Medical PG SPM

Medical PG SPM

1. Kuppuswami’s classification is based on all except

(A) Income

(B) Occupation

(C) Education

(D) Type of house

Answer: (D)

2. Which of the following is a Live vaccine?

(A) Salk polio vaccine


(C) Hepatitis B vaccine

(D) 17-D vaccine

Answer: (D)

3. In Longitudinal studies, which of the following is true?

(A) Easy to conduct

(B) Detects only one risk factor

(C) Determines incidences of disease

(D) Have increased bias

Answer: (C)

4. All of the following are features of Cross-Over studies except

(A) All patients receive the new therapy

(B) Not suitable if drug on interest cures the disease

(C) Not suitable if drug is effective only during a certain stage of disease

(D) Not suitable if disease does not change radically during the study

Answer: (D)

5. Which of the following is true about Secular trend?

(A) Road side accident is a good example

(B) Due to environmental factors

(C) Is due to normally occurring variation in herd immunity

(D) Consistent change in a particular direction over a period of time

Answer: (D)

6. Which of the following is not true of Case-control studies?

(A) Relatively cheap

(B) Relative risk can be calculated

(C) Used for rare disease

(D) Odd’s ratio can be calculated

Answer: B(B)

7. The health status of children between 0 and 4 years in a community will be adversely affected by all except

(A) Malnutrition

(B) Birth weight of less than 2.5 Kg

(C) Maternal hemoglobin 12 gm/dL

(D) Infections

Answer: (C)

8. In a epidemic of Poliomyelitis, the best way to stop spread is by

(A) Injection of killed vaccine

(B) OPV drops to all children

(C) Isolation of cases

(D) Chlorination of all wells

Answer: (B)

9. Chandler index is used for

(A) Ancylostoma duodenale

(B) Ascariasis

(C) Guinea worm infestations

(D) Filariasis

Answer: (A)

10. All of the following are true bout Classical dengue fever except

(A) Case fatality is low

(B) Break bone fever

(C) Positive tourniquet test

(D) It is a self limiting disease

Answer: (C)

11. In India, the vector of Japanese encephalitis is

(A) Aedes, aegypti

(B) Aedes culcifaciens

(C) Culex vishnui

(D) Mansonoides

Answer: (C)

12. Under NMEP, the function of fever depot treatment is

(A) Diagnosis of cases + spraying

(B) Collection of slides + treatment of fever

(C) Treatment of fever cases only

(D) Treatment + slide collection + spraying

Answer: (B)

13. Under the NMEP, the minimum annual blood examination rate should be

(A) 10%

(B) 12%

(C) 14%

(D) 18%

Answer: (A)

14. All of the following are commonly used Filarial indices except

(A) Microfilaria rate

(B) Filarial disease rate

(C) Filarial endemicity rate

(D) Mosquito infection rate

Answer: (B)

15. The safe limit of Fluorine in drinking water is

(A) 0.2-0.5 mg/L

(B) 0.5-0.8 mg/L

(C) 0.8-1.2 mg/L

(D) 1.2-2.0 mg/L

Answer: (B)

16. Rabies can be transmitted by all the following routes except

(A) Aerosol

(B) Bites

(C) Ingestion

(D) Licks

Answer: (C)

17. The number of dose of HDCV for pre-exposure prophylaxis of Rabies is

(A) 1

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) 6

Answer: (B)

18. The following disease require isolation to break transmission except

(A) Measles

(B) Mumps

(C) Chicken pox

(D) Tetanus

Answer: (D)

19. Still birth rate includes babies dead after

(A) 20 weeks

(B) 24 weeks

(C) 28 weeks

(D) 32 weeks

Answer: (C)

20. Protein efficiency ratio is

(A) Gain in weight per unit of protein consumed

(B) Product of digestibility coefficient and biological value divided by 100

(C) Percentage of nitrogen retained out of the nitrogen absorbed

(D) Percentage of protein absorbed after digestion

Answer: (A)

21. Highest biological value of protein is seen in

(A) Egg

(B) Fish

(C) Soyabean

(D) Gram

Answer: (A)

22. In a demographic cycle, Late expanding stage indicates

(A) High birth and death rates

(B) Decreasing DR and stationary BR

(C) Decreasing BR and decreasing DR

(D) Low DR and BR

Answer: (C)

23. Under the registration Act of 1969, Birth should be registered within

(A) 7 days after birth

(B) 20 days after birth

(C) 14 days after birth

(D) 21 days after birth

Answer: (D)

24. All the following are Standards laid down by the Factories Act except

(A) Minimum 500 cubic feet space per worker

(B) Maximum working hours including overtime per week : 60 hours

(C) Defines any factory that employs 10 more workers where power is not used

(D) Prohibition of employment of children below 14 years of age

Answer: (C)

25. Controlled Tipping is a method of disposal of

(A) Sewage

(B) Sullage

(C) Human excreta

(D) Refuse

Answer: (D)

26. Sputum examination for AFB is a type of

(A) Primary prevention

(B) Secondary prevention

(C) Tertiary prevention

(D) Primordial prevention

Answer: (B)

27. Case-control studies are used for

(A) Study of common diseases

(B) Finding multiple risk factors

(C) Finding incidence rates

(D) Finding Relative risk

Answer: (B)

28. Anthropo-zoonosis are all except

(A) Guinea worm infestation

(B) Rabies

(C) Plague

(D) Hydatid cyst

Answer: (A)

29. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease?

(A) Hydatid cyst

(B) Malaria

(C) Filariasis

(D) Dengue fever

Answer: (A)

30. Which vaccine is given earliest? 


(B) Hepatitis


(D) Measles

Answer: (A)

31. Which of the following is false about whooping cough?

(A) Affects children 1 years of age

(B) Contagious in the catarrhal stage

(C) Carriers are the most important source of infection

(D) Secondary attack rate is high

Answer: (C)

32. Contraindications of Pertussis DPT vaccines are all except

(A) Family history of epilepsy

(B) Any febrile illness

(C) Recent history of infectious disease

(D) Children aged below 2 years of age

Answer: (D)

33. In NMEP, the recommendation for an area with API>2 are all except

(A) Presumptive treatment

(B) DDT spraying regularly throughout the year

(C) Epidermiological investigation of all cases

(D) Follow-up of every case for one year and monthly blood smears

Answer: (D)

34. Which of the following is not true about the Tuberculin test?

(A) It is the only tool available for estimating the prevalence of TB in a community

(B) Induration of 10 mm indicates

(C) It is a specific test

(D) New cases occur more commonly in patients who are tuberculin reactors

Answer: (C)

35. Pre-exposure prophylaxis for Rabies with HDVC involves

(A) 3 doses

(B) 5 doses

(C) 6 doses

(D) 4 doses

Answer: (A)

36. Disease in which herd immunity does not protect an individual is

(A) Measles

(B) Tetanus

(C) Polio

(D) Diphtheria

Answer: (B)

37. Disease caused by mite is

(A) Scrub typhus

(B) Fever

(C) Trench fever

(D) Endemic typhus

Answer: (A)

38. Rat flea transmits all the following except

(A) Plague

(B) Salmonellosis

(C) Hymenolopsis

(D) Endemic typhus

Answer: (B)

39. India belongs to which stage of the demographic cycle

(A) Slow stationary

(B) High stationary

(C) Early expanding

(D) Late expanding

Answer: (D)

40. The growth pattern of a population with an annual growth rate of 1.5% to 2.0% is

(A) Slow growth

(B) Moderate growth

(C) Rapid growth

(D) Very rapid growth

Answer: (D)

41. An IQ between 50& 70 would be classified as what kind mental retardation

(A) Mild

(B) Moderaten

(C) Severe

(D) Borderline

Answer: (A)

42. Niacin deficiency in a maize-eating population is due to

(A) High Tryptophan

(B) High Isoleucine

(C) High leucine

(D) High Phenylalanine

Answer: (C)

43. Which of the following drugs is supposed to prevent congenital neural tube defects?

(A) Thiamine

(B) Riboflavin

(C) Folic acid

(D) Pyridoxine

Answer: (C)

44. The earliest change in iron deficiency anemia is

(A) Decreased serum Iron

(B) Decreased serum Ferritin

(C) Decreased TIBC

(D) Decreased Hemoglobin

Answer: (B)

45. The national health policy is based on

(A) Comprehensive health care

(B) Subsidized health care

(C) Socialized medicine

(D) Equitable distribution of health resources

Answer: (A)

46. Two variables can be plotted together in

(A) Pie chart

(B) Histogram

(C) Frequency polygon

(D) Scatter diagram

Answer: (D)

47. The number of degrees of freedom in a table of (4×4) is

(A) 4

(B) 8

(C) 9

(D) 16

Answer: (C)

48. The screening method of choice in an area where the prevalence of leprosy is 1/1000 is

(A) Contact survey

(B) Group survey

(C) Mass survey

(D) Any of the above

Answer: (B)

49. The longest and shortest incubation period of plague are 7 days and 3 days respectively. The time necessary to declare an area free from plague is

(A) 2 days

(B) 5 days

(C) 14 days

(D) 21 days

Answer: (C)

50. All of the following statements are true about Prevalence expect

(A) It is a rate

(B) It includes both new and old cases

(C) Prevalence = Incidence × Duration

(D) Prevalence is of more than one type

Answer: (A)

51. Berkesonian bias refers to

(A) Bias arising from different rates of admission to the hospital

(B) Bias arising from presence of confounding factors

(C) Bias arising from the cases not being representative of the general population

(D) Bias arising from improper selection of cases

Answer: ()

52. Which of the following is true of people participating in a double blind study?

(A) Participant is not aware of the study or the control group

(B) Neither the doctor nor the participants are aware of the group allocation and the treatment received

(C) The participants, the investigator and the person analyzing the data are all blinded

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

53. Which of the following is not a feature of a cross-sectional study?

(A) Not expensive

(B) Observational study

(C) Used for chronic diseases

(D) Well suited for establishing inter-relationships of diseases

Answer: (D)

54. In a case-control study, the most characteristic feature is

(A) Odds ratio estimation

(B) Problem bias

(C) Yield incidence rate

(D) Expensive

Answer: (A)

55. A study of lung carcinoma in non-smokers is

(A) Unifactorial

(B) Multifactorial

(C) Shows that passive smoking also increases the risk of cancer

(D) Shows that bidi-smokers have a higher incidence of lung cancer than cigarette-smokers

Answer: (B)

56. Live attenuated vaccines are all expect


(B) Salk

(C) Sabin

(D) Measles

Answer: (B)

57. True about measles are all expect

(A) Secondary attack rate is 30%

(B) Fever occurs after 7-10 days of infection

(C) Immunity develops after 7 days of vaccination

(D) Single dose of vaccine gives 95% protection

Answer: (A)

58. All the following are true about Diphtheria except

(A) Incubation period-2-6 days

(B) Carriers can be prevented by immunization

(C) Schick test detects susceptibility

(D) Portal of entry is through an infective agent

Answer: (B)

59. The highest incidence of Dracuncliasis is in

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Punjab

(D) Karnataka

Answer: (A)

60. The following statement stands true for Mantoux test

(A) Test is read before 48 hrs

(B) 6-9 mm induration shows maximum chances of developing TB

(C) A positive test does not indicate that the person is suffering from disease.

(D) New cases are more likely to occur in tuberculin negative person than those who already are tuberculin reactos

Answer: (C)

61. The schedule of HDCV in rabies is

(A) 0, 3, 7, 14, 28

(B) 0, 3, 10, 30

(C) 3, 7, 14, 16, 18

(D) 0, 7, 14, 30

Answer: (A)

62. All the following are true about Japanese B Encephalitis except

(A) Man to man transmission is not reported

(B) Culex mosquito is the vector

(C) 90%-100% mortality rate

(D) Cases represent only tip of the iceberg

Answer: (C)

63. Which of the following statements about Q fever is false

(A) Highly infectious zoonotic disease

(B) The mode of transmission is by Inhalation

(C) Arthropods are involved in its transmission to man

(D) There is no rash or local lesion

Answer: (C)

64. Rickettsial disease is transmitted by all expect

(A) Epidemic typhus – Louse

(B) Endemic typhus – Flea

(C) Q-fever – C. burnettii

(D) Rickettsial pox − Tic

Answer: (D)

65. Mite causes

(A) Scrub typhus

(B) Epidermic typhus

(C) Endemic typhus

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

66. The perinatal death rate in India is

(A) Late fetal death (still-birth) + early neonatal death (under 1 week)

(B) Late fetal death (stillbirth) + early neonatal deaths (under 4 weeks)

(C) Late fetal and early death of neonates weighing over 1000g at birth

(D) Late fetal and early death of neonates weighing over 1500g at birth

Answer: (A)

67. Total fertility rate is

(A) Completed family size

(B) Women between 15-45 years

(C) Married women between 15-45 years

(D) Unmarried women between 15-45 years

Answer: (A)

68. Denominator of maternal mortality rate is

(A) 1000 live births

(B) Mid-year population

(C) 1000 total births

(D) Total live births

Answer: (A)

69. Which of the following is true about the child-women ratio?

(A) 0-4 years of children and 15-45 years of unmarried women

(B) 0-5 years of children and 15-49 years of age of married woman

(C) 0-4 year of children and 15-44 years of all women

(D) 0-4 years of children and 20-30 years of married women

Answer: (C)

70. Calorie requirement at 1 year of age is

(A) 800

(B) 1000

(C) 1200

(D) 1500

Answer: (C)

71. BOAA is

(A) Beta-oxalyl amino alanine

(B) Beta-oxalo acetoacetate

(C) Beta-oxalyl aminoacetate

(D) Beta-oxalyl acetylacetate

Answer: (A)

72. In Niacin deficiency, all of the following are seen expect

(A) Deafness

(B) Diarrhea

(C) Dermentia

(D) Dermatitis

Answer: (A)

73. All of the following statements are true about bleaching powder expect

(A) It is a stable compound

(B) Available chlorine is 33%

(C) Has a Rapid and brief action

(D) Recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5 mg at the end of 1 hour

Answer: (A)

74. Confidence limit for a S.D. of 1.96 equals

(A) 63.6%

(B) 66.6%

(C) 95%

(D) 99%

Answer: (C)

75. Weight in Kg is

(A) Normal variable

(B) Discrete variable

(C) Confounding variable

(D) Continuous variable

Answer: (D)

76. All the following are examples of Nominal scale except

(A) Race

(B) Sex

(C) Iris color

(D) Blood pressure

Answer: (D)

77. The most important step in health education of a community is

(A) Contact with doctors

(B) Community discussion

(C) Announcements to the community by loud speakers

(D) Knowledge of local needs

Answer: (D)

78. Which of the following is not a features of Mass-Media education?

(A) Deals with local problems of the community

(B) Easily understandable

(C) Wide approach

(D) More effective than individual or group method

Answer: (D)

79. All of the following statements about cross sectional studies are true except :

(A) Many outcomes are possible

(B) Lesser time is required

(C) Relationship between cause and effect can be established

(D) Less expensive

Answer: (C)

80. True statement about case fatality rate is

(A) It is a ratio

(B) It is a proportion

(C) Numerator is always constant

(D) Numerator and denominator are two separate entities

Answer: (A)

81. Death rates of two countries are best compared by :

(A) Crude death rate

(B) Proportional crude death rate

(C) Standarised mortality rate

(D) Age specific death rate

Answer: (C)

82. All of the following are characteristics of case control study except :

(A) Quick results are obtained

(B) Measures incidence rate

(C) Proceeds from effect to cause

(D) Inexpensive study

Answer: (B)

83. Sensitivity is :

(A) True positive 

(B) True negative 

(C) False negative 

(D) False positive 

Answer: (A)

84. Morbidity is measured by :

(A) Active surveillance 

(B) Passive surveillance 

(C) Sentinel surveillance 

(D) Continuous surveillance 

Answer: (A)

85. Most sensitive index of recent transmission of malaria is :

(A) Spleen rate 

(B) Infant parasite rate 

(C) Annual parasite rate 

(D) Parasite density rate 

Answer: (B)

86. All of the following arboviral infections are prevalent in India except :

(A) Dengue fever 

(B) Westnile fever 

(C) Yellow fever 

(D) Chikungunya

Answer: (C)

87. Epidemiologial features true for Japanese B-encephalitis include all of the following except

(A) The virus infects extra-human hosts 

(B) Man is an incidental host 

(C) Infected pigs manifest symptoms of encephalitis 

(D) Epidemics have been reported in Karnataka 

Answer: (C)

88. True statement about plague is

(A) Vaccine is not used to control epidemic of preneumonic plague 

(B) Most important measure to control epidemic rodent control 

(C) Septicemic plague is highly infectious 

(D) Live attenuated vaccines are used 

Answer: (B)

89. Measures of primary prevention of hypertension include all of the following except :

(A) Weight reduction 

(B) Exercise promotion 

(C) Reduction of salt intake 

(D) Early diagnosis of hypertension 

Answer: (D)

90. Annual growth rate is :

(A) Crude birth rate-crude death rates 

(B) Crude death rate-crude birth rates 

(C) Crude birth rate-crude death rate x 100/crude birth rate 

(D) Crude birth rate-crude death rate X 100/Mid year population 

Answer: (A)

91. The goal of NRR = 1 can  be best achieved by use of following contraceptive methods :

(A) Condom 72/year 


(C) Vasectomy

(D) Oralpills

Answer: (C)

92. According to ICMR the most common cause of infant mortality is :

(A) Prematurity

(B) Diarrhoeal diseases

(C) Congenital anomalies 

(D) Acute respiratory infection 

Answer: (A)

93. All of the following features contribute to high risk babies except :

(A) Babies with working mothers 

(B) Spacing of less than 1 year

(C) Artificial fed babies 

(D) Weight between 70-80% of reference wt. 

Answer: (D)

94. Vitamin B12 is not found in :

(A) Soyabean

(B) Milk

(C) Meat

(D) Fish

Answer: (A)

95. First indices to change in iron deficiency anemia is :

(A) S. iron 

(B) Total iron binding capacity

(C) S. ferritin 

(D) S. haemoglobin concentration 

Answer: (C)

96. Maize are deficient in :

(A) Tryptophan

(B) Threonine

(C) Methionine

(D) Leucine

Answer: (A)

97. According to ICMR project, requirements during lactation include as extra :

(A) 300 Calories 

(B) 550 Calories 

(C) 700 Calories 

(D) 900 Calories 

Answer: (B)

98. Sanguinarine is derived from :

(A) Fusorium incamatum 

(B) Argemone oil 

(C) Jhunjhujia seeds 

(D) Khesari-dhal 

Answer: (B)

99. Mid-day meals provided in schools provide :

(A) 1/2 of total calories & 1/2 of protein 

(B) 1/3 of total calories & 1/2 of protein 

(C) 1/2 of total calories & 1/3 of protein 

(D) 1/3 of total calories & 1/4 of protein 

Answer: (B)

100. All of the following are acceptable criteria for water quality except :

(A) Dissolved O₂ of 5 mg/L 

(B) Nitrates of 1 mg/L 

(C) Nitrites of 5 mg/L 

(D) Free & saline NH₃ of 0.05 mg/L

Answer: (C)

101. Mites are known to transmit :

(A) Scabies

(B) Relapsing fever 


(D) Human babesiosis 

Answer: (A)

102. Malathion is used once every :

(A) 3 months 

(B) 6 months

(C) 9 months 

(D) 12 months 

Answer: (A)

103. Area falling under 2 S.D. curve would be around

(A) 66% 

(B) 95% 

(C) 57% 

(D) 99% 

Answer: (B)

104. Square root mean of deviation is also called as :

(A) Standard deviation 

(B) Standard error 

(C) Mean deviation 

(D) Range

Answer: (A)

105. Health education :

(A) Is health promotion 

(B) Is health distortion 

(C) Is delivered through public health agencies only 

(D) Does not help in prevention of cancer 

Answer: (A)

106. All of the following are components of Epidemiological triad except :

(A) Environment

(B) Agent

(C) Host

(D) Manpower

Answer: (D)

107. All of the following statements regarding ‘prevalence’ are true except :

(A) It is Rate 

(B) It is ratio 

(C) Duration of disease affects ‘prevalence’ 

(D) Numerator and denominator are separate entities 

Answer: (A)

108. All of the following features are true about cross sectional study except :

(A) All cases are seen at one point in time 

(B) Follow up is not a necessary feature 

(C) More useful for chronic disease 

(D) Cause and effect relationship can be established 

Answer: (D)

109. Incidence rate is measured by :

(A) Case control study 

(B) Cohort study 

(C) Cross sectional study 

(D) Cross over study 

Answer: (B)

110. In a cohort study nonsmokers were found to have carcinoma lung. This indicates :

(A) Smoking does not cause lung cancer 

(B) Etiology for lung Ca is multifactorial 

(C) Smoking is the only cause of lung cancer 

(D) Passive smoking also increases lung cancer 

Answer: (B)

111. All of the following features are true about case control study except

(A) Rapid and inexpensive 

(B) No risk to subjects 

(C) Risk factor can be identified 

(D) Less prone to bias 

Answer: (D)

112. All are true about measles except :

(A) Incubation period is 10-14 days 

(B) Secondary attack rate is 30-40% 

(C) Subcutaneous vaccine is available 

(D) Vaccine is live attenuated 

Answer: (B)

113. In rabies, human diploid cell culture vaccine for post-exposure vaccination is given on the following days :

(A) 0, 7, 28 then booster dose 90 days 

(B) 0, 7, 28 then booster dose in 2 years 

(C) 0, 3, 7, 14, 30 then booster dose 90 days 

(D) 0, 3, 7, and booster dose 90 days 

Answer: (C)

114. True statement regarding ‘tuberculine test’ is :

(A) Used for diagnosis of T.B 

(B) Measures incidence of disease 

(C) More than 10 mm induration in 72 hrs indicates positive test 

(D) Measure immunity status 

Answer: (C)

115. Scrub typhus is transmitted by :

(A) Mite

(B) Louse

(C) Flea

(D) Tick

Answer: (A)

116. According to 1991 census family size is :

(A) 2.4 

(B) 3.9 

(C) 4.4 

(D) 5.6 

Answer: (B)

117. True statement about ‘total fertility rate’ is :

(A) Indicates approximate magnitude of completed family size 

(B) Numerator is ‘woman of child bearing age’ 

(C) Numerator is ‘all live births’ 

(D) Numerator is ‘married woman of child bearing age’ 

Answer: (A)

118. Denominator of maternal mortality rate is :

(A) 1000 total births 

(B) Mid year population 

(C) 1000 live births 

(D) Total live births 

Answer: (C)

119. All of the following statements hold true for perinatal mortality rate except :

(A) Deaths of neonate within one weak are included 

(B) Late still births and deaths beyond 28 weeks are included 

(C) Deaths of children weighing more than 1000 gm is are included

(D) ‘Total number of birth’ forms the denominator 

Answer: (D)

120. Most common cause of maternal mortality in India is :

(A) Anemia

(B) Haemorrhage

(C) Sepsis

(D) Abortion

Answer: (B)

121. Minimum duration of developing coal minor pneumoconiasis is :

(A) 2-4 years 

(B) 4-6 years 

(C) 8-10 years 

(D) More than 10 years 

Answer: (D)

122. Preplacement examination in dye industry includes all of the following except :

(A) Anemia

(B) Asthma

(C) Precancerous lession 

(D) Dermatitis

Answer: (A)

123. All of the following statements relating to lung carcinoma and occupation are true except :

(A) Risk is increased 

(B) Takes long time to develop

(C) It takes less time to develop as compare to general population 

(D) It takes more time develop as compare to general population 

Answer: (D)

124. S.D. is 1.96 the confidence limit is :

(A) 63.6% 

(B) 66.6% 

(C) 95% 

(D) 99% 

Answer: (C)

125. Values are arranged in ascending and descending order to calculate :

(A) Mode

(B) Mean

(C) Median

(D) Standard deviation

Answer: (C)

126. For right sided skewed deviation, true statement would be :

(A) Median is smaller than mean 

(B) More outlying observation are smaller than the rest of the values 

(C) “Tail” to the left 

(D) Not affected at all 

Answer: (A)

127. All are included in health sector policy in India except :

(A) Nutritional supplements 

(B) Medical education 

(C) Family welfare programme 


Answer: (A)

128. All are true about bleaching powder except :

(A) Has 33% available chlorine 

(B) Is a Stable compound 

(C) Has a rapid and brief action 

(D) Is used as disinfectant of wells 

Answer: (B)

129. All are gross root level workers except :

(A) Anganwadi workers 

(B) Traditional birth attendent 

(C) Village health guide 

(D) Health assistants 

Answer: (D)

130. All of the following statements are true about mass media education except :

(A) Rapid and speedy 

(B) High reach 

(C) Distorted information 

(D) Meets local community needs 

Answer: (C)

131. Indicators of ‘physical quality of life index’, includes all of the following except :

(A) Infant mortality 

(B) Life expectancy at age one 

(C) Literacy 

(D) Percapita gross national product 

Answer: (D)

132. Best comparision of health status of two population is by :

(A) Crude death rate 

(B) Proportional crude death 

(C) Standarized mortality rate 

(D) Specific death rate 

Answer: (C)

133. Study of time, place and person is called as :

(A) Experimental epidemiology 

(B) Analytical epidemiology 

(C) Descriptive epidemiology 

(D) Randomised controlled trial 

Answer: (C)

134. Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of :

(A) Point source epidemic 

(B) Propagated epidemic 

(C) Continous epidemic 

(D) Modern epidemics 

Answer: (A)

135. Reconstituted measles vaccine should be used with in :

(A) 1 hour 

(B) 3 hour 

(C) 6 hour 

(D) 12 hour 

Answer: (A)

136. The diluents used for BCG is :

(A) Distilled-water 

(B) Normal saline 

(C) Dextrose solution 

(D) Ringer-lactate 

Answer: (B)

137. Active immunization following exposure is given most commonly for :

(A) Rabies

(B) Polio

(C) Plague

(D) Measles

Answer: (A)

138. All of the following rabies vaccines are commercially available except :

(A) Killed sheep brain vaccine 

(B) Human diploid cell vaccine 

(C) Vero continous cell vaccine 

(D) Recombinant glycoprotein vaccine

Answer: (D)

139. Following facts true stand for coronary heart disease in India, except :

(A) CHD presents a decade later than in western countries 

(B) Diabetes mellitus in the commonest cause 

(C) More common in males than females 

(D) Heavy smoking is an etiological factor 

Answer: (A)

140. Commonest cause of infant mortality rate in India is

(A) Prematurity

(B) Diarrhoea

(C) Respiratory infection 

(D) Congenital malformation 

Answer: (A)

141. Extra calorie requirements for a lactating mother are :

(A) 300 Kcal/day 

(B) 400 Kcal/day 

(C) 550 Kcal/day 

(D) 600 Kcal/day 

Answer: (C)

142. Which of the following trace element cannot be completely supplemented by diet in pregnancy?

(A) Fe

(B) Ca⁺⁺ 

(C) Zn

(D) Manganese

Answer: (A)

143. Colostrum is rich in the following constituents as compared to breast milk :

(A) Minerals

(B) Proteins

(C) Fats

(D) Carbohydrates

Answer: (B)

144. The child survival and safe mother hood (CSSM) programme includes all except :

(A) Essential newborn care 

(B) Acute respiratory disease control 

(C) Nutrition supplementation 

(D) Universal immunization 

Answer: (C)

145. In reproductive and child health programme, districts are divided on the basis of

(A) Crude birth rate & infant mortality rate 

(B) Crude birth rate & female literacy rate 

(C) Crude death rate & crude birth rate 

(D) Couple protection rate & infant mortality rate 

Answer: (B)

146. ‘NALGONDA technique’ is used in :

(A) Endemic-fluorosis 

(B) Epidemic-dropsy 

(C) Endemic-ascites 

(D) Neurolathyrism 

Answer: (A)

147. Post contamination of water is indicated by :

(A) Free and saline ammonia 

(B) Dissolved H₂S 

(C) Nitrites

(D) Nitrates

Answer: (D)

148. Osmolality of WHO-ORS is :

(A) 240

(B) 280

(C) 300

(D) 330

Answer: (D)

149. Under the registration act of 1969, Death is to be registered with in :

(A) 7 days 

(B) 14 days 

(C) 21 days 

(D) 28 days 

Answer: (A)

150. Confidence limit includes :

(A) Range & standard deviation 

(B) Median and standard error

(C) Mean and standard error 

(D) Mode and standard deviation 

Answer: (C)

151. 95% of confidence limit exist between :

(A) ±1.S.D 

(B) ±2.S.D 

(C) ±3.S.D 

(D) ±4.S.D 

Answer: (B)

152. Predictive value of a positive test is defined as :

(A) True + ve/true +ve + false –ve × 100 

(B) True + ve/true +ve + false +ve × 100 

(C) False + ve/true + ve + false + ve × 100 

(D) False + ve/true +ve + false –ve × 100 

Answer: (B)

153. Population covered by a PHC in hilly region is :

(A) 20,000 

(B) 30,000 

(C) 40,000 

(D) 25,000 

Answer: (A)

154. Difference between Dispensary and PHC is that a PHC

(A) Gives integrated services 

(B) Is confined to particular area 

(C) Is managed by medical officer 

(D) Is located in rural areas 

Answer: (A)

155. Retrospective evaluation of medical performance is known as :

(A) Medical audit 

(B) Medical evaluation 

(C) Performance evaluation 

(D) Professional screening 

Answer: (A)

156. Sickness benefit under ESI is a available for a period of :

(A) 30 days 

(B) 46 days

(C) 56 days 

(D) 86 days 

Answer: (D)

157. ‘Sanitation barrier’ implies :

(A) Segregation of faeces 

(B) Personal hygiene 

(C) Elimination of flies 

(D) Water pollution 

Answer: (A)

158.  “Hospice” refers to :

(A) Group of professionals who provide counseling to families 

(B) “Colostomy bag” provision by an association of colostomy patient in USAQ 

(C) Euthansia for cancer patient 

(D) Special group of people helping the old and terminally ill patients 

Answer: (D)

Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates:

View Full List ...