)  Brain

(D) Bone

Answer: (A)

50. Ectopic pregnancy is most common in

(A) Previous h/o recurrent PID

(B) Previous h/o Abortion

(c)  Previous h/o Twin pregnancy

(D)  Endometriosis

Answer: (A)

51. Clinical features pseudocyesis are all of the following except

(A) Quickening

(B) Enlargement of uterus

(c)  Amenorrhea

(D)  False labor

Answer: (B)

52. In pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH), which test is not done 

(A) Roll-over test

(B) Serum uric acid

(c)  Shake test

(D)  Weight gain > 2 kg/month

Answer: (C)

53. In Rh incompatibility, the prognosis depends on

(A) Serum bilirubin

(B) Coomb’s test

(c)  Blood smear

(D)  Serum albumin

Answer: (A)

54. All the following ATT are given in pregnancy except

(A) Rifampicin

(B) Ethambutol

(c)  INH

(D)  Streptomycin

Answer: (D)

55. Which drug is contraindicated in Pregnancy

(A) Methyldopa

(B) Hydralazine

(c)  Captopril

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (C)

56. Pap smear in pregnancy is

(A) Contraindicated

(B) Not useful

(c)  Routine, as a part of screening

(D) Done in every patient

Answer: (C)

57. All of the following indicate Fetal distress except

(A) Thick (pea-soup) meconium

(B) Fetal heart rate 100/minute

(c)  Loss of beat-to-bear variation

(D)  Fetal skull blood pH >7.32

Answer: (D)

58. Which of the following is the earliest conclusive evidence of intrauterine death

(A) Shrinking of body

(B) Intra-aortic gas

(c)  Increased curvature of spine

(D)  Spalding sign

Answer: (B)

59. Fetal blood loss in abnormal cord insertion is seen in

(A) Vasa previa

(B) Decidua basalis

(c)  Battledore placenta

(D) Succenturiate placenta

Answer: (A)

60. X-ray pelvimetry is done in all of the following except

(A) Osteomalacia

(B) Breach presentation

(c)  Severe CPD

(D)  Outlet obstruction

Answer: (C)

61. The following may be used for post-coital contraception

(A) Cu-T

(B) RU 486

(c)  Estrogen in high doses

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

62. Corpus luteum activity is maintained by


(B) LH

(c)  Estrogen

(D) Progesterone

Answer: (B)

63. The hormone responsible for a positive ‘Fern test’ is

(A) Estrogen

(B) Progesterone

(c)  FSH

(D) LH

Answer: (A)

64. Which of the following is not used in induction of ovulation 

(A) Danazole


(c)  Uro-follitropin

(D)  HCG

Answer: (A)

65. Which ovarian tumor is likely to involve the opposite ovary by metastasis

(A) Granulosa cell tumor

(B) Dysgerminoma

(c)  Gynandroblastoma

(D)  Endodermal tumor

Answer: (A)

66. All the following are true about Krukenbrug’s tumor except

(A) Has a rough surface

(B) Shape of ovary is maintained

(c)  Usually bilateral

(D) Arises usually from stomach carcinoma

Answer: (A)

67. All of the following are components of manning score except :

(A) Non stress test

(B) Oxytocin challenge test

(c)  Fetal body movement

(D) Respiratory activity of child

Answer: (B)

68. All of the following can be used for establishing antenatal diagnosis except :

(A) Fetal blood

(B) Maternal blood

(c)  Amniotic fluid

(D) Decidua

Answer: (D)

69. Shortest diameter of fetal skull is :

(A) Suboccipito-bregmatic

(B) Bitemporal

(c)  Sub occipito frontal

(D)  BPD

Answer: (B)

70. Most common heart disease associated with pregnancy is

(A) Mitral stenosis

(B) Mitral regurtation

(c)  Patent ductus arteriosus

(D) Tatralogy of fallot’s

Answer: (A)

71. Most common congenital malformation seen in a diabetic pregnant woman amongst the following are :

(A) cardiac defect

(B) Renal defect

(c)  Liver defect

(D) Lung defect

Answer: (A)

72. One of the following features can be used to define a contracted pelvis :

(A) Transverse diameter of 10 cm

(B) AP diameter of 12 cm

(c)  Platypelloid pelvis

(D) Gynacoid pelvis

Answer: (A)

73. Which type of pelvis is associated with increased incidence of ‘face of pubis’ delivery :

(A) Gynaecoid pelvis

(B) Anthropoid pelvis

(c)  Android pelvis

(D)  Platypelloid pelvis

Answer: (B)

74. Commonest cause of breech presentation is

(A) Prematurity

(B) Post maturity

(c)  Diabets mellitus

(D) Osteomalacia

Answer: (A)

75. Rupture of membrane is said to be premature when it occurs at :

(A) 38 weeks of pregnancy

(B) 32 weeks of pregnancy

(c)  Prior of Ist stage to labour

(D) II stage of labour

Answer: (A)

76. Likely size of uterus at 8 weeks post partum is :

(A) 100 gm

(B) 500 gm

(c)  700 gm

(D) 900 gm

Answer: (A)

77. Postpartum decidual secretions present are referred to as :

(A) Lochia

(B) Bleeding per vaginum

(c)  Vasa-previa

(D) Decidua-capsularis

Answer: (A)

78. IUGR is defined when :

(A) Birth weight is below the tenth percentile of the average of gestational age

(B) Birth weight is below the 20 percentile of the average of gestational age

(c)  Birth weight is below the 30 percentile of the average of gestational age

(D)  Weight of baby is less than 1000 gm

Answer: (A)

79. Absolute contraindication for IUCD includes all of the following except :

(A) Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding

(B) Suspected pregnancy

(c)  Congenital malformation of uterus

(D)  PID

Answer: (C)

80. Asymptomatic carriage of gonococcal infection in female is commonly seen in :

(A) Endocervix

(B) Vagina

(c)  Urethra

(D) Fornix

Answer: (A)

81. All of the following conditions are associated with primary amenorrhea except :

(A) Testicular feminization syndrome

(B) Stein-leventhal syndrome

(c)  Tuner’s syndrome

(D) Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser Syndrome

Answer: (B)

82. Least common complication of fibroid uterus is

(A) Malignant change

(B) Hyaline change

(c)  Torsion

(D) Cystic degeneration

Answer: (A)

83. Carcinoma cervix extends upto lateral pelvic wall. The stage would be :

(A) Stage I

(B) Stage II

(c)  Stage III

(D) Stage IV

Answer: (C)

84. A 42 year old female P3+0+0+3 is found to have carcinoma in situ. Best treatment would be :

(A) Hysterectomy

(B) Wertheim’s hysterectomy

(c)  Conisation

(D) Wait and watch

Answer: (A)

85. Which of the following are masculizing tumours of the ovary :

(A) Granulosa cell tumour

(B) Dysgerminoma

(c)  Dermoid Cyst

(D) Arrhenoblastoma

Answer: (D)

86. Best prognosis for reversibility is seen in 

(A) Isthemic-isthemic type

(B) Isthemic-ampullary type

(c)  Ampullary-forneacial type

(D) Ampullary-fibrialtype

Answer: (A)

87. A middle aged female presents with increasing visual loss, breast enlargement & irregular menses. Investigation of choices would be:

(A) S. calcitonin

(B) S. prolactin

(c)  S. haemoglobin concentration

(D)  S. calcium

Answer: (B)

88. Diagnosis of Down syndrome at 11 weeks is best assessed by :

(A) Ultrasonography

(B) Aminocentesis

(c)  Chorionic villous biopsy

(D) Doppler Ultrasound

Answer: (C)

89. Doppler Ultrasound in pregnancy detect :

(A) Cardavascular malformation

(B) Neural tube defect

(c)  Abdominal masses


Answer: (D)

90. Late decceleration indicates

(A) Head compression

(B) Cord compression

(c)  Fetal-hypoxia

(D) Breech presentation

Answer: (C)

91. Following represents foetal hypoxia except :

(A) Excessive foetal movements

(B) Meconium in vertex presentation

(c)  Foetal scalp blood pH > 7.3

(D) Heart rate < 100

Answer: (C)

92. A pregnant mother is treated with oral anticoagulant. The likely congenital malformation that may result in the fetus is :

(A) Long bones limb defect

(B) Cranial Malformations

(c)  Cardiovascular malformations

(D) Chondrodysplasia Punctata

Answer: (D)

93. Plecenta previa is associated with all of the following except :

(A) Large placenta

(B) Previous C.S. scar

(c)  Primigravida

(D) Previous placenta previa

Answer: (C)

94. A pregnant woman at 34 weeks pregnancy, comes with bleeding P/V, B.P. 80:

(A) Examination in OT and termination of pregnancy

(B) Blood transfusion

(c)  Observation


Answer: (B)

95. Treatment regimen in ecclampsia that causes minimum effect on fetus is :

(A) Lytic cocktail regime

(B) MgSO4 regime

(c)  Diazepam therapy

(D) Phenobarbitone therapy

Answer: (B)

96. X-ray pelvimetry is indicated in all of the following conditions except :

(A) Severe CPD

(B) Breech presentation in vaginal delivery

(c)  Outlet obstruction

(D) Osteomalacia

Answer: (A)

97. Cause of renal failure in septicemic shock is :

(A) Acute tubular necrosis

(B) Acute cortical necrosis

(c)  Glomerulonephritis

(D) Focal sclerosis

Answer: (A)

98. Blighted ovum is characterized by :

(A) Avascular villi

(B) Syntical knot

(c)  Intervillous haemorrhage

(D) Intracerebral haemorrhage

Answer: (A)

99. Duration of action of Cu-380-A is :

(A) 3 years

(B) 4 years

(c)  6 years

(D) 8 years

Answer: (D)

100. All of the following agents may be used for post coital contraception except :

(A) Danazole


(c)  RU-486

(D) High dose estrogen

Answer: (A)

101. Condyloma acuminate in pregnancy should be treated by :

(A) Podophylline

(B) Podophylline toxin

(c)  Trichloroacetic acid

(D) 5-FU cream

Answer: (C)

102. Most common site for genital tuberculosis is :

(A) Ovary

(B) Uterus

(c)  Cervix

(D)  Fellopian tube

Answer: (D)

103. Endometrial hyperplasia is seen in

(A) Endodermal sinus tumour

(B) Dysgerminosa

(c)  Polycystic ovarian disease

(D) Carcinoma of cervix

Answer: (C)

104. Clomiphene citrate is indicated in

(A) Stein-leventhal syndrome

(B) Ovarian cyst

(c)  Asserman’s syndrome

(D) Carcinoma endometrium

Answer: (A)

105. Which of the following treatment is not done in ectopic pregnancy

(A) Salpingctectomy

(B) Salpingo-oopherectomy

(c)  Salpingostomy

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

106. In ectopic pregnancy deciduas is shed as :

(A) Decidua-vera

(B) Decidual basalis

(c)  Decidua capsularis

(D) Decidua rubra

Answer: (A)

107. Least common complication of fibroid is :

(A) Menstrual disorders

(B) Malignancy

(c)  Urinary retension

(D) Degeneration

Answer: (B)

108. Most common site for metastasis in choriocarcinoma is :

(A) Lungs

(B) Brain

(c)  Liver

(D) Spine

Answer: (A)

109. Best gas used for creating pneumoperitonium at laproscopy is :

(A) N2

(B) O2

(c)  CO2

(D) N2O

Answer: (C)

110. Treatment of the lutein cyst in hydatiform mole is

(A) Ovarian cystectomy

(B) Ovarioctomy

(c)  Suction evacuation

(D)  Ovariotomy

Answer: (C)

111. Red degeneration of fibroma during pregnancy is most commonly seen at :

(A) Ist trimester

(B) IInd trimester

(c)  IIIrd trimester

(D) Puerperium

Answer: (B)

112. A pregnant women in 2nd trimester presented with UTI Drug of choice is :

(A) Ampicilline

(B) Low doses cotrimoxazole

(c)  Ciprofloxacin

(D) Cephaperazone

Answer: (A)

113. Retension of urine in a pregnant women with retroverted uterus is most commonly seen at :

(A) 8-10 weeks

(B) 12-16 weeks

(c)  20-24 weeks

(D) 28-32 weeks

Answer: (B)

114. Highest rate of transmission of toxoplasmosis during pregnancy is seen in :

(A) Ist trimester

(B) IInd trimester

(c)  IIIrd trimester

(D) Puerperium

Answer: (C)

115. Nonimmume hydrops foetallils is seen in all of the following conditions except :

(A) α-Thalassemia

(B) Parvo-virus-19

(c)  Rh-incompatibility

(D) Chromosomal anomaly

Answer: (C)

116. Which of the following antiepileptic is least likely to cause malformation in foetus during pregnancy is :

(A) Phenytoin

(B) Carbamazepine

(c)  Sodium-Valproate

(D) Phenobarbitone

Answer: (D)

117. Which of the following drug may be used to arrest pre mature labour :

(A) Aspirin

(B) Aspirin

(c)  Magnesium-sulphate

(D) Diazoxide

Answer: (C)

118. During foetal life maximum growth is caused by :

(A) Growth harmone

(B) Insulin

(c)  Cortisol

(D) Thyroxin

Answer: (B)

119. CA-125 increased in all of the following conditions except :

(A) T.B. of genital organ

(B) Ovarian cancer

(c)  Endometriosis

(D) Stein-leventhal-syndrome

Answer: (D)

120. All of the following are harmone dependent carcinoma except :

(A) Prostate CA

(B) Endometrium CA

(c)  Breast CA

(D) Ovary CA

Answer: (D)

121. Gn RH analogue may be given in all of the following except :

(A) Prostate CA

(B) Endometrium CA

(c)  Fibroadenoma-uterus

(D)  Precocious puberty

Answer: (B)

122. Carcinoma endometrium with positive superficial inguinal lymph node status is classified as stage :

(A) I

(B) II

(c)  III

(D) IV

Answer: (D)

123. Long term tamoxifen therapy may cause :

(A) Endometrium CA

(B) Ovary CA

(c)  Cervix CA

(D) Vagina-CA

Answer: (A)

124. Precocious puberty may be seen in all of the following conditions except :

(A) Granulosa-cell tumour

(B) Head-injury

(c)  Corticosteriod intake

(D)  Hyperthyroidism

Answer: (D)

125. Menstruation is defined as precocious if it starts before the child reaches the age of :

(A) 8 years

(B) 10 years

(c)  14 years

(D)  20 years

Answer: (B)

126. All of the following are classified as primary supports of uterus except :

(A) Trans cervical ligament

(B) Pubocervical ligament

(c)  Utero-sacral ligament

(D) Broad ligament

Answer: (D)

127. Oral contraceptive pills decreases incidence of all of the following conditions except :

(A) Salpingitis

(B) Hepatic adenoma

(c)  Ovary CA

(D) Fibroadenosis

Answer: (B)

128. True statement about Minipill is :

(A) Irregular vaginal bleeding may b e a side effect

(B) Used with combination of oral contraceptive pill

(c)  Can not be used in lactation

(D)  Prevents ectopic pregnancy

Answer: (A)

129. True statement about RU-486 is :

(A) Used for inducing abortion in early weeks of pregnancy

(B) Used along with contraceptive pills

(c)  Acts on the cytoplasmic receptors

(D)  Used for prevent ectopic implantation

Answer: (A)

130. Characteristic features of Rokitanski-Kuster Hauser syndrome are all of the following except :

(A) Absent uterus

(B) Absent vagina

(c)  Anovulation

(D)  46-XX

Answer: (C)

131. Most common manifestation of ectopie pregnancy is:

(A) Vomiting

(B) Bleeding

(c)  Pain abdomen

(D)  Shock

Answer: (C)

132. Most common type of twin pregnancy is:

(A) Vertex + transverse

(B) Both vertex

(c)  Vertex + breech

(D) Both breech

Answer: (B)

133. Hegar’s sign of pregnancy is

(A) Uterine contraction

(B) Bluish discolouration of vagina

(c)  Softening of isthums

(D) Quickening

Answer: (C)

134. Mother has been infected with rubella, all the following foetal congenital malformation can occur except:



(c)  PDA

(D) PS

Answer: (B)

135. Most common immunoglobulin secreted by mother in milk and colostrums is:

(A) IgA

(B) IgG

(c)  IgE

(D) IgD

Answer: (A)

136. Accurate diagnosis of anencephaly in ultrasound is seen at week

(A) 6

(B) 8

(c)  10

(D) 14

Answer: (D)

137. P. diameter is maximum in which type of pelvis:

(A) Platypelloid

(B) Android

(c)  Anthropoid

(D) Gynaecoid

Answer: (C)

138. Face to pubis delivery is seen in pelvis:

(A) Platypelloid

(B) Android

(c)  Gynaecoid

(D)  Anthropoid

Answer: (D)

139.Most common cause of uterine rupture in India is:

(A) Previous LSCS

(B) Obstructed labour

(c)  Fibroid

(D) Endometriosis

Answer: (B)

140. Early deceleration denotes:

(A) Head compression

(B) Cord compression

(c)  Placental insufficiency

(D) Fetal distress

Answer: (A)

141. In pregnancy, which type of anemia is not common in India:

(A) Vitamin B12 anemia

(B) Folic acid anemia

(c)  Iron + folic anemia

(D) Iron deficiency anemia

Answer: (A)

142. Oxygenated blood from placenta to heart in utero is by:

(A) Umbilical vein


(c)  Ductus arteriosus

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

143. Most common cause of HIV infection in infant is:

(A) Perinatal transmission

(B) Breast milk

(c)  Transplacement

(D)  Umbilical cord sepsis

Answer: (A)

144. Diabetic mother will have the following complications in foetus except:

(A) Hydramnios

(B) Macrosomia

(c)  Cardiac anomaly

(D) Dimorphic anemia

Answer: (D)

145. Gas most commonly used in laparoscopy is:

(A) CO2

(B) SO2

(c)  N2

(D) O2

Answer: (A)

146. Abruptio placentae occurs in all except:

(A) Smokers

(B) Alcoholics

(c)  PET

(D)  Folic acid deficiency

Answer: (B)

147. In microinvasive cervical cancer, most common treatment is:

(A) Conization

(B) Laser

(c)  Simple hysterectomy

(D) Radical hysterectomy

Answer: (A)

148. In colposcopy, following are visualized except:

(A) Upper 2/3 rd endocervix

(B) Lower 1/3rd endocervix

(c)  Vault of vagina

(D) Lateral fornix

Answer: (A)

149. Causes of ectopic pregnancy includes A/E


(B) Tubal ciliary damage

(c)  Blighted ovum

(D) Late fertilization

Answer: (C)

150. Triradiate pelvis is seen in:

(A) Rickets

(B) Chondrodystrophy

(c)  Osteoporosis

(D) Hyperparathyroidism

Answer: (A)

151. Cause of death in breech delivery:

(A) Intracranial haemorrhage

(B) Aspiration

(c)  Atlanto axial dislocation

(D) Asphyxia

Answer: (A)

152. Hydrops foetalis is seen in following except:

(A) Rh incompatibility

(B) Syphilis

(c)  ABO incompatibility


Answer: (D)

153. Recurrent abortion in 1st trimester is most often due to

(A) Chromosomal abnormalities

(B) Uterine anomaly

(c)  Hormonal disturbance

(D) Infection

Answer: (A)

154. Oxytocin is preferred over ergometrine in

(A) Induction of labour

(B) Prevention of PPH

(c)  Both

(D) None

Answer: (A)

155. Low level of AFP is seen is

(A) Fetal death

(B) Trisomy

(c)  Anencephaly

(D) Open neural tube effects

Answer: (B)

156. Atonic uterus is more common in:

(A) Caesarean section

(B) Multi gravida

(c)  Primi gravida

(D) Breech delivery

Answer: (B)

157. Assessment of progress of labour is best done by:

(A) Station of head

(B) Rupture of membrane

(c)  Contraction of uterus

(D) Partogram

Answer: (D)

158. Withdrawal bleeding with progesterone seen in otherwise amenorrheic woman due to:

(A) Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

(B) Anovulation

(c)  Ovarain failure

(D) TB endometritis

Answer: (B)

159. Cervical hostility is tested by following except:

(A) Spinbarkeit

(B) Post coital test

(c)  Miller kuzrole test

(D) Keller test

Answer: (A)

160. Most reversible form of infertility is:

(A) Endometriosis

(B) Azoospermia

(c)  Anovulation

(D) Tubal stenosis

Answer: (C)

161. A 45 year old presenting with dysmenorrhoea & menorrhagia most probably has:


(B) Endometriosis

(c)  Fibroid

(D) Endometrial Ca

Answer: (C)

162. Treatment of choice for Ca in situ cervix is:

(A) Follow-up with serial pap smear

(B) Conization

(c)  Hysterectomy

(D) Laser vaporization

Answer: (B)

163. Commonest type of endometrial change in dysfunctional uttering bleeding

(A) Secretory

(B) Hyperplasia

(c)  Cystic glandular hyperplasia

(D) Atophic

Answer: (B)

164. Commonest cause of non – engagement at term, in primi is :


(B) Hydramnios

(c)  Brow presentation

(D) Breech

Answer: (A)

165. Most constant symptom present in undisturbed ectopic :

(A) Pain in lower abdomen

(B) Amenorrhea

(c)  Bleeding P/V

(D) Fainting attack

Answer: (A)

166. Bishop’s score include following, except :

(A) Dilatation of Cx

(B) Effacement of Cx

(c)  Contractions of uterus

(D) Station of head

Answer: (C)

167. Pseudomyxoma peritonei is seen in :

(A) Serous cystadenoma

(B) Pseudomucinous cystadenoma

(c)  Mucinous cystadenoma

(D) Teratoma

Answer: (C)

168. Best method to deliver arms in breech :

(A) Lovset’s method

(B) Smellie veit

(c)  Pinard’s

(D) Any of the above

Answer: (A)

169. Bandi’s ring is also called as :

(A) Constriction ring

(B) Schroeder’s ring

(c)  Retraction ring

(D) Cervical dystocia

Answer: (C)

170. PGE2 is not used in first trimester abortion, in :

(A) Bronchial asthma

(B) DM

(c)  Twins

(D) HT

Answer: (A)

171. DIC is not seen in :

(A) IU death

(B) Missed abortion

(c)  Amniotic fluid embolism

(D) Inevitable abortion

Answer: (D)

172. Gyanecomazia is caused by :

(A) Kallman’s syndrome

(B) 5 – α reductase deficiency

(c)  Androgen insensitivity

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

173. Commonest site of obsteric surgery leading to uretero vaginal fistula :

(A) Near cervix

(B) At crossing of iliac artery

(c)  Near broad ligament

(D) Below cardinal ligament where uterine artery crosses

Answer: (D)

174. Treatment of gynaecomastia is A/E :

(A) Hormonal therapy

(B) Simple mastectomy

(c)  Subcutaneous liposuction of mastectomy

(D) None

Answer: (D)

175. Drug strictly contraindicated in lactation :

(A) Lithium

(B) Carbamazepine

(c)  Penicillin

(D) Ovarian

Answer: (A)

176. MC cause of abortion in first trimester is, defect in :

(A) Placenta

(B) Uterus

(c)  Embryo

(D) Ovarian

Answer: (C)

177. Best prognosis in infertile women is seen in :

(A) Tubal block

(B) Anovulation

(c)  Oligospermia

(D) Endometritis

Answer: (B)

178. In PIH an impending sign of eclampsia is:

(A) Visual disturbance

(B) Wt gain of 2 Ib per week

(c)  Severe proteinuria of 10g

(D) Pedal edema

Answer: (A)

179. In heart disease, prophylactic forceps is applied at head station of:

(A) -1

(B) +1

(c)  0

(D) +2

Answer: (D)

180. Vacuum extraction is C. I in:

(A) Premature babies

(B) Heart disease

(c)  Microcephaly

(D) Polyhydramic

Answer: (A)

181. In suction evacuation, the pressure applied is:

(A) 0-100 mg H

(B) 200-400 mm Hg

(c)  400-600 mg Hg

(D) 600-800 mm Hg

Answer: (C)

182. Baby born to DM have following except:

(A) Hypercalcemia

(B) Hypokalemia

(c)  Hypoglycemia

(D) Obesity

Answer: (A)

183. To start with, all fibroids are:

(A) Interstital

(B) Submucus

(c)  Subserous

(D) Ovarian

Answer: (A)

184. Bicornuate uterus is due to:

(A) Incomplete fusion of uterine cavity

(B) Incomplete fusion of paramesonephnic duct

(c)  Incomplete fusion of mesonephric duct

(D) Incomplete formation of vagina

Answer: (B)

185. OC pills intake cause psychiatric symptoms, and abdominal pain. Diagnosis is:

(A) Acute intermittent porphyria

(B) Systemic lupus

(c)  Thromobosis

(D) Anemia

Answer: (A)

186. A young lady comes with mild erosion of cervix and pap smear shows dysplasia next step is:

(A) Antibiotics

(B) Coloposcopy

(c)  Cryosurgery

(D) Conisation

Answer: (B)

187. Couvelaire uterus is seen in

(A) Placental previa

(B) Accidental haemorrhage

(c)  PIH


Answer: (B)

188. ARM is contraindicated in

(A) Pl. previa

(B) Hydramios

(c)  Acc. Hem

(D) Twins

Answer: (B)

189. A lady with IUCD becomes pregnant with tail of IUCD being seen next course of action is:


(B) Remove the IUCD

(c)  Continue the pregnancy

(D) Remove IUCD and terminate pregnancy

Answer: (B)

190. Precocious puberty is seen with which ovarian tumour:

(A) Dermoid

(B) Gynandroblastoma

(c)  Granulosa cell tumour

(D) Arhenoblastoma

Answer: (C)

191. 38 weeks primi in early labour with transverse presentation TOC is:

(A) Allow for cervical dilatation

(B) Internal podalic version

(c)  LSCS

(D) Forceps

Answer: (C)

192. Spalding sign is seen in

(A) Live born fetus

(B) Still born

(c)  Intra uterine death

(D) Hydrocephalic foetus

Answer: (C)

193. The after coming head of breech, Chin to Pubis is delivered by:

(A) Maricelli tech

(B) Burns marshal method

(c)  Lovest’s method

(D) Manual rotation and extraction by Piper’s forceps

Answer: (D)

194. In a preg women of 28 weeks gestation IUD is earliest demonstrated X-ray:

(A) Increased flexion

(B) Overlapping of cranial bone

(c)  Spalding’s sign

(D) Gas in vessels

Answer: (D)

195. In accidental haemorrhage, TOC:

(A) Induction of labour

(B) Rx of hypofibrinogenemia then blood transfusion

(c)  Simultaneous emptying of uterus and blood transfusion

(D) Wait and watch

Answer: (C)

196. TB endometritis causes infertility by:

(A) Causing anovulation

(B) Destroying endometrium

(c)  Tubal blockage

(D) Ciliary dysmotility

Answer: (B)

197. The most common histological finding of endometrium in DUB is :

(A) Hypertrophic

(B) Hyperplastic

(c)  Cystic glandular hyperplasia

(D) Dysplastic

Answer: (B)

198. A 35 year old woman with dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia of 6 months duration showed an enlarged uterus of 20 weeks which was tender, the possible diagnosis is :

(A) Adenomyosis

(B) Fibroid

(c)  Carcinoma endometrium


Answer: (A)

199. The first step in the management of hirsutism due to stein leventhal syndrome is :



(c)  Spironolactone

(D) Bromocriptine

Answer: (A)

200. In intrauterine death with transverse lie, the following are treatment options except :

(A) Decapitation

(B) Evisceration

(c)  Craniotomy

(D) Caesarean section

Answer: (D)

201. Commonest cause of first trimester abortion is :

(A) Monosomy

(B) Trisomy

(c)  Triploidy

(D) Aneuploidy

Answer: (B)

202. The Colposcopic features suggestive of malignancy are except :

(A) Condyloma

(B) Vascular atypia

(c)  Punctation

(D) White epithelium

Answer: (A)

203. Among the following, which is a feature of testicular feminization syndrome :

(A) XX pattern

(B) Commonly reared as male

(c)  Well formed female internal genitalia

(D) High testosterone levels

Answer: (D)

204. The thickness of endomtrium at the time of implantation is :

(A) 3-4 mm

(B) 20-30 mm

(c)  15-20 mm

(D) 30-40 mm

Answer: (A)

205. Spalding’s sign is seen in :

(A) Still born

(B) Live born

(c)  Premature

(D) Dead born

Answer: (D)

206. The most common anomaly seen with chorionic villous biopsy done in early gestation is :

(A) Neural tube defects

(B) Limb abnormalities

(c)  Kidney abnormalities

(D) CH

Answer: (B)

207. A 50 year old woman, nulliparous, diabetic and obese presenting with post –monopausal bleeding can be any of the following except :

(A) Carcinoma in situ of cervix

(B) Carcinoma endometrium

(c)  DUB

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

208. Mestranol exerts it’s contraceptive effect by :

(A) Inhibiting FSH

(B) Inhibiting LH

(c)  FSH

(D) LH

Answer: (A)

209. The ideal treatment for metastatic choriocarcinoma in the lungs in a young women is :

(A) Chemotherapy

(B) Surgery with radiation

(c)  Surgery

(D) Wait and watch

Answer: (A)

210. Concentration of MgSO4 in the treatment of eclampsia in mEq/L :

(A) 7-10

(B) 10-15

(c)  2-4

(D) 4-7

Answer: (D)

211. Trans-cervical endometrial resection (TER) is used in A/E:

(A) Endometriosis


(c)  Carcinoma endometrium

(D) Carcinoma endometrium

Answer: (C)

212. All are seen in testicular feminization syndrome except :

(A) 46 XY

(B) Primary amenorrhoea

(c)  Short stature

(D) Vagina may present

Answer: (C)

213. Chromosomal no. or primary spermatocyte is :

(A) 46 xy

(B) 22 x/y

(c)  22 xx

(D) 46 xx

Answer: (A)

214. Earliest symptom of carcinoma cervix is :

(A) Irregular vaginal bleed

(B) Post coital bleed

(c)  Foul smelling discharge

(D) Pain

Answer: (B)

215. Meig’s syndrome is associated with :

(A) Teratoma

(B) Brenner tumour

(c)  Theca cell tumour

(D) Fibroma

Answer: (D)

216. Persistent anovulation not treated leads to A/E:

(A) Hirsutism

(B) Ovarian carcinoma

(c)  Endomatrial carcinomas

(D) Increased risk of CVS disease

Answer: (B)

217. Increased incidence of ectopic preganancy is seen with :

(A) Copper T

(B) Copper T

(c)  Progestasert

(D) Membrance barrier

Answer: (C)

218. Cause of decubitus ulcer in uterine proplase is:

(A) Friction

(B) Venous congestion

(c)  Intercourse

(D) Trauma

Answer: (B)

219. Non gonococcal urethritis is caused by:

(A) Chlamydia


(c)  Syphilis

(D) Gardnella vaginalis

Answer: (A)

220. OCP’s are contraindicated in A/E:

(A) Smoking 35 years

(B) Coronary occlusion

(c)  Polyscystic ovarian ds

(D) Cerebro vascular ds

Answer: (C)

221. C. vaginal carcinoma is :

(A) Squamo columnar junction

(B) Isthmus

(c)  Cervical lip

(D) Internal os

Answer: (A)

222. AFP is raised in A/E:

(A) Polycystic kidney

(B) Trisomy

(c)  IUD

(D) Oesophageal atresia

Answer: (B)

223. 40 yrs female, mass in pelvis detected clinically, following investigations should be done except :

(A) CT

(B) Laparoscopy

(c)  PAP smear


Answer: (C)

224. Pain in endometriosis correlates best with :

(A) Depth

(B) DepthMultiple sites

(c)  ↑CA 125

(D) Stage of disease

Answer: (B)

225. Brachytherapy is used in :

(A) Stage 1b Ca Cx

(B) Ovarian Ca

(c)  Stage IV Ca vagina

(D) Stage 2 fallopian tube Ca

Answer: (A)

226. Post menopausal estrogen production is due to :

(A) Peripheral aromatization of androstenedione

(B) Adrenal-Direct production

(c)  Ovarian tumour

(D) Ovary testosterone secretion

Answer: (A)

227. Corpus luteum functions maximally without an implantaton for ………days :

(A) 9

(B) 12

(c)  6


Answer: (A)

228. In transvaginal ultrasound, earliest detection of gestation sac is by :

(A) 21 days after ovulation

(B) 21 days after implantation

(c)  28 days post ovulation

(D) 14 days after ovulation

Answer: (D)

229. Earliest detection of pregnancy by ultrasound is by :

(A) Gestation sac

(B) Fetal node

(c)  FHS

(D) Fetal skeleton

Answer: (A)

230. Mannings score includes all except :

(A) Fetal tone

(B) Fetal breath movements

(c)  BPD

(D) Amniotic fluid volume

Answer: (C)

231. About Amniocentesis true is following except :

(A) It carries risk of miscarriage

(B) Always done as a blind procedure

(c)  Done between 10-18 weeks

(D) Chromosomal abnormality can be detected

Answer: (B)

232. I for breast feeding are except :

(A) Hepatitis –B infection of mother

(B) Lithium treatment of mother

(c)  Acute bacterial mastitis

(D) Teracycline treatment of mother

Answer: (A)

233. Most common cause of platelet ↓ in pregnancy :

(A) Immune

(B) Incidental

(c)  Idiopathic

(D) Benign Gestational

Answer: (D)

234. Treatment for 32 yr. old multipra with dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is :

(A) Progestrogens

(B) Danazol

(c)  Prostaglandins

(D) Endometrial ablation

Answer: (A)

235. “Swiss-cheese” endometrium is seen in :

(A) Simple endometrial hyperplasia

(B) Cystic glandular hyperplasia

(c)  Proliferative endometrium

(D) Endometriosis

Answer: (B)

236. Cardiac activity of fetus by transabdominal USG is seen earliest at what gestational age :

(A) 5th week

(B) 6th week

(c)  8th week

(D) 9th week

Answer: (C)

237. Adult hemoglobin appears in fetus at the gestational age of (in weeks) :

(A) 5th

(B) 10th

(c)  15th

(D) 25th

Answer: (D)

238. All are associated with hydramnios except :

(A) Premature labour

(B) Gestational diabetes

(c)  Renal agenesis

(D) Increased amniotic fluid

Answer: (C)

239. Patient with CIN-II positive on pap’s smear, next step will be :

(A) Repeat pap’s smear

(B) Cone biopsy

(c)  Colposcopic directed biopsy

(D) Punch biopsy

Answer: (C)

240. According to Hellins law chances of twins in pregnancy are :

(A) 1 in 60

(B) 1 in 70

(c)  1 in 80

(D) 1 in 90

Answer: (C)

241. All are causes of postmenopausal bleeding except :

(A) Carcinoma in situ of cervix

(B) Ca. endometrium

(c)  Ca. ovary

(D) Ca. Fallopian tube

Answer: (A)

242. IUGR is characterized by a/e

(A) Polycythemia

(B) Meconium aspiration synd

(c)  HMD

(D) Hypocalcemia

Answer: (C)

243. Raised beta-HCG levels are seen in :

(A) DM

(B) Preeclampsia

(c)  Ectopic pregnancy

(D) Down synd.

Answer: (D)

244. True about endometrial carcinoma :

(A) Predisposed by DM, hypertension & obesity

(B) Adenosquamus type is commonest

(c)  Commonly associated with Ca. cervix

(D) Common age group affected is between 20-40 yrs

Answer: (A)

245. True about indications for prevention of Rh-isoimmunization :

(A) Given to the newborn within 72 hrs. of birth

(B) Required when baby is Rh⁺ & mother Rh⁻

(c)  Can be helpful in ABO incompatibility

(D) Can be given upto one month of age of baby

Answer: (B)

246. USG s/o fetal death :

(A) ‘Halo’ sign of head

(B) Heart beat absent

(c)  Spalding sign

(D) Hegar’s sign

Answer: (B)

247. Which is contraindicated in pregnancy :


(B) Rifampicin

(c)  Ethambutol

(D) Streptomycin

Answer: (D)

248. Ectopic pregnancy is most commonly associated with :

(A) Endometriosis

(B) Congential tubal anomalies

(c)  Tuberculosis

(D) Tubal inflammatory diseases

Answer: (D)

249. Initiation of lactation is affected by :

(A) Oxytocin

(B) Prolactin

(c)  HPL

(D) Thyroid hormone

Answer: (B)

250. Schiller-Duval body is seen in :

(A) Germ cell tumor

(B) Yolk-sac tumor

(c)  Choriocarcinoma

(D) Granulosa cell tumor

Answer: (B)

251. A lady presents with 16 weeks pregnancy with acute appendicitis. Management includes :

(A) Conservative

(B) Do early surgery

(c)  Appendicectomy with MTP

(D) Appendicectomy after childbirth

Answer: (B)

252. Most important diameter of pelvis during labour is :

(A) Interspinal diameter of outlet

(B) Oblique diameter of inlet

(c)  AP diameter of outlet

(D) Intertubercular diameter

Answer: (A)

253. Utrine fibromyoma is associated with :

(A) Endometriosis

(B) Pevic inflammatory disease

(c)  Ovary ca

(D) Amenorrhea

Answer: (A)

254. Breech presentation with hydrocephalus is managed by :

(A) Cesarean section

(B) Trans-abdominal decompression

(c)  PV decompression

(D) Craniotomy of aftercoming head

Answer: (C)

255. Fetal heart activity can be detected by sonography at about :

(A) 5 weeks

(B) 6 weeks

(c)  7 weeks

(D) 8 weeks

Answer: (C)

256. Ovary develop from :

(A) Mullerian duct

(B) Genital ridge

(c)  Genital tubercle

(D) Mesonephric duct

Answer: (B)

257. Endometriosis commonly associated with :

(A) B/L chocolate cyst of ovary

(B) Adenomyosis

(c)  Fibroid uterus

(D) Luteal cyst

Answer: (A)

258. Bacterial vaginosis is characterized by :

(A) Alkaline pH

(B) Strawberry clot in vagina

(c)  Creamy discharge

(D) Clue cells in wet mount

Answer: (D)

259. Sexual development in the adolescent girls occur in the following order :

(A) Thelarche, puberche, growth, menarche

(B) Puberty, thelarche, menarche, growth

(c)  Growth, thelarche, puberche

(D) None

Answer: (A)

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