Medical PG Orthopaedics

MEDICAL PG ORTHOPAEDICS

1. Damage to the radial nerve in the spinal groove spares which muscle
(A) Lateral head of triceps
(B) Long head of triceps
(C) Medial head of triceps
(D) Anconeus


Answer: (B)

2. Meralgia paraesthetic is due to the involvement of the
(A) Ulnar nerve
(B) Median nerve
(C) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
(D) Lateral peroneal nerve of thigh

Answer: (C)

3. Cubitus varus is commonly caused by
(A) Supracondylar fracture of humerus
(B) Fracture of the lateral epicondyle
(C) Chronic osteromyelitis
(D) Acute epiphysitis

Answer: (A)

4. Management of Smith’s fracture is
(A) Open reduction and fixation
(B) Plaster cast with forearm in pronation
(C) Closed reduction with below-elbow cast
(D) Above-elbow cast with forearm in supination

Answer: (D)

5. Ortolani’s test is done for
(A) Congenital dislocation of hip
(B) Traumatic dislocation of hip
(C) Rheumatoid arthritis
(D) Tubuerculous arthritis

Answer: (A)

6. Treatment of choice for one week old fracture neck femur at 65 years age is
(A) Hemi-replacement arthroplasty
(B) Closed reduction and internal fixation by cannulated cancellous screws
(C) Closed reduction and internal fixation by Austin more pins
(D) Total hip replacement

Answer: (A)

7. All the following are benign tumors except
(A) Chondroma
(B) Chordoma
(C) Teratoma
(D) Meningioma

Answer: (B)

8. Solitary bone cyst is most common in the
(A) Upper end of humerus
(B) Lower end of humerus
(C) Lower end of humerus
(D) Lower end of femur

Answer: (A)

9. Erosion of bone is seen with all of the following except
(A) Gout
(B) SLE
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer: (B)

10. Which of the following is true regarding a phantom limb
(A) Occurs in leprosy
(B) Follows amputation
(C) Follows a psychiatric illness
(D) After filariasis

Answer: (B)

11. The commonest complication of Colle’s fracture is
(A) Malunion
(B) Non-union
(C) Sudeck’s osteodystrophy
(D) Stiffness of fingers

Answer: (D)

12. Injury to the Ulnar nerve at the wrist causes paralysis of
(A) Apposition of the thumb
(B) Abduction of the carpo-metacarpal joint of the thumb
(C) Adduction of the thumb
(D) Flexion of the MCP joint of the middle finger

Answer: (C)

13. All the following are causes of a painful limb except
(A) Slipped femoral epiphysis
(B) TB of the hip
(C) Perthes disease
(D) Infantile Coxa Vara

Answer: (D)

14. Which joint is commonly involved in Osterochondritis Dissecans
(A) Ankle joint
(B) Knee joint
(C) Wrist joint
(D) Elbow joint

Answer: (B)

15. Painless effusion in joints Congential Syphilis are called
(A) Clutton’s joint
(B) Charcot’s joint
(C) Barton’s joint
(D) Chronic osteromyelitis

Answer: (A)

16. In rheumatoid arthritis, pathology starts in the
(A) Articular cartilage
(B) Capsule
(C) Synovium
(D) Muscles

Answer: (C)

17. Treatment of choice for Paget’s disease of the bone is
(A) Vitamin D
(B) Immobilization of the limb
(C) Surgical treatment
(D) Calcitonin

Answer: (D)

18. Commonest site of TB spine is
(A) Dorsolumbar
(B) Lumbar
(C) Lumbosacral
(D) Cervical

Answer: (A)

19. All the following are true about musculocutaneous nerve injury at shoulder except
(A) Loss of flexion at shoulder
(B) Loss of flexion of forearm
(C) Loss of supination of forearm
(D) Loss of sensation on radial side of forearm

Answer: (A)

20. The nerve involved in anterior dislocation of the shoulder is
(A) Radial nerve
(B) Axillary nerve
(C) Ulnar nerve
(D) Musculocutaneous nerve

Answer: (B)

21. The most common type of Supracondylar fracture is
(A) Flexion type
(B) Extension type
(C) Abduction type
(D) Adduction type

Answer: (B)

22. Complications of Colles’ fracture all except
(A) Malunion
(B) Non union
(C) Sudeck’s dystrophy
(D) Ruputre of extensor policis longus

Answer: (B)

23. The most common site of fracture neck of femur that causes avascular necrosis is
(A) Sub-capital
(B) Intertrochanteric
(C) Trans-cervical
(D) Basal

Answer: (A)

24. Treatment of choice in fracture neck of femur in a 40-year old male presenting after 2 days is
(A) Hemiarthroplasty
(B) Closed reduction and Internal fixation by cancellous screws
(C) Closed reduction and Internal fixation by Austin Moore pins
(D) Plaster and rest

Answer: (B)

25. Action of intramedullary ‘K’ nail is
(A) Two-point fixation
(B) Three-point fixation
(C) Compression
(D) Weight concentration

Answer: (B)

26. Which type of injury causes more damage to the semi-lunar cartilage in the Knee
(A) Flexion and extension at the ankle
(B) Rotation on a flexed knee
(C) Rotation on an extended knee
(D) Squatting position

Answer: (B)

27. Which of the following is not a benign bone tumor
(A) Osteoid osteoma
(B) Chondroma
(C) Enchondroma
(D) Chordoma

Answer: (B)

28. Most common nerve to be damaged in dislocation of shoulder is :
(A) Axillary nerve
(B) Radial nerve
(C) Median nerve
(D) Musculocutaneous nerve

Answer: (A)

29. Most common joint to undergo recurrent dislocation is :
(A) Shoulder joint
(B) Patella
(C) Knee joint
(D) Hip joint

Answer: (A)

30. Most common complication of colle’s fracture is :
(A) Stiffness of fingers
(B) Sudeck’s dystrophy
(C) Nonunion
(D) Tendon rupture

Answer: (A)

31. “Tennis elbow’, is characterized by :
(A) Tenderness over the medial epicondyle
(B) Tendinitis of common extensor origin
(C) Tendinitis of common flexor origin
(D) Painful flexion and extension

Answer: (B)

32. Open reduction & internal fixation is done for all of the following #s except :
(A) Patella #
(B) Olecranon #
(C) Von barton’s #
(D) # Lateral condyle of humerus

Answer: (C)

33. All of the following factors fascilitate non union except
(A) Haematoma formation
(B) Periosteal injuries
(C) Absence of nerve supply
(D) Chronic infection

Answer: (A)

34. Most common site of scaphoid fracture is :
(A) Waist
(B) Proximal fragment
(C) Distal fragment
(D) Tilting of the lunate

Answer: (A)

35. First symptom in tuberculous cord compression is :
(A) Sensory change
(B) Decrease tendon reflex
(C) Spasticity
(D) Lower limb weakness

Answer: (C)

36. Most common charcot’s joints involved in diabetes mellitus are those of:
(A) Shoulder
(B) Ankle
(C) Knee
(D) Foot

Answer: (D)

37. Characteristic crystals in pseudogout are :
(A) Calcium pyrophosphate
(B) Sodium monourate
(C) Potassium urate
(D) Sodium pyrophasphate

Answer: (A)

38. Complications of Colle’s fracture include all of the following except :
(A) Malunion
(B) Non Union
(C) Sudeck’s osteodystrophy
(D) Rupture of EPL tendon

Answer: (B)

39. Distal interphalangeal joint is not involved in :
(A) Rheumatoid arthritis
(B) Psoriatic arthritis
(C) Multicentric histeocytosis
(D) Neurophatic arthropathy

Answer: (A)

40. Ankle sprain is due to :
(A) Rupture of anterior talo-fibular ligament
(B) Rupture of posterior talo-fibular ligament
(C) Rupture of deltoid ligament
(D) Rupture of Calcaneo-fibular ligament

Answer: (A)

41. Most common complication of intertrochanteric fracture femur is :
(A) Malunion
(B) Nonunion
(C) Osteoarthritis
(D) Nerve injury

Answer: (A)

42. Commonest site for tuberculous spondylitis is :
(A) T12/L1
(B) C6-7
(C) S1-2
(D) None

Answer: (A)

43. All of the following tumor are benign tumour except :
(A) Chondroma
(B) Chordoma
(C) Osteochondroma
(D) Enchondroma

Answer: (B)

44. Which of the following is persistant biochemical marker of rickets :
(A) S.Ca⁺⁺
(B) S. Alkphosphate
(C) S. Acid phosphate
(D) S. phosphate

Answer: (B)

45. Biochemical marker in early gouty arthritis is :
(A) S. uric acid
(B) Increased urinary uric crystal
(C) Synovial fluid urate crystal
(D) Alkaline phosphate

Answer: (C)

46. Most common site for pseudotumour like growth in haemophilic arthropathy is :
(A) Quadriceps femoris
(B) Hamstring muscle
(C) Gastrocnemius
(D) Iliopsoas

Answer: (D)

47. Pseudoarthrosis may be seen in all of the following conditions except :
(A) Fracture
(B) Idiopathic
(C) Neurofibromatosis
(D) Osteomyelitis

Answer: (D)

48. All of the following are associated with chronic osteomyelitis except :
(A) Sequestrum
(B) Amyloidosis
(C) Myositis-ossificans
(D) Metastatic abscess

Answer: (C)

49. Most common site of Actinomycosis amongst the following is :
(A) Tibia
(B) Rib
(C) Mandible
(D) Femur

Answer: (C)

50. Defective mineralization of proximal zone of cartilar and epiphysis is a feature of :
(A) Rickerts
(B) Scurvy
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Syphilis

Answer: (A)

51. Most common site of avascular necrosis amongst following is :
(A) Medial candyle of femur #
(B) Talus #
(C) Olecranon #
(D) Head of the radius #

Answer: (B)

52. Commonest site of fracture leading to fat-embolism are :
(A) Tibia #
(B) Femur #
(C) Humerus #
(D) Ulna #

Answer: (B)

53. Jefferson’s # is :
(A) Cl
(B) C₂
(C) C₂C₁
(D) C₂C₃

Answer: (C)

54. Osteoarthritis is associated with all of the following except :
(A) Decrease joint space
(B) Subchondral sclerosis
(C) Osteophyte formation
(D) Ca⁺⁺ deposition in joint space

Answer: (D)

55. According to a newer hypothesis Ewings sarcoma arises from :
(A) Epiphysis
(B) Diaphysis
(C) Medullary cavity
(D) Cortex

Answer: (C)

56. Most common nerve involvement in volkmann’s ischaemic contracture is :
(A) Median nerve
(B) Radial nerve
(C) Ulner nerve
(D) Posterior interosseous nerve

Answer: (A)

57. In posterior dislocation of hip, there is:
(A) Flexion, abduction, int. rotation
(B) Flexion, abduction, ext. rotation
(C) Flexion, adduction, int. rotation
(D) Flexion, adduction, ext. rotation

Answer: (A)

58. Bunion is:
(A) Exostosis
(B) Adventitious bursitis lateral to 1st metatarsal
(C) Base of 1st metatarsal
(D) Head of 1st metatarsal

Answer: (B)

59. Paronychia is defined as infection of:
(A) Pulp space
(B) Web
(C) Subcuticular space
(D) Folds of finger nail

Answer: (D)

60. Clergymen’s knee is due to involvement of:
(A) Prepatellar bursa
(B) Intrapatellar bursa
(C) Supraptellar bursa
(D) Infrapatellar bursa

Answer: (D)

61. Crutch palsy in axilla, nerve most often involved is
(A) Radial
(B) Ulnar
(C) Musculocutaneous
(D) Axillary

Answer: (A)

62. Most common site of osteoblastoma is:
(A) Epiphysis
(B) Metaphysis
(C) Diaphysis
(D) B or C

Answer: (C)

63. Anterior dislocation of shoulder is most commonly complicated by:
(A) Recurrent dislocation
(B) Circumflex nerve injury
(C) Axillary nerve injury
(D) Axillary artery injury

Answer: (C)

64. Syme’s amputation involves joint:
(A) Ankle
(B) Mid tarsal
(C) Tarsometatarsal
(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

65. Bony ankylosis is caused by:
(A) Pyogenic arthritis
(B) TB
(C) Osteoarthritis
(D) Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer: (A)

66. In talipes equnovarus the foot is in position of:
(A) Equinus, eversion, abduction
(B) Equinus, inversion, abduction
(C) Equinus, inversion, adduction
(D) Equinus, eversion, abduction

Answer: (C)

67. Inversion and eversion occurs at which joint
(A) Subtalar/midtarsal
(B) Metatarsophalangeal
(C) Calcaneocuboid only
(D) Tibiofibular

Answer: (A)

68. Most common muscle involved in lower leg in polio is:
(A) Ant. tibialis
(B) Post. tibialis
(C) Extensor pollicis longus
(D) Flexor pollicis longus

Answer: (A)

69. In cervical rib following are seen except
(A) Cervical rib palpable
(B) Ischaemic pain of muscles
(C) Atrophy of muscles
(D) Radial pulse not palpable

Answer: (A)

70. Most common complication of supracondylar #:
(A) Malunion with gun stock deformity
(B) Volkman’s ischaemicc contracture
(C) Blood vessel injury
(D) Genu valgum

Answer: (A)

71. Complication of acetabular fracture is:
(A) Avascular necrosis of head of femur
(B) Sciatic N injury
(C) Secondary osteoarthritis of hip joint
(D) Fixed deformity of hip joint

Answer: (C)

72. Least correction in remodeling of bone in children is seen in:
(A) Fracture shaft of femur
(B) Fracture shaft of humerus
(C) Fracture above lateral condyle
(D) Subtrochanteric fracture

Answer: (B)

73. Galeazzi fracture is:
(A) Lower 1/3rd # radius with radioulnar dislocation
(B) Upper 1/3rd # ulna with inf. radioulnar dislocation
(C) Lower 1/3rd # ulna without radioulnar dislocation
(D) Upper 1/3rd # ulna with sup. radioulnar dislocation

Answer: (C)

74. Von rosen splint is used in:
(A) CDH
(B) CTEV
(C) Fracture shaft of femur
(D) Fracture tibia

Answer: (A)

75. Burlow’s sign is seen in:
(A) CDH
(B) Fracture neck femur
(C) Perthes disease
(D) Polio

Answer: (A)

76. Psoas spasm is seen in following except:
(A) TB hip
(B) Ac. appednicitis
(C) TB spine
(D) Mesentric iliac lymphadenitis

Answer: (A)

77. Most common organism causing osteomyelitis in drug abusers:
(A) Staph. aureus
(B) Klebsiella
(C) E.coli
(D) Pseudomonas

Answer: (A)

78. Rheumatoid arthritis most commonly causes:
(A) Pericarditis
(B) Endocarditis
(C) Myocarditis
(D) Pancarditis

Answer: (A)

79. Enthesopathy is characteristic of:
(A) OA
(B) TB arthritis
(C) RA
(D) Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer: (D)

80. True about giant cell tumour is
(A) Never recurs after excision
(B) Periarticular epiphyseal
(C) Malignant potential is not predictable
(D) All of the above

Answer: (B)

81. Vitamin required for collagen synthesis is:
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin E
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin D

Answer: (A)

82. Trigger finger occurs in :
(A) Rheumatoid arthritis
(B) Trauma
(C) Osteoarthritis
(D) Contracture

Answer: (A)

83. Not attached to pisiform bone :
(A) Flexor retinaculum
(B) Extensor carpi ulnris
(C) Flexor carpi ulnaris
(D) Pisohamate ligament

Answer: (B)

84. Definitive diagnosis for blow out # of orbit is by :
(A) CSF rhinorrhoea
(B) Loss of vision
(C) Tear drop sign
(D) Fracture of sphenoid sinus

Answer: (C)

85. Albert Schonberg disease is also called as :
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Osteodystrophy
(C) Osteopetrosis
(D) Osteitis punctata

Answer: (C)

86. Caffey’s disease is :
(A) Chronic osteomyelitis is children
(B) Osteomyelitis of jaw in children
(C) Infantile cortical hyperostosis
(D) Renal osteodystrophy

Answer: (C)

87. Chaissagne tubercle is related to :
(A) Cervical vertebra
(B) Digastric tendon
(C) Carotid sinus
(D) Stellate ganglion

Answer: (A)

88. X-ray appearance of malignancy are following except :
(A) Sclerotic margins
(B) Soft tissue mass
(C) Periosteal elelvation
(D) Cortical destruction

Answer: (B)

89. Dupuytren’s contracture is seen in :
(A) Supracondylar # humerus
(B) Colle’s fracture
(C) Thickening of palmar fascia
(D) Radial nerve palsy

Answer: (C)

90. Increase in Limb length is not found in :
(A) Neurofibromatosis
(B) Salter harris #
(C) Haemophilia
(D) Rh. arthritis of juvenile type

Answer: (B)

91. Fasciectomy is indicated when intracompartmental pressure rises above mm Hg :
(A) 10
(B) 60
(C) 45
(D) 100

Answer: (C)

92. Difficult to diagnose salter harris type by X-ray :
(A) V
(B) I
(C) IV
(D) III

Answer: (A)

93. Median nerve injury at wrist causes :
(A) Loss of opposition of thumb
(B) Claw hand
(C) Saturday night palsy
(D) Policemans tip deformity

Answer: (A)

94. About sequestrum all are true except :
(A) Dead piece of bone
(B) Lighter than live bone
(C) Heavier than live bone and trabeculated
(D) Surround an infected nidus

Answer: (C)

95. Backahe, radiating to groin, along lateral part of thigh, front of let and dorsum of foot is mostly due to disc prolapsed at :
(A) L₄ L₅
(B) S₁- S₂
(C) L₅, S₁
(D) L₂ L₃

Answer: (A)

96. Not sensitive to pain :
(A) Synovial membrane
(B) Atricular cartilage
(C) Muscle
(D) Periosteum

Answer: (B)

97. Osteogenesis imperfect is defect in :
(A) Calcification
(B) Bone
(C) Collagen
(D) Cartilage

Answer: (C)

98. Crystals found in pseudogout are of :
(A) Sodium urate
(B) Pyrophosphate
(C) Potassium urate
(D) Oxalate

Answer: (B)

99. Commonest cervical vertebral fracture of :
(A) C₃
(B) C₄
(C) C₂
(D) C₅

Answer: (D)

100. Fatigue # does not occur in :
(A) Metatarsal
(B) Metacarpal
(C) Calcaneum
(D) Tibia

Answer: (B)

101. X-ray in atlanto-axial dislocation should be taken in which position :
(A) Flexion
(B) Extension
(C) Neutral
(D) Open mouth view

Answer: (D)

102. Crystals in synovial fluid are seen in :
(A) Pseudogout
(B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Syphilis
(D) Osteoarthritis

Answer: (A)

103. Pain along hip, back of thigh and loss of sensation along the lateral b order of foot and decreased ankle jerk, site of lesion is :
(A) L₄ -5
(B) L₅-S₁
(C) L₃
(D) L₁-T₁₂

Answer: (B)

104. Stress # is most often seen in :
(A) 2nd/3rd metalarsal bone
(B) Talus
(C) Calcaneum
(D) Metacarpals

Answer: (A)

105. Trigger finger is caused by:
(A) OA
(B) Rheumatoid arthritis
(C) Tenosynovitis
(D) Injury to tendons

Answer: (B)

106. Treatment for CTEV is started at:
(A) 6 months
(B) Immediately after birth
(C) 1 year
(D) At puberty

Answer: (B)

107. Commonest dislocation of shoulder is:
(A) Subcoracoid
(B) Subacromial
(C) Supraacromial
(D) Posterior

Answer: (A)

108. Gun stock deformity is seen in fracture of:
(A) Lateral condyle
(B) Humerus, lower end
(C) Radius, lower end
(D) Ulna, upper end

Answer: (B)

109. Onion peel appearance on X-ray is seen in:
(A) Giant cell tumour
(B) Ewing’s sarcoma
(C) Osteosarcoma
(D) Fibrosarcoma

Answer: (B)

110. Carpal tunnel syndrome, all are seen except :
(A) Loss of sensation over middle finger
(B) Opponens pollicis atrophy
(C) Flexor pollicis Brevis atrophy
(D) Adductor policies atrophy

Answer: (B)

111. Von-Rosen’s splint is used in :
(A) CDH
(B) CTEV
(C) # shaft of femur
(D) Scoliosis

Answer: (A)

112. Blue sclera and multiple # are seen in :
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Osteopetrosis
(C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
(D) Osteosclerosis

Answer: (C)

113. Trident hand is seen in:
(A) Mucopolysaccharidosis
(B) Achondroplasia
(C) Diaphyseal achlasia
(D) Chondrodysplasia

Answer: (B)

114. In young man cause of backache and asymmetrical lower limb weakness :
(A) Seronegative spondyloarthropathy
(B) RA
(C) OA
(D) Gout

Answer: (A)

115. Weakest part of mandible is :
(A) Subcondylar part
(B) Coronoid process
(C) Angle
(D) Neck of condyle

Answer: (D)

116. Blount’s disease :
(A) Tibia vara
(B) Renal osteodystrophy
(C) Genu valgum
(D) Genu vara

Answer: (D)

117. Pulled elbow is :
(A) Subluxation of radius head
(B) Subluxation of wrist
(C) Subluxation of humerus
(D) Fracture ulna

Answer: (A)

118. Barlow’s test is used in :
(A) CDH
(B) Coxa vara
(C) Bow legs
(D) Knock knee

Answer: (A)

119. The normal angle of the acetabulum is :
(A) 5-7
(B) 30-32
(C) 35-37
(D) 50-52

Answer: (B)

120. Tom-Smith arthritis spreads to the hip joint because :
(A) Metaphysis is inside the joint
(B) Epiphysis is absent
(C) Periosteum lacks a cambium layer
(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

121. The most radiosensitive part of the bone is :
(A) Epiphysis
(B) Osteoblastic layer
(C) Growing cartilage cells
(D) Fibroblasts

Answer: (A)

122. Froments sign is used to test :
(A) Adductor pollicis
(B) Flexor pollicis longus
(C) Flexor pollicis brevis
(D) Flexor digitorum profundus

Answer: (A)

123. The classical position adopted in posterior dislocation of the hip is :
(A) Flexion, adduction and internal rotation
(B) Flexion, abduction and external rotation
(C) Flexion, abduction and internal rotation
(D) Extension, adduction and internal rotation

Answer: (A)

124. Patella is at a higher level in :
(A) Recurrent dislocation
(B) Nail-patella syndrome
(C) Rheumatoid arthritis
(D) Plica syndrome

Answer: (A)

125. Progressive stiffening of a joint is seen in :
(A) Peri-arthritis of shoulder
(B) Osteochondritis
(C) Gout
(D) Ankylosis

Answer: (A)

126. Which among the following should not be given by acute gout :
(A) Acetyl salicylic acid
(B) Indomethacin
(C) Piroxicam
(D) Allopurinol

Answer: (D)

127. In a child with congential hip dislocation, the legs are abducted with maintained traction till a click is heard. This test is known is :
(A) Barlow’s test
(B) Ortolani’s lest
(C) Telescopy
(D) Trendelenburg’s sign

Answer: (B)

128. Spina ventosa is caused by :
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Leprosy
(C) Metastasis
(D) Spine deformity

Answer: (A)

129. The muscle most commonly affected in polio is :
(A) Tensor fasica lata
(B) Tibialis anterior
(C) Tibialis posterior
(D) Quadriceps

Answer: (D)

130. The etiology of tom-smith arthritis is :
(A) Pyogenic
(B) Rheumatoid
(C) Fungal
(D) Syphilis

Answer: (A)

131. Trendelenburg sign is seen in palsy of :
(A) Superior gluteal nerve
(B) IIiohypogastric nerve
(C) Obturator nerve
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

132. True regarding mandibular fracture is :
(A) Some infection is harmless
(B) Aim is to get good occlusion
(C) Open reduction is better
(D) Always do wiring

Answer: (B)

133. Ring sign is seen in :
(A) Osteosarcoma
(B) Osteoclastoma
(C) Scurvy
(D) Barlow’s disease

Answer: (C)

134. Equinus deformity in poliomyelitis is due to weakness of :
(A) Dorsiflexors
(B) Plantar flexors
(C) Evertors
(D) Invertors

Answer: (A)

135. True about dupuytren’s contracture is :
(A) More common in females
(B) Palmar nodule is the earliest sign
(C) M.C. in orientals
(D) Contracture of dermal tissue

Answer: (B)

136. Bony ankylosis of hip is seen in :
(A) Pyogenic arthritis
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Osteoarthritis
(D) Fracture neck femur

Answer: (A)

137. MC cause of genu valgum is :
(A) Trauma
(B) Rickets
(C) Polio
(D) Scurvy

Answer: (A)

138. Trophic ulcer is seen in A/E:
(A) Polio
(B) CNSTB
(C) Spinal dysraphism
(D) Leprosy

Answer: (A)

139. Osteomalacia is characterized by:
(A) Compression vertebral
(B) Cod fish vertebra
(C) Looser’s zone
(D) Bamboo spine

Answer: (C)

140. Treatment of fracture patella in 24 year old young male is :
(A) Patellectomy if undisplaced #
(B) No treatment required
(C) Internal fixation if communited fracture
(D) POP in full extension

Answer: (D)

141. Pointing finger is seen in :
(A) Ulnar N palsy
(B) Median N palsy
(C) Ulnar and median N palsy
(D) Radial N pasly

Answer: (B)

142. All are common with elbow dislocation except :
(A) Myositis ossificans progressive
(B) Median N palsy
(C) Brachial artery injury
(D) Volkmann’s contracture

Answer: (A)

143. Club foot in a 2 year old child is best treated by:
(A) Soft tissue release
(B) Tripple arthodesis
(C) Dennis brown splint
(D) Manipulation by mother and cast

Answer: (A)

144. Non union in long bones is treated by:
(A) Intramedullary nailing
(B) POP cast
(C) Open reduction and internal fixation with bones grafting
(D) Conservation Tt

Answer: (C)

145. Onion peel appearance is seen in :
(A) Osteosarcoma
(B) Ewings sarcoma
(C) Osteoclastoma
(D) Osteochondroma

Answer: (B)

146. Commonest tumour of mandible is :
(A) Ameloblastoma
(B) Osteosarcoma
(C) Squamous cell CA
(D) All

Answer: (A)

147. Soap bubble appearance is the radiological feature of :
(A) Osteoid osteoma
(B) Osteosarcoma
(C) Osteoclastoma
(D) Chrodoma

Answer: (C)

148. True about Osteoclast is all except :
(A) Derived from monocytes
(B) Stimulated by PTH
(C) Phagocytosis of foreign bodies
(D) Resorption of bone

Answer: (C)

149. Albers Schonberg disease is :
(A) Osteopetrosis
(B) Osteoporosis
(C) Osteochondritis
(D) Osteomalacia

Answer: (A)

150. In traumatic myositis ossificans, following are true except :
(A) Hydroxyapatite deposition
(B) Common in elbow injury
(C) Periosteal hematoma & leakage
(D) Injury of tendon over muscle

Answer: (D)

151. Commonest site of march # is :
(A) Involves shaft of 2 & 3rd metatarsals
(B) Avulsion # of 5th metatarsals
(C) Calcaneus involved
(D) Olecranon involved

Answer: (A)

152. Blount’s disease is :
(A) Genu valgus
(B) Tibia vera
(C) Flat foot
(D) Genu recurvatum

Answer: (B)

153. Pathological # is seen in following except :
(A) Radiation
(B) Anaemia
(C) Osteoporosis
(D) Osteomalacia

Answer: (B)

154. True about TB spine is all except :
(A) Early paraplegia is good prognosis
(B) Insidious onset paraplegia is good prognosis
(C) Dorsolumbar spine is commonest site
(D) It is commonest site for TB of bone in the body

Answer: (B)

155. Most common soft tissue tumour in a child :
(A) Rhabdomyosarcoma
(B) Histiocytoma
(C) Fibrosarcoma
(D) Liposarcoma

Answer: (A)

156. How to differentiate gout with pseudogout :
(A) Large joint involvement
(B) Birefringent (Particles) crystals
(C) Serum uric acid normal
(D) Associated with hyperparathyroidism

Answer: (B)

157. All are relevant in compartment syndrome except :
(A) Fasciotomy
(B) Splitting of tight pop cast
(C) Reexploration
(D) Exercise

Answer: (D)

158. Shephared crooke’s deformity is seen is :
(A) Achondroplasia
(B) Gaucher’s disease
(C) Hypothyroidism
(D) Fibrous dysplasia

Answer: (D)

159. Giant cell tumor is treated with :
(A) Resection of tumor part
(B) Curetage & bone graft
(C) Radiotherapy
(D) Melphalan

Answer: (B)

160. Which is/are not true tumor :
(A) Fibrosarcoma
(B) Osteochondroma
(C) Osteoclastoma
(D) Chondrosarcoma

Answer: (B)

161. Iliac horn’ is seen in :
(A) Achondroplasia
(B) Muco-polysaccharodosis
(C) Nail patell syndrome
(D) Tuberous sclerosis

Answer: (C)

162. Components of Gardner’s synd. a/e :
(A) Intestinal polyps
(B) Osteomas
(C) Sebaceous cyst
(D) Neuromas

Answer: (D)

163. Treatment of # with intraarticular extension is/are A/E :
(A) Excision of the joint
(B) Arthrodesis
(C) Traction
(D) Intramedullary nailing

Answer: (D)

164. Mallet finger is due to avulsion of extensor tendon of :
(A) Proximal phalanx
(B) Middle phalanx
(C) Distal phalanx
(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

165. Osgood Schlatters disease affects :
(A) Upper tibia
(B) Lower tibia
(C) Distal femur
(D) Proximal femur

Answer: (A)

166. CTEV is caused by all except :
(A) Neurological disorder
(B) Idiopathic
(C) Spina bifida
(D) Cubitus varus

Answer: (D)

167. Osteogenic sarcoma arise from :
(A) Epiphysis
(B) Metaphysis
(C) Growth plate
(D) Epiphyseal cortex

Answer: (B)

168. In traumatic injury of the hip :
(A) Anterior dislocation is common
(B) Posterior dislocation is common
(C) Avascular fracture is common
(D) Visceral injury usually associated with fracture femur

Answer: (B)

169. Absent lateral 1/3rd of clavicle is seen in :
(A) Hyperparathyroidism
(B) Turner’s syndrome
(C) Fibrous
(D) Cleidocranial dysostosis

Answer: (D)

170. Tubercular bursitis involve :
(A) Prepatellar bursa
(B) Pretibial bursa
(C) Olecranon bursa
(D) Subdeltoid bursa

Answer: (A)

171. True about Osteoclast is all except:
(A) Derived from monocytes
(B) Stimulated by PTH
(C) Phagocytosis of foreign bodies
(D) Resorption of bone

Answer: (B, C)

172. True about Osteoclast is all except:
(A) Derived from monocytes
(B) Stimulated by PTH
(C) Phagocytosis of foreign bodies
(D) Resorption of bone

Answer: (C, B)

173. Major mineral of the bone is:
(A) Calcium chloride
(B) Hydroxyapatite
(C) Calcium oxide
(D) Calcium carbonate

Answer: (B)

174. One of the features given below is essential in the diagnosis of fracture of a bone
(A) Deformity
(B) A crepitus
(C) A partial or complete loss of continuity of the bone
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

175. The one most consistent sign of fresh fracture is
(A) Crepitus
(B) Bony tenderness
(C) Deformity
(D) Abnormal mobility
(E) Shortening of bone

Answer: (A)

176. Pathognomonic sign of traumatic fracture is
(A) Redness
(B) Swelling
(C) Crepitus
(D) Tenderness

Answer: (C)

177. Direct impact on the bone will produce a:
(A) Transvers fracture
(B) Oblique fracture
(C) Spiral fracture
(D) Communited fracture

Answer: (A)

178. Pathologic fracture can occur in all except:
(A) Metabolic bone disease
(B) Osteosarcoma
(C) Osteochondroma
(D) Bone cyst
(E) Fluorosis

Answer: (C)

179. Pathological # is seen in following except:
(A) Radiation
(B) Anaemia
(C) Osteoporosis
(D) Osteomalacia

Answer: (B)

180. The commnonest cause of pathological fracture is generalized affection is:
(A) Carcinoma
(B) Osteoporosis
(C) Cyst
(D) All of the above

Answer: (B)

181. The most common cause of pathological fracture is
(A) Delayed union
(B) Mal union
(C) Non union
(D) Secondary deposits
(E) Any of thee

Answer: (D)

182. The treatment of choice in pathological fractures is
(A) Internal fixation
(B) Plaster of Paris casts
(C) Skin traction
(D) External skeletal fixation

Answer: (A)

183. Mirel’s criteria is developed for the evaluation of
(A) Risk of fatigue fracture
(B) Severity of osteoporosis
(C) Risk of pathological fracture
(D) Severity of neurological defecit

Answer: (C)

184. An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training started complaining of pain at postero medial aspect of both legs. There was acute point tenderness and the pain was aggravated on physical activity. the most likely diagnosis is
(A) Bearger’s disease
(B) Gout
(C) Lumbar canal stenosis
(D) Stress fracture

Answer: (D)

185. Commonest site f march # is:
(A) Involves shaft of 2% 3rd metatarsals
(B) Avulsion # of 5th metatarsals
(C) Calcaneus involved
(D) Olecranon involved

Answer: (A)

186. Stress fracture is treated by:
(A) Rest
(B) Cast immobilization
(C) Closed reduction
(D) Internal fixation

Answer: (B)

187. What is March fracture?
(A) Fracture of 2nd metatarsal
(B) Fracture of 4th metatarsal
(C) Fracture of cuboids
(D) Fracture of tibia

Answer: (A)

188. The usual site of stress fracture includes
(A) Tibia
(B) First metacarpal bone
(C) Second metacarpal bone
(D) Second metatarsal bone

Answer: (D)

189. Stress fracture of involves:
(A) Metatarsals
(B) Metacarpals
(C) Tibia
(D) Calcanium

Answer: (B)

190. Fatigue fractures (Stress fractures) are most commonly seen in:
(A) Metatarsals
(B) Tibia
(C) Fibula
(D) Neck of femur

Answer: (A)

191. All of the following factors facilitate non-union except:
(A) Haematoma formation
(B) Periosteal injuries
(C) Absence of nerve supply
(D) Chronic infection

Answer: (A)

192. Last step in fracture healing is:
(A) Haematoma
(B) Callus formation
(C) Remodeling
(D) Consolidation

Answer: (C)

193. Initial stage of clinical union of bone is equivalent to
(A) Callus formation
(B) Woven bone
(C) Haematoma formation
(D) Calcification only
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B)

194. The time necessary for healing of fracture depends on the following factors:
(A) Age of the patient
(B) Location of the fracture
(C) Type of the fracture
(D) Degree of damage to soft tissues
(E) All of the above

Answer: (E)

195. The most important factor in fracture healing is:
(A) Good alignment
(B) Organization of blood clot
(C) Accurate reduction and 100% apposition of fractured fragments
(D) Immobilization
(E) Adequate calcium intake

Answer: (D)

196. The most common cause of non union is
(A) Infection
(B) Inadequate immobilization
(C) Ischaemia
(D) Soft tissue interposition

Answer: (B)

197. Delayed union of fracture of a bone following a surgical treatment may be due to
(A) Infection
(B) Inadequate circulation
(C) Inadequate mobilization
(D) Soft tissue interposition

Answer: (D)

198. Bone apposition is best in
(A) Osteoblastic activity at the area of stress
(B) Endochondral ossification
(C) Subperiosteal cambian layer
(D) Osteobalstic activity in howship’s lancunae

Answer: (D)

199. Regarding bone remodeling, all are true EXCEPT:
(A) Osteoclastic activity at the compression site
(B) Osteoclastic activity at the tension site
(C) Osteoclastic activity and osteoblastic activity are both need for bone remodeling in cortical and cancellous bones.
(D) Osteoblasts transforms into osteocytes

Answer: (A)

200. Which is not a marker of new bone formation?
(A) Alkaline phosphatase
(B) Osteocalcin
(C) Urine hydroxyproline
(D) Pro collagen

Answer: (C)

201. Bone resorption markers are:
(A) Serum propeptide of type I procollagen
(B) Osteocalcin
(C) Urine total free deoxypyridinoline
(D) Free glutamic acid cross linkage.

Answer: (C)

202. Bone formation markers:
(A) Procollagen-I
(B) Alkaline phosphatase
(C) Hydroxy appetite
(D) Calcitonin
(E) TRAP

Answer: (A, B)

203. Marker for bone formation is:
(A) Tartrate resistant acid phosphate
(B) Osteocalcin
(C) Urinary calcium
(D) Serum nucleotidase

Answer: (B)

204. Indicators of bone formation includes all of following except-
(A) Osteocalcin
(B) Alkaline phosphatase
(C) Hydroxyprolin
(D) Bone scan

Answer: (C)

205. For growth of bone, which term is most appropriate:
(A) Enlargement
(B) Apposition
(C) Hyper plasia
(D) Hypertrophy

Answer: (B)

206. Rate of mineralization of newly formed osteoid can be estimated by the following:
(A) Von Kossa staining for calcium
(B) Alzarin red stain
(C) Labeled tetracycline
(D) Immunoflurescence Calcein Stain

Answer: (C)

207. Callus induction is hampered in:
(A) Hypoxemia
(B) Fractured fragments of bone
(C) Micromovements
(D) Muscle interposition in between fractured fragments
(E) Early mobilization

Answer: (A, B, D)

208. Healing of # of bone is affected by:
(A) Micromovements
(B) Muscle interposition
(C) Hypoxia
(D) Bone fragments

Answer: (ALL)

209. Factors that promotes callus formation:
(A) Micro movements between the fracture fragments
(B) Appropriate approximation of the fragments
(C) Muscle interposed in between the fracture fragment
(D) Early initiation of mobilization
(E) Ischemia

Answer: (A, B)

210. Non – union is a complication of :
(A) Scaphoid #
(B) Colle’s #
(C) Inter – trochanteric # of hip
(D) Supra condylar # of the humerus

Answer: (A)

211. In some old fractures, cartilaginous tissue forms over the fractured bone ends with a cavity in between containing clear fluid. This condition is called as:
(A) Delayed union
(B) Slow union
(C) Non union
(D) Pseudoarthrosis

Answer: (D)

212. Pseudoarthrosis may be seen in all of the following conditions except:
(A) Fracture
(B) Idiopathic
(C) Neurofirbomatosis
(D) Osteomyelitis

Answer: (D)

213. The correct order of priorities in the initial management of head injury is
(A) Airway, Breathing, Circulation treatment of extra cranial injuries
(B) Treatment of extra cranial injuries Airway, Breathing, Circulation
(C) Circulation airway, Breathing treatment of extra cranial injuries
(D) Airway, circulation, breathing treatment of extra cranial injuries

Answer: (A)

214. In an injury with multiple fractures, most important is
(A) Airway maintenance
(B) Blood transfusion
(C) Intravenous fluids
(D) Open reduction of fractures

Answer: (A)

215. Patients comes with fracture femur in an acute accident, the first things to do is
(A) Secure airway and treat the shock
(B) Splinting
(C) Physical examination
(D) X-rays

Answer: (A)

216. Consider the following sign(s)
(1) Increasing pallor
(2) Restlessness
(3) Air hunger
(4) Water-hammer pulse
Haemorrhagic shock due to acute blood loss includes
(A) 1 & 4
(B) 1& 2
(C) 1, 2 & 3
(D) 2, 3 & 4

Answer: (C)

217. Polytrauma patient with open bleeding wound of right thigh should be managed first of all by
(A) Tourniquet application
(B) Tight bandage application
(C) Airway maintenance
(D) Blood transfusion

Answer: (C)

218. Severely injured patient with spinal fracture and unconsciousness first thing to be done is
(A) GCS scoring
(B) Spinal stabilization by cervical collar
(C) Mannitol drip to decrease ICT
(D) Airway maintenance

Answer: (D)

219. Which of the following is not a component of the crust syndrome.
(A) Myohemoglobinuria
(B) Massive crushing of muscles
(C) Acute tubular necrosis
(D) Bleeding diathesis

Answer: (D)

220. Crush syndrome is managed by
(A) 20% Dextrose
(B) Hydrocortisone
(C) Maintaining high urine output
(D) Acidification of urine

Answer: (C)

221. Compound fracture is
(A) Fracture with artery involvement
(B) Fracture with nerve involvement
(C) Fracture with muscle involvement
(D) Fracture with skin involvement

Answer: (D)

222. A patient presents with compound fracture of Tibia with 1 cm opening in skin. Which grade it belongs?
(A) Grade I
(B) Grade II
(C) Grade IIIA
(D) Grade IIIB

Answer: (A)

223. Tibial Fracture with > 1 cm wound, slight comminution and moderate crushing is
(A) Grade I
(B) Grade II
(C) Grade IIIA
(D) Grade IIIB

Answer: (B)

224. Following are principles in the treatment of compound fractures except
(A) Wound debridement
(B) Immediate wound closure
(C) Tendon repair
(D) Aggressive antibiotic therapy

Answer: (B)

225. Immediate treatment of compound fracture of tibia is
(A) Intravenous antibiotics
(B) Thorough debridement
(C) Internal fixation of fracture
(D) Amputation of limb

Answer: (B)

226. Open fracture is treated by
(A) Tourniquet
(B) Internal fixation
(C) Debridement
(D) External fixation

Answer: (C)

227. Internal splints (fixation devices) are used in all except
(A) Compound fractures
(B) Multiple fractures
(C) Fractures in elderly patients
(D) Fracture neck of femur

Answer: (A)

228. A compound fracture is initially treated by antibiotics, wound toilet and
(A) Skin over
(B) External splintage
(C) Prosthesis
(D) Internal fixation

Answer: (B)

229. Which of the following is the most appropriate hospital treatment of a patient with compound fracture?
(A) Under anesthesia, thorough scrubbing and cleaning of the area getting the fracture end inside, suturing the wound and applying continuous skeletal traction with adequate antibiotic cover
(B) Cleaning and suturing the wound, applying plaster Spica under traction on a Harly’s table and administering antibiotics round the clock
(C) Scrubbing and cleaning the area, resecting the protruding one inch of the bone, suturing the wound, bringing the fractured ends into alignment and applying plaster Spica with continuous antibiotic cover
(D) Thorough cleaning of the area, extending the wound, bringing the fragments into alignment under vision, fixing them with intra-medullary nail and giving antibiotics to the patient.

Answer: (A)

230. In shotgun injuries
(A) Each and every shot should be removed
(B) All the shots within accessible limits may be removed and thorough debridement of the tissue done
(C) Shots lodged in joints must be removed
(D) All the above are true

Answer: (B)

231. Tetanus is noticed usually in
(A) Burn cases
(B) Wounds contaminated with faecal matter
(C) Open fractures
(D) Gunshot wounds
(E) All of the above

Answer: (B)

232. Which of the following score evaluates chances of amputation in a traumatized limb:
(A) Revised trauma score
(B) Injury severity score
(C) Abbreviated injury score
(D) MES score

Answer: (D)

233. All of the following factors evaluate the chances of amputation in a limb, except
(A) Age
(B) B.P
(C) Velocity of trauma
(D) Presence of infection

Answer: (D)

234. Tarsometatarsal amputation is also known as
(A) Chopart’s amputation
(B) Lisfranc amputation
(C) Pirogoff amputation
(D) Symes amputation

Answer: (B)

235. Amputation is often not required in:
(A) Gas gangrene
(B) Buerger’s
(C) Chronic osteomyelitis
(D) Diabetic gangrene

Answer: (C)

236. In below elbow amputation the length of stump should be
(A) 10-15 cm
(B) 15-20 cm
(C) 20-25 cm
(D) 5-10 cm

Answer: (B)

237. Distance from Olecranon in amputation should be
(A) 5-10 cm
(B) 10-25 cm
(C) 15-20 cm
(D) 20-30 cm

Answer: (C)

238. In flap method of amputation which structure is kept shorter than the level of amputation:
(A) Bone
(B) Muscles
(C) Nerves
(D) Skin
(E) Vessels

Answer: (A)

239. Ring sequestrum is seen in
(A) Typhoid osteomyelitis
(B) Chronic osteomyelitis
(C) Amputation stump
(D) Tuberculosis osteomyelitis

Answer: (C)

240. Which of the following is true regarding a phantom limb:
(A) Occurs in leprosy
(B) Follows amputation
(C) Follows a psychiatric illness
(D) After filariasis

Answer: (B)

241. Myodesis is employed in amputations for all of the following indications except:
(A) Trauma
(B) Tumor
(C) Children
(D) Ischemia

Answer: (D)

242. Pain due to post-amputation neuroma is best treated by:
(A) Infrared therapy
(B) Interference therapy
(C) Ultrasound therapy
(D) Surgical Excision

Answer: (D)

243. All of the following statements about SACH feet are true, except:
(A) ‘SACH’ stands for ‘Solid Ankle Cushioned Heal’
(B) Forms the base of a lower limb prosthesis
(C) May wear out with time
(D) Wooden keel absorbs the impact of heel strike

Answer: (D)

244. Which of the following is true of shoulder joint?
(A) Composed of only 2 joints
(B) Anterior posterior gliding of a scapula of never occurs
(C) Acromioclavicular joint is more important
(D) Allows flexion, rotation and abduction

Answer: (D)

245. The Rotator cuff is composed of four of the following muscles except:
(A) Teres minor
(B) Supraspinatus
(C) Infraspinatus
(D) Teres major
(E) Subscapularis

Answer: (D)

246. Weakest portion of shoulder joint capsule is:
(A) Anterior
(B) Posterior
(C) Inferior
(D) Superior

Answer: (C)

247. Muscle crossing through the shoulder joint is:
(A) Biceps short head
(B) Biceps long head
(C) Triceps long head
(D) Coracobrachialis

Answer: (B)

248. Rotator interval is between:
(A) Supraspinatus &teresmonor
(B) Teres major &subscapularis
(C) Supraspinatus &subscapularis
(D) Subscapularis&infraspinatus

Answer: (C)

249. Luxatioerecta
(A) Tear of the glenoidal labium
(B) Inferior dislocation of shoulder
(C) Anterior dislocation of shoulder
(D) Defect in the humeral head

Answer: (B)

250. Recurrent dislocation are common in:
(A) Shoulder
(B) Patella
(C) Hip joint
(D) Elbow joint

Answer: (A)

251. Most common joint to undergo recurrent dislocation is:
(A) Shoulder joint
(B) Patella
(C) Knee joint
(D) Hip joint

Answer: (A)

252. Commonest type of shoulder dislocation:
(A) Subcoracoid
(B) Subglenoid
(C) Posterior
(D) Subclavicular

Answer: (A)

253. Recurrent dislocation is least common in
(A) Shoulder
(B) Knee
(C) Patella
(D) None

Answer: (B)

254. Recurrent dislocations are least commonly seen in:
(A) Ankle
(B) Hip
(C) Shoulder
(D) Patella

Answer: (A)

255. Attitude in subcoracoid dislocation of shoulder includes :
(A) Adduction
(B) Limb on side of body
(C) Abduction
(D) Elevation

Answer: (B)

256. The position of arm in anterior dislocation of shoulder is:
(A) By the side
(B) In abduction
(C) In adduction
(D) In external rotation

Answer: (A)

257. Bankart’s lesion is seen at
(A) Post surface of glenoid labrum
(B) Ant surface of glenoid labrum
(C) Ant part of head of humerus
(D) Post part of head of humerus

Answer: (B)

258. Bankart’s lesion involves the ___ of the glenoid labrum.
(A) Anterior lip
(B) Superior lip
(C) Antero-superior lip
(D) Antero-inferior lip

Answer: (D)

259. Recurrent dislocation of shoulder occurs, because of
(A) Incomplete labrum
(B) Superadded secondary infection
(C) Crushed glenoidal labrum
(D) Weak posterior capsule

Answer: (C)

260. Bankart’s lesion involves
(A) Anterior aspect of the head of humerus
(B) Anterior aspect of glenoid labrum
(C) Posterior aspect of glenoid labrum
(D) Posterior aspect of head of humerus

Answer: (B)

261. Hill-sachs lesion is associated with
(A) Recurrent dislocation of shoulder
(B) Recurrent dislocation of hip
(C) Perthe’s disease
(D) Fracture neck of femur

Answer: (A)

262. Hill-sachs lesion in recurrent shoulder dislocation is
(A) Injury to humeral head
(B) Rupture of tendon of supraspinatus muscle
(C) Avulsion of glenoid labrum
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

263. Bankart’s lesion is seen in
(A) Anterior border of head of humerus
(B) Posterior border of head of humerus
(C) Anterior glonoid cavity
(D) Posterior glenoid cavity

Answer: (C)

264. All are related to recurrent shoulder dislocation except:
(A) Hill sachs defect
(B) Bankart lesion
(C) Lax capsule
(D) Rotator cuff injury

Answer: (D)

265. The lesion associated with recurrent dislocation of shoulder include all, except:
(A) Hill-Sach’s lesion
(B) Bankart’s lesion
(C) Capsular laxity
(D) Supraspinatous tear

Answer: (D)

266. Recurrent dislocation is most common in the shoulder joint. Which one of the following is not an important cause for the same?
(A) Tear of the anterior capsule of the shoulder
(B) Associated fracture neck of the humerus
(C) Tear of the glenoid labrum
(D) Freedom of mobility in the shoulder

Answer: (B)

267. Which nerve is damaged in ant dislocation of shoulder :
(A) Axillary
(B) Median
(C) Radial
(D) Musculocutaneous

Answer: (A)

268. The nerve involved in anterior dislocation of the shoulder is:
(A) Radial nerve
(B) Axillary nerve
(C) Ulnar nerve
(D) Musculocutaneous nerve

Answer: (B)

269. Most common nerve to be damaged in dislocation of shoulder is:
(A) Axillary nerve
(B) Radial nerve
(C) Median nerve
(D) Musculocutaneous nerve

Answer: (A)

270. Anterior dislocation of shoulder is most commonly complicated by:
(A) Axillary artery injury
(B) Circumflex nerve injury
(C) Recurrent dislocation
(D) Axillary nerve injury

Answer: (B)

271. The most common complication of dislocation of shoulder joint is:
(A) Injury to brachial plexus
(B) Injury to circumflex nerve
(C) Rupture of supraspinatous muscle
(D) Rupture of deltoid muscle

Answer: (B)

272. In Anterior dislocation of the shoulder the nerve involved is:
(A) Radial nerve
(B) Circumflex nerve
(C) Ulnar nerve
(D) Median nerve

Answer: (B)

273. A patient with anterior dislocation of shoulder will most likely give a history of
(A) Abduction and internal rotation
(B) Adduction and internal rotation
(C) Abduction and external rotation
(D) Adduction and external rotation

Answer: (C)

274. In Recurrent Anterior dislocation of shoulder, the movements that causes dislocation is
(A) Flexion and internal rotation
(B) Abduction and external rotation
(C) Abduction and internal rotation
(D) Extension

Answer: (B)

275. All of the following statements about dislocation of the shoulder are true, except
(A) The injury is produced by a fall with the arm fully abducted
(B) The commonest position for the head of the humerus to move into is the subspinous
(C) The auxillary (circumflex humeral) nerve is likely to be injured
(D) The easiest way to reduce it is by simple pressure with the patient under general anesthesia with muscle relaxation

Answer: (B, D)

276. Duga’s test is helpful in
(A) Dislocation of hip
(B) Scaphoid fracture
(C) Fracture neck of femur
(D) Anterior dislocation of shoulder

Answer: (D)

277. Traumatic anterior dislocation of shoulder with sensory loss in lateral side of forearm and weakness of flexion of elbow joint, most likely injured nerve is:
(A) Radial nerve
(B) Ulnar nerve
(C) Axillary nerve
(D) Musculocutaneous nerve

Answer: (D)

278. Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder, a pt develops weakness of flexion at elbow and lack of sensation over the lateral aspect forearm; nerve injured is:
(A) Radial nerve
(B) Musculocutaneous nerve
(C) Axillary nerve
(D) Ulnar nerve

Answer: (B)

279. Traumatic glenohumeral instability on one direction with Bankarts lesion are treated by
(A) Conservative methods
(B) Surgery
(C) Rehabilitation
(D) Observation f/b inferior capsule shift

Answer: (B)

280. A patient with history of recurrent posterior dislocation of humerus is evaluated for a ‘Hill-Sach’s lesion. Which aspect of the head of humerus is likely to show this lesion in the above patient?
(A) Anteromedial
(B) Anterior
(C) Posterolateral
(D) Posterior

Answer: (A)

281. Following statement regarding dislocation of shoulder are true except:
(A) Head of humerus usually dislocates forward from shoulder joint
(B) Injury is produced by forced extension & external rotation of abducted arm
(C) In posterior dislocation, appearance of shoulder is not normal
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

282. Regarding Recurrent dislocation of the shoulder, which of the following is false?
(A) All traumatic dislocations will be recurrent
(B) Recurrent dislocation results when the capsule is stripped, not torn
(C) The humeral head is always within the capsule
(D) All of these

Answer: (A)

283. Which is true regarding shoulder dislocation?
(A) Posterior dislocation is often over-looked
(B) Pain is severe in anterior dislocation
(C) Radiography may misleading in posterior dislocation
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

284. Which is true about shoulder dislocation?
(A) Anterior dislocation is common than posterior
(B) Fixed medial rotation in posterior dislocation
(C) Kocher’s manoeuvre is effective in anterior dislocation
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

285. Which of the following is test of posterior glenohumeral instability:
(A) Fulcrum test
(B) Sulcus test
(C) Jerk’s test
(D) Crank test

Answer: (C)

286. A 6 year old boy has a history of recurrent dislocation of the right shoulder. On examination, the orthopedician puts the patient in the supine position and abducts his arm to 90 degrees with the bed as the fulcrum and then externally rotates it but the boy does not allow the test to be performed. The test done by the orthopedician is
(A) Apprehension test
(B) Sulcus test
(C) Dugas test
(D) MC Murray’s test

Answer: (A)

287. Patient is able to abduct, internally rotate and take his arm upto lumbosacral spine but not able to lift off. What is the probable diagnosis
(A) Subscapularis tear
(B) Teres major tear
(C) Long head of biceps tear
(D) Acromioclavicular joint dislocation

Answer: (A)

288. Lift off test is done to assess the function of:
(A) Supraspinatus
(B) Infraspinatus
(C) Teres Minor
(D) Subscapularis

Answer: (D)

289. Velpeau bandage and Sling and Swathe splint are used in?
(A) Shoulder dislocation
(B) Fracture scapula
(C) Acromioclavicular dislocation
(D) Fracture clavicle

Answer: (C)

290. All are TRUE about clavicle, EXCEPT
(A) No treatment required for fracture but rest
(B) Breaks at midpoint
(C) First bone to ossify
(D) Ossifies in membrane

Answer: (A)

291. True statement regarding Fracture of clavicle is:
(A) Most common Complication is Malunion
(B) Occurs at the jn.of medial 1/3rd& lateral 2/3rd
(C) Usually occurs due to fall on elbow
(D) Communitted fracture is common

Answer: (A)

292. Common injury to baby is:
(A) Fracture humerus
(B) Fracture clavicle
(C) Fracture
(D) Fracture femur

Answer: (B)

293. The most common bone fractured during birth
(A) Clavicle
(B) Scapula
(C) Radius
(D) Humerus

Answer: (A)

294. The most common complication of clavicle fracture is
(A) Injury to brachial plexus
(B) Malunion
(C) Stiffness of shoulder
(D) Non union

Answer: (B)

295. Clavicular fracture is usually treated by
(A) Traction
(B) Open Reduction & Internal fixation
(C) Figure of eight bandage
(D) Plate & Screw fixation

Answer: (C)

296. In treating a fractured clavicle in a 14 month old child, the best procedure is:
(A) Open reduction
(B) Shoulder cast
(C) Figure – of – eight bandage
(D) Kirshner pin

Answer: (C)

297. Fracture of clavicle is commonest at:
(A) Junction of medial 1/3rd and lateral 2/3rd
(B) Junction of medial 2/3rd and lateral 1/3rd
(C) Midpoint
(D) Scapular end

Answer: (B)

298. “Figure of Eight” bandage used commonly in the fracture of
(A) Scapula
(B) Humerus
(C) Clavicle
(D) Metacarpals

Answer: (C)

299. True about fracture clavicle is
(A) Malunion
(B) Most common site is medial 1/3rd& 2/3rd
(C) Comminuted fracture
(D) Due to fall on outstretched hand

Answer: (A, D)

300. Commonest fractures in childhood is:
(A) Femur
(B) Distal humerus
(C) Clavicle
(D) Radius

Answer: (C)

301. Treatment of fracture clavicle in an infant is best treated by:
(A) Cuff and sling
(B) Figure of 8 bandage
(C) Open reduction
(D) Shoulder cast

Answer: (B)

302. Fracture of the clavicle are very common injuries. The most frequent complication of this fracture is:
(A) Malunion
(B) Delayed union
(C) Non union
(D) Nerve injury

Answer: (A)

303. All are true regarding Clavicular fracture except:
(A) May be caused by a fall on to the outstretched arm
(B) Commonly occurs between the insertions of the caraco-Clavicular and the costoClavicular ligaments
(C) May jeopardize blood supply to the overlying skin
(D) Usually requires useful reduction

Answer: (D)

304. Fracture neck Humerus is common in:
(A) Elderly woman
(B) Young lady
(C) Elderly man
(D) All of these

Answer: (A)

305. In fracture surgical neck of humerus, the following nerve injury is common:
(A) Axillary
(B) Radial
(C) Ulnar
(D) Median
(E) Musculocutaneous

Answer: (A)

306. Treatment of choice for fracture neck of humerus is a 70 year old male:
(A) Analgesic with arm sling
(B) U-slab
(C) Arthroplasty
(D) Open reduction – Internal fixation

Answer: (A)

307. Treatment with fracture neck of humerus in a lady will be:
(A) Triangular sling
(B) Hemiarthroplasty
(C) Chest arm bandage
(D) Internal fixation

Answer: (A)

308. A 65 year female presents with impacted fracture surgical neck of humerus. Treatment of choice is:
(A) Arthroplasty
(B) Arm-Chest strapping
(C) Triangular sling
(D) Wait and watch

Answer: (C)

309. Treatment of choice in 65 year old female with impacted # neck of humerus is:
(A) Triangular sling
(B) Arm chest strapping
(C) Arthroplasty
(D) Observation

Answer: (A)

310. Most common nerve involvement in fracture surgical neck humerus :
(A) Axillary nerve
(B) Radial nerve
(C) Ulnar nerve
(D) Median nerve

Answer: (A)

311. A boy fell down from a tree and has fracture of neck humerus. He cannot raise his arm because of the involvement of:
(A) Axillary nerve
(B) Supraspinatus nerve
(C) Musculocutaneous nerve
(D) Radial nerve

Answer: (A)

312. Which of the following movements will be affected if the greater tubercle of the humerus is lost:
(A) Abduction and lateral rotation
(B) Adduction and flexion
(C) Adduction and medial rotation
(D) Flexion and medial rotation

Answer: (A)

313. Hanging cast is sued in:
(A) # Femur
(B) # Radius
(C) # Tibia
(D) # humerus

Answer: (D)

314. In a fracture shaft humerus, which of the following complication requires immediate surgery?
(A) Compound fracture
(B) Nerve injury
(C) Brachial artery occlusion
(D) Comminuted fracture

Answer: (C)

315. The most important cause of Nonunion of fracture of humeral shaft is
(A) Comminuted fracture
(B) Compound (Open) fracture
(C) Overriding of fracture ends
(D) Distraction at fracture site
(E) Operative reduction

Answer: (D)

316. First to appear amongst the ossification centres about the elbow is:
(A) Radial Head
(B) Olecranon
(C) Lateral epicondyle
(D) Capitellum

Answer: (D)

317. Three point relationship is reversed in all, except
(A) # medial epicondyle
(B) # lateral epicondyle
(C) Supracondylar #
(D) Posterior elbow dislocation

Answer: (C)

318. Three bony point relationship is maintained in:
(A) Supracondylar # humerus
(B) Dislocation of elbow
(C) # Lateral condyle
(D) Intercondylar #

Answer: (A)

319. Three point relationship is lost in all, EXCEPT
(A) Fracture of lateral epicondyle
(B) Fracture of medial epicondyle
(C) Posterior dislocation of elbow
(D) Supracondylar fracture of humerus

Answer: (D)

320. Most common nerve involved in supracondylar fracture of humerus is:
(A) Radial nerve
(B) Ulnar nerve
(C) Median nerve
(D) Anterior interosseus nerve

Answer: (D)

321. Triangular relation of Elbow is maintained in
(A) Fracture ulna
(B) Anterior dislocation of Elbow
(C) Posterior dislocation of Elbow
(D) Supracondylar fracture

Answer: (A)

322. Increased intercondylar distance is seen in fracture of all except:
(A) Olecranon
(B) Medial epicondyle
(C) Lateral epicondyle
(D) Lateral condyle

Answer: (B)

323. 3 point symmetry is NOT disturbed in which fracture
(A) Fracture ulna only
(B) Fracture radius only
(C) Fracture of radius & ulna both bones of forearm
(D) Weak posterior capsule

Answer: (B)

324. Postero lateral anconeus triangle is formed by
(A) Head of radius, lateral epicondyle, medial epicondyle
(B) Head of radius, lateral epicondyle, olecranon
(C) Olecranon, medial epicondyle, neck of radius
(D) Neck of radius, head of radius, lateral epicondyle

Answer: (B)

325. All true regarding fracture lateral condyle humerus except:
(A) Salter Harris type IV injury
(B) Most common complication of surgically treated cases is cubitus valgus deformity
(C) Tardy ulnar nerve palsy occurs
(D) Cubitusvarus occur more commonly than valgus
(E) Open reduction & internal fixation

Answer: (C)

326. Fracture of lateral condyle of humerus seen in age group of
(A) 2- 3 years
(B) 3 – 5 years
(C) 5 – 15 years
(D) 15 – 25 years
(E) 35 – 45 years

Answer: (A)

327. “Cubitus – valgus” deformity is complication of:
(A) # Lateral condyle of humerus
(B) # Interconduylar of humerus
(C) # Of the olercranon
(D) # Head of the radius

Answer: (B)

328. Tardy ulnar nerve paly seen in
(A) Medial condyle # humerus
(B) Lateral condyle # humerus
(C) Supracondylar condyle # humerus
(D) Fracture shaft humerus

Answer: (B)

329. Tardy ulnar neuritis may be due to
(A) Advanced osteo arthritis of elbow
(B) Cubitus valgus deformity
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

330. A 12-year-old child presents with tingling sensation and numbness in the little finger and gives history of fracture in the elbow region 4 years back. The probable fracture is
(A) Lateral condyle fracture humerus
(B) Injury to ulnar nerve
(C) Supracondylar fracture humerus
(D) Dislocation of elbow

Answer: (C)

331. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy occur as a delayed sequel of
(A) Supracondylar fracture of humerus
(B) Posterior dislocation of elbow
(C) Fracture of lateral condyle of humerus in children
(D) Fracture of Olecranon

Answer: (A)

332. Tardy Ulnar nerve palsy is caused by
(A) Fracture lateral epicondyle of humerus
(B) Fracture medial epicondyle of humerus
(C) Elbow dislocation
(D) Supra condylar fracture of humerus

Answer: (D)

333. Which fracture requires open reduction in children?
(A) Fracture of both bones of forearm
(B) Epiphyseal separation of tibia
(C) Intercondylar fracture of femur
(D) Lateral condyle fracture of humerus

Answer: (C)

334. Open reduction in children is required for
(A) Fracture both bones of forearm
(B) Femoral condyles
(C) Lateral humeral condyle
(D) Distal tibial epiphysis

Answer: (B)

335. Which of the following is known for Non union in children, if left untreated?
(A) Inercondylar fracture of humerous
(B) Fracture shaft of humerus
(C) Fracture shaft of femur
(D) Fracture distal 1/3rd of tibia
(E) Fracture lateral condyle of humerus

Answer: (B)

336. A 6 year old child has an accident and had # elbow, after 4 years presented with tingling and numbness in the ulnar side of finger, fracture is
(A) supra condylar # humerus
(B) lateral condylar # humerus
(C) olecranon
(D) dislocation of elbow

Answer: (A)

337. “Cubitus-valgus” deformity is complication of:
(A) # Lateral condyle of humerus
(B) # Intercondylar of humerus
(C) # Of the olecranon
(D) # Head of the radius

Answer: (B)

338. A patient sustained injury to the upper limb 3 yrs back; he now presents with valgus deformity in the elbow and paresthesias over the medial border of the hand. The injury is likely to have seen:
(A) Supracondylar # humerus
(B) Lateral condyle # humerus
(C) Medial condyle # humerus
(D) Post dislocation of the humerus

Answer: (C, D)

339. Fracture lateral condyle of the humerus is a common injury in children. Which one of the following is the most ideal treatment for a displaced fracture lateral condyle of the humerus in a 7-year-old child?
(A) Open reduction and plaster immobilization
(B) Closed reduction and plaster immobilization
(C) Open reduction and internal fixation
(D) Excision of the fractured fragment

Answer: (C)

340. Growth disturbance, nonunion, elbow instability & late ulnar nerve palsy is commonly seen in
(A) Fracture supracondylar humerus
(B) Fracture medial condyle
(C) Fracture lateral condyle
(D) Fracture head radius

Answer: (C)

341. Medial epicondyle fracture results in injury to – nerve.
(A) Radial
(B) Median
(C) Ulnar
(D) Axillary

Answer: (A)

342. Most common associated injury of the fracture medial epicondyle:
(A) Elbow dislocation
(B) Monteggia fracture dislocation
(C) Fracture supracondylar humerus
(D) Vascular defecit

Answer: (A)

343. Suspected medial epicondylar fracture of humerus in a 4 year old child requires:
(A) X-ray both arms with elbow for comparison
(B) X-ray same limb only
(C) Examination under general anaesthesia
(D) POP in full flexed position

Answer: (D)

344. The most common injury in a 7 years old child due to fall on outstretched hand is
(A) Dislocation of shoulder
(B) Colle’s fracture
(C) Fracture of clavicle
(D) Supracondylar fracture of humerus

Answer: (C)

345. After falling from a height, a child lands on his fully out stretched hands. ON examination there is pain and swelling over his right elbow. Give your probable diagnosis:
(A) Fracture olecranon
(B) Post dislocation of elbow
(C) Supra condylar fracture of humerus
(D) Fracture both bones forearm

Answer: (C)

346. Most common elbow injury in adolescents is:
(A) Dislocation
(B) Physeal injury
(C) Supracondylar fracture
(D) Olecranon fracture

Answer: (A)

347. The most common elbow injury in children is
(A) Extension type of supracondylar fracture of humerus
(B) Dislocation of elbow
(C) Fracture lateral condyle of humerus
(D) Fracture medial epicondyle of humerus

Answer: (C)

348. In supracondylar fracture of humerus, the distal segment is often displaced to;
(A) Anteriorly
(B) Laterally
(C) Posterioly
(D) Medially

Answer: (C)

349. The most common type of supracondylar fracture is
(A) Neutral
(B) Flexion
(C) Extension
(D) Lateral

Answer: (D)

350. Fracture supracondylar fracture is usually caused by :
(A) Hyper flexion injury
(B) Axial rotation
(C) Extension injury
(D) Hyper extension injury

Answer: (A)

351. In flexion injuries causing supracondylar fractures, the distal fragment is often displaced to
(A) Anterior
(B) Posterior
(C) Medial
(D) Lateral

Answer: (D)

352. A 10-year-old boy presenting with a cubitusvarus deformity and a history of trauma 3 months back on clinical examination, has the preserved 3 bony point relationship of the elbow. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Old unreduced dislocation of elbow
(B) Non-union lateral condylar fracture of humerus
(C) Malunitedintercondylar fracture of humerus
(D) Malunited supracondylar fracture of humerus

Answer: (B)

353. The malunion of supracondylar fracture of the humerus most commonly leads to:
(A) Flexion deformity
(B) Cubitusvarus
(C) Cubitus valgus
(D) Extension deformity

Answer: (D)

354. Cabitusvarus is most commonly seen in
(A) Rickets
(B) Post inflammatory epiphyseal damage
(C) Fracture lateral condyle humerus
(D) Malunited supracondylar fracture

Answer: (B)

355. The most common deformity seen in supracondylar fracture of humerus is
(A) Inability to supinate and pronate
(B) Varus
(C) Valgus
(D) None
(E) Malunion with gunstock deformity

Answer: (E)

356. The most common complication of supracondylar fracture is
(A) Osteosarcoma
(B) Genu valgum
(C) Blood vessel injury
(D) Volkman’sischaemic contracture
(E) Malunion with gun stock deformity

Answer: (C)

357. Gunstock deformity is due to
(A) Fracture of 1st metacarpal bone
(B) Fracture of lower end of radius
(C) Supracondylar fracture of humerus
(D) Lateral condylar fracture of humerus

Answer: (A)

358. Osteotomy done for mal united supracondylar fracture is:
(A) French
(B) Shanz’s
(C) McMurry’s
(D) McAlister

Answer: (E)

359. The following fractures are known for Non-union except:
(A) Fracture of lower half of tibia
(B) Fracture of neck of femur
(C) Fracture of scaphoid
(D) Fracture of patella
(E) Supracondylar fracture of humerus

Answer: (D)

360. All of the following are complications of supracondylar fracture of humerus in children, except:
(A) Compartment syndrome
(B) Myositis ossificans
(C) Malunion
(D) Non Union

Answer: (C)

361. Least common complication of closed supracondylar fracture in a 8 year old child is:
(A) Cubitus valgus
(B) Cubitusvarus
(C) Nonunion
(D) Vessel injury

Answer: (D)

362. Which complication may arise after supra-condylar fracture?
(A) Median nerve injury
(B) Damage to brainchild artery
(C) Cubitusvarus
(D) All of the above

Answer: (C)

363. Complications of supracondylar fracture of humerus are all except:
(A) Elbow stiffness
(B) Mal union
(C) Non union
(D) Myositis ossification
(E) Gun-Stock deformity

Answer: (D)

364. In supra condylar fracture of humerus, the nerve most commonly injured is
(A) Radial nerve
(B) Ulnar nerve
(C) Median nerve
(D) Auxillary nerve

Answer: (C)

365. Tardy unlar nerve palsy caused by:
(A) Supracondylar #
(B) Lateral condylar #
(C) Olecranon #
(D) Intercondylar
(E) Distal radio-ulnar dislocation

Answer: (B, A)

366. All of the following are associated with supracondylar fracture of humerus, EXCEPT?
(A) It is uncommon after 15 yrs of age
(B) Extension type fracture is more common than the flexion type
(C) Cubitusvarus deform commonly results following malunion
(D) Ulnar nerve is most commonly involved.

Answer: (D)

367. The true statement regarding supracondylar fracture of the Humerus in children
(A) Admission to hospital is essential following reduction
(B) It is due to a fall on the point of the elbow
(C) It require open reduction
(D) It is usually compound

Answer: (A)

368. A10-year-old boy presenting with a cubitusvarus deformity and a history of trauma 3 months back on clinical examination, has the preserved 3 bony pint relationship of the elbow. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Old unreduced dislocation of elbow
(B) Non-union lateral condylar fracture of humerus
(C) Malunitedintercondylar fracture of humerus
(D) Malunited supracondylar fracture of humerus

Answer: (D)

369. The most common cause of Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture (V.I.C) in a child is:
(A) Intercondylar fracture of humerus
(B) Fracture both bone of forearm
(C) Fracture lateral condyle of humerus
(D) Supracondylar fracture of humerus

Answer: (D)

370. Vascular injury during childhood is common in fracture of:
(A) Lower end of humerus
(B) Lower end radius
(C) Upper end of femur
(D) Upper end of radius

Answer: (A)

371. The first again of Volkman’s ischemia is:
(A) Paresthesia
(B) Pain on passive extension of fingers
(C) Pain on active extension of fingers
(D) Swelling of fingers

Answer: (B)

372. The most important sign in Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture is:
(A) Pain
(B) Pallor
(C) Numbness
(D) Obliteration of radial pulse

Answer: (A)

373. Volkman’sischaemic contracture mostly involves
(A) Flexor digitorumsuperficialis
(B) Pronator teres
(C) Flexor digitorumprofundus
(D) Flexor carpi radialislongus

Answer: (C)

374. Most common muscle involved in volkmann’s ischemic contracture is
(A) Flexor pollicislongus
(B) Flexor-digitorumprofunds
(C) Flexor-indicis
(D) Abductor policis

Answer: (B)

375. EarliestIschaemic feature after reduction of Supracondylar fracture is
(A) Coldness
(B) Pain
(C) Swelling
(D) Tingling

Answer: (B)

376. The most common cause of anterior compartment syndrome is
(A) Fractures
(B) Post ischaemic swelling
(C) Superficial injury to muscles
(D) Operative trauma

Answer: (A)

377. Earliest symptom of Volkmann’s Ischaemic is
(A) Pain in flexor muscles
(B) Absence of pulse
(C) Pain on passive extension
(D) Cyanosis of limb

Answer: (C)

378. One of the following is associated with Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture
(A) Supracondylar fracture of humerus
(B) Fracture shaft humerus
(C) Intercondylar fracture of humerus
(D) Dislocation of elbow

Answer: (A)

379. In Volkman’s ischemia, surgery should be done;
(A) Immediately
(B) After 6 hours
(C) 24 hours
(D) 72 hours

Answer: (A)

380. A patient presenting with Volkmann’s Ischaemia all of the following are done except
(A) Split open the plaster of Paris cst and bandage
(B) Decompression by fasciotomy
(C) Exploration
(D) Sumpathetic ganglion blockade

Answer: (D)

381. Volkmann’s contracture:
(A) Is localized thickening of palmar fascia
(B) Develops at the ankle in a case of chronic venous ulcer
(C) Follows Ischemia of the forearm
(D) Is due to excessive scarring of the skin of the arm following a burn.

Answer: (C)

382. Volkmann’s Ischaemic Contracture is due to
(A) Injury to ulnar and median nerve
(B) Injury to median nerve alone
(C) Contracture of the palmar fascia
(D) Ischaemic vascular injury to the muscle
(E) All of the above

Answer: (D)

383. In Volkmann’s ischemia, surgery should be done within:
(A) 24 hours
(B) 36 hours
(C) 1 hour
(D) 6 hours

Answer: (C)

384. Volkmann’s ischameic contracture is commonly due to
(A) Tight
(B) palster
(C) Both
(D) None

Answer: (C)

385. What is true about compartment syndrome:
(A) Loss of pulses is reliable sign
(B) Pain on passive stretch is reliable sign
(C) Interstitial stretch is reliable sign
(D) Fasciotomy is earliest management

Answer: (B, D)

386. Volkmann’s Ischaemic contracture is due to
(A) Arterial injury
(B) Venous injury
(C) Nerve injury
(D) Increase of compartment pressure in the limb

Answer: (D)

387. All are relevant in compartment syndrome except:
(A) Fasciotomy
(B) Splitting of tight pop cast
(C) Reexploration
(D) Exercise

Answer: (D)

388. Which of the following does not involve nerve damage
(A) GuillianBarre syndrome
(B) Erb’s paralysis
(C) Volkmann’s paralysis
(D) Neurotmesis

Answer: (C)

389. The most common nerve involved in Volkamann’sischaemic contracture of forearm includes
(A) Radial
(B) Ulnar
(C) Median
(D) Posterior interosseous

Answer: (C)

390. All are correct regarding compartment syndrome
(A) Pulse is reliable indicator
(B) Pain on passive stretching
(C) Interstitial pressure > capillary pressure
(D) Hyperesthesia
(E) Fasciotomy is the earliest treatment

Answer: (A)

391. Myositis ossificans is most common around the ____ joint
(A) Knee
(B) Elbow
(C) Wrist
(D) Hip

Answer: (B)

392. Treatment of Acute Myositis Ossificans is
(A) Active mobilization
(B) Passive mobilization
(C) Infra Red Therapy
(D) Immobilization

Answer: (D)

393. Myositis ossificans is due to:
(A) Ossification
(B) New bone formation
(C) Ossification of subperiostealhaemoatoma
(D) Migration osteoblasts to haematoma
(E) All of the above

Answer: (E)

394. Treatment of choice in Acute myositis ossificans is:
(A) Immobilization of elbow
(B) Short wave daithermy
(C) Passive movements of arm
(D) Active exercises

Answer: (A)

395. Following are recognized F/O Myositis ossificans EXCEPT:
(A) It is a post traumatic ossification
(B) It follows either a posterior dislocation or a supracondylar fracture of elbow joint
(C) The complication less likely in children
(D) Diagnosis is made with certainly by skiagraphy

Answer: (C)

396. In traumatic myositis ossificans, following are true except:
(A) Hydroxyapatite deposition
(B) Common in elbow injury
(C) Periosteal hematoma & leakage
(D) Injury of tendon over muscle

Answer: (A, D)

397. In myositis ossificans mature bone is seen:
(A) At periphery
(B) In center
(C) Whole muscle mass
(D) In the joint capsule

Answer: (A)

398. Radiological feature differentiating myositis ossificans from bone tumor is:
(A) Peripheral ossificans
(B) Central lucency
(C) Discontinuity with the bone
(D) None

Answer: (C)

399. Which of the following is not true about Myositis ossificans?
(A) Associated with muscle tendon rupture
(B) Inflammation around the ruptured muscle deposition of hydroxyapatite crystals with
(C) Common in supracondylar fracture
(D) Ossification of musculo-periosteal haematoma

Answer: (A)

400. False about myositis ossificans progressive (child with heterotopic ossifications) is
(A) Pneumonia is common
(B) Life longevity is normal
(C) Most common site involved is the spine
(D) Onset is before 6 year

Answer: (B)

401. The basic pathology in Myositis Ossificans Progressive is in
(A) Muscle fibers
(B) Serum chemistry
(C) Body collagen
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

402. A person of 60 years age is suffering from myositis ossificans progressive. The usual cause of death would be:
(A) Nutritional deficiency
(B) Bed sore
(C) Lung disease
(D) Septicemia

Answer: (C)

403. All are true regarding myositis ossificans progressive except
(A) Usually involve childs
(B) Progressive form of normal myositis
(C) Respiratory problems
(D) Ankylosis
(E) Form normal bone

Answer: (B)

404. A patient presents with heterotopic ossification around the knee joint. The laboratory investigation of choice in him is:
(A) Alkaline phosphatase
(B) Serum calcium
(C) Serum potassium
(D) Serum acid phosphates

Answer: (A)

405. A child is spinned around by holding his hand by his father. While doing this the child started crying and does not allow his father to touch his elbow. The diagnosis is:
(A) Pulled elbow
(B) Radial head dislocation
(C) Annular ligament tear
(D) Fracture olecranon process

Answer: (A)

406. Pulled Elbow is:
(A) Disarticulation of elbow
(B) Subluxation of distal radio-ulnar joint
(C) Subluxation of proximal radio ulnar joint
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

407. Pulled elbow is
(A) A sprain of extensor tendons
(B) Dislocation of head of radius
(C) Fracture of lateral condyle of humerus
(D) Dislocation of elbow

Answer: (B)

408. A 30 y ears old male comes to ortho emergency with his 3 years old daughter who is crying. The father gives the history of child being swung by forearm. The most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Supracondylar humerus fracture
(B) Elbow dislocation
(C) Stress fracture
(D) Pulled elbow

Answer: (D)

409. A one and a half year old child holding her father’s hand slipped and fell but did not let go of her father’s hand. After that she continued to cry and hold the forearm in pronated position and refused to move the affected extremity. Which of the following management at this stage is most appropriate?
(A) Supinate the forearm
(B) Examine the child under GA
(C) Elevate the lib and observe
(D) Investigate for osteomyelitis

Answer: (A)

410. A 3 year old girl has developed painful elbow after being jerked by the forearms. The next thing to be done is:
(A) Cuff & collar sling immobilization.
(B) Raduction setting and AEPOP application
(C) X-ray and elevation of limb in posterior slab
(D) Fully supinate the forearm.

Answer: (D)

411. Excision of head of radius in a child should not be done because
(A) It produces instability of elbow joint
(B) It leads to secondary Osteo arthritis of elbow
(C) It causes subluxation of inferior radio-ulnar joint
(D) It cause myositis ossificans.

Answer: (C)

412. If head of the radius is removed, it will result in
(A) Lengthening of limb
(B) Valgus deformity
(C) Varus deformity
(D) No deformity

Answer: (B)

413. OR is not required in which fracture:-
(A) Patella
(B) Outer 1/3 of radius
(C) Condyle of humerus
(D) Olecranon displaced #

Answer: (B)

414. An oblique # of olecranon. If displaced proximally. The treatment is
(A) Excision &resuturing
(B) Tension band wiring
(C) Elbow is imbolised by cast
(D) Open reduction & external fixation

Answer: (B)

415. In fracture of the olecranon, excision of the proximal fragment is indicated in all of the following situations except:
(A) Old ununited fractures
(B) Non-articular fractures
(C) Fracture extending to coronoid process
(D) Elderly patient

Answer: (C)

416. Moneteggia fracture is fracture of
(A) Lower 1/3rd of radius
(B) Upper 1/3rd of radius
(C) Lower 1/3rd ulna
(D) Upper 1/3rd of Ulna

Answer: (D)

417. In Monteggia fracture, which is true about ulnar fracture and head of radius
(A) Both ulnar fracture and head of radius is displaced posteriorly
(B) Both ulnar fracture and head of radius is displaced anteriorly
(C) Ulnar fractures is posteriorly and head of radius is displaced anteriorly
(D) Ulnar fracture is anteriorly and head of radius is displaced posteriorly

Answer: (B)

418. Posterior interosseous nerve is injured in
(A) Posterior dislocation of elbow
(B) Monteggia fracture dislocation
(C) Reversed monteggia fracture dislocation
(D) Supracondylar fracture of humerus

Answer: (B)

419. Galeazzi fracture is fracture of:
(A) Upper end of ulna
(B) Lower end of ulna
(C) Upper end of radius
(D) Lower end of radius

Answer: (D)

420. Galeazzi fracture is
(A) Supracondylar fracture of the humerus
(B) Fracture of the distal radius with inferior radio ulnar joint dislocation
(C) Fracture of radius in the proximal site and dislocation of the elbow
(D) Fracture of the radial head

Answer: (B)

421. The basic principle in the treatment of fractures of both bones of the forearm is to
(A) Reduce angulation of radius and ulna
(B) Restore the normal relationship of radius and ulna
(C) Immobilize the elbow only
(D) Prevent over riding of fragments
(E) All of the above

Answer: (A, B)

422. The treatment of choice of fracture of radius and ulna in a an adult is:
(A) Plaster for 4 weeks
(B) Closed reduction and calipers
(C) Only plates
(D) Kuntscher nails

Answer: (C)

423. Fracture of both bones forearm at same level, position of the arm in plaster is
(A) Full supination
(B) 10 degree supination
(C) Full pronation
(D) Mid-prone

Answer: (D)

424. A colles fracture is
(A) Common in adolescence
(B) A fracture about the ankle joint
(C) Common in elderly women
(D) A fracture of head of the radius

Answer: (C)

425. Deformities present in colles fracture is/are:
(A) Ventral tilt
(B) Dorsalttilt
(C) Ventral displacement
(D) Dorsal displacement
(E) Shortening

Answer: (B, D, E)

426. Following displacement seen in Colle’s fracture EXCEPT:
(A) Dorsal tilt
(B) Ventral tilt
(C) Dorsal displacement
(D) Lateral displacement

Answer: (B)

427. Seen in Colles # A/E:
(A) Proximal shift
(B) Dorsal tilt
(C) Lateral tilt
(D) Pronation

Answer: (D)

428. About displacement of distal fragment in colles fracture, true is:
(A) Anteriorly and medially
(B) Posteriorly and laterally
(C) Anteriorly and laterally
(D) Posteriorly and medially

Answer: (B)

429. ‘Dinner fork deformity’ is present in case of
(A) Smith’s fracture
(B) Student’s elbow
(C) Colles’ fracture
(D) All of these

Answer: (C)

430. In colles fracture not seen is:
(A) Proximal impaction
(B) Lateral rotation
(C) Dorsal angulation
(D) Medial rotation

Answer: (D)

431. Position of wrist in cast of colle’s fracture is:
(A) Palmar deviation & pronation
(B) Palmar deviation & supination
(C) Dorsal deviation & pronation
(D) Dorsal deviation & supination

Answer: (A)

432. Most common complication of Colles # :
(A) Malunion
(B) Avascular necorsis
(C) Finger stiffness
(D) Rupture of EPL tendon

Answer: (C)

433. Most common complication of colle’s fracture is:
(A) Stiffness of fingers
(B) Sudeck’s dystrophy
(C) Nonunion
(D) Tendon rupture

Answer: (A)

434. The commonest complication of Colle’s fracture is:
(A) Malunion
(B) Non-union
(C) Sudeck’sosteodystrophy
(D) Stiffness of fingers

Answer: (D)

435. Commonest complication of Colles’ fracture is:
(A) Nonunion
(B) Malunion
(C) Vascular injury
(D) Sudeck’sosteodystrophy

Answer: (B)

436. All of the following can be complications of a malunitedColles fracture except:
(A) Rupture of flexor policies longus tendon
(B) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)
(C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
(D) Carpal instability

Answer: (A)

437. Rupture of extensor pollicislongus occurs four weeks after:
(A) Colle’s fracture
(B) Radial styloid fracture
(C) Smith’s fracture
(D) Scaphoid fracture
(E) All of these

Answer: (A)

438. Which tendon gets involved in Colle’s fracture?
(A) Abductor pollicislongus
(B) Extensor pllicisbrevis
(C) Extensor pollicislongus
(D) All the above

Answer: (C)

439. Complications of Colle’s fracture include all of the following except:
(A) Malunion
(B) Nonunion
(C) Sudeck’sosteodystrophy
(D) Rupture of EPL tendon

Answer: (B)

440. Complications of Colles’ fracture are all except
(A) Malunion
(B) Non union
(C) Sudeck’s dystrophy
(D) Rupture of extensor policislongus

Answer: (B)

441. Not a complication of Colles’ fracture
(A) Stiffness of wrist
(B) Stiffness of shoulder
(C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
(D) Wrist drop

Answer: (D)

442. The complication of Colles’ fracture is
(A) Radial nerve palsy
(B) Stiffness of wrist joint
(C) Ulnar nerve palsy
(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

443. Complications of fracture (#) radius are:
(A) Volmann ischemic contracture
(B) Myositis ossificans
(C) Infection
(D) Tendon rupture
(E) Angiodysplasia

Answer: (A, B, C, D)

444. A 50 year old lady sprained her ankle2 months back from which she made a steady recover. 2 months after the injury she gradually developed severe pain in her right ankle with significant limitation of ankle movement. Clinical examination reveals edema and shiny skin. What is the likely diagnosis?
(A) Fibromyalgia
(B) Complex Regional pain syndrome Type I (CRPS I)
(C) Complex Regional pain syndrome Type II (CRPS II)
(D) Peripheral Neuropathy

Answer: (B)

445. A lady presents with swelling of hand with shiny skin. She has a history of fracture radius and kept on POP cast for 4 weeks after which she develops this. Give the most likely diagnosis
(A) Myositis ossification
(B) Rupture of external pollicslongus tendon
(C) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
(D) Malunion

Answer: (C)

446. Sudeck’s atrophy is associated with:
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Osteophyte formation
(C) Osteopenia
(D) Osteochondritis

Answer: (C)

447. Sudeck’s atrophy is more common in:
(A) MalunitedColles’ fracture
(B) Malunited fracture femur
(C) Pott’s fracture
(D) Carries spine

Answer: (A)

448. Stellate ganglion block is useful in:
(A) Sudeckosteodystrophy
(B) Compound palmar ganglion
(C) Tenosynovitis
(D) Osteoarthritis of first CMC joint

Answer: (A)

449. Regarding sudeck’sosteosdystrophy all are true except
(A) Burning pain
(B) Stiffness & swelling
(C) Erythematous & cyanotic discolouration
(D) Self limiting& good prognosis

Answer: (D)

450. Management of Smith’s fracture is
(A) Open reduction and fixation
(B) Plaster cast with forearm in pronation
(C) Closed reduction with below-elbow cast
(D) Above-elbow cast with forearm in supination

Answer: (D)

451. Barton’s fracture of the wrist
(A) Involves radio carpal subluxation
(B) Is a severe form of a colles’ fracture
(C) Is often treated by open reduction and internal fixation
(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

452. All are injuries of lower end of radius except
(A) Smith’s fracture
(B) Colle’s fracture
(C) Night stick fracture
(D) Barton’s fracture

Answer: (C)

453. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding fracture of the scaphoid
(A) It is the most commonly fractured carpal bone
(B) Persistent tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox is highly suggestive of fracture
(C) Immediate X-ray of hand may not reveal fracture line
(D) Mal union is a frequent complication

Answer: (D)

454. Most common site of scaphoid fracture is
(A) Waist
(B) Proximal fragment
(C) Distal fragment
(D) Tilting of the lunate

Answer: (A)

455. Main risk in fracture Scaphoid is
(A) Non union
(B) Malunion
(C) Delayed union
(D) Avascular necrosis
(E) Carpal tunnel syndrome

Answer: (D)

456. Complication of fracture scaphoid is
(A) Avascular necrosis of distal part
(B) Injury to radial artery
(C) Injury to radial nerve
(D) Avascular necrosis of proximal part

Answer: (D)

457. The proximal fragment of scaphoid after fracture is predisposed for Avascular Necrosis because:
(A) Retrograde blood flow to the proximal fragment
(B) Difficulty in immobilizing the proximal fragment
(C) Fracture configuration of the proximal fragment is usually comminuted
(D) Proximal Fragment articulates with the radius

Answer: (A)

458. Avascular necrosis of bone is most commonly seen in
(A) Calcaneus
(B) Cervical spine
(C) Scaphoid
(D) Scapula

Answer: (C)

459. The best radiological view for fracture scaphoid is:
(A) AP
(B) PA
(C) Lateral
(D) Oblique

Answer: (D)

460. Avascular necrosis of bone is most common in
(A) Scapula
(B) Scaphoid
(C) Calcaneus
(D) Cervical spine

Answer: (B)

461. Oblique view is required to diagnose fracture of
(A) Capitate
(B) Scaphoid
(C) Navicular
(D) Hamate

Answer: (B)

462. Carpal bone which fracture commonly:
(A) Scaphoid
(B) Lunate
(C) Hammate
(D) Pisciform

Answer: (A)

463. A patient reported with a history of fall on an outstretched hand, complains of pain in the anatomical snuffbox and clinically no deformities visible. The diagnosis is:
(A) Colles’ fracture
(B) Lunate dislocation
(C) Barton’s fracture
(D) Scaphoid fracture

Answer: (D)

464. If an adolescent boy falls on a out-stretched hand, the most common bone to be injured is
(A) Fracture of lower end of radius
(B) Fracture of both bones of forearm
(C) Scaphoid fracture
(D) Supracondylar fracture of humerus

Answer: (C)

465. In Scaphoid fracture, important views are all except:
(A) AP
(B) Lateral
(C) Oblique
(D) Cone

Answer: (D)

466. Which of the following Scaphoid fracture is most prone to develop Avanscular necrosis?
(A) Fracture of waist of scaphoid
(B) Fracture of tubercle
(C) Fracture of distal pole
(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

467. Fracture scaphoid is usually seen in:
(A) Elderly male
(B) Elderly postmenopausal female
(C) Young active adult
(D) Children

Answer: (C)

468. In children fracture scaphoid is through rare but usually involves:
(A) Waist
(B) Proximal pole
(C) Neck
(D) Distal pole

Answer: (D)

469. 19 year old boy had a history of fall on out stretched hand while playing. He developed slight radial side pain and tenderness. On examination pressure along the axis of thumb is painful and x rays are normal.
(A) Fracture lower end radius
(B) Wrist sprain
(C) Scaphoid fracture
(D) Perilunate dislocation

Answer: (C)

470. In nonunion of scaphoid vascularized muscle pedicle graft is taken from.
(A) Pronator teris
(B) Brachioradialis
(C) Pronator quadratus
(D) Extensor pollicis longus

Answer: (C)

471. Glass holding cast is also known as:
(A) Coll’s cast
(B) Smit’s cast
(C) Sarmento cast
(D) Scaphoid cast

Answer: (D)

472. In classical scaphoid cast position of wrist is:
(A) Dorsal & ulnar flexion
(B) Dorsal & radial flexion
(C) Ventral & ulnar flexion
(D) Ventral & radial flexion

Answer: (B)

473. Following are the common sites of Avascular necrosis, EXCEPT:
(A) Proximal half of scaphoid
(B) The body of talus
(C) Patella
(D) Head of the femur

Answer: (C)

474. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(A) Oedema & tenderness over the anatomical snuff box is the pathognomonic features of Fracture of the scaphoid
(B) Normally the radial styloid is 1/2” lower than the ulnar
(C) Dinner fork deformity is characteristic of Colle’s fracture
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

475. Internal fixation is probably needed in all of the following except
(A) Fracture condyle of humerus
(B) Fracture neck of femur
(C) Fracture of Olecranon
(D) Fracture of scaphoid

Answer: (D)

476. The most common nerve involvement is dislocation of Lunate is
(A) Median nerve
(B) Anterior interosseus
(C) Posterior interosseus
(D) Median nerve

Answer: (A)

477. Which carpal bone fracture causes median nerve involvement?
(A) Scaphoid
(B) Lunate
(C) Trapezium
(D) Trapezoid

Answer: (B)

478. The commonly inured carpal bone next to scaphoid is
(A) Trapeium
(B) Trapezoid
(C) Lunate
(D) Capitate
(E) Hamate

Answer: (A)

479. Bennett’s fracture is dislocation of base of _____ metacarpal:
(A) 4th
(B) 3rd
(C) 2nd
(D) 1st

Answer: (D)

480. The term Bennett’s fracture is used to describe
(A) Fracture-dislocation of metacarpophalangeal joint of thumb
(B) Interphalangeal fracture dislocation of thumb
(C) Anterior marginal fracture of distal end of radius
(D) Fracture dislocation of trapezometacarpal joint

Answer: (D)

481. A Bennett’s fracture is difficult to maintain in a reduced position mainly because of the pull of the
(A) Flexor pollicislongus
(B) Flexor pollicisbrevis
(C) Extensor pollicisbrevis
(D) Abductor pollicislongus

Answer: (D)

482. A Bennet’s fracture is difficult to maintain in reduced position because of the pull of
(A) Extensor pollicislongus
(B) Extensor pollicisbrevis
(C) Abductor pollicislongus
(D) Abductor pollicisbrevis

Answer: (C)

483. During fixation of Bennett’s fracture, which muscle hinder it
(A) Extensor pollicisbrevis
(B) Flexor pollicisbrevis
(C) Flexor pollicislongus
(D) Abductor pollicislongus

Answer: (D)

484. A cricketer got injured while holding a catch, following which he complained of pain over the base of thumb. Which structure is most likely to be injured.
(A) Volar plate
(B) Extensor pollicislongus
(C) Abductor pillicislongus
(D) Ulnar collateral ligament

Answer: (D)

485. Game Keeper’s thumb is
(A) Ulnar collateral
(B) Radial collateral ligament injury of MCP joint
(C) Radial collateral ligament injury of CMC joint
(D) Ulnar collateral ligament injury of CMC joint

Answer: (A)

486. Mallet finger is
(A) Avulsion fracture of extensor tendon of distal phalanx
(B) Fracture of distal phalanx
(C) Fracture of middle phalanx
(D) Fracture of proximal phalanx

Answer: (A)

487. Avulsion of extensor tendon gives rise to
(A) Mallet finger
(B) Dupuytren’s contracture
(C) Trigger finger
(D) Swan neck deformity

Answer: (A)

488. In hand surgery which area is called no man’s land
(A) Proximal phalanx
(B) Distal phalanx
(C) Between distal phalanx crease and proximal phalanx
(D) Wrist

Answer: (C)

489. Middle palmar space ends distally
(A) Along the digital sheaths
(B) Into the flexor tendon sheaths
(C) Into the web space
(D) By mixing with the superficial palmer space

Answer: (C)

490. In pelvis fracture, the amount of blood loss is around
(A) 1-4 units
(B) 2-4 units
(C) 2-6 units
(D) 4-8 units

Answer: (D)

491. If a patient with a suspected fracture of the pelvis has some bleeding from the urethra and is unable to pass urine
(A) He should be encouraged to pass urine after being given antibiotics and analgesics
(B) He should be immediately catheterized in the ward
(C) A hot water bottle should be given followed by injection of carbachol
(D) He should be prepared for surgery and catheterization attempted in the O.T.

Answer: (D)

492. Jumper’s fracture is seen in:
(A) Calcaneum
(B) Tibia
(C) Pelvis
(D) Neck femur

Answer: (C)

493. Open book and bucket handle injuries are seen in:
(A) Spine
(B) Pelvis
(C) Femur
(D) Humerus

Answer: (B)

494. True about Crescent fracture is:
(A) Anteroposterior instability with rotational stability
(B) Diastasis of pubis with pubic rami fracture
(C) Antero-posterior compression is the mechanism of injury
(D) Fracture of the iliac bone with sacroiliac disruption

Answer: (D)

495. Late complication of Acetabular fracture
(A) Avascular necrosis of head of femur
(B) Avascular necrosis of lilac crest
(C) Fixed deformity of the hip joint
(D) Secondary osteoarthritis of hip joint

Answer: (D)

496. All of the following areas are commonly involved sites in pelvic fracture except:
(A) Pubic rami.
(B) Alae of ileum.
(C) Acetabula
(D) Ischialtuberosities.

Answer: (D)

497. Kocher Langenbeck approach for emergency acetabular fixation is done in all except:
(A) Open fracture
(B) Progressive sciatic nerve injury
(C) Recurrent dislocation inspite of closed reduction and traction
(D) Morel-Lavallee lesion

Answer: (D)

498. Emergency treatment of acetabular # area ll except:
(A) Recurrent dislocations despite fixation with traction
(B) Open acetabular fracture
(C) Progressive aciatic nerve involvement
(D) Morel-Lavallee lesion

Answer: (D)

499. Which is not true about Langenbeckkocher operation?
(A) Adequate exposal of posterior segment
(B) Anterior segment is not Visualized adequately
(C) Superior exposure is very adequate
(D) Sciatic nerve injury in 10 percent in the cases

Answer: (C)

500. Main blood supply to the head and neck of femur comes from
(A) Lateral circumflex femoral Artery
(B) Medial circumflex femoral Artery
(C) Artery of LigamentumTeres
(D) Popliteal Artery

Answer: (B)

501. An elderly woman was admitted with a fracture of the neck of right femur which failed to unite. On examination an avascular necrosis of the head of femur was noted. The condition would have resulted most probably from the damage to:
(A) Superior gluteal artery
(B) Inferior gluteal artery
(C) Acetabular branch of obturator
(D) Retinacular branches of circumflex femoral arteries

Answer: (D)

502. Pauvel’s angle is
(A) Neck shaft angle of femur
(B) The difference between neck shaft angle between two femurs of a patient
(C) Formed by joining a line extended from fracture line of femur neck to an arbitrary line depiciting the horizontal plane
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

503. Garden’s classification is applicable to
(A) Intertrochanteric fracture
(B) Fracture neck of femur
(C) Epiphyseal separation
(D) Posterior dislocation of hip

Answer: (B)

504. Garden – I fractures are also known as
(A) Complete fracture with out displacement
(B) Complete fracture with minimal (partial) displacement
(C) Complete fracture with full displacement
(D) Valgus impaction fractures

Answer: (D)

505. In fracture neck femur all the trabeculae of pelvis and femur are in alignment in which stage:
(A) Stage I
(B) Stage II
(C) Stage III
(D) Stage IV

Answer: (B)

506. Increase in Pauwel’s angle indicate
(A) Good prognosis
(B) Impaction
(C) More chances of displacement
(D) Trabecular alignment disrupted

Answer: (C)

507. A 60 year old female lands up in emergency with history of fall trauma, the attitude of limb is extension and external rotation, the most probable diagnosis is
(A) Intra capsular # neck of femur
(B) Posterior dislocation of hip
(C) Intutrochanteric #
(D) Acetabulam #

Answer: (A)

508. A woman aged 60 years suffers a fall; her lower limb is extended and externally rotated; likely diagnosis is:
(A) Neck of femur #
(B) Intertrochanteric femur #
(C) Postr dislocation of hip
(D) Anterior dislocation of hip

Answer: (A)

509. 65-year-old lady falls from height. On examination the leg is extended and externally rotated. Diagnosis is
(A) Fracture of acetabulum
(B) Intertrochanteric fracture
(C) Neck femur fracture
(D) Posterior dislocation of hip

Answer: (C)

510. The commonest hip injury in the elderly patients is:
(A) Stress #
(B) Extracapsular #
(C) Impacted # neck of femur
(D) Sub capital capsular fracture neck of femur

Answer: (B)

511. Concerning fractures of the neck of the femur which statement is considered now to be incorrect
(A) It is common in elderly women
(B) It can occur in young adults due to fatigue
(C) It can occur in young adults following severe violence applied in the long axis of the femur
(D) The bone fractures in an elderly woman because the falls.

Answer: (C)

512. 80 years old female after fall developed inability to walk with external rotation deformity on examination SLR is not possible and broadening of trochanter is present. The possible diagnosis is:
(A) # Neck femur
(B) # Inter trochanteric femur
(C) # Subtrochanteric femur
(D) # Greater trochanter

Answer: (B)

513. A 60-year-old man fell in bathroom and was unable to stand on right buttock region ecchymosis with external rotation of the led and lateral border of foot touching the bed. The most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Extra capsular fracture neck of femur
(B) Anterior dislocation of hip
(C) Intra capsular fracture neck of femur
(D) Posterior dislocation of hip

Answer: (A)

514. Features of fracture neck of femur includes
(A) Flexion at hip and lateral rotation
(B) Flexion at hip abduction
(C) Shortening and lateral rotation
(D) Shortening and flexion

Answer: (C)

515. Occult fracture of neck femur are best diagnosed by:
(A) Bone scan
(B) MRI
(C) X-Ray
(D) CT scan

Answer: (B)

516. An old lady had a history of fall in bathroom once and couldn’t move. Afterwards, she had led in externally rotated position. There was tenderness in Scarp’s triangle and limb movement could not seen done due to pain. No hip fracture was seen on X-ray. Next step
(A) MRI
(B) Repeat X-ray after one week
(C) Joint aspiration
(D) Give analgesic and manipulate

Answer: (A)

517. Nonunion is a very common complication of intracapsular fractures of the neck of femur. Which of the following is not a very important cause for the same?
(A) Inadequate immobilization
(B) Inadequate blood supply
(C) Inhibitory effect of synovial fluid
(D) Stress at fracture site due to muscle spasm

Answer: (D)

518. All of the following can occure as complication of fracture of the neck of femur except:
(A) Shortening
(B) Non-union
(C) Mal-union
(D) Avascular necrosis

Answer: (C)

519. Commonest complication of extra capsular intertrochanteric fracture of neck of femur is:
(A) Non union
(B) Ischemic necrosis
(C) Malunion
(D) Pulmonary complications

Answer: (C)

520. In Which one of the following femoral fractures is Avascular necrosis common?
(A) Pertrochanteric
(B) Transcervical
(C) Sub-Trochanteric
(D) Shaft of femur

Answer: (B)

521. Avascular necrosis of head of femur occurs commonly at:
(A) Transcervical region
(B) Trochanteric region
(C) Subcapital region
(D) Subchondral region

Answer: (C)

522. The most common complication of intracapsular fracture neck of femur is
(A) Mal union
(B) Osteoarthritis
(C) Non-Union
(D) Shortening

Answer: (C)

523. Commonest complication of Trans-cervical fracture of femur is
(A) Non union
(B) Malunion
(C) Avascular necrosis
(D) All of the above

Answer: (C)

524. AVN is seen in which type of # of femur
(A) Interochantric #
(B) Subcapital #
(C) Trans cervical #
(D) Basal #

Answer: (B, C, D)

525. The most common site of fracture neck of femur that causes avascular necrosis is
(A) Sub-capital
(B) Intertrochanteric
(C) Trans-cervical
(D) Basal

Answer: (A)

526. Best treatment for fracture neck femur in a 65 year old lady is
(A) POP cast
(B) Gleotomy
(C) Bone grafting and compression
(D) Hemireplacementarthroplasty

Answer: (D)

527. 65 year old man presented with fracture neck femur 3 days after injury, treatment of choice is:
(A) Multiple screw fixation
(B) Mc-Murray osteotomy
(C) Hemi-arthroplasty
(D) Total hip replacement

Answer: (C)

528. A 50 years male with fracture neck of femur comes after 3 days, treatment of choice is
(A) hemiarthroplasty
(B) total hip replacement
(C) hipspika
(D) CR & IF

Answer: (D)

529. Treatment of choice in fracture neck of femur in a 40-year old male presenting after 2 days is
(A) Hemiarthroplasty
(B) Closed reduction and Internal fixation by cancellous screws
(C) Closed reduction and Internal fixation by Austin Moore pins
(D) Plaster and rest

Answer: (B)

530. Treatment of choice for one week old fracture neck femur at 65 years age is:
(A) Hemi-replacement arthroplasty
(B) Closed reduction and internal fixation by cannulatedcancellous screws
(C) Closed reduction and internal fixation by Austin more pins
(D) Total hip replacement

Answer: (B)

531. In the case of 65 year old person with fracture neck of femur the treatment of choice is
(A) Closed reduction
(B) Closed reduction with internal fixation
(C) Open reduction
(D) Replacement of head and neck of the femur with a prosthesis

Answer: (B)

532. In 65 year old male with history of fracture neck of femur 6 weeks old, treatment of choice
(A) SP nailing
(B) Mc. Murray’s osteotomy
(C) Hemiarthroplasty
(D) None

Answer: (C)

533. The treatment of choice of a 4 weeks old Femoral neck fracture in a 55 years old man is
(A) Open reduction and internal fixation
(B) Mc Murray’s Osteotomy
(C) Hemi replacement arthroplasty
(D) Total hip replacement

Answer: (C)

534. In the case of a 70 year old lady with intra capsular fracture of the neck of femur, the ideal treatment would be
(A) Closed traction
(B) Hemiarthropalsty
(C) Internal fixation with nail
(D) Internal fixation with nail and plate

Answer: (B)

535. 3 days old intracapsular fracture neck of femur in a 50 year old patient is treated by
(A) POP hip spika
(B) Total hip replacement
(C) Cortical screw fixation
(D) Hemi replacement arthroplasty

Answer: (D)

536. Femoral neck fracture of three weeks old in an young adult should be best treated one of the following:
(A) Total hip replacement
(B) Reduction of fracture and femoral osteotomy with head
(C) Prosthetic replacement of femoral head
(D) Reduction of fracture and multiple pin or screw fixation
(E) Upper femoral displacement osteotomy

Answer: (D)

537. A 65 year old patient who presents 10 days after fracture neck femur is best managed by
(A) Internal fixation
(B) Replacement arthroplasty
(C) Mc Murray’s procedure
(D) Traction for 6 weeks

Answer: (A)

538. Prosthetic replacement of femoral head is usually indicated for
(A) Fresh intracapsular fracture head of femur in old patients
(B) Fresh intracapsular fracture of femoral neck in a young adult
(C) Unreduced posterior dislocation of hip
(D) Untreated femoral neck fracture in a patient over 65 years
(E) Pathological femoral neck fracture due to secondaries

Answer: (D)

539. Treatment of choice for a 4 week old femoral neck fracture in a 55yer old male is
(A) Open reduction and internal fixation
(B) Mac Murray’s osteotomy
(C) Hemi replacement arthroplasty
(D) Total hip replacement

Answer: (C)

540. Prosthesis at head of femur applied in:
(A) 40 years young male with # head of femur
(B) 40 year young male with # neck of femur
(C) 40 year young male with posterior dislocation of hip
(D) 65 year old male with non united fracture neck of femur

Answer: (D)

541. Fractured neck of femur is associated with all except
(A) Causes shortening of the leg
(B) Causes internal rotation of the leg
(C) May be pathological
(D) May be treated with hemiarthroplasty

Answer: (B)

542. Which of the following fractures would best be treated by Open reduction?
(A) Fracture of the femoral shaft of the child
(B) Collies’ fracture
(C) Displaced fracture of the femoral neck
(D) Fracture of humeral shaft

Answer: (C)

543. Trochanteric fracture of femur is best treated by
(A) Dynamic hip screw
(B) Inlay plates
(C) Plaster in abduction
(D) Plaster in abduction and internal rotation

Answer: (A)

544. Prosthetic replacement of femoral head is indicated for one of the following sites of fractures
(A) Inter-trochanteric fracture of femoral neck
(B) Subcapital fracture neck femur
(C) Transtrochanteric fracture femur
(D) Basal fracture of femoral neck

Answer: (B)

545. Mc Murray’s osteotomy is based on the following principle
(A) Biological
(B) Bio mechanical
(C) Bio technical
(D) Mechanical

Answer: (B)

546. Meyer’s procedure is a method for treatment of
(A) Recurrent shoulder dislocation
(B) Habitual dislocation of patella
(C) Congenital dislocation of hip
(D) Fracture neck of femur

Answer: (D)

547. A fracture neck femur in a child is best treated by
(A) Spica in abduction
(B) Spica in abduction + internal rotation
(C) Masterly inactivity
(D) Open reduction and internal fixation

Answer: (B)

548. In a 10 year old male transcervical fracture neck femur is best treated by:
(A) Spica
(B) Austin Moore pins
(C) K-Wires
(D) C.C.screw

Answer: (D)

549. Commonest dislocation of the hip is
(A) Posterior
(B) Anterior
(C) Central
(D) None

Answer: (A)

550. Which is true about dislocation of hip joint?
(A) Posterior dislocation is commoner
(B) In posterior dislocation whole lower limb is rotated medially
(C) In anterior dislocation whole lower limb is rotated laterally
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

551. Flexion, adduction and internal rotation is characteristic posture in
(A) Anterior dislocation of hip joint
(B) Posterior dislocation of hip joint
(C) Fracture of femral head
(D) Fracture shaft of femur

Answer: (B)

552. The attitude of limb in traumatic dislocation of hip joint is
(A) Flexion, adduction, external rotation
(B) Flexion, adduction, internal rotation
(C) Flexion, adduction, and external rotation
(D) Flexion and adduction only

Answer: (B)

553. A patient with hip in adduction and medial rotation and is unable to move probable diagnosis is
(A) Posterior dislocation head of femur
(B) Fracture shaft of femur
(C) Fracture neck of femur
(D) Sciatica

Answer: (A)

554. The pain around the hip with flexion, adduction & internal rotation of lower limb in a young adult after road traffic accident is suggestive of:
(A) Intracapsular fracture of the femoral neck
(B) Extra capsular fracture of the femoral neck
(C) Posterior dislocation of hip
(D) Anterior dislocation of hip

Answer: (C)

555. Traumatic dislocation of hip is characterized by
(A) Adduction internal rotation deformity
(B) Abduction external rotation deformity
(C) Adduction external rotation deformity
(D) Abduction internal rotation deformity

Answer: (A)

556. Dashboard injury results in
(A) Anterior dislocation of hip
(B) Posterior dislocation of hip
(C) Central dislocation of hip
(D) Fracture neck femur

Answer: (B)

557. Vascular sign of Narath is noticed in
(A) Fracture neck of femur
(B) Perthes disease
(C) Posterior dislocation of hip
(D) All of the above

Answer: (C)

558. A 20 year old male, following a road traffic accident was brought to the casualty. His right leg is shortened, internally roated and adducted. The diagnosis is
(A) Fracture neck of femur
(B) Anterior dislocation of the hip
(C) Posterior dislocation of the hip
(D) Trochanteric fracture of the femur

Answer: (C)

559. Post dislocation of hip leas to which attitude of the lower leg:
(A) Adduction, external rotation and flexion
(B) Adduction, internal rotation and flexion
(C) Abduction, external rotation and flexion
(D) Abduction, internal rotation and flexion

Answer: (B)

560. Deformity of posterior dislocation of hip
(A) Flexion, adduction, Internal rotation
(B) Flexion, abduction, external rotation
(C) Extension abduction, Internal rotation
(D) Extension adduction, external rotation

Answer: (A)

561. Maximum shortening of limbs occur in:
(A) Trochantric # femur
(B) Post dislocation of hip
(C) # neck femur
(D) Anterior dislocation of hip

Answer: (B)

562. A 30-year old male was brought to the casually following a road traffic accident. His physical examination revealed that his right lower limb was short, internally rotated, and fixed and adducted at the hip. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Fracture neck of femur
(B) Trochanteric femur
(C) Central fracture dislocation of hip
(D) Posterior dislocation of hip

Answer: (D)

563. Sciatic nerve palsy may occur in the following injury
(A) Posterior dislocation of hip joint
(B) Fracture neck of femur
(C) Trochanteric fracture
(D) Anterior dislocation of hip

Answer: (A)

564. Kumar, a 31 yrs old motorcyclist sustained injury over his Right hip join. X-ray revealed a posterior dislocation of the Right hip joint. The clinical altitude of the affected lower limb will be:
(A) External rotation, extension & abduction
(B) Internal rotation, flexion & adduction
(C) Internal rotation, extension & abduction

(D) External rotation, flexion & abduction


Answer: (B)

565. Pipkin fracture is defined as:
(A) Head of radius fracture
(B) Head of femur fracture
(C) Fracture dislocation of ankle
(D) Fracture neck of femur
(E) Fracture of C6 Spine

Answer: (B)

566. In traumatic injury of the hip:
(A) Anterior dislocation is common
(B) Posterior dislocation is common
(C) Visceral injury usually associated with fracture femur
(D) Open reduction is always necessary

Answer: (B)

567. Following is true in treatment of post, dislocation:
(A) Closed reduction under anaesthesia
(B) Open reduction
(C) Skeletal traction
(D) Soft tissue

Answer: (A)

568. In anterior dislocation of hip, the posture of lower limb will be
(A) Abduction, externally rotated and extension
(B) Abduction, externally rotated and flexion
(C) Abducted externally rotated and flexion
(D) Adducted, internally rotated and flexion

Answer: (B)

569. Flexion, abduction and external rotation with limb length discrepancy is seen in:
(A) Posterior dislocation of hip
(B) Central dislocation of hip
(C) Anterior dislocation of hip
(D) Fracture neck of femur (c)

Answer: (C)

570. Flexion, abduction and external rotation at hip joint with limb length discrepancy is seen in
(A) Fracture neck of femur
(B) Anterior dislocation of hip
(C) Posterior dislocation of hip
(D) None

Answer: (B)

571. Deformity in anterior dislocation of hip is
(A) Ext. rotation, abduction, flexion
(B) Ext. rotation, adduction flexion
(C) Int. rotation, abduction flexion
(D) Int. rotation, adduction flexion

Answer: (A)

572. A 32 year old male presented to the casually with pain in the left hip region following RTA. On examination there is Shortening of left lower limb by 7 cm along with an obvious Flexion and External rotation deformity. A mass is palpable in the left gluteal region which moves with movement of the femur. Most likely X-ray finding would be:
(A) Posterior dislocation of Hip with Neck in full profile
(B) Dislocation of hip with lesser trochanter n full profile
(C) Fracture roof of acetabulum with central dislocation
(D) Acetabular fracture with posterior dislocation of hip

Answer: (B)

573. In per rectal examination, femoral head is palpable in
(A) Anterior dislocation of hip
(B) Posterior dislocation of hip
(C) Central dislocation of hip
(D) Lateral dislocation of hip

Answer: (C)

574. Line joining ant. sup iliac spine to ischial tuberosity and passes a greater trochanter
(A) Nelaton’s line
(B) Showmakers line
(C) Cniene’s line
(D) Perkins line

Answer: (A)

575. Trendelenberg test is positive due to injury to:
(A) Sup gluteal nerve
(B) Inf gluteal nerve
(C) Obutrator nerve
(D) Tibial nerve

Answer: (A)

576. “Trendelenburg sign” is positive in damage of the following nerve :
(A) Inferior gluteal nerve
(B) Pudendal nerve
(C) Superior gluteal nerve
(D) Posterior tibial nerve

Answer: (C)

577. Trendelenbrug’s test positive in all EXCEPT:
(A) Posterior dislocation of hip
(B) Poliomyelitis
(C) # Neck of femur
(D) Tuberculosis of hip joint

Answer: (D)

578. Trendelenberg’s sign is –ve in Inter-Trochanteric fracture because of:
(A) Gluteus medius
(B) Gluteus maximus
(C) Gluteus minimus
(D) Tensor fascia lata

Answer: (D)

579. All of the following names are associated with tests/operations around the h I joint except
(A) Bryant
(B) Shenton
(C) Mc. Murray
(D) Salter
(E) Nelton

Answer: (D)

580. Telescopic test is useful to diagnose
(A) Perthe’s disease
(B) Intracapsular fracture neck of femur
(C) Malunited Trochanteric fracture
(D) Ankylosis of hip joint

Answer: (B)

581. Subrochanteric fractures of femur can be treated by all of the following methods except:
(A) Skeletal traction on Thomas’ splint.
(B) Smith Petersen Nail.
(C) Condylar blade plate.
(D) Ender’s nail.

Answer: (B)

582. The femur is fractured at birth at
(A) Upper third of shaft
(B) Middle third of shaft
(C) Lower third of shaft
(D) Neck region

Answer: (A)

583. In upper one third femoral shaft fracture, the displacement of proximal segment is
(A) Flexion abduction and external rotation
(B) Flexion, adduction and external rotation
(C) Flexion, abduction and internal rotation
(D) Flexion, adduction and internal rotation

Answer: (C)

584. Maximum shortening of lower limb is seen in:
(A) # shaft femur
(B) # Neck femur
(C) # intertochanter
(D) Transcervical #

Answer: (A)

585. Not true about fracture shaft femur in infant is:
(A) Child abuse is commonest cause
(B) Heals rapidly
(C) Traction is all that usually required
(D) Fat embolism is common
(E) Sclera must be examined

Answer: (D)

586. Fracture shaft of femur in children of less than 2 years old is treated by:
(A) Open reduction
(B) External fixation
(C) Gallow’s traction
(D) Closed reduction

Answer: (C)

587. A 3 year old child presents with fracture of femoral shaft had immobilized on traction constantly for two months. The next step of management is:
(A) Hip Spica and if necessary internal fixation
(B) Gallow traction for 2 months
(C) Open reduction and Kuntscher’slover leaf intramedullary nailing or plating
(D) Traction by Thomas splint

Answer: (A)

588. Fracture femur is children is treated by:
(A) Open reduction
(B) Gallow’s splint
(C) Intra medullary nailing
(D) Closed reduction &splintage

Answer: (B)

589. A 4 year old female brought to casualty department with multiple fracture ribs, and inconspicuous history from parents. On examination show multiple bruise and healed fractures. The provable diagnosis is:
(A) Polytrauma for evaluation
(B) Flail chest
(C) Munchausen’ syndrome
(D) Battered baby syndrome

Answer: (D)

590. Fracture of femur at the level of isthmus is best treated by
(A) Intramedullary nail fixation
(B) Plate and screws
(C) Closed method
(D) External fixation

Answer: (A)

591. Intramedullary fixation is ideal in a case of fracture of shaft of femur when there is
(A) A transverse fracture
(B) A compound fracture
(C) Soft tissue interposition between the fractured ends
(D) Such a fracture in a child

Answer: (A)

592. Treatment of choice for old non-united fracture of shaft of femur
(A) Compression plating
(B) Bone grafting
(C) Nailing
(D) Compression plating with bone grafting

Answer: (D)

593. Treatment of Non-union of # shaft femur
(A) Open reduction with external fixation
(B) Excision of the bone
(C) Bone grafting with internal fixation with K-Nail
(D) All of the following.

Answer: (C)

594. Best treatment of 3 weeks old, fracture shaft femur with nonunion is
(A) Bone graft with internal fixation
(B) External fixation
(C) Internal fixation only
(D) Prosthesis

Answer: (A)

595. Fracture shaft of femur in adult unites by
(A) 3 to 4 weeks
(B) 3 to 5 weeks
(C) 3 to 4 months
(D) 3to 6 months
(E) None of these

Answer: (C)

596. Clinical feature of fat embolism includes all except:
(A) Tachypnoea
(B) Systemic hypoxia may occur
(C) Fat globules in urine are diagnostic
(D) Manifests after several days of trauma
(E) Petechaie in the anterior chest wall

Answer: (ALL)

597. True about Post traumatic fat embolism syndrome:
(A) Fracture mobility is a risk factor
(B) Associated diabetes pose a risk
(C) Bradycardia occurs
(D) Thrombocytopenia
(E) On ABG PaO2< 60 mm Hg on FIO2< 0.4

Answer: (A, D, E)

598. True about Post traumatic fat embolism syndrome is A/E
(A) Bradycardial occur
(B) Systemic hypoxia may occur
(C) Fracture mobility is a risk factor
(D) Associated diabetes pose a risk
(E) More common in closed fracture
(F) Liposuction is used for treatment

Answer: (D, F)

599. Factors favoring fat embolism in trauma patient:
(A) Diabetes Mellitus
(B) Mobility of joint
(C) Resp. failure
(D) Hypovolemic shock

Answer: (B, D)

600. Commonest sit of fracture leading to fat-embolism is:
(A) Tibia #
(B) Femur #
(C) Humerus #
(D) Ulna #

Answer: (B)

601. A 30 year old man had road traffic accident and sustained fracture of femur. Two days later he developed sudden breathlessness. The most probable cause can be:
(A) Pneumonia.
(B) Congestive heart failure.
(C) Bronchial asthma.
(D) Fat Embolism.

Answer: (D)

602. A 64 year old hypertensive obsese female was undergoing surgery for fracture femur under general anaesthesia. Intra-operatively her end-tidal carbon dioxide decreased to 20 from 40 mm of Hg. followed by hypotension and oxygen saturation of 85%. What could be the most probable cause?
(A) Fat embolism
(B) Hypovolemia
(C) Brochospasm
(D) Myocardial infarction

Answer: (A)

603. Ramesh sing, a 40 yrs man, was admitted with fracture shaft femur following a road traffic accident. On 2n day he became disoriented. He was found to be tachypnoeic, and had conjunctivalpetechiae.
(A) Pulmonary embolism
(B) Sepsis syndrome
(C) Fat embolism
(D) Hemothorex

Answer: (C)

604. The management of fat embolism includes all of the following except:
(A) Oxygen
(B) Heparinization
(C) Low molecular weight dextran
(D) Pulmonary Embolectomy

Answer: (D)

605. Fat embolism syndrome characterized by :
(A) Tachycardia
(B) Hypoxemia
(C) Fat globules in urine
(D) Thrombocytosis

Answer: (A)

606. True about fat embolism
(A) Seen one week after injury
(B) Patechie
(C) Bradycardia
(D) Tachycardia
(E) ↑ Incidence in multiple #

Answer: (B, D, E)

607. A 22 year old male is admitted with fracture of the left femur. Two days later, he becomes mildly confused, has a respiratory rate of 40/min and scattered petechial rash on his upper torso. Chest X-ray shows patchy alveolar opacities bilaterally. His arterial blood gas analysis is abnormal. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Cerebral oedema with early neurogenic pulmonary oedema
(B) Pulmonary thrombo-embolism
(C) Chest contusion
(D) Fat embolism

Answer: (D)

608. Fat embolism may ensue following
(A) Fracture of spine and ribs
(B) Fractured fibula
(C) Fracture of skull bone
(D) Fracture of long bones only

Answer: (D)

609. Which of the following is true about fat embolism?
(A) Usually ensues after fracture of the lower limb
(B) Uncommon complication of fracture
(C) Spontaneously reversible process
(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

610. After an operation on femur bone, chest X-ray shows widespread mottling throughout the lung field like a snowstorm. It is diagnostic of
(A) Fat embolism
(B) Shock lung
(C) Bronchopneumonia
(D) Atelectasis

Answer: (A)

611. Fat embolism is characterized by
(A) Petechealhaemorrhages
(B) Closed fractures of femur
(C) Aggregation of chylomicrons
(D) Fall in the haemoglobin
(E) Fat globules in sputum & urine

Answer: (ALL)

612. True about fat embolism:
(A) Petechia in the anterior chest wall
(B) Bradycardia
(C) Fat globules in urine
(D) Occurs after 1st week of poly trauma
(E) Thrmbocytopenia

Answer: (A, C, E)

613. A person with multiple injuries develops fever, restlessness, tachycardia, tachypnea and perimumbilical rash. The likely diagnosis is:
(A) Air embolism
(B) Fat embolism
(C) Pulmonary embolism
(D) Bacterial pneumonitis

Answer: (B)

614. In fracture of femur popliteal artery is commonly damaged by
(A) Proximal fragment
(B) Distal fragment
(C) Muscle haematoma
(D) Tissue swelling

Answer: (B)

615. The classical example of muscular violence is
(A) # of fibula
(B) # of patella
(C) # of clavicle
(D) all of the these

Answer: (B)

616. Transverse fracture of the patella with separation of fragments is best treated by
(A) Closed reduction with cylinder cast
(B) Open reduction with screw fixation of the fragments
(C) Blind fixation of the two fragments with Kirschner wire
(D) Open reduction with Kirschner wire fixation of the fragment an tension band wiring

Answer: (D)

617. In transverse fracture of the patella, the treatment is
(A) Excision of a small fragment
(B) Wire fixation
(C) Plaster cylinder
(D) Patellectomy

Answer: (B)

618. A comminuted fracture of the Patella should be treated by
(A) Inserting screws and wires
(B) Physiotherapy alone
(C) Removal of all the patella
(D) Removal of smallest piece only
(E) Plastering & Immobilization

Answer: (C)

619. Treatment of displaced transverse fracture of patella:
(A) POP
(B) Tension band wiring
(C) Screw
(D) Patellectomy

Answer: (B)

620. Displaced transverse # patella, Rx is:
(A) Patellectomy
(B) Tension band wiring
(C) POP cast
(D) Non operative

Answer: (B)

621. Tube (Cylinder) cast s applied for the fracture of –
(A) Shoulder
(B) Hip
(C) Pelvis
(D) Knee

Answer: (D)

622. What is acceptable angulation after reducing the fracture tibia
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20

Answer: (A)

623. In fracture neck of fibula, the following nerve is involved
(A) Common peroneal nerve
(B) Anterior tibial nerve
(C) Posterior tibial nerve
(D) Medial popliteal nerve

Answer: (A)

624. Healing below knee joint is slow because of
(A) Decreased subcutaneous fat
(B) Increased movement
(C) Weight bearing
(D) Poor vascularity

Answer: (D)

625. Non union is a common feature of fracture of
(A) Supracondylar humerus
(B) Clavicle
(C) Lower tibia
(D) Coracoid process

Answer: (C)

626. Patellar tendon bearing P.O.P cast is indicated in the following fracture:
(A) Patella
(B) Tibia
(C) Medial malleolus
(D) Femur

Answer: (B)

627. Which of the following causes acute compartment syndrome most frequently
(A) Fractures
(B) Postischemic swelling
(C) Exercise initiated syndrome
(D) Soft tissue injury

Answer: (A)

628. Compartment syndrome is treated by
(A) Fasciotomy
(B) Bicarbonate
(C) Chloride rich fluid
(D) Early aggressive fluid

Answer: (A)

629. A patient develops compartment syndrome (Swelling, pain and numbness) following manipulation & plaster for fracture of both bones of leg. What is the best treatment?
(A) Split the plaster
(B) Infusion of low molecular wt dextran
(C) Elevate the leg after splitting the plaster
(D) Do operative decompression of fascial compartment

Answer: (D)

630. Characteristic features of the acute compartment syndrome in the lower leg include all of the following except
(A) Acute pain on employing the stretch test
(B) Normal pulses
(C) Normal sensation distally
(D) Venous occlusion

Answer: (C)

631. In posterior compartment syndrome which passive movement causes pain?
(A) Dorsiflexion of foot
(B) Foot inversion
(C) Toe dorsiflexion
(D) Toe planter flexion

Answer: (C)

632. A patient has 2 months POP cast for tibial fracture left leg. Now he needs mobilization with a single crutch. You will use this crutch on which side:
(A) Left side
(B) Right side
(C) Any side
(D) Both side

Answer: (B)

633. The stability of the ankle joint is maintained by all of the following, except
(A) Plantar cancaneonavicular (spring) ligament
(B) Deltoid ligament
(C) Lateral ligament
(D) Shape of the superior talar articular surface

Answer: (A)

634. The most commonly affected component of the lateral collateral ligament complex in an “ankle sprain” is the:
(A) Middle component
(B) Anterior component
(C) Posterior component
(D) Deeper component

Answer: (B)

635. Ankle sprain is due to:
(A) Rupture of anterior talo-fibular ligament
(B) Rupture of poster talo-fibular ligament
(C) Rupture of deltoid ligament
(D) Rupture of Clacaneo-fibular ligament

Answer: (A)

636. Inversion injury at the ankle can cause all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Fracture tip of lateral melleolus
(B) Fracture base of the 5th metatarsal
(C) Sprain of Ext. Digitorumbrevis
(D) Fracture of sustentaculamtali.

Answer: (C)

637. The mechanism of injury of transverse fracture of medial malleolus results due to
(A) Abduction injury
(B) Adduction injury
(C) Rotation injury
(D) Direct injury

Answer: (A)

638. True about Eponymous fractures is A/E
(A) A. Montegia # is # of the proximal third of ulna with radial head dislocation
(B) B. Galeazzi # is # of the distal third of the radius with dislocation of the distal radio-ulnar joint
(C) C. Colles # is # at cortico-cancellous junction of the distal-end of radius with dorsal tilt
(D) D. Potts # Trimalleolar ankle #
(E) E. Bennet’s # is Oblique intra-articular # of the base of the 1st metacarpal

Answer: (D)

639. Cotton’s fracture is
(A) Avulsion fracture of C7
(B) Trimaoleolar
(C) Bimalleolar
(D) Burst fracture of atlas
(E) None of these

Answer: (B)

640. Fracture involving both the malleoli is
(A) Cotton’s fracture
(B) Pott’s fracture
(C) Duputren’s fracture
(D) Dupuytren’s fracture

Answer: (B)

641. Pott’s fracture is fracture of
(A) Lower end of tibia
(B) Lower end of tibia + fibula
(C) Lower end of tibia + Calcaneum
(D) Calcaneum + Talus

Answer: (B)

642. Avascular necrosis is a complication of
(A) Fracture of talus
(B) Fracture of medial condyle of femur
(C) Olecranon fracture
(D) Radial head fracture

Answer: (A)

643. Avascular necrosis is a complication of
(A) Distal fracture both bones leg
(B) Distal fracture fibula
(C) Bimalleolar
(D) Fracture talus

Answer: (D)

644. MC comp. of # talus is
(A) Avascular necrosis
(B) Non union
(C) Osteoarthritis of ankle joint
(D) Osteoarthritis of neck of talus
(E) Non union

Answer: (A)

645. Fracture of talus without displacement in x-ray would lead to:
(A) Osteoarthritis of ankle
(B) Osteonecrosis of head of talus
(C) Avascular necrosis of body of talus
(D) Avascular necrosis of neck of talus
(E) Non union

Answer: (A, C, E)

646. In which type of fracture, the tuber-joint angle is reduced to about half
(A) Crush fracture of calcaneum
(B) Fracture neck of humerus
(C) Dislocation of shoulder
(D) Split fracture of calcaneum

Answer: (A)

647. Giassane’s angle intraarticular fracture of calcaneum:
(A) Reduced
(B) Increased
(C) Not changed
(D) Variable

Answer: (B)

648. Bohler’s angle is decreased in fracture of
(A) Calcaneum
(B) Talus
(C) Navicular
(D) Cuboid

Answer: (A)

649. Bohler angle measurement gives the reference for-
(A) Calcaneus
(B) Talus
(C) Navicular
(D) Cuboid

Answer: (A)

650. Neutral triangle is seen radiologically in:
(A) Neck femur
(B) Proximal humerus
(C) Calcaneus
(D) Talus

Answer: (C)

651. # of calcaneous management depending upon:
(A) Type of fracture
(B) Subtalar joint dislocation
(C) Duration of presentation
(D) Degree of displacement

Answer: (ALL)

652. Calcaneum is associated most commonly with which #
(A) # rib
(B) # vertebrae
(C) # skull
(D) # fibula

Answer: (B)

653. Fall on heel with fracture oscalcis is associated with commonly:
(A) Fracture clavicle
(B) Fracture vertebra
(C) Fracture femur
(D) Posterior dislocation of hip

Answer: (B)

654. Least common complication of fall from height is
(A) Fracture base of skull
(B) Fracture calcaneum
(C) Fracture fibula
(D) Fracture 12th thoracic vertebra

Answer: (C)

655. Fatigue fractures (Stress fractures) are most commonly seen in:
(A) Metatarsals
(B) Tibia
(C) Fibula
(D) Neck of femur

Answer: (A)

656. What type of fracture of petrous temporal bone has got the highest chance of facial nerve paralysis?
(A) Longitudinal
(B) Transverse
(C) Oblique
(D) All have equal incidence

Answer: (B)

657. Motorcyclist’s fracture:
(A) Ring fracture
(B) Comminuted fracture
(C) Separation of suture between anterior and posterior half of skull.
(D) Fracture base of skull

Answer: (A)

658. The commonest cause of spinal cord injuries in our country is:
(A) Road traffic accident
(B) Fall from a height
(C) Fall into well
(D) House collapse

Answer: (B)

659. Dislocation without fracture is seen in:
(A) Sacral spine
(B) Lumbar spine
(C) Cervical spine
(D) Thoracic

Answer: (C)

660. ‘Whip-lash’ injury is caused due to:
(A) A fall from a height
(B) Acute hyperextension of the spine.
(C) A blow on top to head.
(D) Acute hyper flexion of the spine.

Answer: (B)

661. Regarding whiplash injury, a true statement includes
(A) Contusion of the spinal cord and fracture of vertebra
(B) Fracture of vertebral body
(C) Spinal cord injury without vertebral fracture
(D) Vertebral fracture without spinal cord injury

Answer: (C)

662. All are true regarding whiplash injury except
(A) Lumbar spine is commonly involved
(B) Fractures are not common
(C) Paresthesia and chronic pain
(D) Hyperextension injury
(E) Sprains and strains without radiological findings

Answer: (A)

663. Jefferson’s # is:
(A) C1
(B) C2
(C) C2 C1
(D) C2 C3

Answer: (A)

664. Jefferson # is:
(A) # of atlas
(B) # of axis
(C) # of spinous process of C7
(D) # of any cervical vertebra

Answer: (A)

665. All of the following are true about fracture of the atlas vertebra, except:
(A) Jefferson fracture is the most common type.
(B) Quadriplegia is seen in 80% cases.
(C) Atlantooccipital fusion may sometimes be needed.
(D) CT scans should be done for diagnosis.

Answer: (B)

666. Hangman’s fracture is fracture of C2
(A) Dens fracture
(B) Lamina
(C) Pars interarticularis
(D) Spinous process

Answer: (C)

667. True regarding Hangman’s fracture is
(A) Odotoid process fracture of C2
(B) Spondylolisthesis of C2 over C3
(C) Whiplash injury
(D) Fracture of hyoid bone

Answer: (B)

668. Hangman’s fracture is
(A) Subluxation of C5 over C6
(B) Fracture dislocation of C2
(C) Fracture dislocation of ankle joint
(D) Fracture of odontoid

Answer: (B)

669. Regarding Hangman’s fracture true is
(A) High post admission mortality
(B) Most common axis fracture
(C) Surgical treatment is necessary
(D) Union almost always occurs

Answer: (D)

670. Burst fracture of cervical spine is due to
(A) Whiplash injury
(B) Fall of weight on neck
(C) Vertical compression injury
(D) Car accident

Answer: (C)

671. Tear droop fracture of lower cervical spine implies:
(A) Wedge compression fracture
(B) Axial compression fractures
(C) Flexion-rotation injury with failure of anterior body
(D) Flexion compression failure of body

Answer: (D)

672. Most common type of injury to spinal cord is-
(A) Flexon
(B) Extension
(C) Compression
(D) Flexon-rotation

Answer: (D)

673. Burst Fracture of spine is a-
(A) Compression Fracture
(B) Extension injury
(C) Direct injury
(D) Flexion-rotation

Answer: (A)

674. In a Pt. with head injury, unexplained hypotension warrants evaluation of:
(A) Upper cervical spine
(B) Lower cervical spine
(C) Thoracic spine
(D) Lumbar spine

Answer: (B)

675. The compression fracture is commonest in
(A) Cervical spine
(B) Upper thoracic spine
(C) Lower thoracic spine
(D) Lumbosacral region

Answer: (C)

676. Seat belt injury is
(A) Tear drop fracture
(B) Wedge fracture
(C) Chance fracture
(D) Whiplash injury

Answer: (C)

677. Chance fracture is/are
(A) Mainly ligamentous injury
(B) Neurological involvement is common
(C) Flexion compression injury
(D) Seat belt injury

Answer: (D)

678. Spinal shock is associated with:
(A) Increased spinal reflexes
(B) Absent spinal reflexes
(C) Loss of autonomic reflexes
(D) Bizarre reflexes

Answer: (B, C)

679. In spinal shock
(A) Knee jerk is the first reflex to return
(B) High thoracic lesions are commonly associated with more severely associated with more severe neurological deficits
(C) Failure of return of cord activity within 48 hours in a very poor prognostic sign
(D) Both B & C

Answer: (D)

680. Return of Bulbocavernous reflex in spinal shock
(A) Sign of recovery from spinal shock
(B) Partial lesion of spinal cord
(C) Complete transection of spinal cord
(D) Incomplete transection of spinal cord

Answer: (A)

681. Complete transaction of the spinal cord at the C7 level produces all of the following effects except:
(A) Hypotension
(B) Limited respiratory effort
(C) Anaesthesia below the level of the lesion
(D) Areflexia below the level of the lesion

Answer: (D)

682. A 40 years old male after RTA, attains spinal injury. His lower limb power is greater than that of upper limb and sacral sensations are present. Type of spinal cord lesion is:
(A) Central cord syndrome
(B) Anterior cord syndrome
(C) Posterior cord syndrome
(D) Complete spinal cord injury

Answer: (A)

683. A patient presented with Saddle anaesthesia, bladder & bowel are normal and muscle power is normal. The diagnosis is
(A) Cauda equine syndrome
(B) L3-L4 root involvement
(C) Conusmedullaris lesion
(D) L4-L5 disc prolapsed

Answer: (C)

684. Symmetrical areflexicblader bowel & lower limb occur in
(A) Cauda equine syndrome
(B) Conusmedullaris syndrome
(C) Nerve root damage
(D) Brown sequerd syndrome

Answer: (B)

685. Cause of atonic bladder is:
(A) Injury to sacral plexus
(B) Injury to upper thoracic cord
(C) Pregnancy
(D) UTI

Answer: (A)

686. A paralysed bladder following spinal injury is best managed by:
(A) Gibbon’s catheter
(B) Malicot catheter
(C) Foley’s catheter
(D) Metallic catheter

Answer: (C)

687. A patient involved in a road traffic accident presents with quadriparesis, sphincter disturbance, sensory level up to the upper border of sternum and a respiratory rate of 35/minute. The likely level of lesion is
(A) C1-C2
(B) C4-C5
(C) T1-T2
(D) T3-T4

Answer: (B)

688. Wrist flexion and finger extension test the following nerve root.
(A) C6
(B) C7
(C) C8
(D) T1

Answer: (B)

689. Little finger of the hand corresponds to which dermatome?
(A) C6 dermatome
(B) C7 dermatome
(C) C8 dermatome
(D) T1 dermatome

Answer: (C)

690. Which movement is not affected in L5 root involvement
(A) Knee extension
(B) Knee flexion
(C) Toe extension
(D) Thigh adduction

Answer: (D)

691. In case of unconscious patient spinal injury is assessed by
(A) Absence of response to painful stimulus
(B) Absence of deep reflexes
(C) Abdominal respiration
(D) Spinal tenderness

Answer: (A, B, C)

692. Patient develops myelopathy post trauma. What dose of methyl prednisolone is to be given:
(A) 30 mg/kg within 3hrs
(B) 45 mg/kg with 6hrs
(C) 60 mg/kg within 9hrs
(D) 75 mg/kg within 12hrs

Answer: (A)

693. Emergency treatment required in:
(A) Fracture humerus
(B) Fracture pelvis
(C) Vertical compression injury
(D) Car accident

Answer: (C)

694. In spinal cord injury, the patient should be transferred with p ad and bandage in the following position:
(A) Supine
(B) Prone
(C) Lateral
(D) Semi prone

Answer: (A)

695. Position for transport of a patient with fracture lumbar spine in a patient:
(A) Neutral
(B) Hyper flexion
(C) Alternating
(D) Hyperextension

Answer: (A)

696. Careless handling of a suspected case of cervical spine injury may result in:
(A) Injury to the spinal cord leading to quadriparesis or quadriplegia
(B) Intracranial haemorrhage with cerebral imitation or unconsciousness.
(C) Cervical haematoma with compression of brachial vessels
(D) Complete paralysis of the affected upper extremity

Answer: (A)

697. A scooter is hit from behind. The rider is thrown off and he lands with his head hitting the kerb. He does not move, complains of severe pain in the neck and is unable to turn his he ad. Well-meaning onlookers rush up to him and try to make him sit up. What would be the best course of action in this situation?
(A) He should be propped up and given some water to drink
(B) He should not be propped up but turned on his face and rushed to the hospital
(C) He should be turned on his back and a support should be placed behind his neck and transported to the nearest hospital
(D) He should not be moved at all but carried to the nearest hospital in the same position in which he has been since his fall.

Answer: (C)

698. The most important step in primary management of a patient with fracture vertebral column:
(A) Careful transport of patient
(B) Maintenance of airway
(C) Treatment of shock
(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

699. On accident there is damage of cervical spine, first line of management is:
(A) X-ray
(B) Turn head to side
(C) Maintain airway
(D) Stabilize the cervical spine

Answer: (C)

700. Bulbocavernosus reflex is elicited by A/E
(A) Glans pens
(B) Clitoris
(C) Tug of foley catheter
(D) Peri anal

Answer: (D)

701. A young woman met with an accident and had mild quadriparesis. Her lateral X-ray cervical spine revealed C5-C6 fracture dislocation. Which of the following is the best line of management?
(A) Immediate anterior decompression
(B) Cervical traction followed by instrument fixation
(C) Hard cervical collar and bed rest.
(D) Cervical laminectomy.

Answer: (B)

702. Percutaneous vertebroblasty is indicated in all except
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Metastatis
(C) Osteoporosis
(D) Hemangioma

Answer: (A)

703. Substance that is used for vertebroplasty is:
(A) Poly methyl methacrylate
(B) Poly ethyl methacrylate
(C) Poly methyl ethacrylate
(D) Poly ethyl ethacrylate

Answer: (A)

704. Disc prolapse commonly occurs at:
(A) L4-L5
(B) L5-S1
(C) C5-C6
(D) C4-C5
(E) C3-C4

Answer: (A, B)

705. Commonest site of Disc prolapse is
(A) C5-C6
(B) T8-T9
(C) L4-L5
(D) L5-S1

Answer: (C)

706. The most common site of Disc prolapse is
(A) L2-L3
(B) L3-L4
(C) L4-L5
(D) L5-S1

Answer: (C)

707. The most common site for Prolapse of intervertebral disc is
(A) Cervical region
(B) Lower thoracic region
(C) Upper thoracic region
(D) Lumber region

Answer: (D)

708. After L4-S1 the next commonest site of intervertebral disc prolapse is
(A) C6-C7
(B) T12-L1
(C) L1-L2
(D) L2-L3

Answer: (A)

709. The most common cause of acute sciatica is due to
(A) Trauma
(B) Secondaries of spine
(C) Acute prolapsed intervertebral disc
(D) Tuberculosis of spine

Answer: (C)

710. A building contractor suddenly complains of lower backache which increase on bending down. He has
(A) Renal colic
(B) Tuberculosis of spine
(C) Disc prolapse
(D) Fibrositis’

Answer: (C)

711. The most important single special investigation in lumbar disc prolapse is
(A) Epidurography
(B) Myelography
(C) MRI
(D) Discography
(E) Spinal venography

Answer: (C)

712. Management in case of rupture of disc at L5, S1 is
(A) Emergency removal of disc
(B) Joint fusion
(C) Immobilization for 2 weeks with spinal brace
(D) Traction

Answer: (C)

713. A 44-year –old man presented with acute onset of low backache radiating to the right lower limb. Examination revealed SLRT <40° on the right side, weakness of extensor halluces longus on the right side, sensory loss in the first web space of the right foot and brisk knee jerk. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
(A) Prolapsed intervertebral disc L4-5
(B) Spondylolysis L5-S1
(C) Lumbar canal stenosis
(D) Spondylolisthesis L4-5

Answer: (A)

714. A previously healthy 45 years old laborer suddenly develops acute lower back pain with right-leg pain & weakness of dorsiflexion of the right great toe. Which of the following is true:
(A) Immediate treatment should include analgesics muscle relaxants & back strengthening exercises
(B) The appearance of the foot drop indicate early surgical intervention
(C) If the neurological sign resolve with in 2 to 3 weeks but low back pain persists, the proper treatment would include fusion of affected Lumbar vertebra.
(D) If the neurological signs fail to resolve within 1 week, Lumbar laminectomy and excision of any herniated nucleus pulposus should be done.

Answer: (B)

715. A middle aged lady presents with complaints of lower back pain. On examination there is weakness of extension of right great toe with no sensory impairment. An MRI of the lumbosacral spine would most probably reveal a prolapsed intervertebral disc at what level?
(A) L3-L4
(B) L4-L5
(C) L5-S1
(D) S1-S2

Answer: (B)

716. A patient while lifting a heavy weight presents with sudden onset pain in the lower back radiating along the postero-lateral thigh and lateral leg to the big toe with numbness. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) L5 fracture
(B) L3-L4 Disc prolapsed
(C) L4-L5 Dis prolapsed
(D) L5-S1 Disc prolapsed

Answer: (C)

717. Which of the following is not recommended in the treatment of Chronic Low Back Pain:
(A) NSAIDS
(B) Bed Rest for 3 months
(C) Exercises
(D) Epidural steroid Injection

Answer: (B)

718. All of the following are included as y ellow flag sings of low back pain, except:
(A) History of systemic steroids use
(B) Reliance on Passive Treatment
(C) Social Isolation
(D) Belief that back pain is severely disabling

Answer: (A)

719. Athlete is sitting on the edge of table with knees flexed at 90 degree. When he extends his knee fully, what will happen to the tibial tuberosity in relation to patella
(A) No change
(B) Movement of TT towards medial border of patella
(C) Movement of TT towards lateral border of patella
(D) Movement of TT towards centre of patella

Answer: (C)

720. In “Bounce home” test of knee joint, end feel is described as all except?
(A) Bony
(B) Empty
(C) Springy
(D) Firm

Answer: (B)

721. Best diagnostic procedure for ant. Cruciate ligament injury is
(A) Lachman’s test
(B) Pivot shift test
(C) Anterior drawer test
(D) Mc Murray’s test

Answer: (A)

722. Lachman test is positive in
(A) Anterior cruciate ligament injury
(B) Posterior Cruciate ligament injury
(C) Medial meniscus injury
(D) Lateral meniscus injury

Answer: (A)

723. What would be the most reliable test for an acutely injured knee of a 27 year old athlete
(A) Anterior drawer test
(B) Posterior drawer test
(C) Lachman test
(D) Steinmann test

Answer: (C)

724. Which one of the following tests will you adopt while examining a knee joint where you suspect an old tear of anterior cruciate ligament?
(A) Posterior drawer test
(B) Mc Murray test
(C) Lachman test
(D) Pivot shift test

Answer: (C)

725. Which of the following is the SAFEST test to be performed in a patient with acutely injured knee joint?
(A) Lachman test
(B) Pivot shift test
(C) Mc Murray’s test
(D) Apley’s grinding test

Answer: (A)

726. In anterior cruciate ligament tear, which of these tests are positive:
(A) Lachman test
(B) McMurry’s test
(C) Anterior drawer test
(D) Posterior drawer test
(E) Apley’s test

Answer: (A)

727. Drawer sign seen in
(A) Cruciate ligament injury
(B) Scurvy
(C) Perthes’s disease
(D) Hyperparathyroidism

Answer: (A)

728. Positive pivot shift test in knee is because of injury to:
(A) Post cruciate ligament
(B) Ant. Cruciate ligament
(C) Medial collateral ligament
(D) Posterior elbow ligament

Answer: (B)

729. Which activity will be difficult to perform for a patient with an anterior cruciate deficient knee joint?
(A) Walk downhill
(B) Walk uphill
(C) Sit cross leg
(D) Getting up from sitting

Answer: (A)

730. Posterior cruciate ligament-true statement is
(A) Attached to the lateral femoral condyle
(B) Intra synovial
(C) Prevents posterior dislocation of tibia
(D) Relaxed in full flexion

Answer: (C)

731. About posterior cruciate ligament true statement is-
(A) Prevent posterior displacement of Tibia
(B) Attaches to lateral femoral condyle.
(C) Intra synovial
(D) Inserted on medial femoral condyle.

Answer: (A)

732. The pivot test is for
(A) Anterior cruciate ligament
(B) Posterior cruciate ligament
(C) Median meniscus
(D) Lateral meniscus

Answer: (A)

733. A twisting injury of knee in flexed position would result in injury to all except
(A) Meniscal tear
(B) Capsular tear
(C) Anterior cruciate ligament
(D) Fibular collateral ligament