Medical PG Pharmacology

Medical PG Pharmacology

1. ‘First-pass effect’ is seen with which route of administration

(A)  Oral

(B) Sublingual

(C) Intramuscular

(D) Intravenous

Answer: (A)

2. All are α-adrenergic agonists except

(A) Mephentermine

(B) Ritodrine

(C) Methoxamine

(D) Phenylephrine

Answer: (B)

3. All the following affect the metabolism of Theophylline except

(A) Erythromycin

(B) Smoking

(C) Cimetidine

(D) Steroids

Answer: (D)

4. All are side effects of Lisinopril except

(A) Dizziness

(B) Jaundice

(C) Cough

(D) Angioneurotic edema

Answer: (B)

5. Adrenal steroids are contraindicated in all except

(A) Severe hypertension

(B) Osteoporosis

(C) Diabetes mellitus

(D) Cushing’s syndrome

Answer: (D)

6. Which of the following drugs is known to cause vaginal adenocarcinoma in female offspring when given to a pregnant woman?

(A) Chlorpropamide

(B) Progesterone

(C) Diethylstilbestrol

(D) Chloramphenicol

Answer: (C)

7. Which drug has the least anti-cholinergic side-effects?

(A) Imipramine

(B) Doxein

(C) Fluoxetine

(D) Clomipramine

Answer: (C)

8. L-dopa is given along with Carbidopa

(A) To prevent peripheral decarboxylation of L-dopa

(B) To reduce side effects

(C) To increase compliance

(D) To increase half-life

Answer: (A)

9. All the following displace Imipramine from protein binding sites except

(A) Aspirin

(B) Propranolol

(C) Glibenclamide

(D) Lithium

Answer: (D)

10. The dose of Digoxin should be reduced when given along with

(A) Quinidine

(B) Rifampicin

(C) Indomethacin

(D) Antacids

Answer: (A)

11. Rapidly progressive pulmonary fibrosis is seen in

(A) Paracetamol poisoning

(B) Kerosene poisoning

(C) Amiodarone poisoning

(D) Chloroquine toxicity

Answer: (C)

12. A Cardiotoxic drug is

(A) Adriamycin

(B) Cyclophosphamide

(C) 5-FU

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

13. Digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by all except

(A) Phenytoin

(B) Quinidine

(C) Calcium

(D) Verapamil

Answer: (A)

14. Tocainide has the following properties except

(A) Used in ventricular tachycardia

(B) Prolongs APD

(C) Used as lidocaine analogue

(D) Used orally

Answer: (B)

15. Which of the following is the drug of choice for PSVT?

(A) Lignocaine

(B) Verapamil

(C) Flecainide

(D) Tocainide

Answer: (B)

16. Furosemide causes all except

(A) Hyperuricemia

(B) Ototoxicity

(C) Hypercalcemia

(D) Hypokalemia

Answer: (C)

17. All the following are used in Motion sickness except

(A) Cyclizine

(B) Hyoscine

(C) Domperidone

(D) Meclizine

Answer: (C)

18. The commonest side-effect of Cisapride is

(A) Abdominal cramps

(B) Diarrhea

(C) Headache

(D) Convulsions

Answer: (B)

19. Side effects Clofazimine are all except

(A) Skin pigmentation

(B) GI disturbance

(C) Ichthyosis

(D) Anemia

Answer: (D)

20. Mebendazole is used in all of the following except

(A) Hook worm

(B) Round worm

(C) Strongyloides

(D) Trichuris trichura

Answer: (C)

21. The drug inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase in Mycobacteria is

(A) INH

(B) Rifampicin

(C) Ciprofloxacin

(D) Ethionamide

Answer: (B)

22. Which of the following is a common side-effect of Cisplatin?

(A) Diarrhea

(B) Vomiting

(C) Pulmonary fibrosis

(D) Alopecia

Answer: (B)

23. Megaloblastic anemia is a side-effect of long term therapy with

(A) Diazepam

(B) INH

(C) Phenobarbitone

(D) Lithium

Answer: (C)

24. Which analgesic is not used in Acute myocardial infraction?

(A) Morphine

(B) Pentazocine

(C) Pethidine

(D) Buprenorphine

Answer: (B)

25. Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of its

(A) Potency

(B) Safety

(C) Toxicity

(D) Efficacy

Answer: (B)

26. Side-effects of Captopril are all except

(A) Cough

(B) Hyperkalemia

(C) Renal dysfunction

(D) Hemolytic anemia

Answer: (D)

27. Which of the following is not true about enalapril?

(A) It is a pro-drug

(B) It is a di-peptide

(C) It is more effective than captopril

(D) Has less adverse effects

Answer: (B)

28. Which of the following steroids can be administered by inhalation?

(A) Beclomethasone

(B) Betamethasone

(C) Prednisolone

(D) Hydrocortisone

Answer: (A)

29. Which drug causes osteoporosis on long-term use?

(A) Estrogen

(B) Progesterone

(C) GnRH analogues

(D) Warfarin

Answer: (C)

30. Estrogen acts on

(A) Cellular membrane receptors

(B) Cytoplasmic receptors

(C) Nuclear receptors

(D) Mitochondria

Answer: (B)

31. Which of the following is not a catecholamine?

(A) Epinephrine

(B) Norepinephrine

(C) Dopamine

(D) Phenylephrine

Answer: (D)

32. Buprenorphine is a

(A) Partial agonist

(B) Pure antagonist

(C) Agonist-antagonist

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

33. Which of the following is False about Pentazocine?

(A) Decreased vomiting and constipation as compared to morphine

(B) Risk of addiction is less than that with morphine

(C) Risk of addiction is more than that with morphine

(D) It is agonist-antagonist

Answer: (C)

34. Which of the following drugs acts on μ receptors of the CNS?

(A) Morphine

(B) Buprenorphine

(C) Pethidine

(D) Pentazocine

Answer: (A)

35. Which of the following is NOT an inotropic drug?

(A) Dopamine

(B) Isoprenaline

(C) Amrinone

(D) Amiodarone

Answer: (D)

36. Which of the following has the shortest plasma half-life?

(A) Propranolol

(B) Esmolol

(C) Timolol

(D) Atenolol

Answer: (B)

37. Which of the following does not cause thrombocytopenia?

(A) Chlorpropamide

(B) Phenobarbitone

(C) Quinine

(D) Thaizide

Answer: (B)

38. All the following drugs cause pulmonary fibrosis except

(A) Busulfan

(B) Methotrexate

(C) Doxorubicin

(D) Bleomycin

Answer: (C)

39. Which of the following does not cause bradycardia? 

(A) Propranolol

(B) Hydralazine

(C) Clonidine

(D) Reserpine

Answer: (B)

40. All the following are true of cholestyramine except

(A) Are basic ion exchange resins

(B) Cause compensatory increase in HMG CoA reductase activity

(C) May cause constipation, steatorrhea

(D) Patient acceptability is good

Answer: (D)

41. All the following antibiotics act on the cell wall except

(A) Ampicillin

(B) Bacitracin

(C) Cycloserine

(D) Griseofulvin

Answer: (D)

42. Advantages of 3rd generation cephalosporins over 1st and 2nd generation cephalosporins is that they are

(A) β-lactamase sensitive

(B) Not orally administered

(C) Effective against Gram +ve bacteria

(D) Effective against Gram –ve bacteria

Answer: (D)

43. The following are true of fluoroquinolones except

(A) Low toxicity to host cells

(B) DNA-gyrase inhibitors

(C) Effective against Pseudomonas

(D) Rapidly develop resistance

Answer: (D)

44.  The anti-malarial drugs effective in pre-erythrocytic phase in liver are

(A) Proguanil

(B) Chloroquine

(C) Pyrimethamine

(D) Quinine

Answer: (A)

45. Long term use of chloroquine does not lead to

(A) Lichenoid eruptions

(B) Visual deterioration

(C) T wave changes in ECG

(D) Weight gain

Answer: (D)

46. Which of the following statements is False about Acyclovir?

(A) It inhibits DNA synthesis and viral replication

(B) It is effective against influenza

(C) It has low toxicity for host cells

(D) Renal impairment necessitates dose reduction

Answer: (B)

47. All the following antimicrobrial agents are used topically except

(A) Clotrimazole

(B) Griseofulvin

(C) Nystatin

(D) Miconazole

Answer: (B)

48. Which drug does not cross the placental barrier?

(A) Heparin

(B) Warfarin

(C) Lithium

(D) Morphine

Answer: ()

49. The drug of choice in PSVT is

(A) Digoxin

(B) Propranolol

(C) Lignocaine

(D) Adenosine

Answer: (D)

50. Zero order kinetics at a higher dose is seen with

(A) Phenytoin

(B) Heparin

(C) Probenecid

(D) Lithium

Answer: (A)

51. Examples of pro-drug are all except

(A) Levodopa

(B) Omeprazole

(C) Enalapril

(D) Indomethacin

Answer: (D)

52. Lithium monitoring is done because of

(A) Low therapeutic efficacy

(B) Very low therapeutic index

(C) Adverse effects

(D) Long half-life

Answer: (B)

53. All of the following are reversible anticholinesterases except

(A) Physostigmine

(B) Ambenonium

(C) Pyridostigmine

(D) Echothiophate

Answer: (D)

54. Actions of atropine are all except

(A) Bronchoconstriction

(B) Tachycardia

(C) Mydriasis

(D) CNS stimulation

Answer: (A)

55. The following are all true about Ipratropium bromide except

(A) Used by inhalation

(B) ↑ IOP

(C) Dryness of mouth

(D) Scratching in trachea

Answer: (B)

56. Test for myasthenia gravis is

(A) Succinylcholine

(B) Edrophonium

(C) Atracurium

(D) d-Tubocurarine

Answer: (B)

57. If Theophylline is used with Ciprofloxacin

(A) Toxicity of Theophylline increases

(B) Efficacy decreases

(C) Activity of Ciprofloxacin increases

(D) It decreases absorption of Theophylline

Answer: (A)

58. Amongst the following, least glucocorticoid activity is seen with

(A) Fludrocortisone

(B) Dexamethasone

(C) Triamcinolone

(D) Betamethasone

Answer: (C)

59. Flumazenil is

(A) Benzodiazepine antagonist

(B) Benzodiazepine agonist

(C) Adrenergic blocking agent

(D) Cholinesterase inhibiter

Answer: (A)

60. N-acetyl Cysteine is an antidote for poisoning due to

(A) Paracetamol

(B) Dhatura

(C) Aspirin

(D) Propranolol

Answer: (A)

61. Buprenorphine is

(A) Opioid agonist-antagonist

(B) Partial agonist

(C) Pure antagonist

(D) Partial antagonist

Answer: (B)

62. The most common side effect of chronic use of phenothiazines is

(A) Akathisia

(B) Tardive akinesia

(C) Tardive dyskinesia

(D) Muscular dystonia

Answer: (C)

63. Drugs not used in myocardial infarction are

(A) Inhibitors of platelet aggregation

(B) Thrombolytics

(C) Anticoagulants

(D) Inhibitors of Plasminogen activator

Answer: (D)

64. All the following drugs decrease the preload

(A) Glyceryl tri-nitrate

(B) ACE inhibitors

(C) Hydralazine

(D) Sodium nitroprusside

Answer: (C)

65. Food does not interfere in absorption of 

(A) Cimetidine

(B) Ranitidine

(C) Famotidine

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

66. All are examples of gastro-kinetic drugs except

(A) Cisapride

(B) Domperidone

(C) Erythromycin

(D) Ampicillin

Answer: (D)

67. Acetylation is seen in all except

(A) INH

(B) Hydralazine

(C) Procainamide

(D) Phenytoin

Answer: (D)

68. Which of the following is not a hepatotoxic drug?

(A) Ethambutol

(B) Rifampicin

(C) INH

(D) Cycloserine

Answer: (D)

69. All the following drugs are used an Pseudomonas infection except

(A) Pefloxacin

(B) Imipenem

(C) Aztreonam

(D) Vancomycin

Answer: (D)

70. ADH acts on 

(A) Proximal convoluted tubule

(B) Distal convoluted tubule

(C) Loop of Henle

(D) Collecting duct

Answer: (D)

71. All the following are examples of cardiotoxic drugs except

(A) Cyclophosphamide

(B) 5-FU

(C) Adriamycin

(D) Cisplatin

Answer: (D)

72. Sterility is caused by

(A) Vinca alkaloids

(B) Alkylating agents

(C) Antimetabolites

(D) Actinomycin D

Answer: (B)

73. All of the following are calcium channel blockers except

(A) Nimodipine

(B) Verapamil

(C) Flunarizine

(D) Pirenzepine

Answer: (D)

74. Postural hypotension is common with

(A) Prazosin

(B) Labetalol

(C) Sodium Nitroprusside

(D) Captopril

Answer: (A)

75. Pralidoxime acts by :

(A) Reactivating cholinesterase enzyme

(B) Promoting synthesis of cholinesterase

(C) Promoting synthesis of acetylcholine

(D) Direct action on cholinergic receptors

Answer: (A)

76. Clonidine is a :

(A) α₁ selective agonist

(B) α₂ selective agonist

(C) α₁ selective antagonist

(D) α₂ selective antagonist

Answer: (B)

77. Propranolol is indicated in all of the following conditions except :

(A) Thyrotoxicosis

(B) Varient Angina

(C) Migraine

(D) Hypertension

Answer: (B)

78. Anti-Adrenergic drug which crosses the blood-brain barrier minimally is :

(A) Propranolol

(B) Atenolol

(C) Oxprenolol

(D) Alprenolol

Answer: (B)

79. All of the following are features of sympathetic stimulation of heart except :

(A) ↑Contractility

(B) ↑Contractility

(C) ↑Refractory period

(D) ↑Conduction velocity increased

Answer: (C)

80. Antiulcer drug is :

(A) Pirenzepine

(B) Methylcellulose

(C) Ciprofloxacin

(D) Pyrimethamine

Answer: (A)

81. All of the following drugs may be used for motion sickness except :

(A) Hyoscine

(B) Dicyclomine

(C) Domperidone

(D) Scopolamine

Answer: (C)

82. Shortest acting neuromuscular blocking agent is

(A) Pancuronium

(B) Atracurium

(C) Mivacurium

(D) Vecuronium

Answer: (C)

83. Intracranial pressure may be increased by all of the following drugs except :

(A) Hypervitaminosis A

(B) Corticosteroids

(C) Quinolones

(D) Aminoglycosides

Answer: (D)

84. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs acts by the release of the inhibiting transmitter GABA?

(A) Valproic acid

(B) Diazepam

(C) Ethambutol

(D) Phenytoin

Answer: (A)

85. Furesemide and thiazides have similar properties in the following :

(A) Duration of action

(B) Site of action

(C) Effect on urate excretion

(D) Well absorbed orally

Answer: (D)

86. All of the following statements about antiangial action of nitrates are true except :

(A) ↓Myocardial O2 consumption

(B) ↓Both pre and after load

(C) ↑Total coronary flow

(D) Cause favourable redistribution of coronary flow

Answer: (C)

87. Drug of choice in PSVT is :

(A) Verapamil

(B) Propranolol

(C) D.C. shock

(D) Digoxin

Answer: (A)

88. Predominant arteriolar dilators include all of the following except :

(A) Sodium Nitroprusside

(B) Diazoxide

(C) Hydrallazine

(D) Minoxidil

Answer: (A)

89. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is devoid of any central action?

(A) Clonidine

(B) α methyl dopa

(C) Propranolol

(D) Indapamide

Answer: (D)

90. Interstitial nephritis is most commonly seen with :

(A) Methicilline

(B) Ampicilline

(C) Amoxycilline

(D) Cloxacilline

Answer: (A)

91. Maximum amount of Photosensitivity is seen with :

(A) Ciprofloxacin

(B) Ofloxacin

(C) Pefloxacin

(D) Norfloxacin

Answer: (C)

92. Administration of one of the following drug is known to result in neuropsychiatric symptoms :

(A) Rifampcin

(B) Cycloserine

(C) Ethionamide

(D) Cephalosporine

Answer: (B)

93. Oral contraceptive failure may be seen with :

(A) Rifampicin

(B) Cimetidine

(C) Propranolol

(D) Ethambutol

Answer: (A)

94. Most common side effect of 5-Fluoro-uracil is :

(A) G.I. toxicity

(B) Bone marrow depression

(C) Cardiotoxicity

(D) Neurotoxicity

Answer: (A)

95. True statement about Omeprazole is :

(A) It may cause Leomyosarcoma

(B) It is a nitrosource

(C) May induce carcinoid tumours in rats

(D) It is more frequently used by the I.V. route than orally

Answer: (C)

96. Prolonged use of steroids may cause :

(A) Decrease in bone matrix protein

(B) Hypoglycemia

(C) Hypotension

(D) Early healing of wound

Answer: (A)

97. First drug to be used in anaphylactic shock is :

(A) Subcutaneous adranaline

(B) I.V. corticosteroid

(C) Theophylline

(D)  Antihistaminic

Answer: (A)

98. Gynaecomastia may be associated with administration of :

(A) Ranitidine

(B) Cimetidine

(C) Terfenadine

(D) Omeprazole

Answer: (B)

99. All of the following are true about competitive  inhibitor except :

(A) Resembles chemically with the agonist

(B) Bind the same receptors

(C) Reduces potency

(D) Maximum level is not reached by increasing the concentration of the drug

Answer: (D)

100. On higher doses zero order kinetics is seen :

(A) Phenytoin

(B) Propranolol

(C) Lithium

(D) Probenacid

Answer: (A)

101. Gynocostamia may be caused by all except :

(A) Cimetidine

(B) Ranitidine

(C) Ketoconazole

(D) Spironolactone

Answer: (B)

102. Hyperglycemia may be caused by all except :

(A) Nimesulide

(B) Chlorthiazides

(C) Corticosteroids

(D) Theophylline

Answer: (A)

103. All are classified as reversible anticholinesterases except :

(A) Ambenonium

(B) Physostigmine

(C) Pyridostigmine

(D) Echothiophate

Answer: (D)

104. Agent used as a diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis is :

(A) Phentolamine

(B) Edrophonium

(C) Echothiophate

(D) Glucagon

Answer: (B)

105. In treatment of cardiac failure, dobutamine acts by all of the following mechanisms except :

(A) α receptors agonism

(B) β adrenergic receptors agonism

(C) Dopamine receptor agonism

(D) Increasing force of contraction

Answer: (C)

106. Which of the following antiarrhythmics drugs causes prolonged repolarization of ventricles & ERP?

(A) Amiodarone

(B) Propranolol

(C) Verapamil

(D) Quinidine

Answer: (A)

107. All of the following are side effects of Amiodarone except :

(A) Pulmonary fibrosis

(B) Corneal microdeposits

(C) Thyroid dysfunction

(D) Osteoporosis

Answer: (D)

108. Which of the following statements regarding adenosine is not true?

(A) Used in PSVT

(B) Administered as rapid I.V. infection

(C) Has short lived side effects

(D) Disopyramidase increases its therapeutic effect

Answer: (D)

109. Most commonly postural hypotension is seen with :

(A) Prazosin

(B) Nifedipine

(C) Atenolol

(D) ACE inhibitors

Answer: (A)

110. Which of the following drug acts as a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor?

(A) Gemfibrozil

(B) Clofibrate

(C) Lovastain

(D) Probucol

Answer: (C)

111. Low molecular weight haparin therapy is associated with all except :

(A) Less chances of bleeding

(B) Single dose per day

(C) Easy filterability by glomerular capillaries

(D) High biological interaction to plasma proteins

Answer: (D)

112. Which of the following has least glucocorticoid activity :

(A) Fludrocortisone

(B) Dexamethasone

(C) Triamcinolone

(D) Betamethasone

Answer: (C)

113. Flumazenil is a :

(A) Benzodiazepine antagonist

(B) Benzodiazepine agonist

(C) Adrenergic blocking agent

(D) Oplate antagonist

Answer: (A)

114. The most common side effect associated with chronic use of phenothiazines is :

(A) Akethesia

(B) Parkinsonism

(C) Tardivedyskinesia

(D) Muscular dystonia

Answer: (C)

115. All of the following may be seen with Neuroleptic malignant syndrome except :

(A) Hypothermia

(B) Altered consciousness

(C) Muscle rigidity

(D) Involuntary movements

Answer: (A)

116. Tetrahydrocannabinol is the active component of :

(A) Marijuana

(B) LSD

(C) Hashish

(D) Heroin

Answer: (A)

117. Low doeses of aspirin used in myocardial infarction act by :

(A) Inhibiting thromboxane synthetase

(B) Inhibit cyclooxygenase

(C) Releasing EDRF

(D) High protein binding activity

Answer: (B)

118. Following drugs may be used for pseudomonas infection except :

(A) Pefloxacine

(B) Azithromycin

(C) Imipenam

(D) Ceftazidime

Answer: (B)

119. Clindamycin acts by inhibiting :

(A) Protein synthesis

(B) DNA Gyrase

(C) Cell wall synthesis

(D) Lysosomal enzyme

Answer: (A)

120. Albendazole may be for treatment of all of the following conditions except :

(A) Entrobius

(B) Ascariasis

(C) Ankylostoma

(D) Schistosomiasis

Answer: (D)

121. Neostigmine is a :

(A) Primary ammonium compound

(B) Secondary ammonium compound

(C) Tertiary ammonium compound

(D) Quartenary ammonium compound

Answer: (D)

122. Drug of choice in Acute central anticholinergic syndrome  is :

(A) Neostigmine

(B) Physostigmine

(C) Tacrine

(D) 4-amino pyridine

Answer: (B)

123. Selective α1-A blocker is :

(A) Prazosin

(B) Terazosin

(C) Tamsulosin

(D) Indoramine

Answer: (C)

124. β1 selective agonist is :

(A) Terbutaline

(B) Albuterol

(C) Dobutamine

(D) Isoetharine

Answer: (C)

125. All of the following are selective β1 blockers except :

(A) Atenolol

(B) Metoprolol

(C) Labetalol

(D) Betaxolol

Answer: (C)

126. Selegilline is a selective inhibitor of :

(A) MAO-A

(B) MAO-B

(C) Dopamine

(D) Norepinephrine-uptake

Answer: (B)

127. ‘Vigabatrin’ a new antiepileptic agent acts by :

(A) GABA-antagonism

(B) GABA-agonism

(C) NMDA antagonism

(D) Carbonic anhydrase inhibition

Answer: (B)

128. Quinidine is a :

(A) Na⁺channel-blocker

(B) K⁺ channel blocker

(C) Ca⁺⁺ channel blocker

(D) Cl⁻ channel blocker

Answer: (A)

129. All of the following statements are true about nitrates except :

(A) It releases NO

(B) It causes vasodilatation

(C) It decreases A.V. conduction

(D) It has high first pass metabolism

Answer: (C)

130. Dipyridamole acts by :

(A) Adenosine uptake inhibition

(B) Inhibiting thromboxane A₂

(C) Stimulating PGI₂ synthesis

(D) Inhibiting PGI₂ synthesis

Answer: (A)

131. All of the following are examples of bactericidal drugs except :

(A) INH

(B) Rifampicin

(C) Ethambutol

(D) Pyrazinamide

Answer: (C)

132. All of the following are drugs are ATT except :

(A) Kanamycin

(B) Cycloserine

(C) 5-flucytosine

(D) Ofloxacin

Answer: (C)

133. Mechanism of action of erythromycin is interference with:

(A) Transcription

(B) Translation

(C) Translocation

(D) Signal transduction

Answer: (C)

134. Which of the following drugs acts on “motilin” receptors?

(A) Erythromycin

(B) Tetracycline

(C) Norfloxacin

(D) Chloramphenicol

Answer: (A)

135. All of the statements are true about FLUORO QUINOLONES, except :

(A) Suspected of having teratogenic potential

(B) Arthropathy of limb-in children may occur

(C) Increase theophylline toxicity

(D) Increase neuromuscular blocking action

Answer: (D)

136. Differences between action of DEC and Ivermectin in a case of scrotal filariasis is :

(A) DEC acts more effectively on microfilariae than Ivermectin

(B) DEC acts only on micro filariae and Ivermectin acts only on adults

(C) DEC acts on both microfilariae and adults while Ivermectin acts on adults only

(D) DEC acts on adults and Ivermectine on microfilariae

Answer: (D)

137. Cyclosporin acts by inhibiting the proliferation of 

(A) IL₁

(B) IL₂  

(C)  IL₆

(D) Macrophages

Answer: (B)

138. Side-effects of the cis-platinum include all of the following except :

(A) Nausea and vomiting

(B) Nephrotoxicity

(C) Blindness

(D) Ototoxicity

Answer: (C)

139. Milk-Alkali syndrome may  be caused by ingestion of

(A) Calcium carbonate

(B) Magnesium sulphate

(C) Aluminium trisilicate

(D) Aluminium hydroxide

Answer: (A)

140. Pancreatitis is a known side effect with administration of :

(A) L-Asparaginase

(B) Corticosteroid

(C) Cyclophosphamide

(D) Vincristine

Answer: (A)

141. Pulmonary infiltration may be seen with all of the following drugs except :

(A) 5 FU

(B) Bleomycin

(C) Busulphan

(D) Cyclophosphamide

Answer: (A)

142. SLE like syndrome is most commonly associated with administration of :

(A) Rifampicin

(B) Procainamide

(C) Digitalis

(D) Phenytoin

Answer: (B)

143. Alkalinity of urine is done in

(A) Barbiturate poisoning

(B) Lithium toxicity

(C) Alprazolam overdose

(D) Diazepam toxicity

Answer: (A)

144. Adriamycin is classified as

(A) Antibiotic

(B) Antimetabolite

(C) 5-FU antagonist

(D) Vinca alkaloids

Answer: (A)

145. In G-6-P-D- deficiency, which drug does not cause hemolysis?

(A) Rifampicin

(B) Primaquine

(C) Furazolidone

(D) Co-trimoxazole

Answer: (A)

146. The mechanism of action of barbiturate on cerebrum is

(A) Scavenger of radicles

(B) Increase BMR in active area of brain

(C) Acts as Cl⁻ channel complex

(D) Decreased intracranial pressure

Answer: (C)

147. Best used in digoxin induced arrhythmia

(A) Phenytoin

(B) Lignocaine

(C) Quinidine

(D) Procainamide

Answer: (B)

148. Adrenaline cause vaso constriction in all of the following vessels except:

(A) Gut

(B) Cerebral

(C) Cutaneous

(D) Renal

Answer: (B)

149. About acidic drug true is:

(A) Best absorbed in acidic medium

(B) Best absorbed in alkaline medium

(C) Not absorbed in acidic medium

(D) Binds to alpha glycoprotein

Answer: (A)

150. Mebendazole is effective for following except:

(A) Cysticercosis

(B) T.trichuria

(C) Trichinella

(D) Ascaris

Answer: (A)

151. Hepatitis is a side effect of following except:

(A) INH

(B) R-cin

(C) Pyrazinamide

(D) Ethambutol

Answer: (D)

152. Long term use of chloroquine causes A/E

(A) Lichenification

(B) Retinitis pigmentosa

(C) Yellow discoloration of skin

(D) Corneal deposits

Answer: (B)

153. PSVT is best treated by:

(A) Adenosine

(B) Lidocaine

(C) Phenytoin

(D) Quinidine

Answer: (A)

154. Selective alpha 1 antagonists are following except:

(A) Prazosin

(B) Terazosin

(C) Butoxamine

(D) Tamsulosin

Answer: (C)

155. In chronic renal failure which one is contraindicated?

(A) Furosemide

(B) Ethacrynic acid

(C) Triamterene

(D) Bumetanide

Answer: (C)

156. Most powerful coronary vasodilator is :

(A) Adenosine

(B) CO₂

(C) Hypoxia

(D) Hypertension

Answer: (C)

157. Granulomatous hepatitis is caused by:

(A) Allopurinol

(B) Allopurinol

(C) Furazolidone

(D) Amiodarone

Answer: (A)

158. Cromolyn sodium is used for following actions

(A) Mast cell stabilisation

(B) H₁ antihistamine

(C) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

(D) Inhibition of cycloxygenase

Answer: (A)

159. Most common complication of dapsone is:

(A) Hemolysis

(B) Hepatitis

(C) Renal failure

(D) Eczema

Answer: (A)

160. Dosage of drug is determined by following except :

(A) Volume of distribution

(B) Half life

(C) Lipid solubility

(D) Excretion of drug

Answer: (B)

161. Aspirin is given in MI because it:

(A) ↑PT

(B) ↓ TxA2

(C) ↓ histamine

(D) ↑ fibrosis

Answer: (B)

162. Ondansetron acts by inhibiting receptors:

(A) 5 HT

(B) 5 HT₂

(C) 5 HT₃

(D) NE

Answer: (C)

163. Digitalis has inotropic action due to:

(A) Initiation of Na⁺ K⁺ ATPase

(B) Trapping Ca⁺⁺ release

(C) Inhibiting Na⁺ K⁺ ATPase

(D) Increase in intra cellular K⁺

Answer: (A)

164. Max. nicotinic effect is seen with:

(A) Pilocarpine

(B) Carbachol

(C) Bethanechol

(D) Methacholine

Answer: (B)

165. Biguanides acts by following except :

(A) ↑ Insulin release from pancreas

(B) ↑ Glycolysis

(C) ↓ Gluconeogenesis

(D) ↑ Insulin binding to its receptors

Answer: (A)

166. Drug not causing active hepatitis

(A) INH

(B) Methyldopa

(C) Chlorpromazine

(D) Oxyphenacetin

Answer: (C)

167. Glucocorticoids causes :

(A) ↓ osteoid formation

(B) IgF stimulation

(C) ↑ Ca ++ absorption from stomach

(D) Calcification of bone

Answer: (A)

168. True about lactulose is

(A) Blood ammonia

(B) 10% absorbed from gut

(C) Osmotic laxative

(D) Disaccharide of lactose and sucrose

Answer: (C)

169. OCP produces in liver

(A) Cholangio Ca

(B) Adenoma

(C) Cirrhosis

(D) Atrophic changes

Answer: (B)

170. Mannitol when given I/V causes

(A) ↓ Blood viscosity

(B) ↑ Blood viscosity

(C) ↓ GFR

(D) ↑ ICT

Answer: (B)

171. Drug contraindicated in pregnancy:

(A) Clonidine

(B) Enalapril

(C) Methyl dopa

(D) Hydralazine

Answer: (B)

172. Not true about heparin is

(A) Activates antithrombin III

(B) Small unionized molecule are not absorbed orally

(C) Protamine sulphate always used to reverse its action

(D) Release lipoprotein lipase from vessel wall and tissues

Answer: (B)

173. In drug antagonist, 1st event to occur is

(A) Deactivation of receptors

(B) Receptor configuration changes

(C) A & B

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

174. Ketanserin is:

(A) 5 HT 2 reuptake blocker

(B) Antipsychotic

(C) Useful in movement disorder

(D) Anti tussive

Answer: (A)

175. Newer insulins are :

(A) Acidic

(B) Alkaline

(C) Neutral

(D) Monomers

Answer: (C)

176. Amatoxins in mushroom poisoning acts by inhibiting:

(A) DNA

(B) mRNA

(C) Adenosine

(D) G – proteins

Answer: (B)

177. Alpha one stimulation produces:

(A) HR ↑

(B) BP ↑

(C) HR ↓

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

178. Hypothyroidism may be caused by:

(A) Ethionamide

(B) Thiocetazone

(C) Ethambutol

(D) Streptomycin

Answer: (A)

179. Inhibits mitosis by forming microtubules :

(A) Vinca alkaloids

(B) Docetaxel

(C) Etoposide

(D) Colchicine

Answer: (B)

180. Osmotic diuretics cause following excepts:

(A) Inhibit Renin release

(B) ↑ Intravascular volume

(C) Reduce salt reabsorption in ascending limb

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

181. Antiviral agent of choice in a child with bronchiolitis

(A) Vidarbin

(B) Ribavirin

(C) Acyclovir

(D) Amantadine

Answer: (B)

182. Non-myelosuppressive agent is:

(A) Vinblastine

(B) Vincristine

(C) Bleomycin

(D) Methotrexate

Answer: (C)

183. Fluroquinolones acts by inhibiting:

(A) DNA dependent RNA synthetase

(B) Cell wall synthesis

(C) DNA gyrase

(D) Protein synthesis

Answer: (C)

184. Cyclophosphamide is used in all except :

(A) Burkitt’s lymphoma

(B) Hodgkin’s

(C) Choriocarcinoma

(D) Ovarian Ca

Answer: (C)

185. Amantidine acts by action of :

(A) Inhibiting replication

(B) Inhibits mRNA

(C) Inhibits tRNA

(D) Inhibits RNA

Answer: (A)

186. Prostaglandins are not indicted in:

(A) PDA

(B) Labour

(C) Gastric ulcer

(D) Paralytic ileus

Answer: ()

187. All are true of atropine except :

(A) ↑ BP

(B) ↑ HR

(C) ↓ BP

(D) Rubor

Answer: (C)

188. The max effect of a drug is defined by its:

(A) Therapeutic index

(B) Potency

(C) Efficacy

(D) Adversity

Answer: (C)

189. Diplopia, ataxia, gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism are side effect of:

(A) Phenobarbitone

(B) Phenytoin

(C) Carbamazepine

(D) Valproic acid

Answer: (B)

190. In a person with HR = 120, rate is reduced by:

(A) Propranolol

(B) Phentolamine

(C) Phenoxybenzamine

(D) Prazosin

Answer: (A)

191. DOC in tapeworm infestation:

(A) Niridazole

(B) Niclosamide

(C) Albendazole

(D) Praziquantel

Answer: (D)

192. Enalapril acts by :

(A) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibition

(B) Angiotensin receptor blockade

(C) Calcium channel blocker

(D) Direct vasodilation

Answer: (A)

193. Short 1/2 life on thiopentone is due to :

(A) Rapid excretion

(B) Rapid redistribution

(C) Rapid metabolism

(D) All of the above

Answer: (B)

194. Methotrexate is most useful in :

(A) Abruptio placentae

(B) Ectopic pregnancy

(C) Placenta accreta

(D) Trophoblastic disease

Answer: (D)

195. Ganglion blockers act by :

(A) Inhibition of release of acetyl choline

(B) Competing for acetyl choline receptor

(C) Preventing conduction from pre post ganglionic

(D) Inhibition of Ach destruction

Answer: (C)

196. Dale’s vasomotor reversal is due to :

(A) Alpha blocker

(B) Beta blocker

(C) ACH inhibitor

(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

197. NSAID’s are useful  because they inhibit:

(A) Cycloxygenase

(B) Thromboxane

(C) Histamine

(D) 5-HT

Answer: (A)

198. The action of non-competitive muscle blockers is affected by :

(A) Hypocalcemia

(B) Hyponatremia

(C) Hyperthermia

(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

199. Mechanism of action of chloramphenicol is :

(A) Preventing binding of tRNA to ribosome

(B) Polypeptide elongation

(C) Protein chain elongation

(D) Inhibiting cell wall synthesis

Answer: (A)

200. True regarding dose-response curve is :

(A) Cannot determine the potency of a drug

(B) Log dose response curve is sigmoid shaped

(C) Cannot find response to antagonist

(D) A wide range of doses can not be plotted

Answer: (B)

201. The anti-hypertensive contraindicated in pregnancy is :

(A) Enalapril

(B) Hydralazine

(C) Clonidine

(D) Alpha methyldopa

Answer: (A)

202. Mechanism of action of GABA is on :

(A) G protein

(B) Tyrosine kinase

(C) PIP/DAG

(D) 5-HT

Answer: (A)

203. Site of action of amphotericin is :

(A) Cell membrance

(B) Cytoplasm

(C) Neucleus

(D) Protein synthesis

Answer: (A)

204. Aerosolized rivavirin is used in the treatment of bronchiolitis with :

(A) RSV

(B) H.influenza

(C) Pneumococcus

(D) Streptococcus

Answer: (A)

205. Mechanism of action of zidovudine is :

(A) Protein synthesis

(B) Reverse transcriptase inhibition

(C) Nucleic acid synthesis

(D) Cell membrane

Answer: (B)

206. A patient on warfarin was given phenobarbitone. The result would have been :

(A) Increase the dose of warfarin

(B) Decrease the dose of warfarin

(C) Increase the dose of phenobarb

(D) Decrease the dose of phenobarb

Answer: (A)

207. Quinine given to a patient of falciparum malaria caused sweating and palpitation, the likely cause is :

(A) Cinchonism

(B) Hyperglycemia

(C) Hypoglycemia

(D) Hypokalemia

Answer: (C)

208. Zidovudine given for HIV in pregnancy because :

(A) Decreases chance of vertical transmission

(B) Decrease severity of infection in mother

(C) Decrease severity of infection in new born

(D) Cause no benefit

Answer: (A)

209. A young lady on OCP develops severe abdominal pain and frank psychosis. Most likely cause is :

(A) Hysteria

(B) Porphyria

(C) Thrombosis

(D) Mesenteric infarct

Answer: (B)

210. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in :

(A) U/L renal artery stenosis with single kidney

(B) Proteinuria with DM

(C) MI

(D) Hypotension

Answer: (A)

211. Characteristic feature of agonist is :

(A) Has affinity only

(B) Has affinity as well as intrinsic activity

(C) Has intrinsic activity only

(D) Neither has affinity nor activity

Answer: (B)

212. True about metabolism of vitamin D in kidney is:

(A) Conversion of 25 to 1, 25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol

(B) Formation of 25 hydroxylase

(C) Activated form is deactivated

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

213. Digoxin in used in CHF due to :

(A) HOCM

(B) High output failure

(C) AF with high ventricular rate

(D) All of these

Answer: (C)

214. All are used as antidepressants except :

(A) MAOI

(B) Fluoxetine

(C) Chlorpromazine

(D) Imipramine

Answer: (C)

215. Pharmacological defibrillator is :

(A) Adenosine

(B) Bretylium

(C) Lignocaine

(D) Amiodarone

Answer: (B)

216. Drug contraindicated in infectious mononucleosis is :

(A) Ampicillin

(B) Doxycycline

(C) Atropine

(D) Gentamicin

Answer: (A)

217. At pharmacological doses unwanted unavoidable effects are called :

(A) Side effects

(B) Idiosynchrotic reaction

(C) Toxicity

(D) Pharmacogenetics

Answer: (A)

218. True about triamterene is A/E:

(A) Saluretic effect is greater than thiazide

(B) Triamternece is often combined with thiazide

(C) Action is just like amiloride

(D) It is a K⁺ sparing diuretic

Answer: (A)

219. K+ channel opener is :

(A) Verapamil

(B) Nicorandil

(C) Nitroprusside

(D) Amrinone

Answer: (B)

220. Vasomotor reversal of dale seen with :

(A) Alpha blocker

(B) Beta blocker

(C) Alpha agonist

(D) Beta agonist

Answer: (A)

221. Antifolate immunosuppressant is :

(A) 5 FU

(B) Methotrexate

(C) Cyclophosphamide

(D) Cisplatin

Answer: (B)

222. MOA of allopurinol is :

(A) Increases uric acid excretion

(B) Decreases uric acid synthesis

(C) Both (a) and (b)

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

223. Local anaesthetics act by  inhibiting :

(A) Influx of K⁺

(B) Efflux of K⁺

(C) Influx of Na⁺

(D) Efflux of Na⁺

Answer: (C)

224. Cheese reaction with MAO inhibitors is due to:

(A) Guanethidine

(B) Resperpine

(C) Cough remedies

(D) Tyramine

Answer: (D)

225. Mechanism of action of Chloramphenicol :

(A) Binds to 50S subunit

(B) Prevents chain elongation

(C) Misreading of DNA

(D) Binds to nuclear proteins

Answer: (A)

226. FK-506 is used in :

(A) Organ transplant

(B) Bronchial asthma

(C) Diabetic diarrhoea

(D) Chemotherapecutic agent

Answer: (A)

227. Cyt-P-450 is inhibited by :

(A) Phenobarbitone

(B) Cimetidine

(C) Phenytoin

(D) CCl₄

Answer: (B)

228. Gum hyperplasia, hirsutism, granulocytopenia is caused by :

(A) Phenytoin

(B) Carbamazepine

(C) Phenobarbitone

(D) Lamotrigine

Answer: (A)

229. True of tamoxifen :

(A) Binds to estrogen receptors

(B) ↑ estrogen production

(C) ↓FSH production

(D) ↑LH secretion

Answer: (A)

230. Ondansetron :

(A) 5HT₃ – Antagonist

(B) 5HT₃ – Agonist

(C) 5HT₁ antagonist

(D) 5HT1 antagonist

Answer: (A)

231. Displacement of protein bound drug :

(A) ↑↑ free drug plasma level

(B) ↑↑ side effects

(C) ↓free levels

(D) ↓ Effect

Answer: (A)

232. Which is true about Max. distribution?

(A) Highly lipophilic

(B) Blood brain barrier

(C) ↓excretion

(D) ↓ receptors

Answer: (A)

233. AZT has following side effects except :

(A) ↓ platelet

(B) Megaloblastic anemia

(C) Pancreatitis

(D) Cardiomyopathy

Answer: (C)

234. Mechanism of Acyclovir resistance :

(A) Thymidine kinase

(B) DNA – dependent RNA polymerase

(C) ↓ spectrum

(D) ↓ Side effects

Answer: (A)

235. Amoxycillin clavulanic acid  combination :

(A) ↑ spectrum

(B) ↑ 1/2 life of amoxy

(C) ↓ 1/2 life of both

(D) ↑ Side effects

Answer: (A)

236. About the use of nitrates all are true except :

(A) In HOCM-not given

(B) Acute M.I can be given

(C) CHF and acute LVF

(D) Methemoglobinemia

Answer: (D)

237. Which of the following are drug of first choice for cardiogenic shock?

(A) Dopamine

(B) Adrenaline

(C) Mephenteramine

(D) Digoxin

Answer: (A)

238. About plasma expanders all are true except :

(A) Dextran interferes with platelet aggregation

(B) Albumin is have 69 AA

(C) Half life of albumin-15 hours

(D) Amylopectin

Answer: (C)

239. In Aspirin mechanism of action :

(A) Lipooxygenase ↓

(B) Cyclooxygenase

(C) Phospholipase ↓

(D) ↑ Lipoxygenase

Answer: (B)

240. Which prostaglandin is used in NSAID induced ulcer?

(A) Misoprostol

(B) Carboprost

(C) Mirtazapine

(D) Miprinone

Answer: (A)

241. Atropine-mechanism of action in poisoning :

(A) Reactivation of choline-esterase

(B) Acts on central and peripheral post. gaglionic receptors

(C) Acts on central and peripheral cholinergic receptors

(D) Acts on peripheral cholinergic receptors only

Answer: (C)

242. Mechanism of resistance to aminoglycosides :

(A) Produces enzymes

(B) Inactivation of RNA dependent DNA polymerase

(C) Inactivation of RNA

(D) Prevents chain elongation

Answer: (A)

243. Among following least anaphylaxis is seen with :

(A) Streptokinase

(B) Urokinase

(C) Anisolated streptokinase

(D) tPA

Answer: (D)

244. Drug of choice for cardiogenic shock :

(A) Dopamine

(B) Propranolol

(C) Digitalis

(D) Milrinone

Answer: (A)

245. Which antitubercular drug metabolism is under genetic control?

(A) Rifampicin

(B) INH

(C) Cyclosporine

(D) PZM

Answer: (B)

246. Mala-N contains :

(A) Ethinyl estradiol 0.3 mg

(B) Norethisterone 1 mg

(C) D-norgestrol 0.5 mg

(D) D-norgestrol 0.3 mg

Answer: (B)

247. Absolute contraindication to OC pills :

(A) Epilepsy

(B) Migraine

(C) Pregnancy

(D) Thromboembolism

Answer: (D)

248. Antagonist to diazepam  :

(A) Phenargan

(B) Flumazenil

(C) Domperidone

(D) Bromocriptine

Answer: (B)

249. Atropine causes :

(A) Decreased cardiac output

(B) Heart block

(C) Hypertension

(D) Miosis

Answer: (A)

250. Treatment of choice for salmonella typhi :

(A) Cephalexin

(B) Gentamicin

(C) Tetracycline

(D) Ciprofloxacin

Answer: (D)

251. Drug of choice for Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus is (MRSA) :

(A) Amoxicillin-Clavulanate

(B) Vancomycin

(C) Flucloxacillin

(D) Clindamycin

Answer: (B)

252. A patient was started on antihypertensive medications; developed Renal failure, the drug offended is :

(A) Beta-blocker

(B) Alfa-blocker

(C) Calcium channel blocker

(D) ACE inhibitor

Answer: (D)

253. Central muscle relaxants acts by :

(A) Decreased nerve conduction

(B) Inhibits spinal polysynaptic reflexes

(C) Block conduction across NM junction

(D) CNS depression

Answer: (B)

254. Neostigmine :

(A) It is a quartarnary amounium compound

(B) Metabolised in liver

(C) It can cross the blood brain barrier

(D) Prominent effect on smooth muscles

Answer: (A)

255. Morphine cannot given in which of the following route?

(A) IM

(B) Transdermal

(C) Epidural

(D) Subarachnoid

Answer: (D)

256. β-blockers with intrinsic sympathomymetric properties are :

(A) Propranolol

(B) Oxprenolol

(C) Practolol

(D) Esmolol

Answer: (B)

257. Drug safely given in pregnancy :

(A) Antifolate

(B) Quinine

(C) Chloroquine

(D) Primaquine

Answer: (C)

258. Methotrexate causes :

(A) Inhibition of dihydrafolate reductase

(B) Inhibition of folate synthatase

(C) Not absorbed oraly

(D) Folic acid antagonizes it’s toxicity

Answer: (A)

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