Medical PG Obstetrics and Gynaecology
1. What is the commonest site of secondary metastasis in Choriocarcinoma
(A) Vagina
(B) Urethra
(c) Lungs
(D) Brain
2. All the following can be used in Preterm labor except
(A) Ritodrine
(B) Magnesium sulphate
(c) Nifedipine
(D) Chlorpromazine
3. Which is the commonest site of ectopic pregnancy
(A) Isthmus
(B) Ampulla
(c) Infundibulum
(D) Abdominal
4. α-Fetoprotein is increased in all except
(A) Increased maternal weight
(B) Multiple gestation
(c) Maternal hepatoma
(D) Abdominal wall defect
5. Which Heart disease has the highest mortality in pregnancy
(A) Eisenmenger complex
(B) Mitral valve prolapse
(c) Mitral stenosis
(D) Mitral regurgitation
6. Trial of labor is contraindicated in all the following except
(A) Rachitic pelvis
(B) Rachitic pelvis
(c) Previous LSCS
(D) Multigravida
7. The commonest cause of breech presentation is
(A) Hydramnios
(B) Oligohydramnios
(c) Prematurity
(D) Contracted pelvis
8. Forceps are applied in all the following except
(A) After coming head in breech presentation
(B) Face presentation
(c) Occipitoposterior
(D) Brow presentation
9. Maximum breast milk secretion at ____months
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(D) 12 months
10. The use of steroids in neonates is required in
(A) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
(B) Meconium aspiration syndrome
(c) Congential polycystic disease
(D) Craniopharyngioma
11. Which of the following true regarding precocious puberty
(A) Sexual maturity is attained early
(B) Mental function is increased
(c) No reproductive function
(D) Body proportions are enlarged
12. All the following are primary support of the uterus except
(A) Utero-sacral ligament
(B) Pelvic floor
(c) Broad ligament
(D) Antiflexion
13. Stress incontinence is best corrected by
(A) Colpo-suspension
(B) Hysterectomy
(c) Bladder neck repair
(D) Bladder exercise
14. Gonococcal infection spreads by
(A) Ascending route
(B) Hematogenous route
(c) Involvement of adjacent structures
(D) Both a and c
15. All the following are features of progesterone pills except
(A) Acts by altering cervical mucous secretion
(B) Break ovulation cycle
(c) Failure rate is equal to that seen with OCP’s
(D) Irregular bleeding is a known complications
16. A woman has 20 ml menstrual blood loss every 35 days. She suffers from
(A) Metrorrhagia
(B) Menometorhagia
(c) Oligomenorrhea
(D) Menorrhagia
17. Treatment of Endometriosis involves all except
(A) Estrogens
(B) Gonadotropins
(c) Progestins
(D) Danazol
18. The commonest ovarian tumor complicating pregnancy is
(A) Fibroma
(B) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
(c) Serous cystadenocarcinoma
(D) Dermoid
19. The most definitive clinical sign of pregnancy is
(A) Ballottement
(B) Fetal heart sounds
(c) Braxton Hick’s contraction
(D) Enlarged uterus
20. Involution of the uterus is completed by
(A) 6 weeks
(B) 8 weeks
(c) 12 weeks
(D) 16 weeks
21. The earliest indication of concealed acute bleeding in pregnancy is
(A) Tachycardia
(B) Oliguria
(c) Postural hypotension
(D) Low body temperature
22. A patient presents at 28 weeks gestation with severe abdominal pain, bleeding and hypertension. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Placental previa
(B) Accidental hemorrahge
(c) Vasa previa
(D) Rupture of ectopic pregnancy
23. Which of the following is suggestive of ectopic pregnancy in a young woman with acute abdomen
(A) Tender cervix
(B) Amenorrhea
(c) Positive urinary HCG
(D) All of the above
24. The most common type of pelvis associated with Direct occipitoposterior position is
(A) Gynecoid
(B) Plattypelloid
(c) Anthropoid
(D) Android
25. The most unfavorable presentation for vaginal delivery is
(A) Mentoposterior
(B) Mentoanterior
(c) Occipitoposterior
(D) Deep transverse arrest
26. Deep transverse arrest is commonly seen in which type of pelvis
(A) Android
(B) Anthropoid
(c) Gynecoid
(D) Platypelloid
27. An absolute indication for Classical caesarean section is
(A) Carcinoma cervix
(B) Multi-fibroid uterus
(c) Breech presentation
(D) Central Placenta Previa
28. The best contraceptive method in a patient with heart disease is
(A) Double barrier
(B) IUCD
(c) Tubectomy
(D) Oral pills
29. The most common complication of IUCD is
(A) Ectopic pregnancy
(B) Bleeding
(c) Backache
(D) Cervical stenosis
30. Which of the following anti-tuberculous drugs is contraindicated in pregnancy.
(A) Rifampicin
(B) INH
(c) Streptomycin
(D) Ethambutol
31. The safest drug in pregnancy is
(A) INH
(B) Rifampicin
(c) Ethambutol
(D) Streptomycin
32. DIC in pregnancy is seen in all the following conditions except
(A) Amniotic fluid embolism
(B) Abruptio placentae
(c) Intrauterine death
(D) Fat embolism
33. Molecular analysis of Chorionic villous sample is useful in diagnosis all the following except
(A) Tay-Sachs disease
(B) Cystic fibrosis
(c) β-Thallassemia
(D) Duchene’s dystrophy
34. Neonatal complications of the fetus in a diabetic include all the following except
(A) Hypoglycemia
(B) Polycythemia
(c) Hypocalcemia
(D) Omphalitis
35. Which of the following is true about menopausal hormonal change
(A) LH/TSH ↑
(B) Gonadotropins ↑, estrogen ↓
(c) Estrogens and Gonadotropins both ↓
(D) Estrogen and Gonadotropins both ↑
36. Progesterone is produced by
(A) Granulosa luteal cells
(B) Stroma of the ovary
(c) Theca cells
(D) Sertoli cells
37. The procedure of choice to diagnose Uterus didelphis is
(A) Laparoscopy
(B) Ultrasound
(c) IVP
(D) Hysterosalpingography
38. Which of the following is the rarest modification in a fibroid uterus
(A) Red degeneration
(B) Calcification
(c) Hyalinization
(D) Sarcomatous changes
39. Cryptomenorrhea occurs due to
(A) Imperforate hymen
(B) Asherman’s syndrome
(c) Mullerian agenesis
(D) All of the above
40. The most common complication of an ovarian tumor is
(A) Torsion
(B) Hemorrhage
(c) Infection
(D) Hyaline change
41. The commonest complication of Cryotherapy is
(A) Bleeding
(B) Watery discharge
(c) Pain
(D) Ulceration
42. The most effective drug in Sheehan’s syndrome is
(A) Gonadotropins
(B) Estrogens
(c) Thyroxin
(D) Corticosteriods
43. The commonest indication of IVF is
(A) Abnormality of Uterus abnormality
(B) Abnormality of Fallopian tube
(c) Anovulation
(D) Azoospermia
44. Genetic disorders are diagnosed at 11 weeks of pregnancy by
(A) Chorionic villous biopsy
(B) Amniocentesis
(c) Endometrial biopsy
(D) Placentography
45. Abnormal α-fetoprotein is seen in
(A) Trisomy 18
(B) Twin pregnancy
(c) Neural tube defect
(D) All of the above
46. Weight of the placenta at term is
(A) 500 gm
(B) 1000 gm
(c) 120 gm
(D) 1500 gm
47. Polyhydramnios is seen in all the following except
(A) Diabetes
(B) Renal agenesis
(c) Esophageal atresia
(D) Hydronephrosis
48. A 40-year-old P4+2 female has been diagnosed to have H. mole. The treatment would be
(A) Radiotherap
(B) Chemotherapy
(c) Total hysterectomy
(D) Radio + Chemotherapy
49. Most common site of spread of Choriocarcinoma is
(A) Lung
(B) Liver
(c) Brain
(D) Bone
50. Ectopic pregnancy is most common in
(A) Previous h/o recurrent PID
(B) Previous h/o Abortion
(c) Previous h/o Twin pregnancy
(D) Endometriosis
51. Clinical features pseudocyesis are all of the following except
(A) Quickening
(B) Enlargement of uterus
(c) Amenorrhea
(D) False labor
52. In pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH), which test is not done
(A) Roll-over test
(B) Serum uric acid
(c) Shake test
(D) Weight gain > 2 kg/month
53. In Rh incompatibility, the prognosis depends on
(A) Serum bilirubin
(B) Coomb’s test
(c) Blood smear
(D) Serum albumin
54. All the following ATT are given in pregnancy except
(A) Rifampicin
(B) Ethambutol
(c) INH
(D) Streptomycin
55. Which drug is contraindicated in Pregnancy
(A) Methyldopa
(B) Hydralazine
(c) Captopril
(D) All of the above
56. Pap smear in pregnancy is
(A) Contraindicated
(B) Not useful
(c) Routine, as a part of screening
(D) Done in every patient
57. All of the following indicate Fetal distress except
(A) Thick (pea-soup) meconium
(B) Fetal heart rate 100/minute
(c) Loss of beat-to-bear variation
(D) Fetal skull blood pH >7.32
58. Which of the following is the earliest conclusive evidence of intrauterine death
(A) Shrinking of body
(B) Intra-aortic gas
(c) Increased curvature of spine
(D) Spalding sign
59. Fetal blood loss in abnormal cord insertion is seen in
(A) Vasa previa
(B) Decidua basalis
(c) Battledore placenta
(D) Succenturiate placenta
60. X-ray pelvimetry is done in all of the following except
(A) Osteomalacia
(B) Breach presentation
(c) Severe CPD
(D) Outlet obstruction
61. The following may be used for post-coital contraception
(A) Cu-T
(B) RU 486
(c) Estrogen in high doses
(D) All of the above
62. Corpus luteum activity is maintained by
(A) FSH
(B) LH
(c) Estrogen
(D) Progesterone
63. The hormone responsible for a positive ‘Fern test’ is
(A) Estrogen
(B) Progesterone
(c) FSH
(D) LH
64. Which of the following is not used in induction of ovulation
(A) Danazole
(B) HMG
(c) Uro-follitropin
(D) HCG
65. Which ovarian tumor is likely to involve the opposite ovary by metastasis
(A) Granulosa cell tumor
(B) Dysgerminoma
(c) Gynandroblastoma
(D) Endodermal tumor
66. All the following are true about Krukenbrug’s tumor except
(A) Has a rough surface
(B) Shape of ovary is maintained
(c) Usually bilateral
(D) Arises usually from stomach carcinoma
67. All of the following are components of manning score except :
(A) Non stress test
(B) Oxytocin challenge test
(c) Fetal body movement
(D) Respiratory activity of child
68. All of the following can be used for establishing antenatal diagnosis except :
(A) Fetal blood
(B) Maternal blood
(c) Amniotic fluid
(D) Decidua
69. Shortest diameter of fetal skull is :
(A) Suboccipito-bregmatic
(B) Bitemporal
(c) Sub occipito frontal
(D) BPD
70. Most common heart disease associated with pregnancy is
(A) Mitral stenosis
(B) Mitral regurtation
(c) Patent ductus arteriosus
(D) Tatralogy of fallot’s
71. Most common congenital malformation seen in a diabetic pregnant woman amongst the following are :
(A) cardiac defect
(B) Renal defect
(c) Liver defect
(D) Lung defect
72. One of the following features can be used to define a contracted pelvis :
(A) Transverse diameter of 10 cm
(B) AP diameter of 12 cm
(c) Platypelloid pelvis
(D) Gynacoid pelvis
73. Which type of pelvis is associated with increased incidence of ‘face of pubis’ delivery :
(A) Gynaecoid pelvis
(B) Anthropoid pelvis
(c) Android pelvis
(D) Platypelloid pelvis
74. Commonest cause of breech presentation is
(A) Prematurity
(B) Post maturity
(c) Diabets mellitus
(D) Osteomalacia
75. Rupture of membrane is said to be premature when it occurs at :
(A) 38 weeks of pregnancy
(B) 32 weeks of pregnancy
(c) Prior of Ist stage to labour
(D) II stage of labour
76. Likely size of uterus at 8 weeks post partum is :
(A) 100 gm
(B) 500 gm
(c) 700 gm
(D) 900 gm
77. Postpartum decidual secretions present are referred to as :
(A) Lochia
(B) Bleeding per vaginum
(c) Vasa-previa
(D) Decidua-capsularis
78. IUGR is defined when :
(A) Birth weight is below the tenth percentile of the average of gestational age
(B) Birth weight is below the 20 percentile of the average of gestational age
(c) Birth weight is below the 30 percentile of the average of gestational age
(D) Weight of baby is less than 1000 gm
79. Absolute contraindication for IUCD includes all of the following except :
(A) Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
(B) Suspected pregnancy
(c) Congenital malformation of uterus
(D) PID
80. Asymptomatic carriage of gonococcal infection in female is commonly seen in :
(A) Endocervix
(B) Vagina
(c) Urethra
(D) Fornix
81. All of the following conditions are associated with primary amenorrhea except :
(A) Testicular feminization syndrome
(B) Stein-leventhal syndrome
(c) Tuner’s syndrome
(D) Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser Syndrome
82. Least common complication of fibroid uterus is
(A) Malignant change
(B) Hyaline change
(c) Torsion
(D) Cystic degeneration
83. Carcinoma cervix extends upto lateral pelvic wall. The stage would be :
(A) Stage I
(B) Stage II
(c) Stage III
(D) Stage IV
84. A 42 year old female P3+0+0+3 is found to have carcinoma in situ. Best treatment would be :
(A) Hysterectomy
(B) Wertheim’s hysterectomy
(c) Conisation
(D) Wait and watch
85. Which of the following are masculizing tumours of the ovary :
(A) Granulosa cell tumour
(B) Dysgerminoma
(c) Dermoid Cyst
(D) Arrhenoblastoma
86. Best prognosis for reversibility is seen in
(A) Isthemic-isthemic type
(B) Isthemic-ampullary type
(c) Ampullary-forneacial type
(D) Ampullary-fibrialtype
87. A middle aged female presents with increasing visual loss, breast enlargement & irregular menses. Investigation of choices would be:
(A) S. calcitonin
(B) S. prolactin
(c) S. haemoglobin concentration
(D) S. calcium
88. Diagnosis of Down syndrome at 11 weeks is best assessed by :
(A) Ultrasonography
(B) Aminocentesis
(c) Chorionic villous biopsy
(D) Doppler Ultrasound
89. Doppler Ultrasound in pregnancy detect :
(A) Cardavascular malformation
(B) Neural tube defect
(c) Abdominal masses
(D) IUGR
90. Late decceleration indicates
(A) Head compression
(B) Cord compression
(c) Fetal-hypoxia
(D) Breech presentation
91. Following represents foetal hypoxia except :
(A) Excessive foetal movements
(B) Meconium in vertex presentation
(c) Foetal scalp blood pH > 7.3
(D) Heart rate < 100
92. A pregnant mother is treated with oral anticoagulant. The likely congenital malformation that may result in the fetus is :
(A) Long bones limb defect
(B) Cranial Malformations
(c) Cardiovascular malformations
(D) Chondrodysplasia Punctata
93. Plecenta previa is associated with all of the following except :
(A) Large placenta
(B) Previous C.S. scar
(c) Primigravida
(D) Previous placenta previa
94. A pregnant woman at 34 weeks pregnancy, comes with bleeding P/V, B.P. 80:
(A) Examination in OT and termination of pregnancy
(B) Blood transfusion
(c) Observation
(D) LSCS
95. Treatment regimen in ecclampsia that causes minimum effect on fetus is :
(A) Lytic cocktail regime
(B) MgSO4 regime
(c) Diazepam therapy
(D) Phenobarbitone therapy
96. X-ray pelvimetry is indicated in all of the following conditions except :
(A) Severe CPD
(B) Breech presentation in vaginal delivery
(c) Outlet obstruction
(D) Osteomalacia
97. Cause of renal failure in septicemic shock is :
(A) Acute tubular necrosis
(B) Acute cortical necrosis
(c) Glomerulonephritis
(D) Focal sclerosis
98. Blighted ovum is characterized by :
(A) Avascular villi
(B) Syntical knot
(c) Intervillous haemorrhage
(D) Intracerebral haemorrhage
99. Duration of action of Cu-380-A is :
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(D) 8 years
100. All of the following agents may be used for post coital contraception except :
(A) Danazole
(B) CUT
(c) RU-486
(D) High dose estrogen
101. Condyloma acuminate in pregnancy should be treated by :
(A) Podophylline
(B) Podophylline toxin
(c) Trichloroacetic acid
(D) 5-FU cream
102. Most common site for genital tuberculosis is :
(A) Ovary
(B) Uterus
(c) Cervix
(D) Fellopian tube
103. Endometrial hyperplasia is seen in
(A) Endodermal sinus tumour
(B) Dysgerminosa
(c) Polycystic ovarian disease
(D) Carcinoma of cervix
104. Clomiphene citrate is indicated in
(A) Stein-leventhal syndrome
(B) Ovarian cyst
(c) Asserman’s syndrome
(D) Carcinoma endometrium
105. Which of the following treatment is not done in ectopic pregnancy
(A) Salpingctectomy
(B) Salpingo-oopherectomy
(c) Salpingostomy
(D) All of the above
106. In ectopic pregnancy deciduas is shed as :
(A) Decidua-vera
(B) Decidual basalis
(c) Decidua capsularis
(D) Decidua rubra
107. Least common complication of fibroid is :
(A) Menstrual disorders
(B) Malignancy
(c) Urinary retension
(D) Degeneration
108. Most common site for metastasis in choriocarcinoma is :
(A) Lungs
(B) Brain
(c) Liver
(D) Spine
109. Best gas used for creating pneumoperitonium at laproscopy is :
(A) N2
(B) O2
(c) CO2
(D) N2O
110. Treatment of the lutein cyst in hydatiform mole is
(A) Ovarian cystectomy
(B) Ovarioctomy
(c) Suction evacuation
(D) Ovariotomy
111. Red degeneration of fibroma during pregnancy is most commonly seen at :
(A) Ist trimester
(B) IInd trimester
(c) IIIrd trimester
(D) Puerperium
112. A pregnant women in 2nd trimester presented with UTI Drug of choice is :
(A) Ampicilline
(B) Low doses cotrimoxazole
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(D) Cephaperazone
113. Retension of urine in a pregnant women with retroverted uterus is most commonly seen at :
(A) 8-10 weeks
(B) 12-16 weeks
(c) 20-24 weeks
(D) 28-32 weeks
114. Highest rate of transmission of toxoplasmosis during pregnancy is seen in :
(A) Ist trimester
(B) IInd trimester
(c) IIIrd trimester
(D) Puerperium
115. Nonimmume hydrops foetallils is seen in all of the following conditions except :
(A) α-Thalassemia
(B) Parvo-virus-19
(c) Rh-incompatibility
(D) Chromosomal anomaly
116. Which of the following antiepileptic is least likely to cause malformation in foetus during pregnancy is :
(A) Phenytoin
(B) Carbamazepine
(c) Sodium-Valproate
(D) Phenobarbitone
117. Which of the following drug may be used to arrest pre mature labour :
(A) Aspirin
(B) Aspirin
(c) Magnesium-sulphate
(D) Diazoxide
118. During foetal life maximum growth is caused by :
(A) Growth harmone
(B) Insulin
(c) Cortisol
(D) Thyroxin
119. CA-125 increased in all of the following conditions except :
(A) T.B. of genital organ
(B) Ovarian cancer
(c) Endometriosis
(D) Stein-leventhal-syndrome
120. All of the following are harmone dependent carcinoma except :
(A) Prostate CA
(B) Endometrium CA
(c) Breast CA
(D) Ovary CA
121. Gn RH analogue may be given in all of the following except :
(A) Prostate CA
(B) Endometrium CA
(c) Fibroadenoma-uterus
(D) Precocious puberty
122. Carcinoma endometrium with positive superficial inguinal lymph node status is classified as stage :
(A) I
(B) II
(c) III
(D) IV
123. Long term tamoxifen therapy may cause :
(A) Endometrium CA
(B) Ovary CA
(c) Cervix CA
(D) Vagina-CA
124. Precocious puberty may be seen in all of the following conditions except :
(A) Granulosa-cell tumour
(B) Head-injury
(c) Corticosteriod intake
(D) Hyperthyroidism
125. Menstruation is defined as precocious if it starts before the child reaches the age of :
(A) 8 years
(B) 10 years
(c) 14 years
(D) 20 years
126. All of the following are classified as primary supports of uterus except :
(A) Trans cervical ligament
(B) Pubocervical ligament
(c) Utero-sacral ligament
(D) Broad ligament
127. Oral contraceptive pills decreases incidence of all of the following conditions except :
(A) Salpingitis
(B) Hepatic adenoma
(c) Ovary CA
(D) Fibroadenosis
128. True statement about Minipill is :
(A) Irregular vaginal bleeding may b e a side effect
(B) Used with combination of oral contraceptive pill
(c) Can not be used in lactation
(D) Prevents ectopic pregnancy
129. True statement about RU-486 is :
(A) Used for inducing abortion in early weeks of pregnancy
(B) Used along with contraceptive pills
(c) Acts on the cytoplasmic receptors
(D) Used for prevent ectopic implantation
130. Characteristic features of Rokitanski-Kuster Hauser syndrome are all of the following except :
(A) Absent uterus
(B) Absent vagina
(c) Anovulation
(D) 46-XX
131. Most common manifestation of ectopie pregnancy is:
(A) Vomiting
(B) Bleeding
(c) Pain abdomen
(D) Shock
132. Most common type of twin pregnancy is:
(A) Vertex + transverse
(B) Both vertex
(c) Vertex + breech
(D) Both breech
133. Hegar’s sign of pregnancy is
(A) Uterine contraction
(B) Bluish discolouration of vagina
(c) Softening of isthums
(D) Quickening
134. Mother has been infected with rubella, all the following foetal congenital malformation can occur except:
(A) VSD
(B) ASD
(c) PDA
(D) PS
135. Most common immunoglobulin secreted by mother in milk and colostrums is:
(A) IgA
(B) IgG
(c) IgE
(D) IgD
136. Accurate diagnosis of anencephaly in ultrasound is seen at week
(A) 6
(B) 8
(c) 10
(D) 14
137. P. diameter is maximum in which type of pelvis:
(A) Platypelloid
(B) Android
(c) Anthropoid
(D) Gynaecoid
138. Face to pubis delivery is seen in pelvis:
(A) Platypelloid
(B) Android
(c) Gynaecoid
(D) Anthropoid
139.Most common cause of uterine rupture in India is:
(A) Previous LSCS
(B) Obstructed labour
(c) Fibroid
(D) Endometriosis
140. Early deceleration denotes:
(A) Head compression
(B) Cord compression
(c) Placental insufficiency
(D) Fetal distress
141. In pregnancy, which type of anemia is not common in India:
(A) Vitamin B12 anemia
(B) Folic acid anemia
(c) Iron + folic anemia
(D) Iron deficiency anemia
142. Oxygenated blood from placenta to heart in utero is by:
(A) Umbilical vein
(B) IVC
(c) Ductus arteriosus
(D) None of the above
143. Most common cause of HIV infection in infant is:
(A) Perinatal transmission
(B) Breast milk
(c) Transplacement
(D) Umbilical cord sepsis
144. Diabetic mother will have the following complications in foetus except:
(A) Hydramnios
(B) Macrosomia
(c) Cardiac anomaly
(D) Dimorphic anemia
145. Gas most commonly used in laparoscopy is:
(A) CO2
(B) SO2
(c) N2
(D) O2
146. Abruptio placentae occurs in all except:
(A) Smokers
(B) Alcoholics
(c) PET
(D) Folic acid deficiency
147. In microinvasive cervical cancer, most common treatment is:
(A) Conization
(B) Laser
(c) Simple hysterectomy
(D) Radical hysterectomy
148. In colposcopy, following are visualized except:
(A) Upper 2/3 rd endocervix
(B) Lower 1/3rd endocervix
(c) Vault of vagina
(D) Lateral fornix
149. Causes of ectopic pregnancy includes A/E
(A) IUCD
(B) Tubal ciliary damage
(c) Blighted ovum
(D) Late fertilization
150. Triradiate pelvis is seen in:
(A) Rickets
(B) Chondrodystrophy
(c) Osteoporosis
(D) Hyperparathyroidism
151. Cause of death in breech delivery:
(A) Intracranial haemorrhage
(B) Aspiration
(c) Atlanto axial dislocation
(D) Asphyxia
152. Hydrops foetalis is seen in following except:
(A) Rh incompatibility
(B) Syphilis
(c) ABO incompatibility
(D) CMV
153. Recurrent abortion in 1st trimester is most often due to
(A) Chromosomal abnormalities
(B) Uterine anomaly
(c) Hormonal disturbance
(D) Infection
154. Oxytocin is preferred over ergometrine in
(A) Induction of labour
(B) Prevention of PPH
(c) Both
(D) None
155. Low level of AFP is seen is
(A) Fetal death
(B) Trisomy
(c) Anencephaly
(D) Open neural tube effects
156. Atonic uterus is more common in:
(A) Caesarean section
(B) Multi gravida
(c) Primi gravida
(D) Breech delivery
157. Assessment of progress of labour is best done by:
(A) Station of head
(B) Rupture of membrane
(c) Contraction of uterus
(D) Partogram
158. Withdrawal bleeding with progesterone seen in otherwise amenorrheic woman due to:
(A) Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
(B) Anovulation
(c) Ovarain failure
(D) TB endometritis
159. Cervical hostility is tested by following except:
(A) Spinbarkeit
(B) Post coital test
(c) Miller kuzrole test
(D) Keller test
160. Most reversible form of infertility is:
(A) Endometriosis
(B) Azoospermia
(c) Anovulation
(D) Tubal stenosis
161. A 45 year old presenting with dysmenorrhoea & menorrhagia most probably has:
(A) DUB
(B) Endometriosis
(c) Fibroid
(D) Endometrial Ca
162. Treatment of choice for Ca in situ cervix is:
(A) Follow-up with serial pap smear
(B) Conization
(c) Hysterectomy
(D) Laser vaporization
163. Commonest type of endometrial change in dysfunctional uttering bleeding
(A) Secretory
(B) Hyperplasia
(c) Cystic glandular hyperplasia
(D) Atophic
164. Commonest cause of non – engagement at term, in primi is :
(A) CPD
(B) Hydramnios
(c) Brow presentation
(D) Breech
165. Most constant symptom present in undisturbed ectopic :
(A) Pain in lower abdomen
(B) Amenorrhea
(c) Bleeding P/V
(D) Fainting attack
166. Bishop’s score include following, except :
(A) Dilatation of Cx
(B) Effacement of Cx
(c) Contractions of uterus
(D) Station of head
167. Pseudomyxoma peritonei is seen in :
(A) Serous cystadenoma
(B) Pseudomucinous cystadenoma
(c) Mucinous cystadenoma
(D) Teratoma
168. Best method to deliver arms in breech :
(A) Lovset’s method
(B) Smellie veit
(c) Pinard’s
(D) Any of the above
169. Bandi’s ring is also called as :
(A) Constriction ring
(B) Schroeder’s ring
(c) Retraction ring
(D) Cervical dystocia
170. PGE2 is not used in first trimester abortion, in :
(A) Bronchial asthma
(B) DM
(c) Twins
(D) HT
171. DIC is not seen in :
(A) IU death
(B) Missed abortion
(c) Amniotic fluid embolism
(D) Inevitable abortion
172. Gyanecomazia is caused by :
(A) Kallman’s syndrome
(B) 5 – α reductase deficiency
(c) Androgen insensitivity
(D) All of the above
173. Commonest site of obsteric surgery leading to uretero vaginal fistula :
(A) Near cervix
(B) At crossing of iliac artery
(c) Near broad ligament
(D) Below cardinal ligament where uterine artery crosses
174. Treatment of gynaecomastia is A/E :
(A) Hormonal therapy
(B) Simple mastectomy
(c) Subcutaneous liposuction of mastectomy
(D) None
175. Drug strictly contraindicated in lactation :
(A) Lithium
(B) Carbamazepine
(c) Penicillin
(D) Ovarian
176. MC cause of abortion in first trimester is, defect in :
(A) Placenta
(B) Uterus
(c) Embryo
(D) Ovarian
177. Best prognosis in infertile women is seen in :
(A) Tubal block
(B) Anovulation
(c) Oligospermia
(D) Endometritis
178. In PIH an impending sign of eclampsia is:
(A) Visual disturbance
(B) Wt gain of 2 Ib per week
(c) Severe proteinuria of 10g
(D) Pedal edema
179. In heart disease, prophylactic forceps is applied at head station of:
(A) -1
(B) +1
(c) 0
(D) +2
180. Vacuum extraction is C. I in:
(A) Premature babies
(B) Heart disease
(c) Microcephaly
(D) Polyhydramic
181. In suction evacuation, the pressure applied is:
(A) 0-100 mg H
(B) 200-400 mm Hg
(c) 400-600 mg Hg
(D) 600-800 mm Hg
182. Baby born to DM have following except:
(A) Hypercalcemia
(B) Hypokalemia
(c) Hypoglycemia
(D) Obesity
183. To start with, all fibroids are:
(A) Interstital
(B) Submucus
(c) Subserous
(D) Ovarian
184. Bicornuate uterus is due to:
(A) Incomplete fusion of uterine cavity
(B) Incomplete fusion of paramesonephnic duct
(c) Incomplete fusion of mesonephric duct
(D) Incomplete formation of vagina
185. OC pills intake cause psychiatric symptoms, and abdominal pain. Diagnosis is:
(A) Acute intermittent porphyria
(B) Systemic lupus
(c) Thromobosis
(D) Anemia
186. A young lady comes with mild erosion of cervix and pap smear shows dysplasia next step is:
(A) Antibiotics
(B) Coloposcopy
(c) Cryosurgery
(D) Conisation
187. Couvelaire uterus is seen in
(A) Placental previa
(B) Accidental haemorrhage
(c) PIH
(D) PPH
188. ARM is contraindicated in
(A) Pl. previa
(B) Hydramios
(c) Acc. Hem
(D) Twins
189. A lady with IUCD becomes pregnant with tail of IUCD being seen next course of action is:
(A) MTP
(B) Remove the IUCD
(c) Continue the pregnancy
(D) Remove IUCD and terminate pregnancy
190. Precocious puberty is seen with which ovarian tumour:
(A) Dermoid
(B) Gynandroblastoma
(c) Granulosa cell tumour
(D) Arhenoblastoma
191. 38 weeks primi in early labour with transverse presentation TOC is:
(A) Allow for cervical dilatation
(B) Internal podalic version
(c) LSCS
(D) Forceps
192. Spalding sign is seen in
(A) Live born fetus
(B) Still born
(c) Intra uterine death
(D) Hydrocephalic foetus
193. The after coming head of breech, Chin to Pubis is delivered by:
(A) Maricelli tech
(B) Burns marshal method
(c) Lovest’s method
(D) Manual rotation and extraction by Piper’s forceps
194. In a preg women of 28 weeks gestation IUD is earliest demonstrated X-ray:
(A) Increased flexion
(B) Overlapping of cranial bone
(c) Spalding’s sign
(D) Gas in vessels
195. In accidental haemorrhage, TOC:
(A) Induction of labour
(B) Rx of hypofibrinogenemia then blood transfusion
(c) Simultaneous emptying of uterus and blood transfusion
(D) Wait and watch
196. TB endometritis causes infertility by:
(A) Causing anovulation
(B) Destroying endometrium
(c) Tubal blockage
(D) Ciliary dysmotility
197. The most common histological finding of endometrium in DUB is :
(A) Hypertrophic
(B) Hyperplastic
(c) Cystic glandular hyperplasia
(D) Dysplastic
198. A 35 year old woman with dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia of 6 months duration showed an enlarged uterus of 20 weeks which was tender, the possible diagnosis is :
(A) Adenomyosis
(B) Fibroid
(c) Carcinoma endometrium
(D) PID
199. The first step in the management of hirsutism due to stein leventhal syndrome is :
(A) OCP
(B) HMG
(c) Spironolactone
(D) Bromocriptine
200. In intrauterine death with transverse lie, the following are treatment options except :
(A) Decapitation
(B) Evisceration
(c) Craniotomy
(D) Caesarean section
201. Commonest cause of first trimester abortion is :
(A) Monosomy
(B) Trisomy
(c) Triploidy
(D) Aneuploidy
202. The Colposcopic features suggestive of malignancy are except :
(A) Condyloma
(B) Vascular atypia
(c) Punctation
(D) White epithelium
203. Among the following, which is a feature of testicular feminization syndrome :
(A) XX pattern
(B) Commonly reared as male
(c) Well formed female internal genitalia
(D) High testosterone levels
204. The thickness of endomtrium at the time of implantation is :
(A) 3-4 mm
(B) 20-30 mm
(c) 15-20 mm
(D) 30-40 mm
205. Spalding’s sign is seen in :
(A) Still born
(B) Live born
(c) Premature
(D) Dead born
206. The most common anomaly seen with chorionic villous biopsy done in early gestation is :
(A) Neural tube defects
(B) Limb abnormalities
(c) Kidney abnormalities
(D) CH
207. A 50 year old woman, nulliparous, diabetic and obese presenting with post –monopausal bleeding can be any of the following except :
(A) Carcinoma in situ of cervix
(B) Carcinoma endometrium
(c) DUB
(D) None of the above
208. Mestranol exerts it’s contraceptive effect by :
(A) Inhibiting FSH
(B) Inhibiting LH
(c) FSH
(D) LH
209. The ideal treatment for metastatic choriocarcinoma in the lungs in a young women is :
(A) Chemotherapy
(B) Surgery with radiation
(c) Surgery
(D) Wait and watch
210. Concentration of MgSO4 in the treatment of eclampsia in mEq/L :
(A) 7-10
(B) 10-15
(c) 2-4
(D) 4-7
211. Trans-cervical endometrial resection (TER) is used in A/E:
(A) Endometriosis
(B) DUB
(c) Carcinoma endometrium
(D) Carcinoma endometrium
212. All are seen in testicular feminization syndrome except :
(A) 46 XY
(B) Primary amenorrhoea
(c) Short stature
(D) Vagina may present
213. Chromosomal no. or primary spermatocyte is :
(A) 46 xy
(B) 22 x/y
(c) 22 xx
(D) 46 xx
214. Earliest symptom of carcinoma cervix is :
(A) Irregular vaginal bleed
(B) Post coital bleed
(c) Foul smelling discharge
(D) Pain
215. Meig’s syndrome is associated with :
(A) Teratoma
(B) Brenner tumour
(c) Theca cell tumour
(D) Fibroma
216. Persistent anovulation not treated leads to A/E:
(A) Hirsutism
(B) Ovarian carcinoma
(c) Endomatrial carcinomas
(D) Increased risk of CVS disease
217. Increased incidence of ectopic preganancy is seen with :
(A) Copper T
(B) Copper T
(c) Progestasert
(D) Membrance barrier
218. Cause of decubitus ulcer in uterine proplase is:
(A) Friction
(B) Venous congestion
(c) Intercourse
(D) Trauma
219. Non gonococcal urethritis is caused by:
(A) Chlamydia
(B) LGV
(c) Syphilis
(D) Gardnella vaginalis
220. OCP’s are contraindicated in A/E:
(A) Smoking 35 years
(B) Coronary occlusion
(c) Polyscystic ovarian ds
(D) Cerebro vascular ds
221. C. vaginal carcinoma is :
(A) Squamo columnar junction
(B) Isthmus
(c) Cervical lip
(D) Internal os
222. AFP is raised in A/E:
(A) Polycystic kidney
(B) Trisomy
(c) IUD
(D) Oesophageal atresia
223. 40 yrs female, mass in pelvis detected clinically, following investigations should be done except :
(A) CT
(B) Laparoscopy
(c) PAP smear
(D) USG
224. Pain in endometriosis correlates best with :
(A) Depth
(B) DepthMultiple sites
(c) ↑CA 125
(D) Stage of disease
225. Brachytherapy is used in :
(A) Stage 1b Ca Cx
(B) Ovarian Ca
(c) Stage IV Ca vagina
(D) Stage 2 fallopian tube Ca
226. Post menopausal estrogen production is due to :
(A) Peripheral aromatization of androstenedione
(B) Adrenal-Direct production
(c) Ovarian tumour
(D) Ovary testosterone secretion
227. Corpus luteum functions maximally without an implantaton for ………days :
(A) 9
(B) 12
(c) 6
(D)15
228. In transvaginal ultrasound, earliest detection of gestation sac is by :
(A) 21 days after ovulation
(B) 21 days after implantation
(c) 28 days post ovulation
(D) 14 days after ovulation
229. Earliest detection of pregnancy by ultrasound is by :
(A) Gestation sac
(B) Fetal node
(c) FHS
(D) Fetal skeleton
230. Mannings score includes all except :
(A) Fetal tone
(B) Fetal breath movements
(c) BPD
(D) Amniotic fluid volume
231. About Amniocentesis true is following except :
(A) It carries risk of miscarriage
(B) Always done as a blind procedure
(c) Done between 10-18 weeks
(D) Chromosomal abnormality can be detected
232. I for breast feeding are except :
(A) Hepatitis –B infection of mother
(B) Lithium treatment of mother
(c) Acute bacterial mastitis
(D) Teracycline treatment of mother
233. Most common cause of platelet ↓ in pregnancy :
(A) Immune
(B) Incidental
(c) Idiopathic
(D) Benign Gestational
234. Treatment for 32 yr. old multipra with dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is :
(A) Progestrogens
(B) Danazol
(c) Prostaglandins
(D) Endometrial ablation
235. “Swiss-cheese” endometrium is seen in :
(A) Simple endometrial hyperplasia
(B) Cystic glandular hyperplasia
(c) Proliferative endometrium
(D) Endometriosis
236. Cardiac activity of fetus by transabdominal USG is seen earliest at what gestational age :
(A) 5th week
(B) 6th week
(c) 8th week
(D) 9th week
237. Adult hemoglobin appears in fetus at the gestational age of (in weeks) :
(A) 5th
(B) 10th
(c) 15th
(D) 25th
238. All are associated with hydramnios except :
(A) Premature labour
(B) Gestational diabetes
(c) Renal agenesis
(D) Increased amniotic fluid
239. Patient with CIN-II positive on pap’s smear, next step will be :
(A) Repeat pap’s smear
(B) Cone biopsy
(c) Colposcopic directed biopsy
(D) Punch biopsy
240. According to Hellins law chances of twins in pregnancy are :
(A) 1 in 60
(B) 1 in 70
(c) 1 in 80
(D) 1 in 90
241. All are causes of postmenopausal bleeding except :
(A) Carcinoma in situ of cervix
(B) Ca. endometrium
(c) Ca. ovary
(D) Ca. Fallopian tube
242. IUGR is characterized by a/e
(A) Polycythemia
(B) Meconium aspiration synd
(c) HMD
(D) Hypocalcemia
243. Raised beta-HCG levels are seen in :
(A) DM
(B) Preeclampsia
(c) Ectopic pregnancy
(D) Down synd.
244. True about endometrial carcinoma :
(A) Predisposed by DM, hypertension & obesity
(B) Adenosquamus type is commonest
(c) Commonly associated with Ca. cervix
(D) Common age group affected is between 20-40 yrs
245. True about indications for prevention of Rh-isoimmunization :
(A) Given to the newborn within 72 hrs. of birth
(B) Required when baby is Rh⁺ & mother Rh⁻
(c) Can be helpful in ABO incompatibility
(D) Can be given upto one month of age of baby
246. USG s/o fetal death :
(A) ‘Halo’ sign of head
(B) Heart beat absent
(c) Spalding sign
(D) Hegar’s sign
247. Which is contraindicated in pregnancy :
(A) INH
(B) Rifampicin
(c) Ethambutol
(D) Streptomycin
248. Ectopic pregnancy is most commonly associated with :
(A) Endometriosis
(B) Congential tubal anomalies
(c) Tuberculosis
(D) Tubal inflammatory diseases
249. Initiation of lactation is affected by :
(A) Oxytocin
(B) Prolactin
(c) HPL
(D) Thyroid hormone
250. Schiller-Duval body is seen in :
(A) Germ cell tumor
(B) Yolk-sac tumor
(c) Choriocarcinoma
(D) Granulosa cell tumor
251. A lady presents with 16 weeks pregnancy with acute appendicitis. Management includes :
(A) Conservative
(B) Do early surgery
(c) Appendicectomy with MTP
(D) Appendicectomy after childbirth
252. Most important diameter of pelvis during labour is :
(A) Interspinal diameter of outlet
(B) Oblique diameter of inlet
(c) AP diameter of outlet
(D) Intertubercular diameter
253. Utrine fibromyoma is associated with :
(A) Endometriosis
(B) Pevic inflammatory disease
(c) Ovary ca
(D) Amenorrhea
254. Breech presentation with hydrocephalus is managed by :
(A) Cesarean section
(B) Trans-abdominal decompression
(c) PV decompression
(D) Craniotomy of aftercoming head
255. Fetal heart activity can be detected by sonography at about :
(A) 5 weeks
(B) 6 weeks
(c) 7 weeks
(D) 8 weeks
256. Ovary develop from :
(A) Mullerian duct
(B) Genital ridge
(c) Genital tubercle
(D) Mesonephric duct
257. Endometriosis commonly associated with :
(A) B/L chocolate cyst of ovary
(B) Adenomyosis
(c) Fibroid uterus
(D) Luteal cyst
258. Bacterial vaginosis is characterized by :
(A) Alkaline pH
(B) Strawberry clot in vagina
(c) Creamy discharge
(D) Clue cells in wet mount
259. Sexual development in the adolescent girls occur in the following order :
(A) Thelarche, puberche, growth, menarche
(B) Puberty, thelarche, menarche, growth
(c) Growth, thelarche, puberche
(D) None
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